800 MCQ For Medical

Radiographer

Prepared By

Husam Hassan Mansour

July, 2017
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 Part I

300 MCQ

1. Radiation Physics

2. Radiography

3. Radiation Protection

4. Radiobiology

5. Quality Control

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1. In what year were x-ray discovered?
A. 1892
B. 1895
C. 1898
D. 1901

2. X- radiation is part of the-------------------------- spectrum

A. Radiation
B. Energy
C. Atomic
D. Electromagnetic

3. The x-rays have

A. No mass
B. The same mass as electrons
C. The same mass as protons
D. The same mass as neutrons

4. Electrons interact with the-----------------------------to produce x-rays

A. Focusing cup
B. Filament
C. Stator
D. Target

5. Imaging the movement of internal structures is known as

A. Attenuation
B. Photoemission
C. Absorption
D. Fluoroscopy

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6. The x-ray interaction responsible for absorption is
A. Differential
B. Photoelectric
C. Attenuation
D. Compton

7. Silver halide crystals are found in the films

A. Base
B. Supercoat
C. Emulsion
D. Anticurl layer

8. Decreasing the developer temperature

A. Decreases oxidation
B. Increases contrast
C. Decreases density
D. Increases processing time

9. Safelight filters are chosen based on the

A. Amount of light intensity
B. Dimensions of the darkroom
C. Film sensitivity
D. Power rating

10. The purpose of using Automatic Exposure Control Device (AECD) with
film-screen imaging is to control
A. Kvp
B. mA
C. Density
D. Contrast

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11. Poor film-screen contact results in a loss of
A. Density
B. Contrast
C. Recorded detail
D. Speed

12. The purpose of intensifying screens is to

A. Increase radiographic density
B. Increase recorded detail
C. Decrease recorded detail
D. Decrease patient dose

13. Which one of the following increases as collimation increases?

A. Density
B. Scatter production
C. Fog
D. Contrast

14. Shape distortion can be created by

A. Angling the CR
B. Decreasing the SID
C. Increasing the focal spot size
D. Increasing the OID

15. Which the following defines attenuation?

A. Absorption and scattering
B. Absorption only
C. Scatter only
D. Compton electrons

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16. X-rays have a dual nature, which means that they behave like both
A. Atoms and molecules
B. Photons and quanta
C. Waves and particles
D. Charged and uncharged particles

17. The wavelength and frequency of x-ray are ----------------- related.

A. Directly
B. Inversely
C. Partially
D. Not

18. X-rays have a (n) -------------------------- electrical charged.

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Alternately positive and negative
D. No charge

19. The x-ray beam used in diagnostic radiography can be described as being
A. Homogeneous
B. Monoenergetic
C. Polyenergetic
D. Scattered

20. X-ray were discovered when they caused a barium paltinocyanide plate to
A. Fluoresce
B. Phosphorece
C. Vibrate
D. Burn and redden

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21. X-ray were discovered in experiments dealing with electricity and
A. Ionization
B. Magnetism
C. Atomic structures
D. Vacuum tubes

22. Which x-ray tube component serves as a source of electrons for x-ray
production?
A. Focusing cup
B. Filament
C. Stator
D. Target

23. The burning or boiling off electrons at the cathode is referred to as

A. Thermionic emission
B. Space charge
C. Tube current
D. Cloud emission

24. The unit used to express tube current is

A. Milliampere(mA)
B. Milliamperage second (mAs)
C. Kilo voltage (kvp)
D. Exposure time(s)

25. Which primary exposure factor influences both the quantity and quality of x-
ray photons?
A. Milliampere (mA)
B. Milliamperage second (mAs)
C. Kilovoltage (kvp)
D. Exposure time(s)

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26. What percentage of the kinetic energy is converted to heat when moving
electrons strike the anode target?
A. 1%
B. 25%
C. 59%
D. 99%

27. The intensity of the x-ray beam is greater on the

A. Cathode side of tube
B. Anode side of tube
C. Short axis of the beam
D. Long axis of the beam

28. According to the line focus principle, as the target angle decreases, the
A. Actual focal spot size decreases
B. Actual focal spot size increases
C. Effective focal spot size decreases
D. Effective focal spot size increases

29. The process whereby a radiographic image is created by passing an x-ray

beam through anatomic tissue is known as
A. Attenuation
B. Photoelectric effect
C. Compton effect
D. Differential absorption

30. The x-ray interaction responsible for scattering is

A. Differential
B. Photoelectric
C. Attenuation
D. Compton

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31. What interaction creates unwanted density known as fog?
A. Compton
B. Transmitted
C. Photoelectric
D. Absorption

