12-05-2024

9610WMD801017240004 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Find angle between :-

(1) 53º
(2) 143º
(3) 37º
(4) 90º

2) Vector is 2cm long and is 60° above the x–axis in the first quadrant. Vector is 2cm long and is
60° below the x–axis in the fourth quadrant. The sum is a vector of magnitude

(1) 2 cm along + y–axis

(2) 2cm along +x–axis
(3) 2 cm along –y– axis
(4) 2 cm along – x– axis

3) Let

(1) is always greater than

(2) It is possible to have OR
(3) C is always equal to A + B
(4) C is never equal to A + B

4) The vector sum of the forces of 10 newton and 6 newton can be :

(1) 2 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 18 N
(4) 20 N

5) If then the angle between

(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 120°
(4) 45°

6) If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then the magnitude of their difference is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) Identify the correct relation :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) Which of the following group of forces can't produce zero resultant :

(1) 10, 10, 10

(2) 10, 10, 20
(3) 10, 20, 20
(4) 10, 20, 40

9) Force 3N, 4N and 12N act at a point in mutually perpendicular directions. The magnitude of the
resultant force is :–

(1) 19 N
(2) 13 N
(3) 11 N
(4) 5 N

10) If , then angle between and will be :-

(1) 90º
(2) 120º
(3) 0º
(4) 60º

11) If a vector is perpendicular to the vector . Then the value of α is :-

(1) –1

(2)

(3)
–
(4) 1

12)

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

13) If = PQ, then angle between and is :

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

14) If and then their dot product will be :-

(1) 6
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 0

15) Consider the two vectors and . The magnitude of the scalar product of
these vectors is :-

(1) 20
(2) 23
(3) 15
(4) 26

16) Find value of θ = rad in degree :-

(1) 760°
(2) 560°
(3) 660°
(4) 460°

17) If y = 2x2 – 2x then find out minimum value of y:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The equation of graph shown in figure is y = 2x2. The slope of graph at point P is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

19) How does the magnitude of slope vary in the following graph ?

(1) continuously decrease

(2) continuously increase
(3) first increase then decrease
(4) first decrease then increase

20)

(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) x3 + 6
(4) 3

21) (x5 + x4 + 7) equal to :-

(1) x6 + x5 + 7x
(2) 5x4 + 4x7 + 7
(3)
+ 7x
(4) 5x4 + 4x3

22)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Find the slope of the line shown below :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) If 4y = 3x + 5 then angle made by the line with positive x-axis is

(1) 37°
(2) 53°
(3) 30°
(4) 45°

25) Slope of the straight line x = 2y – 4 is

(1)

(2) 2
(3) –2

(4)

26) tan (2°) is approximately equal to-

(1) 0

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

27) Two points (3, 4) and (–3, –4) are at _______ distance from each other-

(1) 10m
(2) 7m
(3) 14m
(4) 5m

28) Maximum value of 5sinθ – 12cosθ is–

(1) 13
(2) 5
(3) 12
(4) None

29) Value of tan 240° is : –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) If and in the figure. Find

(1) 12
(2) 0
(3) 3
(4)

31) If find angle between

(1) 30º
(2) 60º
(3) 45º
(4) 90º

32) The magnitude of =.........

(1) p
(2)
(3) p2
(4) 1

33) Which is true :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) The scalar product of two vectors is and the magnitude of their vector product is 2. The
angle between them is :

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

35)
For given figure which option is correct?

(1) α > β
(2) α < β
(3) α = β
(4) None of these

SECTION-B

1) The component of a vector along the vector is :

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 5
(4) 10

2) If = 100 and it is making 37° with negative x-axis and 53° with positive y-axis then write it in
the form of :-

= 80 – 60
(1)

(2) = –80 + 60
= –80 – 60
(3)

(4) = –60 + 80

3) The vector component of vector along vector is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) Value of is :-

(1) zero
(2) 6ABcosθ + 9A2 – 9B2
(3) 6A2+ 5ABcosθ – 6B2
(4) 5ABcosθ

5) Two perpendicular forces P and Q act at a point and have resultant R. If direction of Q is
reveresed, than magnitude of new resultant will

(1) Remains same

(2) Becomes half
(3) Becomes twice
(4) None of these

6) If P = Q = R and then angle in between and is :

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°
7) The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the vectors & is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The resultant of the given vectors is :

(1) 0
(2) 20
(3) 10
(4)

9) The angle between the vectors and is :

(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 45°

10) The projection of along is :

(1) 24/25
(2) 0
(3) 24/5
(4) None

11) Evaluate the following integrals

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) –1
(4) 1

12) Correct graph of 3x + 4y + 1 = 0 is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A vector points vertically upward and points towards north. The vector product is :-

(1) zero
(2) along west
(3) along east
(4) vertically downward

14) The area of the triangle formed by and is

(1) 3 sq.unit
(2) sq. unit
(3) sq. unit

(4)
sq. unit

15) If and , the vector having the same magnitude as B and parallel to A is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) For the reaction A + 2B —→ C, 8 mole of A and 12 mole of B will produce :-

(1) 4 mole of C
(2) 6 mole of C
(3) 5 mole of C
(4) 12 mole of C

2) The empirical formula of an acid is CH2O, the probable molecular formula of acid may be:-

(1) CH2O2
(2) C2H4O4
(3) C2H4O2
(4) C3H6O4

3) The law of conservation of mass holds good for all of the following except -

(1) All chemical reactions

(2) Nuclear reactions
(3) Endothermic reactions
(4) Exothermic reactions

4) Which one of the following pairs of compound illustrate the law of multiple proportions ?

