Gurukul NTA CUET UG Political Science Question Bank Exam 2024 900+

COPYRIGHT RESERVED BY THE PUBLISHERS
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced

in any form without the prior permission of the Oswal Publishers.
DISCLAIMER
With the ambition of providing standard academic resources, we
have exercised extreme care in publishing the content. In case of
any discrepancies in the matter, we request readers to excuse the
unintentional lapse and not hold us liable for the same.
Suggestions are always welcome.
EDITION : 2023
ISBN : 978-93-92563-00-0
PRINTED AT : Upkar Print House Pvt. Ltd., Agra
PUBLISHED BY
OSWAL PUBLISHERS
Head Office : 1/12, Sahitya Kunj, M.G. Road, Agra – 282 002
Phone : (0562) 2527771-4
Whatsapp : +91 74550 77222
E-mail : [email protected]
Website : www.oswalpublishers.com
The cover of this book has been designed using resources from
Freepik.com
It is a matter of immense pride for us to present our Question Bank

of
Political Science for Section II of CUET (UG), especially
prepared for students appearing for Common University Entrance
Test (UG) in the upcoming years.
This book is ideal for building self-confidence during exam
preparation. The ‘Chapterwise’ format of the book with its
exhaustive set of questions allows the students to cover every
topic in an organised and systematic manner.
The question bank adheres completely to the syllabus prescribed

by NTA. The study material and exercises have been prepared in
order to make students capable of adapting themselves to the
syllabus, pattern, and standard of CUET (UG).
With its simple language and style, this book is perfect for smart
study. We are confident that the book will enable the candidates to
develop a better understanding of the curriculum and help them
organise their learning process. This book shall definitely prove to
be a fruitful tool for the students and encourage them towards
scholastic excellence.
The book contains a QR code given below the content page.
Students can scan the QR code to solve and practice more
questions and sample papers created by experts.
Constructive suggestions for further improvement of the book are

always appreciated.
—Publisher
Part-A: Politics in India since Independence

1. The Era of One-Party Dominance
2. Nation-Building and its Problems
3. Politics of Planned Development
4. India’s External Relations
5. Challenges to and Restoration of Congress System
6. Crisis of the Constitutional Order
7. Regional Aspirations and Conflicts
8. Rise of New Social Movements
9. Democratic Upsurge and Coalition Politics
10. Recent Issues and Challenges
Part-B: Contemporary World Politics
1. Cold War Era In World Politics
2. Disintegration of the Second World and the Collapse of
Bipolarity
3. US Dominance in World Politics
4. Alternative Centres of Economic and Political Power
5. South Asia in the Post-Cold War Era
6. International Organisations in Unipolar World
7. Security in Contemporary World
8. Environment and Natural Resources in Global Politics
9. Globalisation and its Critics
1. Indian National Congress was established in the year:
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1885
(d) 1900
Ans. (c) 1885
2. Who played an important role in the establishment of the
Congress Party?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) A.O. Hume
Ans. (d) A.O. Hume
3. When was first election of Lok Sabha held?
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1952
(d) 1955
Ans. (c) 1952
4. Era of one-party dominance is related to which political
party?
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Bharatiya Jana Sangh
(c) Socialist Party
(d) Communist Party
Ans. (a) Indian National Congress
5. Era of one-party dominance began in the year:
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c) 1950
(d) 1952
Ans. (d) 1952
6. Who among the following said: “One-party dominance
expressed India’s party system more accurately than the term
‘one-party system’”?
(a) Paul R. Brass
(c) Rajni Kothari
(d) Dr. Radha Krishnan
Ans. (c) Rajni Kothari
7. In the first Lok Sabha election held in 1952 the Congress
Party, out of a total of 489 seats won:
(a) 390 seats
(b) 364 seats
(c) 304 seats
(d) 356 seats
Ans. (b) 364 seats
8. Who among the following was appointed as the first Chief
Election Commissioner of free India?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Balram Jhakhar
(c) Sukumar Sen
(d) Shivraj Patil
Ans. (c) Sukumar Sen
9. Total number of seats in Lok Sabha at the time of first
General Election were:
(a) 500
(b) 520
(c) 495
(d) 489
Ans. (d) 489
10. Match the following:
List-A (Leader) List-B (Party)
A. S.A. Dange (i) Bhartiya Jana Sangh
B. Shyama Prasad (ii) Swatantra Party

Mukherjee
C. Minoo Masani (iii) Praja Socialist Party
D. Asoka Mehta (iv) Communist Party of

India
(a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
Ans. (a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
11. The first national elections of the post independence in
India was in the year ______ .
(a) 1952
(b) 1960
(c) 1947
(d) 1968
Ans. (a) 1952
12. Which party won the first National elections in India?
(b) Communist Party of India
(c) It was coalition government
(d) Peoples Democratic Front
Ans. (a) Indian National Congress
13. Which statement about the Congress party is NOT
correct?
(a) It inherited the legacy of the independence movement
(b) Post independence it was the only party that had pan India
reach
(c) It had Nehru - the most charismatic leader
(d) It dissolved after the independence movement
Ans. (d) It dissolved after the independence movement
14. The Indian National Congress won ______ out of 489 seats
in the first election of the Lok Sabha.
(a) 364
(b) 250
(c) 100
(d) 489
Ans. (a) 364
15. Which statement about the first National Elections is NOT
true?
(a) The Communist party of India got 16 seats
(b) The final results of the election surprised many
(c) The state elections were held with the Lok Sabha elections
(d) It was a hung parliament
Ans. (d) It was a hung parliament
16. The Congress Party dominated in how many general
elections?
(a) 10
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 1
Ans. (b) 3
17. In the 1952 elections, what was the percentage of votes
that Congress received?
(a) 45%
(b) 50%
(c) 57%
(d) 10%
Ans. (a) 45%
18. In the first three national elections, Congress won ______
seats.
(a) Three-fourth
(b) Half
(c) No
(d) All of these
Ans. (a) Three-fourth
19. In 1957 state elections, which party formed the
government in Kerala?
(a) CPI-led coalition
(b) Congress
(c) CPI
(d) Jan Sangh
Ans. (a) CPI-led coalition
20. One-party dominance in India was different than in other
countries. How?
(a) In India one-party dominance happened through democratic
processes
(b) In India one-party dominance happened through military
measures
(c) In India one-party dominance happened by compromising
democracy
(d) In India one-party dominance happened by constitutional act
Ans. (a) In India one-party dominance happened through
democratic processes
21. The one-party dominance in India was similar to one-party
dominance in ______ .
(a) South Africa
(b) Italy
(c) China
(d) Malaysia
Ans. (a) South Africa
22. Which statements about the Indian National Congress
(post independence) is TRUE?
(i) It was an all-inclusive party
(ii) It had the ‘first of the block’ advantage
(iii) It was a well organised party
(iv) It had a pan India presence
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
23. The congress party was a ______ party.
(a) Rainbow
(b) Autocratic
(c) Minority
(d) Upper caste
Ans. (a) Rainbow
24. The first decade of Indian politics is described as the
______.
(a) Congress system
(b) Multiparty system
(c) Non-democratic period
(d) Bi-party system
Ans. (a) Congress system
25. Different groups representing different sections of society
within a party are called:
(a) Factions
(b) Divisions
(c) Coalitions
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Factions
26. In the first three elections, when the Congress won the
elections which party came second?
(a) CPI
(b) Janata Party
(c) Swaraj Party
(d) Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party
Ans. (a) CPI
27. The congress party system in India was ______.
(a) One-party dominance
(b) One-party system
(c) Coalition system
(d) Bi-party system
Ans. (a) One-party dominance
28. The Institutional Revolution Party (PRI) is a political party
of which country?
(a) India
(b) Mexico
(c) Canada
(d) Spain
Ans. (b) Mexico
29. Who was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Deen Dayal Upadhyay
(d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Ans. (d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
30. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(i) Swatantra Party was founded in 1959.
(ii) Swatantra Party lid by C. Rajagopalachari, K.M. Munshi, N.G.
Ranga.
(iii) The Swatantra Party wanted the government to be more
involvement in controlling the economy.
(a) Only (i)
(b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) Only (iii)
(d) All of these
Ans. (b) (i) and (ii) only
31. In ________ the Communist Party abandoned the path of
violent revolution and decided to participate in general
election.
(a) 1947
(b) 1951
(c) 1954
(d) 1961
Ans. (b) 1951
32. Which one of the following is a State where Congress was
not in power even after huge victory in the first general
election?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Odisha
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (c) Odisha
33. One of the following guiding principles of the ideology of
Swatantra Party was:
(a) State control economy
(b) Protection of princely state
(c) Autonomy of state with in the union
(d) Economy free from state control
Ans. (d) Economy free from state control
34. The Constitution of India came into effect on the:
(a) 26 November, 1948
(b) 26 November, 1949
(c) 26 January, 1950
(d) 26 January, 1947
Ans. (c) 26 January, 1950
35. When was Election Commission of India set-up:
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c) 1950
(d) 1952
Ans. (c) 1950
36. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner?
(a) Sukumar Sen
(b) Narendra Dev
(c) Vishnu Gopal
(d) Alok Sen
Ans. (a) Sukumar Sen
37. Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding
Baba Saheb Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(a) Leader of Anti-caste Movement
(b) Founder of Independent Labour Party
(c) Founded Scheduled Castes Federation
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
38. When was Congress Socialist Party was formed?
(a) 1930
(b) 1934
(c) 1940
(d) 1944
Ans. (b) 1934
1. Name the leader who played a historic role in negotiating
with the rulers of princely states to join the Indian Union.
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Ramchandra Guha
Ans. (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
2. What is ‘Two Nation Theory’?
(i) Syed Ahmed Khan was the principal architect of two nation
theory.
(ii) According to this theory, a separate state was to be created for
Muslims.
(iii) All political leaders supported this theory.
Identify the correct option.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
Ans. (b) (i) and (ii)
3. Which two languages were spoken in Bombay state before
it was divided in 1950?
(a) Gujarati and Marathi
(b) Gujarati and Hindi
(c) Marathi and Hindi
(d) Hindi and Konkani
Ans. (a) Gujarati and Marathi
4. Which among the following statements about the partition
is not true?
(a) Partition of India was the outcome of the ‘Two Nation Theory’.
(b) Punjab and Bengal were the two provinces divided on the
basis of religion.
(c) East Pakistan and West Pakistan were not contiguous.
(d) The scheme of Partition included a plan for transfer of
population across the border.
Ans. (d) The scheme of Partition included a plan for transfer of
population across the border.
5. _______ princely states consisted at the time of
Independence of India.
(a) 565
(b) 567
(c) 566
(d) 576
Ans. (a) 565
6. Which of the princely state proved more difficult their
merger with the Indian Union.
(a) Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur.
(b) Junagadh, Hyderabad, Rajasthan and Manipur.
(c) Bengal, Hyderabad, Rajasthan and Manipur.
(d) Bengal, Hyderabad, Rajasthan and Junagadh.
Ans. (a) Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur.
7. Which state decided to remain independent in place of
joining India?
(a) Travancore
(b) Bengal
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (a) Travancore
8. In which Congress Session, proposal for linguistic
principles of reorganisation was accepted?
(a) Nagpur Congress Session of 1920
(b) Calcutta Congress Session of 1917
(c) Ahmedabad Congress Session of 1921
(d) Gaya Congress Session of 1922
Ans. (a) Nagpur Congress Session of 1920
9. Which recommendation of the States Reorganisation
Commission of 1953 is incorrect?
(a) To organise states on linguistic basis.
(b) Boundaries of states should also reflect the linguistic aspects.
(c) This Act was passed in 1957.
(d) This Act resulted in creation of 14 States and 6 Union
Territories.
Ans. (c) This Act was passed in 1957.
10. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their
establishment.
(i) State of Chhattisgarh
(ii) State of Mizoram
(iii) State of Himachal Pradesh
(iv) State of Nagaland
(a) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans. (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
11. Which among the following is incorrect about Amritsar
and Kolkata becoming communal zones?
(a) Muslims did not wish to move into area of Hindu majority.
(b) Muslim wished to move into area of Sikh majority.
(c) Hindus did not wish to move into area of Muslim majority.
(d) Sikhs did not wish to move into area of Muslim majority.
Ans. (b) Muslim wished to move into area of Sikh majority.
12. States were recognised on _________ principle in India in
________ to maintain unity and integrity of the nation to avoid
violence and conflict among the people.
(a) Linguistic,1956
(b) Linguistic, 1957
(c) Non-linguistic, 1956
(d) Non-linguistic,, 1967
Ans. (a) Linguistic,1956
13. Which state got divided on bilingual basis?
(a) Bombay
(b) Gujarat
(c) Assam
(d) Meghalaya
Ans. (a) Bombay
14. Which interest among the following was not hidden
behind the conflict between Hindus and Muslims at the time
independence?
(a) Hindu and Muslim communities bear some political interest at
the time of independence.
(b) Muslim League demanded a separate nation for Muslims to
protect the interest of Muslims only.
(c) There were some Hindu organizations also which made efforts
to look after the interest of Hindus only to make India a ‘Hindu
Nation’.
(d) All communities wanted to have separate nation on the basis of
religion.
Ans. (d) All communities wanted to have separate nation on the
basis of religion.
15. The three major problems faced in the process of partition
of India were:
(i) Areas were supposed to be distributed on the basis of religious
majority.
(ii) No single belt of Muslim majority was the part of British India.
They were concentrated in east and west.
(iii) Some Muslim majority areas did not want to be merged with
Pakistan.
(iv) Another problem belonged to majority on both sides of border.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans. (c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
16. Name the movement that demanded a separate province
for Andhra region.
(a) Vishalandhra Movement
(b) Naxal-Maoist Movement
(c) Karbi Longri North Movement
(d) Kamatapur Liberation Movement
Ans. (a) Vishalandhra Movement
17. Whose actions were not liked by extremists in both the
Hindu and Muslim communities and blamed him for their
condition?
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
Ans. (c) Mahatma Gandhi
18. “Tomorrow we shall be free from the slavery of the British
domination. But at midnight India will be partitioned.
Tomorrow will thus be a day of rejoicing as well as of
mourning.” Whose statement was this?
(c) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans. (d) Mahatma Gandhi
19. What is States Reorganisation Commission?
(a) Organisation that sees the documents are signed by rulers of
states when agreed to become a part of Indian Union.
(b) Organisation of Para-military force of Nizam.
(c) Organisation that looks into the matter of redrawing of
boundaries of states.
(d) Organisation of Human Development.
Ans. (c) Organisation that looks into the matter of redrawing of
boundaries of states.
20. What was the basis of the report of States Reorganisation
Commission?
(a) Distribution of boundaries of states on language basis to reflect
linguistic aspect.
(b) Distribution of boundaries of states on religion basis to reflect
religious aspect.
(c) Distribution of boundaries of states on caste basis to reflect
caste aspect.
(d) Distribution of boundaries of states on culture basis to reflect
cultural aspect.
Ans. (a) Distribution of boundaries of states on language basis to
reflect linguistic aspect.
21. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(i) The states of Maharashtra and Gujarat were created in 1960.
(ii) Meghalaya was carved out of Assam in 1972.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans. (c) Both (a) and (b)
22. What was government’s approach towards the integration
of princely states?
(a) Most of the princely states were not willing to join Indian Union
and the government.
(b) The government wanted to accommodate plurality by adopting
flexible approach in dealing with the demand of the region.
(c) The Central government was not concerned towards
integration and consolidation of territorial boundaries of Indian
nation.
(d) The government was not prepared to be flexible in giving
autonomy to some regions.
Ans. (b) The government wanted to accommodate plurality by
adopting flexible approach in dealing with the demand of the
region.
23. Which was the following State became the first to hold an
election based on universal adult franchise to merge in India?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Manipur
(c) Assam
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b) Manipur
24. Which one of the following statement is false?
(a) The formation of Andhra Pradesh spurred the struggle for
making of other states on linguistic lines in other parts of the
country.
(b) The Vishalandhra movement demanded Telugu speaking
areas be separated from the Madras province.
(c) The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1957 which led
to the creation of 14 states and 6 Union Territories.
(d) Democracy was associated with plurality of ideas and ways of
life.
Ans. (c) The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1957 which
led to the creation of 14 states and 6 Union Territories.
25. Which was the first state that was formed on Linguistic
Basis?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (Telugu)
(b) Kerala (Tamil)
(c) Karnataka (Malayalam)
(d) Tamil Nadu ( Kannada)
Ans. (a) Andhra Pradesh (Telugu)
26. What is meant by the Two-Nation theory?
(i) It was advocated by the Muslim League.
(ii) According to this theory, the demand for Pakistan, a separate
country for Muslims was made.
(iii) India is divided on the basis of culture, politics, religion,
economy and society into two communities.
(iv) Hindus and Muslims cannot live peacefully with each other.
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (ii) only
(d) (ii) and (iv) only
Ans. (c) (i) and (ii) only
27. What were the arguments given by Nehru for making India
a secular country?
(i) All Muslims wanted to leave India after partition.
(ii) Jawaharlal Nehru advocated security and democratic rights of
Muslims as citizens of India.
(iii) India’s secular nature cherished its short-term goals and
principles.
(iv) Secularism stops any single faith to become superior and
inferior to those who criticized another religion.
(a) (ii) and (iv) only
(b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (ii) only
(d) (i) and (iii) only
Ans. (a) (ii) and (iv) only
28. Assess the commonly agreed upon goals visualized by
the Indians during the national movement which have been
fulfilled after independence.
(a) There will be a democratic government in the country.
(b) The government will run for the good of all.
(d) Either (a) or (b)
29. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) The immediate challenge infront of newly independent India
was to shape nation that was united.
(ii) At that time it was widely believed that a country with such kind
of diversity could remain together for long.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
30. The Merger Agreement was signed between government
of India and Maharaja of Manipur in the year ___________.
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950
Ans. (c) 1949
31. Consider these statements about the challenge of nation
building for eastern and western regions of the country at the
time of Independence.
Find the wrong statement.
(a) These regions were the Muslim majority provinces to be joined.
(b) It was decided that new country Pakistan will comprise two
territories i.e. West and East Pakistan.
(c) There was no problem of minorities on both sides of border (
East and West).
(d) Lakhs of Hindus and Muslims on the Indian side of Punjab and
Bengal found themselves trapped with no option except to leave
their homes.
Ans. (c) There was no problem of minorities on both sides of
border ( East and West).
32. The most important recommendation of the States
Reorganisation Commission was that boundaries of the
different states should be based upon _________.
(a) language
(b) culture
(c) religion
(d) caste
Ans. (a) language
33. What was the biggest obstacle in nation-building at the
time of India’s Independence?
(a) To unite the nation, establish democracy, development and
refugee problems.
(b) To unite the nation, establish democracy and refugee
problems.
(c) To unite the nation, development and refugee problems.
(d) To establish democracy, development and refugee problems.
Ans. (a) To unite the nation, establish democracy, development
and refugee problems.
34. The main reason for India’s partition was:
(a) Adamant attitude of leaders
(b) Communal riots and disorder
(c) Failure of the Interim Government
35. Even after large-scale migration of Muslims to the newly-
created Pakistan, the Muslim population in India accounted
for ______
per cent of the total population in ______.
(a) 15, 1951
(b) 16, 1951
(c) 12, 1951
(d) 12, 1952
Ans. (c) 12, 1951
36. What was the task of the States Reorganisation
Commission?
(a) It was set up in 1954 by the Central government.
(b) It evolved that States boundaries should reflect the boundaries
of different languages to accommodate linguistic diversity.
(c) The Central Reorganisation Act was passed in 1954.
(d) It advised the Central government to organize states on the
basis of accommodation of their religion.
Ans. (b) It evolved that States boundaries should reflect the
boundaries of different languages to accommodate linguistic
diversity.
37. What are the challenges faced by refugees in refugee
camps?
(i) Human issues: i.e., security of food, drinking water, housing,
etc.
(ii) Social issues: i.e. family ties, neighbours, children, education,
etc.
(iii) Environmental issues: i.e. waste disposal and management.
(iv) Health issues: i.e. sanitary, medicine, doctors, nursery,
hospitals. etc.
Options:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans. (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
38. Choose the number of incorrect argument/arguments
regarding circumstances that led to the accession of
Hyderabad to India.
(i) Hyderabad was the smallest princely state and it was
surrounded by Indian territory.
(ii) Its ruler was one of the world's richest men.
(iii) Nizam wanted an independent status for Hyderabad.
(iv) Hyderabad had a substantial fighting force.
(a) (i) is incorrect.
(b) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect.
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are incorrect.
(d) All are incorrect.
Ans. (a) (i) is incorrect.
39. What was the main recommendation of States
Reorganisation Commission in 1953?
(a) Proper attention should be given to the cultural and
communicative needs of other communities speaking different
languages in a monolingual state.
(b) Linguistic majorities should be well protected.
(c) Attention should be paid to the development of Hindi.
(d) Hindi should be the medium of instruction in universities and
higher training institutes.
Ans. (a) Proper attention should be given to the cultural and
communicative needs of other communities speaking different
languages in a monolingual state.
40. Who was the Gandhian who died by performing an in
definite fast for the creation of separate Andhra?
(a) S. Nijalingappa
(b) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(c) Sriramulu
(d) Abdul Gafar Khan
Ans. (c) Sriramulu
41. Study the following cartoon carefully and answer the
question that follows:
What does this picture symbolize?

