CSAT Test (9 August 2020) Answer Key & Explanation: Q1. Ans: B Explanation
CSAT Test (9 August 2020) Answer Key & Explanation: Q1. Ans: B Explanation
CSAT Test (9 August 2020) Answer Key & Explanation: Q1. Ans: B Explanation
Q2. Ans: b
Explanation:
Since the passage encourages the government to work on increasing consumer demand, it can be
assumed that consumer demand is lower than expected. However, in the absence of any other statistic,
it cannot be assumed that it is at a three-decade low.
Hence, the assumption in option a is invalid.
The passage mentions that if the windfall surplus is passed on to the private sector, it could enhance
capacity. This clearly assumes that, if provided liquidity of money, the private sector would have a
positive outlook towards capacity enhancement. Hence, the assumption in option b is valid.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.
Q3. Ans: a
Explanation:
The passage talks about why criminalisation of politics in India does not seem to disappear so quickly.
While courts have taken some admirable steps in this direction, the political will to enforce it has been
partially lacking. Measure like compulsory disclosure of criminal records become ineffective because
voters ignore these records if the person is from their preferred party. Similarly, political parties also
give tickets to such people because they can draw in more votes. This makes option a the most
suitable corollary.
Option b is incorrect because the relative preference of criminals versus non-criminals has not been
mentioned.
Option c is incorrect because it wrongly conflates more votes for that seat with more seats. They are
totally different concepts.
Option d is incorrect because the passage shows that even if the Court’s orders are implemented, there
are ways around it.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
Q4. Ans: b
Explanation:
The passage explains how the admission process has changed in this century, and for the good. The
old system was considered as one that favoured elites due to its narrow scope. This aspect has been
CSAT Test (9th August 2020)
Answer Key & Explanation
changed by now evaluating the entire personality. Hence, the most logical corollary is that the modern
admission process is not biased towards the elites. Hence, option b is valid.
Options a and d are both invalid due to the introduction of the external concept of reservation into the
discussion.
Option c is absurd as it contradicts itself by saying that elites do not get a reservation as they are
privileged.
Hence, option b.
Q5. Ans: a
Explanation:
The passage talks about the voters’ ability to shape their future, based on they making wilful or
informed choices based on a correct information order versus acting as part of a propaganda machine.
The passage ends by stating that in most democracies, this information order has been compromised,
i.e. the voters are not getting the required information for making informed choices. All of these support
option a.
Option b is incorrect because the passage just says that the information order has been compromised
by most democracies. It does not assign a motive for this to the democracies.
Option c is incorrect because inequality and differentiation in information simply take away the correct
information order that the voter needs to make an informed choice. The negation of this does not
necessarily make the voter a part of the propaganda machine.
Option d is incorrect because the passage does not explain the need for any urgency to do the things
mentioned.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
Q6. Ans: a
Explanation:
According to Hannah Arendt, purest forms of loneliness are dependent on isolations that are born from
the loss of the ability to empathise and to hold a dialogue with the self. It means that these abilities will,
in turn, will help in avoiding isolation and loneliness. Hence, the most crucial inference from the
passage is that empathy enables a person to avoid isolation and loneliness. This validates option a.
Options b, c and d are factually incorrect as per the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
Q7. Ans: c
Explanation:
According to the passage in the book Origins of Totalitarianism; Hannah Arendt argues that the purest
kind of loneliness is born out of isolations which leads Kurtz and the other characters to conclude that
there were outcasts. This validates option c.
Hence, the correct answer is option c.
Q8. Ans: a
Explanation:
The passage is talking about different ideas of morality that people have. Some people regard morality
as the starting point, and others replace divine intervention (in morality) with social force. Non-
Abrahamic systems regard beliefs and morality as separate. Abrahamic systems consider beliefs to be
the basis of morality. Hence, the whole implication of the passage is that morality is understood
differently by different people.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
Q9. Ans: c
Explanation:
Consider CRAVING and FQDULMJ.
C + 3 = F; R – 1 = Q; A + 3 = D; V – 1 = U; I + 3 = L; N – 1 = M; G + 3 = J
Similarly, consider SELFISH and VDOELRK.