(1) H2O, Na2O

(2) MgO, Na2O
(3) Na2O, BaO
(4) SnCl2, SnCl4

5) The No. of oxygen atoms in 4.4 gm of CO2 is approx

(1) 1.2 × 1023

(2) 6 × 1022
(3) 6 × 1023
(4) 12 × 1023

6) Amount of water produced by the combustion of 32 g of methane is :-

(1) 36 g
(2) 18 g
(3) 72 g
(4) 9 g

7) The count of number of atoms present in a molecule is called it's :-

(1) atomicity
(2) molecularity
(3) Poisson's ratio
(4) none of these

8) What is the mass percent of H in CH4 :-

(1) 20%
(2) 30%
(3) 25%
(4) 40%

9) 1 amu =

(1) 1.67 × 10–24 kg

(2) 1.67 × 10–24 g
(3) 1.67 × 10–23 g
(4) 6.022 × 1023 kg

10) How many protons are present in 1.8g NH4+ :-

(1) NA
(2) 1.2 NA
(3) 1.1 NA
(4) 11 NA

11) The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X (atomic mass 10) and 50%
element Y (atomic mass 20) by weight is :-

(1) X3Y
(2) X2Y3
(3) X2Y
(4) X4Y

12) Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of alpha particles showed for the first time that atom has
:-

(1) Electrons
(2) Protons
(3) Nucleus
(4) Neutrons

13) The radius of nucleus of 13Al27 will be :-

[R0 = 1.33 × 10–15 m]

(1) 1.2 × 10–15m

(2) 2.7 × 10–15m
(3) 10.8 × 10–15m
(4) 4 × 10–15m

14) Number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the element 89Y231 is :-

(1) 89, 231, 89

(2) 89, 89, 242
(3) 89, 142, 89
(4) 89, 71, 89

15) The volume of nucleus is about :-

(1) 10–4 times to that of an atom

(2) 10–15 times to that of an atom
(3) 10–5 times to that of an atom
(4) 10–10 times to that of an atom

16) What will be the total spin of Fe3+ ion ?

(1) 5/2
(2) 2
(3) 3/2
(4) 1

17) The maximum number of electrons present in an orbit ℓ = 3, is :

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 14

18) No. of waves in 4th orbit :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
19) The ratio of velocity of electron in second orbit of He+ to third orbit of B+4 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) An element M has 25 protons. The number of electron in its M2– anion will be -

(1) 27
(2) 23
(3) 25
(4) 22

21) The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:-

(1) 5, 0, 0, + ½
(2) 5, 0, 1, – ½
(3) 5, 0, 1, + ½
(4) 6, 0, 0 + ½

22) Average atomic weight of boron is 10.10 and boron exists in two isotopic forms B10 and B11. The
percentage abundance of B10 is

(1) 10%
(2) 90%
(3) 50%
(4) 20%

23) The number of electrons in Na, having n + l = 3

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

24) The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass 1 g and velocity 100 m/s is:

(1) 6.63 × 10–33 m

(2) 6.63 × 10–34 m
(3) 6.63 × 10–35 m
(4) 6.65 × 10–35 m
25) The velocity of electron in third excited state of Be3+ ion will be :-

(1)
(2.188 × 108) ms–1

(2)
(2.188 × 106) ms–1
(3) (2.188 × 106) Kms–1
(4) (2.188 × 103) Kms–1

26) In spectral series of hydrogen. The series which does not come in infrared region is :-

(1) P fund
(2) Brackett
(3) Paschen
(4) Lyman

27) When an electron jumps from L to K shell

(1) Energy is absorbed

(2) Energy is released
(3) Energy is neither absorbed nor released
(4) Energy is sometimes absorbed and some times released

28) Compare the energies of two radiations E1 with wavelength 800 nm and E2 with wavelength 400
nm.

(1) E1 = 2E2
(2) E1 = E2
(3) E2 = 2E1

(4)
E2 = E1

29) The nucleus of helium contains

(1) Four protons

(2) Four neutrons
(3) Two neutrons and two protons
(4) Four protons and two electrons

30) The first Lyman transition in the hydrogen spectrum has DE = 10.2 eV. The same energy change
is observed in the second Balmer transition of :-

(1) Li2+
(2) Li+
(3) He+
(4) Be3+
31) Four lowest energy levels of H–atoms are shown in the figure. The number of emission lines
could be :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

32) The radiation of maximum frequency will be emitted in the transition (for H atom):

(1) From n = 1 to n = 3
(2) From n = 2 to n = 5
(3) From n = 3 to n = 1
(4) From n = 5 to n = 2

33) Atoms and are related to each other as:-

(1) Isotones
(2) Isoelectronic
(3) Isodiaphers
(4) Isosters

34) Angular momentum in second Bohr orbit of H-atom is x. Then find out angular momentum in Ist
excitetd state of Li+2 ion :

(1) 3x
(2) 9x

(3)

(4) x

35) En = –313.6/n2.If the value of En = –34.84 then to which of the following values does 'n'
correspond :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

SECTION-B
1) A mixture containing 100 g H2 and 100 g O2 is ignited so that water is formed according to the
reaction, 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O, how much water will be formed?