(a) Demand for power
(b) Independent state
(c) Equal treatment
(d) Struggle for survival
Ans. (d) Struggle for survival
42. State Reorganisation Act was passed in which year?
(a) 1956
(b) 1957
(c) 1958
(d) 1959
Ans. (a) 1956
43. Study the following map carefully and answer the
question that follows :
The states that were affected by the partition of the country:

(a) Punjab and West Bengal
(b) Punjab and Rajasthan
(c) Assam and West Bengal
(d) Bengal and Rajasthan
Ans. (a) Punjab and West Bengal
1. Which of the following is the economic vision of the right-
wing?
(a) Minimum interference of the government in economic matters.
(b) Maximum interference of the government in economic matters.
(c) Nationalisation of the industries.
(d) Compulsory licensing of the industries.
Ans. (a) Minimum interference of the government in economic
matters.
2. Which type of economy has India adopted?
(a) Capitalistic Economy
(b) Communist Economy
(c) Mixed Economy
(d) Agricultural Economy
Ans. (c) Mixed Economy
3. Which of the following statements is correct concerning
the government of independent India?
(a) It only aimed at economic development of India
(b) It aimed at economic as well as social development of India.
(c) It was inspired by the capitalistic nature of the USA.
(d) It was not influenced by the socialist model of the USSR.
Ans. (b) It aimed at economic as well as social development of
India.
4. The National Planning Committee of 1938 was set up under
the Presidentship of which of the following leaders?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jayprakash Narayan
Ans. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
5. Which of the following statement is true about the Planning
Commission?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is an advisory body.
(d) It is a judicial body.
Ans. (c) It is an advisory body.
6. Which of the following is the correct full form of the NITI
Aayog?
(a) National Integration and Transformation of India
(b) National Institution for Transforming India
(c) National Institute for Technological Innovation
(d) National Integration of Technological Innovation
Ans. (b) National Institution for Transforming India
7. The vision of the Bombay Plan of 1944 was that of
____________.
(a) Planned Economy
(b) Unplanned Economy
(c) Capitalistic Economy
(d) Deregulated Economy
Ans. (a) Planned Economy
8. Which of the following personalities is credited to provide
the first blueprint of economic planning in India?
(a) M. Visvesvaraya
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Acharya Narendra Dev
Ans. (a) M. Visvesvaraya
9. Who among the following acted as the chairperson of the
Planning Commission?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Home Minister
Ans. (b) Prime Minister
10. What was the duration of the first plan that was prepared
by the Planning Commission?
(a) Six years
(b) Five years
(c) Four years
(d) Seven Years
Ans. (b) Five years
11. What is the full form of FICCI?
(a) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industries
(b) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Investment
(c) Federation of Indian Chambers of Collective Industries
(d) Federation of Indian Chambers of Collective Investment
Ans. (a) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and
Industries
12. Choose the odd one out from the following:
(a) Bombay Plan- 1944
(b) Planning Commission- 1950
(c) Second Plan- 1956
(d) Third Plan- 1962
Ans. (d) Third Plan- 1962
13. Consider the following statements about the first five-year
plan in India:
I. It focused on the development of the agriculture sector.
II. Dams and irrigation systems were to be developed under its
vision.
III. Land reforms were not addressed in the plan.
Choose the correct statements.
(a) I and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and II
(d) Only III
Ans. (c) I and II
14. The vision of the second five-year plan was focused on
which of the following sectors?
(a) Service Sector
(b) Industrial Sector
(c) Agricultural Sector
(d) Nuclear Sector
Ans. (b) Industrial Sector
15. Consider the following statements about the ISI, 1931.
I. Its full form is Indian Statistical Institute.
II. It was founded by Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Ans. (c) Both I and II
16. Consider the following statements:
I. The government spent a huge amount of money in buying
technology during the second five-year plan.
II. There was an adequate balance between the industrial and
agriculture sector during the second five-year plan.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
Ans. (a) Only I
17. The second five-year plan was drafted under the
leadership of which of the following personalities?
(a) K. N. Raj
(b) P. C. Mahalanobis
(c) M. Visvesvaraya
(d) Gadgil
Ans. (b) P. C. Mahalanobis
18. The ‘People’s Plan’ of 1945 was prepared by which of the
following?
(a) M. N. Roy
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) John Baptista
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. (a) M. N. Roy
19. The program of ‘New Democratic Initiative’ was launched
by which of the following states?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Telangana
Ans. (b) Kerala
20. Who is the author of the book ‘Economy of Permanence’?
(a) J. C. Kumarappa
(b) P. C. Mahalanobis
(c) M. N. Roy
(d) Sardar Patel
Ans. (a) J. C. Kumarappa
21. Which of these plans was also known as the Gadgil
Yojana?
(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Second Five Year Plan
(c) Third Five Year Plan
(d) Fourth Five Year Plan
Ans. (c) Third Five Year Plan
22. What is the full form of the GDP?
(a) Gross Domestic Product
(b) Gross Divisible Product
(c) Gross Developed Product
(d) Gross Derivative Product
Ans. (a) Gross Domestic Product
23. The planned holiday started from which of the following
years?
(a) 1967
(b) 1966
(c) 1968
(d) 1965
Ans. (b) 1966
24. Consider the following statements about the first two five
year plans in India.
I. They achieved their targets of economic growth.
II. They did not give any importance to the agriculture sector.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
Ans. (a) Only I
25. ‘Sarvodaya Plan’ was prepared by which of the following
personalities?
(a) Jai Prakash Narayan
(b) Acharya Narendra Dev
(c) Ram Manohar Lohiya
(d) Kanshi Ram
Ans. (a) Jai Prakash Narayan
26. The Rourkela Steel Plant is located in which of the
following states?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Odisha
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (b) Odisha
27. The Bhakra Nangal Dam is located in which of the
following states?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (c) Himachal Pradesh
I. The foundation of steel plants, large dams and oil refineries were
laid in the first two five year plans of India.
II. The role of the private sector was highly regulated under these
two plans.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
29. The initiation of the Green Revolution started in which of
the following plans?
(a) Second Five Year Plan
(b) Third Five Year Plan
(c) Fourth Five Year Plan
(d) Fifth Five Year Plan
Ans. (b) Third Five Year Plan
30. Consider the following statements about the land reforms
system in India:
I. The reforms introduced the ceiling limit on the lands possessed
by the big landlords.
II. Tenants were given greater legal security against eviction.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
31. Which of the following reasons contributed to the
situation of acute food shortage in India during the 1960s?
I. War with China and Pakistan.
II. Foreign Exchange Crisis.
III. Low agricultural output in several states.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) only I
Ans. (a) I, II and III
32. India imported a large number of food items especially
wheat from which of the following nations during the food
crisis of the 1960s?
(a) UK
(b) USA
(c) France
(d) China
Ans. (b) USA
33. Who is known as the ‘Milkman of India’?
(a) Verghese Kurien
(b) M.S. Swaminathan
(c) R.N. Kao
(d) E. Sreedharan
Ans. (a) Verghese Kurien
34. Who is known as the ‘Father of Green Revolution in
India’?
(a) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
(b) Dr. Norman Borlaugh
(c) Dr. William Gande
(d) Dr. Verghese Kurien
Ans. (a) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
35. Consider the following statements about Operation Flood:
I. It sought to spread the white revolution in the country.
II. It tried to eliminate the middlemen between the supply chain of
the milk.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
36. In the year 1969, the government of India nationalised how
many private banks?
(a) Fifteen
(b) Fourteen
(c) Thirteen
(d) Twelve
Ans. (b) Fourteen
37. The Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) was started under
which of the following plans?
(a) Fifth Five year Plan
(b) Sixth Five Year Plan
(c) Seventh Five Year Plan
(d) Eighth Five Year Plan
Ans. (a) Fifth Five year Plan
I. The five-year planning has been abolished in India after the
formation of the NITI Aayog.
II. NITI Aayog is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
39. The concept of ‘Rolling Plan’ was introduced by which of
the following governments?
(b) Janata Party
(c) Bharatiya Janata Party
(d) Communist Party of India
Ans. (b) Janata Party
40. Who introduced the LPG model of development in India?
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) V. P. Singh
(c) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(d) Dr. Pranav Mukherjee
Ans. (c) Dr. Manmohan Singh
41. Consider the following statements about imperative
planning:
I. The Central Planning Authority looks after every aspect of
planning for the different sectors of the economy.
II. It is a feature of socialist economies.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
42. The concept of planning in India is mainly inspired by
which of the following parts of the constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General
Ans. (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
43. Which of the following is not part of the Central planning
programme of the government?
I. Five Year Plans
II. Thirty-Point Programme
III. Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme
(MPLADS).
(a) Only I
(b) I and II
(c) Only II
(d) Only III
Ans. (c) Only II
44. Choose the odd one out from the given match the
columns:
(a) NABARD: Agriculture
(b) IRDAI: Insurance
(c) SEBI: Mutual Funds
(d) NBFCs: Financial Regulator
Ans. (d) NBFCs: Financial Regulator
45. Study the picture given below and answer the question
that follows:
The AMUL cooperative was established in which of the

following states?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (b) Gujarat
46. Which of the following is the correct full form of the PDS?
(a) Private Distribution System
(b) Public Distribution System
(c) Public Derivative System
(d) Private Derivative System
Ans. (b) Public Distribution System
1. After the Second World War, two countries emerged as the
superpower blocs. Which countries were these?
(a) United States and Germany
(b) United States and India
(c) Soviet Union and India
(d) United States and the Soviet Union
Ans. (d) United States and the Soviet Union
2. When did India start to frame its foreign policies?
(a) During the freedom struggle
(b) Post-Independence
(c) Second World War
(d) Post Second World War
Ans. (b) Post-Independence
3. Which of these following events was not contemporaneous
to the Cold War period?
(a) establishment of the League of Nations
(b) establishment of the United Nations
(c) the emergence of Communist China
(d) beginning of decolonization
Ans. (a) establishment of the League of Nations
4. Who was the foreign minister of India during the Nehru
government?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) C. Rajagopalachari
Ans. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
5. How many major objectives were taken into account while
framing foreign policies of India during the Nehru
government?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans. (c) 3
6. Which leader thought that India would agree to side with
the US?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. Ambedkar
Ans. (d) Dr. Ambedkar
7. Why was it thought that India would be providing support
to the United States?
(a) The United States helped Indian leaders during the freedom
struggle.
(b) The United States followed a federal structure like India.
(c) The United States claimed to be pro-democracy.
(d) The United States claimed to be pro-communism.
Ans. (c) The United States claimed to be pro-democracy.
8. Who among the following was not a part of the non-
alignment policy?
(b) Gamal Abdel Nasser
(c) Sukarno
(d) Liaquat Ali Khan
Ans. (d) Liaquat Ali Khan
9. When did Britain attacked Egypt?
(a) 1954
(b) 1956
(c) 1968
(d) 1972
Ans. (b) 1956
10. Why did India take an independent stand during the Cold
War?
(a) None of the countries’ ideology matched with that of India’s.
(b) India feared that USSR would win.
(c) India wanted to keep itself away from the military alliances.
(d) The Indian Army was still in the making.
Ans. (c) India wanted to keep itself away from the military
alliances.
(i) Indus Water Treaty is signed by India and China.
(ii) Indus Water Treaty is signed in the year 1960.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) Only (ii)
12. When Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty was signed?
(a) 1958
(b) 1964
(c) 1968
(d) 1978
Ans. (c) 1968
13. Identify the central reason that historically tensions
between India and China:
(a) Suez crisis
(b) Tibetan Plateau
(c) Oil crisis
(d) China supported Pakistan in the Indian freedom struggle
Ans. (b) Tibetan Plateau
14. When was the Panchsheel agreement signed between
India and China?
(a) 1947
(b) 1951
(c) 1949
(d) 1954
Ans. (d) 1954
15. Where did China built a strategic road?
(a) Tibet
(b) Aksai-chin
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan
Ans. (b) Aksai-chin
16. Who among the following was the defence minister in
Nehru’s Cabinet during China's invasion?
(a) V. Krishna Menon
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Amrit Kaur
Ans. (a) V. Krishna Menon
17. Name the Indian diplomat who visited China in the year
1979.
(a) V. Krishna Menon
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) Dr. Ambedkar
Ans. (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
18. What is the full form of CPI?
(a) Capitalist Party of India
(b) Communist Party of India
(c) Congress Party of India
(d) Chinese Political Party of India
Ans. (b) Communist Party of India
19. Which of the following events did not take place after the
Sino-Indian war?
(a) Mizoram was granted statehood.
(b) Nagaland was granted statehood.
(c) Manipur was given the right to elect their own representatives.
(d) Tripura was given the right to elect their own representatives.
Ans. (a) Mizoram was granted statehood.
20. When did the proxy war broke out between India and
Pakistan?
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1952
(d) 1970
Ans. (a) 1947
21. Between which two countries were the Tashkent
Agreement signed?
(a) India and China
(b) India and Japan
(c) India and Indonesia
(d) India and Pakistan
Ans. (d) India and Pakistan
22. When did the Bangladesh war broke out?
(a) 1951
(b) 1971
(c) 1976
(d) 1982
Ans. (b) 1971
23. Which of the following agreements were signed between
Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto?
(a) Non-proliferation Treaty
(b) Kashmir Agreement
(c) Tashkent Agreement
(d) Shimla Agreement
Ans. (d) Shimla Agreement
24. Who was Dalai Lama?
(a) Tibetan spiritual leader
(b) Tibetan political leader
(c) Tibetan tribal leader
(d) Tibetan educationist
Ans. (a) Tibetan spiritual leader
25. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. The cold war considerable unease Indo-US relation during the
1950s.
II. The goal of India’s foreign policy was the preservation of
territorial integrity.
III. India’s relationship with its neighbours was strained since time
immemorial.
IV. The treaty of Peace and Friendship in 1971 was the result of
India's closeness to USA.
Options:
(a) Only IV is true
(b) Both I and II are true
(c) Both III and IV are true
(d) None of the statements are true
Ans. (b) Both I and II are true
26. Which article of the Indian Constitution lays down some
Directive Principles of State Policy on ‘Promotion of
international Peace and Security’?
(a) Article 51
(b) Article 52
(c) Article 53
(d) Article 54
Ans. (a) Article 51
A. First Summit of NAM (i) 1954
B. Bandung Conference (ii) 1955
C. Asian Relations Conference (iii) 1947
D. Panchsheel (iv) 1961

(a) A. (i), B. (iii), C. (iv), D. (ii)
(b) A. (iv), B. (ii), C. (iii), D. (i)
(c) A. (ii), B. (iv), C. (i), D. (iii)
(d) A. (iii), B. (i), C. (ii), D. (iv)
Ans. (b) A. (iv), B. (ii), C. (iii), D. (i)
28. In which year India conducted a series of nuclear tests?
(a) 1995
(b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1998
Ans. (d) 1998
29. Who was arrested by the Pakistani army in the year 1971?
(a) Sheikh Abdullah
(b) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
(c) Sheikh Hasina
(d) Ziaur Rahman
Ans. (b) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
30. Who among the following was the first Indian Prime
minister to visit China after Jawaharlal Nehru?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) Narendra Modi
Ans. (b) Rajiv Gandhi
31. What is the Hindi film 'Haqeeqat' all about?
(a) Biopic of Indira Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru's government
(c) Bangladesh war of 1971
(d) China war of 1962
Ans. (d) China war of 1962
32. What is the full form of CTBT?
(a) Complete Test Ban Treaty
(b) Comprehensive Test Benefit Treaty
(c) Configuration Test Ban Treaty
(d) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
Ans. (d) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
A. Department of Defence Production (i) 1962
B. Department of Defence Supplies (ii) 1969
C. The Third Plan (iii) 1965
D. The Fourth Plan (iv) 1961

(a) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(b) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
Ans. (a) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
34. In which of the decades did India face three wars?
(a) 1947-1957
(b) 1952-1961
(c) 1962-1971
(d) 1971-1981
Ans. (c) 1962-1971
35. Why did India refuse to sign the NPT?
(a) India was not willing to conduct nuclear tests.
(b) It was discriminatory.
(c) It disregarded India’s status as an independent country.
(d) It only benefited the United States.
Ans. (b) It was discriminatory.
36. India had a Kargil conflict with Pakistan in the year:
(a) 1999
(b) 1971
(c) 1964
(d) 1976
Ans. (a) 1999
37. Under whom guidance India started nuclear programme?
(a) Vikram Sarabhai
(b) Homi J. Bhabha
(c) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(d) C.V. Raman
Ans. (b) Homi J. Bhabha
38. In the freedom struggle of Bangladesh, which
country/countries supported Pakistan?
I. India
II. US
III. USSR
IV. China
(a) Only I, III and IV
(b) Only II
(c) Only II and IV
Ans. (c) Only II and IV
39. Who made a secret visit to China via Pakistan in 1971?
(a) Sukarno
(b) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
(c) Richard Nixon
(d) Henry Kissinger
Ans. (d) Henry Kissinger
40. Which treaty was signed between India and Soviet Union
in 1971?
(a) Treaty of Peace and Friendship
(b) Paris Peace Agreement
(c) Nuclear Test Ban Treaty
(d) Border Defence Cooperation Agreement
Ans. (a) Treaty of Peace and Friendship
41. Which country led the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
(a) UK
(b) USA
(c) USSR
(d) China
Ans. (b) USA
42. Which country led the WARSAW Pact?
(a) UK
(b) USA
(c) USSR
(d) China
Ans. (c) USSR
43. What was the Panchsheel all about?
(a) Five Principles of Banning Nuclear Tests
(b) Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence
(c) Five Principles of Safeguarding Democracy
(d) Five Principles of Safeguarding Liberty
Ans. (b) Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence
44. Where was the Bandung Conference held?
(a) Indonesia
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) Sri Lanka
Ans. (a) Indonesia
45. The first nuclear explosion undertaken by India was in:
(a) 1998
(b) 1974
(c) 1976
(d) 1964
Ans. (b) 1974
46. What is the full form of NEFA?
(a) North Eastern Foreign Agency
(b) North Eastern Frontier Association
(c) North Eastern Frontier Agency
(d) North Eastern Frontier Academy
Ans. (c) North Eastern Frontier Agency
47. In which of the states did Pakistan launch armed attacks
in the year 1965?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Delhi
Ans. (a) Gujarat
48. Which of the following policy used by India in nuclear
ethics and deterrence theory?
(a) No first use policy
(b) First use policy
(c) Never use policy
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a) No first use policy
1. Which of the following statement about the Grand Alliance
of 1971 is correct?
The Grand Alliance ___________.
(a) was formed by non-Communist, non-Congress parties.
(b) had a clear political and ideological programme.
(c) was formed by all non-Congress parties.
(d) none of the above
Ans. (a) was formed by non-Communist, non-Congress parties.
2. The following party raised the slogan of ‘Garibi Hatao’
during the general elections of 1971:
(a) Congress (R)
(b) Congress (O)
(c) B.J.P.
(d) Janata Party
Ans. (a) Congress (R)
3. Tashkent Agreement was signed between India and
Pakistan in the year:
(a) 1972
(b) 1964
(c) 1966
(d) 1971
Ans. (c) 1966
4. Jawaharlal Nehru died in:
(a) 1962
(b) 1964
(c) 1967
(d) 1965
Ans. (b) 1964
5. Lal Bahadur Shastri was the Prime Minister of India from:
(a) 1962–1964
(b) 1964–1966
(c) 1971–1972
(d) 1967–1970
Ans. (b) 1964–1966
6. After Nehru’s death whom among the following was elected
as the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Chandra Shekhar
Ans. (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
7. When was Fourth General Election in India held?
(a) 1962
(b) 1971
(c) 1967
(d) 1966
Ans. (c) 1967
8. Who became the Prime Minister of India after Lal Bahadur
Shastri’s death?
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) I.K. Gujral
(d) Indira Gandhi
Ans. (d) Indira Gandhi
9. When did the Congress Party split in Congress (R) and
Congress (O)?
(a) 1970
(b) 1967
(c) 1969
(d) 1965
Ans. (c) 1967
10. Indira Gandhi was assassinated on?
(a) 20th November, 1983
(b) 31st December, 1975
(c) 31st October, 1984
Ans. (c) 31st October, 1984
11. ‘Aya Ram, Gaya Ram’ is related to the issue of:
(a) Coalition government
(b) Casteism
(c) Communalism
(d) Defection
Ans. (d) Defection
12. When was the Fifth General Election held?
(a) 1970
(b) 1969
(c) 1975
(d) 1971
Ans. (d) 1971
13. Which general elections for the first time questioned the
dominance of Congress?
(a) 1967
(b) 1957
(c) 1980
(d) 1985
Ans. (a) 1967
14. After independence at the party system level, India
witnessed ______.
(a) Coalition in party
(b) Hung parliament
(c) Multi-party system
(d) Coalition of parties
Ans. (a) Coalition in party
15. In Madras State (now Tamil Nadu), a regional party won
the 1967 elections. Which party was that?
(a) DMK
(b) CPI
(c) Janata Party
(d) AAP
Ans. (a) DMK
16. After the 1967 elections, in how many states, defections
prevented Congress from forming government?
(a) None of these
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Five
Ans. (b) Two
17. In the 1967 elections, in how many states Congress lost
the majority?
(a) Six
(b) Nine
(c) Seven
(d) Two
Ans. (c) Seven
18. The fractional between the Syndicate and Indira Gandhi
came in the open_________.
(a) During Parliamentary Election 1969
(b) During Presidential Election 1969
(c) State Election 1969
Ans. (b) During Presidential Election 1969
19. Who gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan’?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) K. Kamraj
Ans. (c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
20. Lal Bahadur Shastri died at which place?
(a) Delhi
(b) Lahore
(c) Lucknow
(d) Tashkent
Ans. (d) Tashkent
21. The famous slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ was given by:
(a) Indira Gandhi
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) J.P. Narayan
Ans. (a) Indira Gandhi
22. Which of the following statements is/are correct with
repeat to K. Kamraj?
(a) He was the Chief Minister of Madras (Tamil Nadu)
(b) He introduced mid-day meal scheme for school children
23. What is Kamraj Plan?
(a) All Senior Congress person should remain in the office.
(b) Young person should for entrance in government waif and
learn from Senior Congressmen
(c) All Senior Congressmen should resign from office to make way
for younger party worker
Ans. (c) All senior Congressmen should resign from office to make
way for younger party worker
24. The election of _________ brought into picture the
phenomenon of coalitions.
(a) 1952
(b) 1962
(c) 1967
(d) 1957
Ans. (c) 1967
25. Use of English language was strongly opposed by the:
(a) Karpoori Thakur
(b) K. Kamraj
(c) Charan Singh
(d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Ans. (a) Karpoori Thakur
26. The Socialist leader who gave the strategy ‘Non-
Congress’ was:
(a) V.V. Giri
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) V.P. Singh
(d) Giani Zail Singh
Ans. (b) Ram Manohar Lohia
27. Syndicate mean:
(a) Ideology
(b) Group of leader who control Congress Party
(c) It is a name of political party
Ans. (b) Group of leader who control Congress Party
28. After the death of President Zakir Hussain, who was the
official Congress candidate for Presidential election?
(a) V.V. Giri
(b) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(c) Giani Zail Singh
(d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
Ans. (b) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
29. Nationalisation of fourteen bank, the abolition of the Privy
Purse were done by which of the following Prime Minister?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) V.P. Singh
Ans. (a) Indira Gandhi
30. Which of the following leader was against abolition of
Privy Purses?
(a) J.P. Narayan
(b) K. Kamraj
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) V.V. Giri
Ans. (c) Morarji Desai
31. Who became President after the death of Zakir Hussain?
(a) V.V. Giri
(b) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(c) Gaini Zail Singh
(d) B.D. Jatti
Ans. (a) V.V. Giri
32. Congress party split in 1969, one of the group is call
Congress (O). What is the meaning ‘O’?
(a) Original
(b) One
(c) Organisation
(d) Organ
Ans. (c) Organisation
1. Which statement is NOT true about Jaya Prakash Narayan?
(a) He fought against corruption
(b) He believed in Communitarian Socialism
(c) He was an integral part of Nehru’s cabinet
(d) He became a symbol of opposition to Emergency
Ans. (c) He was an integral part of Nehru’s Cabinet
2. Who gave the call for Total Revolution?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jayaprakash Narayan
(d) Ram Manohar Lohia
Ans. (c) Jayaprakash Narayan
3. JP’s political transformation included the following:
(a) Right to recall
(b) Importance of village in politics
(c) Elite people
(d) Only (a) and (b) are correct
Ans. (d) Only (a) and (b) are correct
4. In 1969, Communist Party (Marxist-Leninist) was formed
under the leadership of ________.
(a) D. Raja
(b) Charu Majumdar
(c) M.G. Desai
(d) S.S. Mirajkar
Ans. (b) Charu Majumdar
5. In _________ student in Gujarat started an agitation against
rising prices of food gain and against corruption.
(a) 1972
(b) 1974
(c) 1984
(d) 1990
Ans. (b) 1974
(i) In 1974 student of Bihar protest against corruption only.
(ii) Jai Prakash Narayan lead the student movement of Bihar.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) Only (ii)
7. Currently how many district are affected by Naxalite
violence?
(a) 75
(b) 76
(c) 108
(d) 85
Ans. (a) 75
8. Who is the Lok Nayak of India?
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. (a) Jayaprakash Narayan
9. Who led the Railway strike in 1974?
(a) Jagjeevan Ram
(b) Swaran Singh
(c) S.K. Patil
(d) George Fernandes
Ans. (d) George Fernandes
(i) In 1973, Government of India followed the seniority procedure
while appointed Chief Justice of India.
(ii) In 1973, A.N. Ray had appointed as Chief Justice of India.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) Only (ii)
11. How filed the Petition in Allahabad High Court against
Indira Gandhi’s election?
(a) Kesavananda Bharati
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan
(c) Raj Narayan
(d) Jagmohan Lal Sinha
Ans. (c) Raj Narayan
12. Who was the President during emergency?
(a) V.V. Giri
(b) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(c) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(d) Gaini Zail Singh
Ans. (b) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
13. What was the impact of emergency on newspaper and
magzine?
(a) Freedom of press was suspended and press censorship was
introduced.
(b) Many journalists were arrested for writing against the
emergency.
(c) Many underground news letters and leaflet were published to
by pass censorship.
List-I List-II
A. Total Revolution (i) Indira Gandhi
B. Garibi Hatao (ii) Jai Prakash Narayan
C. Student’s Protest (iii) Bihar Movement
D. Railway Strike (iv) George Fernandes

