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SHIFT-2

06th April 2024 & Saturday


PAPER - 1

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
| JEE(Main) 2024 | DATE : 06-04-2024 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | CHEMISTRY

PART : CHEMISTRY
61. Molality (m) of 3M aqueous solution of NaCl is:
(Given : Density of solution = 1.25 g mL–1, Molar mass in g mol–1: Na-23, Cl-35.5)
(1) 3.85 m (2) 2.79 m (3) 2.90 m (4) 1.90 m
Ans. NTA (2)
nsonate = 3 mol
Sol. Given molarity = 3M
Vsolution = 1 L, dsoln = 1.25 g/mL
3m ol
Molality = × 1000 = 2.79 m
1250 g – 3  58.5 g

62. The correct IUPAC name of [PtBr2(PMe3)2] is:


(1) bis[bromo(trimethylphosphine)]platinum(II) (2) dibromobis(trimethylp0hosphine)]platinum(II)
(3) bis(trimethylphosphine)dibromoplatinum(II) (4) dibromodi(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)
Ans. NTA (2)
63. During the detection of acidic radical present in a salt, a student gets a pale yellow precipitate soluble
with difficulty in NH4OH solution when sodium carbonate extract was first acidified with dil. HNO 3 and
then AgNO3 solution was added. This indicates presence of :
(1) CO32 (2) Cl– (3) I– (4) Br–
Ans. NTA (4)
Sol. Ag+ + I–  AgI yellow ppt
Ag+ + Cl–  Agcl white ppt
Ag+ + Br–  AgBr pale yellow ppt
64. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: PF5, and BrF5, both exhibit sp³d hybridisation.
Statement II: Both SF6, and [Co(NH3)6]3+ exhibit sp³d² hybridisation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Ans. NTA (4)
Hybridis ation
Sol. PF5
s p3 d
BrF5 sp3d2
SF6 sp3d2
[Co(NH3)6] +3 d2sp3
Both statement (1) and (2) are false
Cl
CH3
H2O
65. + NaOH Major Product "A"

Consider the above chemical reaction. Product "A" is:


CH3 CH3
(1) (2) OH
OH

CH3 OH
CH3
(3) (4)
OH

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Ans. NTA (2)


Cl 

Sol. + Cl–
NaOH + H2O

H shift

OH

KP
66. The ratio for the reaction:
KC
1
CO(g)  O2(g) ⇌ CO2( g) is:
2
1 1
(1) (2) 1 (3) (RT) 2 (4) RT
RT
Ans. NTA (1)
1  1 1
Sol. Co (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ CO2 (g) ; ng = 1 –  1   = –
2  2 2
Kp = Kc RT
–1 Kp 1
2 , =
KC RT

67. The major products formed:


OCH3

HNO3, H2SO4 Br2(excess)


'A'
Fe

A and B respectively are:


OCH3 OCH3 OCH3 OCH3
NO2 NO2 Br
and and
(1) (2)

Br NO2 NO2
OCH3 OCH3 OCH3 OCH3
NO2 Br NO2 Br NO2
and and
(3) (4)

Br NO2 NO2
Ans. NTA (4)

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OMe OMe OMe


Br Br
Sol. HNO3 Br2
H2SO4 Excess

NO2 NO2

68. Evaluate the following statements related to group 14 elements for their correctness.
(A) Covalent radius decreases down the group from C to Pb in a regular manner.
(B) Electronegativity decreases from C to Pb down the group gradually.
(C) Maximum covalance of C is 4 whereas other elements can expand their covalance due to presence
of d orbitals.
(D) Heavier elements do not form pㅠ-ㅠ bonds.
(E) Carbon can exhibit negative oxidation states.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) Only (2) (A) and (B) Only
(3) (C) and (D) Only (4) (C), (D) and (E) Only
Ans. NTA (4)
Sol. (A) Radius increases down the group
(B) E.N. does not decrease gradually from C to Pb
(C) Correct
(D) Correct
(E) Oxidation state of carbon can varies from –4 to +4.

69. Match List – I with List – II.


List-I (Tetrahedral List-II (Electronic configuration)
Complex)
(A) TiCl4 (I) e2, t 02
(B) [FeO4]2- (II) e4, t 32
(C) [FeCl4]– (III)e0, t 02
(D) [CoCl4]2– (IV) e2, t 32
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (А)-(ІІІ), (В)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (2) (А)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Ans. NTA (1)
Sol. Ti Cl4  f20

e0

Feo24 –  t0
2

e2

[FeCl4]– t3
2

e2

[CoCl4]2– t3
2

e4

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70. The number of ions from the following that are expected to behave as oxidising agent is:
Sn4+, Sn2+, Pb2+, Ti3+, Pb4+, Tl+
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
Ans. NTA (4)
Sol. Due to inert pair effect ; Tl3+ and Pb4+ can behave as oxidising agents.

