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Science Assignment Book Class 9-24-25

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Lakecity Publishing

A Unit of Ignited Intellectual Private Limited

Published in India by
Lakecity Publishing
37, Rivera Township, Mata Mandir, Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, India 462003
Website: www.lakecitypublishing.com

The moral rights of the author/s have been asserted.

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system,
or transmitted in any form or by any means, without the prior written permission of the publisher. This
book is sold subject to the conditions that it shall not, by way of trade or otherwise, be lent, re-sold,
hired out or otherwise circulated without the publisher’s prior consent in any form of binding or cover
other than that in which it is published and without a similar condition including this condition being
imposed on the subsequent purchaser.

First Published in 2020

Price: ₹ 140

Designed and Printed By :

Lakecity Publishing
Science
Assignment Book
Class IX

Page 1 of 90
Index
S.no. Chapters Page no.
1. Matter In Our Surroundings 3-10
2. Is matter around us Pure? 11-18
3. Atoms and Molecules 19-24
4. Structure of the Atom 25-29
5. The Fundamental Unit of Life 30-38
6. Tissues 39-47
7. Motion 48-56
8. Force and Laws of Motion 57-62
9. Gravitation 63-69
10. Work and Energy 70-76
11. Sound 77-83
12. Improvement in Food Resources 84-90

Page 2 of 90
Chapter 1- Matter In Our Surroundings

Page 3 of 90
Points to Remember:

 Matter is anything that occupies space and has mass.

 Particles of matter have space between them and are continuously moving.
 Particles of matter attract each other.
 Melting point: The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is
called its melting point.
 Boiling point: The temperature at which a liquid starts boiling at the atmospheric pressure is known as its
boiling point. Boiling is a bulk phenomenon.
 Latent heat of fusion: The amount of heat energy required to change 1 kg of a solid into liquid at its
melting point is called the latent heat of fusion of the solid.
 Latent heat of vaporization: The amount of heat energy required to change 1 kg of a liquid to vapour at
atmospheric pressure, at its boiling point is called the latent heat of vaporization of the liquid.
 Evaporation: The phenomenon of changing of a liquid into its vapour state at any temperature below its
boiling point is called evaporation. Evaporation is a surface phenomenon.
 Diffusion – The process of mixing two different types of particles together is called diffusion.
Diffusion becomes faster on heating .
 Kinetic Energy- Energy possessed by a substance by virtue of its motion.

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Pressure of air at sea level is:
a) 1 atmosphere
b) 760 cm of Hg
c) 76 mm of Hg
d) All are correct

2. Which of the following has highest kinetic energy?

a) Particles of ice at 0 °C
b) Particles of water at 0 °C
c) Particles of water at 100 °C
d) Particles of steam at 100 °C

3. Which of the following conditions is most favourable for converting gas into liquid?
a) High pressure, low temperature
b) Low pressure, low temperature
c) Low pressure, high temperature
d) High pressure, high temperature

4. To determine the melting point of ice, a student immersed the thermometer bulb in crushed ice in a
beaker and heated the beaker on a low flame. He would observe:
a) An increase in temperature during melting of ice
b) A decrease in temperature during melting of ice
c) A decrease first and then an increase in temperature during melting of ice
d) The temperature remains constant during melting of ice

Page 4 of 90
5. During evaporation, particles of the liquid changes into vapours-
a) From the surface
b) From the bulk
c) From the bottom
d) From all over the liquid

6. A student takes some water in a beaker and heats it over a flame for determining its boiling point. He
keeps on taking its temperature reading. He observes that the temperature reading. He observes that
the temperature of the water:
a) Keeps on increasing regularly
b) Keeps on increasing irregularly
c) First increases slowly, then decreases rapidly and eventually becomes constant
d) First increases gradually and them becomes constant

7. Out of A, B, C and D the correct set up of apparatus for sublimation is:

A B

C D

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

8. Which is more effective in cooling?

a) Ice at 273K
b) Water at 273 K
c) Water at 373K
d) Ice at 373K

9. Which of the following statements explains why a gas fills the container in which it is kept?

i) The particles in a gas are larger than those in a liquid.

ii) The particles in a gas have very small attractive forces between them.
iii) The particles in a gas are constantly moving very quickly

a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (i) and (ii)
d) (ii) and (iii)

Page 5 of 90
10. The body temperature of a normal healthy person is 98.6°F. What is the temperature on the Celsius
scale?
a) 42°C
b) 28.6°C
c) 37°C
d) 48.2°C

Assertion- Reason Based Questions:

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the
correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true
(e) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

1. Assertion: Gases exert pressure on the walls of the container.

Reason : The intermolecular force of attraction is very strong in gases..
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

2. Assertion: When a solid melts, its temperature remains the same.

Reason: The heat gets used up in changing the state by overcoming the forces of attraction between the
particles.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

3. Assertion: The boiling point of water is 100 C.

Reason : The boiling point of water increases at higher altitudes.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

4. Assertion: Camphor burns with a lot of residue.

Reason : Camphor undergoes sublimation.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

5. Assertion: The rate of evaporation increases with increase in temperature.

Reason: Increase in temperature decreases the kinetic energy of the particles.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

6. Assertion: A punctured tyre becomes flat more easily in summer than in winter.
Reason: Rate of diffusion decreases with temperature.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

7. Assertion: On applying pressure, gases may convert into liquids.

Reason: On applying pressure, intermolecular spaces decreases.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

8. The rate of evaporation of water in a shallow saucer is less than that in a cup.
Reason: More the surface area more is the evaporation.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

9. Assertion: Steam is better than boiling water for heating.

Reason: Steam contains more heat in the form of latent heat of vapourization.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

Page 6 of 90
10. Assertion: lce floats on water.
Reason : Solids have higher density than liquids.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

Short Answer Question:

1. A sample of water under study was found to boil at 102°C at normal temperature and pressure. Is the
water pure? Will this water freeze at 0°C? Comment.
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
2. Why does a gas exert pressure?
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
3. Comment on the following statements:
a) Evaporation produces cooling.
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
b) Rate of evaporation of an aqueous solution decreases with increase in humidity.
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
c) Sponge though compressible is a solid.
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

4. A student heats a beaker containing ice and water. He measures the temperature of the content of the
beaker as a function of time. Which of the following (Fig. 1.1) would correctly represent the result?
Justify your choice.

5. Name the processes A, B, C, D, E.

Page 7 of 90
______________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
Long Answer Questions
1. a) Differentiate between evaporation and boiling.
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
b) List the factors affecting the rate of evaporation and how?
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
2. a) It is a hot summer day, Priyanshi and Ali are wearing cotton and nylon clothes respectively. Who do
you think would be more comfortable and why?
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

b) You want to wear your favourite shirt to a party, but the problem is that it is still wet after a wash.
What steps would you take to dry it faster?
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
3. A gas jar containing air is inverted over another jar containing NO2 gas which is brown in colour and
heavier than air. After some time brown colour is seen in the inverted gas jar too. Identify the
phenomenon associated with this observation. Define the process.
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
4. Out of the solids, liquids and gases, which one has-
a) Definite shape but no definite volume
_____________________________________________________________________________
b) Maximum spaces between constituent particles
_____________________________________________________________________________
c) Maximum rigidity
_____________________________________________________________________________
d) Maximum energy of the molecules
_____________________________________________________________________________
e) Maximum compressibility.
_____________________________________________________________________________
Page 8 of 90
5. Give reasons for the following:
a) The smell of hot sizzling food reaches us several metres away but to get the smell from cold food you
have to go close.
_________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
b) Naphthalene balls disappear without leaving any solid.
_________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
c) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid block of wood or brick, we
need a karate expert.
_________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

Case Based Question:

1. Boiling occurs when particles of a liquid absorb enough energy to overcome the forces holding them
together and begin to move apart to form a gas. A liquid is being heated and a graph is being plotted
between time and temperature in 0C. Observe the graph and answer the questions that follow.

1. What does the curve OA represent?

______________________________________________
2. What does the curve AB represent?
______________________________________________
3. Why does the temperature remain constant from A to B?
______________________________________________
4. What does BC represent?
______________________________________________

2. Matter exists commonly in three states, solid, liquid and gas. Solid formation occurs when the
attraction between individual particles is greater than the particle energy causing them to move apart.
The particles are locked in positions near each other, so that solids have defined shapes and volumes.
The particles of solids are still in motion, but they remain fixed in place and vibrate.
Liquids are formed when the particle energy is increased and the rigid solid structure breaks down.
Liquid particles can slide past one another and collide with other particles, but remain close to each
other. Thus, liquids can flow “to take the container shape and cannot be readily compressed.
Therefore, liquids have defined volumes but undefined shapes.
Gases are formed when energy exceeds attraction between molecules. Particles move quickly and
freely on all directions spreading out everywhere within the container. Gases can be compressed
easily and have undefined shapes.
a) Following model shows arrangement of particles in a substance X.

Page 9 of 90
Identify the state of matter depicted by X. Justify your answer.
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
b) A liquid substance retains its ___________________ but not its __________________________.
c) Gases are easily compressible by applying pressure. The same volume of gas can fill a small can and
can spread into a big room. What is the relationship between the property of gases and
compressibility?
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

d) Draw the arrangement of particles in liquids and gases.

Page 10 of 90
Chapter -2 Is matter around us pure?

Key Terms:
1. Matter
2. Pure Substance
3. Homogeneous Mixture
4. Heterogeneous Mixture
5. Compound
6. Solution
7. Colloid
8. Suspension
9. Separation Techniques
10. Sublimation

Page 11 of 90
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

a) Saltwater b) Air c) Soil d) Vinegar

2. What is the smallest unit of an element that retains its chemical properties?
a) Molecule b) Atom c) Compound d) Ion

3. Which of the following is a pure substance?

a) Mixture b) Solution c) Element d) Colloid

4. What is the process of conversion of a gas directly into a solid called?

a) Sublimation b) Condensation c) Deposition d) Evaporation

5. What is the chemical symbol for gold?

a) Au b) Ag c) Fe d) Cu

6. Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?

a) Sand and water b) Oil and vinegar c) Saltwater d) Granite

7. What is the boiling point of water at standard atmospheric pressure?

a) 0°C b) 100°C c) 273 K d) 373 K

8. What happens during a chemical change?

a) Change in state b) Change in color
c) Formation of new substances d) Change in shape

9. Which of the following is a property of colloids?

a) Settling down over time b) Homogeneous appearance
c) Particle size between 1 and 1000 nm d) Easily separated by filtration

10. What happens during sublimation?

a) A solid changes directly to a gas b) A liquid changes to a gas
c) A gas changes to a solid d) A solid changes to a liquid

Assertion- Reason Based Questions:

1. Assertion: Elements are made up of only one type of atom.

Reason: Atoms of different elements can combine to form compounds.
Explanation:____________________________________________________________________________

2. Assertion: Sublimation is a process in which a solid changes directly into a gas without passing through
the liquid state.
Reason: Sublimation occurs when the vapor pressure of the solid exceeds the atmospheric pressure.
Page 12 of 90
Explanation:____________________________________________________________________________

3. Assertion: A solution is a type of homogeneous mixture.

Reason: In a solution, the solute particles are evenly distributed throughout the solvent.
Explanation:____________________________________________________________________________

4. Assertion: Evaporation is a physical change.

Reason: During evaporation, the substance changes from a liquid to a gas without any change in its
chemical composition.
Explanation:____________________________________________________________________________.