(a) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(c) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
Ans. (b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
15. Which statement about National Emergency is NOT
correct?
(a) It was declared in 1975
(b) It suspended all fundamental rights
(c) Many people were arrested during the emergency
(d) The country was facing war with Pakistan and so emergency
was declared
Ans. (d) The country was facing war with Pakistan and so
emergency was declared
16. Which incident is NOT associated with the National
Emergency?
(a) Allahabad High Court Verdict
(b) Naxalite Movement
(c) Railway strike of 1974
(d) Opening up of the market
Ans. (d) Opening up of the market
17. The state of Emergency was declared on ______.
(a) 25 June 1975
(b) 25 June 1970
(c) 12 July 1975
(d) 19 August 1976
Ans. (a) 25 June 1975
18. Which justice declared Indira Gandhi’s elections to be
invalid in 1975?
(a) Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha
(b) Justice Ranjan Gogoi
(c) Justice N. V. Ramana
(d) Justice H. J. Kania
Ans. (a) Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha
19. The Janata Party formed in 1977, accepted the leadership
of ______.
(a) Jayaprakash
(b) Lohia
(c) Nehru
(d) Gandhi
Ans. (a) Jayaprakash
20. The ______ election was made into an referendum on the
National Emergency.
(a) 1977
(b) 1980
(c) 1999
(d) 1975
Ans. (a) 1977
21. In the 1977 elections, which party came into power?
(a) Janata Party
(b) Congress Party
(c) Bharatiya Jana Sangh
(d) All - coalition government
Ans. (a) Janata Party
22. Which important amendment to the Constitution was done
during the National Emergency?
(a) 42nd
(b) 43rd
(c) 73rd
(d) 76th
Ans. (a) 42nd
23. Why did the CPI back congress during the National
Emergency?
(a) It believed there was international conspiracy against India’s
unity
(b) They wanted to join hands with congress and come to power
(c) They did not understand what harm the emergency could do to
the country
Ans. (a) It believed there was international conspiracy against
India’s unity
24. Which observation was NOT made by the Shah
Commission?
(a) 676 opposition leaders were arrested
(b) One lakh eleven thousand people were arrested under
preventive detention laws
(c) General Manager of the Delhi Power Supply Corporation
received verbal orders to cut electricity
(d) India received threat from international organisations
Ans. (d) India received threat from international organisations
25. During the emergency which person did not hold any
power but interfered in all government affairs?
(a) Sanjay Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Sonia Gandhi
Ans. (a) Sanjay Gandhi
26. Which two acts of Sanjay Gandhi became very
controversial during the emergency?
(i) Forced sterilisation
(ii) Slum Demolition
(iii) Banning of the cabinet
(iv) Press censorship
(a) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Ans. (a) (i) and (ii)
27. What were the lessons we learnt from the National
Emergency?
(a) It is very difficult to curb democracy in India
(b) There are loopholes in the Emergency provisions of the Indian
Constitution
(c) All realised the importance of civil liberties
28. Choose the ODD one out.
(a) Indira Gandhi - National Emergency
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia - Samyukta Socialist Party
(c) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya - Railway strike
(d) JP - "Bhoodan movement"
Ans. (c) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya - Railway strike
29. What is democratic upsurge?
(a) Increasing participation of the people in the democratic politics
of the country
(b) Increased participation of people in elections
(c) Increased participation of people in social revolutions
(d) Increased participation of people in international affairs
Ans. (a) Increasing participation of the people in the democratic
politics of the country
30. How many democratic upsurges have there been in post-
independence India?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Ten
(d) Two
Ans. (a) Three
31. Which statement about the first democratic upsurge is
NOT true?
(a) It is from 1950s to 1970s
(b) It is based on adult Indians participation in electoral politics and
democratic practices
(c) It falsified the theory that for democracy, modernization is
required
(d) It wholeheartedly grabbed the western ways of thinking
Ans. (d) It wholeheartedly grabbed the western ways of thinking
32. In which election, the Indian party system resembled a bi-
party system?
(a) 1977
(b) 1957
(c) 1967
(d) 1990
Ans. (a) 1977
33. Prior to the 1977 elections, all the opposition parties came
together to form ______ party.
(a) Janata
(b) Left
(c) Coalition
(d) Bharatiya Janta
Ans. (a) Janata
34. Which was the first national elections that the congress
lost?
(a) 1977
(b) 1967
(c) 1957
(d) 1990
Ans. (a) 1977
35. Which statement about 1977 elections is NOT true?
(a) Janata party won the 1977 elections
(b) Congress won the 1977 elections
(c) It was the start of the end of congress rule
(d) North India saw massive electoral wave against the congress
Ans. (b) Congress won the 1977 elections
36. The Janata party became the platform for which sections
of the society?
(a) Middle class from North India
(b) Upper class
(c) SCs and STs
Ans. (a) Middle class from North India
37. Which statement about the Janata Party is NOT true?
(a) Janata Party lacked cohesion
(b) Janata party brought fundamental change to the Indian politics
(c) Janata party government was in power for a 5-year period
(d) Janata party lacked common programme
Ans. (c) Janata party government was in power for a 5-year period
38. Which election is seen as the start of a multi-party
coalition system in India?
(a) 1989 elections
(b) 1977 elections
(c) 1999 election
(d) 2000 election
Ans. (b) 1977 elections
39. Which parties were important in the multi-party coalition
system?
(a) National parties
(b) Regional parties
(d) Local parties
40. In which state Nay Nirman Movement was started?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Punjab
(c) Bihar
(d) Haryana
Ans. (a) Gujarat
41. How many Lok Sabha seat won by the Janata Party and its
allies in the General Election of March 1977?
(a) 300
(b) 303
(c) 380
(d) 343
Ans. (c) 380
42. Which of the following statements regarding Chaudhary
Charan Singh is are correct?
(i) He founded Bharatiya Kranti Dal.
(ii) He was two time Chief Minister of U.P.
(iii) He also act as the Prime Minister of India.
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (i)
43. Who became the Prime Minister of India after the election
of 1977?
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Jai Prakash Narayan
(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(d) Jagjivan Ram
Ans. (a) Morarji Desai
44. Shah Commission was appointed to inquire:
(a) abuse of authority during emergency
(b) domestic violence
(c) child labour
(d) condition of dalits
Ans. (b) domestic violence
1. What are some of the problems that India faced
immediately after the independence?
(a) Integration of princely states
(b) Reorganisation of the states on the basis of language
(c) Rehabilitation of the refugees after partition
2. Which of the following Indian states have been involved in
separatist movement?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Mizoram
(c) Punjab
(d) All of these
Ans. (d) All of these
3. What was the consequence of the agitation of the Punjabi
people for a separate state?
(a) Their demands were accepted and Punjab was separated from
Haryana
(b) Their demands were rejected
(c) Their demands were condemned with violence
Ans. (a) Their demands were accepted and Punjab was separated
from Haryana
4. Jammu and Kashmir was accorded special status under
which of the following articles of the constitution?
(a) Article 370
(b) Article 375
(c) Article 380
(d) Article 368
Ans. (a) Article 370
5. Who was the pioneer of the movement that was often called
as Kashmiriyat?
(a) Sheikh Abdullah
(b) Faruq Abdullah
(c) Umar Abdullah
(d) Yasin Malik
Ans. (a) Sheikh Abdullah
6. Which of the following personalities was known as the
“Periyar”?
(a) E.V. Ramasamy Naicker
(b) M.G. Ramachandran
(c) Karunanidhi
Ans. (a) E.V. Ramasamy Naicker
7. The split in the DMK took place after the death of which of
the following leaders?
(a) C.N. Annadurai
(b) E.V. Ramasamy Naicker
(c) Jayalalitha
(d) M.G. Ramachandran
Ans. (a) C.N. Annadurai
8. The majority of the population in the region of Kashmir is
of _________.
(a) Hindus
(b) Muslims
(c) Sikhs
(d) Buddhists
Ans. (b) Muslims
9. The main presence of the Dravidian movement was present
in which of the following states?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Telangana
(d) Karnataka
Ans. (a) Tamil Nadu
10. The DMK demanded the restoration of the name of which
of the following railway station?
(a) Kallakudi Railway station
(b) Rameshwaram Railway station
(c) Koyna Railway station
(d) Dibrugarh Railway station
Ans. (a) Kallakudi Railway station
11. Which of the following ideologies was supported by the
E.V. Ramasamy Naicker?
(a) Atheism
(b) Anti-caste struggle
(c) Revival of Dravidian identity
12. Who was the ruler of princely state Jammu and Kashmir
after the independence?
(a) Maharaja Hari Singh
(b) Maharaja Nihal Singh
(c) Maharaja Sonal Singh
(d) Maharaja Man Singh
Ans. (a) Maharaja Hari Singh
13. What is the full form of DMK?
(a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
(b) Dravida Mazagaon Kazhagam
(c) Dravida Mandal Kazhagam
(d) Dravida Mannar Kazhagam
Ans. (a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
14. Kashmir became the part of India after signing which of
the following documents?
(a) Instrument of Accession
(b) Instrument of Repeal
(c) Instrument of Separatism
(d) Instrument of Agreement
Ans. (a) Instrument of Accession
15. Which of the following steps was not suggested by the
United Nations on its resolution on Kashmir?
(a) Pakistan should withdrew its entire nationalities from Kashmir
(b) India will have to reduce its forces from the Kashmir gradually
(c) Plebiscite will be conducted peacefully in the region
(d) Kashmir will be divided among both the nations
Ans. (d) Kashmir will be divided among both the nations
16. Who started the separatist movement in Nagaland?
(a) A.Z. Phizo
(b) Muivah
(c) SS Khaplang
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) A.Z. Phizo
17. The Assam movement started due to which of the
following reasons?
(a) Increase in the number of illegal immigrants in the state
(b) Due to issue of culture
(c) Due to language issues
Ans. (a) Increase in the number of illegal immigrants in the state
18. The part of Kashmir occupied by the Pakistan is
addressed by them as ____________.
(a) Azad Pakistan
(b) Siachen
(c) Gilgit
(d) Mini Kashmir
Ans. (a) Azad Pakistan
19. Why there was a war between India and Pakistan in
Kashmir during October 1947?
(a) Pakistan has send infiltrators on the lands of Kashmir
(b) India send the army to annex Kashmir
(c) India and Pakistan were not convinced with the provisions of
partition
Ans. (a) Pakistan has send infiltrators on the lands of Kashmir
20. The Mizoram Peace Accord was signed between which of
the following leaders?
(a) Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga
(b) Rajiv Gandhi and Jarnail Singh
(c) Rajiv Gandhi and Isak Muivah
Ans. (a) Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga
21. Which of the following party was famous in the Jammu
and Kashmir during the initial years after the independence of
India?
(a) Janata Party
(b) National Conference
(c) Socialist Party
(d) Indian National Congress
Ans. (b) National Conference
22. The insurgency started to increase in Kashmir from which
of the following years?
(a) 1981
(b) 1985
(c) 1989
(d) 1996
Ans. (c) 1989
23. Who is the first women chief minister of Jammu and
Kashmir?
(a) Mehbooba Mufti
(b) Kiran Bedi
(c) Sarah Abdullah
(d) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
Ans. (a) Mehbooba Mufti
24. What is the full form of PDP?
(a) People’s Democratic Party
(b) People’s Development Party
(c) People’s Derivative Party
Ans. (a) People’s Democratic Party
25. The Punjab Accord was signed between the __________.
(a) Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal
(b) Rajiv Gandhi and Master Tara Singh
(c) Rajiv Gandhi and Sir Chotu Ram
(d) Rajiv Gandhi and Prakash Singh Badal
Ans. (a) Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal
26. Which of the following was not the provision of Punjab
Accord?
(a) Tribunal for solving border dispute between Punjab and
Haryana
(b) Tribunal for deciding the water dispute of Ravi- Beas river
(c) Withdrawn of AFSPA
(d) Resuming of trade of Punjab with Pakistan
Ans. (d) Resuming of trade of Punjab with Pakistan
27. Who was the first Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir,
that belong to Indian National Congress?
(a) Ghulam Mohammed Sadiq
(b) Sheikh Abdullah
(c) Omar Abdullah
(d) Faruq Abdullah
Ans. (a) Ghulam Mohammed Sadiq
28. Which of the following resolutions by the Akalis
demanded regional autonomy in Punjab?
(a) Patiala Resolution
(b) Shimla Resolution
(c) Anandpur Sahib Resolution
(d) Ludhiana Resolution
Ans. (c) Anandpur Sahib Resolution
29. What was the codename of the operation carried out by
the Indian army in Amritsar?
(a) Operation Neptune Spear
(b) Operation Blue Star
(c) Operation Black Tornado
(d) Operation Desert Storm
Ans. (b) Operation Blue Star
30. Article 370 was abolished in which of the following years?
(a) 2019
(b) 2017
(c) 2018
(d) 2020
Ans. (a) 2019
31. Which of the following parties has led the movement for
the formation of the Punjabi Suba?
(a) DMK Party
(b) Akali Dal
(c) Liberal Party
(d) Unionist Party
Ans. (b) Akali Dal
32. Which of the following issues was raised by the Akali Dal
during 1980?
(a) Distribution of water between it and other states
(b) Status of union territory for Punjab
(c) Separate nationhood to Punjab
(d) Ban on the entry of people other than Sikhs in Punjab
Ans. (a) Distribution of water between it and other states
33. What is the full form of AFSPA?
(a) Armed Forces Special Powers Act
(b) Armed Forces Special Permissions Act
(c) Armed Forces Specialisation of Powers Act
(d) Armed Forces Special Provisions Act
Ans. (a) Armed Forces Special Powers Act
34. Who is the founder of the Mizo National Front?
(a) Thanawala
(b) Laldenga
(c) SS Khaplang
(d) Isak Muivah
Ans. (b) Laldenga
35. What is the full form of SGPC?
(a) Shiromani Gurudwara Prabhandak Committee
(b) Shiromani Guntur Prabhandak Committee
(c) Shiromani Gurudwara Panchal Committee
(d) Shiromani Gurudwara Purpose Committee
Ans. (a) Shiromani Gurudwara Prabhandak Committee
1. The Chipko movement started from the villages of which of
the following present day states?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Gujarat
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans. (a) Uttarakhand
2. The ideology of the Naxalite groups is based on the
teachings of ____________.
(a) Marx-Lenin
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Niccolo Machiavelli
Ans. (a) Marx-Lenin
3. Which of the following is the greatest Dalit leader in India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Periyar
Ans. (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
4. The organisation Dalit Panthers was formed in which of the
following states?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) West Bengal
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (a) Maharashtra
5. Which of the following were the main demands of the Dalit
Panthers?
(a) Implementation of the reservation policies
(b) Implementation of the social welfare programmes
(c) Ending social inequality in the society
6. Who was Namdeo Dharal?
(a) Marathi poet
(b) Dalit activist
(d) None of these
7. What is the full form of BAMCEF?
(a) Backward and Minority Communities Employees Federation
(b) Backward and Majority Communities Employees Federation
(c) Banned and Minority Communities Employees Federation
(d) Backward and Minority Communities External Federation
Ans. (a) Backward and Minority Communities Employees
Federation
8. What is the full form of the BKU?
(a) Bharatiya Kisan Union
(b) Bharatiya Karamchari Union
(c) Bharatiya Kisan Urban
Ans. (a) Bharatiya Kisan Union
9. The presence of the Shetkari Sanghatna is most prominent
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (c) Maharashtra
10. The Rayata Sangha is an organisation advocating the
rights of ___________.
(a) Farmers
(b) Dalits
(c) Industrial Workers
Ans. (a) Farmers
11. The main influence of the Bharatiya Kisan Union was there
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Haryana
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d) Both (a) and (b)
12. Why fish workers started agitating against the
government?
(a) Due to introduction of new technology in fishing
(b) Due to lower wages
(c) Due to violation of their human rights
Ans. (a) Due to introduction of new technology in fishing
13. The subject of Fisheries comes under which of the
following lists?
(a) State List
(b) Concurrent List
(c) Union List
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) State List
14. What is the full form of the NFF?
(a) National Fishworkers’ Forum
(b) National Fashonworkers Forum
(c) National Fishworkers Federation
(d) National Fashionworkers Federation
Ans. (a) National Fishworkers’ Forum
15. Why NFF organised a strike in the year 2002?
(a) Government decided to issue licenses to the foreign trawlers
(b) Government decided to issue restrictions on fishermen in local
waters
(c) Government restricted the working of the NFF
Ans. (a) Government decided to issue licenses to the foreign
trawlers
16. The Anti-Arrack movement started from which of the
following states?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Andhra Pradesh
17. The Anti-Arrack movement was against the use of
_________.
(a) Alcohol
(b) Pesticides
(c) Fungicides
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Alcohol
(i) Medha Patkar is an Indian social activist.
(ii) She lead Narmada Bachao Aandolan.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(d) None of these
19. Which of the following amendments granted reservation
to women in the political office at the local levels?
(a) 21st and 22nd Amendment
(b) 73rd and 74th Amendment
(c) 51st and 52nd Amendment