CSAT Test (9th August 2020)
Answer Key & Explanation
S + 3 = V; E – 1 = D; L + 3 = O; F – 1 = E; I + 3 = L; S – 1 = R; H + 3 = K
Using this logic, TRADEMARK can be coded as:
T + 3 = W; R – 1 = Q; A + 3 = D; D – 1 = C; E + 3 = H; M – 1 = L; A + 3 = D; R – 1 = Q; K + 3 = N
Hence, TRADEMARK is coded as WQDCHLDQN.
Hence, option c.
Q10. Ans: c
Explanation:
Observe that there are 6 larger horizontal rectangles and 2 larger vertical rectangles.
Also, the boundary formed by the four central rectangles is a small rectangle itself.
Also, the intersection of the various larger rectangles with each other gives 8 more rectangles.
∴ Total rectangles = 6 + 2 + 1 + 8 = 17
Hence, option c.
Q11. Ans: b
Explanation:
Let the maximum marks be x.
∴ 0.5x – 20 = 0.25x + 30
∴ 0.25x = 50 i.e. x = 200
Hence, option b.
Q12. Ans: a
Explanation:
The clock gains 5 minutes every 3 hours for the first 2 days i.e. for the first 48 hours.
∴ Time gained in 48 hours = 5 × (48/3) = 80 minutes
Now, to show the correct time, the clock has to lose 80 minutes.
The clock loses 4 minutes every 2 hours.
∴ Time required to lose 80 minutes = 2 × (80/4) = 40 hours
∴ Total time after which the clock will first show the right time = 48 + 40 = 88 hours
Hence, option a.
Q13. Ans: d
Explanation:
The given statements can be represented as shown below:
Key
Window
Door
Lock
From the figure above, conclusion (I) and conclusion (III) are definitely false.
Now, the set of Window can be outside the set of Lock and inside/outside the set of Door. This makes
conclusion (II) also invalid.
Hence, none of the conclusions follow.
Hence, option d.
Q14. Ans: b
Explanation:
CSAT Test (9th August 2020)
Answer Key & Explanation
n(S) = number of five digit numbers formed by using 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 without repetition
= 5! = 120
For the number to be divisible by 4, it should end in 12, 24, 32 or 52
In each of these cases, the remaining digits can be selected and arranged in 3! = 6 ways
∴ Total numbers divisible by 4 = 4 × 6 = 24
∴ Required probability = 24/120 = 0.2
Hence, option b.
Q15. Ans: c
Explanation:
The required number will be a multiple of the LCM of 12, 32, 40 and 72.
LCM of 12, 32, 40 and 72 = 1440
The largest four-digit multiple of 1440 is 8640
Hence, the required number is 8640.
Hence, option c.
Q16. Ans: d
Explanation:
Total matches won by school A in first 3 weeks = 50% of 6 = 3
Let the number of matches played after 3 weeks be x. School A won all of them.
∴ Total matches played = (x + 6) and total matches won = (x + 3)
The overall success rate is 75%.
∴ (x + 3) = (0.75)(x + 6)
∴ x + 3 = 0.75x + 4.5
∴ 0.25x = 1.5 i.e. x = 6
∴ Total matches played = 6 + 6 = 12
Hence, option d.
Q17. Ans: a
Explanation:
Amount given to mother = 15% and amount left = 85% of total
Amount given to brother = 30% of 85% = 25.5% of total
∴ Amount left = 100 – 15 – 25.5 = 59.5% of total
This corresponds to Rs. 4,760.
∴ Total amount = 4760/0.595 = Rs. 8,000
Hence, option a.
Q18. Ans: d
Explanation:
Let the number be 15x.
∴ Value to be found = (2/15) × 15x = 2x
Value actually found = (2/5) × 15x = 6x
∴ 6x – 2x = 480
∴ 4x = 480 i.e. x = 120
∴ Required number = 15 × 120 = 1800
Hence, option d.
Q19. Ans: d
Explanation:
Let the age of the son and father six years ago respectively be x and 4x years.
Hence, the age six years hence will be (x + 6 + 6) and (4x + 6 + 6) i.e. (x + 12) and (4x + 12) years.
Six years hence, the father will be twice as old as the son.
