CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION 2

1. What is the original meaning of the word "parole"?

A. Honor code
B. Release from prison
C. Promise
D. Conditional freedom

2. Which act initially established the parole system?

A. Act No. 4103
B. Act No. 4225
C. Republic Act No. 4203
D. Executive Order 83

3. What was the purpose of Executive Order 83 in the context of the parole system?
A. It abolished the parole system
B. It designated BIS to act as BP
C. It created the Board of Pardons and Parole (BPP)
D. It reformed the sentencing laws

4. What significant change was brought about by Act No. 4225, Republic Act No. 4203, and their amendments
to Act No. 4103?
A. Abolition of the parole system
B. Creation of a new correctional institution
C. Establishment of the Indeterminate Sentence Law and the Parole Law, and creation of the Board of
Pardons and Parole (BPP)
D. Implementation of solitary confinement practices

5. Who serves as the Chairman of the Board of Pardons and Parole?

A. President of the Philippines
B. Secretary of Justice (SOJ)
C. Chief of Police
D. Administrator of PPA

6. Which of the following is a requirement for the composition of the Board of Pardons and Parole?
A. All members must be lawyers
B. At least one member must be a woman
C. All members must have a background in law enforcement
D. The Chairman must be a former judge

7. Who appoints the members of the Board of Pardons and Parole?

A. The Secretary of Justice
B. The President of the Philippines upon the recommendation of the Secretary of Justice
C. The Senate
D. The Chief Justice

8. Which of the following crimes disqualifies a person from being considered for parole by the Board of
Pardons and Parole?
A) Theft
B) Espionage
C) Fraud
 D) Embezzlement

9. What is the primary intent of the law creating the Board of Pardons and Parole?
A) To impose stricter penalties on criminals
B) To uplift and redeem vSaluable human material to economic usefulness and prevent unnecessary
and excessive deprivation of personal liberty
C) To increase the number of inmates in correctional facilities
D) To provide legal representation to all prisoners

10. Which of the following is a disqualification for availing parole?

A) First-time offenders
B) Those suffering from a mental disorder
C) Prisoners with a good behavior record
D) Those who have served their minimum sentence

11. What is one of the qualifications for a prisoner to be eligible for parole?
A) Conviction is under appeal
B) Serving a sentence of less than one year
C) Maximum term exceeds one year
D) Serving in a provincial jail without good faith
12. Which special consideration can be a factor for granting parole or conditional pardon?
A) The inmate is below 60 years of age when the crime was committed
B) Good behavior
C) Serious illness certified by a government physician
D) Previous parole violations

13. Which of the following prisoners is disqualified from availing parole?

A) Prisoners serving a sentence in a national penitentiary
B) Habitual delinquents
C) Prisoners with no pending criminal cases
D) Prisoners who committed crimes under extraordinary circumstances

14. What is a necessary qualification for a prisoner to be considered for parole?

A) Having a pending criminal case
B) Serving the minimum portion of the sentence
C) Serving in a municipal jail without good faith
D) Being a habitual delinquent

15. What is one of the initial steps in the parole review process?
A) Immediate release of the prisoner
B) Public protest against the parole
C) Review upon petition or motu proprio
D) Transfer of the prisoner to a different facility

16. Which prisoners’ names must be published in a newspaper of general circulation when considered for
parole?
A. All prisoners eligible for parole
B. Those convicted of heinous crimes or sentenced to reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment
C. Only those prisoners serving less than a year
D. Prisoners with good behavior records

17. What must be done at least one month prior to the review of a prisoner’s case for parole?
 A. The prisoner must be transferred to another facility
B. The Director or Warden must transmit the Carpeta and prison record
C. The prisoner must be released on temporary leave
D. The prisoner’s name must be changed

18. Which of the following is a ground for denying parole?

A. The prisoner has completed a training program
B. There is clear and convincing evidence that the release will endanger the life or safety of the prisoner
or others
C. The prisoner has a pending appeal
D. The prisoner has served the minimum portion of the sentence