Ans. (b) 73rd and 74th Amendment

20. The Sardar Sarovar Project was to be implemented in
which of the following state?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (c) Gujarat
(i) Social movement are only about collective assertion or about
rallies and protest.
(ii) Social movement involve a gradual process of coming together
of people with similar problem, Similar demands and similar
expectation.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) Only (ii)
22. What parameters should be included in the calculation of
the social costs of the development projects?
(a) Rehabilitation of the people
(b) Loss of the livelihood of the people
(c) Loss of depletion of ecological resources
23. A comprehensive Rehabilitation policy was formed in
which of the following years?
(a) 2001
(b) 2000
(c) 2002
(d) 2003
Ans. (d) 2003
24. What was the decision of the Supreme Court concerning
the Sardar Sarovar Dam?
(a) It gave order to stop the construction
(b) It permitted the construction with proper rehabilitation
(c) It remained silent on its construction
Ans. (b) It permitted the construction with proper rehabilitation
25. What is the full form of RTI?
(a) Right to Information
(b) Right to Informed
(c) Right to Immigration
Ans. (a) Right to Information
26. What is the full form of MKSS?
(a) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghathan
(b) Muslim Kisan Shakti Sanghathan
(c) Mazdoor Kisan Shastra Sanghathan
(d) Maratha Kisan Shakti Sanghathan
Ans. (a) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghathan
27. The demand for the right to information was raised at
which of the following place at first instance?
(a) Bhim Tehsil
(b) Bharatpur Tehsil
(c) Bhargaon Tehsil
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Bhim Tehsil
28. Which of the following committees proposed a draft RTI
law?
(a) Shourie Committee
(b) Punchi Committee
(c) Rangarajan Committee
(d) Hora Committee
Ans. (a) Shourie Committee
29. In which of the following years did the RTI bill get
Presidential assent?
(a) 2003
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2006
Ans. (c) 2005
30. Who formed the National Council for People’s Right to
Information?
(a) MKSS
(b) NBA
(c) BKU
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) MKSS
31. Who is regarded as the founder of Women Movement in
India?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Kasturba Gandhi
(d) Pandit Rama Bai
Ans. (d) Pandit Rama Bai
32. In which year was All India Kisan Sabha established?
(a) 1950
(b) 1938
(c) 1945
(d) 1936
Ans. (d) 1936
33. In which year was All India Kisan Sabha divided?
(a) 1960
(b) 1964
(c) 1971
(d) 1980
Ans. (b) 1964
34. The Silent Valley Movement is a movement which is
connected with?
(a) Environment
(b) Cutting of trees
(c) Building of dams
(d) A religious movement
Ans. (a) Environment
35. U.N. Conference on Human Environment in Stockholm
was held in the year:
(a) 1970
(b) 1971
(c) 1972
(d) 1975
Ans. (c) 1972
36. Mandal Commission was established in:
(a) 1975
(b) 1977
(c) 1979
(d) 1981
Ans. (c) 1979
37. Mandal Commission submitted its report to the
government of India in:
(a) 1980
(b) 1982
(c) 1984
(d) 1985
Ans. (a) 1980
1. What is the full form of UPA?
(a) United Progressive Alliance
(b) Unified Progressive Alliance
(c) United Protective Alliance
(d) United Progressive Association
Ans. (a) United Progressive Alliance
2. What is the full form of NDA?
(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) National Democracy Alliance
(c) National Democratic Association
(d) Nationalist Democratic Alliance
Ans. (a) National Democratic Alliance
3. ______ party led the UPA.
(a) Congress
(b) BJP
(c) Left
(d) Janata
Ans. (a) Congress
4. ______ party led the NDA.
(a) Congress
(b) BJP
(c) Left
(d) Janata
Ans. (b) BJP
5. The period after 1989 is the period of ______.
(i) Decline of congress
(ii) Rise of BJP
(iii) Rise of congress
(iv) Decline of BJP
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
6. Who were the two major political parties who compete with
each other in the 1990s elections?
(a) Between congress and BJP
(b) Between regional parties
(c) Between congress and BJP on one side and regional parties
on the other side
(d) Between coalition led by Congress and the National Front
supported by Left Front and BJP
Ans. (d) Between coalition led by Congress and the National Front
supported by Left Front and BJP
7. ______ headed the coalition government of United Front
from June 6, 1996, to April 1997.
(a) H.D. Deve Gowda
(b) V. P. Singh
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) I. K. Gujral
Ans. (a) H.D. Deve Gowda
8. How was the United Front similar to the National Front of
1989?
(a) It included Janata Party and several other parties.
(b) It was a coalition government.
(c) It had support of the left.
Ans. (b) It was a coalition government.
9. Which statement about the United Front is NOT correct?
(a) It did not have support of the BJP
(b) It had support of the Congress
(c) The United Front government came into power in 1996
(d) Regional parties did not have any role to play in the United
Front Government
Ans. (d) Regional parties did not have any role to play in the
United Front Government
10. Though the 1990s was an era of coalition politics, there
was consensus on a few things. What were those?
(i) Consensus of new economic policies.
(ii) Acceptance of social and political claims of OBCs.
(iii) State level parties in governance of the country.
(iv) Political alliances without ideological agreement.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iv)
Ans. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
11. Pick the ODD one out.
(a) National Front - 1989
(b) United Front - 1996
(c) UPA I - 2000
Ans. (c) UPA I - 2000
12. In ______ the UPA II came into power.
(a) 2009
(b) 2010
(c) 1994
(d) 2014
Ans. (a) 2009
13. The era of coalition politics changed in the year ______.
(a) 2010
(b) 2014
(c) 2000
(d) 1999
Ans. (b) 2014
14. Who was the Prime Minister during UPA I and II?
(a) Manmohan Singh
(b) V. P. Singh
(c) Narasimha Rao
(d) I. K Gujral
Ans. (a) Manmohan Singh
15. ______ was the Prime Minister during the National Front
government supported by Left Front and BJP.
(a) V. P. Singh
(b) Narasimha Rao
(c) I..K. Gujral
(d) Deve Gowda
Ans. (a) V. P. Singh
16. Mandal Commission recommendations were implemented
in the year ______.
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1993
Ans. (a) 1990
17. In what way did the National Front’s decision to implement
the Mandal Commission recommendation changed the Indian
politics?
(a) It gave more power and confidence to the OBCs.
(b) The OBC communities became aware of their identities.
(c) The Regional parties supporting OBCs started to come up.
18. 2004 elections resulted in ______.
(a) One-party government
(b) Coalition government
(c) Hung government
(d) Re-election
Ans. (b) Coalition government
19. What is the full form of BSP?
(a) Bahujan Samaj Party
(b) Bharat Samaj Party
(c) Bharatiya Samaj Party
(d) Bahujan Sabha Party
Ans. (a) Bahujan Samaj Party
20. Which political party for the first time with mainly dalit
supporters gained importance in Indian politics?
(a) BSP
(b) Janata Party
(c) RSS
(d) National front
Ans. (a) BSP
21. In which state, large scale communal riots took place in
2002?
(a) Gujarat
(b) West Bengal
(c) UP
(d) Karnataka
Ans. (a) Gujarat
22. In ______ Babri Masjid was demolished.
(a) 1992
(b) 1990
(c) 1989
(d) 2000
Ans. (a) 1992
23. Which statement about 2004 elections is NOT true?
(a) Congress entered in coalition politics in a big way.
(b) The NDA was defeated.
(c) A single party came into power.
(d) The party in power received support from Left parties from
outside.
Ans. (c) A single party came into power.
24. What was the main reason behind Gujarat riots?
(a) A bogey of train that had kar sevaks was set on fire.
(b) Babri Masjid demolition
(c) Pakistan insurgency
(d) National level religious upheavals
Ans. (a) A bogey of train that had kar sevaks was set on fire.
25. Who was the Prime Minister of the Congress government
supported by AIADMK in 1991?
(a) Manmohan Singh
(b) I. K. Gujral
(c) P. V. Narasimha Rao
(d) V. P. Singh
Ans. (c) P. V. Narasimha Rao
26. ______ became the Prime Minister of the United Front
government supported by the Congress in 1997.
(a) Manmohan Singh
(b) I. K. Gujral
(c) P. V. Narasimha Rao
(d) V. P. Singh
Ans. (b) I. K. Gujral
27. Who founded the BSP?
(a) Kanshi Ram
(b) Mayawati
(c) Ram Vilas Paswan
(d) Lalu Prasad Yadav
Ans. (a) Kanshi Ram
28. Pick the odd one OUT.
(a) Narendra Modi - 2014
(b) A. B. Vajpayee - 2004
(c) I. K. Gujral - 1997
(d) Manmohan Singh - 2000
Ans. (b) A. B. Vajpayee - 2004
29. In the 17th Lok Sabha elections, how many seats were
won by the BJP?
(a) 303
(b) 52
(c) 24
(d) 18
Ans. (a) 303
30. Which statements about 2019 national election is/are
correct?
(a) BJP came out as the single largest party.
(b) BJP won maximum seats that a party has won since 1989
general elections.
(c) 2019 elections was the 17th national election.
31. Since the 2019 elections, the contemporary party system
is known as the ______.
(a) BJP system
(b) Post-congress party system
(c) Single party system
(d) Multi party system
Ans. (c) Single party system
32. There is a shift in focus in Indian politics since 2014. What
is the shift?
(a) The shift from coalition government to one party majority
government
(b) The shift from congress led coalition government to the BJP
led coalition government
(c) The shift from weak government to the strong government
under the BJP majority
33. The Mandal Commission recommended reserving ______
of seats in education institute and government job for OBC.
(a) 27%
(b) 28%
(c) 26%
(d) 25%
Ans. (a) 27%
34. Which of the following option is correct?
Assertion (A): Election in 1989 led to the defeat of Congress
Party.
Reason (R): Though the Congress was the largest party in the
Lok Sabha.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation
of (A).
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.
Ans. (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct
explanation of (A).
35. Choose the correct statement:
(a) No single party secured a clear majority since 1989 till 2014 in
Lok Sabha.
(b) H.D. Deve Gowda was the Prime Minister in 1996 with support
of BJP.
(c) B.P. Mandal ws a M.P. from Uttar Pradesh.
Ans. (a) No single party secured a clear majority since 1989 till
2014 in Lok Sabha.
36. Who was the founder of BAMCEF?
(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Kanshi Ram
(d) Mulayam Singh
Ans. (c) Kanshi Ram
37. Which statement about bi-party system is NOT true?
(a) It helps solve complex issues
(b) It helps represent more ideologies and view
(c) It discourages political stability
(d) It helps lower corruption
Ans. (c) It discourages political stability
38. A system that has two major political parties dominating
the political scenario is called ______ .
(a) Bi-party system
(b) Multi-party system
(c) Coalition system
(d) Democratic system
Ans. (a) Bi-party system
39. Today which party system is followed in Indian politics?
(i) One-party system
(ii) Two-party system
(iii) Multi-party system
(iv) Coalition system
(a) Only (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Ans. (c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
40. ______ is when several parties join hands to context
elections.
(a) Alliance
(b) Factions
(c) Group
(d) Coalition
Ans. (a) Alliance
41. A political system with many-parties is known as?
(a) Uni-party system
(c) Bi-party system
Ans. (b) Multi-party system
42. A political system with two-parties is known as :
(c) Bi-party system
Ans. (c) Bi-party system
43. A political system with one-party is known as?
(c) Bi-party system
Ans. (a) Uni-party system
44. Which statement is true about a multi-party system?
(i) Many political parties compete for power
(ii) There will often be coalition government
(iii) It can become an unstable political system at times
(iv) All parties have the capacity to gain control of government
offices
(a) (i)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iii)
Ans. (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
1. Who among the following was the Prime Minister of India
when Mandal Commission was constituted?
(a) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) V.P. Singh
(d) Morarji Desai
Ans. (d) Morarji Desai
2. ________ was the Finance Minister when India accepted the
liberalisation policy for industrialisation in 1991.
(a) P. Chidambaram
(b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(d) Morarji Desai
Ans. (b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
3. Which Prime Minister of India sent the Indian Peace
Keeping Force to Sri Lanka?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) V.P. Singh
Ans. (c) Rajiv Gandhi
4. Who propound the ideology of Hindutva?
(a) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
(b) K.B. Hedgewar
(c) M.S. Golwalkar
(d) V.D. Savarkar
Ans. (d) V.D. Savarkar
5. Which of the following landmark constitutional case is
known as Mandal Case?
(a) Indra Sawhney Vs Union of India
(b) Woman Rao Case (1981)
(c) Ahmed Khan Vs Shah Bano Begum
(d) Mithu Vs State of Punjab
Ans. (a) Indra Sawhney Vs Union of India
6. Shah Bano case led to a debate related to which of the
following?
(a) Uniform Civil Code
(b) Reservation for SC/ST
(c) Preamble
(d) Independence of Judiciary
Ans. (a) Uniform Civil Code
7. The rise of the ‘Mandal Issue’ in National politics took place
in:
(a) First development
(b) Second development
(c) Third development
(d) Fourth development
Ans. (b) Second development
8. Who is the founder of BAMCEF?
(a) Kanshi Ram
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans. (a) Kanshi Ram
9. Mandal Commission recommended reserving ________
percent of seat in education institution and jobs for OBC.
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28
Ans. (c) 27
10. Babri Masjid was built by whom?
(a) Mughal Emperor Babur
(b) Mir Baqi
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
Ans. (b) Mir Baqi
11. Which court in 1986 order that Babri Masjid premises be
unlocked. So that Hindu could offer prayers?
(a) Faridabad District Court
(b) Faizabad District Court
(c) Lucknow High Court
(d) Allahabad High Court
Ans. (b) Faizabad District Court
12. Who was the Chairperson of Mandal Commission?
(a) Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal
(b) Nadeshmari Prasad Mandal
(c) Chandeswari Prasad Mandal
Ans. (a) Bindeshwari Prasad Mandal
13. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government
is know as ________?
(a) Globalisation
(b) De-globalisation
(c) Regeneration
(d) Expansion
Ans. (a) Globalisation
14. When did the government remove the barriers for
investment in India?
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1993
Ans. (b) 1991
15. Globalisation is _______ phenomenon.
(a) an uni-dimensional
(b) multi-dimension
(c) a political
(d) a cultural
Ans. (b) multi-dimension
16. According to the rightist view in India globalisation tends
to:
(a) Benefits the weaker section of the society
(b) Divides the state into rich and poor
(c) Weakens the state
(d) Reduces political party competition
Ans. (c) Weakens the state
17. In which year Gujarat riots take place?
(a) 2001
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2004
Ans. (b) 2002
18. The immediate provocation for Gujarat riots was an
incident that place at:
(a) A station called Godhra
(b) A station called Surat
(c) A station called Faizabad
(d) A station called Ayodhya
Ans. (a) A station called Godhra
19. What is the name of Commission, which was set-up by the
Government of India to investigate into the circumstance
leading to the demolition of the mosque?
(a) Faiz Ali Commission
(b) Jivan Jyoti Commission
(c) Liberhan Commission
(d) R.V.M. Commission
Ans. (c) Liberhan Commission
20. Who was appointed by the National Front as the Prime
Minister?
(a) P.V. Narsimha Rao
(b) H.D. Deva Gowda
(c) V.P. Singh
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Ans. (c) V.P. Singh
21. When was Shah Bano case held?
(a) 1985
(b) 1986
(c) 1987
(d) 1988
Ans. (a) 1985
22. In which year the government passed Muslim Women
(Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act,_________.
(a) 1985
(b) 1986
(c) 1987
(d) 1988
Ans. (b) 1986
23. Consider the following statements. Which statements
is/are correct?
(i) The Bhartiya Jana Sangh had merged into the Janata Party
aftermath of the emergency.
(ii) Bhartiya Janata Party established in 1980.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(d) None of these
24. Which of the following statement is correct regarding B.P.
Mandal?
(a) He was the Chairperson of first Backward Classes Commission
(b) He was the Socialist leader from Uttar Pradesh
(c) He was Chief Minister of Bihar for a just one month
(d) He never joined Janata Party
Ans. (c) He was Chief Minister of Bihar for a just one month
List-A List-B
A. BJP established year (i) 1978
B. Shah Bano Case (ii) 2002
C. Gujarat Roits (iii) 1985
D. BAMCEF (iv) 1980

(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
Ans. (d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
1. The end of the Second World War was the beginning of the
________.
(a) Cold war
(b) Cuban Missile Crisis
(c) Non-aligned Movement
(d) Logic of Deterrence
Ans. (a) Cold war
2. The period of Cold war was from _______ to _______.
(a) 1914 to 1918
(b) 1939 to 1945
(c) 1947 to 1991
(d) 1955 to 1975
Ans. (c) 1947 to 1991
3. Which statement about the “Cold War” is correct?
(a) It was a long, tense war of nerves and ideologies.
(b) It was a direct war between the two superpowers –US and
USSR.
(c) It was a war that was fought during the winter months.
(d) It was a war that was fought between the two physical wars—
the first world war and the second world war.
Ans. (a) It was a long, tense war of nerves and ideologies.
4. What was the high point of the Cold War?
(a) Atomic bomb attack on two cities of Japan Hiroshima and
Nagasaki
(b) Establishment of NATO
(c) Establishment of CENTO and SEATO
(d) Cuban Missile crisis
Ans. (d) Cuban Missile crisis
5. Who was the leader of United States of American during
the Cuban Missile Crisis?
(a) Dwight D. Eisenhower
(b) John F. Kennedy
(c) George Bush
(d) Richard Nixon
Ans. (b) John F. Kennedy
6. What did United States first do on discovering the
deployment of nuclear weapons in Cuba?
(a) They started negotiations with Fidel Castro.
(b) They attacked Cuba.
(c) They went to the United Nations for help.
(d) They formed blockade against Soviet Union ships or weapons
from entering into Cuba.
Ans. (d) They formed blockade against Soviet Union ships or
weapons from entering into Cuba.
7. ___________ helped avert physical war during the Cold
war.
(a) Logic of deterrence
(b) Non-aligned Movement
(c) Cuban Missile Crisis
(d) United Nation Involvement
Ans. (a) Logic of deterrence
8. During the cold war, the US and its allies represented the
ideology of _________; whereas the USSR and its allies
represented the ideology of _________.
(a) Capitalism, Socialism
(b) Marxism, Liberalism
(c) Egalitarianism, Socialism
(d) Capitalism, Egalitarianism
Ans. (a) Capitalism, Socialism
9. Western Europe countries that sided with the US were
called ________. Eastern European countries that sided with
the USSR were called ________.
(a) Axis power, Allied power
(b) Western Alliance, Eastern Alliance
(c) Developed countries, Developing countries
(d) Liberal Nations, Communist Nations
Ans. (b) Western Alliance, Eastern Alliance
10. Arrange the following in chronological order:
(i) Cuban Missile Crisis
(ii) Formation of NATO
(iii) Formation of SEATO
(iv) Formation of NAM
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
Ans. (a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
11. The Western alliance was formalized in an organization
called ________ in ________.
(a) NAM, 1961
(b) CENTO, 1955
(c) NATO, 1949
(d) Warsaw Pact, 1955
Ans. (c) NATO, 1949
12. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) was signed
by:
(a) Canada, US and Western European states
(b) USSR, US and Western European states
(c) Turkey, USSR and Eastern European states
(d) US, Canada and Eastern European states
Ans. (a) Canada, US and Western European states
13. What was the name of the Eastern alliance led by the
Soviet Union?
(a) Central Treaty Organization
(b) Non-aligned Movement
(c) Warsaw pact
(d) Eastern bloc
Ans. (c) Warsaw pact
14. What was the main principle of the Warsaw Pact?
(a) To wage war against the US
(b) To counter NATO’s forces in Europe
(c) To provide economic help to the newly independent countries
(d) To unite the world against a nuclear war
Ans. (b) To counter NATO’s forces in Europe
15. _________ became the main arena of conflict between the
superpowers.
(a) Asia
(b) United States of America
(c) Europe
(d) Middle east
Ans. (c) Europe
16. For the superpowers, the smaller states were important
because:
(a) The smaller states provided them with vital resources.
(b) The smaller states provided them with territory and economic
support.
(c) The smaller states gave the superpowers to fight against each
other.
(d) The smaller states provided them with vital resources, territory
and economic support.
Ans. (d) The smaller states provided them with vital resources,
territory and economic support.
17. The smaller countries were also important for ________
reasons. The loyalty of the allies suggested that the
superpowers were winning the war of ________ as well.
(a) Ideological, ideas
(b) Economic, trade
(c) Communication, words
(d) Economic, resources
Ans. (b) Economic, trade
18. What is the meaning of arenas of Cold War?
(a) All those areas where ideological battles were fought.
(b) The areas which were marked by the Western alliance and
Eastern Alliance as their own.
(c) Areas where crisis and war occurred or was threatened to
occur, but did not cross certain limits.
(d) All those areas where the superpowers wanted to spread their
influence.
Ans. (c) Areas where crisis and war occurred or was threatened to
occur, but did not cross certain limits.
19. The two superpowers were poised for direct confrontation
in:
(a) Berlin (1958-62), Congo (early 1960s) and Vietnam (1955-75)
(b) Korea (1950-53), Berlin (1958-62) and Congo (early 1960s)
(c) Korea (1950-53), Berlin (1958-62) and Gulf War (1991)
(d) Korea (1950-53) and Congo (early 1960s)
Ans. (b) Korea (1950-53), Berlin (1958-62) and Congo (early
1960s)
20. A great many lives were lost in some of the arenas of Cold
War, but the world was spared
a/an _______ war and _______ hostility.
(a) Non Nuclear, local
(b) Economic, trade
(c) Nuclear, global
(d) World, international
Ans. (c) Nuclear, global
21. The purpose of the Marshall plan was:
(a) To spread militarism across Europe
(b) To strengthen the ties between the allied nations
(c) To provide economic aid to eastern Europe
(d) Reconstruction of Western Europe
Ans. (d) Reconstruction of Western Europe
22. CENTO was originally known as _______.
(a) Warsaw Pact
(b) Baghdad Pact
(c) The Central Trade Organization
(d) Marshall plan
Ans. (b) Baghdad Pact
23. Choose the odd one out.
(a) Poland – Eastern Bloc
(b) Turkey – Western Bloc
(c) Greece – Eastern Bloc
(d) France – Western Bloc
Ans. (c) Greece – Eastern Bloc
24. _______, one of the key leaders of the NAM, played a
crucial role in mediating between the two _______.
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru, Korea
(b) Sukarno, Korea
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru, Superpowers
(d) Gamal Abdel Nasser, blocs
Ans. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru, Korea
25. The Non-Aligned Movement offered the newly
independent countries a third option ________.
(a) Not to join either alliance
(b) To join one alliance but can trade with both alliances
(c) To join alliance based on who their colonial masters were
(d) To form another superpower bloc
Ans. (a) Not to join either alliance
26. The NAM came into existence mainly because of the
leadership of:
(b) Josip Broz
(c) Gamal Abdel Nasser
27. The first NAM conference was held in Belgrade in:
(a) September 1961
(b) October 1961
(c) December 1959
(d) October 1963
Ans. (a) September 1961
28. The three major factors for the formation of the NAM were:
(i) Cooperation among the founding member countries
(ii) Growing Cold War tensions
(iii) Entry of many decolonized African countries into the
international arena
(iv) The need to establish a third super power
(a) (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans. (c) (i), (ii), (iii)
29. The first summit of the NAM had _______ members.
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 45
Ans. (b) 25
30. The latest NAM summit was held in 2019 in ______ and
attended by ______ member countries.
(a) Azerbaijan, 120
(b) India, 100
(c) Venezuela, 110
(d) Egypt, 150
Ans. (a) Azerbaijan, 120
31. It was easier to define the NAM by what it did not stand
for:
(i) NAM did not stand for Isolationism.
(ii) NAM did not stand for Neutrality.
(iii) NAM did not stand for Non-alignment.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Ans. (b) (i) and (ii)
32. As the leader of the NAM, what was India’s response to
the Cold war?
(a) To stay away from either blocs and raise voice to stop newly
decolonize countries from entering either blocs
(b) To stay away from either blocs
(c) To raise voice to stop newly decolonized countries from
entering either blocs
Ans. (a) To stay away from either blocs and raise voice to stop
newly decolonize countries from entering either blocs
33. What did India’s non-alignment policy mean?
(a) It was to be passive and negative towards world affairs.
(b) It was to completely isolate oneself from all world affair.
(c) It was active intervention to resolve world affairs and soften the
Cold War rivalries.
(d) It was to neutralize the powers of the two super blocs.
Ans. (c) It was active intervention to resolve world affairs and
soften the Cold War rivalries.
34. How did the NAM serve India’s interest?
(a) It allowed India to take independent decisions and balance one
superpower against the other.
(b) It allowed India to become the leader of the third super bloc.
(c) It allowed India to play a vital role in the arms race between US
and USSR.
(d) It allowed India to pit one bloc against the other.
Ans. (a) It allowed India to take independent decisions and
balance one superpower against the other.
35. India signed the Treaty of Friendship with ________ in
1971.
(a) USA
(b) USSR
(c) Eastern European Countries
(d) China
Ans. (b) USSR
36. Why did India sign the Treaty of Friendship?
(a) It needed military and diplomatic support during Bangladesh
crisis.
(b) It wanted to move away from the NAM.
(c) It wanted to be close to one of the superpowers.
(d) It wanted to be most powerful among its neighbours.
Ans. (a) It needed military and diplomatic support during
Bangladesh crisis.
37. Study the picture given below and answer the question.
When did US and USSR starting negotiations for banning of