∴ 4x + 12 = 2(x + 12)
CSAT Test (9th August 2020)
Answer Key & Explanation
∴ 4x + 12 = 2x + 24
∴ 2x = 12 i.e. x = 6
∴ Current age of son = x + 6 = 12 years
Hence, option d.
Q20. Ans: b
Explanation:
The given statements can be represented as shown below:
Here, as shown in the first figure, the set of Trucks and Bikes can be the same only in one case but not
always.
In this case, conclusion II definitely does not follow.
In the second figure, no car is a bike. Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Also, some Cars are not Bikes implies at least one car is not a bike. Since no bike is a van and all vans
are cars, any car that is a van cannot be a bike. Hence, some cars are definitely not bikes. Hence,
conclusion III follows.
Hence, only conclusion III follows.
Hence, option b.
Q21. Ans: c
Explanation:
The passage explains how people sometimes confuse between what is right and what is legal because
they automatically feel that a legal action is always correct. The passage contradicts this by pointing out
the example of the Jewish genocide during World War II. It exhorts people to consider the implications
of the legal action and keep in mind that a wrong action, though legal, may also be used to target us.
Hence, the overall theme of the passage is that a government action, even if legal, cannot be directly
assumed to be right. This validates option c.
Options a and b are both incorrect because they focus only the narrower example given in the passage
i.e. genocide and miss the larger picture.
Option d is incorrect because the focus is not on specific legislations but on the distinction between a
legal action and a right action.
Hence, the correct answer is option c.
Q22. Ans: c
Explanation:
The passage shows how governments face a difficult and thankless job of calibrating the right response
to an epidemic. While they have been earlier blamed for supposedly overreacting, they might now be
blamed for not reacting enough. This also arises because governments have to balance decision
making with the consequent socio-economic costs. Hence, as these costs mount, the decision making
becomes even more difficult. Hence, option c is the correct inference.
Option a is incorrect because the passage just says that governments will be blamed irrespective of the
nature of their response. It never claims that they do not know how to handle epidemics.
Q23. Ans: a
Explanation:
The passage explains how the overdose and cacophony of multiple news – both real and fake - ends
up confusing people and diverts their attention from the actual topics that need to be debated. Also,
because of this, people are forming ill-informed, half-baked views on complex topics. Hence, the
current news media are not really serving their purpose. Hence, assumption 1 is valid.
Assumption 2 is invalid because the passage claims that people are making judgements on matters on
which they have half-knowledge and are distracted.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
Q24. Ans: d
Explanation:
The passage shows how excess information (news, information and commentaries) confuses us and
takes away our appetite for complex matters. Towards the end, the passage also mentions that a
duopoly that rules us uses this to fool us, and political opposition cannot help us in this. This validates
option d as the crucial message.
Option a is invalid as information overload, rather than irrelevancies, are distracting us from complex
matters.
Option b is invalid because the political opposition has been rendered meaningless more due to there
being various factions within them.
Option c is invalid because the passage claims that the duopoly has used the system of the information
overload, and not really created a system for the same.
Hence, the correct answer is option d.
Q25. Ans: a
Explanation:
The passage focuses on fake news and explains how it is created. It then expands into the area of fake
history and explains how it is created and propagated. It then points towards a deeper agenda in
creating fake history. Though the exact agenda is not mentioned, it can be inferred that fake news is
being peddled with a sinister agenda. This validates option a.
Option b is incorrect as fake history has been called the oldest form of fake news. However, the
evolution from fake news to fake history has not been explained.
Options c and d are incorrect because there is no evidence for the same in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
Q26. Ans: b
Explanation:
The passage is saying that history is turned into mythology and mythology into history. This means that
both mythology and history are distinguishable from each other and are separate. This makes
assumption 1 invalid.
The passage also mentions that serious scholars have demolished the fake history which is being
peddled, i.e. they have not given credence to it. This makes assumption 2 valid.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.
Q27. Ans: b
Explanation:
The passage focuses on how the nature of corruption has changed compared to the past. While it was
more overt in the forms of bribes and commissions, it is now more covert in the form of policy
CSAT Test (9th August 2020)
Answer Key & Explanation
influencing. While it used to be cloaked earlier in ethical-looking businesses such as medical colleges
and technical institutions, it has now become more brazen. Hence, the main theme of the passage is
the changing paradigm of corruption. This validates option b.
