Please check that this question paper contains 9 questions and 2 printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 02]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech.
Semester: 4th 20-01-2022(M)
Name of Subject: Mathematics-III
Subject Code: BSME-101
Paper ID: 16197
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine.
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately.

4) Scientific calculator is allowed.

1
Q1. Expand f ( z )  in the region (a) 1  z  3 (b) z  3 .
z  4z  3
2

z2 5
Q2. Evaluate  dz , where C is z  , using Cauchy residue theorem.
C
( z  1) ( z  2)
2
2

Q3. A bag contains 12 items out of which 3 are defective. A sample of 3 items is selected
at random from bag without replacement. Compute the mean and variance for the
number of defective items.

Q4. Fit a Poisson distribution for the following data and compare the theoretical
frequencies with the actual ones:
x 0 1 2 3 4
f 211 90 19 5 0
Q5. Intelligence tests on two groups of boys and girls gave the following results.

Mean S.D Size

Girls 70 10 70
Boys 75 11 100

(i) Is the difference between means significant?

(ii) Is the difference between standard deviation significant?

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
Q6. The following data is collected on two characters:
Economic condition Intelligence
Good Bad
Rich 85 75
Poor 165 175
Based on this information can you say that there is any association between Economic
condition and Intelligence. (Tabulated value = 3.841)

Q7. Solve the partial differential equation : ( D 2  4 DD  3D 2 ) z  sin( 2 x  y )  e x  y .

Q8. The vibrations of an elastic string is governed by the partial differential equation
 2u  2u
 . The length of string is  and ends are fixed. The initial velocity is zero
t 2 x 2
and the initial deflection is u ( x,0)  2(sin x  sin 3 x) . Find the deflection u ( x, t ) at any
time t .

Q9. Find an analytic function f ( z )  u  iv in terms of z , if

x
(I) u  v  2 , when f (1)  1
x  y2
(II) u  e 2 x ( x cos 2 y  y sin 2 y )

************

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains 09 questions and 02 printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 02]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech (Civil Engineering)
Semester: 7th / 8th
Name of Subject: Traffic Engineering 28-06-21(M)
Subject Code: DECE – 14810
Paper ID: 15697
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

Q1. Derive the expressions for basic traffic flow diagrams and explain the conditions on
road with it.
Q2. Two vehicles A and B approaching at right angles, A from West and B from South
direction, collide with each other. After collision, vehicle A skids in a direction of
45° North of West and vehicle B in East of North. Before collision, vehicle A and B
skid 33 m and 24 m respectively, on applying brakes. After collision, their skid
distances are 18 m and 36 m respectively. The weight of vehicles A and B are 4.5
tonnes and 6.0 tonnes respectively. Calculate the original speeds of vehicles, assuming
the skid resistance of the pavement as 0.54.
Q3. Spot speed studies were carried out on a highway and the data collected are given
below:
Speed range No. of Vehicles Speed range No. of vehicles
(kmph) observed (kmph) observed
0 to 10 16 51 to 60 178
11 to 20 22 61 to 70 112
21 to 30 58 71 to 80 38
31 to 40 84 81 to 90 25
41 to 50 196 91 to 100 7
Plot the frequency distribution curve and the cumulative speed distribution curve on
the graph paper. Determine (a) Modal Speed, (b) Upper and lower limits for regulating
mixed traffic, and (c) Design speed for geometric elements
Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
Q4.
a) Discuss about off-street parking facility.
b) A large company proposes to construct a multi-storied building to house its
employees. Calculate the total parking space required for the building as per the
following particulars:
Area of the site = 6000m2, Coverage area = 2000 m2, Floor area ratio = 2.5, Space
required per employee = 10 m2
The mode split of transport of the employees: Cars = 15%, Two-wheelers = 10%,
Bicycles = 35%, Public Transport = 38%, On -foot = 2%
Parking space requirements: Car = 24 m2, Two-wheeler = 3 m2, Bicycle = 1.5 m2
Q5.
a) Discuss the merits and demerits of traffic signal over an intersection.
b) Calculate the optimum cycle time and allocate the green times for the two
phases, using Webster’s minimum delay method for a fixed two-phase signal
which is to be designed for an intersection with four arms, as per following the
design hourly flow and saturation flow:
Details of
North South East West
Flow
Design Hour
800 400 750 600
Flow
Saturation
2400 2000 3000 3000
Flow
Time lost per phase due to starting delays can be taken as 2.0 seconds
Q6. Explain about the types of grade – separated intersections with neat labelled diagrams.
Q7. What do you mean by Transportation System Management? Discuss the various traffic
management measures in detail.
Q8.
a) What do you mean by RSA in traffic engineering? Discuss the importance of
same.
b) Discuss the latest applications of Intelligent Transportation System in traffic
field.
Q9. Discuss the role of human and vehicular characteristics in transportation engineering.

***********

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains 09 questions and 02 printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 02]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech (Civil Engineering)
Semester: 7th
11-01-2022(M)
Name of Subject: Traffic Engineering
Subject Code: DECE – 14810
Paper ID: 15697
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

Q1. Derive the expressions for basic traffic flow diagrams and explain the conditions on
road with it.
Q2. A vehicle of 2000 kg skids a distance of 36 m before colliding with a stationary vehicle
of 1500 kg weight. After collision both vehicles skid a distance of 14 m. Assuming
coefficient of friction 0.5, determine the initial speed of the vehicle.
Q3. The data shown below were noted in a travel time study on a 1.5 km stretch of a
highway using moving observer method. Determine the travel time, journey time and
running speed in each direction.
Number of Vehicles
Travel
Travelling in Overtaken
Direction Time Overtaking
opposite by test
(Minutes) test vehicles
direction vehicles
North 1 3.2 75 3 1
Bound 2 2.8 80 2 2
(NB) 3 3.25 85 1 1
South 1 3.30 78 4 2
Bound 2 3.25 74 2 3
(SB) 3 3.4 80 3 1

Q4.
a) Discuss about off-street parking facility.

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
 b) A large company proposes to construct a multi-storied building to house its employees.
Calculate the total parking space required for the building as per the following
particulars:
Area of the site = 6000m2, Coverage area = 2000 m2, Floor area ratio = 2.5, Space
required per employee = 10 m2
The mode split of transport of the employees: Cars = 15%, Two-wheelers = 10%,
Bicycles = 35%, Public Transport = 38%, On -foot = 2%
Parking space requirements: Car = 24 m2, Two-wheeler = 3 m2, Bicycle = 1.5 m2
Q5.
a) Discuss the merits and demerits of traffic signal over an intersection.
b) Calculate the optimum cycle time and allocate the green times for the two phases, using
Webster’s minimum delay method for a fixed two-phase signal which is to be designed
for an intersection with four arms, as per following the design hourly flow and
saturation flow:
Details of
North South East West
Flow
Design Hour
800 400 750 600
Flow
Saturation
2400 2000 3000 3000
Flow
Time lost per phase due to starting delays can be taken as 2.0 seconds
Q6. Explain about the types of grade – separated intersections with neat labelled diagrams.
Q7. What do you mean by Transportation System Management? Discuss the various traffic
management measures in detail.
Q8. Discuss about Highway capacity of urban road in detail.
Q9. Discuss the role of human and vehicular characteristics in transportation engineering.

***********

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains 09 questions and 02 printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 02]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B. Tech.
Semester: 7th / 8th
Name of Subject: Machining Science
29-07-21(M)
Subject Code: DEME-14205
Paper ID: 15835
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:
1) Each question is of 10 marks.
2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

1. (a) Discuss the Piispanen model of material removal in reference to orthogonal

cutting.
(b) Cutting tool material is much harder than the workpiece, yet the tool wears
during machining, why?
2. (a) What are the heat sources in metal cutting operations? Also discuss its effects.
(b) Explain various methods for measurement of Work- Tool interface Temperature
in metal cutting.
3. (a) Discuss various design requirements for tool- force dynamometers.
(b) Design a dynamometer for measurement of forces in 3D face milling operation.
4. In a turning operation on a mild steel tube with a 2.5 mm thickness, an end-cuttingtest
was performed using a tool with a zero lead angle (which represents anorthogonal
cutting test).The feed was 0.3 mm/rev, the rake angle of the tool was zero, and the
cutting speed was 200 m/min.Several parameters were measured during this end-
turning operation. The average chip thicknesswas measured with a point micrometer
and found to be 0.7 mm. The tool–chip contact length (onthe rake face) was estimated
to be 0.5 mm. The cutting forces were measured with a dynamometermounted under
the toolholder. The tangential cutting and axial (feed) forces were 900 and 600
N,respectively.Calculate (a) the mean angle of friction on the tool face, (b) the mean

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
 shear stress produced incutting the workpiece, (c) the mean frictional stress at the tool
face, (d) the estimated average strainand strain rate in the chip formation if the
thickness of the shear zone is assumed to be 0.02 mm, and(e) the percentage of the
total energy estimated to go into secondary deformation zone to overcomethe friction
at the tool–chip interface.
5. (a) What is the purpose of conversion of tool angles from one system to another?
(b) Determine the value of side clearance of the turning tool whose geometry is
specified as 0o, -10o, 8o, 6o, 20o, 60o, 0 (mm) ?
6. (a) While drilling holes in steel plate by a 20 mm diameter HSS drill at a given
feed,the tool life decreased from 40 min. to 24 min. when speed was raised from
250rpm to 320 rpm. At what speed (rpm) the life of that drill under the same
conditionwould be 30 min.?
(b) Discuss the need of developing cutting tool materials. Also illustrate properties
and applications of Coronite and CBN as a tool material.
7. Discuss the selection criteria of Cutting fluids in detail for metal cutting operation.
8. Illustrate the variation of cost elements with cutting speed in a single cut, single pass
machining operation.
9. Discuss major factors affecting the machining time. Also discuss methods of
calculating machining time in turning.

