A 30-year-old female is having 15 sq cm debridement performed on an infected ulcer with

eschar on the right foot. Using sharp dissection, the ulcer was debrided all the way to down to
the bone of the foot. The bone had to be minimally trimmed because of a sharp point at the
end of the metatarsal. After debriding the area, there was minimal bleeding because of very
poor circulation of the foot. It seems that the toes next to the ulcer may have some
involvement and cultures were taken. The area was dressed with sterile saline and dressings
and then wrappe What CPT® code should be reported?

 11043

 11012

 11044

 11042
A 64-year-old female who has multiple sclerosis fell from her walker and landed on a glass
table. She lacerated her forehead, cheek and chin and the total length of these lacerations was
6 cm. Her right arm and left leg had deep cuts measuring 5 cm on each extremity. Her right
hand and right foot had a total of 3 cm lacerations. The ED physician repaired the lacerations
as follows: The forehead, cheek, and chin had debridement and cleaning of glass debris with
the lacerations being closed with one layer closure, 6-0 Prolene sutures. The arm and leg
were repaired by layered closure, 6-0 Vicryl subcutaneous sutures and Prolene sutures on the
skin. The hand and foot were closed with adhesive strips. Select the appropriate procedure
codes for this visit.

 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 12002-59, 11042-51

 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59, 12002-59

 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 11042-51

 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59

An infant with genu valgum is brought to the operating room to have a bilateral medial distal
femur hemiepiphysiodesis done. On each knee, the C-arm was used to localize the growth
plate. With the growth plate localized, an incision was made medially on both sides. This was
taken down to the fascia, which was opene The periosteum was not opene The
Orthofix® figure-of-eight plate was placed and checked with X-ray. We then irrigated and
closed the medial fascia with 0 Vicryl suture. The skin was closed with 2-0 Vicryl and 3-0
Monocryl®. What procedure code is reported?

 27470-50

 27475-50

 27477-50

 27485-50
The patient is a 67-year-old gentleman with metastatic colon cancer recently operated on for
a brain metastasis, now for placement of an Infuse-A-Port for continued chemotherapy. The
left subclavian vein was located with a needle and a guide wire place This was confirmed to
be in the proper position fluoroscopically. A transverse incision was made just inferior to this
and a subcutaneous pocket created just inferior to this. After tunneling, the introducer was
placed over the guide wire and the power port line was placed with the introducer and the
introducer was peeled away. The tip was placed in the appropriate position under
fluoroscopic guidance and the catheter trimmed to the appropriate length and secured to the
power port device. The locking mechanism was fully engage The port was placed in the
subcutaneous pocket and everything sat very nicely fluoroscopically. It was secured to the
underlying soft tissue with 2-0 silk stitch. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported for this
procedure?

 36556, 77001-26

 36558

 36561, 77001-26

 36571
A CT scan identified moderate-sized right pleural effusion in a 50 year-old male. This was
estimated to be 800 cc in size and had an appearance of fluid on the CT Scan. A needle is
used to puncture through the chest tissues and enter the pleural cavity to insert a guidewire
under ultrasound guidance. A pigtail catheter is then inserted at the length of the guidewire
and secured by stitches. The catheter will remain in the chest and is connected to drainage
system to drain the accumulated fluid. The CPT® code is:

 32557

 32555

 32556

 32550
A 70-year-old female who has a history of symptomatic ventral hernia was advised to
undergo laparoscopic evaluation and repair. An incision was made in the epigastrium and
dissection was carried down through the subcutaneous tissue. Two 5-mm trocars were placed,
one in the left upper quadrant and one in the left lower quadrant and the laparoscope was
inserted Dissection was carried down to the area of the hernia where a small defect was
clearly visualize There was some omentum, which was adhered to the hernia and this was
delivered back into the peritoneal cavity. The mesh was tacked on to cover the defect. What
procedure code(s) is (are) reported?

 49613

 49591

 49553

 49592
The patient is a 50-year-old gentleman who presented to the emergency room with signs and
symptoms of acute appendicitis with possible rupture. He has been brought to the operating
room. An infraumbilical incision was made which a 5-mm VersaStep™ trocar was inserte A
5-mm 0- degree laparoscope was introduce A second 5-mm trocar was placed suprapubically
and a 12-mm trocar in the left lower quadrant. A window was made in the mesoappendix
using blunt dissection with no rupture note The base of the appendix was then divided and
placed into an Endo-catch bag and the 12-mm defect was brought out. Select the appropriate
code for this procedure:

 44970

 44950

 44960

 44979
A 46-year-old female had a previous biopsy that indicated positive malignant margins
anteriorly on the right side of her neck. A 0.5 cm margin was drawn out and a 15 blade
scalpel was used for full excision of an 8 cm lesion. Layered closure was performed after the
removal. The specimen was sent for permanent histopathologic examination. What are the
CPT® code(s) for this procedure?