Option a is incorrect because the focus is only corruption rather than overall depravity of the political
classes.
Option c is incorrect because corruption in policymaking has been discussed as the modern form of
corruption. It is not the main theme of the passage.
Option d is incorrect because the old vs new discussion is related to forms of corruption rather than
corrupt policymakers.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.
Q28. Ans: c
Explanation:
The passage focuses mainly on what public administrations need to do in order to handle mental health
problems. It advocates that mental health problems first be identified and factors affecting mental health
should be tackled. It also advocates the community activities that the public administration should do to
improve mental health.
This validates both the assumptions.
Hence, the correct answer is option c.
Q29. Ans: d
Explanation:
The position around the circular table can be numbered in following way:
5
4 6
3 7
2 8
1
Arun and Priya are opposite each other while Vishal is second to the left of Priya. If Priya is on 1, their
respective position becomes:
Arun
4 6
Vishal 7
2 8
Priya
Maria is third to the right of Karan and Karan is an immediate neighbour of Jai. Karan has to be on
seats 6, 7 or 8 to have Jai as a neighbour.
If Karan is on 6 or 8, Maria cannot be third to his right as that place is already occupied by Vishal and
Arun respectively. Hence, Karan is on 7 and Maria is on 4.
Arun
Maria 6
Vishal Karan
2 8
Priya
Jai is a neighbour of Karan and Sneha is second to the right of Jai. Hence, Jai has to be on 8 while
Sneha has to be on 6.
The only place left is occupied by Bindu.
Q30. Ans: d
Explanation:
Consider the solution to the first question.
Among the given pairs, Vishal and Karan sit opposite each other.
Hence, option d.
Q31. Ans: b
Explanation:
Since the ages of the friends are consecutive numbers, the average age is the age of the middle friend
i.e. sixth friend.
∴ Age of sixth friend = 286/11 = 26
∴ Age of eldest friend = 26 + 5 = 31 years
Hence, option b.
Q32. Ans: c
Explanation:
The path taken by Manish is as shown:
6 5 5
10
4
6
Q33. Ans: a
Explanation:
Amount due at the end of the first year
= 1.2 × 5000 = Rs. 6,000
Amount repaid = Rs. 2,500
∴ Amount on which interest is calculated in second year = Rs. 3,500
∴ Amount due at the end of the second year = 1.2 × 3500 = Rs. 4,200
Amount repaid = Rs. 2,500
∴ Amount on which interest is calculated in third year = Rs. 1,700
∴ Amount due at the end of the third year = 1.2 × 1700 = Rs. 2,040
Q34. Ans: b
Explanation:
Let the original consumption be 1 kg.
∴ Original expenditure = 45 × 1 = Rs. 45
Let the new consumption be x kg.
∴ 54x = 45
∴ x = 45/54 = 0.833 kg
∴ Decrease in consumption = 1 – 0.833 = 0.1667 kg
∴ % decrease = (0.1667/1) × 100 = 16.67%
Hence, option b.
Q35. Ans: a
Explanation:
Let C.P. = Rs. 100
Since Priyanka makes a 12% profit, S.P.
= 1.12 × 100 = Rs. 112
Since this S.P. is after a 20% discount, the S.P. is 80% of the M.P.
∴ M.P. = 112/0.8 = Rs. 140
∴ Markup = 140 – 100 = Rs. 40
∴ Markup % = (40/100) × 100 = 40%
Hence, option a.
Q36. Ans: a
Explanation:
Let the wall correspond to 30 units of work.
Let Ankita and Padmini respectively do a and b units of work per day.
∴ a = 30/10 = 3 and b = 30/15 = 2
Ankita works on day 1 and Padmini works on day 2.
∴ Work done in two days = a + b
= 3 + 2 = 5 units
Hence, six such lots of 2 days will be required to complete the work.
∴ Total time = 6(2) = 12 days
Hence, option a.
Q37. Ans: b
Explanation:
The possible combination of boys and girls is (4, 3), (5, 2) or (6, 1).
∴ Number of ways = (8C4 × 7C3) + (8C5 × 7C2) + (8C6 × 7C1)
= (70 × 35) + (56 × 21) + (28 × 7)
= 2450 + 1176 + 196 = 3822
Hence, option b.