***********

Page 2 of 2
[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: ...2...]
Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech
Semester: 8th
23-06-21(M)
Name of Subject: Machining Science
Subject Code: DEME-14205
Paper ID: 15835
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

Q1. What is meant by ‘conventional material removal’? Comment on the evolution of machining
processes and explain why conventional machining is so named. With the help of classical concept of
material removal, describe a model of conventional metal machining. 2+4+4

Q2. Develop equations for shear plane forces and chip tool interface forces and correlate these
components with tangential and thrust forces. 10

Q3. How material gets transferred to the tool while machining ductile materials. How does the
transferred material affect the tool geometry? What are the remedial measures to prevent the transfer of
material? 3+3+4

Q4. During orthogonal machining of mild steel following data was noted:

Chip thickness= 0.8 mm Cutting force = 900 N, Thrust force= 500 N, Rake angle =0, Depth of cut=0.3,
Width of cut=2.0 Determine coefficient of friction between chip and tool interface and shear strength of
the work material 5+5

Q5. With the help of sketch, show growth of flank wear with time. Explain the effect of any three
variables on tool life 4+6

Q6. Describe the concept of machinability rating. How is machining time in turning operation computed?
4+6

Q7. On what principle does strain gauge type of Milling Dynamometer work? Explain the principle.
Draw schematic diagram to explain the placement of rings in the dynamometer. 4+6

Q8. Develop the relationship between ‘chip tool contact length’ and ‘rake angle’ by following the theory
of stagnant phenomenon. 10

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
Q9. a. How non productive cost is calculated? 5

b. Write a short note on harmful effect of cutting fluids (300 words) 5

***********

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains 09 questions and 02 printed pages within first ten minutes.
Please check that this question paper contains______ questions and ______ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: .2.....]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech
Semester: 5
Name of Subject: Operation Research
Subject Code: HSMME-101
Paper ID: 16379
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

06-01-2022(E)
2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

1. Operations research is an aid for the executive in making his decisions by providing
him with the needed quantitative information based on the scientific method of
analysis? Discuss the statement and explain how O.R. is helpful in decision making.
2. Linear Programming sometimes is defined as an infinite number of feasible solutions.
How such information is useful in decision making? Also explain the techniques of
graphing LPP, basic variables, artificial variables and objective function.
3. a) Solve the following LPP using graphical method.
Max Z = 20X1 + 30X2
Subject to 2X1 + 5X2 ≤ 50
4X1 + 3X2 ≤ 60 X1, X2 ≥0
b) Compare and contrast PERT & CPM. Under what conditions would you recommend
scheduling by PERT?
4. Why the Simplex Method is considered a general method for solving the LPP. Using
Simplex Method solve the following problem.
Min. Z = 4X1 + 6X2
Subject to X1 + 2X2 ≥ 80
3X1 + X2 ≥ 75 X1, X2 ≥0
5. Consider the following problem of assigning four jobs to four persons. The
assignment cost are given as follows:
Job A Job B Job C Job D
Person W 5 3 2 8
Person X 7 9 2 6
Person Y 6 4 5 7
Person Z 5 7 7 8
Determine the optimum Assignment schedule and minimum cost.

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
6. The following problem is calculated by VAM and applies MODI method to test its
optimality.
Project Project Project Plant
A B C Capacity
Plant W 4 8 8 56
Plant X 16 24 16 82
Plant Y 8 16 24 77
Demand 72 102 41
Total associated cost is Rs. 3624
7. Use penalty (Big M) method to solve the following:
Max Z = 6X1 + 4X2
Subject to 2X1 + 3X2 ≤ 30
3X1 + 2X2 ≤ 24
X1 + X2 ≥ 3 X1, X2 ≥0

8. A product comprised of 10 activities whose normal time and cost are given as
follows:
Activity 1-2 2-3 2-4 2-5 3-5 4-5 5-6 6-7 6-8 7-8
Normal Time (days) 2 1 6 8 4 0 5 2 10 5
Normal Cost(Rs.) 60 10 60 100 40 0 50 60 120 150
Indirect cost is Rs. 8 per day
a) Draw network and indentify critical path
b) What is the Project Duration and Associated Cost?
c) Find out the Total Float associated with each activity.

9. a) Give the role of queuing theory in decision-making and discuss its application.
b) At a service customers arrive at the rate of 20 per hour and are served at the rate of
30 per hour. Their arrival follows Poisson distribution and service in exponentially
distributed. Find the average length and average waiting time in the system.

***********

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains______ questions and ______ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 2 ]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech.
Semester: 3rd
Name of Subject: Theory of Machines-I
06-07-21(E)
Subject Code: ME-14302
Paper ID: 15240
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

Q1. Discuss the following terms:

a. Hunting in governors
b. Fluctuation of energy in flywheels
c. Kutzbach criterion
d. Creep in belts
Q2. What is an open belt drive? How can we find length of a belt used in an open belt
drive with two flat pulleys of radius r1 and r2 and x being the centre distance in the
pulleys?
Q3. What do you understand by approximate steering mechanism? Compare
Ackerman and Davis approximate steering mechanisms. Discuss the advantages
and disadvantages of both mechanisms over each other.
Q4. What is a governor? What purpose does it solve? What is the difference in
pendulum and loaded type governor and which one is better? Illustrate with the
help of an example.
Q5. A shaper is having crank and lever mechanism with centre distance of 350 mm
from centre of oscillation of slotted lever and crank rotation centre. The radius of
the crank is 100 mm. Find the ratio of time of cutting stroke to time of return
stroke.
Q6. For what purpose a dynamometer is used? What are various types of
dynamometers? Explain, with the help of a well labelled diagram, rope brake
dynamometer in detail.

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
Q7. In the shown figure, lengths of crank OB and connecting rod AB are 100 mm and
400 mm respectively. If the crank rotates clockwise with an angular velocity of 10
rad/s, find: velocity of slider and angular velocity of connecting rod AB.

Q8. A cam is to give the following motion to a knife-edged follower :

Outstroke during 60° of cam rotation ; Dwell for the next 30° of cam rotation ;
Return stroke during next 60° of cam rotation, and Dwell for the remaining 210°
of cam rotation.
The stroke of the follower is 40 mm and the minimum radius of the cam is 50
mm. The follower moves with uniform velocity during both the outstroke and
return strokes. Draw the profile of the cam when the axis of the follower passes
through the axis of the cam shaft.
Q9. A flywheel connected to a punching press, electric motor powered, is rotating at
225 rpm. The radius of the flywheel is 0.5 m. The press punches 720 holes per
hour with each hole requiring 2 seconds operation time and 15 kN-m of energy.
Find the power of motor and minimum mass of flywheel if speed is to be kept
above 200 rpm.

***********

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains 09 questions and 02 printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 02]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B. Tech.
Semester: 3
13-01-2022(M)
Name of Subject: Theory of Machines-I
Subject Code: ME-14302
Paper ID: 15240
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

Q1. Formulate an expression for Maximum fluctuation of velocity of driven shaft for a
Hooke’s joint.
Q2. Why crowing of a pulley is done? Explain the effect of slip of belts on the pulleys
on velocity ratio of a belt drives?
Q3. A cam of base circle 50 mm is to operate a roller follower of 20 mm diameter.
The follower is to have SHM. The angular speed of the cam is 360 rpm. Draw the
cam profile for cam lift of 40 mm. Angle of ascent = 60°, angle of dwell = 40°,
and angle of descent = 90°, followed by dwell again. Also calculate the maximum
velocity and acceleration during ascent and descent.
Q4. (a) What is the effect of friction on the functioning of a Porter governor?
(b) What is the condition of isochronism in case of a Hartnell governor?
Q5. Enlist the various inversions of a double slider–crank chain and also discuss their
constructional and applications with neat sketch.
Q6. A punching machine makes 20 working strokes per minute and is capable of
punching 20 mm diameter hole in 15 mm thick steel plate having ultimate shear
strength of 240 MPa. The punching operation takes place during 1/10th of a
revolution of the crankshaft. Estimate the power required for the driving motor,

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
 assuming a mechanical efficiency of 95%. Determine the size of the rim of the
flywheel having width equal to twice the thickness. The flywheel is to revolve 10
times the speed of the crankshaft. The fluctuation of speed is 10%. Assume the
flywheel to be made of cast iron having working stress of 6 MPa and density 7300
kg/m3. The diameter of the flywheel should not exceed 1.5 m. Neglect the effect
of arms and hub.
Q7. (a) What are different modes of transmitting power from one shaft to another?
Compare them.
(b) How can we find length of a belt used in an open belt drive with two flat
pulleys of different radii and the centre distance in the pulleys is x units?
Q8. What is the condition of correct steering? Sketch and show two types of steering
gears, also discuss their relative advantages.
Q9. For the slider-crank mechanism shown in Fig. below, determine (a) acceleration
of slider B (b) acceleration of point C and (c) acceleration of link AB if the crank
OA rotates at 180 rpm. OA = 500 mm, AB = 1500 mm, and AC = 250 mm.

***********

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains______ questions and ______ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 2 ]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech
Semester: 4th
Name of Subject: Theory of Machines-II
Subject Code: ME-14402
Paper ID: 15363
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

07-07-21(E)
2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

Q1. a. Why balancing of rotating masses is important? Explain with the help of an
example.
b. A rotating shaft carries four masses A, B, C and D at radii 100, 125, 200 and
150 mm respectively. The rotation planes of masses are spaced 600 mm apart and
the mass of B, C and D are 10 kg, 5 kg, and 4 kg respectively. Find the mass A
and the relative angular settings of the four masses to keep the shaft balanced.
Q2. Answer the following: (3+3+4)
a. State D’Alembert principle.
b. What are the benefits of drawing free body diagram?
c. What are transmission angles? Show with the help of a diagram.
Q3. Two shafts A and B are co-axial. A gear C (50 teeth) is rigidly mounted on shaft
A. A compound gear D-E gears with C and an internal gear G. D has 20 teeth and
gears with C and E has 35 teeth and gears with an internal gear G. The gear G is
fixed and is concentric with the shaft axis. The compound gear D-E is mounted on
a pin which projects from an arm keyed to the shaft B. Sketch the arrangement
and find the number of teeth on internal gear G assuming that all gears have the
same module. If the shaft A rotates at 110 r.p.m., find the speed of shaft B.

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
Q4. Explain the following:
a. State and prove law of gearing.
b. Yawning, pitching and rolling with respect to naval ships with neat sketch.
Q5. Using Freudenstein’s equation, design a four bar mechanism to co-ordinate the
input and output angles as follows:
Input angles = 15°, 30° and 45°; Output angles = 30°, 40° and 55°.
Q6. The heavy turbine rotor of a sea vessel rotates at 1500 r.p.m. clockwise looking
from the stern, its mass being 750 kg. The vessel pitches with an angular velocity
of 1 rad/s. Determine the gyroscopic couple transmitted to the hull when bow is
rising, if the radius of gyration for the rotor is 250 mm.
Q7. What do you understand by the term ‘gear train’? What are various types of gear
trains? Explain the working, speed ratio and train value in the case of a compound
gear train with the help of a diagram.
Q8. a. What is swaying couple? Derive an expression for minimum or maximum value
of swaying couple?
b. What is the condition of hammer blow balancing of reciprocating masses?
Q9. A pair of 20° full depth involute spur gears, having 30 and 50 teeth respectively,
of module 4 mm, is in mesh. The smaller gear rotates at 1000 r.p.m. Determine:
a. Sliding velocities at engagement and at disengagement of pair of a teeth,
b. Contact ratio.

***********

Page 2 of 2
 Please check that this question paper contains 09 questions and 01 printed page within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 01]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B. Tech 15-01-2022(E)
Semester: 5th
Name of Subject: Mechanical Measurement &Metrology
Subject Code: ME-14503
Paper ID: 15485
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

1. What are systematic and random errors? What are the sources of errors? How these errors are
measured? What are various precautions for minimizing these errors?
2. Describe the 3-wire method of measuring effective diameter of threads. Give the setup for the
above.
3. With neat figure, explain: i) Plug gauges, ii) Ring gauges, iii) Snap gauges.
4. With the help of neat sketch, explain the working principle of prony brake dynamometer.

5. Explain how the straightness can be measured by using autocollimator.

6. The following 10 observations were recorded when measuring a temperature: 41.7, 42.0,
41.8, 42.0, 42.1, 41.9, 42.0, 41.9, 42.5 and 41.8 °C. Find a) the mean b) the standard
deviation c) the probable error of one reading d) the probable error of mean e) range.
7. (a) A McLeod Gauge has volume of bulb and measuring capillary V= 100 × 10-6 m3 and
measuring capillary diameter of 1 mm. Calculate the pressure indicated when the reading of
the measuring capillary is 30 mm in case approximate formula is used. What is the error if
the exact formula is used for measurement of pressure?
(b) Compare the Ultrasonic flow meters with Electromagnetic flow meters on the basis of
merit.