(1) 112.5g
(2) 50 g
(3) 25 g
(4) 200 g

2) Suppose the elements P and Q combine to form two compounds PQ and PQ2. When 0.05 mole of
PQ weighs 5 g and 0.03 mole of PQ2 weighs 4.5 g then atomic weights of P and Q are respectively :-

(1) 50, 75
(2) 75, 50
(3) 50, 50
(4) 25, 25

3) An organic compound has C, H and N in ratio 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight then determine empirical
formula of compound -

(1) C6H8N2
(2) C3H4N
(3) C4HN4
(4) C9HN3.5

4) Four one litre flasks are separately filled with the gases hydrogen, helium, oxygen and ozone at
same room temp. and pressure. The ratio of total number of atoms of these gases present in the
different flasks would be -

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 3
(3) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3
(4) 2 : 1 : 3 : 2

5) A certain quantity of a compound contains 3g carbon and 0.25 g hydrogen then empirical formula
of the compound will be :-

(1) CH3
(2) CH
(3) CH2
(4) CH4

6) Which of the following set of quantum number is impossible for an electron ?

(1) n = 1, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
(2) n = 9, ℓ = 7, m = –6, s = –1/2
(3) n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –3, s = +1/2

7) Calculate velocity of an electron placed in the third orbit of the hydrogen atom

(1) 7.27×105 m sec–1

(2) 7.27×107 m sec–1
(3) 0.27×105 m sec–1
(4) 7.27 ×106 m sec–1

8) If the Planck’s constant h = 6.6 x 10–34 Js, the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle having
momentum of 3.3 × 10–24 kg ms–1 will be -

(1) 0.002 Å
(2) 0.02 Å
(3) 0.2 Å
(4) 2Å

9) The shortest wave length in H spectrum of Lyman series when RH = 109678 cm–1 is -

(1) 1215.67 Å
(2) 911.7 Å
(3) 1002.7 Å
(4) 1127.30 Å

10) The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated, is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12) Which is correct for any H like species :-

(1) (E2 – E1) > (E3 – E2) > (E4 – E3)

(2) (E2 – E1) < (E3 – E2) < (E4 – E3)
(3) (E2 – E1) = (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)

(4)
(E2 – E1) = (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)

13) Wavelength of first line of Lyman series in terms of R of hydrogen atom :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The graphical representation of energy of e– and atomic number is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Find out ratio of following for photon

(νmax.)Lyman : (νmax)Brakett

(1) 1 : 16
(2) 16 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4
 BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is not a structure of prokaryotic flagella?

(1) Filament
(2) Centriole
(3) Hook
(4) Basal body

2) Which type of vacuoles provide buoyancy to bacteria?

(1) Sap vacuoles

(2) Contractile vacuoles
(3) Gas vacuoles
(4) Food vacuoles

3) Gram staining mainly depends on chemical composition of

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Cell wall
(3) Glycocalyx
(4) Cytoplasm

4) The subunits of ribosomes of a prokaryotic cell are

(1) 60S and 40S

(2) 20S and 90S
(3) 50S and 30S
(4) 30S and 60S

5) The genomic DNA of a bacterium is

(1) Circular
(2) Linear
(3) Segmented
(4) Rod shaped

6) Which of the following structure is present only in prokaryotic cell?

(1) Plasmid
(2) Nucleus
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Ribosomes
7) Which of the following cell organelle is responsible for the synthesis of steroids and lipids?

(1) SER
(2) RER
(3) Mitochondrion
(4) Ribosome

8) The animal cell is different from a plant cell in having

(1) Ribosomes
(2) Nucleus
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) Centrosomes

9) The plasma membrane consists mainly of:-

(1) Proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer

(2) Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
(3) Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
(4) Proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecule

10) ER, Golgi complex, Lysosome and Vacuole are included in endomembrane system because:-

(1) Their functions are same

(2) Their structures are same
(3) Their functions are co-ordinated
(4) Their function resemble with mitochondria

11) Statement-I : Carrier protein is required for the transport of non-polar molecules through cell
membrane.
Statement-II : Cell membrane allow bidirectional transport of different molecules.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

12) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are similar in having of :-

(1) Endomembrane system

(2) Membrane bound organelles
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Mitochondria

13) Head part and tail part of phospholipid molecule is respectively :-

(1) Polar and Polar
(2) Non-Polar and Polar
(3) Non-Polar and Non-Polar
(4) Polar and Non-Polar

14) Which of the following is gradually diminished as the cell matures ?

(1) Primary cell wall

(2) Secondary cell wall
(3) Plasmodesmata
(4) Middle lamella

15) Which of the following is not a significance of meiosis ?

(1) Helps in conservation of specific chromosome number in each species

(2) Increase in genetic variability
(3) Helps in evolution and adaptation
(4) Helps in growth of organism

16) The most dramatic period of the cell cycle is

(1) interphase
(2) mitotic phase
(3) quiescent stage
(4) synthesis phase

17) Syncytium condition known as:

(1) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis

(2) Cytokinesis is not followed by karyokinesis
(3) Chromosome duplication is not followed by karyokinesis
(4) Chromosome splitting not followed by karyokinesis

18) Match the following

Column-I Column-II

Initiation of condensation
A. Metaphase I.
of chromosomal material

Nuclear envelops
B. Interphase II. assembles around the
chromosomes clusters

Chromosomes arranged
C. Telophase III.
at equatorial plate

The period between two

D. Prophase IV.
cell division-M-phase
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

19) Crossing over is

(1) Non-enzyme mediated process

(2) Only autosomal process
(3) An enzyme mediated process
(4) Both (2) and (3)