arms test?
(a) 1960s
(b) 1950s
(c) 1970s
(d) 1980s
Ans. (a) 1960s
38. Fall of Berlin Wall took place in the year?
(a) 9th November 1990
(b) 15th November 1989
(c) 9th November 1989
(d) 15th November 1988
Ans. (c) 9th November 1989

39. The NAM posed a challenge to:
(a) Bipolarity
(b) Unipolarity
(c) Multipolarity
(d) Globalisation
Ans. (a) Bipolarity
40. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) The root of NAM was the New Economic World Order.
(b) The root of NAM goes back to the friendship between three
leaders —Josip Broz Tito, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Gamal Abdel
Nasser.
(c) The root of NAM was the need of the newly independent
countries to assert their power.
(d) The root of NAM was India’s aspiration to be the world leader.
Ans. (b) The root of NAM goes back to the friendship between
three leaders —Josip Broz Tito, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Gamal
Abdel Nasser.
41. By mid-1970s the NAM became a/an ______.
(a) economic pressure group
(b) cultural exchange group
(c) ideological group
(d) political pressure group
Ans. (a) economic pressure group
42. The Second World War was fought between:
(a) 1914–1919
(b) 1920–1925
(c) 1940–1942
(d) 1939–1945
Ans. (d) 1939–1945
43. The Cold War was:
(a) a matter of power rivalries
(b) an ideological conflict
(c) of military alliance
(d) all of the above
Ans. (d) all of the above
44. Cuban Missile Crisis took place in the year:
(a) 1956
(b) 1962
(c) 1960
(d) 1971
Ans. (b) 1962
45. Which of the following Soviet leaders decided to convert
Cuba into Soviet Phase?
(a) Stalin
(b) Khrushchev
(c) Gorbachev
(d) Putin
Ans. (b) Khrushchev
46. Warsaw Pact was organised by the Soviet bloc in the year:
(a) 1949
(b) 1950
(c) 1955
(d) 1960
Ans. (c) 1955
47. Unification of Germany took place in the year:
(a) 1990
(b) 1988
(c) 1991
(d) 1992
Ans. (a) 1990
48. During the period of Cold War, great loss of lives and
destruction took place in the country:
(a) Korea
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Vietnam
(d) All of these
49. Disintegration of U.S.S.R. and the end of the era of Cold
War took place in:
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1989
Ans. (b) 1991
50. Which among the following statement about the Cold War
is wrong?
(a) It was a competition between the US and Soviet Union and
their respective allies.
(b) It was an ideological war between the superpowers.
(c) It triggered off an arms race.
(d) The US and USSR were engaged in direct wars.
Ans. (d) The US and USSR were engaged in direct wars.
51. Which among the following statement does not reflect the
objectives of NAM?
(a) Enabling newly decolonised countries to pursue independent
policies.
(b) No to joining any military alliances.
(c) Following a policy of neutrality on global issues.
(d) Focus on elimination of global economic inequalities.
Ans. (c) Following a policy of neutrality on global issues.
1. What was ‘Second World’?
(a) The east European countries liberated by the Soviet army and
came under the control of the USSR.
(b) The European countries that came under the influence of the
US after Second World War.
(c) The phase after the Second World War is known as Second
World.
(d) All the developed countries together were known as the
Second World.
Ans. (a) The east European countries liberated by the Soviet army
and came under the control of the USSR.
2. The Second World was also known as ________.
(a) Developing countries
(b) Socialist Bloc
(c) West Europe
(d) East Europe
Ans. (b) Socialist Bloc
3. Why did the life of common people under the Communist
rule in the USSR become difficult?
(a) The Soviet system became very bureaucratic and
authoritarian.
(b) The Soviet system gave too much freedom to its people, which
led to anarchy.
(c) The leadership under the Soviet rule was constantly changing,
thus creating instability.
(d) There was too much emphasis on pop culture.
Ans. (a) The Soviet system became very bureaucratic and
authoritarian.
4. The Soviet invasion of _______ in 1979 weakened the
system even further.
(a) Turkey
(b) Germany
(c) Afghanistan
(d) China
Ans. (c) Afghanistan
5. Which of the following statement is NOT true about
erstwhile USSR?
(a) The transport sector connected the remotest areas of the
USSR with efficiency.
(b) State ownership was the dominant form of ownership.
(c) USSR had a free-market economy.
(d) The USSR had a complex communications network.
Ans. (c) USSR had a free-market economy.
6. ________ who became the General Secretary of the
Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985, sought to
reform the system.
(a) Mikhail Gorbachev
(b) Joseph Stalin
(c) Vladimir Lenin
(d) Boris Yeltsin
Ans. (a) Mikhail Gorbachev
7. What was the immediate outcome of the reforms
introduced by Mikhail Gorbachev?
(a) Rapid development of the USSR.
(b) Independence movement across various East European
countries, which were part of the USSR.
(c) USSR becomes the most developed part of the world.
(d) People of the USSR were elated with the much await reforms.
Ans. (b) Independence movement across various East European
countries, which were part of the USSR.
8. Which Soviet Union leader brought about the reforms of
glasnost and perestroika?
(a) Mikhail Gorbachev
(b) Leonid Brezhnev
(c) Nikita Khrushchev
(d) Joseph Stalin
Ans. (a) Mikhail Gorbachev
9. Mikhail Gorbachev introduced economic reforms, which is
also known as _______.
(a) Perestroika
(b) Glasnost
(c) Shock Therapy
(d) Bolshevik Revolution
Ans. (a) Perestroika
10. What kind of reforms did Glasnost bring about?
(a) Some amount of transparency in the system
(b) Openness in government activities
(c) Both of the above
Ans. (b) Openness in government activities
11. Which part of the USSR did not want independence from
the Soviet Federation?
(a) Central Asian Republic
(b) East European countries
(c) Europeanized part of USSR
(d) Russian Republic
Ans. (a) Central Asian Republic
12. What is the correct option for CIS?
(a) Commonwealth of Independent States
(b) Common Independent System
(c) Community of Independent States
(d) Commonwealth Independent States
Ans. (a) Commonwealth of Independent States
13. The disintegration of the USSR led to:
(i) Birth of CIS
(ii) Change in the balance of power in the world order
(iii) Russia emerging as the superpower
(iv) Formation of a new block
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
14. The disintegration of USSR ended the _______.
(a) Soviet – Afghan War
(b) Vietnam War
(c) Korean War
(d) Cold War
Ans. (d) Cold War
15. The Communist Party that had ruled the Soviet Union for
over ________ was not accountable to the people.
(a) 10 years
(b) 70 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 100 years
Ans. (b) 70 years
Carefully see the picture and answer the questions:
16. Which of the following is NOT true about the collapse of

USSR?
(a) Disintegration took place because of nationalist movement
among the Europeanised parts of USSR.
(b) USSR broke down into 15 states.
(c) Only thing responsible for the disintegration was Gorbachev’s
rule.
(d) Disintegration of USSR in certain ways was seen as end of
Communism.
Ans. (c) Only thing responsible for the disintegration was
Gorbachev’s rule.
17. Where and when did Independence movement first
began?
(a) Lithuania, 1988
(b) Estonia, 1980
(c) Latvia, 1990
(d) East Germany, 1992
Ans. (a) Lithuania, 1988
18. Which of the following was not an outcome of the
disintegration of the USSR?
(a) It meant the end of Cold War confrontations.
(b) It meant change in the power relations of world politics.
(c) It led to emergence of many new countries.
(d) It meant the rise of a third power.
Ans. (d) It meant the rise of a third power.
19. The Shock Therapy is also associated with ______.
(a) Largest garage sale in history
(b) Cuban Missile Crisis
(c) Gulf War
(d) Bolshevik Revolution
Ans. (a) Largest garage sale in history
20. Arrange the following in chronological order.
(i) Collapse of Berlin Wall
(ii) Shock Therapy
(iii) Yeltsin becomes the President of Russia
(iv) Birth of CIS
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Ans. (c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
21. In Central Asia, which country faced civil war for 10 years
after the disintegration of USSR?
(a) Tajikistan
(b) Chechnya
(c) Dagestan
(d) Uzbekistan
Ans. (a) Tajikistan
22. In Russia, which two republics, had violent secessionist
movements post USSR disintegration?
(a) Chechnya, Dagestan
(b) Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan
(c) Czechs, Slovaks
(d) Bosnia, Herzegovina
Ans. (a) Chechnya, Dagestan
23. Which statement is NOT true about India and Russia tie?
(a) Both countries believe in multipolarity.
(b) Both countries share passion and love for Bollywood.
(c) Both countries have signed less than 80 bilateral agreements
in 2001.
(d) India stands to benefit on the issue of Kashmir from its
relationship with Russia.
Ans. (b) Both countries share passion and love for Bollywood.
24. Post cold war, we have a ________ world.
(a) Bipolar
(b) Multipolar
(c) Unipolar
(d) Nonpolar
Ans. (c) Unipolar
25. Which of the following Soviet Union leader suggested
“peaceful coexistence” with the West?
(a) Nikita Khrushchev
(b) Leonid Brezhnev
(c) Joseph Stalin
(d) Vladimir Lenin
Ans. (a) Nikita Khrushchev
26. The US hegemony is facing ______ types of constraints.
(a) Multiple
(b) Three
(c) Ten
(d) Two
Ans. (b) Three
27. What was the main reason for the Arab Spring movement?
(a) Unemployment
(b) Poverty
(c) Democracy
(d) All of these
28. The demand for democracy that started in _______ soon
spread to other countries in the Arab World.
(a) Yemen
(b) Libya
(c) Bahrain
(d) Tunisia
Ans. (d) Tunisia
29. Which Russian leader proposed the invasion of
Afghanistan?
(a) Leonid Brezhnev
(b) Boris Yeltsin
(c) Mikhail Gorbachev
(d) Vladimir Putin
Ans. (a) Leonid Brezhnev
30. Soviet Union came into being in:
(a) 1917
(b) 1919
(c) 1945
(d) 1920
Ans. (a) 1917
31. Soviet Union disintegrated in the year:
(a) 1945
(b) 1985
(c) 1971
(d) 1991
Ans. (d) 1991
32. What was the reason for the end of Bipolarity in world
politics?
(a) Disintegration of Soviet Union
(b) End of the Cold War
(c) Role of Non-alignment Movement
33. Russian Revolution of 1917 was inspired by the ideals of:
(a) Socialism
(b) Capitalism
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Socialism
34. Mikhail Gorbachev became General Secretary of the
Communist Party in the Soviet Union in:
(a) 1980
(b) 1985
(c) 1990
(d) 1988
Ans. (b) 1985
35. The following statement about the Soviet Union is true:
(a) The Communist Party had complete control over all institutions.
(b) Soviet system became autocratic and authoritarian.
(c) There was lack of democracy and absence of the freedom of
speech in the Soviet Union.
36. The following country was accepted as the successor of
USSR in the Security Council of UNO.
(a) Georgia
(b) Ukraine
(c) Russia
(d) Lithuania
Ans. (c) Russia
37. Berlin Wall was broken in the year:
(a) 1980
(b) 1989
(c) 1991
(d) 2000
Ans. (b) 1989
38. The first elected President of Russia was:
(a) Boris Yeltsin
(b) Vladimir Putin
(c) Mikhail Gorbachev
Ans. (a) Boris Yeltsin
39. Both India and Russia share a vision of a world order:
(a) Unipolar
(b) Bipolar
(c) Multipolar
(d) None of these
Ans. (c) Multipolar
40. Which among the following statement that describe the
nature of Soviet economy is wrong?
(a) Socialism was the dominant ideology.
(b) State ownership/control existed over the factors of production.
(c) People enjoyed economic freedom.
(d) Every aspect of the economy was planned and controlled by
the state.
Ans. (c) People enjoyed economic freedom.
41. Arrange the following in chronological order:
(a) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
(b) Fall of the Berlin Wall
(c) Disintegration of the Soviet Union
(d) Russian Revolution
Ans. (a) Russian Revolution
(b) Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
(c) Fall of the Berlin Wall
(d) Disintegration of the Soviet Union
42. Which among the following is NOT an outcome of the
disintegration of the USSR?
(a) End of the ideological war between the US and USSR
(b) Birth of CIS
(c) Change in the balance of power in the world order
(d) Crises in Middle East
Ans. (d) Crises in Middle East
(i) Mikhail Gorbachev A. Successor of USSR
(ii) Shock Therapy B. Military Pact
(iii) Russia C. Introduced Reforms
(iv) Boris Yeltsin D. Economic Model
(v) Warsaw E. President of Russia

(a) (i)-C, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-E, (v)-B
(b) (i)-B, (ii)-E, (iii)-D, (iv)-A, (v)-C
(c) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-B, (v)-E
(d) (i)-D, (ii)-B, (iii)-E, (iv)-C, (v)-A
Ans. (a) (i)-C, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-E, (v)-B
1. The US hegemony began in ______.
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1992
(d) 1993
Ans. (b) 1991
2. What was the reason for the Gulf War?
(a) Iraqi occupation of Kuwait
(b) US wanting to establish its hegemony
(c) Battle over control of oil
(d) Iraq refusing to accept US as a superpower
Ans. (a) Iraqi occupation of Kuwait
3. Which situation made US President George Bush talk about
a New World Order?
(a) UN’s permission to stop Iraq’s aggression by force
(b) To avert the Cuba Missile Crisis
(c) Iraq’s defeat in the first Gulf War
(d) Establishing US hegemony and supremacy
Ans. (a) UN’s permission to stop Iraq’s aggression by force
4. The ‘soft issue’ that Bill Clinton as the President of US
focused on were:
(i) Democracy
(ii) Climate Change
(iii) Military power
(iv) Security
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
See the image carefully and answer the questions:
5. What has the attack on the World Trade Centre come to be

known as?
(a) 9/11
(b) 11/9
(c) 9/01
(d) 11/01
Ans. (a) 9/11
6. Which statement about the attack on the World Trade Tower
is NOT correct?
(a) In terms of loss of life, this attack is worse on the US soil since
the country was formed in 1776.
(b) The attack has been compared to that of the Pearl Harbour.
(c) Nineteen hijackers from various Arab countries were part of
this attack.
(d) This attack is seen as the end of US hegemony.
Ans. (d) This attack is seen as the end of US hegemony.
7. The US launched ______ as part of its aggressive response
to the attack on WTC.
(a) Operation Enduring Freedom
(b) Operation Desert Storm
(c) Operation Iraqi Freedom
(d) Operation Infinite Reach
Ans. (a) Operation Enduring Freedom
8. What does the term Hegemony stand for?
(i) Military dominance
(ii) Economic power
(iii) Political and cultural superiority
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i)
Ans. (c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
9. Pick the odd one out.
(a) Operation Infinite Reach - Coalition of the willing
(b) Operation Enduring Freedom - War against Al-Qaeda and
Taliban
(c) Operation Desert Storm - First Gulf War
(d) Operation Iraqi Freedom - Coalition of the willing
Ans. (a) Operation Infinite Reach - Coalition of the willing
10. In recent years, India’s relationship with the US has been
influenced by two factors:
(a) Democracy and religion
(b) Indian diaspora and technology
(c) Space missions and climate change
(d) Geopolitics and India’s permanent seat in UN
Ans. (b) Indian diaspora and technology
11. The European Union is following the _______ strategy
against the US hegemony.
(a) Hide
(b) Bandwagon
(c) Aggressive
(d) Friendly
Ans. (a) Hide
12. Name a conflict zone where US was involved during post
cold war period.
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Kashmir
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Tibet
Ans. (a) Afghanistan
13. Which among the following statement about hegemony is
incorrect?
(a) The word implies the leadership or predominance of one State.
(b) It was used to denote the predominance of Athens in the
ancient Greece.
(c) The country having hegemonic position will possess
unchallenged military power.
(d) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemon, always a
hegemon.
Ans. (c) The country having hegemonic position will possess
unchallenged military power.
14. Which among the following statement is wrong about the
contemporary world order?
(a) There is an absence of world government, which could
regulate the State’s behaviour.
(b) The US is the predominant player in world affairs.
(c) States are using force against one another.
(d) States, which violate international law, are severely punished
by the UN.
Ans. (a) There is an absence of world government, which could
regulate the State’s behaviour.
15. Which among the following statement is wrong with
regard to ‘Operation Iraqi Freedom’?
(a) More than forty countries joined in the US-led coalition of the
willing to invade Iraq.
(b) The reason given for invading Iraq was to prevent it from
developing weapons of mass destruction.
(c) The action was taken with the prior approval of the UN.
(d) The US-led coalition did not face major resistance from Iraqi
forces.
Ans. (d) The US-led coalition did not face major resistance from
Iraqi forces.
(i) Operation Infinite A. War against Al-Qaeda and

Reach Taliban
(ii) Operation Enduring B. Coalition of the willing

Freedom
(iii) Operation Desert Storm C. Missile attack in Sudan
(iv) Operation Iraqi D. First Gulf War