71. Match List I with List - II.


List – I List - II
Reaction Type of redox reaction
(A) N2(g)+O2(g) → 2NO(g) (I) Decomposition
(B) 2Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2PbO(s) +4NO2(g) + O2(g) (II) Displacement
(C) 2Na(s) +2H2O(l)→ 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g) (III) Disproportionation
(D) 2NO2(g) +2OH(aq.) → NO2(aq) + NO3(aq) + H2O(l) (IV) Combination
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (А)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (2) (А)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (4) (А)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Ans. NTA (3)
Sol. A  IV, B  I, C  II, D  III,

72. The incorrect statements regarding enzymes are:


(A) Enzymes are biocatalysts.
(B) Enzymes are non-specific and can catalyse different kinds of reactions.
(C) Most Enzymes are globular proteins.
(D) Enzyme oxidase catalyses the hydrolysis of maltose into glucose.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
(1) (B) and (C) (2) (A), (B) and (C) (3) (B) and (D) (4) (B), (C) and (D)
Ans. NTA (3)
Sol. Enzymes are highly specific in their action and follow lock and key mechanism maltase converts
maltose to glucose.

73. Arrange the following elements in the increasing order of number of unpaired electrons in it.
(A) Sc
(B) Cr
(C) V
(D) Ti
(E) Mn
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (C) < (E) < (B) < (A) < (D) (2) (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)
(3) (A) < (D) < (C) < (E) < (B) (4) (B) < (C) < (D) < (E) < (A)
Ans. NTA (3)
Sol. Number of unpaired
Sc : [Ar] 4s2 3d1 1
Cr : [Ar] 4s1 3d5 6
V : [Ar] 4s2 3d3 3
Ti : [Ar] 4s2 3d5 5
Sc < Ti < V < Mn < Cr

74. The incorrect statement regarding the geometrical isomers of 2-butene is:
(1) cis-2-butene has less dipole moment than trans-2-butene.
(2) cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are not interconvertible at room temperature.
(3) cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are stereoisomers.
(4) trans-2-butene is more stable than cis-2-butene.
Ans. NTA (1)

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Sol. trans–2–butene has zero dipole moment.


CH3
H
C=C i = 0
H CH3

75. How can an electrochemical cell be converted into an electrolytic cell?


(1) Exchanging the electrodes at anode and cathode.
(2) Applying an external opposite potential greater than Eºcell
(3) Applying an external opposite potential lower than Eºcell
(4) Reversing the flow of ions in salt bridge.
Ans. NTA (2)
Sol. Applied external potential should be greater than Eºcell in opposite direction

76. Identify the product A in the following reaction.


CH3 (i) NaNO2 + HCl
(ii) Cu2Cl2
A
(iii) NaOH, 623 K, 300 atm
(iv) H+

NH2 NH2 Cl
OH

(1) (2) (3) (4)


Cl OH OH
Ans. NTA (2)
N2 Cl OH
NH2
Sol. NaOH
NaNO2/H CO2Cl2
T, P

77. Consider the given reaction, identify the major product P.


(i) LiAlH4 (ii) PCC (iii) HCN/OH
CH3–COOH "P"
(iv) H2O/OH, 

O O O
(1) (2) (3) (4) CH3 – CH2–CH2–OH
CH3–C–CH2CH3 CH3–CH2 –C–NH2 CH3–CH –COOH

Ans. NTA (3)


OH
H2O
Sol. CH3COOH LAH
CH3CH2
PCC CH3–C–H HCN
CH3–CH–O– HO–/ CH3–CH–OH

C CN COOH
(salt)

78. The correct statement among the following, for a "chromatography" purification method is:
(1) Organic compounds run faster than solvent in the thin layer chromatographic plate.
(2) Non-polar compounds are retained at top and polar compounds come down in column
chromatography.
(3) Rf is an integral value.
(4) Rf of a polar compound is smaller than that of a non-polar compound.
Ans. NTA (4)

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CH3 OCH3 CF3

79.

(I) (II) (III) (IV)


The correct arrangement for decreasing order of electrophilic substitution for above compounds is:
(1) (IV) > (I) > (II) > (III) (2) (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I)
(3) (II) > (IV) > (III) > (I) (4) (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV)
Ans. NTA (4)
Sol. Rate of E sub. in benzene × e– dense ring
(+M) OCH3 CH3 (+I) CF3 (–I)

80. Match List I with List - II.


List – I List - II
Alkali Metal Emission Wavelength in nm
(A) Li (I) 589.2
(B) Na (II) 455.5
(C) Rb (III) 670.8
(D) Cs (IV) 780.0
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
Ans. NTA (1)
Sol. Theory & data based