5. Assertion: Condensation is the process by which a gas changes into a liquid.

Reason: Condensation occurs when the temperature of a gas decreases.
Explanation:____________________________________________________________________________

6. Assertion: Rusting of iron is a chemical change.

Reason: Rusting involves the formation of a new substance, iron oxide.
Explanation:____________________________________________________________________________

7. Assertion: A colloid is a type of homogeneous mixture.

Reason: Colloids have particles that are intermediate in size between those of a solution and a suspension.
Explaination:____________________________________________________________________________

8. Assertion: Boiling water is a physical change.

Reason: The chemical composition of water remains the same during boiling
Explanation:____________________________________________________________________________

9. Assertion: Mixtures can have variable compositions.

Reason: The components of mixtures are physically combined.
Explanation:____________________________________________________________________________

10 Assertion: Air is a homogeneous mixture.

Reason: All the constituents of air are uniformly distributed.
Explanation:____________________________________________________________________________

Very Short Answer (VSA) -

Answer the following questions in 1-2 sentences.

1. To make a saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find its
concentration at this temperature.
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

Page 13 of 90
2. Classify the substances given in Figure into elements and compounds.

Short Answer Type Questions:-

Answer the following questions in 3-4 sentences.

1. A group of students took an old shoe box and covered it with a black paper from all sides. They fixed
a source of light (a torch) at one end of the box by making a hole in it and made another hole on the
other side to view the light. They placed a milk sample contained in a beaker/tumbler in the box as
shown in the Fig. They were amazed to see that milk taken in the tumbler was illuminated. They tried
the same activity by taking a salt solution but found that light simply passed through it?

(a) Explain why the milk sample was illuminated. Name the phenomenon involved.

(b) The same results were not observed with a salt solution. Explain.

Page 14 of 90
(c) Can you suggest two more solutions which would show the same effect as shown by the milk solution?

The students were asked to prepare a 10% (Mass / Mass) sugar solution in water during an experiment.
Ramesh dissolved 10 g of sugar in 100 g of water while Sarika prepared it by dissolving 10 g of sugar in
water to make 100 g of the solution.

(a) Are the two solutions of the same concentration.

(b) Compare the mass % of the two solutions.

Case-Based Questions (CBQs) -

You are working in a laboratory that specializes in developing new materials for various applications. One
day, you encounter a perplexing mixture that exhibits properties of both solutions and suspensions. The
sample contains finely divided particles that do not settle over time but also shows the ability to pass through
a filter. As a scientist, your task is to investigate and classify this mixture. Design a systematic experimental
plan to distinguish whether the sample is a true solution, a suspension, or a colloid. Utilize appropriate
techniques such as filtration, sedimentation, and the Tyndall effect to gather evidence for your classification.
Discuss the implications of your findings on the properties and potential applications of the mixture.

1. What property of the mixture suggests the presence of colloidal particles?

2. Which technique would be most effective in confirming the presence of colloidal particles in the mixture?
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

Page 15 of 90
3. If the mixture shows a strong Tyndall effect, what conclusion can be drawn about its composition?
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

4. How does the stability of the mixture impact its classification?

Long Answer Type Questions:-

1. Pragya tested the solubility of four different substances at different temperatures and collected, the data as
given below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of
water to form a saturated solution).

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate
in 50 grams of water at 313 K?
_____________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool
at room temperature. What would she observe us the solution cools? Explain.
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

Page 16 of 90
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

2. Explain the differences between a solution and a suspension, providing examples.

Properties Solution Suspension

3. Give answers of the following questions:

1. The students were asked to prepare a 10% (Mass / Mass) sugar solution in water during an
experiment. Ramesh dissolved 10 g of sugar in 100 g of water while Sarika prepared it by dissolving
10 g of sugar in water to make 100 g of the solution.

(a) Calculate the mass % prepared by both the students.

______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Are the two solutions of the same concentration?

(c) Compare the mass % of the two solutions.

Page 17 of 90
2. Calculate the mass of sodium sulphate required to prepare its 20 % (mass per cent) solution in 100g of
water?

Page 18 of 90
Chapter 3 - Atoms and Molecules

Page 19 of 90
Multiple choice questions:
1) The formula of the sulphate of an element X is X2(SO4)3. The formula of nitride of element X will be:
a) X2N b) XN2 c) XN d) X2N3

2) The cation of an element has:

a) The same number of electrons as its neutral atom.
b) More electrons than a neutral atom.
c) Less protons than a neutral atom.
d) Less electrons than a neutral atom.

3) Molecular compounds are usually formed by the combination between:

a) A metal and a non – metal.
b) Two different non – metals.
c) Two different metals.
d) Any two gaseous elements.

4) The atomic symbol of silver is —————

a) Si b) S c) Au d) Ag
5) The law of conservation of mass was given by-
a) Dalton b) Proust c) Lavoisier d) Berzelius

6) Which of the following elements has the same molecular mass as its atomic mass?
a) Nitrogen b) Neon c) Oxygen d) Chlorine

7) Which of the following is the correct pair of atom and its atomic symbol?
a) Sulphur – Su
b) Potassium – P
c) Phosphorus -P
d) Sodium- S
8) Atomic mass of Chlorine is ————– (u)
a) 34 b) 34.5 c) 35 d) 35.5

9) A Particle P has 18 electrons, 20 neutrons and 19 protons. This particle must be:
a) A molecule
b) A binary compound
c) An anion
d) A cation

10) An element which can exhibit valencies of 2 and 3 can be:

a) Copper
b) Iron
c) Mercury
d) Sulphur

Page 20 of 90
Assertion – Reason based questions:
In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the
correct choice as:
a) Both assertion (A) and reason ( R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion (A) and reason ( R) are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason ( R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason ( R) are true.
e) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

1) Assertion (A) :Atomicity of ozone is three while that of oxygen is two.

Reason: Atomicity is the number of atoms constituting a molecule.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

2) Assertion (A) : One amu is mass of an atom equal to exactly one-twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
Reason ( R) : Carbon-12 isotope was selected as standard.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

3) Assertion (A) :On burning magnesium in oxygen, the mass of magnesium oxide formed is equal to the
total mass of magnesium and oxygen
Reason: In a chemical substance, the elements are always present in a definite proportion.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

4) Assertion: The valency of aluminium is 3 and chlorine is 1.

Reason: The chemical formula of aluminium chloride is Al3Cl.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

5) Assertion: Protons cannot be transferred from one atom to another.

Reason: Protons are present deep inside the atom in its nucleus.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

6) Assertion: Atoms always combine to form molecule and ions.

Reason: Atoms of most element are not able to exist independently.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

7) Assertion: Number of electrons present in Na + is 10.

Reason: Na loses one electron to attain octet.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

8) Assertion: All matter is made up of tiny particles called molecules.

Reason: Molecules are groups of one or more atoms chemically bonded together.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

9) Assertion: Sum of atomic masses of all atoms in a molecule is its molecular mass.
Reason: Molecular mass of nitrogen gas is 14.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

10) Assertion: The symbol of Iron is F.

Reason: The latin name of Ferrum.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________
Page 21 of 90
Very short answer type questions:

Q1) Fill in the blanks:

a) The particle which is formed by the loss or gain of electrons by an atom is called ____________.
b) A potassium ion has positive charge because it contains less _________ than __________.

Q2) State whether the following statements are true or false:

a) A Sodium ion has positive charge because it has more protons than a neutral atom. _____________
b) A chloride ion has negative charge because it has more electrons than a neutral atom._____________

Q3) Make corrections to as many symbols and formulae that you can.

a) ZnPo4 ____________________________
b) AL ___________________
c) NI ___________________
d) Ca2O ___________________
e) NaSO4 ____________________________

Short answer type questions:

Q1) Give the formulae of the compounds formed from the following sets of elements:

a) Calcium and hydroxide _____________________________________________________________.

b) Hydrogen and sulphate _____________________________________________________________.
c) Nitrogen and hydrogen _____________________________________________________________.
d) Sodium and oxygen _____________________________________________________________.
e) Carbon and Chlorine _____________________________________________________________.

Q2) Calculate the formula masses of the following compounds. (Given atomic masses: Mg=24 u, Cl= 35.5 u,
O=16 u, Ca= 40 u, C= 12u)

a) Magnesium Chloride

__________________________________________________________________________________

b) Aluminium oxide
_________________________________________________________________________________
c) Calcium carbonate
_________________________________________________________________________________

Q3) a) The atomic number of an element A is 13. What will be the number of electrons in its ion A3+?

____________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________

c) An element X of valency 2 combines with oxygen. What will be the formula of oxide formed?
_________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________

Page 22 of 90
Long answer type questions:
Q1) a) State various postulates of Dalton’s Atomic Theory.
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________

b)Which postulate of this theory explains law of conservation of mass?

____________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________

c) Which postulate of this theory explains law of constant proportion?

____________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________

Q2) a) What is meant by the ‘molar mass’ of a substance?

____________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________

b) Calculate the molar masses of the following substances. Write the results with proper units.
(i) ozone molecule (ii) Ammonium Chloride
____________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________

Q3) If 1.4 g of calcium oxide is formed by complete decomposition of calcium carbonate. Calculate the
amount of calcium carbonate taken and amount of carbon dioxide formed during the reaction.

Concept / Case based questions:

1] Complete the following crossword puzzle by using the name of the chemical elements. Use the data given
in table.

Across Down
2. The element used by Rutherford during 1. A white lustrous metal used for making
his α-scattering experiment ornaments and which tends to get tarnished
3. An element which forms rust on black in the presence of moist air
exposure to moist air 4. Both brass and bronze are alloys of the
5. A very reactive non-metal stored under element
water 6. The metal which exists in the liquid stat
7. Zinc metal when treated with dilute at room temperature
hydrochloric acid produces a gas of this 8. An element with symbol Pb
element which when tested with burning
splinter produces a pop sound.

Page 23 of 90
1.

4.
3. 6.

8.
7.

2) A liquid compound X is very important for the existence of life on this planet. The molecular mass of X
is 18 u and it can be obtained from a number of natural sources. When an electric current is passed through
100 grams of compound X, 11 grams of a gas Y and 89 grams of a gas Z are obtained. Y is produced at the
negative electrode and Z is obtained at positive electrode. Moreover the gas Z supports combustion and gas
Y burns causing explosions.

a) Name the liquid X and gases Y and Z.

_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

b) What is the ratio of the masses of Y to Z in the given liquid?

_________________________________________________________________________________

c) Which law of chemical combination is illustrated in the given example? State the law.
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

d) Name two sources of liquid X.

_________________________________________________________________________________

e) List any two uses of gas Z.

_________________________________________________________________________________

Page 24 of 90
Chapter 4 - Structure of Atom

Key-words:
 Atom: The basic building block of matter, consisting of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
 Proton: Positively charged subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom.
 Neutron: Neutral subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom.
 Electron: Negatively charged subatomic particle found outside the nucleus in electron shells.
 Nucleus: The central part of an atom, containing protons and neutrons.
 Atomic Number: The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom; determines the element.
 Mass Number: The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
 Isotope: Atoms of the same element with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons.
 Atomic Mass Unit (amu): A unit of mass used to express atomic and molecular weights.
 Electron Configuration: The distribution of electrons in the electron shells around the nucleus.