8. Describe the types, construction, theory, working and calibration procedure of thermocouples.
Discuss the different types of compensations used and its area of application
9. Describe the construction and functioning of pneumatic load cells. Explain their
advantages and disadvantages.
************

Page 1 of 1
[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 2]
Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program/ Course: B.Tech. (Sem. ….)
Name of Subject: Mechanical Measurement and Metrology
Subject Code: ME-14503
Paper ID: 15485
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 60
NOTE:
1) Section-A is compulsory
2) Attempt any four questions from Section-B and any two questions from Section-C
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately
Section – A [Marks: 02 each]
Q1.
a) Give the significance of measurements.
b) What do you mean by transfer function? 20-07-21(E)
c) Explain the concept of calibration.
d) Give classification of measurement errors?
e) What is the temperature compensation in strain guage?

f) What is the order of pressure measured by the Ionization Gauge?

g) What is "Chauvenets's Criterion"? Explain briefly.

h) What are photocell transducers?

i) Define the term "Fidelity and speed of Response"?
j) What is the principle of a stroboscope?

Section – B [Marks: 05 each]

Q2. What is a sine bar? How is it used for angle measurement?
Q3. Explain the application of the following devices. (i) Amplifier (ii) Transducer

Q4. Explain the principle and working of a hydraulic load cell.

Q5. Elaborate in detail the specifications and measurement of surface roughness by Talysurf
technique?

Q6. Describe the equations for the time response of a first-order system when subjected to a
unit step input.

Section – C [Marks: 10 each (05 for each sub-part, if any)]

1
Q7. A calibrated meter end bar, which has an actual length of 1000.0005 mm, is to be used
in the calibrated of two bars X and Y, each having a basic length of 500 mm. when
compared with the meter bar, the sum of LX and LY is found to be shorter by 0.0003 mm.
when X and Y are compared, it is observed that X is 0.0004 mm is longer than Y.
Determine the actual length of X and Y.
Q8. The following limits are specified in a limit system, to give a clearance fit between a
hole and a shaft: Hole = 25 +0.03−0.00mm and shaft = 25+0.006−0.020mm Determine the
following: (a) Basic size (b) Tolerances on shaft and hole (c) Maximum and minimum
clearances

Q9. Write short notes on the following: a) Interferometry b) Proving Ring

************

2
Please check that this question paper contains_09_ questions and _03_ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: ......]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech Mechanical Engg
Semester: 6th semester
Name of Subject: Heat Transfer
15-07-21(E)
Subject Code: ME-14602
Paper ID: 15625
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

Q1. Find the temperature distribution in a circular rod of length L and diameter d in which
the heat generated per unit time per unit volume increases linearly along the length of
the rod in the form q’’’= ax.
The boundary conditions are T=T1 at x=0 and T=T2 at x=L. The curved surface of the
rod is fully insulated and temperature variation in the radial direction may be neglected.
Where does the maximum temperature occur? For what value of ‘a’ will it occur at the
centre of the rod?
Q2. The electric heating uses wire of 1.5 mm diameter with 0.6 mm thick insulation (K =
0.11 W/m. oC). The heat transfer coefficient on the insulated surface is 35 W/m2. oC.
Determine the critical thickness of insulation in this case and the percentage change in
the heat transfer rate if the critical thickness is used, assuming the temperature
difference between the surface of the wire and surrounding air remains unchanged.
Q3. A rod of 2.5cm diameter and 36 cm long is connected with heated body and maintained
at root temperature 227 oC and 127 oC at outer tip. The surrounding air temperature is
27 oC and heat transfer coefficient is 10 W/m2 oC. Find the heat transfer from the rod
if: - (a) It is made of copper (K= 335 W/m. oC).

Page 1 of 3
P.T.O.
 (b) It is made of steel (K= 165 W/m. oC) with diameter 2.5 cm and length of 72 cm.
The other conditions remain same. Which one is better in transferring heat and by what
percentage?
Q4. 100kg of cheese at 15oC is pumped per hour through a tube of 7.5mm in diameter. The
temperature of the tube is maintained at 90oC. Find the heat transfer coefficient using
the following correlation:
Length of the tube = 1.2m
. ( )( . )
= 3.65 +
. [ ( . )] .

Take the following properties for the cheese at mean temperature:

ρ = 1100 kg/m3, µ = 24 kg/ms, Cp = 2850 J/kg. K, K= 0.43 W/m. K
Also find the rise in temperature of the cheese.
Q5. In a chemical plant, a product is produced at 700oC (Cp =3.6 kJ/kg-K) at the rate of
1000kg/min is to be cooled by using another liquid available at 100oC (Cp = 4.2 kJ/kg.
K) at a rate of 1200 kg/min. The surface area of the heat exchanger is 42 m2 and overall
heat transfer coefficient is 1000 W/m2. K). Determine the outlet temperature of both
fluids under parallel and counter flow conditions.
Q6. Explain the different modes of condensation. Why is dropwise condensation preferred?
What are the practical difficulties in retaining dropwise condensation on a surface?
Q7. Calculate the following quantities for an industrial furnace (blackbody) emitting
radiation at 2650 oC.
(i) Spectral emissive power at λ = 1.2 µm,
(ii) Wavelength at which the emissive power is maximum,
(iii) Maximum spectral emissive power,
(iv) Total emissive power,
(v) Total emissive power of the furnace, if it is treated as gray and diffuse body with
an emissivity of 0.9.
Q8. Two large parallel planes having emissivities at 0.3 and 0.5 are maintained at
temperature of 800 oC and 300 oC respectively. A radiation shield having an emissivity
of 0.05 on both sides is placed between the two planes. Calculate
(a) Heat transfer per unit area without shield

Page 2 of 3
 (b) Also, find the temperature of the shield; and heat transfer per unit area with shield.
Q9. Find the heat lost by radiation per metre length of 90 mm diameter pipe at 300 oC, if
(i) located in a large room with red brick walls at a temperature of 27 oC.
(ii) enclosed in a 180mm diameter red brick conduit at a temperature of 27 oC. Take
Ɛ(pipe) = 0.79 and Ɛ (brick conduit) = 0.93

***********

Page 3 of 3
Q. No. Material required Specification
5 Heat Transfer data By Domkundwar, Dhanpat Rai & Co
book
Please check that this question paper contains______ questions and ______ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 2]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech. (ME)
Semester: 7th 21-01-2022(M)
Name of Subject: Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
Subject Code: ME-14801
Paper ID: 15790
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

1. The following data refers to a boot strap air cycle evaporative refrigeration system
used for an aeroplane to take 20 tonnes of refrigeration load:

Ambient air pressure: 1.8 bar; ambient air temperature: 15 oC; Mach no of flight: 1.2; ram
efficiency: 90%; pressure of air blend off the main compressor: 4 bar; pressure of air in
the secondary compressor: 5 bar; isentropic efficiency of the main compressor: 90%;
isentropic efficiency of secondary compressor: 80%; isentropic efficiency of cooling
turbine: 80%, temperature of air leaving the first heat exchanger: 170 oC; temperature of
air leaving the second exchanger: 155oC; temperature of air leaving the evaporator:
100oC; cabin temperature: 25oC; cabin pressure: 1 bar

Calculate: a) mass of air required to take the cabin load. b) power required for the
refrigeration system c) COP of the system.

2. a) A heat pump delivers 60 kW of heat to a room maintained at 25oC and receives heat
from a reservoir at 0oC. If the actual COP is 50% of that of an ideal heat pump operating
between same temperatures limits. What is the power required to run the heat pump.

b) Which out of COP and EER terms are used in RAC system by manufactures to
increase their sales and why?

3. a) A refrigerator operating on standard vapour compression cycle has a COP of 6.5 and
is driven by a 50 kW compressor. The enthalpies of saturated liquid and saturated vapour
refrigerant at the operating temperatures of 35 oC are 69.55 kJ/kg and 201.4 kJ/kg
respectively. The saturated refrigerant vapour leaving the evaporator has an enthalpy of

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
187.53 kJ/kg. Find the refrigerant temperature at compressor discharge, if Cp for
refrigerant vapour as 0.6155 kJ/kgoC.

b) Discuss the purpose of inter-cooling in multi-pressure vapour compression

refrigeration systems? Discuss various methods of inter-cooling.

4. State the effect and causes of moisture in a refrigeration system. How can it be
removed from the system?

5. Saturated air at 19oC is passed through a drier (chemical dehumidification) so that its
final RH is 25%. The air is then passed through a cooler (cooling coil) until its final
temperature is 190C DBT without change in specific humidity. Determine a) temperature
of air at the end of the drying process b) heat rejected during the cooling process c) RH at
the end of the cooling process d) Dew point temperature at the end of the drying process
e) moisture removed during drying process.

6. The following data relate to an air conditioning space: outdoor condition: 38oC DBT,
50% RH; room conditions: 24 oC DBT, 50% RH; sensible heat load: 24 kW, latent heat
load: 6 kW; by-pass factor of the cooling coil: 0.16. if the ventilation requirement is such
that on mass flow rate basis 20% fresh air is introduced and 80% of supply air is re-
circulated, determine: a) supply air flow rate, b) outside air sensible heat c) outside air
latent heat d) grand total heat v) effective room sensible heat factor.

7. An air conditioning system designed for a small restaurant for the following data: heat
flow through walls, roof and floor = 22000 kJ/hr; solar heat gain through glass = 7000
kJ/hr, Equipment sensible heat gain = 10500 kJ/hr, equipment latent heat gain = 2500
kJ/hr, amount of fresh air supplied = 1600 m3/hr, infiltrated load = 400 m3/hr, the hall
seating capacity = 50 (sensible heat load= 100 kJ/hr/person: latent heat load=
300kJ/hr/person), , servants serving the meals = 5 (sensible heat load= 120 kJ/hr/person:
latent heat load= 350 kJ/hr/person), outdoor design conditions =35oC DBT and 35oC
WBT, inside design conditions = 27oC DBT, 55% RH,

The temperature of air supplied to the dining hall should not fall below 17 oC. the fan in
the system is fixed before air conditioning system. The power of the motor connecting
the fan is 10 kW. Find the room sensible heat factor of the restaurant.

8. Explain air conditioning system required for winter season with neat sketch.

9. a) How comparison of different aircraft refrigeration and air conditioning systems

were made. Explain in detail with suitable example.

b) Explain how an actual cycle differs from a theoretical vapour compression cycle.

***********

Page 2 of 2
[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 02]
Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B. Tech.
Semester: 7th
Name of Subject: Refrigeration and air conditioning
Subject Code: ME-14801
Paper ID: 15790
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60
NOTE:
1. Each question is of 10 marks.
2. Attempt any six questions out of nine 14-07-21(M)
3. Any missing data may be assumed appropriately
4. Use of Psychometric chart is allowed.