32. The low – density areas on a radiographic image are created by

A. Transmitted radiation
B. Scattered radiation
C. Absorbed radiation
D. Primary radiation

33. Development and processing of an exposed film will result in a (n)

A. Manifeste image
B. Latent image
C. Invisible image
D. Inert image

34. A radiograph that needs no improvement is defined as

A. Un acceptable
B. Optimal
C. Inadequate
D. Diagnostic

35. Factors that affect the visibility of a radiographic image are known as
A. Resolution
B. Geometric
C. Densitometric
D. Photographic

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36. A radiograph that has insufficient density would best be described as
A. Overexposure
B. Overdeveloped
C. Underexposure
D. Underdeveloped

37. Which of the following is equivalent to doubling the mAs?

A. halve the film-screen speed
B. halve the OID
C. double the SID
D. increase kvp by 15%

38. What is the relation between milliamperage and exposure time to maintain
density?
A. Linear
B. Inverse
C. Proportional
D. Direct

39. A radiographic image described as having many shades of gray would be

A. Low density
B. Low contrast
C. High density
D. High contrast

40. Radiographic contrast can be increased by

A. Increasing mAs
B. Increasing kvp
C. Decreasing grid ratio
D. Adding contrast media

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41. Decreasing the OID will
A. Increase unsharpness
B. Increase distortion
C. Increase magnification
D. Increase recorded detail

42. Increasing the SID will

A. Increase unsharpness
B. Increase distortion
C. Increase magnification
D. Increase recorded detail

43. A grid should be used whenever the anatomic part size exceeds
A. 3 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 12 cm

44. The air gap technique uses an increased-------------- instead of a grid.

A. Kvp
B. mAs
C. SID
D. OID

45. The fixing agent used to clear the undeveloped silver halide crystals is
A. Aluminum chloride
B. Potassium bromide
C. Ammonium thiosulfate
D. Sodium sulfite

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46. Typically, as screen speed decreases, ------------------decreases.
A. Density
B. Recorded detail
C. Patient dose
D. X-ray exposure

47. Lethal dose of ionizing radiation for humans is usually given as:
A. LD 50/30
B. LD 50/60
C. LD 50/90
D. LD 50/120

48. Which of the following systems is most radiosensitive vital organ system in
human beings?
A. Cerebrovascular
B. Gastrointestinal
C. Hematopiotec
D. Skeletal

49. Which of the following agencies is responsible for enforcing radiation safety
standards?
A. ICRP
B. NRC
C. NCRP
D. UNSCEAR

50. Which of the following chemicals functions as the sensing material in a

thermoluminescent dosimeter?
A. Barium sulfate
B. Calcium tungstate
C. Lithium fluoride
D. Sodium iodide

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51. Quality assurance and maintenance of CR cassettes includes cleaning and
inspecting the plates at least:
A. Daily
B. Every 48 hours
C. Every 3 months
D. Weekly

52. Quality assurance and maintenance of CR cassettes includes erasing plates at

least:
A. Daily
B. Every 48 hours
C. Every 3 months
D. Weekly

53. Quality assurance of digital imaging requires the uniformity of processing

codes to ensure:
A. Image appearance consistency
B. Faster throughput
C. Less heat loading on the anode
D. Smoother integration into PACS

54. Changes in subject contrast are affected by changes in:

A. Film-screen contact
B. Tissue atomic number
C. Beam quality
D. B and C

55. A phototimed chest unit consistently produces dark PA radiographs. The

most likely reason for the change is:
A. The back-up timer is set to a short time.
B. Patient is mispositioned off the AEC ion chambers.
C. The calibration of the left/right phototimer detectors has changed.
D. The back-up timer is set for too long a time.

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56. All of the following factors cause non-uniform radiographic film density,
except:
A. Heel effect with 14” x 17” film, 11˚ anode angle, and 40”SID
B. Use of high ratio parallel grids for short SIDs
C. Inverted focused grids
D. Phototimer drift

57. The sharpness of a radiograph will decrease when:

A. Switching from a large to a small focal spot when magnification = 1.5
B. Moving the x-ray tube of a C-arm closer to the patient
C. Changing from single to three-phase using the same kVp and mA
D. Changing from a dual screen to a thin single screen system for extremity
examination

58. Which of the following steps will decrease noise in the resultant image?
A. Increasing the intensifying screen conversion efficiency
B. Increasing the film processor temperature
C. Changing the CT reconstruction algorithm from “soft tissue” to “bone”
D. Frame averaging in digital subtraction angiography