Page 25 of 90
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Choose the correct option.

1. What is the charge of an electron?

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
d) Variable

2. Who proposed the nuclear model of the atom?

a) J.J. Thomson
b) Rutherford
c) Bohr
d) Dalton

3. What is the mass number of an atom?

a) Number of electrons
b) Number of protons
c) Sum of protons and neutrons
d) Atomic number

4. The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of:

a) Protons
b) Neutrons
c) Electrons
d) Nucleons

5. Which subatomic particle is located outside the nucleus?

a) Proton
b) Neutron
c) Electron
d) Isotope

6. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy level of an atom?
a) 2
b) 6
c) 8
d) 18

7. The isotopes of an element have the same number of:

a) Electrons
b) Neutrons
c) Protons
d) Both b and c

8. Who introduced the concept of orbits in an atom?

a) Rutherford
b) Bohr
c) Thomson
d) Dalton

Page 26 of 90
9. The mass of an electron is approximately:
a) 1 amu
b) 1836 amu
c) 0 amu
d) 1/1836 amu

10. What is the charge of a proton?

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
d) Variable

Assertion – Reason based questions:

In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the
correct choice as:

a) Both assertion (A) and reason ( R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion (A) and reason ( R) are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason ( R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason ( R) are true.
e) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

1. Assertion: Electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed orbits.

Reason: This is in accordance with Bohr's atomic model.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

2. Assertion: The mass of an atom is concentrated in its nucleus.

Reason: The nucleus contains protons and neutrons with mass.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

3. Assertion: Isotopes have different chemical properties.

Reason: Isotopes have the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

4. Assertion: An atom is electrically neutral.

Reason: The number of protons is equal to the number of electrons.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

5. Assertion: The atomic number of an element is always a whole number.

Reason: The atomic number represents the number of protons in the nucleus.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

6. Assertion: Electrons have a smaller mass than protons and neutrons.

Reason: The mass of an electron is approximately 1/1836 times the mass of a proton.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

7. Assertion: The energy of an electron increases as it moves to higher energy levels.

Reason: Electrons closer to the nucleus have lower energy.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

8. Assertion: The mass number of an element may vary among its isotopes.
Reason: Isotopes have a different number of neutrons.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________
Page 27 of 90
9. Assertion: Protons and neutrons are found in the nucleus.
Reason: Electrons are found outside the nucleus in electron clouds.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

10. Assertion: The atomic mass of an element is the average mass of its isotopes.
Reason: Isotopes have different masses.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

Very Short Answer questions:

1. Explain the meaning of the term "atomic mass."
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

2. How does the number of electrons in an atom relate to its atomic number?
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

Short Answer Questions

1. Describe Rutherford's gold foil experiment and its significance in the development of the atomic
model.
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

2. Explain the concept of isotopes. Provide an example of an element with isotopes.

3. Differentiate between atomic mass and mass number.

Page 28 of 90
Case Study Question:
The Puzzling Element X
A team of scientists recently discovered a mysterious element, Element X, and they are keen on unravelling
its atomic structure. The experimental data they gathered is as follows:
1. Element X has an atomic number of 17.
2. It exhibits isotopes with mass numbers 35 and 37.
3. The electron configuration of Element X is given as 2,8,7.

Answer the following questions based on the provided information:

1. Identify Element X: Determine the identity of Element X based on its atomic number and isotopic
composition.

______________________________________________________________________________

2. Explain the electron configuration: Provide an explanation for the electron configuration of Element
X. How does it represent the distribution of electrons in different energy levels and sublevels?

______________________________________________________________________________

3. Discuss the isotopic data: Explain how the existence of isotopes with mass numbers 35 and 37
contributes to the overall properties of Element X. What significance do isotopes have in understanding
the behavior of Element X?

______________________________________________________________________________

4. Predict chemical behavior: Given the electron configuration, make predictions about the chemical
behavior of Element X. Discuss its potential reactivity and ability to form compounds.
______________________________________________________________________________

Long Answer questions

1. Explain the Bohr's model of the atom. Highlight the key features and principles proposed by Niels
Bohr. Discuss how Bohr's model addressed the limitations of the Rutherford model and contributed to
our understanding of atomic structure. Provide an example of an atom and its electron configuration
according to Bohr's model.
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

2. Describe the concept of isotopes and provide examples. Discuss how isotopes differ from each other
and their significance in understanding atomic properties. Explain how isotopes of an element
contribute to the calculation of the average atomic mass. Use specific examples to illustrate your
points.
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
Page 29 of 90
Chapter 5- The Fundamental Unit of Life

Cell

Basic structural & functional unit of living organism

Components

Cell Membrane Cell Wall Nucleus Cytoplasm Cell Organelles

 Outermost  Present only in  Has double  Fluid content  Specialised
covering of cell plants layered nuclear inside the cell membrane
 Permits entry &  Rigid, Outer membrane, bound parts of
exit of materials covering nucleoplasm, the cell
 Selectively nucleolus and
Permeable chromatin
threads

Cell

Structure of Nucleus

Prokaryotic Cell Eukaryotic Cell

 Nucleus is undefined & is called nucleoid.  Nucleus is well defined by nuclear membrane.
 Membrane – bound organelles are absent.  Cell organelles are membrane bound
 has single chromsome  has more than one chromsome

Organism

Based on cell composition

Unicellular organism Multicellular Organism

 Organism made up of only one cell  Organism made up of more than one cell
eg. Paramecium,Euglena, Chlamy domonas, Bacteria eg. Plants , Animals

Page 30 of 90
Cell

Cell Organelles

Mitochondria Endoplasmic Golgi Lysosomes Plastids Vacuoles

Reticulum apparatus

 Double  Interconnecti  Flattened sacs  Sac – like  Double  Sap filled

membraned ng tube-like  Secretory cell  Digestive/S membraned vesicles
 Site of cellular structures organelle uicidal structure bound with
respiration  Gives  Transports bags found only in single
 Power house of mechanical substances plants membrane
the cell support to the  Store water,
 Releases cell minerals &
energy in the  Forms reserve
form of ATP intracellular foods
transport  Maintains
system turgidity of
cell

Rough Smooth Chromoplast Leucoplast Chloroplast

 Coloured  Colourless  Contains
 Has ribosomes  Devoid of plastids plastids chlorophyll
 Synthesize ribosomes  Gives  Synthesise pigment
proteins  Synthesize colour to & store food  Helps in
lipids flowers & photosynthesi
fruits s

Scientist Year Work

Robert Hooke Discovered Cell
Leeuwenhoek Discovered free – living cell in pond water
Robert Brown Discovered nucleus
Schleiden& Schwann Presented cell theory
Purkinje Coined the term protoplasm for the fluid
substance of cell
Virchow Modified cell theory, -All cells arise from pre-
existing cells
Knoll & Ruska Built an electron microscope

Page 31 of 90
I Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Human cheek cells are commonly stained with
a. methylene blue
b. safranin
c. acetocarmine
d. eosin

2. Cell theory was proposed by

a. Robert Hooke
b. Beadle and Tatum
c. Schleiden and Schwann
d. Hargovind Khurana.

3. Normally, in the process of osmosis, the net flow of water molecules in or out of the cell depends upon
differences in the-
a. Concentration of water molecules inside and outside the cell
b. Concentration of enzymes on either side of the cell membrane
c. Rate of molecular motion on either side of the cell membrane
d. Rate of movement of insoluble molecules inside the cell.

4. Most cell membranes are composed principally of

a. DNA and ATP
b. protein and lipids
c. chitin and starch
d. nucleotides and amino acids.

5. The solution in which a cell when placed will gain water by osmosis is termed as
a. isotonic solution
b. hypertonic solution
c. hypotonic solution
d. both a and b.

6. Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct answer by choosing an appropriate answer-
Column I Column II
P. Cell wall 1.workbench for protein synthesis
Q. Cell membrane 2. external support and protection, made up of cellulose
R. Nucleus 3. selectively permeable
S. Ribosomes 4. location of chromatin
a. P-2,Q-4, R-1, S-3
b. P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
c. P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
d. P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

7. The rough ER is named so because it has an abundance of-

a. mitochondria
b. lysosomes
c. golgi bodies
d. ribosomes

Page 32 of 90
8. Select the false statement-
a. Golgi apparatus is involved in the formation of lysosomes.
b. Nucleus, Mitochondria and plastids have DNA, hence they are able to make their own structural
proteins.
c. mitochondria is said to be the powerhouse of cell as ATP is generated in them
d. cytoplasm is also called protoplasm.

9. Which of the following is the function of vacuole?

a. Osmoregulation
b. provide turgidity
c. storage of cell by-products
d. all of these

10. P and Q are cell organelles bound by single membrane. P is filled with hydrolytic enzymes and Q is
filled with cell sap. Identify P and Q and select the incorrect statement regarding them.
a. P is cellular housekeeper whereas Q is storage sac for liquid or solid contents.
b. P takes part in autophagy and Q takes part in osmoregulation.
c. P is exclusive to plant cell and Q is exclusive to animal cell.
d. P is digestive bag whereas Q is storage bag of cells.

11. Animal cells do not show plasmolysis because-

a. they do not exhibit osmosis
b. they do not possess cell wall
c. they are living cells
d. they have intercellular spaces

12. A student put five raisins in two beakers A and B. Beaker A contained 50ml of distilled water and
beaker B had 50 ml of saturated sugar solution. After some time the student would observe that-
a. raisins in beaker A were more swollen than those in beaker B.
b. raisins in beaker B were more swollen than those in beaker A
c. raisins in both beakers A and B were equally swollen.
d. raisins in beaker A did not swell up.

13. Find the incorrect statement-

a. Osmosis is a slow process, occurs down the concentration gradient and does not expend energy.
b. electron microscope uses electromagnets instead of glass lenses and beam ofelectrons instead of
light.
c. a semipermeable membrane does not allow both solvent and solute molecules to pass through it.
d. active transport of materials is rapid and usually occurs against the concentration gradient involving
carrier proteins and energy in the form of ATP.