20) The formation of recombination nodules and terminalisation occur respectively during :

(1) Pachytene and diakinesis

(2) Leptotene and zygotene
(3) Zygotene and diakinesis
(4) Diplotene and diakinesis

21) After meiosis-I, the resultant daughter cells have:

(1) Same amount of DNA as in the parent cell in G2-phase

(2) Twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete
(3) Same amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete.
(4) Four times the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete

22) The oocytes of some vertebrates get arrested for years or months in:

(1) Diplotene
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Metaphase - I
(4) Telophase - I

23) The following figure represents

(1) Metaphase
(2) Transition to metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

24) Splitting of centromere, hence separation of sister chromatids occur during

(1) Anaphase of mitosis

(2) Anaphase of meiosis I
(3) Anaphase of meiosis II
(4) Both (1) & (3)

25) In which stage of cell cycle DNA replication occurs?

(1) Metaphase
(2) G1 - phase
(3) G2 - phase
(4) S - phase

26) In ................. stage, the chromosomal material becomes untangled during the process of
chromatin condensation.

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

27) Read the Statement - I and Statement-II carefully to mark the correct options given below.
Statement-I : Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope marks the start of the metaphase of
mitosis.
Statement-II : Chromatids move to opposite poles during metaphase.

(1) Statement-I & Statement II are true

(2) Statement-I is false but Statement II is true
(3) If Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I & Statement II are false

28) Mark the correct statement with respect to meiosis

(1) It involves two sequential cycles of DNA replication

(2) It involves pairing of homologous chromosomes
(3) Two daughter cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II
(4) It involves a single cycle of nuclear and cell division

29) When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis it results in

(1) Multinucleated condition
(2) Uninucleated condition
(3) Death of cell
(4) Multiple cells

30) Which of the following events does not occur in prophase of mitosis?

(1) Condensation of chromatin

(2) Centrioles begin to move towards opposite poles
(3) Nuclear envelope and nucleolus reappear
(4) Spindle fibers start assembling

31) What is true for the phase followed by Leptotene ?

(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata

Disappearance of nucleolus and nuclear
(2)
membrane
(3) Formation of synapsis
(4) Recombination of genetic material on the two chromosomes

32) How many chromosomes will the cell have at G2 and after M phase respectively, if it has 24
chromosomes in meristematic cell?

(1) 24, 24
(2) 48, 24
(3) 24, 12
(4) 12, 6

33) Mitotic apparatus is formed by all except

(1) Cellulose
(2) Two asters
(3) Spindle fibres
(4) Tubulin protein

34) Select the incorrect match

(1) G1 phase – Organelles duplicates

(2) S phase – Synthesis of histone
(3) G0 phase – Quiescent stage
(4) G2 phase – Nuclear growth

35) During mitosis, endoplasmic reticulum and golgi complex disappear at

(1) Early prophase

(2) Interphase
(3) Late prophase
(4) Late metaphase

SECTION-B

1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum perform various functions except :-

(1) Lipid synthesis

(2) Synthesis of steroidal hormones.
(3) Synthesis of digestive enzymes of lysosome
(4) All of these

2) Which of the following structure help in osmoregulation and excretion in some unicellular
organisms ?

(1) Golgi body

(2) Lysosome
(3) Contractive Vacuole
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

3) The nature of tonoplast is :-

(1) Semi-permeable
(2) Permeable
(3) Impermeable
(4) Selective-permeable

4) Which type of molecules are transport by facilitated diffusion ?

(1) Non-Polar
(2) Polar
(3) Hydrophobic
(4) Both (1) and (2)

5) Which of the following in plant acts as glue between neighbouring plant cells ?

(1) Ca – Pectate only

(2) Mg – Pectate only
(3) Ca & Mg – Pectate
(4) Phospholipid

6) Read the following statements

A. Divide by fission
B. Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP
C. Called ‘Power houses’ of cell
Find the correct statements with respect to mitochondria ?

(1) A and B only

(2) B only
(3) B and C only
(4) All are correct

7) Haploid cells which undergo mitosis are -

(1) Worker bee

(2) Queen bee
(3) Male honey bee
(4) All of the above

8) Which of the following is not a significance of mitosis ?

(1) Growth of multicellular organisms

Conservation of specific number of chromosomes in sexually reproducing organisms across
(2)
generations.
(3) Cell repairing
(4) To restore nucleo cytoplasmic ratio

9)
Which stages of cell division are represented by figures A and B respectively ?

(1) Prophase, Transition to metaphase

(2) Anaphase, Anaphase-II
(3) Metaphase, Metaphase-I
(4) Anaphase, Transition to metaphase

10) "X-shaped structures" occurs during which phase of meiotic division ?

(1) Prophase I
(2) Metaphase I
(3) Anaphase II
(4) Telophase I

11) Few of the events of prophase-I are given below. Read them and arrange in the sequence of
occurrence.
A - Crossing over
B - Disappearance of nucleolus and nuclear membrane
C - Formation of synaptonemal complex
D - Formation of chiasmata

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their

(1) Satellites
(2) Secondary constricted
(3) Kinetochores
(4) Centromere

13) Identify the correct statement with regard to G1-phase (Gap 1) of interphase

(1) Reorganisation of all cell components takes place

(2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA
(3) Nuclear division takes place
(4) DNA synthesis or replication takes place

14) Which one is longest phase of cell cycle?