59. The following change is least likely to reduce motion unsharpness in a

radiograph:
A. Increasing the mA and maintaining the mAs
B. Decreasing the focal spot to 0.1 mm and maintaining the mAs
C. Changing to a faster screen and maintaining the image density
D. Changing to a faster film and maintaining the image density

60. The rotating anode gives:

A. Small effective focus and large heat loading capacity
B. Better controlled exposure time
C. Less soft radiation
D. Mechanical rectification

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61. In a diagnostic radiograph the process mostly responsible for differential
attenuation is:
A. Coherent scatter
B. Compton interaction
C. Photoelectric interaction
D. Pair production

62. Low contrast detectability refers to the ability of a system to distinguish (as
an example):
A. A calcified lung nodule
B. A non-calcified lung nodule
C. Between overlying and underlying tissues
D. The size of a small fracture

63. Geometric magnification can improve detection of high contrast objects. The
limit on useful magnification is:
A. Blurring due to focal spot size
B. Blurring due to removal of the grid
C. H&D curve of the image receptor
D. MTF of the image receptor

64. Methods of assessing spatial resolution of an imaging system include all of the
following except:
A. Bar patterns
B. Step wedges
C. Wire mesh pattern
D. Hold pattern

65. Which imaging system has the highest spatial resolution?

A. Direct film extremity radiograph.
B. CT.
C. Digital Angiography.
D. Screen-film radiography

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66. Regarding geometric blur, which of the following is false?
A. Inversely proportional to focal spot size
B. Directly proportional to object-film distance
C. Inversely proportional to focal spot-object distance
D. Characterized by penumbra width

67. Noise in an x-ray image is:

A. Increased by increasing the film speed in a screen-film cassette
B. Decreased by increasing the film speed in a screen-film cassette
C. Increased by decreasing the focal-spot size
D. Decreased by decreasing the focal-spot size

68. The penumbra associated with the image of an object edge placed 50 cm
above the film with an SID of 100 cm and a focal spot size of 1.0 mm is
______ mm.
A. 0.01
B. 0.1
C. 1.0
D. 10

69. Concerning linear blurring tomography, which of the following is false?

A. It uses a conventional grid
B. It yields very high contrast images for thin sections
C. It requires a higher patient x-ray exposure than a plain film
D. It requires long exposure times for thin sections

70. The output of a typical x-ray tube is increased most strongly by an increase
in:
A. The voltage across the tube (kVp)
B. The heat capacity of the target
C. The atomic number, A, of the target
D. The tube current (mA)

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71. Two filaments are found in some x-ray tubes to:
A. Function as a spare if one burns out
B. Produce higher tube currents
C. Double the number of heat units the anode can accept
D. Combine high output and small focal spot capabilties

72. The heel effect is most pronounced with ____________________.

A. Small focal spots
B. Large focal spots
C. Small anode angles
D. Large anode angles

73. The term “Kilowatt Rating” of an x-ray tube is commonly used to express:
A. The input power required by the tube
B. The maximum photon energy
C. The maximum kVp the tube will tolerate
D. The maximum product of kVp and mA times 0.001 for the shortest time

74. Off focus radiation is caused mainly by:

A. Ripple in the kVp waveform
B. Electron backscatter from the anode
C. Employing kilovolt below saturation
D. Focal spot sizes greater than 1.25 mm

75. Factors affecting film density:

A. Processing properties
B. kVp
C. mAs
D. All of the above

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76. The ratio of heat to x-rays produced in a typical diagnostic target is:
A. 1:99
B. 10:90
C. 50:50
D. 99:1

77. _______ is the effect which results in greater radiation intensity on the
cathode side than the anode side.
A. Line focus principle
B. Space charge effect
C. Gibss phenomena
D. Heel effect

78. Long-term effects of radiation exposure include:

A. Formation of cataracts
B. Cancer
C. Genetic effects
D. All above

79. The quality assurance term used to describe consistency in output intensity
from one exposure to the next is:
A. Automatic exposure control
B. Positive beam limitation
C. Linearity
D. Reproducibility

80. How does filtration affect the primary beam?

A. Filtration increases the average energy of the primary beam
B. Filtration decreases the average energy of the primary beam
C. Filtration results in an increased patient dose
D. Filtration increases the intensity of the primary beam

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81. All of the following affect patient dose, except:
A. Inherent filtration
B. Added filtration
C. Focal spot size
D. Source–image distance