14. X is a double membrane organelle that oxidises food present in the cell to release energy. X is-
a. nucleus
b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. mitochondria
d. chloroplast

15. Select the correct match:

a. cell was first discovered – 1839
b. the term protoplasm was coined – 1665
c. the nucleus was discovered – 1831
d. cell theory was proposed – 1674

Page 33 of 90
II Assertion-Reason type questions:
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. Mark the
correct choice as.
a. if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. if assertion is true but the reason is false.
d. if assertion is false and reason is true.
e. both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

1. Assertion: Plant cell does not burst on account of endosmosis when kept in hypotonic solution.
Reason: Plant cell possesses large vacuoles that remove excess water entering the cell and prevent it
from bursting.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

2. Assertion: Cell wall is a non-living part of the cell.

Reason: It offers protection, shape and transport of materials.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

3. Assertion: Plasma membrane is selectively permeable.

Reason: Plasma membrane allows some molecules to pass through more easily than others.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

4. Assertion: Larger cells are more efficient

Reason: Surface volume ratio is more in large cells.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

5. Assertion: Mitosis helps in growth and repair of tissues in living organisms.

Reason: In meiosis, daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes as mother cell.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

6. Assertion: ER acts as a circulatory system

Reason: ER functions as cytoskeleton.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

7. Assertion: A cell swells up when present in a hypotonic solution.

Reason: More water molecules enter the cell than they leave.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________
8. Assertion: The endoplasmic reticulum which lacks ribosomes is called smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Reason: SER is mainly involved in protein synthesis.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

Page 34 of 90
9. Assertion: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semiautonomous organelles.
Reason: They are formed by division of pre-existing organelles and contain DNA but lack protein
synthesizing machinery.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

10. Assertion : Plant Cell have very large vacuoles.

Reason : In plant cells, vacuoles are full of cell sap.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

III Answer the following:-

1. Name a cell organelle found only in a plant cell and enlist its type.

______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

2. Why does the skin of your finger shrink when you wash clothes for a long time?

3. If cells of onion peel and RBC are separately kept in hypotonic solution. What will happen and why?

4. Justify the following:

a. Cell membrane is described as selectively permeable membrane.

b. Chloroplast is a cell organelle that has led to photoautotrophic mode of nutrition among organisms.
______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

Page 35 of 90
c. It is said that every multicellular organism has come from a single cell.
______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
5. An eukaryotic cell possesses true nucleus bounded by nuclear membrane. Other
membrane bound organelles are also present in a eukaryotic cell. Study the
given eukaryotic cell and answer the the following questions.

i. Identify W, X, Y and Z

_________________________________________________

ii. Name the covering membrane of X.

______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

iii. Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes?

_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

iv. Which organelle takes part in storage, modification and packaging of various materials?
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

6. Prokaryotes have primitive cells. Prokaryotic cells have all three basic structures of a typical cell but
lack nuclear membrane around their genetic material. Nuclear material of a prokaryotic cell consists
of a single chromosome which is in direct contact with cytoplasm. The nuclear region in cytoplasm
is called nucleoid. In a prokaryotic cell other membrane bound organelles are absent.
i. Give two examples of Prokaryotes.
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

ii. Which cell organelle is present in prokaryotic cell?

_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

iii. Give three differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.

_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

IV Case Based Questions:

1. Carry out the following osmosis experiment:
Take four peeled potato halves and scoop each one out to make potato cups. One of these potato cups
should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato cup in a trough containing water. Now,
i. Keep cup A empty
ii. Put one teaspoon of sugar in cup B

Page 36 of 90
iii. Put one teaspoon of salt in cup C
iv. Put one teaspoon sugar in boiled potato cup D.
Keep these for two hours. Then observe the four potato cups and answer the following:
a. In which cup/s does water gather? Why?
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

b. Which cup acts as a control? Why is a control required in the above experiment?
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

c. Why water does not gather in cup D? Explain.

2. The diagram below shows an experimental set-up:

a. Which of the following combinations of liquids would cause X to rise to the highest level in
the glass tube after 3 hours?
Liquid X Liquid Y
a) Concentrated sucrose solution Dilute sucrose solution
b) Concentrated sucrose solution Water
c) Dilute sucrose solution Concentrated sucrose solution
d) Water Concentrated sucrose solution
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

b. Name and explain the process involved above.

_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

Page 37 of 90
c. What do you mean by a selectively permeable membrane?
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

3. Plant and animal cells have several differences and similarities. For example, animal cells do not have
a cell wall or chloroplasts but plant cells do. Animal cells are mostly round and irregular in shape
while plant cells have fixed, rectangular shapes. Plant and animal cells are both eukaryotic cells, so
they have several features in common, such as presence of a cell membrane, and cell organelles like
the nucleus, mitochondria and the endoplasmic reticulum.
a. Name the cell organelle and structures held by only plant cell and not by animal cell.
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

b. Name two cell organelle that have their own genetic material.
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

c. Why is mitochondria called ‘power house of cell’?

_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

d. What is the main function of lysosome?

_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

Page 38 of 90
Chapter 6- Tissues

Page 39 of 90
I Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Girth of stem increases due to-
a. Apical meristem
b. Lateral meristem
c. Intercalary meristem
d. vertical meristem

2. Which of the following is not a function of epidermis?

a. protection from adverse condition
b. gaseous exchange
c. conduction of water
d. transpiration
3. Study the given flow chart and select the incorrect statement regarding P, Q, R and S.

a. P can be the tissue which is present in root tips and shoot tips.
b. Tissue Q is primarily responsible for storage of food.
c. Tissue R is responsible for transport of food from leaves to other parts of the plant
body.
d. Tissue S is made up of four types of cells- vessels, tracheids, fibres and
parenchyma.

4. Survival of plants in terrestrial environment has been made possible by the presence of
a. Intercalary meristem
b. Conducting tissue
c. Apical meristem
d. Parenchymatous tissue

Page 40 of 90
5. Refer to the given figure and select the correct statement
regarding B, C, D.

a. B is involved in conduction of organic food.

b. D is made up of non-living cells and is involved in
transportation of water.
c. C are made up of dead cells and provide mechanical
support to B.
d. none of these

6. A long tree has several branches. The tissue that helps in the side ways conduction of
water in the branches is
a) collenchyma
b) xylem parenchyma
c) parenchyma
d) xylem vessels

7. Find out incorrect statetement-

a) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces.
b) Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at corners.
c) Apical and intercalary meristem are permanent tissues.
d) Meristematic tissues, in its early stage, lack vacuoles

8. Fats are stored in human body in

a) Cuboidal epithelium
b) Adipose tissue
c) Bones
d) Cartilage

9. Contractile proteins are found in

a) bones
b) blood
c) muscles
d) cartilage

10. While doing work and running, you move your organs like hands, legs etc. Which among the
following is correct?
a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
b) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones.
c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones.

11. Blubber present in Marine mammals such as dolphin is made up of

a) Striated muscle tissue
b) Epithelial tissue
c) Adipose tissue
d) Areolar connective tissue

12. Choose the wrong statement-

a) The nature of the matrix differs according to the function of the tissue.
b) Fats are stored below the skin and in between the internal organs.
c) Epithelial tissues have intercellular spaces between them.
d) Cells of striated muscles are multinucleate and unbranched.

Page 41 of 90
13. Intestine absorbs the digested food materials. What type of epithelial cells are responsible
for that?
a) Stratified squamous epithelium
b) Columnar epithelium
c) Glandular epithelium
d) Cuboidal epithelium

14. Nissl's granules are present in

a) Nerve cells
b) Mast cells
c) Bone cells
d) Cartilage cells

15. Which is not a tissue?

a) Xylem
b) Phloem
c) Collagen
d) Cambium

II In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of

Reason. Mark the correct choice as
a. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
c. If assertion is true but the reason is false
d. If assertion is false and reason is true
e. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

1. Assertion- Permanent tissue is composed of mature cells.

Reason- Meristematic tissue is a group of actively dividing cells.

Explanation: __________________________________________________________________

2. Assertion- Sclerenchyma fibres constitute the major mechanical tissues of the plants.
Reason- The cells are thick walled and are made up of lignin.

Explanation: __________________________________________________________________

3. Assertion- Xylem and phloem are called vascular tissues.

Reason- Vascular tissues conduct water, mineral salts and food materials to different plant
parts.
Explanation: __________________________________________________________________

4. Assertion- Bone and cartilage are rigid connective tissue

Reason- Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
Explanation: __________________________________________________________________

5. Assertion- Presence of connective tissue inside the brain is essential for conduction of nerve
impulses.
Reason- Connective tissue hold together the nerve cells of brain.
Explanation:__________________________________________________________________

Page 42 of 90
6. Assertion- Smooth muscle fibres do not appear to be striated.
Reason- There is a regular alternate arrangement of thick and thin filaments in smooth
muscle fibre.

Explanation: __________________________________________________________________

7. Assertion- The rigidity in leaf is due to sclerenchyma.

Reason- Sclerenchyma are dead tissue and provide mechanical strength.

Explanation: __________________________________________________________________

8. Assertion- Striated muscles are attached to the bones in different body parts.
Reason- These are independent of voluntary control.

Explanation: __________________________________________________________________

9. Assertion- Some columnar epithelial cells change into glandular cells.

Reason- Columnar epithelial cells are much longer than broad.

Explanation: _________________________________________________________________

10. Assertion : Vascular or conductive tissue is a distinctive feature of complex plants.

Reason : Vascular tissue has made survival of complex plants possible in terrestrial
environment.

Explanation:________________________________________________________________

III Answer the following:

1. Water hyacinth floats on water surface. Explain.

2. Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues? How are they different from each other?

3. Name the plant tissue found in the husk of a coconut and also identify the chemical which is
responsible for its stiffness?

Page 43 of 90
4. Give reasons:
a. It is difficult to pull out the husk of coconut
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

b. Meristematic cells have a prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm but they lack
vacuole.
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

c. Branches of tree move and bend freely in high wind velocity.

d. If the tip of sugarcane plant is removed from the field, even then it keeps on growing
in length.
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

5. A student of standard IX gave the functions of the following cells/tissues wrongly. Correct
these answers:
a. Muscle cells: carry messages
b. Vascular tissues in plants: transport oxygen, food, hormones and waste material.
c. Nerve cells: contract and relax to cause movement
d. Blood: conduct water, mineral and organic solutes from one part of the organism to
other parts.
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

Page 44 of 90
6. Give one reason why-
a. Muscles of heart are involuntary

_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

b. The blood is called connective tissue

_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

c. Muscles contain contractile proteins

_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

7. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of the hand were dislocated. What
could be the reason?
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
8. Animals of colder regions and fishes of cold water have thicker layer of subcutaneous fat.
Describe why?
_______________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________

9. Name the following:

i. Tissue that is commonly called packing tissue.

___________________________________________________________

ii. Tissue that serves to bind bones together.

___________________________________________________________

iii. Tissue that stores fat and insulates the body against heat loss.

___________________________________________________________

v. Tissue that serves to connect the cells of other tissues in human body.

___________________________________________________________

vi. The tissue that forms the outer protective covering all over the body.

___________________________________________________________

vii. The conducting tissues of plants.

Page 45 of 90
___________________________________________________________

10. Match the words/ statements in column A with words/ statements in column B.
Column A Column B
i. Striated muscle a. Skin
ii. Adipose tissue b. Cartilage
iii. Filling of space inside the c. Alveolar tissue
organs
iv. Surface of joints d. Subcutaneous layer
v. Stratified squamous epithelium e. Skeletal muscle
vi. Permanent tissue f. Localised thickening
vii. Collenchyma g. Sclerenchyma

11. Observe the following diagram and answer.

a. Identify the type of tissue and its location in the plant.

___________________________________________________________________________

b. What role does this particular tissue play?

___________________________________________________________________________

IV Case Based Questions:

1. Observe the diagram given below:

A B C

a. Identify figure A, B and C.

______________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________

Page 46 of 90
b. Which one of them provides both mechanical strength as well as flexibility?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

c. Which one of them is commercially exploited to obtain hemp and jute?

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

d. Which one of them can be modified to form air cavities in aquatic plants?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

e. Which one of them has heavy deposition of lignin?