Q38. Ans: a
Explanation:
n(S) = number of ways to light 3 bulbs out of 9
= 9C3 = 84
P(atleast 1 bulb glowing is white) = 1 – P(no bulb glowing is white)
If no bulb glowing is white, then all three bulbs chosen are either brown or green.
Hence, 3 bulbs can be chosen from 5 brown or green bulbs in 5C3 = 10 ways
∴ P(no bulb glowing is white) = 10/84 = 5/42
CSAT Test (9th August 2020)
Answer Key & Explanation
∴ P(atleast 1 bulb glowing is white) = 1 – (5/42) = 37/42
Hence, option a.
Q39. Ans: d
Explanation:
Let the speed of boat in still water be x kmph and speed of the stream be y kmph.
∴ Downstream speed = x + y = 960/12 = 80
and Upstream speed = x − y = 960/16 = 60
On solving both equations: x = 70
∴ Speed of boat in still water = 70 kmph
Hence, option d.
Q40. Ans: c
Explanation:
Let the average age of the 12-member family be x years.
Had the member not changed, the average age now (i.e. after 18 months) would have been
(x + 1.5) years.
Hence, the total age should have been (12x + 18) instead of (12x) that it is right now.
This reduction of 18 years is because of the difference in age of the person who died and the person
who joined.
∴ Required age difference = 18 years
Hence, option c.
Q41. Ans: b
Explanation:
The passage critiques the government’s economic plan by saying that demand needs to be first
increased by placing money in the hands of people instead of using options like loan moratoriums. If
people are not willing to buy material, it is counterproductive for a production unit to try and produce
them. This validates option b.
Option c is directly eliminated because it talks about medical professionals while the question stem
talks about production units.
Option a is partially true because production units cannot continue operations without being
operational. However, they still need to have a cash flow and generate demand in order to do that.
Option d is incorrect because it speaks about the general problem while the question stem talks about
the specific problem of production units.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.
Q42. Ans: b
Explanation:
The passage starts by noting that the current measures initiated by the government will not be effective
due to collapsing demand. This is followed by the suggestion that income-generating measures will
help in dealing with the situation better. Thus, the passage exhorts the government to be creative and
imaginative in creating solutions to solve the problems in the economy. Hence, option b is the correct
explanation.
Option a is incorrect because it is incomplete and does not cover the potential solutions that the
government could come up with.
Options c and d are incorrect because they focus on only some aspects of the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.
Q43. Ans: b
Explanation:
The passage explains how democracy is still seeing some flaws due to the high cost of fighting
elections and the resultant influence of candidates wth criminal backgrounds in politics. Since such
Q44. Ans: a
Explanation:
The passage focuses on the advantages of home advantage in various sports and explains how chess
has hitherto been free from this phenomenon. It then goes on to show how a series of unfortunate and
unexpected events led to the visiting player getting a huge disadvantage (thereby lending a home
advantage to the host). Hence, the crucial message is that unexpected events can change all plans.
Hence, option a is valid.
Option b is incorrect because it contradicts the premise that luck and chance are not very important in
certain games like chess.
Option c is incorrect because the home advantage accrued to the chess player in this case was
accidental.
Option d is incorrect because a specific case of one player not talking to another cannot be considered
a generalised observation.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
Q45. Ans: a
Explanation:
The passage explains the obsession of people with high-speed driving and it not being suitable on
normal city roads and in that environment. It then shows the evolution of private racing that has
emerged as an alternative in order to satiate this wish of speed maniacs. This also infers that private
races have emerged as a solution to the problem of unsafe and rash driving on city roads. Hence,
option a is valid.
Option b, while true, is not the most critical inference. It just touches upon one aspect of the passage.
Option c is invalid because the power-to-weight ratio has not been mentioned as a mandatory
condition.
Option d is invalid because the data in the passage points towards the performance of both types of
cars behaving identically.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
Q46. Ans: d
Explanation:
The keynote is equivalent to the most important message. Since the passage discourages racing on
regular roads and then pushes for the evolving concept of private racing, the main message here is that
private racing allows individuals to fulfil their wish of being a race driver. This validates option d.
Hence, the correct answer is option d.