19. What is one of the criteria for granting parole to a prisoner?

A. The prisoner has a pending criminal case
B. The prisoner is incompatible with the welfare of society
C. There is a reasonable probability that the prisoner will live and remain at liberty without violating
the law
D. The prisoner has a history of escape attempts

20. What type of report is submitted when a parolee commits another offense during the period of his parole
supervision?
A. Summary Report
B. Infraction Report
C. Progress Report
D. Violation Report

21. Which report is filed if a parolee violates the terms and conditions of his Release Document?
A. Summary Report
B. Progress Report
C. Infraction Report
D. Violation Report

22. Who must approve and confirm a parolee’s transfer of residence?

A. Chief Probation and Parole Officer (C/PPO)
B. Parole and Probation Administration (PPA) Admin
C. Regional Director (RD) and Board of Pardons and Parole (BPP)
D. Director of Corrections

23. Who can authorize a parolee to travel outside his area of operational jurisdiction for not more than 30 days?
A) Regional Director
B) Chief Probation and Parole Officer (C/PPO)
C) PPA Admin
D) BPP

24. What is required for a parolee to travel or work abroad?

A) Approval by the Regional Director
B) Confirmation by the Chief Probation and Parole Officer
C) Approval by the PPA Admin and confirmation by the BPP
D) Consent from the local government

25. What document is issued to a parolee who has substantially complied with all the conditions of his Release
Document?
 A) Progress Report
B) Violation Report
C) Certificate of Final Release and Discharge
D) Infraction Report

26. What happens to a parolee upon the issuance of a Certificate of Final Release and Discharge?
A) The parolee is transferred to another facility
B) The parolee must continue to check in with the Probation and Parole Officer
C) The parolee is finally released and discharged from the conditions of his release document
D) The parolee is given a new sentence

27. What should the Probation and Parole Officer do if a client dies during supervision?
A) Wait for the official court order
B) Immediately transmit a certified true copy of the client’s death certificate to the Board
C) Continue the supervision process
D) Notify the local police department

28. What can suffice as documentation of a client’s death if a death certificate is not available?
A) A report from a local newspaper
B) A letter from the client’s employer
C) An affidavit narrating the circumstances of the fact of death from the barangay chairman or any
authorized officer or any immediate relative where the client resided
D) A statement from a fellow parolee

29. Who recommends the issuance of the Certificate of Final Release and Discharge to the Board?
A) The parolee
B) The Chief Probation and Parole Officer
C) The Regional Director
D) The PPA Admin

30. What does Executive Clemency refer to?

A. Rehabilitation programs for parolees
B. Absolute/Conditional pardon, Commutation of Sentence, and Reprieve
C. Legal assistance for incarcerated individuals
D. Health care provisions for prisoners

31. During which week is Probation and Parole Week observed annually in the country?
A. First week of January
B. Last week of December
C. Third week of July
D. Second week of August

32. For which type of cases can the president not grant Pardons, Commutations, and Amnesty?
A. Impeachment cases
B. Civil lawsuits
C. Minor offenses
D. Corporate fraud cases

33. Which of the following is a reason the Board may recommend executive clemency to the President?
A. The penalty imposed is disproportionate to the crime committed.
B. The inmate committed multiple felonies.
C. The inmate has shown no signs of rehabilitation.
 D. The inmate has a pending criminal case.