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

2. Muscle tissue is a soft tissue that composes muscles in animal bodies, and gives rise to
muscles the ability to contract. This is opposed to other components or tissue in muscles
such as tendon. It is formed during embryonic development through a process known as
myogenesis. Muscle tissue consist of elongated cells also called as muscle fibres. This tissue
is responsible for movements in our body. Muscles contain special proteins called
contractile protein which contract and relax to cause movement. Muscle tissue vary with
function and location in the body. In mammals the three types are: Striated, non-striated and
cardiac:
a. Identify the muscular tissue having the following characteristics:
i. Cylindrical, branched and uninucleated.
___________________________________________________________________________

ii. Long with pointed ends and uninucleated.

___________________________________________________________________________

b. What is the specific function of cardiac muscle?

c. Differentiate between striated and non-striated muscles.

Page 47 of 90
Chapter 7–MOTION

MOTION

Measurement of rate of motion

Speed Velocity Acceleration

 Distance travelled by the  Speed of an object moving  Rate of change of velocity

object in unit time. in a definite direction. with time.
(scalar quantity) ( vector quantity) (vector quantity)
 Average Speed=  Can be uniform or  S I Unit is m/s2
Total distance covered variable. a=
Total time taken  S I Unit is m/s
 S I Unit is m/s

Acceleration

Uniform Acceleration Non Uniform Acceleration

 Veloity of an object increases or decreases  Veloity of an object increases or decreases

by equal amount in equal interval of time. by unequal amount in equal interval of
time.

Page 48 of 90
MOTION

Change in position of an object with

respect to time

Motion in straight line Motion in circular path

 The actual path covered by a body is its  When moving in a circular path with
distance. (scalar quantity) uniform speed its called uniform
 The shortest straight distance between circular motion.
initial and final position of a body is its  Direction changes continously.
displacement. (vector quantity)
Types of Motion

Uniform Motion Non Uniform Motion

Object covers equal distance in equal Object covers unequal distance

interval of time. in equal interval of time.
eg. Car travelling km in min, km eg. Car moving in a crowded street.
in another min.

Equations of Motion

Velocity Time Relation Position Time Relation Position Velocity Relation

First Equation of Motion Second Equation of Motion Third Equation of Motion

v= u+at s = ut + at2 v2 =u2+2as

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 Distance - Time Graphs
a) b)

 Body at rest.  Body moving with uniform

 Slope is zero, so speed is zero. speed.
c) d)

 For accelerated motion.  For decelerated motion.

 Slope of graph is increasing with time.  Slope of graph is decreasing
with time.

 Velocity - Time Graphs

a) b)

 Body moves with uniform velocity.  Body starts from rest and moves
 Slope indicates zero acceleration. with uniform acceleration.
c) d)

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 Body moving with uniform acceleration  Body moving with increasing
with initial velocity not zero acceleration.
 Slope increases with time.

e) f)

 When body is moving with decreasing  Body moving with uniform

acceleration. retardation initial velocity is not
 Slope decreases with time. zero.
 Graph has negative slope.

Multiple Choice Questions:

1) A quantity has a value of -6 m/ s. It may be the
(a) speed of a particle
(b) velocity of a particle
(c) position of a particle
(d) displacement of a particle

2) Which of the following is an example of non-uniform acceleration?

(a) The motion of a bicycle going down the slope of a road when the rider is not pedaling and wind
resistance is negligible.
(b) The motion of a ball rolling down an inclined plane.
(c) The motion of a freely falling body.
(d) The movement of a car in a crowded road.

3) In a long distance race, the athletes were expected to take four rounds of the track such that the line of finish
was same as the line of start. Suppose the length of the track was 200 m. Then what is the displacement of
the athletes when they touch the finish line?
(a) zero
(b) 3 m
(c) 5 m
(d) 7 m

4) Which of the following options is correct for the object having a straight line motion represented by the
following graph?

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(a) The object moves with constantly increasing velocity from O to A and then it moves with constant
velocity.
(b) Velocity of the object increases uniformly.
(c) Average velocity is zero.
(d) The graph shown is impossible.

5) An object is sliding down an inclined plane. The velocity changes at a constant rate from 10 cm/s to 15cm/s in
two seconds. What is its acceleration ?

(a) 10 cm/s2
(b) 2.9 / cm s2
(c) 2.5 cm/s2
(d) 40cm/s2

6) Which of the following speed time graphs is not possible?

7) If the motion is in straight line without change in direction then

(a) distance ≠ displacement
(b) distance ≤ displacement
(c) distance ≥ displacement
(d) distance = displacement

8) Which of the following situations is possible?

(a) An object can have acceleration, but constant velocity.
(b) The velocity of an object may be zero but acceleration is not zero.
(c) Distance and the magnitude of displacement are equal in circular motion.
(d) Average speed and the magnitude of average velocity are always equal in circular motion.

9) Suppose a boy is moving with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s on a merry-go-round ride.

Which of the following is true of the given scenario?
(a) The boy is at rest
(b) The boy is moving with no acceleration
(c) The boy is moving with accelerated motion
(d) The boy is moving with uniform velocity

10) In a free fall the velocity of a stone is increasing equally in equal intervals of time under the effect of
gravitational force of the earth. Then what can you say about the motion of this stone? Whether the stone
is having:
(a) Uniform acceleration
(b) Non-uniform acceleration
(c) Retardation
(d) Constant speed
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11) Identify the statement which is true:
Statement A: Average velocity of a body may be equal to the instantaneous velocity of the body.
Statement B: The speed-time graph of a body which is in uniform motion will be a straight-line coinciding with
X-axis.

(a) Statement A is true

(b) Statement B is true.
(c) Both statements A, B are true.
(d) Neither statement A nor statement B is true.

12) The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is:

(a) Always less than 1

(b) Always equal to 1
(c) Always more than 1
(d) Equal or less than 1

ASSERATION AND REASONING QUESTIONS:

DIRECTION: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement
of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(e) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1) Assertion : An object may acquire acceleration even ifit is moving at a constant speed.
Reason : With change in the direction of motion, an object can acquire acceleration.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

2) Assertion : Velocity versus time graph of a particle in uniform motion along a straight path is a line parallel to
the time axis.
Reason : In uniform motion the velocity of a particle increases as the square of the time elapsed.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

3) Assertion : Motion with uniform velocity is alwaysalong a straight line path.

Reason : In uniform velocity, speed is the magnitude of the velocity and is equal to the instantaneous velocity
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

4)Assertion: The distance and displacement are different physical quantities.

Reason: Distance is the length of a actual path while displacement is directeddistance between initial and final
positions.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

5) Assertion : Displacement of an object may be zero even if the distance covered by it is not zero.
Reason : Displacement is the shortest distance between the initial and final position.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

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6) Assertion : the speedometer of a car measures the instantaneous speed of the car.
Reason : Average speed is equal to the total distance covered by an object divided by the total time taken.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

7) Assertion: An object may have acceleration even if it is moving with uniform speed.
Reason : An object may be moving with uniform speed but it may be changing its direction of motion.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

8). Assertion : Motion with uniform velocity is always along a straight line path.
Reason : In uniform velocity, speed is the magnitude of the velocity and is equal to the instantaneous
velocity.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

9) Assertion : The displacement of an object can be either positive, negative or zero.

Reason : Displacement has both the magnitude and direction.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

10) Assertion : When the displacement of a body is directly proportional to the square of the time. Then the
body is moving with uniform acceleration.
Reason : The slope of velocity-time graph with time axis gives acceleration.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

Case Based Questions:

CASE 1 The Velocity-Time Graph of an object is shown in figure:-

1 )State the kind of motion that objects has, from A to B and from B to C.
-
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________

2 ) Identify the part of graph where the object has zero acceleration. Give reason for your answer.
___________________________________________________________________________________________

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3) Identify the part of graph where the object has negative acceleration. Give reason for your answer.
___________________________________________________________________________________________

CASE 2 The velocity –time graph for a car is shown below:-

Using this graph,calculate:

a) What type of motion is represented by i) OA ii) AB iii) BC

_______________________________________________________________________________

b) The acceleration of car in last 2 s.

_____________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________

c) Total distance covered during the journey.

________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________

Short Answer Questions:

1 An object has moved through a distance. Can it have zero displacements? Support your answer with an
example.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
2 An object moves on a circular path of radius r. Calculate the distance and displacement when it completes a
half revolution.
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

3 Give the name of the physical quantity, which corresponds to the velocity change rate. Give its SI unit.
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

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Long Answer Questions:

Q1 A car starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 m/s 2 for 2 minutes. Find:

(a) The speed acquired

(b) The distance travelled

Q2 A truck starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 5 m/s2. Find its velocity when it has
travelled a distance of 1 km.
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

Q3 A bus decreased its speed from 80 km/ h to 60 km/h in 5 s. Find the acceleration of the bus.

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Chapter 8- Force & Laws of Motion

I) Multiple Choice Questions:-

1) In high jump competition the athlete is made to fall on a cushioned bed to:

(a) To decrease his momentum fast

(b) Make him stop quickly.

(c) Increase the time to stop

(d) Make him sleep comfortably.

2) The incorrect option regarding action-reaction pair is

(a) they are equal and opposite

(b) they act on two different bodies

(c) they act only between bodies in contact

(d) their sum on/by a body is zero

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3) The time taken by a body of mass 16 kg to come to rest from a uniform velocity of
magnitude 10 m/s, when a force of 4N is applied continuously is

(a) 20 s (b) 30 s (c) 40 s (d) 50 s

4) A carpenter exerts a force of magnitude 1.5 N at right angles to the surface of a nail of
mass 3 gram to drive it into the wood. If wood offers a resistive force of 0.6 N and the time of
interaction of hammer and the nail 0.01 s, the depth through which the nail penetrates is

(a) 15m (b) 1.5 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 1.5 mm

5) If the mass of the body is doubled and its velocity becomes half, then the linear momentum
of the body will

a) become double b)remain the same

c) become half d)become four times

6) Newton’s third law of motion explains the two forces namely ‘action’ and ‘reaction’
coming into action when the two bodies are in contact with each other. These two forces:

a) Always act on the same body

(b) Always act on the different bodies in opposite directions
(c) Have same magnitude and direction
(d) Acts on either body at normal to each other
7) A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at
the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to:
(a) Exert large force on the ball
(b) Increases the force exerted by the ball on hands
(c) Increase the rate of change of momentum
(d) Decrease the rate of change of momentum
8) An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a constant velocity of 4 m/s on a friction less
horizontal table. The force required to keep the object moving with the same velocity is:

(a) 32 N (b) 0 N (c) 2 N (d) 8N

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9) Velocity versus time graph of a ball of mass 50 g rolling on a concrete floor is shown in
the figure below. What will be the frictional force of the floor on the ball?