(1) M-Phase
(2) G1-phase
(3) G2-phase
(4) Anaphase

15) Find the correctly matched pairs and choose the correct option :-
(A) Leptotene - Compaction of chromosome
(B) Zygotene - Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(C) Pachytene - Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex takes place
(D) Diplotene - Formation of synaptonemal complex takes place

(1) A and B
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) B and C

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) The event which does not occur during interkinesis is

(1) DNA replication
(2) Duplication of centrioles
(3) Protein synthesis
(4) Both (1) & (2)

2) Cell plate formed during mitosis represents

(1) Primary wall

(2) Middle lamella
(3) Glycocalyx
(4) Tertiary wall

3) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements
during

(1) Late prophase

(2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Anaphase

4) Structure of chromosomes can be best studied in the stage of mitosis which also shows

Reformation of Golgi body and endoplasmic

(1)
reticulum
(2) Formation of equatorial plate
(3) Division of centromere
(4) Disappearance of nucleolus

5) A pollen grain has 10 pg DNA and 10 chromosomes then, what is the amount of DNA and number
of chromosomes present in its mother cell at G1 phase?

(1) 40 pg DNA; 40 Chromosomes

(2) 20 pg DNA; 40 Chromosomes
(3) 20 pg DNA; 20 Chromosomes
(4) 40 pg DNA; 10 Chromosomes

6) First gap phase in cell cycle is :-

(1) interval between mitotic phase and initiation of DNA replication

(2) interval between end of DNA replication and DNA separation phase
(3) interval between karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(4) interval between DNA replication phase and second gap phase

7) If there are 16 chromosomes in onion root tip cells?

What will be number of chromosomes in G1, S and G2 phase ?
(1) 16, 32, 16
(2) 16, 16, 16
(3) 32, 32, 32
(4) 16, 32, 32

8) Which one of the following is not a component of endomembrane system?

(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Golgibody
(c) Lysosome
(d) Vacuole
(e) Nucleus

(1) Both a and c

(2) Only c
(3) Both d and e
(4) Only e

9) Main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells is :

(1) Nucleus
(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Cell wall

10) Lipids are arranged within the membrane with the polar head towards the A sides and the
hydrophobic tails towards the B part :-

A B

(1) Inner Outer

(2) Outer Inner

(3) Outer Outer

(4) Inner Inner

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) The 'power house of cell' :-

(1) Is bound by a single membrane

(2) Posses cristae which are extension of its outer membrane
(3) Are sites of formation of 'energy currency' of the cell
(4) Is found in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells
12) What is true for fluid mosaic model ?

(1) Phospholipid monolayer is present over protein layer.

(2) Phospholipid bilayer is present over protein layer.
(3) Proteins are embedded in phospholipid bilayer.
(4) Phospholipid single layer is sandwiched between two protein layer.

13) The organelle considered as the site of aerobic respiration :

(1) Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP hence called "Kitchen of cell"
(2) Outer membrane forms number of infoldings known as cristate
(3) Divide by fission
(4) Matrix possesses single, circular and single stranded DNA molecule

14) Which function is performed by Golgi body?

(1) Protein synthesis

(2) Formation of acrosome
(3) Lipid synthesis
(4) Intracellular digestion

15) Which of the following is incorrect ?

All the elements present in a sample of earth’s crust are also present in a sample of living
(1)
tissue
The relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen with respect to other elements is higher in any
(2)
living organism than in earth’s crust
(3) The % weight of nitrogen in earth’s crust is very high in comparison to human body
(4) The % weight of silicon in earth’s crust is very high in comparison to human body

16) Carbohydrates are stored in mammals as:

(1) Glucose in liver

(2) Glycogen in muscles and spleen
(3) Lactic acid in muscles
(4) Glycogen in liver and muscles

17) Which element is in very little quantity in Earth Crust?

(1) Si
(2) N
(3) O
(4) S

18) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement :-
 Secondary metabolites are found in plant, fungal and microbial cells and we do not understand
(1)
the role of these secondary metabolites in host organisms.
Many secondary metabolites like rubber, drugs, spices, scent and pigments are useful for
(2)
human welfare.
(3) Some secondary metabolites have ecological significance.
(4) Terpenes, antibiotics and coloured pigments are primary metabolites.

19) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Morphine - Essential oil

(2) Abrin - Pigment
(3) Concanavalin-A - Lectin
(4) Anthocyanin - Drug

20) Carotenoids and Anthocyanin pigments are examples of :-

(1) Primary metabolites

(2) Secondary metabolites
(3) Protein
(4) Carbohydrate

21) Match the given secondary metabolites correctly with their category

a Alkaloid (i) Ricin

b Toxin (ii) Morphine

c Lectin (iii) Concanavalin A

d Polymeric substance (iv) Gums

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

22) Pigments are considered as the secondary metabolites, having some particular functions. Which
of the following is an example of pigments?

(1) Carotenoids
(2) Codeine
(3) Concanavalin-A
(4) Curcumin

23) Ricin and Abrin are-

(1) Alkaloids
(2) Toxins
(3) Lectins
(4) Pigments

24) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Tetrose sugar (i) Galactose

(B) Pentose sugar (ii) Maltose

(C) Hexose sugar (iii) Erythrose

(D) Disaccharide (iv) Ribose

(v) Sedoheptulose

(1) A-(v); B-(iv); C-(iii); D-(i), (ii)

(2) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(v); D-(ii)
(3) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(ii)
(4) A-(i), (ii); B-(iv); C-(iii); D-(v)

25) Assertion : All monosaccharides are reducing sugars.