 11626

 11626, 12004-51

 11626, 12044-51

 11626, 13132-51, 13133

A 45-year-old male is going to donate his kidney to his son. Operating ports where placed in
standard position and the scope was inserte Dissection of the renal artery and vein was
performed isolating the kidney. The kidney was suspended only by the renal artery and vein
as well as the ureter. A stapler was used to divide the vein just above the aorta and three clips
across the ureter, extracting the kidney. This was placed on ice and sent to the recipient room.
The correct CPT® code is:

 50543

 50547

 50300

 50320
A 16-day-old male baby is in the OR for a repeat circumcision due to redundant foreskin that
caused circumferential scarring from the original circumcision. Anesthetic was injected and
an incision was made at base of the foreskin. Foreskin was pulled back and the excess
foreskin was taken off and the two raw skin surfaces were sutured together to create a
circumferential anastomosis. Select the appropriate code for this surgery:

 54150

 54160

 54163

 54164
A 5-year-old female has a history of post void dribbling. She was found to have extensive
labial adhesions, which have been unresponsive to topical medical management. She is
brought to the operating suite in a supine position. Under general anesthesia the labia majora
is retracted and the granulating chronic adhesions were incised midline both anteriorly and
posteriorly. The adherent granulation tissue was excised on either side. What code should be
used for this procedure?

 58660

 58740

 57061

 56441
The patient is a 64 year-old female who is undergoing a removal of a previously implanted
Medtronic pain pump and catheter due to a possible infection. The back was incised;
dissection was carried down to the previously placed catheter. There was evidence of
infection with some fat necrosis in which cultures were taken. The intrathecal portion of the
catheter was remove Next the pump pocket was incised and the pump was dissected from the
anterior fasci A 7-mm Blake drain was placed in the pump pocket through a stab incision and
secured to the skin with interrupted Prolene. The pump pocket was copiously irrigated with
saline and closed in two layers. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes for this
procedure?

 62365, 62350-51, T85.898A, Z46.2

 62360, 62355-51, T85.738A

 62365, 62355-51, T85.738A

 36590, I97.42, T85.898A

The patient is a 73-year-old gentleman who was noted to have progressive gait instability
over the past several months. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated a ventriculomegaly.
It was recommended that the patient proceed forward with right frontal ventriculoperitoneal
shunt placement with Codman® programmable valve. What is the correct code for this
surgery?

 62220

 62223

 62190

 62192
What is the CPT® code for the decompression of the median nerve found in the space in the
wrist on the palmar side?

 64704

 64713

 64721
  64719
A 2-year-old male has a chalazion on both upper and lower lid of the right eye. He was
placed under general anesthesi With a #11 blade the chalazion was incised and a small curette
was then used to retrieve any granulomatous material on both lids. What CPT® code should
be used for this procedure?

 67801

 67805

 67800

 67808
An 80-year-old patient is returning to the gynecologist’s office for pessary cleaning. Patient
offers no complaints. The nurse removes and cleans the pessary, vagina is swabbed with
betadine, and pessary replace For F/U in 4 months. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are
reported for this service?

 99202, Z46.89

 99211, Z46.89

 99202, Z46.9

 99212, Z46.9
Patient was in the ER complaining of constipation with nausea and vomiting when taking
Zovirax for his herpes zoster and Percocet for chronic pain. His primary care physician came
to the ER and admitted him to the hospital for intravenous therapy and management of this
problem. What is the level for Number of Complexity of the Problems Address at the
Encounter?

 Minimal

 Low

 Moderate

 High
A 20-day-old infant was seen in the ER by the neonatologist admitting the baby to NICU for
cyanosis and rapid breathing. The neonatologist performed intubation, ventilation
management and a complete echocardiogram in the NICU and provided a report for the
echocardiography which did indicate congenital heart disease. Select the correct codes for the
physician service.