Q1. The atmosphere air at pressure 1 bar and temperature -5C is draws in the cylinder of the
compressor of a Bell-Colleman refrigerating machine. It is compressed isentropically to a
pressure of 6.5 bar. In the cooler, the compressed air is cooled to 15C, pressure
remaining the same. It is then expanded to a pressure of 1 bar in an expansion cylinder,
from where it is passed to the cold chamber. Find: i) the work done per kg of air, and ii)
COP of the plant.
For air assume law for expansion, pv1.2=constant; law for compression, pv1.4=constant
and specific heat of air at constant pressure = 1 kJ/kgK.

Q2. For a sample of air having 22C DBT, relative humidity 30% at barometric pressure of
760mm of Hg. Calculate: i) Vapor pressure, ii) Humidity ratio, iii) vapor density and iv)
enthalpy when dew point temperature at vapor pressure is 3.8C and latent heat of
vaporization is 22492.6 kJ/kg.
Q3. Draw the line diagram and Ts chart for boot-strap air evaporative cooling system and
drive the expression for COP of this system.
Q4. The following data refer to air conditions of a public hall:
Outdoor conditions = 40C DBT, 20C WBT
Required comfort conditions = 20C DBT, 50% RH
Seating capacity of hall = 1000
Amount of outdoor air supplied = 0.3 m3/mm/person
If the required condition is achieved first by adiabatic humidifying and then cooling, find:
1) the capacity of the cooling coil and surface temperature of the coil if the by-pass factor
is 0.25, and 2) the capacity of the humidifier and its efficiency.

Q5. The following data refer to a single stage vapor compression system:
Refrigerant used (Ozone friendly) R-134a; condensing temperature = 35C; Evaporator
temperature = -10C; Compressor RPM = 2800; Clearance volume/swept volume = 0.03;
Swept volume = 269.4x10-6 m3; Expansion index = 1.12; Compression efficiency = 0.8;
Condensate sub-cooling = 5C. Find: 1) Capacity of the system in TR; 2) Power required;
3) COP; 4) Heat rejection to condenser; and 5) Refrigeration efficiency.

Page 1 of 2
 The properties of R-134a are given below:
Sat. Temp. Pressure Specific volume Specific enthalpy Specific entropy
C bar of vapor, m3/kg kJ/kg kJ/kg K
Liquid Vapor Liquid Vapor
-10 2.014 0.0994 186.7 392.4 0.9512 1.733
35 8.870 -------- 249.1 417.6 1.1680 1.715

Q6. Drive the expression for COP of a refrigerating system consisting of three evaporators at
the same temperature with single compressor and expansion valve. Also draw the line
diagram and p-h diagram for the process.

Q7. What are the inorganic refrigerants? Enlist them and discuss in detail the properties and
applications of each inorganic refrigerant.

Q8. An air conditioned space is maintained at 27C dry bulb temperature and 50% relative
humidity. The ambient conditions are 40C dry bulb temperature and 27C wet bulb
temperature. The space has a sensible heat gain of 14kW. The air is supplied to the space
at 7C saturated. Calculate: 1) Mass of moist air supplied to the space in kg/h; 2) Latent
heat gain of space in kW; and 3) Cooling load of air-washer in kW if 30% of air supplied
to the space is fresh, the remainder being recirculated.
Q9. A dense air refrigeration system of 10 tonnes capacity works between 4 bar and 16 bar.
The air leaves the cold chamber at 0C and discharges air at 25C to the expansion
cylinder after air cooler. The expansion and compression cylinders are double acting. The
mechanical efficiency of compressor and expander are 85% and 80% respectively. The
compressor speed is 250 rpm and has a stroke of 250mm. Determine: 1) COP; 2) Power
required and 3) Bore of compression and expansion cylinders. Assume isentropic
compression and expansion as polytropic with n = 1.25.
************

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains_09_ questions and _02_ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 02]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech
Semester: 7/ (2014) 22-01-2022(M)
Name of Subject: Mechanical Vibrations
Subject Code: ME 14802
Paper ID: 15791
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:
1) Each question is of 10 marks.
2) Attempt any six questions out of nine.
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately.

Q1. (a) The spring-mass system (k1-m1) has a natural frequency f1. Calculate the value of
k2 another spring which when connected to k1 in parallel increases the frequency by
20%. (5)

(b) The motion of a particle is represented by the equation x (mm) = 7 cos 8t. Units of
t being seconds. Find the maximum value of
(i) Displacement (ii) Velocity (iii) Acceleration. (5)

Q2. A torsion pendulum has to have a natural frequency of 10 Hz. What length of steel wire of
diameter 4 mm should be used for this pendulum? The inertia of the mass fixed at the
free end is 0.10 kg-m2. Take C = 0.85 x 1011 N/m2. (10)

Q3. A damper offers a resistance of 0.10 kN at velocity of 2 m/sec. The damper is used with
spring having k = 9 N/m. Determine the damping and frequency of the system when
the mass of the system is 1 kg. (10)

Q4. The damped natural frequency of a system as obtained from a free vibration test, is 12
Hz. During the forced vibration test on the same system, the maximum amplitude of
vibration is found to be at 8 Hz. Find the damping factor for the system and its natural
frequency. (10)

Q5. A system of beams supports a motor of mass 400 kg. The motor has an unbalanced
mass of 0.7 kg located at 1 cm radius. It is known that the resonance occurs at 1000
r.p.m. What amplitude of vibration can be expected at the motor’s operating speed of
400 r.p.m. If damping factor is 0.5? (10)

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
Q6. A vibrometer has a period of free vibration of 1 second. It is attached to a machine with
a vertical harmonic frequency of 7 Hz. If the vibrometer mass has an amplitude of 1
mm relative to the vibrometer frame what is the amplitude of vibration of machine?
(10)

Q7. Find the natural frequencies and amplitude ratios of the system shown in Fig.1.
(10)

Fig.1.
Q8. The springs of an automobile trailer are compressed 0.3 m under its own weight. Find
the critical speed when the trailer is passing over a road with a profile of sinewave
whose amplitude is 100 mm and the wavelength is 20 m. Find the amplitude of
vibration at a speed of 80 km/hr.

Q9. Derive the frequency equation for Transverse Vibration of Continuous Beams.
(10)

***********

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains_09_ questions and _03_ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 03]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech
Semester: 7, 8 / (2014)
Name of Subject: Mechanical Vibrations
Subject Code: ME 14802
Paper ID: 15791
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

18-06-21(M)
NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine.
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately.

Q1. (a) Add the following motions analytically as well as graphically. (5)
x1 = 2 cos (ωt + 0.17)
x2 = 3 sin (ωt + 1.05)
(b) Represent following complex numbers in exponential form and draw the vector on
complex plane. (5)
(i) 3+j4 (ii) 3-j4 (iii) -3+j4 (iv) -3-j4

Q2. (a) A cantilever shaft 50 mm diameter and 300 mm long has a disc mass 100 kg at its
free end. The young’s modulus for the shaft material is 200 GN/m2. Determine the
frequency of longitudinal and transverse vibrations of the shaft. (5)
(b) A block of circular cross section having diameter ‘d’ and mass m floats vertically
in a liquid of mass density ρ. A small displacement is given vertically downward and
then released. Find the period of its oscillation. (5)

Q3. A vibrating system is defined by the following parameters : m = 100 kg, k = 30x103
N/m. The damping provided is only 25% of the critical value, find out
(i) The damping factor

Page 1 of 3
P.T.O.
 (ii) The critical damping coefficient
(iii) The natural frequency of damped vibration
(iv) The logarithmic decrement
(v) The ratio of two consecutive amplitudes (10)

Q4. A vibrating system is defined by the following parameters : m = 150 kg, k = 40x103
N/m and ζ = 0.20. Find out the time in which the mass in a vibrating system would
settle down to 0.025th of its initial deflection. Also find out the number of oscillations
completed to reach this value of deflection. (10)

Q5. In a vibrating system a mass of 3 kg vibrates in a viscous medium. A harmonic force

of 30 N acts on the system and causes a resonant amplitude of 15 mm with a period of
0.25 second. Find the damping coefficient.
If the frequency of the exciting force is changed to 5 Hz, determine the increase in the
amplitude of the forced vibrations upon the removal of the damper. (10)

Q6. A washing machine unit having a mass of 40 kg is to be supported on three springs,

each having a spring constant K. The unit operates at 500 rpm. Determine the value of
stiffness K if only 10% of the shaking force is allowed to be transmitted to the
supporting structure. Take ζ = 0. (10)

Q7. Find the natural frequencies and mode shapes for the torsional system shown in Fig. 1
for J1 = J0, J2 = 2J0, and kt1 = kt2 = kt. (10)

Fig.1.

Page 2 of 3
Q8. Find the lowest natural frequency of the system shown in Fig.2. Given:
K1 = 10 x 981 N/m, m1 = 10 kg
K2 = 20 x 981 N/m, m2 = 5 kg
K3 = 30 x 981 N/m, m3 = 22 kg (10)

Fig. 2

Q9. A uniform string of length l and a large initial tension S, stretched between two
supports, is displaced laterally through a distance a0 at the centre as shown in Fig. 3,
and is released at t=0. Find equation of motion for the string. (10)

Fig. 3

***********

Page 3 of 3
Please check that this question paper contains_09_ questions and _02_ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 02]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech
Semester: 7/ (2014)
Name of Subject: Mechanical Vibrations
Subject Code: ME 14802
Paper ID: 15791
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:
1) Each question is of 10 marks. 12-07-21(M)
2) Attempt any six questions out of nine.
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately.

Q1. (a) Add the following motions analytically as well as graphically. (5)
x1 = 2 cos (ωt + 0.5)
x2 = 5 sin (ωt + 1.0)
(b) Represent complex numbers -5 + j4 and 5ej0.1 in exponential form and rectangular
form respectively. Also draw the vectors on complex plane. (5)

Q2. Find the natural frequency of torsional oscillations for the system shown in Figure 1. Take G =
0.83 x 1011 N/m2. (10)

Figure 1.
Q3. A gun barrel of mass 600 kg has a recoil spring of stiffness 294 kN/m. If the barrel
recoils 1.3 m on firing, determine
a) The initial recoil velocity of the barrel,
b) The critical damping coefficient of the dashpot which is engaged at the end of
the recoil stroke, and
c) The time required for the barrel to return to a position 5 cm from the initial
position. (10)

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
Q4. The damped natural frequency of a system as obtained from a free vibration test, is 9.8
Hz. During the forced vibration test on the same system, the maximum amplitude of
vibration is found to be at 9.6 Hz. Find the damping factor for the system and its natural
frequency. (10)

Q5. A system of beams supports a motor of mass 1200 kg. The motor has an unbalanced
mass of 1 kg located at 6.0 cm radius. It is known that the resonance occurs at 2210
r.p.m. What amplitude of vibration can be expected at the motor’s operating speed of
1440 r.p.m. If damping factor is 0.1? (10)

Q6. A vibrometer has a period of free vibration of 2 seconds. It is attached to a machine

with a vertical harmonic frequency of 1 Hz. If the vibrometer mass has an amplitude of
2.5 mm relative to the vibrometer frame what is the amplitude of vibration of machine?
(10)

Q7. Determine the lowest natural frequency of vibration for the system shown in Figure 2.
E = 2.1x1011 N/m2,

I = 4 x 10-7 m4.

Figure 2. (10)

Q8. Find the natural frequencies and mode shapes of the system shown in Figure 3.

Figure 3. (10)

Q9. Derive the frequency equation for Transverse Vibration of a Continuous Beam.
(10)

***********

Page 2 of 2
 Please check that this question paper contains_09_ questions and _01_ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: ..1..]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: ……B. Tech. ………
Semester: ........7th .......
Name of Subject: ……Traffic Management and Road Safety……
Subject Code: ……OECE-104……
Paper ID: ……17346……
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks. 06-01-2022 (M)

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine.
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately.

Q1. Explain the level of service and PCU concept. Also, discuss the factors which may be
considered in evaluation of level of service along with the limitations of PCU concept.
Q2. Show the traffic movements and different types of ramps in (i) Diamond interchange
(ii) Full Cloverleaf interchange, with the help of neat labelled sketches.
Q3. Explain the investigation procedure for collecting accident data. How the accident data
is expressed for analysis?
Q4. Discuss how the provision of exclusive bus lanes and tidal flow operations can help in
traffic management. Also discuss their demerits.
Q5. Illustrate the use of collision and condition diagrams in accident study with the help of
neat labelled sketches.
Q6. A two-lane urban road with one-way traffic has a maximum capacity of 2000 veh/hr.
Under the jamming condition, the average length occupied by vehicle is 6 m. The speed
versus density relationship is linear. For a traffic volume of 1150 veh/hr, calculate the
density in veh/km. Also, discuss in brief the Greenberg’s logarithmic speed-density
model.
Q7. Explain, in detail, the procedure of determining the traffic capacity of a weaving section
mentioning the design guidelines.
Q8. Explain Intelligent Transportation System and justify how the different functional areas
of ITS can help in traffic management with some suitable examples.
Q9. Discuss the key personnel involved in road safety audit. Also, summarize the points of
investigations carried out during preliminary design stage of road safety audit?

***********

Page 1 of 1
.[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages 2]

Uni. Roll No. ………………………

Program/Course B.Tech. 6TH Semester

Operation Research

Subject Code:OEPE-14602
09-07-21(E)
Paper Code:15548

Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max Marks:60

NOTE :-Attempt any 6 Questions, All Question carry equal marks (10 Marks Each)

1) a) Define Operation Research as given by J. O. R. Society of U. K.

b) Name and explain the Models and Phases of Operation Research

c) Solve Graphically

Max Z =5X1 + 4X2

Subject to X1 - 2X2 ≤ 1
X1 + 2X2 ≥ 3
X1,X2 ≥0
2) Aperson repairing TV finds that the time spent on the TV set has been exponential distribution with mean 20 minutes. If
TV are repaired in order in whichthey come in and their arrival is approximately Poisson with an average of 15 per 8 hour
day then what is the repairman s expected idle time a day? How many jobs are ahead of average set just brought in
3) Solve the following Problem by Method of Penalties
Max Z =5X1 + 4X2
Subject to 2X1 + X2 ≤ 1
3X1 + 4X2 ≥ 4
X1,X2 ≥0

4) Find the Optimal Solution of following problem by using VAM and MODI Method
To Available
3 4 6 8 9 20
From 2 10 1 5 8 30
7 11 20 40 3 15
2 1 9 14 16 13
Demand 40 6 8 18 6
5) A car hire company has one car at each of the five depots a, b, c, d and e. A customer in each of the five towns A, B, C,
D&E requires a car. The distance (in miles) between the depots (origins) and the towns (destinations) where the customers
are given in the following distance matrix.How cars should be assigned to the customers so as to minimize the distance
travel.

a b c d e
A 160 130 175 190 200
B 135 120 130 160 175
C 140 110 155 170 185
D 50 50 80 80 110
E 55 35 70 80 105
6) A product comprised of 10 activities whose normal time and cost are given as follow:

activity 1-2 2-3 2-4 2-5 3-5 4-5 5-6 6-7 6-8 7-8

Normal time(days) 3 3 7 9 5 0 6 4 13 10

Normal cost(Rs.) 50 5 70 120 42 0 54 67 130 166

Indirect cost is rs.9 per day.

a) Draw the network and identity the critical path.

b) What is project duration and associated cost?
c) Also find out the total float associated with each activity.

7) Arrival rate of telephone calls at a telephone booth are according to Poisson distributions with an average time of 9
minutes between two consecutive arrivals. The length of telephone call is assumed to be exponentially distributed
with mean of 3 minutes

a) Determine the probability that a person arriving at booth will have to wait
b) Find the average queue length
c) The telephone company will install a second booth when convinced that arrival would have to wait
atleast 4 minutes for phone. Find the increase in flow rate of arrivals which will justify second booth
d) What is probability that arrival will have to wait for more than 10 minutes before the phone will be
free
e) What is probability that arrival will have to wait for more than 10 minutes before the phone will is
available and call is complete
Find the fraction of day the phone will be in use

8) Construct the duel of the following problem and find the basic feasible solution

Maximize Z = 3x1 + 5x2

Sub to 2x1 +6x2 ≤ 50
3x1 + 2x2≤ 35
5x1- 3x2≤ 10
x1≤ 20
x1, x2≥ 0
9) a) Define Random Numbers.
b) Find the value of π using Monte Carlo Method and selecting atleast 50 random numbers
c) Find 50 random numbers by using combination method where r0iis0.45, a= 10, b=13 and m=15
d) Write a short note about Simulation languages
************
 28-07-2021(M)

.[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages 2]

Uni. Roll No. ………………………

Program/Course B.Tech. 6TH Semester

Operation Research

Subject Code:OEPE-14602

Paper Code:15548

Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max Marks:60

NOTE :-Attempt any 6 Questions, All Question carry equal marks (10 Marks Each)

1) a) Define Operation Research as given by J. O. R. Society of U. K.

b) Name and explain the Models and Phases of Operation Research

c) Solve Graphically

Max Z =5X1 + 4X2

Subject to X1 - 2X2 ≤ 1
X1 + 2X2 ≥ 3
X1,X2 ≥0
2) Aperson repairing TV finds that the time spent on the TV set has been exponential distribution with mean 20 minutes. If
TV are repaired in order in whichthey come in and their arrival is approximately Poisson with an average of 15 per 8 hour
day then what is the repairman s expected idle time a day? How many jobs are ahead of average set just brought in
3) Solve the following Problem by Method of Penalties
Max Z =5X1 + 4X2
Subject to 2X1 + X2 ≤ 1
3X1 + 4X2 ≥ 4
X1,X2 ≥0

4) Find the Optimal Solution of following problem by using VAM and MODI Method
To Available
3 4 6 8 9 20
From 2 10 1 5 8 30
7 11 20 40 3 15
2 1 9 14 16 13
Demand 40 6 8 18 6
5) A car hire company has one car at each of the five depots a, b, c, d and e. A customer in each of the five towns A, B, C,
D&E requires a car. The distance (in miles) between the depots (origins) and the towns (destinations) where the customers
are given in the following distance matrix.How cars should be assigned to the customers so as to minimize the distance
travel.

a b c d e
A 160 130 175 190 200
B 135 120 130 160 175
C 140 110 155 170 185
D 50 50 80 80 110
E 55 35 70 80 105
6) A product comprised of 10 activities whose normal time and cost are given as follow:

activity 1-2 2-3 2-4 2-5 3-5 4-5 5-6 6-7 6-8 7-8

Normal time(days) 3 3 7 9 5 0 6 4 13 10

Normal cost(Rs.) 50 5 70 120 42 0 54 67 130 166

Indirect cost is rs.9 per day.

a) Draw the network and identity the critical path.

b) What is project duration and associated cost?
c) Also find out the total float associated with each activity.

7) Arrival rate of telephone calls at a telephone booth are according to Poisson distributions with an average time of 9
minutes between two consecutive arrivals. The length of telephone call is assumed to be exponentially distributed
with mean of 3 minutes

a) Determine the probability that a person arriving at booth will have to wait
b) Find the average queue length
c) The telephone company will install a second booth when convinced that arrival would have to wait
atleast 4 minutes for phone. Find the increase in flow rate of arrivals which will justify second booth
d) What is probability that arrival will have to wait for more than 10 minutes before the phone will be
free
e) What is probability that arrival will have to wait for more than 10 minutes before the phone will is
available and call is complete
Find the fraction of day the phone will be in use

8) Construct the duel of the following problem and find the basic feasible solution

Maximize Z = 3x1 + 5x2

Sub to 2x1 +6x2 ≤ 50
3x1 + 2x2≤ 35
5x1- 3x2≤ 10
x1≤ 20
x1, x2≥ 0
9) a) Define Random Numbers.
b) Find the value of π using Monte Carlo Method and selecting atleast 50 random numbers
c) Find 50 random numbers by using combination method where r0iis0.45, a= 10, b=13 and m=15
d) Write a short note about Simulation languages
************
 [Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 3]
Univ. Roll No. …………………………….
Program: B.Tech.
Semester: 6th
12-01-2022(E)
Name of Subject: Operation Research
Subject Code: OEPE-14602
Paper ID: 15548
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 60
NOTE:
1) Attempt any Six questions from total nine Questions
2) All questions carry equal marks (10 Marks each)
3) Each Subpart carry equal marks
Q1. A car hire company has one car at each of the five depots a, b, c, d and e. A customer
in each of the five towns A B, C, D & E requires a car. The distance (in miles) between the
depots (origins) and the towns (destinations) where the customers are given in the following
distance matrix.

a b c d e
A 160 130 175 190 200
B 135 120 130 160 175
C 140 110 155 170 185
D 50 50 80 80 110
E 55 35 70 80 105
How cars should be assigned to the customers so as to minimize the distance travel.

Q2. A firm has an advertising budget of Rs. 720000. It wishes to allocate this budget to
two media: magazines and televisions, so that total exposure is maximized. Each page of
magazine advertising is estimated to result in 60000 exposures, whereas each spot on
television is estimated to result is 120000 exposures. Each page of magazine advertising cost
Rs. 9000 and each spot on the television cost rs 12000. An additional condition that the firm
has specified is that the least two pages of the magazine advertising be used and least three
spots on television. Determine the optimal media mix for this firm.
Q3. Find the optimal Solution of problem by using Method of Penalties
Maximize Z = 2x +3y + 4z
Sub to 3x + y + 4z ≤ 600
2x + 4y + 2z ≥ 480
2x + 3y + 3z = 540
x, y, z ≥ 0
Q4. Find the Optimal Solution by using VAM & MODI Method.

1 2 1 4 5 2 30
3 3 2 1 4 3 50
4 2 5 9 6 2 75
3 1 7 3 4 6 20
20 40 30 10 50 25
Q5. Arrival Rate of telephone calls at a telephone booth are according to Poisson distribution with
average time of 9 minutes between two consecutive arrivals. The length of telephone call is
assumed to be exponentially distributed, with mean 3 minutes. Determine the probability that
a person arriving at booth will have to wait
1
 Find the average queue length formed from time to time
The telephone company will install a second booth when convinced that an arrival would expect
to have to wait at least 4 minutes for the phone. Find increase in flow rate of arrivals which
will justify a second booth.
What is probability that an arrival will have to wait for more than 10 minutes before the phone
is free
What is the probability that he will have to wait for more than 10 minutes before the phone is
available and the call is also complete
Find the fraction of a day that the phone will be in use.
Q6. a) Find the value of π using Monte Carlo Method and selecting atleast 50 random
numbers
b) Find 50 random numbers by using combination method where r0 i is 0.45, a= 10,
b=13 and m=15
c) Write a short note about Simulation languages
Q7. a) Solve Graphically
Max Z =5X1 + 4X2
Subject to X1 - 2X2 ≤ 1
X1 + 2X2 ≥ 3
X1, X2 ≥0
a) Write a Duel of Following LP Problem and solve it by using graphical method

Maximize P = 5x1 + 8x2

Subject to
2x1 + x2 ≤ 14
x1 + 3x2 ≤ 12
x2 ≤ 3
x1, x2≥ 0

Q8 Determine the Critical Path and probabilities of meeting the scheduled dates for the
specified events for the activities and time given in the table below. Also draw its network and
find the variance of project. Also find Free Float, Independent Float and Total Float

Activity Time Activity Time

to tm tp to tm tp
1-2 2 4 12 5-2 3 6 9
1-3 2 4 25 6-9 4 6 10
2-1 1 1 5 7-10 4 5 7
3-4 1 3 6 8-11 2 4 6
3-5 1 4 9 9-12 1 2 4
2
 3-6 2 5 12 10-12 1 4 8
3-7 2 3 5 11-12 3 4 11
4-8 5 6 14
Q9. a) Write the Dual of the Problem
Maximize Z = 2X1 + 5X2 + 3X3
Subject to 2X1 + 4X2 - X3 ≤ 8
-2X1 -2X2 +3X3 ≥ -7
X1 +3X2 -5X3 ≥ -2
4X1 + X2 +3X3 ≤ 4
X1, X2, X3 ≥ 0
b) Find the feasible solution of the following transportation problem using North-West
Corner Method
W1 W2 W3 W4 Supply
F1 14 25 45 5 6
F2 65 25 35 55 8
F3 35 3 65 15 16
Requirement 4 7 6 13

c) Solve the assignment problem for assigning the 4 jobs to 4 contractors

C1 C2 C3 C44 Supply
J1 15 13 14 17 1
J2 11 12 15 13 1
J3 13 12 10 11 1
J4 15 17 14 16 1
Demand 1 1 1 1

************

3
Please check that this question paper contains 9 questions and 2 printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 2]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech
Semester: 4th 22-01-2022(M)
Name of Subject: Theory of Machines
Subject Code: PCME-106
Paper ID: 16195
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

Q1. A shaper is having crank and lever mechanism with centre distance of 350 mm from
centre of oscillation of slotted lever and crank rotation centre. The radius of the
crank is 100 mm. Find the ratio of time of cutting stroke to time of return stroke.

Q2. In the shown figure, lengths of crank OB and connecting rod AB are 100 mm and 400
mm respectively. If the crank rotates clockwise with an angular velocity of 10 rad/s, find:
velocity of slider and angular velocity of connecting rod AB.

Q3. What is an open belt drive? How can we find length of a belt used in an open belt drive
with two flat pulleys of radius r1 and r2 and x being the centre distance in the pulleys?

Q4. A cam is to give the following motion to a knife-edged follower :

Outstroke during 60° of cam rotation ; Dwell for the next 30° of cam rotation ; Return
stroke during next 60° of cam rotation, and Dwell for the remaining 210° of cam rotation.
The stroke of the follower is 40 mm and the minimum radius of the cam is 50 mm. The
follower moves with uniform velocity during both the outstroke and return strokes. Draw
the profile of the cam when the axis of the follower passes through the axis of the cam
shaft.

Q5. a. Why balancing of rotating masses is important? Explain with the help of an example.

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
 b. A rotating shaft carries four masses A, B, C and D at radii 100, 125, 200 and 150 mm
respectively. The rotation planes of masses are spaced 600 mm apart and the mass of B, C
and D are 10 kg, 5 kg, and 4 kg respectively. Find the mass A and the relative angular
settings of the four masses to keep the shaft balanced.

Q6. A pair of 20° full depth involute spur gears, having 30 and 50 teeth respectively, of
module 4 mm, is in mesh. The smaller gear rotates at 1000 r.p.m. Determine:
a. Sliding velocities at engagement and at disengagement of pair of a teeth,
b. Contact ratio.

Q7. Two shafts A and B are co-axial. A gear C (50 teeth) is rigidly mounted on shaft A. A
compound gear D-E gears with C and an internal gear G. D has 20 teeth and gears with C
and E has 35 teeth and gears with an internal gear G. The gear G is fixed and is
concentric with the shaft axis. The compound gear D-E is mounted on a pin which
projects from an arm keyed to the shaft B. Sketch the arrangement and find the number of
teeth on internal gear G assuming that all gears have the same module. If the shaft A
rotates at 110 r.p.m., find the speed of shaft B.

Q8. a. What is swaying couple? Derive an expression for minimum or maximum value of
swaying couple?
b. What is the condition of hammer blow balancing of reciprocating masses?

Q9. Answer the following:

a. State D’Alembert principle.
b. What are the benefits of drawing free body diagram?
c. What do you understand by static equilibrium of mechanisms?
d. What is creep and slip in belts?

***********

Page 2 of 2
[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages 02]
02
Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech
Semester: 4th
Name of Subject: Theory of Machines
Subject Code: PCME
PCME-106
Paper ID: 16195
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks. 08-07-21(E)

2) Attempt
tempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

Q1. Two gears of module 6 mm have 20 and 30 teeth. The pressure angle is 20° and each gear
has a standard addendum of one module. Find the length of arc of contact and the maximum
velocity of sliding
ding if the pinion rotates at 14
140 r.p.m.

Q2. Explain the term Interference in case of involute teeh with neat sketch. A 20° involute pinion
with 20 teeth drives a gear having 60 teeth. Module is 8 mm and addendum of each gear is
10 mm. State whether interfer
interference occurs or not.

Q3. In an epicyclic gear train Gear A has 40 teeth and mesh

meshes
es with a gear B which is carried by
an arm XY and arm rotates about the centre of gear A at 20 r.p.m, Gear B also meshes with
an internal Gear C having 80 teeth. Sketch the arrangement and find the speeds
speed of Gear A
and B if Gear C is fixed.

Q4. A shaft carries four masses A

A, B, C and D and revolve in the
he same plane. The masses are 10
kg, 15 kg, 14 kg and 12 kg respectively an
and their radii of rotations are 50 mm, 60 mm, 40 4
mm and 60 mm. The angle between masses A and B is 45°, between B and C is 75° 75 and
between C and D is 150°. Find the magnitude and posi
position
tion of the balancing mass if its radius
of rotation is 80 mm.

Q5. A two cylinder uncoupled locomotive has inside cylinders 0.6 m apart. The radius of each
crank is 300 mm and are at right angles. The revolving mass per cylinder is 250 kg and the
reciprocating mass per cylinder is 300 kg. The whole of the revolving and two-third
tw of the
reciprocating masses are to be balanced and the balanced masses are placed, in the planes of
rotation of the driving wheels, at a radius of 0.8 m. The driving wheels are 2 m in diameter
and 1.5 m apart. Find magnitude and angular position of balancing masses.

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
Q6. Find the required Torque T2 for the given crank slider mechanism. AB=10cm, BC=30 cm.
Force (F) acting on slider is 2000N.

Q7. Sketch and describe the working of two different types of quick return mechanisms. Give
examples of their applications.

Q8. A cam operating a knife-edged follower has the following data:

(a) Follower moves outwards through 40 mm during 60° of cam rotation.
(b) Follower dwells for the next 45°.
(c) Follower returns to its original position during next 90°.
(d) Follower dwells for the rest of the rotation.
The displacement of the follower is to take place with simple harmonic motion during both
the outward and return strokes. The least radius of the cam is 50 mm. Draw the profile of the
cam when the axis of the follower passes through the cam axis.

Q9. An open belt 100 mm wide connects two pulleys mounted on parallel shafts with their
centres 2.4 m apart. The diameter of the larger pulley is 450 mm and that of the smaller
pulley 300 mm. The coefficient friction between the belt and the pulley is 0.3 and the
maximum stress in the belt is limited to 14 N/mm width. If the larger pulley rotates at 120
r.p.m., find the maximum power that can be transmitted .

***********

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains______ questions and ______ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 02]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech.
Semester: Sem. 5th
Name of Subject: Heat Transfer 13-01-2022(E)
Subject Code: PCME-112
Paper ID: 16378
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

1. What is conduction heat transfer? How does it differ from convective heat transfer? Also
discuss the significance of heat transfer.
2. Derive general heat conduction equation in spherical co-ordinates.
3. A wall of a furnace is made up of inside layer of silica brick 120 mm thick covered with a
layer of magnesite brick 240 mm thick. The temperatures at the inside surface of silica brick
wall and outside surface of magnesite brick wall are 7250C and 1100C respectively. The
contact thermal resistance between the two walls at the interface is 0.0035 0C/W per unit wall
area. If thermal conductivities of silica and magnesite bricks are 1.7 W/m 0C and 5.8 W/m0C,
calculate:
i. The rate of heat loss per unit area of walls and,
ii. The temperature drop at interface.
4. A small electric heating application uses wire of 2 mm diameter with 0.8 mm thick
insulation (k = 0.12 W/m0C). The heat transfer coefficient (h0) on the insulated surface is 35
W/m2 0C. Determine the critical thickness of insulation in this case and the percentage
change in the heat transfer rate if the critical thickness is used, assuming the temperature
difference between the surface of the wire and surrounding air remains unchanged.
5. A steel rod (k = 32 W/m0C), 12 mm in diameter and 60 mm long, with an insulated end, is
to be used as a spine. It is exposed to surroundings with a temperature of 60 0C and a heat
transfer coefficient of 55 W/m2 0C. The temperature at the base of fin is 95 0C. Determine:
i. The fin efficiency;
ii. The temperature at the edge of the spine;
iii. The heat dissipation.
6. A tube 5 m long is maintained at 1000C by steam jacketing. A fluid flows through the tube
at the rate of 2940 kg/h at 300C. The diameter of the tube is 2 cm. Find out average heat
transfer coefficient.
Take the following properties of the fluid:
ρ = 850 kg/m3, cp = 2000 J/kg 0C, v = 5.1 x 10-6 m2 /s and k = 0.12 W/m0C.

Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
7. Steam at atmospheric pressure enters the shell of a surface condenser in which the water
flows through a bundle of tubes of diameter 25 mm at the rate of 0.05 kg/s. The inlet and
outlet temperatures of water are 150C and 700C respectively. The condensation of steam takes
place on the outside surface of the tube. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is 230 W/m2
0
C, calculate the following, using NTU method:
i. The effectiveness of the heat exchanger,
ii. The length of the tube, and
iii. The rate of steam condensation.
Take the latent heat of vaporisation at 1000C = 2257 kJ/kg
8. Differentiate between the mechanism of filmwise and dropwise condensation.
9. A 70 mm thick metal plate with a circular hole of 35 mm diameter along the thickness is
maintained at a uniform temperature 2500C. Find the loss of energy to the surrounding at 27
0
C, assuming the two ends of the hole to be as parallel discs and the metallic surfaces and
surroundings have black body characteristics.

***********

Page 2 of 2
[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 1]
Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech (ME)
Semester: 5th
Name of Subject: Mechanical Measurement and Control
Subject Code: PCME-113
Paper ID: 16380
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:
15-01-2022(E)
1) Each question is of 10 marks.
2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

Q1. Give the need and classification of measurements and instruments.

Q2. What are thermistors? Explain their different forms of construction.
Q3. Explain the construction and working of Mcleod gauge used for measurement of vacuum.
Q4. Describe the properties of materials used for piezoelectric transducers.
Q5. Discuss the various sources of errors in measurement. What precautions/efforts must be
made to minimize/eliminate them?
Q6. What is sine bar? How it is used for angle measurement?
Q7. Discuss the construction and working of optical radiation pyrometer. Also enlist its
applications.
Q8. Discuss the construction, working and applications of a rope brake absorption dynamometer
with the help of a neat sketch.
Q9. Elaborate the application of strain gauges for the measurement of torque.

************

Page 1 of 1
P.T.O.
Please check that this question paper contains_09_ questions and _02_ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 02]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech
Semester: 6/ (2018)
Name of Subject: Mechanical Vibrations
Subject Code: PCME 115
Paper ID: 17252
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:
1) Each question is of 10 marks. 07-01-2022(E)
2) Attempt any six questions out of nine.
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately.

Q1. (a) The motion of a particle is represented by the equation = 10 sin ωt. Show the
relative positions and magnitudes of the displacement, velocity and acceleration vector
at any time for the case when (5)
(i) ω = 2 rad/sec,
(ii) ω = 0.5 rad/sec
(b) Represent complex numbers 3 + j7 and 17ej3.74 in exponential form and rectangular
form respectively. Also draw the vectors on complex plane. (5)

Q2. A cantilever having negligible mass and length 60 cm has a mass 13 kg fixed at its free end.
Find the frequency of lateral vibrations in the vertical plane. Take E = 180 GPa. I = 40 mm4.
(10)

Q3. A gun barrel of mass 400 kg has a recoil spring of stiffness 200 kN/m. If the barrel
recoils 2 m on firing, determine
a) The initial recoil velocity of the barrel,
b) The critical damping coefficient of the dashpot which is engaged at the end of
the recoil stroke, and
c) The time required for the barrel to return to a position 2 cm from the initial
position. (10)

Q4. The damped natural frequency of a system as obtained from a free vibration test, is 7
Hz. During the forced vibration test on the same system, the maximum amplitude of
vibration is found to be at 6 Hz. Find the damping factor for the system and its natural
frequency. (10)

Q5. A system of beams supports a motor of mass 600 kg. The motor has an unbalanced
mass of 0.5 kg located at 3.0 cm radius. It is known that the resonance occurs at 1600
r.p.m. What amplitude of vibration can be expected at the motor’s operating speed of
740 r.p.m. If damping factor is 0.4? (10)
Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
Q6. A vibrometer has a period of free vibration of 3 seconds. It is attached to a machine
with a vertical harmonic frequency of 2 Hz. If the vibrometer mass has an amplitude of
6 mm relative to the vibrometer frame what is the amplitude of vibration of machine?
(10)

Q7. Consider two pendulums of length L as shown in Fig. 1. Determine the natural
frequencies of system. Take k = 100 N/m, m1 = 2 kg, m2 = 5 kg, L = 0.20 m, a = 0.10
m. (10)

Fig.1.

Q8. Determine the natural frequencies of multi degree of freedom spring-mass system
shown in Fig.2.

Fig.2.

Q9. Derive the frequency equation for Transverse Vibrations of a mass less string fixed
between two points.
(10)

***********

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains__9__ questions and ___2___ printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 2]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B. Tech. Mechanical Engineering
Semester: 6th 01-07-21(E)
Name of Subject: Mechanical Vibration
Subject Code: PCME-115
Paper ID: 17252
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

𝜋
Q1. Split up the harmonic motion 𝑥 = 10 sin (𝑤𝑡 + 6 ) into two harmonic motions, one is
having a phase angle of zero and the other of 46°.
Q2. A gun barrel of mass W kg has a recoil spring whose stiffness is k N/m. If W= 450 kg,
k=3.6 x 107 N/m and the barrel recoils 1 m on firing determine. (a) The initial recoil
velocity of the barrel, (b) The critical damping coefficient of a dashpot which is
engaged at the end of the recoil stroke, (c) The time required for the barrel to return to
a position 5cm from its initial position.
Q3. A small motor driving a compressor weighs 35 kg and causes each of the rubber
isolators to deflect by 4 mm. The motor runs at a constant speed of 2000 rpm. The
compressor piston has a 60 mm stroke. The piston and reciprocating parts weigh 1 kg
and perform a simple harmonic motion. The amplitude of vertical motion at the
operating speed is 0.5 cm. Find damping factor of rubber.
Q4. A reciprocating pump of 300 kg is driven through a belt by an electric motor at 4000
RPM. The pump is mounted on isolators with total stiffness of 15 MN/m and damping
6 k Ns/m. Determine the vibratory amplitude of the pump at the running speed due to
the fundamental harmonic force of excitation 2 kN. Determine the amplitude at
resonance also.
Q5. Two rotors A and B, are attached to the ends of a shaft 600 mm long. The mass of rotor
A is 400 kg, and its radius of gyration is 400 mm. The corresponding values of rotor B
are 500 kg and 500 mm, respectively. The shaft is 80 mm diameter for the first 250
mm, 120 mm for the next 150 mm length and 100 mm for the remaining length. The
modulus of rigidity of the shaft material is 0.8 x 105 MN/m2. Find: (a) The position of
the node. (b) The frequency of torsional vibrations.
Page 1 of 2
P.T.O.
Q6. A small reciprocating machine of 30 kg mass runs at a constant speed of 5000 rpm.
After installation, the forcing frequency was found to be too close to the natural
frequency of the system. Design a dynamic absorber if the closed frequency of the
system is to be at least 20% from the disturbing frequency.
Q7. Find the natural frequency of the system shown in Figure 1 by the Matrix method.
M = 1 kg, k = 100 N/m

Figure 1
Q8. A uniform bar of length L is fixed at one end, and the free end is stretched uniformly
to L0 and released at t = 0. Find the resulting longitudinal vibration.
Q9. Find the sum of two harmonic motions of equal amplitude but of slightly different
frequencies. Discuss the beat phenomenon that results from this sum.

***********

Page 2 of 2
Please check that this question paper contains 09 questions and 03 printed pages within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 3]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech Mechanical Engg
Semester: 6th Semester
Name of Subject: Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
Subject Code: PCME-116
Paper ID: 17253
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks. 05-07-21(E)

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately
4) Use of scientific calculator, steam tables and psychrometric tables are allowed.

1) a. Prove that COP Heat Pump = COP Refrigerator + 1, with the help of necessary sketches (5)
b. A room is to be maintained at -10o C when the outside temperature is 25o C. The addition of
heat to the room from outside due to frequent opening of door is estimated to be 30 kW.
The actual C.O.P of refrigerating plant is half of an ideal plant working between the same
temperatures. Determine the power required to operate the plant. (5 marks)
2) A boot strap refrigeration system is used in aircraft to take the load of 15 tons. The ambient
pressure and temperature are 0.8 bar and 10o C. The ramming action of plane increased pressure
of air from 0.8 bar to 1 bar. The pressures of the air leaving the main compressor and auxiliary
compressor are 3.5 bar and 4.5 bar respectively. Isentropic efficiency of both the compressors
is 85 % and isentropic efficiency of the turbine is 90 %. 45 % of total heat of air leaving the
main compressor is removed in the first heat exchanger and 35 % of heat of air leaving the
auxiliary compressor is removed in the second heat exchanger using rammed air. Assuming
the ramming action is isentropic, find the followings: -
(i) The temperature of air entering the cooling turbine.
(ii) The temperature of air at entrance to the cabin. (iii) Mass of air passing through the cabin.
(iv) kW capacity required to take the cabin load (v) C.O.P of the system

Page 1 of 3
P.T.O.
 The required cabin pressure is 1.03 bar and temperature of air leaving the cabin should not
exceed 25o C (10 marks)
3) a. Explain the difference between dry compression and wet compression of the refrigerant in
vapour compression refrigeration system. Which one is preferred and why? Explain with
the help of suitable diagrams. (5 marks)
b. What is the effect of sub-cooling on C.O.P? Is it desired, if yes than why? (5 marks)
4) A vapour compression refrigeration system works between 30o C and -15o C using ammonia
as a refrigerant. It produces 10 tons of ice per day from water at 25o C to ice at -7o C. The
ammonia enters the compressor as dry saturated vapour and leaves the condenser as saturated
liquid. Find (i) Capacity of the refrigerating system. (ii) Mass flow of the refrigerant.
(iii) Discharge temperature of ammonia from compressor.
(iv) Power of compressor motor if isentropic efficiency of compressor is 85 % and mechanical
efficiency of compressor is 90 %.
(v) Relative efficiency of the system.
Take latent heat of ice = 335 kJ/kg, Specific heat of ice = 1.94 kJ/kg-K
Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ/kg-K
Use the following properties of ammonia
Saturation Enthalpy, kJ/kg Entropy kJ/kg-K Specific heat kJ/kg-K
temperature, Liquid, Vapour,
oC
hf hg Sf Sg Cpf Cpg
-15 105.2 1401 0.497 5.438 - -
30 330.5 1439 1.248 4.734 4.3 3.2
(10 marks)
5) a. Explain a three stage cascade refrigeration system with figure, p-h and T-S diagrams. (5)
b. What is the need of using flash chamber and intercooler in multistage vapour compression
refrigeration system. How they affect performance of the cycle, explain with the help
of suitable diagrams. (5 marks)
6) Compare the refrigerants R-22, R-32, R-134a, R-410a and ammonia in regard to the following:
(i) Types of compressors used and their features.
(ii) Types of refrigeration and air-conditioning or heating.
(iii) Environmental effects
(iv) Technique of leakage detection (10 marks)
Page 2 of 3
7) The temperature and pressure of mixture of dry air and water vapour are 21o C and 730 mm of
Hg. The DPT of the mixture is 15o C. Determine the following:
(i) Partial pressure of water vapour in mixture. (ii) Relative humidity. (iii) Specific humidity.
(iv) Enthalpy of mixture per kg of dry air. (v) Specific volume of mixture per kg of dry air.
When, 1mm of Hg = 133.5 N/m2, At temperature 21o C the hfg of water vapour = 2452 kJ/kg,
From steam tables, saturation pressure at 15o C is 12.8 mm of Hg and at 21o C is 18.65 mm of
Hg (10 marks)
8) 150 cubic metre of air per minute at 30o C DBT and 60 % relative humidity is cooled to 20o C
DBT by passing through a cooling coil. Determine: (i) Capacity of cooling coil in tons of
refrigeration. (ii) Relative humidity of coming out air and its wet bulb temperature.
Take atmospheric pressure = 1.033 bar. (10 marks)
9) The shop design conditions are 25o C DBT and 50 % relative humidity when outside air
conditions are 43o C DBT and 27.5o C WBT. The shop sensible and latent heat loads are 20
kW and 5 kW respectively. The 80 % return air is mixed 20 % fresh air and then passed through
a cooling coil of 0.15 bypass factor. Find: (i) Apparatus DPT (ii) Condition of air leaving
cooling coil. (iii) Air flow rate into the shop in m3 /sec. (iv) Flow rate of fresh air and
recirculated air in m3 /min. (v) Refrigeration load of the air-conditioning plant. (10 marks)

***********

Page 3 of 3
[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 01]
Uni. Roll No.: ………………….
Program: B.Tech.
Semester: 5th 15-01-2022(E)
Name of Subject: Machining Science
Subject Code: PCPE-113
Paper ID: 16400
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:
1. Each question is of 10 marks.
2. Attempt any six questions out of nine
3. Any missing data may be assumed appropriately

1. Find the minimum machining cost considering the condition of optimum cutting speed in
metal cutting operations.
2. (a) Explain various tool wear mechanisms. (5)
(b) Differentiate between orthogonal and oblique cutting. (5)
3. Design a dynamometer for measurement of forces in drilling operation.
4. Explain various methods for measurement of Work-Tool interface Temperature in metal
cutting.
5. Discuss and derive the relations of various forces involved in machining process using
merchant’s theory.
6. Illustrate tool signature and various tool angles of a single point cutting tool with diagram.
7. During the straight turning of a 25mm diameter steel bar at 300 rpm with HSS tool, a tool life
of 10 min was obtained. When the same bar was turned at 250 rpm the tool life increased to
52.5 min. What will be the tool life at 275 rpm.
8. During the orthogonal cutting with a 0° - (-5°) - 3° - 7° - 10° - 60° - 2.5mm (ORS) tool, the
undeformed chip thickness and the width of cut were fixed at 1.5mm and 2.5mm
respectively, the shear strength of the work material was 450N/mm2 and rake face coefficient
of friction was 0.6. The shear angle was evaluated to be 37°. Estimate the cutting and thrust
force components.
9. Discuss the geometry of twist drill and justify the statement that a multi point cutting tool is a
combination of various single point cutting tools.

************
[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 02]
Uni. Roll No.: ………………….
Program: B.Tech.
Semester: 3rd
Name of Subject: Theory of Machines
Subject Code: PE-14304
Paper ID: 15223
Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:
1. Each question is of 10 marks. 15-07-21(E)
2. Attempt any six questions out of nine
3. Any missing data may be assumed appropriately
1. Explain the term inversion of mechanisms. Also discuss the working of elliptical trammel.
2. An open flat belt drive connects two parallel shafts 1.2m apart. The driving and the driven
shafts rotate at 350 rpm and 140 rpm respectively and the driven pulley is 400 mm in
diameter. The belt is 5mm thick and 80 mm wide. The coefficient of friction between the belt
and the pulley is 0.3 and the maximum permissible tension in the belting is 1.4MN/m2.
Determine:
a. diameter of the driving pulley
b. maximum power that may be transmitted by the belting
c. required initial belt tension
3. (a) Define Law of gearing with the help of a neat diagram (5)
(b) Explain the interference in gearing. (3)
4. In an epicyclic gear train, an arm carries two gears A and B having 36 and 45 teeth
respectively. If the arm rotates at 150 rpm in the anti-clockwise direction about the centre of
a gear A which is fixed, determine the speed of gear B? If the gear A instead of being fixed
makes 300 rpm in the clockwise direction, what will be the speed of gear B?
5. A cam is to give the following motion to a knife-edged follower:
1. outstroke during 60° of cam rotation
2. Dwell for the next 30° of cam rotation
3. Return stroke during next 60° of cam rotation
4. Dwell for the remaining 210° of cam rotation
 The stroke of the follower is 40mm and the minimum radius of the cam is 50mm. The
follower moves with uniform velocity during both the outstroke and return strokes. Draw the
profile of the cam when (a) the axis of the follower passes through the axis of the cam shaft,
and (b) the axis of the follower is offset by 20mm from the axis of the cam shaft.
6. Elaborate the advantage of acceleration and velocity diagram. Discuss any one method in
detail.
7. The turning moment diagram for a multi-cylinder engine has been drawn to a scale 1mm =
600N-m vertically and 1mm = 3° horizontally. The intercept areas between the output torque
curve and the mean resistance line, taken in order from one end, are as follows:
+52, -124, +92, -140, +85, -72 and +107mm2, when the engine is running at a speed of
600rpm. If the total fluctuation of speed is not to exceed ±1.5% of the mean, find the
necessary mass of the flywheel of radius 0.5m.
8. What is the function of dynamometer? Discuss the construction and working of prony brake
dynamometer.
9. A single plate clutch, with both sides effective, has outer and inner diameters 300mm and
200mm respectively. The maximum intensity of pressure at any point in the contact surface
is not to exceed 0.1N/m2. If the coefficient of friction is 0.3, determine the power transmitted
by a clutch at a speed 2500 rpm.

************
 [Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 3]
Univ. Roll No. …………………………….
Program/Course: B.Tech. (Semester 5th) Scheme 2014
Name of Subject: Operation Research
Subject Code: PE-14501 28-07-21(M)
Paper ID: 15447
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Max. Marks: 60
NOTE:
1) Attempt any Six questions from total nine Questions
2) All questions carry equal marks (10 Marks each)
3) Each Subpart carry equal marks (5 Marks each in case of two Subparts and 2.50 in case of four Subparts)
Q1. A car hire company has one car at each of the five depots a, b, c, d and e. A customer in each of the five towns A
B, C, D & E requires a car. The distance (in miles) between the depots (origins) and the towns (destinations) where
the customers are given in the following distance matrix.

a b c d e
A 160 130 175 190 200
B 135 120 130 160 175
C 140 110 155 170 185
D 50 50 80 80 110
E 55 35 70 80 105
How cars should be assigned to the customers so as to minimize the distance travel.

Q2. A firm has an advertising budget of Rs. 720000. It wishes to allocate this budget to two media: magazines and
televisions, so that total exposure is maximized. Each page of magazine advertising is estimated to result in 60000
exposures, whereas each spot on television is estimated to result is 120000 exposures. Each page of magazine
advertising cost Rs. 9000 and each spot on the television cost rs 12000. An additional condition that the firm has
specified is that the least two pages of the magazine advertising be used and least three spots on television.
Determine the optimal media mix for this firm.
Q3. Find the optimal Solution of problem by using Method of Penalties
Maximize Z = 2x +3y + 4z
Sub to 3x + y + 4z ≤ 600
2x + 4y + 2z ≥ 480
2x + 3y + 3z = 540
x, y, z ≥ 0
Q4. Find the Optimal Solution by using VAM & MODI Method.

1 2 1 4 5 2 30
3 3 2 1 4 3 50
4 2 5 9 6 2 75
3 1 7 3 4 6 20
20 40 30 10 50 25
Q5. Arrival Rate of telephone calls at a telephone booth are according to Poisson distribution with average time of 9
minutes between two consecutive arrivals. The length of telephone call is assumed to be exponentially distributed,
with mean 3 minutes. Determine the probability that a person arriving at booth will have to wait
Find the average queue length formed from time to time
The telephone company will install a second booth when convinced that an arrival would expect to have to wait at
least 4 minutes for the phone. Find increase in flow rate of arrivals which will justify a second booth.
What is probability that an arrival will have to wait for more than 10 minutes before the phone is free

1
 What is the probability that he will have to wait for more than 10 minutes before the phone is available and the call
is also complete
Find the fraction of a day that the phone will be in use.
Q6. a) Define Random Numbers.
b) Find the value of π using Monte Carlo Method and selecting atleast 50 random numbers
c) Find 50 random numbers by using combination method where r0 i is 0.45, a= 10, b=13 and m=15
d) Write a short note about Simulation languages
Q7. a) Define Operation Research as given by J. O. R. Society of U. K. Also Name and explain the Models and Phases
of Operation Research
b) Solve Graphically
Max Z =5X1 + 4X2
Subject to X1 - 2X2 ≤ 1
X1 + 2X2 ≥ 3
X1, X2 ≥0
Q8. A product comprised of 10 activities whose normal time and cost are given as follow:

Activity 1-2 2-3 2-4 2-5 3-5 4-5 5-6 6-7 6-8 7-8
Normal time(days) 3 3 7 9 5 0 6 4 13 10
Normal cost(Rs.) 50 5 70 120 42 0 54 67 130 166
Indirect cost is rs.9 per day.

1. Draw the network and identity the critical path.

2. What is project duration and associated cost?
3. Find out the total float associated with each activity.
Q9. a) Write the Dual of the Problem
Maximize Z = 2X1 + 5X2 + 3X3
Subject to 2X1 + 4X2 - X3 ≤ 8
-2X1 -2X2 +3X3 ≥ -7
X1 +3X2 -5X3 ≥ -2
4X1 + X2 +3X3 ≤ 4
X1, X2, X3 ≥ 0
b) Define all types of Floats
c) Find the feasible solution of the following transportation problem using North-West Corner Method
W1 W2 W3 W4 Supply
F1 14 25 45 5 6
F2 65 25 35 55 8
F3 35 3 65 15 16
Requirement 4 7 6 13

2
d) Solve the assignment problem for assigning the 4 jobs to 4 contractors
C1 C2 C3 C44 Supply
J1 15 13 14 17 1
J2 11 12 15 13 1
J3 13 12 10 11 1
J4 15 17 14 16 1
Demand 1 1 1 1

************

3
Please check that this question paper contains nine questions and one printed page within first ten minutes.

[Total No. of Questions: 09] [Total No. of Pages: 01]

Uni. Roll No. …………….
Program: B.Tech. (Production Engineering)
Semester: 5th
Name of Subject: Machining Science
Subject Code: PE-14502 22-07-21(E)
Paper ID: 15448

Time Allowed: 02 Hours Max. Marks: 60

NOTE:

1) Each question is of 10 marks.

2) Attempt any six questions out of nine.
3) Any missing data may be assumed appropriately.

Q1. (a) How machining processes are classified? Explain, also state the importance [5]
of tool geometry.
(b) Write the name of the various machining parameters used in planning. Write [5]
the importance of any two parameters for effective machining. Also explain the
meaning of optimum cutting speed.
Q2. (a) Write down the importance of tool geometry and discuss geometry of single [10]
point cutting tool.
Q3. (a) Discuss Lee and Shaffer theory in metal cutting. [5]
(b) What is tool failure? Discuss reasons for failure of cutting tool. [5]
Q4. Discuss working principle and construction of milling dynamometer. How it is [10]
different from drilling dynamometer.
Q5. (a) What are the functions of cutting fluids? [5]
(b) Discuss chip formation process in metal cutting. [5]
Q6. What do you mean by economics of machining? Explain with indicating the [10]
machining cost against different heads. What are the restrictions on cutting
conditions?
Q7. What is wear? Discuss types of tool wear in detail. [10]
Q8. What is the procedure of determination of tool life exponents? Explain with an [10]
example.
Q9. Discuss experimental method for determination of cutting temperatures. [10]

***********

Page 1 of 1
P.T.O.