Reason : Monosaccharides has free aldehyde or ketone group.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Which one is a reducing sugar ?

(1) Glucose
(2) Fructose
(3) Erythrose
(4) All

27) Match the column - I with Column-II and choose correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Pentose Sugar (I) Fructose

(B) Hexose Sugar (II) Lactose

(C) Oligo-saccharides (III) Ribose

 (D) Tetrose (IV) Erythrose
(1) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
(2) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(3) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
(4) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

28) Which element is present in highest amount in human body ?

(1) O
(2) C
(3) H
(4) N

29) In order to analyse the chemical composition, a living tissue is crushed in :-

(1) Trichloroacetic acid

(2) Trihydroxy alcohol
(3) Ethanol
(4) Water

30) When a tissue is fully burnt, 'Ash' is obtained which contains all of the following substances
except.

(1) Calcium
(2) Magnesium
(3) Carbon
(4) Potassium

31) Which elements is present negligible in human body?

(1) O
(2) C
(3) H
(4) Si

32) "Ash" of a living matter represents the _____ content of protoplasm:-

(1) Inorganic
(2) Aromatic compounds
(3) Fatty acid
(4) Nucleotide base

33) Match the column-l with column-ll and choose the correct option.
 Column-I
Column-II
(Average composition of
(% of the total cellular mass)
cell components)

a. Lipid (i) 5-7

b. Protein (ii) 3

c. Nucleic acids (iii) 2

d. Carbohydrates (iv) 10-15

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

34) Correct sequence of abundance of elements in earth crust is :-

(1) Ca > Mg > Na > Si

(2) N > S > Na > Si
(3) Si > Ca > Na > Mg
(4) Si > H > Mg > Na

35) Which one is most abundant inorganic chemical in living organism.

(1) Protein
(2) Lipid
(3) Water
(4) Carbohydrate

SECTION-B

1) Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.

(1) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
(2) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
(3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase
(4) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase

2) Recombinase works during which phase of meiosis ?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

3) Difference between anaphase-I and anaphase-II is :-

(1) Contraction of spindle
(2) Movement of chromosome
(3) Splitting of centromere
(4) All of the above

4) Molecules which are transported across the membrane against their concentration gradient, i.e.
from the lower to higher concentration. Such a transport is called :-

(1) Active transport, e.g., diffusion

(2) Passive transport, e.g., diffusion
(3) Active transport, e.g., Na+/K+pump
(4) Osmosis, a type of simple diffusion

5) A plant cell has :-

(1) A large central vacuole and rigid cell wall

(2) A centriole for cell division
(3) A centrosome inactive in non-dividing cells
(4) Absence of cell membrane

6) Lysosome enzymes are active at pH

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) Variable

7) Which of the following is not an inorganic constituent in living organism?

(1) Calcium
(2) Iron
(3) Sodium
(4) Ribose

8) Most abundant organic compound in living organisms is :-

(1) Water
(2) Nucleic acid
(3) Protein
(4) Carbohydrate

9) Take a living tissue, grind it in trichloroacetic acid using pestle and mortar, and then strain it, you
would obtain two fractions : acid-soluble and acid-insoluble fraction. Acid-insoluble fraction does not
contains :-

(1) Polysaccharides
(2) Nucleic acids
(3) Lipids
(4) Amino acids

10) The acid soluble fraction of the tissue has

(1) Amino acids, Proteins and nucleic acids

(2) Monosaccharides and polysaccharides
(3) Nucleic acids, nucleotides and nitrogen base
(4) Amino acids and nucleotides

11) Statement-I : The acid insoluble fraction, has only four types of organic compounds i.e.
proteins, nucleic acid, polysaccharides and lipids.
Statement-II : These classes of compounds have molecular weights in the range of ten thousand
daltons and above.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statements are incorrect.

12) Correct sequence of abundance of elements in the human body is :-

(1) Ca > S > Mg > H

(2) N > Ca > S > Mg
(3) Mg > Na > S > H
(4) C > H > N > Si

13) Which is not true about monosaccharides ?

(1) reducing nature

(2) soluble in water
(3) sweet in taste
(4) always ketose

14) Rubber is a type of :-

(1) Secondary metabolite

(2) Type of a protein
(3) Primary metabolite
(4) Carbohydrate

15) Concanavalin A is :

(1) an alkaloid
(2) an essential oil
(3) a lectin
(4) a pigment
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 2 1 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 3 3 1 1 4 1 1 3 4 3 2 4 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 2 2 4 4 2 4 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 3 2 4 1 3 1 3 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 1 4 2 2 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 3 1 4 4 2 3 3 3 4 3 3 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 3 2 3 2 4 1 4 2 4 3 1 2 4 2

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 2 3 1 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 4 1 4 2 1 4 3 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 3 4 4 1 3 2 1 3 3 1 1 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 2 3 4 3 2 4 1 2 3 2 2 1

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 3 2 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 3 4 2 4 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 1 2 3 1 4 3 1 1 3 4 1 3 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 3 3 3 1 1 4 3 4 4 2 2 4 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) Both vectors have equal magnitude,

So, the resultant will be of same magnitude in positive x direction.

3) {as we know}
So, it is possible for to be less then both and in magnitude

4)

The resultant of two forces of 10 N and 6 N lies between (10 + 6) N, i.e. 16 N and (10 – 6)N, i.e., 4
N. Hence the possible value of resultant is 8 N.

5)

Conceptual.