Q47. Ans: a
Explanation:
According to the passage regulators are indecisive about handling new technologies because such
technologies have both positive and negative outcomes. Hence, regulators are unsure about the
benefits of the resultant benefits versus the perceived threats. Hence, assumption 1 is valid.
Assumption 2 is invalid because the relation between customer benefit and changing status quo may
not apply for all traditional service providers. It may work only in specific industries.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
CSAT Test (9th August 2020)
Answer Key & Explanation
Q48. Ans: c
Explanation:
Consider the difference between consecutive terms: 3, 7, 16, 32, 57.
Since this does not show a pattern, consider the difference between these differences: 4, 9, 16, 25.
This forms a series of consecutive perfect squares.
Hence, the next second level difference is 36 and the next first level difference = 57 + 36 = 93.
∴ Required term = 119 + 93 = 212
Hence, option c.
Q49. Ans: d
Explanation:
Ɵ = 6|5h – 11m/12|
Here, h = 3 and Ɵ = 0 (as the hands coincide)
∴ 0 = 6|5(3) – 11m/12|
∴ 15 = 11m/12
∴ m = 180/11
Hence, the hands will coincide 180/11 minutes past 3.
Hence, option d.
Q50. Ans: c
Explanation:
Let the profit be Rs. 100.
∴ Initial profit to be shared equally = Rs. 60
∴ Pradeep and Gaurav will get Rs. 30 each
Of the remaining Rs. 40, Pradeep will get 12.5%.
Hence, Pradeep’s share out of Rs. 40 = 12.5% of 40 = Rs. 5
Profit left = Rs. 35
Ratio of Gaurav and Pradeep’s investment
= 60000 : 45000 = 4 : 3
∴ Pradeep’s share out of Rs. 35 = (3/7) × 35 = Rs. 15 and Gaurav’s share = Rs. 20
Total profit earned by Pradeep = 30 + 5 + 15 = Rs. 50 and total profit earned by Gaurav = 30 + 20 = Rs.
50
Hence, they both get the same share and thereby, the difference in their profit is always zero.
Hence, option c.
Q51. Ans: a
Explanation:
First double the numbers to get 4, 6, 8, 12, 14, 18, 20, 24.
Observe that each of them is 1 greater than a prime number. Hence, on subtracting 1 from each
number, the series obtained is: 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23.
Hence, the next prime is 29. This first becomes 30 and is then halved to get 15.
Hence, option a.
Q52. Ans: d
Explanation:
Chocolate = Only chocolate + Only chocolate and pineapple + Only chocolate and mango + all three
types
∴ 53 = Only chocolate + 10 + 11 + 8
∴ Only chocolate = 53 – 29 = 24%
∴ Number of people who liked only chocolate cake = 24% of 800 = 192
Hence, option d.
Q54. Ans: a
Explanation:
Consider the solution to the earlier questions.
Number of people who like at least two types of cakes = (10 + 13 + 11 + 8)% of 800
= 42% of 800 = 336
Number of people who like only one type of cake = 192 + 128 + 144 = 464
∴ Required difference = 464 – 336 = 128
Hence, option a.
Q55. Ans: b
Explanation:
Consider the position of each of the given letters in the alphabet.
A = 1, C = 3, F = 6, J = 10, O = 15
Observing this pattern, the next letter should be 15 + 6 = 21 i.e. U.
This eliminates options c and d.
Now, consider the numbers formed by joining the digits to the left and right of the letter in each case i.e.
26, 24, 21, 17, 12
Observe that 1 + 26 = 3 + 24 = 6 + 21 = 10 + 17
= 15 + 12 = 27
Hence, the required digits should 27 – 21 = 6
Hence, the required term is 0U6.
Hence, option b.
Q56. Ans: c
Explanation:
Let the amount received from his father be Rs. x.
∴ 5% of 8000 + 8% of x = 6% of (8000 + x)
∴ 400 + 0.08x = 480 + 0.06x
∴ 0.02x = 80 i.e. x = 4000
Hence, option c.
Q57. Ans: d
Explanation:
Let the original price be Rs. 100.