(a) 0.5 N (b) 50 N (c) 5 N (d) 0.05 N

10) The seat belts are provided in the cars so that if the car stops suddenly due to an
emergency braking, the persons sitting on the front seats are not thrown forward violently and
saved from getting injured. Can you guess the law due to which a person falls in forward
direction on the sudden stopping of the car?
(a) Newton’s first law of motion (b) Newton’s second law of motion
(c) Newton’s third law of motion (d) Newton’s law of gravitation
11) Which of the following situations involves the Newton’s second law of motion?
(a) A force can stop a lighter vehicle as well as a heavier vehicle which are moving
(b) A force exerted by a lighter vehicle on collision with a heavier vehicle results in both the
(vehicles coming to a standstill
(c) A force can accelerate a lighter vehicle more easily than a heavier vehicle which is
moving
(d) A force exerted by the escaping air from a balloon in the downward direction makes the
balloon to go upwards
12) Newton’s first law of motion says that a moving body should continue to move forever,
unless some external forces act on it. But a moving cycle comes to rest after some time if we
stop pedalling it. Can you choose the correct reason for the stoppage of cycle?
i. Air resistance
ii. Gravitational pull of the earth
iii. Friction of the road
iii. Heat of the environment
Choose the correct option:
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iii)

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II Assertion and Reasoning
Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a
corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given below,
mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c)Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true
(e) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

1. Assertion : If the net external force on the body is zero, then its acceleration is zero.
Reason : Acceleration does not depend on force.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

2. Assertion : A rocket works on the principle of conservation of linear momentum.

Reason : For two bodies system when there is a change in momentum of one body, the same change occurs
in the momentum of the second body but in the opposite direction.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

3 Assertion : Force required to accelerate a mass in two perpendicular directions is never

same.
Reason : The presence of g will not influence the acceleration
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________.

4 Assertion: No force is required to move a body uniformly along a straight line.

Reason: Because F=ma and if a=0 then F=0
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

5) Assertion : Newton’s third law applies to all types of forces. e.g. gravitational, electric or magnetic forces
etc.
Reason : Newton’s third law of motion is applicable only when bodies are in motion.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

6) Assertion : When a bullet is fired from a gun, there is a forward force on the bullet and recoil of gun.
Reason : Every action has an equal and opposite reaction.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

7) Assertion : When we sit on a chair, our body exerts a force downward and that chair needs to exert an
equal force upward or the chair will collapse.
Reason : The third law says that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

8) Assertion : A table cloth cannot be pulled from a table without dislodging the dishes.
Reason : Newton’s second law of motion gives definition of inertia.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

9)Assertion : Force exerted by the ground on the man moves him forward.
Reason : It is a reactional force.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

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10). Assertion : Mass is a measure of inertia of the body in linear motion.
Reason : Greater the mass, greater is the force required to change its state of rest or motion.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

Case Based Study Question:

Isaac Newton's First Law of Motion describes the behavior of a massive body at rest or in
uniform linear motion, i.e., not accelerating or rotating. The First Law states, "A body at rest
will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion unless it is acted upon by an
external force." This simply means that things cannot start, stop or change direction all by
themselves. It requires some force acting on them from the outside to cause such a change.
While this concept seems simple and obvious to us today, in Newton's time it was truly
revolutionary. There are many excellent examples of Newton's first law involving
aerodynamics. The motion of an airplane when the pilot changes the throttle setting of the
engine is described by the first law. The motion of a ball falling down through the
atmosphere, or a model rocket being launched up into the atmosphere are both examples of
Newton's first law. The motion of a kite when the wind changes can also be described by the
first law.

1)Define Inertia. Write its SI unit.

___________________________________________________________________________

2) Name the physical quantity on which inertia depends.

___________________________________________________________________________

3) What will be the momentum of body of mass 2m and moving with velocity 2v.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

4) What is the function of mud guards provided in the vehicles?

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Q1 Calculate momentum of a toy car of mass 300 g moving with a speed of 8 km/hr.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

Q2 What is momentum? Interpret force in terms of momentum,Represent the following

graphically
a) momentum verses velocity when mass is constant.
b) momentum verses mass when velocity is constant.
___________________________________________________________________________

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a) b)

Q3 Show that kgm/s and Ns repsesent the same quantity.What is that quantity?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Q1 Why is crockery wrapped in straw or papers?

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

Q2 A force of 5N produces an acceleration of 8m/s 2 on a mass m1 and an acceleration of 24

m/s2 on mass m2.What acceleration would the same force provide if both the masses are tied
together?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

Q3 If the engine of a car provides an acceleration of 2m/s 2 to start it from rest,then assuming
the mass to be roughly 1000 kg,calculate-
a) force provided by the engine.
___________________________________________________________________________
b) momentum after 10s.
___________________________________________________________________________

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Chapter 9 Gravitation

Multiple Choice Questions:-

1 The gravitational force between two bodies does not depend on
a) their masses b) their separation
c) the product of their masses d) the medium between two bodies

2 Which of the following factors does the acceleration due to gravity on the Earth depend upon?
a) Mass of the Body b) Mass of the Earth
c) The volume of the Body d) Shape and size of the body

3 If upthrust U is equal to ¼ the weight of object in air,then weight felt in the liquid is
a) 1/4 W b) 3/4 W c) 1/2 W d) 2W
4) When an object is thrown up the force of gravity is
(a) opposite to the direction of motion
(b) in the same direction as the direction of motion
(c) constant
(d) increases as it rises up
5) Acceleration due to gravity changes more with depth than
a) weight b) height c) radius d) mass

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6) In the relation the quantity G,

(a) depends on the value of g at the place of observation

(b) is used only when the earth is one of the two masses
(c) is the greatest on the surface of the earth
(d) is of the same value irrespective of the place of observation

7) A given solid is weighed in air using a spring balance. It is then weighed separately by immersing it fully
first in a vessel containing tap water and then in a vessel containing salt solution. The reading of the
spring balance would be
(a) least in air (b) least in water
(c) least in salt solution (d) equal in all the three cases.
8 ) Four students A, B, C and D while performing an experiment on establishing the relation between the loss
of weight of small solid when fully immersed in tap water, and the weight of water displaced by it, used
four different shapes of overflow cans containing water as shown.
The arrangement that would give correct results is that of student

(a) A (b) B (c) C d) D

9) If WA, WB and WC represent the weights of the solid in the figure shown below, then

(a) WA – WB =WC (b) WA < WC < WB (c) WA < WC > WB (d) WA > WC > WB

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10) Three students A, B and C determined the volume of a solid by immersing it in water in the overflow
cans set-up as shown. The result obtained will be wrong for

(a) student A (b) student B (c) student C (d) all three student
11) A bottle full of water containing an air bubble is rotated in horizontal circle by a string tied to its neck of
the bottle .then air bubble will
a) be collected at bottom b)remain unaffected
c) be collected at the wall of the bottle d)be collected at the neck

12 )Among the statements which is/are correct? Acceleration due to gravity

I decreases from equator to poles
II decreases from poles to equator
III Is maximum at the centre of earth
a) I only b) II and III only c ) III only d) II only
13) The Earth attracts a body of mass 4 kg on its surface with a force of
a) 9.8N b) 29.6 N c) 39.2 N d) 42.2 N
14) Which of the following is true of two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the
moon?
a) They both have different accelerations. b) They have the same velocities at any instant
c) They experience forces of the same magnitude d) They change their inertia

15) The gravitational force between two objects is F. If masses of both the objects are halved without
altering the distance between them, then the gravitational force would become

a) f/4 b) f/2 c) f d) 2f

Assertion and Reasoning

Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding
statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true
(e) Both assertion and reason are false.

1. Assertion : Universal gravitational constant G is a scalar quantity.

Reason : The value of G is same through out the universe.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

2. Assertion : When distance between two bodies is doubled and also mass of each body is doubled, thenthe
gravitational force between them remains the same.

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Reason : According to Newton’s law of gravitation, product of force is directly proportional to the
product mass of bodies and inversely proportional to square of the distance between them.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

3. Assertion : A man is sitting in a boat which floats on a pond. If the man drinks some water from the pond,
the level of water in the pond will decrease.
Reason : The weight of the liquid displaced by the body is greater than the weight of the body.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

4. Assertion : Any two objects in the universe attract each other by a force called gravitation force.
Reason : The force of gravitation exerted by the earth is called gravity.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

5. Assertion : An object floats if it displaces an amount of liquid whose weight is greater than the actual
weight of the object.
Reason : During floatation an object experiences no net force in the downward direction.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

6 Assertion : Weight of a body on earth is equal to the force with which the body is attracted towards the
earth.
Reason : Weight of a body is independent of the mass of the body.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

7 Assertion : If we drop a stone and a sheet of paper from a balcony of first floor, then stone will reach the
ground first.
Reason : The resistance due to air depends on velocity only.
Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

8 Assertion : The value of acceleration due to gravity changes with the height, depth and shape of the earth.
Reason : Acceleration due to gravity is zero at the centre of the earth.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

9. Assertion : The density of a liquid depends upon the nature and temperature of the liquid.
Reason : The volume of the liquid depends upon temperature.

Explanation: _______________________________________________________________________

10 Assertion : It is the gravitational force exerted by the sun and the moon on the sea water that causes to the
formation of tides in the sea.
Reason : Gravitational force of attraction is a strong force. Explanation:

Explanation:_______________________________________________________________________

CASE BASED STUDY QUESTION

Case 1:All freely falling bodies fall with a uniform acceleration due to gravity. As a result, all the equations
of motion for the uniformly accelerated bodies moving in a straight line are applicable to the freely falling
bodies.

1 The value of g is taken as positive when a body is

(a) dropped from a certain height (b) moving in horizontal direction
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

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2 Velocity of an object at maximum height in case it has been thrown vertically upward is
(a) maximum (b) minimum
(c) zero (d) 9.8 m s–1

3 During free fall, the acceleration of the object is

(a) zero (b) non-uniform
(c) constant (d) none of these

Case 2: When an object is immersed in a liquid, it experiences an upward force. This upward force is
called buoyant force. Buoyant force is also called up thrust. It is due to this upward force exerted by water
that we are able to swim in water and ships float in water. It is the buoyant force which makes the heavy
objects seems lighter in water.

1 What is the direction of the buoyant force which acts on an object immersed in a liquid ?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

2 Why is it easier to swim in sea water rather than in swimming pool or in river water?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

3 Write the SI unit of up thrust ?

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

Very short answer questions:

1) Why G is called universal gravitational constant?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

2) The Earth attracts an apple. Does the apple also attracts the Earth? If it does so why the Earth does not
move towards the apple?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

3) How does the gravitational force changes between two objects when mass of each object is reduced to
half?
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

4) What does a small value of G indicate?

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

Page 67 of 90
Short answer questions:-
1In which liquid glycerin or kerosene the loss in the weight of a solid object when fully immersed in it will
be more?

2 An object suspended from a spring balance is gradually lowered into an overflow can. What will be the
change in the apparent loss in the observed weight as the object is immersed in water?

3 A ½ kg sheet of tin sinks in water but if the same sheet is converted into a box or boat it float, Why?

4 You buy a bag of sugar of weight W at a place in the equator. You take this bag to Antartica. Would its
weight be the same there? If not , would it increase or decrease? Give reason.

Long Answer Questions:

1)Two bodies A and B having masses 20 kg and 40 kg respectively are separated by 10m .At what distance
from body A should another body C be placed of mass 15 kg so that the net gravitational force on C is zero?

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2) On the earth, a stone is thrown from a height in a direction parallel to the earth’s surface while another
stone is simultaneously dropped from the same height. Which stone would reach the ground first and why?