81. Among VO 2 , MnO 4 , and Cr2O72 , the spin-only magnetic moment value of the species with least
oxidising ability is BM (Nearest integer).
(Given atomic member V=23, Mn=25, Cr=24)
Ans. NTA (0)
Sol. For 3d series
Oxidising pornet V+5 < Cr+6 < Mn+7
V+5 : Ar 4s0 3d0
Number of unpaired e– = 0
 =0

82. For hydrogen atom, energy of an electron in first excited state is –3.4 eV, K.E. of the same electron of
hydrogen atom is x eV. Value of x is _____________ × 10–1 eV. (Nearest integer)
Ans. NTA (34)
Sol. T.E. = – (K.E)
–3.4 ev = – (K.E)
K.E = 3.4 ev = 34 × 10–1 ev
 x = 34

83. Total number of species from the following with central atom utilising sp2 hybrid orbitals for bonding
is____________.
NH3, SO2, SiO2, BeCl2, C2H2, C2H4, BCl3, HCHO, C6H6, BF3, C2H4Cl2
Ans. NTA (6)
Sol. Central atom utilising sp2 hybrid orbitals
SO2, C2H4, BCl3, HCHO, C6H6, BF3

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84. Consider the two different first order reaction given below
A + B → C (Reaction 1)
P → Q (Reaction 2)
The ratio of the half life of reaction 1: Reaction 2 is 5 : 2. If t1 and t2 represent the time taken to complete
rd th
2 and 4 of Reaction 1 and Reaction 2, respectively, then the value of the ratio t 1 : t2 is
3 5
____________ × 10–1 (nearest integer).
[Given : log10 (3) = 0.477 and log10(5) = 0.699]
Ans. NTA (17)
 
t 
 1
Sol.  2 I = K 2 = 5
  K1 2
t 
 
1
 2 II
1
K1t1 = n = n 3
2
1–
3
1
K2t2 = n = n 5
4
1–
5
K 1t 1 0.477
=
K 2t2 0.699
t1 0.477 5
 = × = 1.7 = 17 × 10–1
t2 0.699 2

85. Consider the following reactions


NiS + HNO3 + HCl → A + NO + S + H2O
A + NH4OH + H3C–C=N–OH
B + NH4Cl + H2O
H3C–C=N–OH
The number of protons that do not involve in hydrogen bonding in the product B is
Ans. NTA (12)
Sol. 3 Ni s + 2HNO3 + 6HCl  3NiCl2 + 2NO + 35 + 4H2O
NiCl2 + 2NH4OH + H3C–C=N–OH
NH4Cl + H2O + B
H3C–C=N–OH
H
O O
CH3
B C N N C CH3
Ni
C N N C CH3
H3C
O O
H

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86. Number of carbocation's from the following that are not stabilized by hyper conjugation is __________.
+
+ +
' (tert.–Butyl)(tert.-Butyl) ' CH3
+
+
CH2–OCH3 +
+
N–CH2

Ans. NTA (5)


RESO (4)
+
  Me

Sol. CH3 CH2–O– CH3 N CH2
Me
These are not stable by hyper conjugation.

OC2H5

HNO3, H2SO4 2Br2, Fe


87. P Q
Major Major
product product
Benzoic acid
The ratio of number of oxygen atoms to bromine atoms in the product Q is __________ × 10 –1.
Ans. NTA (15)
OC2H5 O O
Sol.  Br Br
NO2 2Br2

NO2 NO2
O atom in final pro = 3
Br atom in final pro = 2
3
× 10–1 = .15
2

88. An amine (X) is prepared by ammonolysis of benzyl chloride. On adding p-toluenesulphonyl chloride to
it the solution remains clear. Molar mass of the amine (X) formed is____________ g mol–1.
(Given molar mass in gmol–1C : 12, H:1, O : 16, N:14)
Ans. NTA (287)

Sol.

3° emine will be formed hims berg reagent will be miscible to this amine ansure (287)

89. For the reaction at 298 K, 2A + B → C. DH = 400 kJ mol–1 and S = 0.2 kJ mol–1. The reaction will
become spontaneous above ______________ K.
Ans. NTA (2000)

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Sol. For reaction become spontaneous


G < 0
S 400
 For G = 0, T = = = 2000 K
S 0 .2
 Above 2000 K, G < 0,
 reaction become spontaneous

90. When 'x' × 10–2 mL methanol (molar mass = 32 g; density = 0.792 g/cm 3) is added to 100 mL water
(density = 1 g/cm 3), the following diagram is obtained.

x = __________ (nearest integer).


[Given : Molal freezing point depression constant of water at 273.15 K is 1.86 K kg mol –1]
Ans. NTA (543)
Sol. Tf = (Tf)solvent – (Tf)solution
= 273.15 – 270.65 = 2.5 K
DTf = Kf m
n
2.5 = 1.86 ×
0 .1
n = 0.134  mole
w = 0.1344 × 32 = 4.3 g
4.3
volume = = 5.43 mL = 543 × 10–2 mL
0.792

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