∴ M.P. = 1.25 × 100 = Rs. 125
Also, S.P. = (1 – 0.25) × 125
= 0.75 × 125 = Rs. 93.75
CSAT Test (9th August 2020)
Answer Key & Explanation
∴ Difference = 125 – 93.75 = Rs. 31.25
The actual difference is Rs. 1,000
∴ Actual C.P. = 100 × (1000/31.25) = Rs. 3,200
Hence, new M.P. = 1.2 × 3200 = Rs. 3,840
New S.P. = 0.75 × 3840 = Rs. 2,880
∴ Required difference = 3840 – 2880 = Rs. 960
Hence, option d.
Q58. Ans: b
Explanation:
If south-east erroneously points to the west, is would have rotated clockwise by 135°.
Hence, the arrow currently pointing to the actual north-east would also have rotated clockwise by 135°.
Hence, to find its actual direction, rotate it anti-clockwise by 135°.
North-east becomes west when rotated anti-clockwise by 135°.
Hence, he should walk towards the west as per the vane.
Hence, option b.
Q59. Ans: c
Explanation:
C.P. of mixture = 29.4/1.05 = Rs. 28
Let x kg of the rice costing Rs. 30 per kg be used.
Hence, using the rule of allegation:
∴ x/18 = (28 – 25)/(30 – 28) = 3/2
∴ x = 18 × (3/2) = 27 kg
Hence, option c.
Q60. Ans: b
Explanation:
When Arohi completes the race, Sanya is 80 m and 16 seconds away from the finish line.
Hence, Sanya takes 16 seconds to run 80 m
∴ Time taken by Sanya to run 4 km
= (4000/80) × 16 = 800 seconds
Since Arohi completes the race 16 seconds before Sanya, Arohi runs 4 km in 784 seconds
i.e. 13 minutes and 4 seconds
Hence, option b.
Q61. Ans: a
Explanation:
The passage explains the implications of the withdrawal of the foreign forces from the concerned
territories. It lists out the various negative effects that this will entail and their impact on us. It concludes
by saying that since the war has not ended – but only foreign forces have moved out – we will now
have to take more actions to avoid certain negative developments. Hence, option a becomes the most
crucial message.
Option b is invalid because the reason for withdrawal of the foreign forces is not known.
Option c is an unverified assumption and is, hence, invalid.
Option d, while possibly correct, is just one of the possible negative outcomes. It is not the gist of the
passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
Q62. Ans: b
Explanation:
The passage advocates searching for new and unconventional sources of food due to the tremendous
strain on food resources and its anticipated severity. It explains that food habits have evolved with time
Q63. Ans: d
Explanation:
The passage starts by talking about how the amendment of the traffic laws has reduced traffic-related
deaths but then cautions that ensuring road safety alone is not enough to bring in scientific road
systems. It advocates the establishment of road safety committees that would work with local bodies
and the local police. It also promotes the use of technology through dashboard cameras. Hence, it
logically follows that road safety is an integral part of scientific road systems. Hence, option d is valid.
Option a is directly eliminated as the passage clearly mentions that stringent traffic violation penalties
have reduced traffic violations and increased safety.
Option b is incorrect because road safety has been ensured (as given in the passage) even without
having scientific road systems in place.
Option c is incorrect because amending traffic laws help increase road safety and are thus, a small but
critical component of scientific road management.
Hence, the correct answer is option d.
Q64. Ans: b
Explanation:
The passage is talking about the diversity of challenges which have emerged over the last few
hundreds of years. The passages state that these specific challenges can only be handled if the ground
rules on disagreeing and negotiating change are established or in other words if we manage
disagreements (based on ground rules) and manage change. This is correctly explained in option b.
Option a is incorrect because the passage says that India’s record in handling challenges created by
globalisation has been middling, or average. This means that some challenges have been handled well
while some have not. The exact proportion can never be found.
Option c is invalid because the political and legal systems created through the Constitution have helped
solved a number of challenges, not necessarily only urbanisation.
Option d is incorrect because the passage attributes the importance of disagreement negotiation on the
diversity of challenges, rather than speed of change.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.
Q65. Ans: a
Explanation:
The whole passage is focused on dealing/comforting/facing challenges. The passage shows the
diversity of challenges that has emerged over the last few hundred years and how various countries
have faced them. Hence, option a is the most appropriate.
Hence, the correct answer is option a.