Freedom
(a) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-B
(b) (i)-A, (ii)-C, (iii)-B, (iv)-D
(c) (i)-B, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-C
(d) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-B, (iv)-A
Ans. (a) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-B
17. In which year was First Gulf War fought?
(a) 1985
(b) 1991
(c) 1995
(d) 1992
Ans. (b) 1991
18. In which year US attacked Iraq?
(a) 2002
(b) 2003
(c) 2001
(d) 2004
Ans. (b) 2003
19. The following President US order the invasion of Iraq:
(a) J.F. Kennedy
(b) Bill Clinton
(c) George W. Bush
(d) Jimmy Carter
Ans. (c) George W. Bush
20. The Headquarters of US Defence department are located
at:
(a) Washington
(b) New York
(c) Chicago
(d) Virginia
Ans. (d) Virginia
21. In which year was World Trade Centre in US destroyed by
the terrorists?
(a) 2001
(b) 2002
(c) 2000
(d) 2004
Ans. (a) 2001
22. The Cold War lasted from:
(a) 1939–1945
(b) 1945–1991
(c) 1991–1999
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) 1945–1991
23. Iraq invaded Kuwait in the year:
(a) 1991
(b) 1995
(c) 1990
(d) 1989
Ans. (c) 1990
24. Who among the following is considered to be responsible
for the attack on World Trade Centre in the US?
(a) Saddam Hussein
(b) Al-Qaida and Osama Bin Laden
(c) ISI of Pakistan
Ans. (b) Al-Qaida and Osama Bin Laden
25. When did Soviet Union withdraw from Afghanistan?
(a) 1991
(b) 1989
(c) 1995
(d) 1990
Ans. (b) 1989
26. After the end of Cold War, the world is:
(a) Unipolar
(b) Bipolar
(c) Multi-polar
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Unipolar
27. The attack on Iraq in 2003 is known is:
(a) Operation Enduring Freedom
(b) Operation Iraqi Freedom
(c) Operation Desert Storm
Ans. (b) Operation Iraqi Freedom
28. Which among the following is not a product of American
Hegemony?
(a) UNO
(b) World Bank
(c) WTO
(d) International Monetary Fund
Ans. (a) UNO
1. What does the EU stand for?
(a) European Union
(b) Europe United
(c) Europe Union
Ans. (a) European Union
2. Which year was the EU established?
(a) 1990
(b) 1989
(c) 1991
(d) 1992
Ans. (d) 1992
3. Which is NOT true about the EU?
(a) It is a highly influential regional organization
(b) It has a currency of its own
(c) It can challenge the power of the US in trade, diplomacy and
military areas
(d) It was laid for common foreign and security policy
Ans. (c) It can challenge the power of the US in trade, diplomacy
and military areas
4. The EU has evolved from a/an ______ union to a/an ______
union.
(a) economic, political
(b) political, economic
(c) cultural, economic
(d) economic, social
Ans. (a) economic, political
5. Which one the EU doesn’t have?
(a) Anthem
(b) Constitution
(c) Currency
(d) Flag
Ans. (b) Constitution
6. Which among the following countries is NOT a member of
the EU?
(a) Denmark
(b) Germany
(c) Sweden
(d) The USA
Ans. (d) The USA
7. Arrange the following in chronological order regarding the
EU.
(i) Establishment of Euratom
(ii) First Direct election of European Parliament
(iii) Establishment of a single market
(iv) Euro gets introduced
(a) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(c) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Ans. (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(a) Greece joins the EC – 1981
(b) The EU is awarded the Noble Peace Prize
– 2012
(c) Britain decides to move out of the EU – 2016
(d) The Lisbon Treaty came into force – 2010
Ans. (d) The Lisbon Treaty came into force – 2010
9. The term Brexit stands for ______.
(a) Britain exit from the EU
(b) Britain decides to stay with the EU after a vote
(c) EU’s policy of following the US foreign policy
(d) Break peace with all countries
Ans. (a) Britain exit from the EU
10. Which treaty established the EU?
(a) Treaty of Maastricht
(b) Lisbon Treaty
(c) Treaty of Paris
Ans. (a) Treaty of Maastricht
11. What does ASEAN stand for?
(a) The Association of South East Asian Nations
(b) The Associate of South East Asian Nations
(c) The Association of Southern East Asian Nations
Ans. (a) The Association of South East Asian Nations
12. ______ Declaration led to the formation of ASEAN in the
year ______ .
(a) Bangkok, 1967
(b) Bangkok, 1957
(c) Jakarta, 1967
(d) Jakarta, 1957
Ans. (a) Bangkok, 1967
13. Which is NOT true about ASEAN?
(a) It was mainly established for economic growth of the region.
(b) It also wanted to promote peace and stability in the region.
(c) It wanted to establish itself as the Asian counterpart of the EU.
(d) It does not want to have supranational structures and
institutions.
Ans. (c) It wanted to establish itself as the Asian counterpart of
The EU.
14. What is ASEAN WAY of working?
(a) To have informal, Non-confrontationist and cooperative
interactions
(b) Mutual respect for each other’s sovereignty
15. The ______ carries out coordination of security and
foreign policy in the ASEAN region.
(a) ASEAN
(b) ASEAN Regional Forum
(c) ASEAN Regional Foundation
(d) Asian Regional Forum
Ans. (b) ASEAN Regional Forum
16. The ASEAN-India FTA came into effect in ______ .
(a) 2010
(b) 2000
(c) 1999
(d) 1995
Ans. (a) 2010
17. Following the communist revolution, China established its
economy on the ______ model.
(a) USA
(b) Soviet
(c) Socialist
(d) Modernist
Ans. (b) Soviet
18. Which country adopted the ‘open door’ policy?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) Brazil
Ans. (b) China
19. In China, the privatisation of ______ in 1982 was followed
by privatisation of industry in ______ .
(a) agriculture, 1998
(b) services, 1985
(c) agriculture, 1985
(d) services, 1998
Ans. (a) agriculture, 1998
(i) China’s accession to the WTO
(ii) Chinese leadership decides to end the political and economic
isolation
(iii) Chinese Premier Zhou Enlai proposed the ‘four
modernisations’
(iv) China introduces the ‘open door’ policy
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(c) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
(d) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Ans. (b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
21. Which among the following countries has the most
important destination for FDI (Foreign Direct Investment)?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Brazil
(d) Japan
Ans. (a) China
22. Which of the following challenges is/are being faced
currently by China?
(a) It has high unemployment rate
(b) Working conditions are very poor
(c) There is major environment degradation and internal corruption
23. Which of the following countries adopted the ‘Look East’
Policy?
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) Pakistan
Ans. (a) India
24. ______ visit to China in 1988 is seen as an important step
in taking the relationship forward after the Indo-China war of
1962.
(a) P.V. Narasimha Rao’s
(b) Rajiv Gandhi’s
(c) VP Singh’s
(d) Manmohan Singh’s
Ans. (b) Rajiv Gandhi’s
25. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
(a) Bilateral trade between India and China has increased from
$338 million in 1992 to more than $84 billion in 2017.
(b) Recently the relationship between the two countries has taken
a hit due to border issues
(c) China is seen as providing help to build Pakistan’s nuclear
programme
(d) China is in constant war with India
Ans. (d) China is in constant war with India
26. Which statement about Japan is NOT correct?
(a) Japan is the only country that suffered a nuclear attack
(b) Japan contributes almost 10 per cent of the UN’s budget
(c) Japan has a security alliance with the US since 1951
(d) Japan is the largest economy among the Asian countries
Ans. (d) Japan is the largest economy among the Asian countries
27. What is ‘Miracle on the Han River’?
(a) It is the most popular South Korean movie
(b) It is the term for rapid economic development of South Korea
between 1960s-1980s.
(c) It is the biggest cultural festival in South Korea
Ans. (b) It is the term for rapid economic development of South
Korea between 1960s-1980s.
28. The HDI (Human Development Index) rank of South Korea
in 2016 is:
(a) 100
(b) 18
(c) 55
(d) 2
Ans. (b) 18
29. Which statement is NOT correct about South Korea?
(a) Many of South Korean popular brands are sold in India.
(b) South Korea’s military expenditure is tenth largest.
(c) South Korea became a member of the OCED in 1996.
(d) South Korea is a permanent member of the UN Security
Council.
Ans. (d) South Korea is a permanent member of the UN Security
Council.
30. Japan became a member of the OECD in ______.
(a) 1965
(b) 1999
(c) 1964
(d) 1980
Ans. (c) 1964
31. Which is the only Asian country of G-7?
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) Singapore
(d) India
Ans. (a) Japan
(a) Act East Policy -India
(b) Look East Policy – Pakistan
(c) Open Door Policy – China
(d) Outward Looking Policy – ASEAN
Ans. (b) Look East Policy – Pakistan
(i) Establishment of ASEAN
(ii) Establishment of ARF
(iii) China’s entry in WTO
(iv) Establishment of EEC
(a) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(d) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Ans. (a) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
34. The OCED stands for ______ .
(a) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
(b) Organisation of Environment Cooperation and Development
(c) Organisation of Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) Organisation for Economic Coordination and Development
Ans. (a) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and
Development
(a) China’s accession to WTO
(b) Establishment of the EEC
(c) Establishment of the EU
(d) Birth of ARF
Ans. (b) Establishment of the EEC (1957)
(c) Establishment of the EU (1992)
(d) Birth of ARF (1994)
(a) China’s accession to WTO (2001)
36. Who among the following adopted an ‘open door’ policy?
(a) China
(b) EU
(c) Japan
(d) USA
Ans. (c) Japan
37. The European Union has:
(a) Economic influence
(b) Military influence
(c) Political and Diplomatic influence
38. The European Economic Community (EEC) was
established in:
(a) 1945
(b) 1947
(c) 1955
(d) 1957
Ans. (d) 1957
39. The currency of EU is:
(a) Rupee
(b) Dollar
(c) Yen
(d) Euro
Ans. (d) Euro
40. Which of the following countries is member of EU?
(a) France
(b) Belgium
(c) Italy
(d) All of these
41. Which among the following have emerged as alternative
centres of power to US hegemony?
(a) European Union
(b) ASEAN
(c) China
(d) All of these
42. Which of the following members of EU are permanent
members of the Security Council of UNO?
(a) France and England
(b) France and India
(c) England and USA
(d) Greece and Netherlands
Ans. (a) France and England
43. Which of the following EU countries has nuclear
weapons?
(a) England
(b) Denmark
(c) Greece
(d) Netherlands
Ans. (a) England
44. ASEAN was established by signing the:
(a) Marshall Plan
(b) FTA (Free Trade Area)
(c) Bangkok Declaration
Ans. (c) Bangkok Declaration
45. Following country is founder member of ASEAN:
(a) Indonesia
(b) Malaysia
(c) Thailand
(d) Philippines
Ans. (d) Philippines
46. Following country is not a founder member of ASEAN:
(a) Thailand
(b) Malaysia
(c) India
(d) Philippines
Ans. (c) India
47. In China, the privatisation of agriculture took palce in the
year:
(a) 1991
(b) 1984
(c) 1982
(d) 1990
Ans. (c) 1982
1. Which statement about South Asia is NOT correct?
(a) China is a part of South Asia
(b) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and
Sri Lanka are the major countries of South Asia
(c) Conflict and trust co-exist in this region
(d) Afghanistan and Myanmar are included in discussions of the
region as a whole.
Ans. (a) China is a part of South Asia
2. Which statement is CORRECT about South Asia?
(a) All countries in South Asia do not follow democracy
(b) There are ethnic and resource sharing conflicts in the region
(c) South Asia is diverse yet in a single geo-political space
3. SAFTA was signed in ______ in 2004.
(a) Islamabad
(b) New Delhi
(c) Karachi
(d) Colombo
Ans. (a) Islamabad
4. ______ has had constant shift putting democracy and
military rule.
(a) Pakistan
(b) India
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal
Ans. (a) Pakistan
5. What is a major regional initiative taken by the countries of
South Asia for regional cooperation?
(a) Not to interfere into each other’s matter
(b) To support each other in the UN
(c) Formation of SAARC
(d) To form democratic government in all states
Ans. (c) Formation of SAARC
6. _______broke away from Pakistan to form a new nation
called Bangladesh.
(a) East Pakistan
(b) West Pakistan
(c) Baluchistan
(d) West Afghanistan
Ans. (a) East Pakistan
7. Which military ruler removed Zulfikar Ali Bhutto?
(a) General Ayub Khan
(b) General Yahya Khan
(c) General Zia-ul-Haq
(d) General Musharraf
Ans. (c) General Zia-ul-Haq
8. Which factors have contributed towards the military rule in
Pakistan?
(a) Social dominance of the military, religious clergy etc.
(b) Conflict with India
(c) Lack of international support for democratic rule
9. Democracy has not flourished in Pakistan, however there
are strong ______ sentiments among the people of the
country.
(a) pro-democratic
(b) anti-democratic
(c) socialist
(d) military
Ans. (a) pro-democratic
10. The SAFTA promises ______ for the entire South Asia.
(a) Free trade zone
(b) Free movement
(c) Single currency
(d) Single parliament
Ans. (a) Free trade zone
11. Indo-Pak war for the liberation of Bangladesh took place
in ______ .
(a) 1971
(b) 1962
(c) 1948
(d) 1956
Ans. (a) 1971
12. ______ led the struggle against the dominance of West
Pakistan.
(a) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
(b) Khaleda Zia
(c) SajeebWazed
(d) Sheikh Kamal
Ans. (a) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
13. Bangladesh was part of Pakistan from ______ to ______ .
(a) 1950, 1988
(b) 1947, 1971
(c) 1946, 1971
(d) 1950, 1988
Ans. (b) 1947, 1971
14. Why did East Pakistan want independence from West
Pakistan?
(a) They were against the dominance of Urdu as the main
language.
(b) They wanted fair representation in administration and political
power.
(c) They wanted fair share in economic and cultural development
and liberty
15. In the Post-liberation period Bangladesh drafted a
Constitution based on:
(a) Secularism
(b) Democracy
(c) Socialism
(d) All of these
16. What all changes did Sheikh Mujib bring in 1975?
(i) Moved from parliamentary to presidential form of government
(ii) Abolished all parties, except Awami League
(iii) Established military rule
(iv) Joined hands with West Pakistan
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv)
17. Sheikh Mujib was assassinated in ______ .
(a) August 1975
(b) September 1975
(c) August 1977
(d) January 1975
Ans. (a) August 1975
18. Bangladesh National Party was formed by ______ .
(a) Ziaur Rahman
(b) Sheikh Mujib
(c) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
(d) General Zia-ul-Haq
Ans. (a) Ziaur Rahman
19. Bangladesh since 1991 has which type of government?
(a) Representative democracy based on multi-party elections
(b) One party rule
(c) Military dictatorship
(d) Presidential rule
Ans. (a) Representative democracy based on multi-party elections
20. In Nepal the largely non-violent mass movement for
democracy was led by ______ .
(a) Maoist parties
(b) Socialist parties
(c) Seven Party Alliance
(d) Students
Ans. (c) Seven Party Alliance
21. From a _______ kingdom, Nepal moved to ______ .
(a) Hindu, Constitutional Monarchy
(b) Islamic, Constitutional Monarchy
(c) Rich, Poverty
(d) Hindu, Absolute Monarchy
Ans. (a) Hindu, Constitutional Monarchy
22. Which statement is NOT correct about Nepal?
(a) In the 1990s, the maoist became very strong in Nepal
(b) There was a triangle conflict between the maoists, democrats
and monarchists
(c) In 2002, the king abolished the parliament
(d) Nepal had an extremely violent mass uprising against
monarchy
Ans. (d) Nepal had an extremely violent mass uprising against
monarchy
23. Pick the Odd one out in the context of Nepal.
(a) 1990 - king accepted new democratic constitution
(b) 2002 - king abolished parliament
(c) 2006 - there was pro-democratic movement
(d) 2008 - monarchy is restored
Ans. (d) 2008 - monarchy is restored
24. In ______ Nepal became a democratic republic.
(a) 2002
(b) 2008
(c) 1999
(d) 2000
Ans. (b) 2008
25. When did Nepal adopt a new Constitution?
(a) 2015
(b) 2008
(c) 2000
(d) 2010
Ans. (a) 2015
26. Since independence in 1948, Sri Lanka has had a ______
rule.
(a) Democratic
(b) Military
(c) Dictator
(d) Monarchy
Ans. (a) Democratic
27. In the Post independence era, Sri Lanka had a government
that favoured ______ .
(a) Sinhala community
(b) Tamil community
(c) Foreigners
(d) Indian
Ans. (a) Sinhala community
28. What led to militant Tamil nationalism in Sri Lanka?
(a) Too much migration of Tamils into Sri Lanka
(b) Years of neglection of Tamil aspirations for development and
equality like Sinhala
(c) Tamils wanted Sri Lanka to be part of India
Ans. (b) Years of neglection of Tamil aspirations for development
and equality like Sinhala
29. What is the full out of IPKF?
(a) Indian Peace Keeping Force
(b) International Peace Keeping Force
(c) Indian Protection Keeping Force
(d) Indian Peace Keeping Front
Ans. (a) Indian Peace Keeping Force
30. In ______ the IPKF pulled out of Sri Lanka.
(a) 1989
(b) 1999
(c) 1986
(d) 1990
Ans. (a) 1989
31. Which year was LTTE neutralized?
(a) 2009
(b) 2010
(c) 2000
(d) 1995
Ans. (a) 2009
32. Which statement is TRUE about Sri Lanka?
(a) It has high level of human development
(b) It has controlled the population growth
(c) It is the first country in South Asia to liberate the economy
33. Why did India send troops to Maldives in 1988?
(a) To stop an ethnic conflict
(b) To stop insurgency
(c) To stop invasion of Tamil mercenaries from Sri Lanka
(d) To crush a student’s mass movement
Ans. (c) To stop invasion of Tamil mercenaries from Sri Lanka
34. Which is not correctly matched?
(a) Indus Water Treaty – 1960
(b) Tashkent Agreement – 1966
(c) Farakka Treaty – 1996
(d) Indo-Sri Lanka peace Accord – 1978
Ans. (d) Indo-Sri Lanka peace Accord – 1978
35. India signed the following agreement with which
countries? Choose the ODD one out.
(a) Tashkent Agreement – with Pakistan
(b) Indus Water Treaty – with Afghanistan
(c) Shimla Agreement – with Pakistan
(d) Farakka Treaty – with Bangladesh
Ans. (b) Indus Water Treaty – with Afghanistan
36. What was the result of the 1971 Indo-Pak war?
(a) Emergence of Bangladesh as a new state
(b) East Pakistan and West Pakistan comes one nation again
(c) Refugees stop entering India
(d) India lost the war to Pakistan
Ans. (a) Emergence of Bangladesh as a new state
37. When did India and Pakistan conduct nuclear tests?
(a) May 1998
(b) January 1998
(c) February 1996
(d) April 1995
Ans. (a) May 1998
38. Which Indian Prime Minister undertook a bus journey to
Lahore to sign a peace treaty?
(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) V. P. Singh
Ans. (a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
39. Choose the odd one out.
(a) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto - pro-dictatorship
(b) Ayub Khan - pro-democracy
(c) Pervez Musharraf - pro-military
(d) Zia-ul-Haq - pro-military
Ans. (b) Ayub Khan - pro-democracy
40. India and Pakistan are trying to increase cooperation and
build peace in the following ways:
(i) Collaboration among social activists and known personalities of
the two countries
(ii) Leaders of both countries meet regularly in summits to
understand issues and find solutions
(iii) Bus routes have started between the two countries
(iv) Trade has increased
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
Ans. (d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
41. Which are the main areas of conflict between India and
Pakistan?
(a) Conflict over Kashmir
(b) Sharing of river water
(c) The ISI leading various anti-Indian campaigns
42. The Pak Occupied Kashmir (POK) and the Indian province
of J&K are divided by ______ .
(a) Line of Control
(b) McMahon Line
(c) Johnson Line
Ans. (a) Line of Control
43. ______ is part of India’s ‘Look East’ policy.
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Myanmar
(c) ASEAN
44. Bangladesh and India have started cooperating in which
areas majorly?
(a) Environmental issues,
(b) Disaster management
(c) Economic cooperation
45. Indian do not need a visa to travel to which South Asian
country?
(a) Nepal
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
Ans. (a) Nepal
46. What does SAARC stand for?
(a) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(b) Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(c) Southern Asia Association for Regional Cooperation
(d) South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation
Ans. (a) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
47. Which of the following country is NOT a member of
SAARC?
(a) India
(b) Bhutan
(c) Singapore
(d) Nepal
Ans. (c) Singapore
48. SAARC was founded in ______ in ______ .
(a) New Delhi, 1985
(b) Dhaka, 1985
(c) Kathmandu, 1985
(d) New Delhi, 1980
Ans. (b) Dhaka, 1985
49. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of the
SAARC?
(i) Welfare of the people of the region
(ii) Economic growth of the region
(iii) Develop into the next super power bloc
(iv) Help resolve international conflicts
(a) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) All statements are correct
50. The SAARC secretariat is located in:
(a) New Delhi (India)
(b) Kathmandu (Nepal)
(c) Lahore (Pakistan)
(d) Colombo (Sri Lanka)
Ans. (b) Kathmandu (Nepal)
51. What does SAFTA stand for?
(a) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
(b) South Asian Trade Agreement
(c) Asian Free Trade Agreement
(d) South Asian Free Trade Arrangement
Ans. (a) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
1. _______ is the most important international organisation in
today’s world.
(a) United Nations
(b) Work Bank
(c) International Monetary Fund
(d) League of Nations
Ans. (a) United Nations
2. “The United Nations was not created to take humanity to
heaven, but to save it from hell.” Which Secretary General of
the UN said this?
(a) Dag Hammarskjold
(b) Kofi Annan
(c) António Guterres
(d) Ban Ki-moon
Ans. (a) Dag Hammarskjold
3. UN stands for:
(a) United Nations
(b) Unified Nations
(c) Union Nations
(d) United Nationality
4. _________ number of states signed the UN charter which
led to the formation of the UN.
(a) 51 states
(b) 21 states
(c) 11 states
(d) 81 states
Ans. (a) 51 states
5. Why is the US so powerful within the UN?
(a) US is the largest contributor to the UN.
(b) US is one of the biggest continents.
(c) All other countries are scared of US.
(d) US is where the UN headquarter is located.
Ans. (a) US is the largest contributor to the UN.
6. Only the ________ members of the UN have veto powers.
(a) Permanent
(b) Non-permanent
(c) Rich
(d) Capitalist
Ans. (a) Permanent
7. Which day is celebrated as the UN day?
(a) October 24
(b) June 26
(c) February 5
(d) August 15
Ans. (a) October 24
8. On ________ India joins the UN.
(a) February 5, 1945
(b) August 15, 1945
(c) October 30, 1945
(d) March 3, 1945
Ans. (c) October 30, 1945
9. There was a two-month long United Nations Conference.
Where did this conference take place?
(a) San Francisco
(b) Chicago
(c) New York
(d) Washington
Ans. (a) San Francisco
10. The UN was formed as a successor to _________,
immediately after the __________.
(a) League of Nations, Second World War
(b) League of Nations, First World War
(c) Western bloc, Cold War
(d) League of Nations, Cold War
Ans. (a) League of Nations, Second World War
11. Which statement is NOT True about the UN?
(a) The UN was formed to stop conflicts from accelerating to war.
(b) The UN was formed to help nations cooperate among each
other.
(c) The UN was formed to check the limit of hostility if war broke
out.
(d) The UN was formed as a third bloc (the Welfare Bloc) after the
Capitalist and the Socialist bloc.
Ans. (d) The UN was formed as a third bloc (the Welfare Bloc)
after the Capitalist and the Socialist bloc.
12. The Security Council have _________ permanent
members.
(a) 5
(b) 11
(c) 15
(d) 12
Ans. (a) 5
13. How many members does the General Assembly has?
(a) 200
(b) 150
(c) 193
(d) 168
Ans. (c) 193
14. The permanent members of the Security Council are:
(a) USA, Russia, UK, France and China
(b) USA, Russia, UK, Italy and China
(c) USA, Russia, UK, Italy and Japan
(d) USA, Russia, China, Italy and Japan
Ans. (a) USA, Russia, UK, France and China
15. Which are the principal organs of the United Nations?
(a) The General Assembly, The Security Council, Economics and
Social Council, Secretariat
(b) The General Secretary, Economics and Social Council,
Secretariat
(c) The General Secretary, The Security Council, International
Labour Organization, Secretariat
(d) The General Assembly, The Governing Council, Economics
and Social Council, Secretariat
Ans. (a) The General Assembly, The Security Council, Economics
and Social Council, Secretariat
(a) WHO-World Health Organisation
(b) UNDP–United Nations Development Programme
(c) UNICEF–United Nations Children's Fund.
(d) UNFPA – United Nations Public Fund
Ans. (d) UNFPA – United Nations Public Fund
17. _________ is the representative head of the UN.
(a) Secretary-General
(b) General Secretary
(c) The President of US
(d) Head of permanent members to the UN
Ans. (a) Secretary-General
18. The United Nations Charter means:
(a) An instrument of International Law
(b) A Constitution of the UN
(c) A socio-economic and political resolution to adopt the United
Nations
(d) An international meeting to adopt the UN
Ans. (a) An instrument of International Law
19. Choose the odd one out:
(a) Kofi A. Annan: created the Global Fund to fight AIDS
(b) Ban Ki-moon: focused on the Millennium Development Goals
(c) Boutros Boutros-Ghali: worked for the independence of
Namibia
(d) U Thant: worked for resolving the Cuban Missile Crisis
Ans. (c) Boutros Boutros-Ghali: worked for the independence of
Namibia
20. The countries that formed the UN are called ______.
(a) Original members
(b) Founding members
(c) Primary member
(d) Inner circle
Ans. (a) Original members
21. Which statement about Antonio Guterres is NOT true?
(a) He is the ninth Secretary General of the UN.
(b) He was the former Prime Minister of Portugal.
(c) He became the Secretary General on 31 January 2020.
(d) He was the former UN High Commissioner for Refugees.
Ans. (c) He became the Secretary General on 31 January 2020.
22. After every _______ years the Secretary-General is
changed.
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 10
(d) 6
Ans. (a) 5
23. Which organ of the UN suspended operations since 1994?
(a) Trusteeship Council
(b) Economic and Social Council
(c) Secretariat
(d) General Assembly
Ans. (a) Trusteeship Council
24. Security Council has ______ non permanent members.
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 15
(d) 4
Ans. (a) 10
25. The International Court of Justice has its headquarter in:
(a) Hague
(b) New York
(c) Paris
(d) London
Ans. (a) Hague
26. Which statement is NOT true?
(a) Many new countries have joined the UN after the Cold War.
(b) There has not been any major conflict between nations after
the Cold War.
(c) China has emerged as a very strong power.
(d) The Asian economies are fast growing.
Ans. (b) There has not been any major conflict between nations
after the Cold War.
27. Which statement is NOT correct?
It has been suggested that a new member of the Security
Council should be:
(a) A nuclear power
(b) A major economic power
(c) A democratic power
(d) A major contributor to the UN
Ans. (a) A nuclear power
28. Non-permanent members to the Security Council are
elected for a period of _________ years.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans. (b) 2
29. Which member has used the Veto power for the maximum
time in the Security Council?
(a) Russia
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) France
Ans. (a) Russia
30. Which step was NOT taken in the 60th anniversary
meeting of the UN?
(a) Establish the Human Rights Council
(b) Agreement to achieve MDG
(c) Create Peace building Commission
(d) Dissolve the International Court of Justice.
Ans. (d) Dissolve the International Court of Justice.
31. Which UN Secretary-General worked for resolving the
Cuban Missile Crisis?
(a) Kurt Waldheim
(b) U Thant
(c) Javier Perez de Cuellar
(d) Trygve Lie
Ans. (b) U Thant
32. WTO stands for:
(a) World Tariff Organisation
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) World Tourist Organisation
(d) World Trade Organ
Ans. (b) World Trade Organisation
33. _______ is the predecessor of WTO.
(a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs
(b) General Arrangement on Trade and Tariffs
(c) UN Development Programme
(d) World Health Organisation
Ans. (a) General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs
34. The World Bank was built in the year:
(a) 1944
(b) 1956
(c) 1945
(d) 1960
Ans. (a) 1944
35. The World Bank gives loan to _________ countries.
(a) All
(b) Member
(c) Powerful
(d) Capitalist
Ans. (a) Member
36. ________ looks after financial institutions and regulations
that act at a global level.
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World Bank
(c) Economic and Social Council
(d) General Assembly
Ans. (a) International Monetary Fund
37. Which one is NOT a specialized agency reporting to the
Economic and Social Council?
(a) World Health Organisation
(b) Food and Agriculture Organisation
(c) International Civil Aviation Organisation
(d) International Atomic Energy Agency
Ans. (d) International Atomic Energy Agency
38. The International Monetary Fund has _____ members.
(a) 189
(b) 200
(c) 68
(d) 186
Ans. (a) 189
39. Who were the ‘Big Three’ in the Yalta Conference?
(a) Nehru, Sukarno, Tito
(b) Roosevelt, Churchill and Stalin
(c) Roosevelt, Churchill and Nehru
(d) Bush, Putin, Gandhi
Ans. (b) Roosevelt, Churchill and Stalin
40. The League of Nations could not prevent the _______.
(a) First World War
(b) Second World War
(c) Cold War
(d) Vietnam War
Ans. (b) Second World War
Carefully see the image and answer the questions:
41. The logo belongs to which organisation?