34. Which age group qualifies an inmate for executive clemency due to age-related health concerns, as per the
guidelines?
A. Inmates over 65 years of age
B. Inmates over 70 years of age
C. Inmates over 75 years of age
D. Inmates over 80 years of age

35. What condition must be met for an inmate suffering from a severe illness or disability to be considered for
executive clemency?
A. Recommendation from any physician
B. Certification by a private sector physician
C. Recommended by a Bureau of Corrections Hospital physician and certified by a Department of
Health physician
D. Self-reported medical condition

36. Under which circumstance might diplomatic considerations lead to a recommendation for executive
clemency?
A. When the inmate is a high-profile political figure
B. When the inmate has served half of their sentence
C. When the inmate is an alien and international relations require it
D. When the inmate has demonstrated good behavior

37. Which factor is NOT considered when evaluating a prisoner’s eligibility to apply for executive clemency?
A. The prisoner has been sentenced to another term within one year of last recommitment.
B. The prisoner has violated conditions of discharge or parole.
C. The prisoner is actively involved in educational programs within the facility.
D. The prisoner is suffering from a mental illness or disorder certified by a government psychiatrist.

38. What is the primary purpose of a pardon issued by the President?

A. To reduce the length of a prison sentence
B. To exempt an individual from the punishment prescribed by law
C. To restore the individual’s personal properties
D. To grant a new trial

39. What rights are NOT automatically restored by a pardon?

A. The right to hold public office
B. Full civil and political rights
C. The right to vote
D. Both A and C are correct

40. What type of pardon involves specific conditions that the recipient must adhere to?
A. Absolute pardon
B. Conditional pardon
C. General pardon
D. Special pardon

41. Under which circumstance is the privilege of pardon not available according to the Constitution?
A. After the final judgment of conviction
B. Before a final judgment is reached
C. During the appeal process
 D. Both B and C are correct

42. When can a pardon not be exercised according to the constitutional limitations provided?
A. After a final judgment of conviction
B. During the pendency of a case, trial, or appeal
C. After serving the complete sentence
D. Once a prisoner completes parole

43. Who is ineligible for executive clemency for one year?

A. Those convicted of tax law violations
B. Those who have escaped or evaded serving their sentence
C. Those who have committed legislative contempt
D. Those involved in cases of impeachment

44. What is the difference between an absolute pardon and a conditional pardon?
A. An absolute pardon is given before final judgment, a conditional pardon after
B. An absolute pardon has conditions attached, whereas a conditional pardon does not
C. An absolute pardon comes without conditions, whereas a conditional pardon has specific conditions
D. There is no difference; both terms mean the same thing

45. Under what circumstances can the revocation of conditional pardon by the President be reviewed by the
court?
A. Always, as the courts have the authority to review any presidential decision
B. Only if the pardonee requests a review
C. No, the determination of violation of conditional pardon rests exclusively with the Chief Executive
D. Only if there is evidence of corruption or bias in the decision-making process

46. According to the Supreme Court in Monsanto v. Factoran, what is clarified about the effect of a pardon on
public office eligibility?
A. Pardon automatically restores a convicted felon to public office
B. Pardon does not restore a convicted felon to public office forfeited by reason of conviction
C. Pardon guarantees immediate reinstatement to any previously held public office
D. Pardon requires a separate judicial review for reinstatement to public office

47. Which of the following crimes is explicitly excluded from amnesty according to Proclamation No. 75?
A. Treason
B. Sedition
C. Rape
D. Theft

48. What condition must applicants meet to be eligible for amnesty according to Proclamation No. 75?
A. Admission of participation and guilt, and consistency with previous statements
B. Admission of participation and guilt, and recantation of previous statements inconsistent with
admission
C. Denial of participation in the crime
D. Public apology to the victims

49. What is the minimum requirement for commutation of sentence for crimes committed before January 1,
1994, under the Revised Rules and Regulations of the Board of Pardons and Parole?
A. Served at least one-half of the sentence
B. Served at least one-third of the sentence
C. Served at least ten years of the sentence
 D. Served at least fifteen years of the sentence

50. What is the final step in the process of granting amnesty?

A. Submitting a petition to the Office of the President
B. Proclamation by Congress followed by issuance by the President
C. Signing an oath of allegiance to the government
D. Seeking approval from the judiciary