6) R = 2acos

1 = 2 × 1 cos
θ = 120°

R1 = 2a sin = 2 × 1 sin60° =

7)

8)

A–B≤C≤A+B

9)

Resultant =

10)
Resultant of two vectors and can be given by

If θ = 0º then

11)

Given vectors can be rewritten as and

Dot product of these vectors should be equal to zero because they perpendicular.
∴ ⇒ 8α = – 4
⇒ α = –1/2

12)

0+1+0
=1

13)

= PQ
⇒ PQ cos θ = PQ
⇒ cos θ = 1 ⇒ θ = 0°

14)

. =6–6+0=0

15)

16)

Multiply by

17) y = 2x2 – 2x

x = 1/2

so min is at x = 1/2

= –1/2

18) Slope = 4x
 at x = 1,

19)

20)
=8–1=7

21)
5
If y = x + x4 + 7

then = 5x4 + 4x3

22)

23)

tanθ =

slope = tan (π – θ) = –tan θ =

24)

y=
y = mx + C
m = 3/4
tanθ = 3/4
θ = 37°

25) x = 2y – 4
 26) If θ is very small then tan θ = θ (in rad.)

27)

d= = = 7 × 1.4
=

28)
–13 ≤ 5 sinθ – 12cosθ ≤ 13
Maximum value of 5 sinθ – 12 cos θ = 13

29)

tan 240° = tan (180 + 60) = tan 60° =

30)

31)

32) Self cross product gives null vector and magnitude of null vector is zero.

33)

34)

35)

Resultant is more closer to bigger magnitude vector so α > β.

 36)

37)

38)

Vector component of along is

39)

=
= 6A2 – 4ABcosθ + 9ABcosθ – 6B2

= 6A2 + 5ABcosθ – 6B2

40)

41)
in equilaterial Δ each angle = 60°

42)
then

43)

44)

where θ is the angle between two vectors and

∴

or

45)

5 cos θ

=0

46)
 47) Given equation, 3x + 4y + 1 = 0
Rearranging in the form y = mx+ c
4y = -3x-1

Slope (m) = –

Y intercept = –

48) By right hand thumb rule.

Ans. west

49) Area =

50)

CHEMISTRY

51)

A + 2B → C
8 mol 12 mol 0
(L.R.)
8 – 6 12 – 12 6 mol

52)
Empirical formula of an acid is CH2O. (Empirical formula)n = Molecular formula where n = 1, 2, 3, 4
..............
If n = 2 molecular formula C2H4O2.

53)

Conceptual

54)

SnCl2, SnCl4

55)

mole of CO2 =
No. of 'O' atom = atomicity × mole × NA
= 2 × 0.1 × 6 ×1023
= 1.2 × 1023

56)

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

⇒ 32 g CH4 = 2 mole CH4 will produce 4 mole of H2O or 72 g H2O.

57)

The count of number of atoms present in a molecule is called atomicity.

58)

Mass % =

59)

1 a.m.u. = 1.67 × 10–24g

60)

No. of protons in one NH4+ ion = 7 + 4 = 11

No. of NH4+ ions in 1.8 g = = 0.1 NA

+
∴ No. of protons in 1.8 g NH4 = 11 × 0.1 NA = 1.1 NA

61)
 62)

Rutherford's experiment led to the discovery of nucleus.

63)

= 1.33 × 10–15 × 3 ≅ 4 × 10–15m

64)

EA
Z

Number of protons = atomic number

= number of electrons
= 89
Number of neutrons = 231 – 89 = 142

65)

Vol. of nucleus = 10–15 × vol. of atom

66) Fe3+ = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5

unpaired e– = 5, Total spin =

67)

ℓ = 3(f) —→ 14 electrons

68)

No of waves in an orbit = orbit no

69)

70)

e = 25 + 2 = 27
 71)

Z = 37 ⇒ 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s1

valence electron

5,0,0

72)

Assume percentage abundance of B10 = x

So percentage abundance of B11 = 100 – x

Apply formula, = 10.10

⇒ 10 – 100 – 11x = 1010
⇒ x = 90%

73)

n+l=3
3 0 —→ 3s
2 1 —→2p
Na → 1s22s22p63s1
Total 7e–s

74)

=
λ = 6.63 × 10–33m

75)

V = 2.18 × 106 × m/s

V = 2.18 × 106 ×
= 2.18 × 106 m/s
= 2.18 × 103 km/s

76)

Lyman Series come under UV region.

77)
Higher orbit to lower orbit electron release energy

78)

2E1 = E2

79)

80)

For second balmer n1 = 2, n2 = 2

DE = 13.6 × Z2

81)

4→1
3 + 2 + 1 = 6 lines

82)

n∝E

83) →7–6=1
→9–8=1
Same (n – p) Isodiaphers

84) mvr = = x (given) [for H–atom]

mvr = = [for Ist exited state of Li+2 Ion]

85) En = –313.6/n2 = –34.84

n2 = ≃9
n=3

86)
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O (ℓ)

0
mol of water = 2 × mol of oxygen

=2×

mol of water =

87)

Mass of 1 mole of PQ =
P + Q = 100 ....(1)

Mass of 1 mol of PQ2 =

P + 2Q = 150 ....(2)

88)

% by weight ⇒ 9 : 1 : 3.5
of C, H and N

% by moles is =
Empirical formula = C3H4N

89)

H2 : He : O2 : O3
Ratio of atoms 2: 1 : 2 : 3

90)

3 g of carbon, 0.25 g of hydrogen

Mole of C = Mole of H =

Moles Ratio = :

= :
= 1 : 1
Empirical formula CH

91) m = –3 not possible (when ℓ = 2, m = –2, –1, 0, + 1, +2)

92)
v = 2.18×106 ×

= 2.18 ×106 × = 7.27×105 m sec–1

93)

94)

For Lyman series n1 = 1

For shortest ‘l’ of Lyman sereis the energy differnece in two levels showing transition should be
maximum (i.e. n2 = ∞).