(a) United Nations
(b) League of Nations
(c) World Trade Organisation
(d) International Monetary Fund
42. The logo was adopted in the year _______.
(a) 1945
(b) 1946
(c) 1919
(d) 1980
Ans. (b) 1946
43. This logo stands for:
(a) International peace and cooperation
(b) Global trade market
(c) Globalisation
(d) Unipolar World
Ans. (a) International peace and cooperation
44. _____ was the first Secretary General of the UN.
(a) Trygve Lie
(b) Dag Hammarskjöld
(c) U Thant
(d) Kurt Waldheim
Ans. (a) Trygve Lie
45. In the General Assembly any major decision requires
________ majority.
(a) Simple
(b) One-third
(c) Two-thirds
(d) Full
Ans. (c) Two-thirds
46. The Security Council membership was increased from 11
to ________ in ________.
(a) 15, 1965
(b) 10, 1965
(c) 12, 1965
(d) 15, 1966
Ans. (a) 15, 1965
47. Pick the INCORRECT statement.
(a) India wants to be a permanent member of the Security Council.
(b) India is not in favour of reforming the Security Council.
(c) India wants the Security Council to have more members from
developing countries.
(d) India has participated in almost all initiatives of the Security
Council.
Ans. (b) India is not in favour of reforming the Security Council.
48. IAEA stands for:
(a) International Atomic Energy Agency
(b) International Atomic Entry Agency
(c) International Atom Energy Agency
(d) International Atomic Energy Association
Ans. (a) International Atomic Energy Agency
49. IAEA was established to implement the ____ proposal.
(a) Atoms for Peace
(b) Atoms for Purpose
(c) Atoms for Deterrence
(d) Adopt for Peace
Ans. (a) Atoms for Peace
50. See the image and answer the question:
The United Nations Headquarters is located in?