 99468-25, 93303-26

 99471-25, 31500, 94002, 93303-26

 99460-25, 31500, 94002, 93303-26

 99291-25, 93303-26
A 42-year-old with renal pelvis cancer receives general anesthesia for a laparoscopic radical
nephrectomy. The patient has controlled type 2 diabetes otherwise no other co-morbidities.
What is the correct CPT® and ICD-10-CM code for the anesthesia services?

 00860-P1, C64.9, E11.9

 00840-P3, C65.9, E11.9

 00862-P2, C65.9, E11.9

 00868-P2, C79.02, E11.9

A healthy 32-year-old with a closed distal radius fracture received monitored anesthesia care
for an ORIF of the distal radius. What is the code for the anesthesia service?

 01830-P1

 01860-QS-P1

 01830-QS-P1

 01860-QS-G9-P1
A 10-month-old child is taken to the operating room for removal of a laryngeal mass. What is
(are) the appropriate anesthesia code(s) to report?

 00320

 00326

 00320, 99100

 00326, 99100
A catheter is placed in the left common femoral artery which was directed into the right the
external iliac (antegrade). Dye was injected and a right lower extremity angiogram was
performed which revealed patency of the common femoral and profunda femoris. The
catheter was then manipulated into the superficial femoral artery (antegrade) in which a lower
extremity angiogram was performed which revealed occlusion from the popliteal to the
tibioperoneal artery. What are the procedure codes that describe this procedure?

 36217, 75736-26

 36247, 75716-26

 36217, 75756-26

 36247, 75710-26
56-year-old female is having a bilateral mammogram with computer aid detection conducted
as a screening because the patient has a family history of breast cancer. She does not
presently have signs or symptoms of breast disease. What radiological services are reported?

 77065 x 2

 77065, 77066
  77067

 77066
A 63-year-old patient with bilateral ureteral obstruction presents to an outpatient facility for
placement of a right and left ureteral stent along with an interpretation of a retrograde
pyelogram. What codes should be reported?

 52332, 74425

 52332-50, 74420-26

 52005, 74420

 52005-50, 74425-26
Patient is coming in for a pathological examination for ischemia in the left leg. The first
specimen is 1.5 cm of a single portion of arterial plaque taken from the left common femoral
artery. The second specimen is 8.5 x 2.7 cm across x 1.5 cm in thickness of a cutaneous
ulceration with fibropurulent material on the left leg. What surgical pathology codes should
be reported for the pathologist?

 88304-26, 88302-26

 88305-26, 88304-26

 88307-26, 88305-26

 88309-26, 88307-26
During a craniectomy the surgeon asked for a consult and sent a frozen section of a large
piece of tumor and sent it to pathology. The pathologist received a rubbery pinkish tan tissue
measuring in aggregate 3 x 0.8 x 0.8 cm. The entire specimen is submitted in one block and
also a gross and microscopic examination was performed on the tissue. The frozen section
and the pathology report are sent back to the surgeon indicating that the tumor was a
medulloblastom What CPT® code(s) will the pathologist report?

 80503

 88331-26, 88307-26

 80505

 88331-26, 88332-26, 88304-26

Per CPT® guidelines for Organ or Disease-Oriented Panels how is a basic (80047) and
comprehensive metabolic (80053) panels reported?

 80053, 80047

 80053

 80047, 82040, 82247, 82310, 84075, 84155, 84460, 84450

 80053, 82330
A 4-year-old is getting over his cold and will be getting three immunizations in the
pediatrician’s office by the nurse. The first vaccination administered is the Polio vaccine
intramuscularly. The next vaccination is the live influenza (LAIV3) administered in the nose.
The last vaccination is the Varicella (live) by subcutaneous route. What CPT® codes are
reported for the administration and vaccines?

 90713, 90658, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 2

 90713, 90660, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 1

 90713, 90660, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90474

 90713, 90658, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90473

A patient with chronic renal failure is in the hospital being evaluated by his nephrologist after
just placing a catheter into the peritoneal cavity for dialysis. The physician is evaluating the
dwell time and running fluid out of the cavity to make sure the volume of dialysate and the
concentration of electrolytes and glucose are correctly prescribed for this patient. What code
should be reported for this service?

 90935

 90937

 90947

 90945
An established patient had a comprehensive exam in which she has been diagnosed with dry
eye syndrome in both eyes. The ophthalmologist measures the cornea for placement of the
soft contact lens for treatment of this syndrome. What codes are reported by the
ophthalmologist?