82. The red sensitive film is known as

A- Orthochromatic
B- Monochromatic
C- Infra-red
D- Panchromatic

83. The most sensitive layer of the intensifying screen

A. Phosphor
B. Base
C. Reflective
D. Protective

84. The most sensitive layer of the film

A- Super coating
B- Base
C- Emulsion
D- Adhesive

85. The required equipment for Protective Device Integrity Check is (are):
A. Lead aprons
B. Gonadal
C. Thyroid shields
D. All of the above

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86. The organ most radiosensitive from radiation during radiograph the skull is:
A. The pituitary gland
B. The lenses of eyes
C. The thyroid
D. The skin

87. All of the following are characteristic of Photoelectric absorption except:

A. X-ray interacts with an inner shell electron
B. X-ray energy is slightly greater than binding energy of K or L shells
C. The incident electron absorbed all energy of x-ray
D. The result of this interaction is an exited atom

88. Tungsten used for anode metal because.

A. It has high atomic number
B. It has high melting point
C. It is a good material for absorption of heat
D. All of above

89. Radiation-induced cataracts can arise at doses as low as _____ Gy.

A. 0.2
B. 0.5
C. 2
D. 5

90. Which of the following groups of exposure factors will deliver the greatest
amount of exposure to the patient?
A. 50 mAs, 100 kV
B. 100 mAs, 90 kV
C. 200 mAs, 80 kV
D. 400 mAs, 70 kV

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91. The principal function of x-ray beam filtration is to:
A. Reduce operator dose
B. Reduce patient skin dose
C. Reduce image noise
D. Reduce scattered radiation

92. Patient dose can be decreased by using:

A. High speed film and screen combination
B. High ratio grids
C. Air-gap technique
D. All of above

93. Which of the following are included in the types of gonadal shielding?
A. Flat contact
B. Shaped (contour) contact
C. Shadow
D. All of above

94. The advantages of beam restriction include:

A. Production of less scattered radiation
B. Irradiation of less biologic material
C. Less total filtration is required
D. A and B

95. If a student radiographer who is younger than 18 years begins clinical

assignments, what is his or her annual dose limit?
A. 1rem (1 mSv)
B. 0.5 rem (5 mSv)
C. 5 rem (50 mSv)
D. 10 rem (100 mSv)

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96. How high primary radiation barriers must at least be?
A. 5 feet
B. 6 feet
C. 7 feet
D. 8 feet

97. The protective control booth from which the radiographer makes the x-ray
exposure is a:
A. Primary barrier
B. Secondary barrier
C. Useful beam barrier
D. Remnant radiation barrier

98. Which of the following is a measure of dose to biologic tissue?

A. Roentgen (C/kg)
B. Rad (Gy)
C. Rem (Sv)
D. RBE

99. The difference between the absorbed dose and the equivalent dose is
A. The absorbed dose depends on the energy of the radiation
B. The equivalent dose is more ambiguous as to biological effects
C. The equivalent dose weights the absorbed dose according to the energy and type
of radiation to account for the biological effects
D. There is no difference in practice

100. The half-value layer is the thickness of a medium that

A. Reduces the biological damage to half the value of some reference radiation
B. Attenuates half of the incident photon beam, for a particular beam energy
C. Reduces the energy of incident charged particles by a factor of 2
D. Attenuates half the incident photon beam, independent of energy

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101. The fetal exposure from a planar abdominal X-ray of a pregnant woman
would be expected to be about _____ Gy.
A. 0.3
B. 0.8
C. 1.5
D. 3

102. What is the established fetal dose-limit guideline for pregnant

radiographers during the entire gestation period?
A. 0.1 rem (1 mSv)
B. 0.5 rem (5 mSv)
C. 5.0 rem (50 mSv)
D. 10.0 rem (100 mSv)

103. Which of the following crystals are used in an optically luminescent

dosimetry system?
A. Silver bromide
B. Aluminum oxide
C. Lithium fluoride
D. Ferrous sulfate

104. In which period of development is the fetus most radiosensitive?

A. First trimester
B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester
D. Fourth trimester

105. The unit of measurement used to express occupational exposure is the:

A. Roentgen (C/kg)
B. Rad (Gray)
C. Rem (Sievert)
D. RBE

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106. The NCRP recommends an annual effective occupational dose equivalent
limit of:
A. 25 mSv (2.5 rem)
B. 50 mSv (5 rem)
C. 100 mSv (10 rem)
D. 200 mSv (20 rem)

107. Which of the following has (have) an effect on recorded detail?

A. Focal spot size
B. Screen–film contact
C. Object–image distance
D. All of above

108. A wire mesh is used to test:

A. Focal spot size
B. For screen lag
C. