OB Model exam

1. OB mostly focuses at:- C. Employee, Employer, Management

A. Individuals, Organization, Society D. Individual, Groups, Organization
B. Society, Organization, Nation
2. Who is the developer of 'Two Factors theory' of Motivation?
A. Herzberg B. Lawless, David. J.
C. A. H. Maslow D. Porter, Lyman W. and Hackman
3. _____________deals with how the social perceiver uses information to arrive at causal
explanations for events.
A. Attribution theory B. Social Perception Theory
C. Selective Perception D. social Theory
4. The ultimate source of an organization’s culture is:
A. Its founders. B. Top management.
C. Employees. D. The country in which it operates
5. Engaging in work behavior and striving hard to perform well for the primary purpose of fulfilling
one's own satisfaction, pride and happiness is called :-
A. Social Motivation B. Intrinsic Motivation
C. Extrinsic Motivation D. Esteem Motivation
6. Which of the following is a strategy of job design that increases job depth by meeting employee’s
needs for psychological growth?
A. Job rotation B. Job enrichment
C. Job enlargement D. Job engagement
7. _____________ explains how and why people react when they feel unfairly treated
A. Equity Theory B. Expectancy theory
C. Goal attain theory D. Goal setting Theory
8. Power can be defined as ________.
A. The ability to influence the behavior of others
B. The actualization of the dependency of others
C. Congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led
D. Downward influence on one's followers.
9. When your superior offers you a raise if you will perform additional work beyond the
requirements of your job, he/she is exercising ________ power.

A. Legitimate B. Coercive
C. Reward D. Reflective
10. Legitimate power is based on ________.
A. Positive rewards B. Interpersonal trust
C. Structural position D. Expert knowledge
11. ________ Power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal
traits.
A. Associational B. Legitimate
C. Referent D. Personal
12. Your physician has advised you to take a series of medications. You comply because of her
________ power.
A. Referent B. Information

Page 1
 C. Legitimate D. Expert
13. ____________the belief that all conflict is harmful and must be avoided.
A. Traditional View of Conflict B. Human relations view conflict
C. Integrationist view conflict D. Human rights
14. Which of the following is not nature of conflict in organization?
A. Conflict is Inevitable B. Conflict is uni- dimensional
C. Everyone is impose with Conflict D. Conflict is a Normal Part of Life
15. ___________Conflict over how work gets done.
A. Task Conflict B. Relationship Conflict
C. Process Conflict D. Goal conflict
16. Which of the following is not wrong about conflict?
A. Intra-group conflict refers to a conflict that occurs between two or more groups unlike of
inter-group conflict.
B. Inter-Organizational Conflict occurring within an organization unlike of Intra-Organizational
Conflict.
C. Horizontal Conflict occurs between two functional groups at the same hierarchical level.
D. Intrapersonal conflict refers to a conflict occur between two individuals due to difference in
opinion.
17. Which of the following best describes conflict management strategies?
A. Competition ─ appropriate when you realize you are wrong.
B. Collaborating: Both parties’ concerns are not important to be compromised.
C. Accommodating- Working against the wishes of the other party.
D. Avoiding ─ Down playing disagreement.
18. All are Physiological Symptoms of stress for the Individual, except:
A. Anxiety B. Physical changes
C. Depression D. Absenteeism and turnover
19. Organizational approach of Stress management include all of the following ,except:
A. Providing Skills Training. B. Physical exercise
C. Managers should pay more attention in the selection and placement process
D. Facilitating Company-Sponsored Counseling Programs
20. “Girls are not good at sports” is an example of :-
A. Perception B. Halo effect
C. Stereotyping D. Individual Personality
21. _____________are the understandings of how objects and ideas relate to each other.
A. Values B. Assumptions C. Beliefs
D. Ethics
22. Characteristics of Culture involves all of the following, except :-
A. Attention to general B. Outcome orientation
C. Aggressiveness D. Innovation and risk-taking
23. One of the following is different from the others?
A. Coercive power B. Reward power
C. Referent power D. Legitimate power
24. ___________refers the combination of characteristics or qualities that form an individual’s
distinctive character.

Page 2
 A. Personality B. Motivation
C. Attitude D. Behavior
25. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs,
we are using the shortcut called:
A. Grouping B. Stereotyping
C. Categorizing D. Contrasting
26. If you are outgoing, talkative & social, accordingly which Personality Trait as per big 5
personality trait best describes you?
A. Friendly B. Openness to experience.
C. Extroversion D. Introversion
27. Which of the following best explains why an employee behaves as she/he does?
A. The environment is the most important consideration in understanding individual
employee behavior.
B. Both the environment and individual differences are important considerations in
understanding individual employee behavior.
C. Neither the environment nor individual differences are important considerations in
understanding individual employee behavior.
D. Employee personality and attitudes are primarily dictated by the environment.
28. More Centralization preferable when:-
A. Lower-level managers are not as capable or experienced at making decisions as upper
level managers.
B. Environment is complex, uncertain.
C. Company is geographically dispersed.
D. Decisions are relatively minor.
29. Organization structures:-
A. affect group behavior more than individual behavior
B. change rapidly to meet environmental and market changes
C. contribute positively to organizational performance
D. can be defined simply as activities that occur regularly
30. Disadvantage of network organizational structure is :
A. Visualizes the complex web of onsite and offsite relationships in companies
B. Allows companies to be more flexible and agile
C. Give more power to all employees to collaborate, take initiative, and make decisions
D. Can quickly become overly complex when dealing with lots of offsite processes
31. If modern day managers do not positively address and manage work force diversity of the
following may become negative outcomes for an organization except:-
A. more difficult communication
B. Increased creativity and innovation
C. more interpersonal conflicts
D. potential for higher employee turnover
32. Work specialization answer
A. To what degree are articles subdivided into separate jobs?
B. On what basis will jobs be grouped together?
C. To whom do individuals and groups report?
D. To what degree will there be rules and regulations to direct employees and managers?

Page 3
33. The attitude based on Feelings, sentiments and emotions of any person is under
____________ component of Attitude.
A. Behavioral B. Cognitive
C. Affective D. Positive
34. An individual’s personality is determined by all the following except:
A. Environment. B. Heredity.
C. Situational factors. D. Perceptual process.
35. A strong organizational culture increases behavioral consistency and, therefore, can act as
a substitute for:

A. Followership.
B. Socialization.
C. Institutionalization.
D. Formalization.
BIDSS MODEL EXAM
36. A Decision Support System (DSS) is an application for information systems that helps in
___

A. System Design C. Decision making

B. System Analysis D. All of the mentioned above

37. DSS is most widely used in the ___, analysis in an organization.

A. Planning C. System maintenance

B. Support D. All of the mentioned above

38. A decision support system differs from an ordinary ___

A. Operating System C. Operational Application

B. Transaction Process System D. None of the mentioned above

39. Which of the following is / are some of the main areas of operation of DSS.

A. Transaction processing C. Executive Support System

B. Production, finance, and marketing D. None of the mentioned above

40. Which of the following is / are the components of a Decision Support System.

A. Knowledge Base C. User Interface

B. Model Management System D. All of these

Page 4
41. What is a database?
A. Organized collection of information that cannot be accessed, updated, and managed
B. Collection of data or information without organizing
C. Organized collection of data or information that can be accessed, updated, and
managed
D. Organized collection of data that cannot be updated
42. ______are items that are used by the various processes in the system to achieve the
overall goal of the system.

A. Inputs C. Process
B. Outputs D. All

43. From information quality dimension which one is used to show the extent to which
information is available in time to perform the task at hand?

A. Security C. Free of Error

B. Understandability D. Timelessness

44. TCP is an acronym for

A. Transmission control protocol C. Transmission calling protocol

B. Transit control protocol D. None of the above

45. Which of the following is generally used for performing tasks like creating the structure
of the relations, deleting relation?

A. Data Manipulation Language B. Query

C. Relational Schema D. Data Definition Language

46. HTTP stands for

A. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol C. Higher Text Transfer Process

B. Hyper Text Transfer Process D. None of the above

47. Every resource available on the web has an address that may be encoded by a

A. URL B. HTTP

Page 5
 C. BOTH A&B D. None of the above

48. From the following one is a computerized system that gathers and analyzes data,
synthesizing it to produce comprehensive information reports.

A. A computer-based information B. Information system

system

C. Information technology D. Decision Support System

49. From information quality dimension which one is used to show the extent to which data is
regarded as true and credible?

A. Completeness C. Believability
B. Appropriate D. Relevancy

50. A Database Management System is a type of _________software.

A. System software B. Application software

C. General software D. Both A and C

51. ___ is a computer application used to support determinations, decisions, and courses of
action in an organization or a business.

A. Decision Support System B. Transaction Process System

C. Executive Support System

D. None of the mentioned above

COST AND MANGERIAL ACCOUNTING MODEL EXAM

52. Which is the mostly likely purpose of budgeting?

A. Planning and control of an organization’s income and expenditure
B. Assess the non-financial performance of an organization
C. Preparation of a five-year D. Company valuation
business plan
53. Calculate the production budget from the following data: sales 89,350 units; opening
inventory 23,864 units; closing inventory 33,156 units.
A. 80,058 units B. 98,642 units

Page 6
 C. 146,370 units D. 32,330 units
54. What is meant by an incremental budget?
A. A budget that is based on the previous year, adjusted for known changes
B. The variable elements of a budget, excluding fixed cost
C. A budget prepared from first principles
D. A budget that breaks even
55. A master budget consists of
A. Individual budgets made for short-term goals
B. Emphasis is put on cash resources for capital planning
C. Interrelated budgets for an action plan for a specific time period
D. Focuses on review of progress towards long-term goals
56. L Company produces hand tools. For March, budgeted sales are 12,000 units, beginning
finished goods inventory will be 1,200 units, and ending finished goods inventory will be
1,400 units. March production will be?
A. 10,900 C. 12,200
B. 11,800 D. 14,600

57. J Company produces hand tools. Budgeted sales will be: March 12,000 units, April
14,000, May 16,000 and June 19,000. Ending finished goods inventory policy is 10% of
the following month's sales. March 1 inventory is projected to be 1,500 units. How many
units will be produced in March?

A. 11,900 C. 13,000
B. 12,200 D. 14,800

58. S Company has forecast sales to be $120,000 in February, $145,000 in March, $170,000
in April, and $180,000 in May. All sales are on made on credit and sales are collected
60% in the month of sale, and 40% the month following. What are budgeted cash receipts
in March?
A. $131,000 C. $94,500
B. $135,000 D. $91,700

59. N Company is preparing a cash budget for June. The company has $12,000 cash at the
beginning of June and anticipates $30,000 in cash receipts and $34,500 in cash
disbursements during June. Northern Company has an agreement with its bank to

Page 7
 maintain a cash balance of at least $10,000. To maintain the $10,000 required balance,
during June the company must:

A. Borrow $2,500 C. Borrow $7,500

B. Borrow $4,500 D. Borrow $10,000

60. Which budget is the first step of budgetary system and all other budget depends on it?

A. Master budget C. Sales budget

B. Cash collection budget D. Production budget

61. Which of the following statements is true under the Standard Costing System?
A. Standard cost is a predetermined or estimated cost to either produce a good/service
or perform an activity within the organization
B. Standard cost is a control technique that helps to report variances by comparing pre-
set standards to actual costs to facilitate action
C. Both a and b are incorrect
D. Both a and b are correct
62. The difference between the actual price and the standard price, multiplied by the actual
quantity of materials purchased is the
A. direct materials price variance C. direct labor quantity variance
B. direct labor price variance D. direct materials quantity variance
63. Which one of the following best describes the margin of safety?
A. Fixed costs/ (Sales revenue per unit – variable costs per unit)
B. The extent to which the total sales revenue exceeds the total variable costs
C. The extent to which the total sales revenue exceeds the total fixed and variable costs
D. The extent to which the total sales revenue exceeds the total fixed costs
64. An unfavorable variance indicates that ________.
A. The actual costs are less than the budgeted costs
B. The actual revenues exceed the budgeted revenues
C. The actual units sold are less than the budgeted units
D. the budgeted contribution margin is more than the actual amount
65. Which of the following is not an "operating" budget?

A. Sales budget C. Purchase budget

B. Production budget D. Capital budget

Page 8
66. The master budget is a
A. Flexible budget B. Static budget
C. Qualitative expression of a prior D. Qualitative expression of a future goal
goal

67. At the breakeven point :

A. Profit is 0.
B. Fixed Cost + Variable Cost = Sales
C. Fixed Cost = Contribution Margin
D. All are true
68. Contribution margin ratio is:
A. Total Contribution Margin / Sales
B. Sales / Contribution Margin per unit
C. Fixed cost / Contribution margin per unit
D. Sales / Variable costs.
69. Which of the following represents the CVP equation?
A. Sales = CM + FC + Profits
B. Sales = CM ratio + FFC + Profits
C. Sales = VC- FC + Profits
D. Sales = VC + FC + Profits
70. Which type of incurred costs are not relevant in decision-making (i.e., they have no
bearing on future events) and should be excluded in decision-making?
A. Avoidable costs
B. Unavoidable costs
C. Sunk costs
D. Differential costs
71. ABC Company sells shoes for $450. The variable cost is $200 per unit. The fixed costs
are $750,000. What is the breakeven in sales dollars?
A. 750,000 C. 1,350,000
B. 937,500 D. 1,687,500

Advanced Data base II Model Exam

Page 9
72. When the primary key is null of the new tuple then the constraint violated is
A. null integrity constraint C. primary integrity constraint
B. secondary integrity constraint D. entity integrity constraint
73. In formal relational model, the set of indivisible values is called
A. Range B. Domain C. Relation D. tuple
74. In relational model terminology, the table is considered as
A. Range B. Domain C. Relation D. tuple
75. The key which specifies that two different tuples cannot have the same value is classified
as
A. Super key B. Simple key C. Parallel key D. Conceptual key
76. In categories of data modeling, the low level data models are also called
A. Conceptual data models C. Physical data models
B. Triggered data models D. Logical data models
77. The detailed description on entity constraints, entity relationships and entity types is
expressed in
A. low level schema design B. physical design C. conceptual design D. logical
design
78. The concepts of data models that are only useful to computer specialists rather than end
users of programs are classified as
A. Triggered data models C. Logical data models
B. Conceptual data models D. physical data models
79. The constraint violated when key value in tuple already exists in some other relation's
tuple is called
A. domain constraint B. attribute constraint C. key constraint D. lock
constraint
80. The inclusion dependencies that are preceding are used to represent
A. Algorithmic constraint C. Trivial constraint
B. Referential integrity constraint D. decomposition constraint
81. The type of diagram in which the operations are specified on objects is considered as
A. Functional diagrams B. class diagrams C. attribute diagrams D. entity
diagrams
82. The attributes that can be arranged into hierarchy are called
A. Composite attributes B. Atomic attributes C. Derived attributes D. Simple
attributes
Page 10
83. The attributes which have only one value for a specific entity are called
A. Multi-valued attributes C. single valued
attributes
B. Atomic attributes D. diatomic attributes
84. The phase in data designing in which the access paths and database indexes are specified
is classified as
A. Structural design C. physical design of database
B. Data model mapping D. logical design
85. The kind of constraint which cannot let two entities to have similar values is classified as
A. derived constraints C. composite value
constraint
B. uniqueness constraint D. multi valued constraint
86. The first step in designing high level conceptual data model is
A. logical design analysis C. conceptual design analysis
B. functional requirement analysis D. requirement analysis