 92014-25, 92071-50

 99214-25, 92072-50

 92014-25, 92325-50

 92014-25, 92310-50
A patient who is a singer has been hoarse for a few months following an upper respiratory
infection. She is in a voice laboratory to have a laryngeal function study performed by an
otolaryngologist. She starts off with the acoustic testing first. Before she moves on to the
aerodynamic testing she complains of throat pain and is rescheduled to come back to have the
other test performed. What CPT® code is reported?

 92520

 92700

 92520-52

 92614-52
What is the difference between entropion and ectropion?
  Entropion is the inward turning of the eyelid and ectropion is the outward turning of the eyeli

 Entropion is facial droop and ectropion is a facial spasm.

 Entropion is the outward turning of the hands and ectropion is the inward turning of the hands.

 Entropion inward turning of the feet and ectropion is the outward turning of the feet due to
muscle disorder.
An arteriovenous anastomosis is used to increase blood flow in hemodialysis. Which one of
the following describes a direct arteriovenous anastomosis?

 Insertion of a cannula

 A section of artery and a neighboring vein are joined

 A donor’s vein is used to connect an artery and a vein

 Radical hysterectomy not otherwise specified

Ventral, umbilical, spigelian and incisional are types of:

 Surgical approaches

 Hernias

 Organs found in the digestive system

 Cardiac catheterizations
A 52-year-old female has a mass growing on her right flank for several years. It has finally
gotten significantly larger and is beginning to bother her. She is brought to the Operating
Room for definitive excision. An incision was made directly overlying the mass. The mass
was down into the subcutaneous tissue and the surgeon encountered a well encapsulated
lipoma approximately 4 centimeters. This was excised primarily bluntly with a few
attachments divided with electrocautery. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

 21932, D17.39

 21935, D17.1

 21931, D17.1

 21925, D17.9
When a patient is having a tenotomy performed on the abductor hallucis muscle, where is this
muscle located?

 Foot

 Upper Arm

 Upper Leg

 Hand
A 44-year-old had a history of adenocarcinoma of the cervix on a conization in March 20XX
who has been followed with twice-yearly endocervical curettages and Pap smears that were
all negative for two years, per the recommendation of a GYN oncologist. Her Pap smear
results from the last visit noted atypical glandular cells. In light of this, she underwent a
colposcopy and the biopsy of the normal-appearing cervix on colposcopy was benign. The
endocervical curettage was benign endocervical glands, and the endometrial sampling was
benign endometrium. In light of the fact that she had had previous atypical glandular cells
that led to diagnosis of adenocarcinoma and the concerns that this may have recurred, she had
been recommended for a cone biopsy and fractional dilatation and curettage, which she is
undergoing today. What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

 R87.619, C53.9

 C55

 R87.619, Z85.41

 Z12.4, Z85.41
Fracturing the acetabulum involves what area?

 Skull

 Shoulder

 Pelvis

 Leg
Patient comes into see her primary care physician for a productive cough and shortness of
breath. The physician takes a chest X-ray which indicates the patient has double pneumoni
Select the ICD-10-CM code(s) for this visit.

 J18.9, R05.9, R06.2

 R05.9, R06.2, J18.9

 J18.9

 J15.9

What is the correct way to code a patient having bradycardia due to Demerol that was
correctly prescribed and properly administered?

 T40.2X1A, R00.1

 T40.2X3A, R00.1

 R00.1, T40.2X5A

 R00.1, T40.2X2A
Which statement is TRUE about reporting codes for diabetes mellitus?
  If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default type is
E11.- Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

 When a patient uses insulin, Type 1 is always reporte

 The age of the patient is a sole determining factor to report Type 1.

 When assigning codes for diabetes and its associated condition(s), the code(s) from category
E08-E13 are not reported as a primary code.
Which statement is TRUE about reporting codes for diabetes mellitus?

 If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default type is
E11.- Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

 When a patient uses insulin, Type 1 is always reporte

 The age of the patient is a sole determining factor to report Type 1.

 When assigning codes for diabetes and its associated condition(s), the code(s) from category
E08-E13 are not reported as a primary code.
Which statement is TRUE for reporting external cause codes of morbidity (V00-Y99)?

 All external cause codes do not require a seventh character.

 Only report one external cause code to fully explain each cause.

 Report code Y92.9 if the place of occurrence is not state

 External cause codes should never be sequenced as a first-listed or primary code

A 66-year-old Medicare patient, who has a history of ulcerative colitis, presents for a
colorectal cancer screening. The screening is performed via barium enem What HCPCS
Level II code is reported for this procedure?