= 109678
∴ λ = 911.7 × 10–8
= 911.7 Å

95)

In (1) and (2) No rule is violated

In (3) option Hund’s rule is violated but not Paul’s exclusion principle.

96)

Δx = Δp = mΔV

Δx . Δp = ⇒ (DP)2 = ⇒ DP = mDV =

ΔV =

97)

E2 – E1 = 10.2 eV
E3 – E2 = 1.89 eV
E4 – E3 = 0.66 eV

98)

First line of Lyman 2 → 1

 ⇒ λ=

99)

100) νmaxL = cRZ2 = cRZ2

νmaxB = cRZ2 =

BIOLOGY-I

101)

Centriole is not present in a prokaryotic flagella.

102)

Gas vacuoles → Provide buoyancy to bacteria and help in floating.

Sap vacuoles → Found in plants
Contractile vacuoles → Osmoregulation
Food vacuoles → Digestion.
(Found in eukaryotic cells)

103)

Gram staining detects thickness of cell wall in bacteria.

104)

105)

Circular i.e., close ends

106)
Plasmid is present only in prokaryotic cell. Yeast is the only eukaryote having plasmid.

107)

Ncert Page 95.

RER Protein synthesis.
Mitochondrion ATP synthesis site.
Ribosome Protein synthesising machinary.

108)

Centrosome or centrioles are present in only animal cells.

Ncert Page 91.

109) Ncert Page 93.

111)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 94

112)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 88

113)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 93

114)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 94

115)

NCERT Pg : 128 (new)

116)

Ncert Page 122.

117)

Ncert Page 124.

118) Metaphase – Chromosomes arranged at equatorial plate

Interphase – The period between two cell division - M-phase
Telophase – Nuclear envelops assembles around the chromosomes clusters
Prophase – Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material

119) Crossing over is also an enzyme-mediated process and the enzyme involved is called
recombinase
 120)

NCERT Page No. 168

121)

NCERT Page No. 126

124)

NCERT Page No. 123

125)

NCERT Page No. 121

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 165

127)

Statement-II : Chromatids move to opposite poles during metaphase is a incorrect statement.

128)

(1) DNA synthesis occurs only during one specific stage in the cell cycle.
(3) Four daughter cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II.
(4) It involves a two cycle of nuclear and cell division.

129)

Factual
In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate
condition arises leading to the formation of syncytium (e.g., liquid endosperm in coconut).

130)

Nuclear envelope and nucleolus reappear - Telophase

131)

The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the
tendency of the recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from each other
except at the sites of crossovers.

132)

No. of chromosomes in meristematic cell (2n) = 24

Same cell in G2 will have same no of chromosomes as S-phase will increase the amount of DNA not
the no of chromosomes
Same cell after M-phase will have same no of chromosomes as cell which is undergoing division is
somatic cell.

133)
Cellulose is part of cell wall

134)

(4) G2 phase – Nuclear growth (Nuclear growth occur during S phase).

135)

Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under the microscope, do not show golgi complexes,
endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope.

136)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 95

137)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 96

138)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 96

139)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 94

140)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

142)

NCERT - Pg. # 122

143)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 167

144)

NCERT Page. No. 165, 166

146)

NCERT Page. No. 168,169

147)

NCERT Page. No. 165

148)

NCERT Page. No. 163

 149)

NCERT Page. No. 163

150)

NCERT Page. No. 168

BIOLOGY-II

151)

Interkinesis is a short phase between two meiosis where cell prepare for 2 nd meiosis but no
duplication of DNA occur.

152)

Cell plate has deposition of Ca2+ and Mg2+ pectate

153)

As movement of chromosomes gets over and reappearance of nuclear membrane happens at

telophase.

154)

By metaphase stage, condensation of chromosomes is completed and they can be observed clearly
under the microscope. Morphology of chromosomes is most easily studied.

155)

Pollen grain : DNA content C = 10 pg

Chromosome n = 10
Pollen Mother cell : DNA content 2C = 20 pg
Chromosome 2n = 20

156)

NCERT Pg. # 103

157)

NCERT XI Page # 122

Number of chromosomes do not change in interphase, so, number of chromosomes in G1, S and G2
phase will be 16 chromosome each.

158)

NCERT XI Pg.# 133, para 1

159)

NCERT XI Pg. # 126

 160)

NCERT XI Pg. # 131

161) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 134

162) In fluid mosaic model, proteins are embedded in phospholipid bilayer.

163) NCERT Pg. # 135

168) NCERT Pg. # 146

173)

NCERT Pg # 146

175)

NCERT XI Page No. # 148

178) NCERT XI, Pg # 143

179)

NCERT Pg# 142 Para-2, Line-5

180) NCERT Pg. # 143

182) NCERT Pg. # 143

184)

NCERT XI Page # 143, Table 9.1

185)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 147

186)

NCERT Page. No. 165-166

187)

NCERT Page. No. 168

188)

NCERT Page. No. 169

 189)

NCERT Pg#132

191)

NCERT Pg#134

192)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 143

197) NCERT Pg. # 143