87. If in the JOIN operation, the conditions of JOIN operation are not satisfied then the
results of the operation is
A. zero tuples and empty relation C. one tuple from one
relation
B. zero tuples from two relation D. two tuples from empty relations

88. Because of the calculus expression, the relational calculus is considered as

A. procedural language C. non procedural
language
B. structural language D.functional language
89. Which of the following is not correct about select clause?
A. Lists the attributes desired in the result of a query C. SQL names are case
sensitive
B. It allows the user to extract data from tables, based on specific criteria. D. None
90. Which one of the following can force the elimination of duplicates in select clause?
A. select *from student C. select distinct dept_name from student
B. selectdept_name from student D. select all dept_name from student
91. Select the incorrect rule statement from the given patterns.
Page 11
 A. ‘%AUWC%’ matches any string containing “AUWC” as a substring.
B. ‘_ _ _’ matches any string of exactly three characters.
C. ‘BAIS%’ matches any string ending with “BAIS”.
D. ‘_ _ _ %’ matches any string of at least three characters.

92. Among which one of the following can list in alphabetic order the names of all students
only.
A. select name from student order by name C. select namefrom student by name
B. select namefrom order student by name D. select namefrom orderby name
93. Temporal data types can support
A. Date B. time C.Date-Time Combinations D. All
94. Write a SQL query to find the names of employees that begin with ‘A’?
A. SELECT * FROM Table_name WHERE EmpName like ‘A%’
B. SELECT * FROM Table_name WHERE EmpName like ‘%A%’
C. SELECT * FROM Table_name WHERE EmpName like ‘%A’ D. All
95. Used to delete all the rows of a table easily once and quickly.
A. Truncate statement B. select C. update D. insert
96. Which of the following is not true about relational data model?

A. Each tuple in a relation must be unique and each column has a distinct name.
B. Each cell of a relation contains exactly one atomic value.
C. The values of an attribute are all from the same domain.
D. A table is either a BASE TABLES (Unnamed Relations) or VIEWS (Named
Relations)
97. Which one of the following is not true about naming ER diagram?
A. Nouns  prospective entities
B. Adjectivesprospective attributes
C. Verbs/verb phrases prospective relationships
D. Adjectives prospective entities
98. Which one of the following is not true about ER diagram?
A. Derived attributes are denoted by dotted line
B. Multivalued attributes are denoted by double oval
C. Weak Relationship are denoted by single diamond
D. Primary key are denoted by underlined attributes

Page 12
99. Which one of the following is not true about Participation of an Entity Set in a
Relationship?
A. In partial participation, every tuple in the entity or relation participates in at least
one relationship by taking a role.
B. In total participation entity is connected to the relationship using a double line.
C. In Partial participation, some tuple in the entity may not participate in the
relationship.
D. All
100. If all subclasses in a specialization has no condition determines membership, the
subclass is called
A. User-defined B. predicate-defined C. condition-defined D. attribute-
defined
101. In strict Two-phase Locking, each transaction must obtain a S (shared) lock on object
before ______, and an X (exclusive) lock on object before_______ respectively.
A. Reading and writing B. Reaading and reading C. writing and writing D.
All
102. Which one of the following is represent the aggregate function that find the average
salary of instructors in the civil department?
A. select avg(salary)from instructorwhere dept_name= ’Civil’;
B. select salary(avg)from instructorwhere dept_name= ’Civil’;
C. select avgfrom instructorwhere dept_name= ’salary’;
D. select avg(salary) from instructor

Page 13