 G0104

 G0105

 G0120

 G0121
What is PHI?

 Physician-health care interchange

 Private health insurance

 Protected health information

 Provider identified incident-to

Which statement is TRUE when reporting pregnancy codes (O00-O9A):

 These codes can be used on the maternal and baby records.

  These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters.

 Code Z33.1 should always be reported with these codes.

 The seventh character assigned to these codes only indicate a complication during the
pregnancy.
What is NOT included in CPT® surgical package?

 Typical postoperative follow-up care

 One related Evaluation and Management service on the same date of the procedure

 Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting from the initial
procedure

 Evaluating the patient in the post-anesthesia recovery area

PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Right scaphoid fracture. POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS:
Right scaphoid fracture PROCEDURE: Open reduction and internal fixation of right
scaphoid fracture. DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The patient was brought to the
operating room; anesthesia having been administere The right upper extremity was prepped
and draped in a sterile manner. The limb was elevated, exsanguinated, and a pneumatic arm
tourniquet was elevate An incision was made over the dorsal radial aspect of the right wrist.
Skin flaps were elevate Cutaneous nerve branches were identified and very gently retracte
The interval between the second and third dorsal compartment tendons was identified and
entere The respective tendons were retracte A dorsal capsulotomy incision was made, and the
fracture was visualize There did not appear to be any type of significant defect at the fracture
site. A 0.045 Kirschner wire was then used as a guidewire, extending from the proximal pole
of the scaphoid distal war The guidewire was positioned appropriately and then measure A
25-mm Acutrak® drill bit was drilled to 25 mm. A 22.5-mm screw was selected and inserted
and rigid internal fixation was accomplished in this fashion. This was visualized under the
OEC imaging device in multiple projections. The wound was irrigated and closed in layers.
Sterile dressings were then applie The patient tolerated the procedure well and left the
operating room in stable condition. What CPT® code is reported for this procedure?

 25628-RT

 25624-RT

 25645-RT

 25651-RT
The patient is a 59-year-old white male who underwent carotid endarterectomy for
symptomatic left carotid stenosis a year ago. A carotid CT angiogram showed a recurrent
90% left internal carotid artery stenosis extending into the common carotid artery. He is taken
to the operating room for re-do left carotid endarterectomy. The left neck was prepped and
the previous incision was carefully reopene Using sharp dissection, the common carotid
artery and its branches were dissected free. The patient was systematically heparinized and
after a few minutes, clamps were applied to the common carotid artery and its branches. A
longitudinal arteriotomy was carried out with findings of extensive layering of intimal
hyperplasia with no evidence of recurrent atherosclerosis. A silastic balloon-tip shunt was
inserted first proximally and then distally, with restoration of flow. Several layers of intima
were removed and the endarterectomized surfaces irrigated with heparinized saline. An oval
Dacron patch was then sewn into place with running 6-0 Prolene. Which CPT® code(s) is/are
reported?

 35301

 35301, 35390

 35302

 35311, 35390
Preoperative Diagnosis: Chronic cholecystitis Postoperative Diagnosis: Chronic cholecystitis
Procedure: Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy Procedure Description: A transverse
infraumbilical incision was made sharply dissecting to the subcutaneous tissue down to the
fascia using access under direct vision with a Vesi-Port and a scope was placed into the
abdomen. Three other ports were inserted under direct vision. The fundus of the gallbladder
was grasped through the lateral port, where multiple adhesions to the gallbladder were taken
down sharply and bluntly: The gallbladder appeared chronically inflame Dissection was
carried out to the right of this identifying a small cystic duct and artery, was clipped twice
proximally, once distally and transecte The gallbladder was then taken down from the bed
using electrocautery, delivering it into an endo-bag and removing it from the abdominal
cavity with the umbilical port. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

 47564, K81.2

 47562, K81.1

 47610, K81.2

 47600, K81.1
A 67-year-old female having urinary incontinence with intrinsic sphincter deficiency is
having a cystoscopy performed with a placement of a sling. An incision was made over the
mid urethra dissected laterally to urethropelvic ligament. Cystoscopy revealed no penetration
of the bladder. The edges of the sling were weaved around the junction of the urethra and
brought up to the suprapubic incision. A hemostat was then placed between the sling and the
urethra, ensuring no tension. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported?

 57288

 57287

 57288, 52000-51

 51992, 52000-51