(a) New York City
(b) Geneva
(c) Washington DC
(d) Hague
Ans. (a) New York City
51. Which one is NOT a function of the Security Council?
(a) To maintain international peace
(b) To recommend entry of new members
(c) To resolve internal issues of member countries
(d) To recommend Secretary-General to the General Assembly
Ans. (c) To resolve internal issues of member countries
52. Which statement is NOT correct?
(a) Without UN, the world would be a worse place.
(b) All members within the UN are equally placed.
(c) The UN needs a complete restructuring.
(d) It won’t be easy for India to get a permanent seat in the UN
Security Council.
Ans. (b) All members within the UN are equally placed.
53. UNICEF stands for:
(a) United Nations Children's Fund
(b) United Nations Child Fund
(c) United Nations Children’s Foundation
(d) United Nations Children’s Education Fund
Ans. (a) United Nations Children's Fund
54. What is the full form of WHO?
(a) World Health Organisation
(b) World HIV-Cure Organisation
(c) World Health Organiser
(d) Wide Health Organisation
Ans. (a) World Health Organisation
55. What does UNESCO stand for?
(a) United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural
Organisation
(b) United Nations Educational and Cultural Organisation
(c) United Nations Educational and Scientific Organisation
(d) United Nations Scientific and Cultural Organisation
Ans. (a) United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural
Organisation
56. What does ILO stand for?
(a) International Labour Organisation
(b) Indian Labour Organisation
(c) International Life Organisation
(d) Indian Life Organisation
Ans. (a) International Labour Organisation
57. Which is the oldest specialized agency of the UN?
(a) ILO
(b) WHO
(c) UNESCO
(d) UNICEF
Ans. (a) ILO
58. The day WHO was founded is celebrated as _______.
(a) World Health day
(b) World Happiness day
(c) Public health day
(d) Public Happiness day
Ans. (a) World Health day
59. In how many countries is UNICEF present?
(a) More than 190 countries
(b) More than 50 countries
(c) More than 500 countries
(d) More than 25 countries
Ans. (a) More than 190 countries
60. UNESCO headquarter is in:
(a) Paris
(b) New York
(c) Switzerland
(d) London
Ans. (a) Paris
61. Many feel ______ and ______ must be present in
expansion of permanent membership of Security Council.
(a) Africa and South American
(b) Africa and South Asia
(c) Middle east and South America
(d) All the above
Ans. (a) Africa and South American
establishment:
(i) The World Trade Organisation
(ii) Amnesty International
(iii) League of Nations
(iv) World Bank
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(c) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(d) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Ans. (c) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
establishment:
(i) ILO
(ii) WHO
(iii) UNESCO
(iv) UNICEF
(a) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(b) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Ans. (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
1. Traditional security policy has a __________component
called balance of power.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Ans. (c) Third
2. Traditional views of security do not rule out other forms of
cooperation as well. The most important of these are:
(i) Disarmament
(ii) Arms control
(ii) Confidence building
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
Ans. (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. _________security is about the protection of people more
than the protection of states.
(a) Government
(b) Traditional
(c) Non-traditional
(d) Human
Ans. (d) Human
4. What is the second component of India’s security strategy
to protect its security interests?
(a) To strengthen international norms and international institutions
(b) To strengthen national norms and international institutions
(c) To strengthen international norms and national institutions
(d) To strengthen national norms and national institutions
Ans. (a) To strengthen international norms and international
institutions
5. Since the late 1990s, _______ has lost billions of dollars of
income during an outbreak of the mad-cow disease, and bird
flu shut down supplies of poultry exports from several Asian
countries.
(a) Japan
(b) USA
(c) Britain
(d) India
Ans. (c) Britain
6. The first component was strengthening India’s military
capabilities because India has been involved in conflicts with
its neighbours-Pakistan in ______________ and China in
1962.
(a) 1947–49, 1965, 1971 and 1999;
(b) 1947–48, 1966, 1971 and 1999;
(c) 1947–48, 1965, 1971 and 1999;
(d) 1947–48, 1965, 1972 and 1999;
Ans. (c) 1947–48, 1965, 1971 and 1999;
7. Which of the following is a component of traditional
security?
(a) Alliance building
(b) Deterrence
(c) Balance of power
8. Which of the following is a source of insecurity?
(a) Defence
(b) Balance of Power
(c) Global Poverty
(d) Alliance Building
Ans. (c) Global Poverty
9. Which of these statements about confidence building is
incorrect?
(a) Confidence building is a process in which countries share
ideas and information with their rivals.
(b) They tell each other about their military intentions and, up to a
point, their military plans.
(c) This is a way of demonstrating that they are planning a surprise
attack.
(d) They also tell each other about the kind of forces they possess,
and they may share information on where those forces are
deployed.
Ans. (c) This is a way of demonstrating that they are planning a
surprise attack.
establishment:
(i) World Trade Organisation
(ii) Amnesty International
(iii) League of Nations
(iv) World Bank
(a) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans. (a) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
11. Which among the following is concerned with traditional
view of security?
(a) Most threats to a country’s security come from outside its
borders.
(b) It is about the protection of people more than the protection of
states.
(c) Its primary goal is the protection of individuals.
(d) It focuses on the changing nature of threats to security.
Ans. (a) Most threats to a country’s security come from outside its
borders.
12. New and poorly understood diseases such as _______
virus, hantavirus, and hepatitis C, have emerged, while old
diseases like tuberculosis, malaria, dengue fever and _______
have mutated into drug resistant forms that are difficult to
treat.
(a) ebola, smallpox
(b) covid, cholera
(c) ebola, cholera
(d) ebola, cancer
Ans. (c) ebola, cholera
13. Which among the following refers to political violence that
targets civilians deliberately and indiscriminately?
(a) Terrorism
(b) Global security
(c) Human security
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Terrorism
14. Which among the following is involved in the Cooperative
security as a last resort?
(a) Migration
(b) Poverty
(c) Human Rights
(d) Use of force
Ans. (d) Use of force
15. Which among the following is the correct form of START?
(a) Strategic Arms Reduction Toll
(b) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
(c) Strategic Arms Reduction Tactics
(d) Strategic Arms Reduction Tax
Ans. (b) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
16. A coalition of nations meant to deter or defend against
military attacks is _______
(a) Alliance
(b) Arms Control
(c) Disarmament
(d) Coalition
Ans. (a) Alliance
17. Disarmament requires all states to give up certain kinds of
______
(a) Weapons.
(b) Arms control.
(c) Violence.
(d) Internal wars.
Ans. (a) Weapons.
18. India first tested a nuclear device in _____.
(a) 1974
(b) 1975
(c) 1976
(d) 1977
Ans. (a) 1974
19. Which among the following is not correct about Human
Rights?
(a) Human rights have come to be classified into four types.
(b) The first type is political rights such as freedom of speech and
assembly.
(c) The second type is economic and social rights.
(d) The third type is the rights of colonised people or ethnic and
indigenous minorities.
Ans. (a) Human rights have come to be classified into four types.
20. Choose the odd one out of the following statements.
(a) Terrorism refers to political violence that targets civilians
deliberately and indiscriminately.
(b) International terrorism involves the citizens or territory of more
than one country.
(c) Terrorist groups seek to change a political context or condition
that they do not like by force or threat of force.
(d) Civilian targets are not chosen to terrorise the public and to use
the happiness of the public as a weapon against national
governments or other parties in conflict.
Ans. (d) Civilian targets are not chosen to terrorise the public and
to use the happiness of the public as a weapon against national
governments or other parties in conflict.
21. What is India’s security strategy?
(i) India took initiatives to bring about a universal and non-
discriminatory non-proliferation regime.
(ii) In this, all countries would have the same rights and obligations
with respect to weapons of mass destruction (nuclear, biological
and chemical).
(iii) It argued for an equitable New International Economic Order
(NIEO).
(b) (iii) only.
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i) only
Ans. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
22. The __________Treaty of _______was an arms control
treaty in the sense that it regulated the acquisition of nuclear
weapons.
(a) Nuclear Non-Proliferation, 1967
(b) Nuclear Non-Proliferation, 1968
(c) Nuclear Non-Proliferation, 1969
(d) Nuclear Non-Proliferation, 1965
Ans. (b) Nuclear Non-Proliferation, 1968
23. Human rights have come to be classified into how many
types?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans. (b) 3
24. Who are ‘internally displaced people’?
(a) People who voluntarily leave their home countries.
(b) People who flee from war, natural disaster or political
persecution.
(c) People who move to other countries to seek a better life,
especially better economic opportunities.
(d) People who have fled their homes but remain within national
borders.
Ans. (d) People who have fled their homes but remain within
national borders.
25. Proponents of the ‘narrow’ concept of human security
focus on few factors. Which of the following argument is not
correct?
(a) It was put forward by UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan
(b) It includes the protection of communities and individuals from
internal violence
(c) It focuses on violent threats to individuals.
(d) All agree that its primary goal is the protection of individuals.
Ans. (d) All agree that its primary goal is the protection of
individuals.
26. Proponents of the ‘broad’ concept of human security
argue that the threat agenda should include hunger, disease
and natural disasters. Why?
(a) Because all these kill far more people than war, genocide and
terrorism combined.
(b) Because it includes political violence that targets civilians
deliberately and indiscriminately.
(c) Because it involves the citizens or territory of more than one
country.
(d) Because it stresses from ‘freedom from want’ and ‘freedom
from fear’.
Ans. (a) Because all these kill far more people than war, genocide
and terrorism combined.
27. Consider the following statements about traditional
security.
Find out the incorrect statement.
(a) There is a recognition that cooperation in limiting violence is
possible.
(b) These limits relate both to the ends and the means of war.
(c) The countries should only go to war for self-defence or to
protect other people from genocide.
(d) It should go beyond military threats to include a wide range of
threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence.
Ans. (d) It should go beyond military threats to include a wide
range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human
existence.
(i) World population now at 760 crore and expected to nearly 1000
crore by the middle of the 21st century.
(ii) Currently, half the world’s population growth occurs in just six
countries—India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh and
Indonesia.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
29. Health epidemics such as HIV-AIDS, bird flu, and severe
acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) have rapidly spread
across countries through.
(i) Migration
(ii) Business
(iii) Tourism
(iv) Military operation
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans. (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
30. Security policy is concerned with preventing war, which is
called _______ and with limiting or ending war, which is
called _________.
(a) deterrence, defence
(b) balance of power, deterrence
(c) defence, balance of power
Ans. (a) deterrence, defence
31. __________Treaty in 1972 tried to stop the United States
and Soviet Union from using ballistic missiles as a defensive
shield to launch a nuclear attack.
(a) Anti-ballistic Missile (ABM)
(b) Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)
(c) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START)
(d) Biological Weapons Convention (BWC)
Ans. (a) Anti-ballistic Missile (ABM)
32. Which of the following is not a component of traditional
security strategy?
(a) Defence
(b) Balance of power
(c) Deterrence
(d) Having absolute power
Ans. (d) Having absolute power
33. In the modern world each country has to be responsible
for:
(a) Security of the neighbouring countries
(b) Regional security
(c) Its own security
(d) World security
Ans. (c) Its own security
34. Which of the following country does not possess nuclear
weapons?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) Nepal
Ans. (d) Nepal
35. India supports:
(a) War
(b) Nuclear weapons
(c) Disarmament
(d) Terrorism
Ans. (c) Disarmament
36. Global security is threatened by:
(a) Armament race
(b) Poverty
(c) Terrorism
(d) All of these
37. In which year C.T.B.T. opened for signature?
(a) 1996
(b) 1998
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
Ans. (a) 1996
38. The Presidents of the United States and USSR signed the
Strategic Offensive Reduction Treaty in the year:
(a) 2000
(b) 2001
(c) 2002
(d) 2005
Ans. (c) 2002
39. The Anti-Ballastic Missile Treaty was signed in:
(a) 1971
(b) 1975
(c) 1977
(d) 1972
Ans. (d) 1972
40. War and Terrorism:
(a) are opposed to each other
(b) are related with each other
(c) are not related to each other
Ans. (b) are related with each other
41. Governments have to work hard for the maintenance of
‘Balance of Powers’ with the following countries:
(a) Neighbouring countries
(b) With the countries they had conflict in the past
(c) With whom they have difference
Ans. (a) Neighbouring countries
1. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding
environmental concerns in global politics ?
I. Throughout the world, cultivable area is barely expanding any
more, and a substantial portion of existing agricultural land is
losing fertility.
II. Grasslands have been overgrazed and fisheries overharvested.
III. Water bodies have suffered extensive depletion and pollution,
severely restricting food production.
(a) I and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III
Ans. (d) I, II and III
2. Which among the following best explains the reason for
growing concerns about the environment?
(a) The developed countries are concerned about protecting
nature.
(b) Protection of the environment is vital for indigenous people and
natural habitats.
(c) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has
become pervasive and has reached a dangerous level.
Ans. (c) The environmental degradation caused by human
activities has become pervasive and has reached a dangerous
level.
3. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Change was held in the year _________.
(a) 2004
(b) 1997
(c) 2001
(d) 1992
Ans. (d) 1992
4. ______ signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in
_________.
(a) India, August 2002
(b) Japan, July 2006
(c) Nepal, August 2000
(d) Sri Lanka, August 2005
Ans. (a) India, August 2002
5. What is the name given to the progress that meets the
needs of the present without compromising the ability of
future generations to meet their own needs?
(a) The tragedy of global commons
(b) Sustainable development
(c) Development without destruction
(d) The politics of the developed nations
Ans. (d) Sustainable development
6. Which of the following are the resources which are not
owned by any individual, rather they are owned by the
community.
(a) Communis humanitatis
(b) Krills
(c) Commons
Ans. (c) Commons
7. Which of these statements about global commons is
correct?
(a) The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer
space are considered as part of the global commons.
(b) The global commons are outside the sovereign jurisdiction.
(c) The question of managing the global commons reflected the
North-South divide.
(d) The countries of the North are more concerned about the
protection of the global commons than the countries of the South.
Ans. (a) The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer
establishment:
(i) The Club of Rome published a book entitled Limits to Growth.
(ii) Brundtland Report, Our Common Future
(iii) Earth Summit Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
(a) (iii), (ii), (i)
(b) (ii), (iii), (i)
(c) (i), (iii), (ii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii)
Ans. (d) (i), (ii), (iii)
9. When Montreal Protocol came into force?
(a) 1980
(b) 1972
(c) 1987
(d) 1992
Ans. (d) 1987
10. It was clear at Rio Summit that the rich and developed
countries of the First World, generally referred to as the
‘___________’ were pursuing a different environmental
agenda than the poor and developing countries of the Third
World, called the ‘______________’
(a) global North, global South
(b) global East, global South
(c) global North, global West
(d) global East, global West
Ans. (a) global North, global South
11. Which among the following is the name given to some
areas or regions of the world which are located outside the
sovereign jurisdiction of any one state, and therefore require
common governance by the international community?
(a) Communis humanitatis
(b) Antarctic Treaty
(c) Montreal Protocol
(d) Antarctic Environmental Protocol
Ans. (a) Communis humanitatis
12. To improve energy efficiency, the Energy Conservation
Act was passed by Government of India in which year?
(a) 2000
(b) 2001
(c) 2002
(d) 2005
Ans. (b) 2001
13. Which among the following is the correct form of WWF?
(a) World Wild Foundation
(b) Worldwide Wildlife Fund
(c) World Wildlife Federation
(d) Worldwide Wildlife Formula
Ans. (b) Worldwide Wildlife Fund
14. The early 1980s saw the first anti-dam movement
launched in the North, namely, the campaign to save the
Franklin River and its surrounding forests in________.
(a) Australia
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) USA
Ans. (a) Australia
15. A review of the implementation of the agreements at the
Earth Summit in Rio was undertaken by India in __________.
(a) 1997
(b) 1987
(c) 1990
(d) 1980
Ans. (a) 1997
16. Which among the following is not correct about the Kyoto
Protocol?
(a) It is a national agreement.
(b) It set targets for industrialised countries to cut their greenhouse
gas emissions.
(c) Certain gases like Carbon dioxide, Methane, Hydro-fluoro
carbons etc. are considered at least partly responsible for global
warming.
(d) The protocol was agreed to in 1997 in Kyoto in Japan, based
on principles set out in UNFCCC.
Ans. (a) It is a national agreement.
17. What is the main aim of the Kyoto Protocol?
(a) To prevent ozone depletion
(b) To increase carbon dioxide emission
(c) To reduce greenhouse gases
(d) To eradicate the use of CFCs and halons
Ans. (c) To reduce greenhouse gases
18. Choose the odd one out of the following statements.
(a) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) was framed in 1994.
(b) It provides that the parties should act to protect the climate
system.
(c) It should be “on the basis of equity and in accordance with their
common but differentiated responsibilities and respective
capabilities.”
(d) The parties to the Convention agreed that the largest share of
historical and current global emissions of greenhouse gases has
originated in developed countries.
Ans. (a) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC) was framed in 1994.
19. Which among the following is/are the programme/s that
Indian government is participating in global efforts?
(i) India’s National Auto-fuel Policy mandates cleaner fuels for
vehicles.
(ii) The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines
initiatives to improve energy efficiency.
(iii) The Electricity Act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable
energy.
(b) (iii) only.
(c) (i) and (iii) only.
(d) (i) only.
Ans. (a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
20. Which among the following is the correct expansion of
UNFCCC?
(a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(b) United Nations Framework Counter on Climate Change
(c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Call
(d) United Nations Fast Convention on Climate Change
Ans. (a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Change
21. At Which among the following meetings did India point
out that the per capita emission rates of the developing
countries are a tiny fraction of those in the developed world?
(a) G-8 meeting in June 2005.
(b) G-8 meeting in June 2006.
(c) G-8 meeting in June 2007.
(d) G-8 meeting in June 2008.
Ans. (a) G-8 meeting in June 2005.
22. Which of the following arguments is not correct about the
forest movements of the South?
(a) Mexico, Chile, Brazil, Malaysia, Indonesia, continental Africa
and India are included in these movements.
(b) These countries are faced with enormous pressures.
(c) Forest clearing in the Third World continues at an alarming
rate.
(d) The destruction of the world’s last remaining grand forests has
actually decreased in the last decade.
Ans. (d) The destruction of the world’s last remaining grand
forests has actually decreased in the last decade.
23. Consider the following statements about resource
geopolitics.
Find the Wrong statement.
(a) Resource geopolitics is all about who gets what, when, where
and how.
(b) Resources have provided some of the key means and motives
of global European power expansion.
(c) They have also been the focus of international rivalry.
(d) Western geopolitical thinking about resources has been
dominated by the relationship of trade, war and power, at the core
of which were overseas resources and maritime navigation.
Ans. (c) They have also been the focus of international rivalry.
24. Which among the following is the definition of indigenous
people given by the UN?
(a) These are the people who brings the issues of environment,
resources and politics together.
(b) These are the descendants of peoples who inhabited the
present territory of a country at the time when persons of a
different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of
the world and overcame them.
(c) These are the people who live more in conformity with their
particular social, economic, and cultural customs and traditions
than the institutions of the country of which they now form a part.
Ans. (b) These are the descendants of peoples who inhabited the
present territory of a country at the time when persons of a
different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of
the world and overcame them.
25. The Earth Summit was held at _______ and was attended
by _________ states.
(a) London, 59
(b) New York, 170
(c) New Delhi, 59
(d) Rio de Janeiro, 170
Ans. (d) Rio de Janeiro, 170
26. The global economy relied on _________ for much of the
20th century as a portable and indispensable fuel.
(a) Oil
(b) Natural resources
(c) Water
(d) Sun
Ans. (a) Oil
27. Which of the following gas (gases) is considered to cause
global warming?
(a) Methane
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Hydro-fluorocarbons
28. Following countries are generally included in ‘Global
North’.
(a) Developed countries
(b) Under developed countries
(c) Poor countries
Ans. (a) Developed countries
29. Environmental protection got much encouragement from:
(a) Due to continuously increasing global warming
(b) Due to substantial portion of existing agricultural land losing
fertility
(c) Cutting of forests and displacement of the people
30. Each year World Environment Day is celebrated on:
(a) 5th April
(b) 5th May
(c) 5th June
(d) 5th July
Ans. (c) 5th June
31. Stockholm Summit on Environment was held in the year:
(a) 1972
(b) 1982
(c) 1992
(d) 1975
Ans. (a) 1972
32. Following are(is) the cause of environmental pollution:
(a) Due to increase in pollution
(b) Deforestation
(c) Industrialisation
33. Environmental pollution can be checked by:
(a) By controlling population growth
(b) Protecting forests
(c) Supply of safe drinking water
34. The Union Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC) was held in the following year:
(a) 1989
(b) 1991
(c) 1995
(d) 1992
Ans. (d) 1992
35. Following countries are included in ‘global South’:
(a) Developed countries
(b) Countries which have nuclear arms
(c) Developing countries
Ans. (c) Developing countries
36. Which of the following countries is exempted from the
requirements of Kyoto Protocol?
(a) Germany
(b) USA
(c) Japan
(d) India
Ans. (d) India
37. India signed the Kyoto Protocol in:
(a) August, 2002
(b) December, 2002
(c) September, 2003
(d) December, 2004
Ans. (a) August, 2002
38. The following is an example of global commons:
(a) The ocean floor
(b) Earth’s atmosphere
(c) Antarctica
39. The world council of indigenous people was formed in the
year:
(a) 1970
(b) 1975
(c) 1978
(d) 1982
Ans. (b) 1975
40. Which of the following comprises indigenous population
of India?
(a) Backward classes
(b) Scheduled castes
(c) Scheduled tribes
(d) Christians
Ans. (c) Scheduled tribes
41. Which among the following are True about the global
commons?
(i) The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, ocean floor and outer
(ii) The global commons are outside sovereign jurisdiction.
(iii) The question of managing the global commons has reflected
the North-South divide.
(iv) The countries of the North are more concerned about the
protection of the global commons than the countries of the South.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) All of these
Ans. (a) (i), (ii), (iii)
1. The main aspect of Globalisation is ______ .
(a) Worldwide inter connectivity
(b) International trade
(c) Mutual cooperation
2. What is Globalisation?
(a) It is flow of ideas from one part of the world to another
(b) Movement of people from one part to another in search of
better jobs and life
(c) It is flow of commodities from one part of the world to another
3. Choose the correct option that has significantly
contributed to the process of ‘Globalisation’.
(a) Fear of war
(b) Security threats
(c) Advancement of technology
(d) Achievements of the United Nations
Ans. (c) Advancement of technology
4. Which statement about Globalisation is NOT true?
(a) It is multidimensional in nature
(b) It has both negative and positive connotations
(c) Globalisation is about flow of goods and services
(d) Globalisation is caused by just one factor - technology
Ans. (d) Globalisation is caused by just one factor - technology
5. Globalisation is unique in its nature because of its ______
and ______ flows.
(a) scale , speed
(b) cultural, economic
(c) national, international
(d) length, breadth
Ans. (b) cultural, economic
6. Which is not a political impact of globalisation?
(a) Welfare state is giving way to minimalist state
(b) Inter state rivalry has ended
(c) Technological advancement has helped state gain more
information
(d) It is difficult for a State to function in isolation
Ans. (b) Inter state rivalry has ended
7. Globalisation is about flows. What are those flows?
(i) Ideas
(ii) Capital
(iii) Commodities
(iv) People
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iv)
Ans. (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
8. What is the full out of the term MNC?
(a) Multinational companies
(b) Multination companies
(c) Multiple national companies
(d) Multinational corporations
Ans. (a) Multinational companies
9. In a globalised world ______ have reduced the sovereignty
of nations.
(a) MNCs
(b) Technology
(c) Ideologies
(d) UN the global
Ans. (a) MNCs
10. Even in the global world, the states continue to discharge
its essential functions which are:
(i) To maintain law and order
(ii) To maintain national security
(iii) To increase the military capacity
(iv) To be economically powerful
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), and (iii)
Ans. (d) (i), (ii), and (iii)
11. There is flow of ideas across the ______ in the era of
globalisation.
(a) national boundaries
(b) political parties
(c) judiciary and executive
(d) states
Ans. (a) national boundaries
12. Flow of goods, capital and technology across the
countries leading to a global market is ______ globalisation.
(a) political
(b) economic
(c) cultural
(d) social
Ans. (b) economic
13. Economic globalisation is about ______ .
(a) Distribution of economic gains equally
(b) Free flow of goods and services
(c) Free flow of capital
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d) Both (b) and (c)
14. Which statement about Economic Globalisation is NOT
correct?
(i) People do not need Visa to travel to other countries
(ii) The consequence of economic globalisation is same across all
countries
(iii) It has brought the entire world all together, without any
divisions
(iv) Developed countries have opened up their borders for people
from other countries
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (ii)
Ans. (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
15. Which of the following statement is/are correct in favour
of globalisation?
(i) Due to de-regulation, economic growth and well being for larger
section of the population would happen.
(ii) Globalisation facilitate greater trade among the different
countries.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(d) None of these
16. What could be the negative impact of cultural
Globalisation?
(a) Cultural homogenisation
(b) Creation of Cultural barriers
(c) Culture taking a back seat
(d) No negative impact of cultural globalisation
Ans. (a) Cultural homogenisation
17. Creation of __________ culture is cultural
homogenisation.
(a) uniform
(b) multi
(c) ethnic
(d) superior
Ans. (a) uniform
18. Globalisation affects what we eat, drink, think and watch.
This is called ______ globalisation.
(a) economic
(b) political
(c) cultural
(d) ideological
Ans. (c) cultural
19. If each culture becoming more different and distinctive
then it is called:
(a) Cultural homogenisation
(b) Cultural heterogenisation
Ans. (b) Cultural heterogenisation
20. What can be the positive impact of cultural globalisation?
(a) Modify a culture without destroying tradition
(b) Enlarge one’s choice
(c) Add choices for the dominant culture
21. Which statement is NOT true about globalisation?
(a) It has only positive impacts
(b) It has only negative impacts
(c) It impacts only poor countries
22. Pick the ODD one out.
(a) Establishment of the United Nations - Political globalisation
(b) Wearing blue jeans with kurta - Cultural globalisation
(c) Volkswagen selling cars in India - Economic Globalisation
(d) Border problems between India and Pakistan - Political
globalisation
Ans. (d) Border problems between India and Pakistan - Political
globalisation
23. Which is NOT a negative impact of globalisation?
(a) Workers in India not getting leaves as per the country’s festive
calendar
(b) Most of the people around us only speaks in English and not in
native language
(c) Most international car companies sell their cars in India
(d) We are able to watch all international movies and channels
Ans. (d) We are able to watch all international movies and
channels
24. Which is NOT a positive impact of
globalisation?
(a) Watching American and Korean serials
(b) Having to work as per UK or the US timings
(c) Can easily visit Russia as a tourist
(d) Get to eat Japanese food in India
Ans. (b) Having to work as per UK or the US timings
25. In Post Independence era, India followed a ______
economic policy.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Protectionist
(c) Liberalism
(d) Look West
Ans. (b) Protectionist
26. Which statement is NOT true about India’s Globalisation
policy?
(a) The country did a gradual de-regulation of the market.
(b) The country deregulated trade also.
(c) The country wanted to have partnership with the USA and the
West only
(d) Financial crisis was a reason for de-regulation and
Globalisation
Ans. (c) The country wanted to have partnership with the USA and
the West only
27. What are the arguments of the ‘left’ critiques of
Globalisation?
(i) Globalisation makes the richer rich and the poor poorer
(ii) The State becomes weak and cannot support the poor
(iii) There is lack of self-reliance
(iv) People will lose their own traditions
(a) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)
28. To respond financial crisis, India de-regulate various
sector and policies in which year?
(a) 1995
(b) 1991
(c) 1998
(d) 1999
Ans. (b) 1991
29. Which of the following statement is/are true about anti-
globalisation movements?
(i) Anti-globalisation movement do not participate in global
networks.
(ii) Anti-globalisation movement are not opposed to the idea of
globalisation but they opposed to a specific programme of
globalisation.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
Ans. (b) Only (ii)
30. What is the full form of the WTO?
(a) World Trade Organization
(b) World Tariff Organization
(c) World Trading Organization
(d) Whole Trade Organization
Ans. (a) World Trade Organization
31. What is the full form of the WSF?
(a) World Society Forum
(b) World Social Forum
(c) World Social Foundation
(d) Whole Social Forum
Ans. (b) World Social Forum
32. The protest at the WTO Ministerial meeting was about?
(a) Unfair trading policies of the powerful countries
(b) Economic Globalisation
(c) Cultural hegemony of the US
Ans. (a) Unfair trading policies of the powerful countries
33. Which year did the protest at the WTO Ministerial meeting
against unfair trading take place?
(a) 1999
(b) 2010
(c) 1989
(d) 2000
Ans. (a) 1999
34. Where was the first WSF meeting held?
(a) Porto Alegre, Brazil
(b) Mumbai, India
(c) Colombo, Sri Lanka
(d) Havana, Cuba
Ans. (a) Porto Alegre, Brazil
35. WSF meeting in India took place in the year ______ .
(a) 2004
(b) 2010
(c) 2000
(d) 1999
Ans. (a) 2004
36. The latest WSF meeting was held in ______ in ______ .
(a) Brazil, 2018
(b) Ghana, 2010
(c) India, 2018
(d) Venezuela, 2018
Ans. (a) Brazil, 2018
37. What is WSF?
(a) It is a global platform
(b) It is a coming together platform of artists, social activists,
environmentalists etc
(c) It is a coalition against neo-liberal Globalisation
38. In India, protest against Globalisation has taken place
through?
(a) Trade unions
(b) Political parties
(c) Indian Social Forums
39. The right-wing parties in India mostly object against
______ Globalisation.
(a) economic
(b) political
(c) social
(d) cultural
Ans. (d) cultural
40. What statement is NOT correct about Globalisation?
(a) Globalisation might lead to greater economic disparities
(b) Globalisation might lead to cultural hegemony
(c) Globalisation might lead to withdrawal of welfare state
(d) Globalisation might lead to a global war
Ans. (d) Globalisation might lead to a global war
41. Patenting of certain plants such as ______ by Americans
caused opposition and protest by Indians.
(a) neem
(b) coconut
(c) gulmohar
(d) banyan
Ans. (a) neem
42. What is/are the major areas where consequences of
Globalisation can be seen heavily?
(a) Cultural
(b) Political
(c) Economic
(d) All of these

Gurukul NTA CUET UG Political Science Question Bank Exam 2024 900+

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Gurukul NTA CUET UG Political Science Question Bank Exam 2024 900+

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Gurukul NTA CUET UG Political Science Question Bank Exam 2024 900+

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

COPYRIGHT RESERVED BY THE PUBLISHERS

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced

PRINTED AT : Upkar Print House Pvt. Ltd., Agra

It is a matter of immense pride for us to present our Question Bank

The question bank adheres completely to the syllabus prescribed

Constructive suggestions for further improvement of the book are

Part-A: Politics in India since Independence

List-A (Leader) List-B (Party)

A. S.A. Dange (i) Bhartiya Jana Sangh

B. Shyama Prasad (ii) Swatantra Party

C. Minoo Masani (iii) Praja Socialist Party

D. Asoka Mehta (iv) Communist Party of

What does this picture symbolize?

The states that were affected by the partition of the country:

The AMUL cooperative was established in which of the

A. First Summit of NAM (i) 1954

B. Bandung Conference (ii) 1955

C. Asian Relations Conference (iii) 1947

D. Panchsheel (iv) 1961

A. Department of Defence Production (i) 1962

B. Department of Defence Supplies (ii) 1969

C. The Third Plan (iii) 1965

D. The Fourth Plan (iv) 1961

A. Total Revolution (i) Indira Gandhi

B. Garibi Hatao (ii) Jai Prakash Narayan

C. Student’s Protest (iii) Bihar Movement

D. Railway Strike (iv) George Fernandes

(a) 21st and 22nd Amendment

(b) 73rd and 74th Amendment

(c) 51st and 52nd Amendment

Ans. (b) 73rd and 74th Amendment

A. BJP established year (i) 1978

B. Shah Bano Case (ii) 2002

C. Gujarat Roits (iii) 1985

D. BAMCEF (iv) 1980

When did US and USSR starting negotiations for banning of

(a) 9th November 1990

(b) 15th November 1989

(c) 9th November 1989

(d) 15th November 1988

Ans. (c) 9th November 1989

16. Which of the following is NOT true about the collapse of

(i) Mikhail Gorbachev A. Successor of USSR

(ii) Shock Therapy B. Military Pact

(iii) Russia C. Introduced Reforms

(iv) Boris Yeltsin D. Economic Model

(v) Warsaw E. President of Russia

5. What has the attack on the World Trade Centre come to be

(i) Operation Infinite A. War against Al-Qaeda and

(ii) Operation Enduring B. Coalition of the willing

(iii) Operation Desert Storm C. Missile attack in Sudan

(iv) Operation Iraqi D. First Gulf War

41. The logo belongs to which organisation?

The United Nations Headquarters is located in?

You might also like