Page 69 of 90
Chapter 10- Work, Energy and Power

Q1 Multiple Choice Questions :

1 In the oscillation of a simple pendulum, the sum of the P.E. and K.E. is:
(a) constant (b) Minimum
(c) Maximum (d) Infinitive

2 The energy used in one hour at the rate of 1kW is known as ————-
(a) 10kWh (b) 1kWh
(c)1W (d) 1kW/h

3 What are the various factors affecting kinetic energy?

(a) Mass (b) Momentum
(c)Velocity (d) All the above options

4 A students caries a bag weighing 5 kg from the ground floor to his class on the first floor that
is 2 m high. The work done by the boy is
(a) 1 J (b) 10 J
(c) 100 J (d) 1000 J

5 A ball is released from certain height. Which of the following statement is correct about this
example?
(a) Kinetic energy decreases each second(b) Potential energy decreases each second
(c) Total energy decreases at each second (d) All of the above

6 The stone of mass 3.5 kg is height of 165 cm. Calculate potential energy contained in that
stone.
(a) 52.6 J (b) 54.6 J
(c) 56.6 J (d) 58.6 J

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7 A body is falling from a height h. After it has fallen a height h/2, it will possess
(a) only potential energy (b) only kinetic energy
(c) half potential and half kinetic energy (d) more kinetic and less potential energy

8 The number of joules contained in 1 kWh is

(a) 3.6 × 106 J (b) 3.6 × 107 J
(c) 3.6 × 108 J (d) 3.8 × 109 J

9 Two army persons A and B each of weight of 500 N climb up a rope through a height of 10 m.
A takes 20 s while B takes 40 s to achieve this task. What is ratio of the powers of person A
and B?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 14 : 1

10 When a coil spring is compressed, the work is done on the spring. The elastic potential energy
(a) Increases (b) decreases
(c) disappears (d) remains unchanged

11 Mechanical energy of a body includes

(a) kinetic energy only (b) potential energy only
(c) kinetic energy and potential energy (d) none of these

12 If the force applied on a body displaces it in the opposite direction, then the work done on the
body by the applied force is _______
(a) is negative (b) is positive
(c) is zero (d) can be positive or zero

13 A player transfers a momentum of 12 kg m/s to a ball of mass 400 g which is at rest. Find the
work done on the ball.
(a) 180 J (b) 345 J
(c) 400 J (d) 427 J

14 A man do work of 730 J in 20 seconds. Calculate power delivered by the man.

(a) 35.5 watt (b) 36.5 watt
(c) 37.5 watt (d) 38.5 watt

15 If work is done at faster rate, then

(a) Power is more (b) No power is required to do work
(c) Power is less (d) Infinite power is required
Q 2 Assertion and Reason :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(e) Both A and R are false.

Page 71 of 90
1. Assertion :A light body and heavy body have same momentum. Then they also have same
kinetic energy.
Reason :Kinetic energy depends on mass of the body.

Explanation:_________________________________________________________________

2. Assertion :When the force retards the motion of a body, the work done is negative.
Reason :Work done depends on angle between force and displacement.

Explanation:_________________________________________________________________

3. Assertion :The work done during a round trip is not zero.

Reason :No force is required to move a body in its round trip.

Explanation:_________________________________________________________________

4. Assertion :No work is done when a woman carrying a load on her head, walks on a level road
with a uniform velocity.
Reason :No work is done if force is perpendicular to the direction of displacement.

Explanation:_________________________________________________________________

5. Assertion :Watt hour is unit of energy.

Reason :Kilowatt hour (kW h) is the unit of electric power.

Explanation:_________________________________________________________________
6
Assertion : The kinetic energy, with any reference, must be positive.
Reason : In the expression for kinetic energy, the velocity appears with power 2 and mass is a
scalar quantity.

Explanation:_________________________________________________________________

7 Assertion : A crane P lifts a car up to a certain height in 1 min. Another crane Q lifts the same
car up to the same height in 2 min. Then crane P consumes two times more fuel than crane Q.
Reason : Crane P supplies two times more power than crane Q.

Explanation:_________________________________________________________________

Assertion : A light body and heavy body have same momentum. Then they also have same
8 kinetic energy.
Reason : Kinetic energy depends on mass of the body.

Explanation:_________________________________________________________________

Page 72 of 90
Assertion : A spring has potential energy, both when it is compressed or stretched.
9 Reason : In compressing or stretching, work is done on the spring against the restoring force.

Explanation:_________________________________________________________________

Assertion : When the force retards the motion of a body, the work done is negative.
10 Reason : Work done depends on angle between force and displacement.

Explanation:_________________________________________________________________

11 Assertion : No work is done when a woman carrying a load on her head, walks on a level road
with a uniform velocity.
Reason : No work is done if force is perpendicular to the direction of displacement.

Explanation:_________________________________________________________________

Q 3 Case Based Questions :

(A) A moving object can do work. An object moving faster can do more work than an identical
object moving relatively slow. A moving bullet, blowing wind, a rotating wheel, a speeding
stone can do work. How does a bullet pierce the target? How does the wind move the blades of
a windmill? Objects in motion possess energy. We call this energy kinetic energy.
Thus, the kinetic energy possessed by an object of mass, m and moving with a uniform
velocity, v is
KE = ½ *mv2
The energy possessed by an object is thus measured in terms of its capacity of doing work.
The unit of energy is, therefore, the same as that of work, that is, joule (J).

(i) Find the kinetic energy of the body of mass M if the velocity of an object is 3V.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

(ii) On what factors does kinetic energy depends.

____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

(iii) Define kinetic energy of body. Give its SI unit.

____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

(iv) Is kinetic energy scalar or vector? Justify your answer.

____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

Page 73 of 90
(B) Suppose you are watching a friend pushing a heavy box across the floor. The box initially at
rest is now moving. Your friend is exerting a significant amount of force to move it.

1)1. Explain the concept of work in this situation. How is work related to the force your friend is
applying to the box and the distance the box travels?
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
2.

2)3. What is the unit of measurement for work, and how can you calculate the work done in this
scenario?
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
4.
3)5. Now, let's say your friend pushes the same box, but this time, the box doesn't move. Explain
why no work is done in this case.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
6.

4)7. How is energy related to the work done in both situations (when the box moves and when it
doesn't)? Describe the transformation of energy, if any.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

Q4 Very Short Answer Questions :

(a) What should be the angle between the direction of force and the direction of motion of a body
so that the work done is zero ?
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

(b) What happens to the potential energy of a body when its height is doubled ?
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

(c) A body does 1200 joules of work in 2 minutes. Calculate its power.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

Page 74 of 90
Q5 Short Answer Questions :

(a) On a level road, a scooterist applies brakes to slow down from a speed of 10 m/s to 5 m/s. If
the mass of the scooterist and the scooter be 150 kg, calculate the work done by the brakes.
(Neglect air resistance and friction)
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

(b) How much work is done by the gravitational force of earth acting on a satellite moving around
it in a circular path ? Give reason for your answer.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

(c) A ball of mass 0.5 kg slows down from a speed of 5 m/s to that of 3 m/s. Calculate the change
in kinetic energy of the ball. State your answer giving proper units.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

Q6 Long Answer Questions :

(i) In loading a truck, a man lifts boxes of 100 N each through a height of 1.5 m.

(a) How much work does he do in lifting one box ?

Page 75 of 90
(b) How much energy is transferred when one box is lifted ?
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

(c) If the man lifts 4 boxes per minute, at what power is he working ?
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

(ii) A bullet of mass 15 g has a speed of 400 m/s. What is its kinetic energy ? If the bullet strikes a
thick target and is brought to rest in 2 cm, calculate the average net force acting on the bullet.
What happens to the kinetic energy originally in the bullet ?
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________

Page 76 of 90
Chapter 11- Sound

Q1 Multiple Choice Questions :

(A) A musical instrument is producing a continuous note. This note cannot be heard by a person
having a normal hearing range. This note must then be passing through :
(a) Water (b) Wax
(c) Vacuum (d) Empty vessel

(B) The velocities of sound waves in four media P, Q, R and S are 18000 km/h, 900 km/h, 0 km/h,
and 1200 km/h respectively. Which medium could be a liquid substance ?
(a) P (b) Q
(c) R (d) S

(C) The number of compressions or rarefactions per unit time gives ———–
(a) Frequency (b) Time period
(c)Amplitude (d) Pitch

(D) If the speed of a wave is 340 m/s and its frequency is 1700 Hz, then λ for this wave in cm will be :
(a) 2 (b) 0.2
(c) 20 (d) 200

Page 77 of 90
(E) Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and pluck
the string suitably. By doing so, he is adjusting
(b)intensity of sound only
amplitude of sound only
(c) frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments
(d) loudness of sound

(F) An echo-sounder in a trawler (fishing boat) receives an echo from a shoal of fish 0.4 s after it was
sent. If the speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s, how deep is the shoal ?
(a) 150 m (b) 300 m
(c) 600 m (d) 7500 m

(G) Which of the following device does not work on the multiple reflections of sound waves ?
(a) Stethoscope (b) Hydrophone
(c) Sound board (d) Megaphone

(H) ‘Note’ is a sound :

(a) of a mixture of several frequencies (b) of mixture of only two frequencies
(c) of a single frequency (d) always unpleasant to listen to

(I) What type of waves are generated by SONAR device fixed to a fishing ship ?
(a) water waves (b) radio waves
(c) sound waves (d) infrared waves

(J) To hear a distinct echo each the time interval between the original sound and the reflected sound
must be:
(a) 0.2 s (b) 1 s
(c) 2 s (d) 0.1 s

(K) Reverberation of sound is used in

(a) Stethoscope (b) Trumpets
(c) Megaphone (d) All of these

(L) The speed of highly penetrating ultrasonic waves is :

(a) lower than those of audible sound waves (b) higher than those of audible sound waves
(c) much higher than those of audible sound wave (d) same as those of audible sound wave

(M) Which one of the following does not consist of transverse waves ?
(a) light emitted by a CFL (b) TV signals from a satellite
(c) ripples on the surface of a pond (d) musical notes of an orchestra

(N) When we change feeble sound to loud sound we increase its

(a) frequency (b) amplitude
(c) velocity (d) wavelength

(O) Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and pluck
the string suitably. By doing so, he is adjusting
Page 78 of 90
(a) intensity of sound only
(b) amplitude of sound only
(c)frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments
(d) loudness of sound

Q2 Assertion and Reason :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(e) Both A and B are false.
1. Assertion : A vibrating tuning fork sounds louder when its stem is pressed against a desktop.
Reason :When a wave reaches another denser medium, part of the wave is reflected.
Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

2. Assertion : Waves produced in a cylinder containing a liquid by moving its piston back and forth
are longitudinal waves.
Reason : In longitudinal waves, the particles of the medium oscillate parallel to the direction of
propagation of the wave.
Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

3. Assertion : Compression and rarefaction involve changes in density and pressure.

Reason : When particles are compressed, density of medium increases and when they are rarefied,
density of medium decreases.
Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

4. Assertion : The speed of sound in solids is maximum though their density is large.
Reason : The coefficient of elasticity of solid is large.

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

5. Assertion : The longitudinal waves are called pressure waves.

Reason : Propagation of longitudinal waves through a medium involves changes in pressure and
volume of air, when compression and rarefaction are formed.
Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

6 Assertion : Two persons on the surface of moon cannot talk to each other.
Reason : There is no atmosphere on moon.
Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

7 Assertion : Echo is produced when sound is incident on hard and polished surface.
Reason : Sound energy can be totally reflected by objects with soft and loose texture.
Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

8 Assertion : Sound is a form of energy which produces a sensation of hearing in our ears.
Reason : When you clap, a sound is produced.