Q66. Ans: c
Explanation:
Towards the end of the passage, the author states that they are providing for communities and artists
who are seeking to take back control of discourses on their culture. This means that there are at least
some artists who are seeking to take back this control. This makes assumption 1 valid.
Q67. Ans: b
Explanation:
The author states that the new wing dedicated to the Arts of One World contains works by artists from
yesterday and today, and this reflects our universal heritage. The author further states that the
collections contain both ancient and contemporary works. All of this validates option b.
Hence, the correct answer is option b.
Q68. Ans: c
Explanation:
The digits satisfying the given conditions are highlighted below:
4825696387513964904
Hence, there are five such digits.
Hence, option c.
Q69. Ans: a
Explanation:
Original sequence: 482569638751
Rearranged sequence: 123455667889
The position of only digit remains unchanged.
Hence, option a.
Q70. Ans: c
Explanation:
J & R implies J is the father of R.
J × P implies J is the son of P. Hence, P is the grandparent of R.
P – T implies P is the wife of T. Hence, P is the grandmother and T is the grandfather of R.
Hence, option c.
Q71. Ans: b
Explanation:
T # P implies T is the mother of P.
P & D implies P is the father of D. Hence, T is the grandmother of D.
K # D implies K is the mother of D. Hence, K is the wife of P.
This makes K the daughter-in-law of T.
Hence, option b.
Q72. Ans: c
Explanation:
R – S implies R is the wife of S. Since R is female, option a is eliminated.
B × R implies B is the son of R. Hence, S and R are the father and mother of B.
B & K implies B is the father of K.
C # K implies C is the mother of K.
Hence, B and C are the father and mother of K (whose gender cannot be found). This eliminates
options b and d. Also, B is the husband of C.
Hence, option c.
Q73. Ans: b
Explanation:
Possible sweet choices = 22
CSAT Test (9th August 2020)
Answer Key & Explanation
Possible topping choices = 3 (honey or cream 1 or cream 2)
∴ Total combinations = 22 × 3 = 66
Hence, option b.
Q74. Ans: b
Explanation:
From the first two statements: “is” means 7.
From the last two statements: “forest” means 3.
Hence, “dark” means 1.
From the first and third statement: “brown” means 6.
Hence, “tree” means 4 and “looks” means 8.
Hence, the code for “forest with tree” will be of the form 3n4 (in any order) such that n is a digit that is
not already present.
Hence, 403 is a valid code.
Hence, option b.
Q75. Ans: c
Explanation:
Consider the solution to the previous question.
The code for “tree looks brown” will be 486 in any order. Hence, 864 is valid.
Hence, option c.
Q76. Ans: c
Explanation:
n(S) = 63 = 216
Possible cases where the sum is 4 = (1, 2, 1), (1, 1, 2), (2, 1, 1) i.e. 3 cases.
∴ Required probability = 3/216 = 1/72
Hence, option c.
Q77. Ans: a
Explanation:
Observe that 2, 4, 5, 6 are adjacent to 3. Hence, 1 is opposite 3.
If you rotate the second figure to make 3 as the right face, then 6 becomes the bottom face and 5
becomes the back face.
Now, 2 is already the top face and 4 is already the front face.
Hence, 2-6 and 4-5 are also opposite faces.
Hence, option a.
Q78. Ans: a
Explanation:
P is in row D and is sitting in front of the person who is third to the left of D.
So, D is in row E. Also E is to the immediate right of D.
B is second to the right of P. Hence, the position of these four people is:
P ___ B ___ ___
___ ___ ___ D E
Q is the same row as E (i.e. row E) and S is second to the left of Q. Hence:
P ___ B ___ ___
S ___ Q D E
Now, R is second to the right of the person in front or behind C. If C is in the top row (i.e. row D), then R
would have to be where D is currently allocated. This is not possible.
Hence, C is in the bottom row (i.e. row E). This also fixes R’s position.
Now, only A and T are left. Since A cannot be opposite E, T is opposite E and A is between P and B.
Hence, the final arrangement is:
Q79. Ans: b
Explanation:
Consider the solution to the previous question.
D is second to the right of C.
Hence, option b.
Q80. Ans: c
Explanation:
Consider the solution to the previous question.
In each pair, the second person is on the immediate right of the person in front of the first person. This
is reversed in the case of C and P (P is to the left).
Hence, option c.