Assertion : The matter or substance through which sound is transmitted is called a medium
9
Reason : Sound moves through a medium from the point of generation to the listener.
Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

Page 79 of 90
10 Assertion : Sound waves are characterised by the motion of particles in the medium and are
called mechanical waves.
Reason : Air is the most common medium through which sound travels.

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

11 Assertion : The sound of the human voice is produced due to vibrations in the vocal cords.
Reason : Vibration means a kind of rapid to and fro motion of an object.

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

12 Assertion : Sound is a mechanical wave and needs a material medium like air, water, steel etc. for
its propagation.
Reason : Sound cannot travel through vacuum.

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

13 Assertion : Echo is the repetition of sound due to reflection of original sound by a large and hard
obstacle.
Reason : To hear a distinct echo, the time interval between the original sound and the reflected
one must be atleast 0.1 sec.

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

Assertion : Audible sound lies in the range of 20 to 200 Hz.

14 Reason : Infrasonic sound or Infra-sound has frequency less than 20 Hz.

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

Assertion : Sounds having more intensity and frequency are louder.

15
Reason : The loudness of a sound depends on Intensity and frequency.

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

16 Assertion : Pitch of a note depends upon its wavelength.

Reason : Sound can not travel through vacuum.

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

Page 80 of 90
17 Assertion : To hear a distinct echo, the tine interval between the original sound and the reflected
one must be at least 0.1 s.
Reason : The sensation of sound persists in our brain for about 0.1 s

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

18 Assertion : The ceilings of concert halls and conference halls are made curved.
Reason : So that sound reach all parts of the hall after reflection from curved ceilings.

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

19 Assertion : With decrease in time period, frequency increases.

Reason : Time period and frequency are inversely proportional.

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

20 Assertion : Stethoscope is a medical instrument used for listening to sounds produced within the
body, mainly in the heart or lungs.
Reason : In stethoscopes the sound of the patient’s heartbeat reaches the doctor’s ears by multiple
reflection of sound.

Explanation: ___________________________________________________________________

Case-Based Study Question:

1 Imagine a scenario in which you are incharge of organizing a school event in the school
auditorium. The event will include a variety of performances, such as music, dance, and speeches.
However, you receive complaints from the students and parents that the sound quality in the
auditorium is poor. They say that the sound is often unclear and too loud, which makes it difficult
to enjoy the performances.

a) What could be the possible reasons for poor sound quality in the auditorium?
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

b) How can you use the principles of sound to improve the sound quality for the upcoming
event?
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

c) What specific measures can you take to ensure that the sound is not too loud for the
audience, while still allowing them to enjoy the performances?
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
Page 81 of 90
2 Case Based Questions :
(A) The individual particles of the medium move in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation
of the disturbance. The particles do not move from one place to another but they simply oscillate
back and forth about their position of rest. This is exactly how a sound wave propagates; hence
sound waves are longitudinal waves. There is also another type of wave, called a transverse wave.
In a transverse wave particles do not oscillate along the direction of wave propagation but
oscillate up and down about their mean position as the wave travels. Thus, a transverse wave is
the one in which the individual particles of the medium move about their mean positions in a
direction perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
(i) Why Sound waves are longitudinal waves?
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Differentiate between longitudinal wave and transverse waves.

(iii) When stone is dropped in water; what type of waves are generated?
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

Q4 Very Short Answer Questions :

(a) The speed of sound in water is 1500 meters per second. How far away from an under-sea rock
should a deep sea diver be so that he can hear his own echo ?
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

(b) The frequency of a source of sound is 10 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute ?
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

(c) Two sources A and B vibrate with the same amplitude. They produce sounds of frequencies 1
KHz and 30 KHz respectively. Which of the two waves will have larger power?
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

Page 82 of 90
Q5 Short Answer Questions :
(a) What is the difference between a mechanical and a non-mechanical wave ? Give one example of
each.
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

(b) Define the wavelength of a sound wave. How is it related to the frequency and wave speed ?
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

(c) Why does sound become faint with distance?

Q6 Long Answer Questions :

(i) A monkey drops a coconut from the top of a tree. He hears the sound of the coconut hitting the
ground 2.057 seconds after dropping it. If the monkey was 19.6 meters above the ground, what is
the speed of sound in air ?
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

(ii) The war correspondent of a TV channel watches the flashes of two tanks firing at each other at
the same time on a straight road ahead of him. He hears the sounds of the two shots 2 seconds and
3.5 seconds after seeing the flashes. Taking the speed of sound in air as 340 m/s, he quickly
calculates and reports the distance between the tanks. What distance did he report ?
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________

Page 83 of 90
Chapter 12- Improvement in Food Resources

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Using fertilizers in farming is an example of
a. No cost production
b. Low cost production
c. High cost production
d. None of these

2. Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium are examples of

a. Micro-nutrients
b. Macro-nutrients
c. Fertilizers
d. Both I and II

3. Cyperinus and Parthenium are types of

a. Diseases
b. Pesticides
c. Weeds
d. Pathogens

Page 84 of 90
4. Practice of cultivating different crops simultaneously on a same piece of land is called:
a. intercropping
b. mixed cropping
c. crop rotation
d. alternate cropping

5. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Hybridisation means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants.
(ii) Cross between two varieties is called inter specific hybridisation.
(iii) Introducing genes of desired character into a plant gives genetically modified crop.
(iv) Cross between plants of two species is called as inter-varietal hybridisation.
a. (i) & (iii)
b. (iii) & (iv)
c. (i) & (ii)
d. (ii) & (iv)

6. Insect pest attack the plants by:

a. Cutting the root stem and leaf
b. Sucking the cell sap
c. Boring the stem and fruit
d. All of these

7. Which of the following is not used in organic farming?

a. Mixed cropping
b. Biofertilizer
c. Chemical pesticides
d. Organic manure

8. To solve the food problem of the country, which among the following is necessary?

(a) Increased production and storage of food grains

(b) Easy access of people to the food grain
(c) People should have money to purchase the grains
(d) All of the above

9. Mullets, prawns, mussels are examples of

a. Marine fishes
b. Fresh-water fishes
c. Finned fishes
d. Shell fish

10. What is the other name for Apis cerana indica?

a. Indian cow
b. Indian buffalo
c. Indian bee
d. None of these

11. Pasturage is related to

a. Cattle
b. Fishery
c. Apiculture
d. Sericulture

Page 85 of 90
12. In composite fish culture, Catlas are used because they:
a. are bottom feeders
b. feed on the weeds
c. reside in the middle zone
d. are surface feeders

13. Poultry farming is undertaken to raise ________.

a. egg and Feather production
b. chicken meat and feather production
c. chicken meat and egg production
d. egg and milk Production

14. Leghorn is related to

a. Apiculture
b. Dairy farming
c. Pisciculture
d. Poultry

15. _______________ is an Indian variety of poultry?

a. Leghorn
b. Aseel
c. Sindhi
d. Brown swiss

In the following questions, a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason.

Mark the correct choice as.
a. if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
c. if assertion is true but the reason is false.
d. if assertion is false and reason is true.
e. both A and B are false.

1. Assertion: Fumigation of the grains using chemicals is done before storage in warehouses.
Reason: Fumigation gives a nice colour to the grains.

Explanation:_____________________________________________________________

2. Assertion: A pulse crop is grown in a time interval between two cereal crops
Reason: To compensate for the loss of nitrogen.
Explanation:_____________________________________________________________
3. Assertion: Some weeds produce substances toxic for the crops.
Reason: Weeds take up nutrients and reduce the growth of crops.

Explanation:_____________________________________________________________

4. Assertion: Cattle are fed with roughage and concentrates.

Reason: Roughage provides fibres while concentrates provide proteins and other nutrients.

Explanation:_____________________________________________________________

Page 86 of 90
5. Assertion: Financial status of people should be increased, especially who are involved in
agricultural practices
Reason: Financial status can provide food security.

Explanation:_____________________________________________________________

6. Assertion: Nitrogen is a micronutrient.

Reason: Micronutrients are nutrients required in small quantity.

Explanation:_____________________________________________________________

7. Assertion: Fisheries has important place in Indian economy.

Reason: Fisheries provide income and employment to millions of farmers and fishermen
particularly in coastal states.

Explanation:_____________________________________________________________

8. Assertion: Legumes increases the soil fertility.

Reason: Microbes in the root nodules of leguminous plants fix atmospheric nitrogen.

Explanation:_____________________________________________________________

9. Assertion: Crop rotation is the practice of growing two or more varieties of crops in the
same region in sequential seasons.
Reason: Cauliflower and chilli plants grown together in alternating rows are examples of
crop rotation.

Explanation:_____________________________________________________________

10. Assertion: Layers are given more of vitamin A and K.

Reason: Layers are raised for eggs.

Explanation:_____________________________________________________________

Answer the following:-

1. Prateek has two cows in his farm.One of the cows is sick; however, the other one is healthy

a. What symptoms Prateek should have noticed in the sick cow?

_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
8.
b. What can be done to ensure proper health of the cows?
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

Page 87 of 90
9.
c. What would have happened to the cow?
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

2. The modern agricultural practices, like the use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides
to increase crop production:
a. Suggest if this practice should be continued by the farmers, if not, then why?
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

b. What can be the other alternative for it?

_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

3. Give one word for the following:

a. Farming without the use of chemicals as fertilizers, herbicides and pesticides.
____________________________________________________________

b. Growing of wheat and groundnut on the same field.

____________________________________________________________

c. Planting soyabean and maize in alternate rows in the same field.

____________________________________________________________

d. Growing different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned succession.

____________________________________________________________

e. Xanthium and Parthenium are commonly known as.

____________________________________________________________

f. Causal organism of any disease is called as.

____________________________________________________________

4. In a village of West Bengal, 4-5 varieties of fish are cultured in a single pond.
a. What is the benefit of this practice? Name the fish culture.
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

b. What is the problem in the farming of fish?

_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

c. How do different fish utilise the food available in ponds?

_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

Page 88 of 90
5. Give reasons:
a. Beekeeping is usually done in orchard, floral or agricultural fields.
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

b. Excessive use of fertiliser is detrimental for the environment.

c. Preventive measures should be taken to prevent diseases in poultry birds.

d. There is a need for sustainable practices in agriculture.

e. Egg layers should be small in size.

6.  Explain the concept of sustainable agriculture and its significance in the modern world.
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

7.  How does the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides impact the environment and human
health?
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

8. Name any three factors for which crop variety improvement is done and explain each of
them.
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

Page 89 of 90
Case Based Questions:
1. Bee keeping is an important enterprise of agriculture. It is concerned with the commercial
production of honey and wax. The practice of bee keeping is called apiculture. In India,
both local varieties as well as exotic varieties are used for commercial production of
honey.
a. What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

b. State four desirable characteristics of bee varieties suitable for honey production.
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

c. Why do farmers use bee-keeping as an additional income generating activity?

2. Following figure shows the two crop fields (Plots A and B) have been treated by manures
and chemical fertilisers respectively. Keeping other environmental factors same. Observe
the graph and answer the following questions:

a. Why does plot B show sudden increase and then gradual decrease in yield?
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

b. Why is the highest peak in plot A graph slightly delayed?

c. What is the reason for the different pattern of the two graphs?
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________

Page 90 of 90

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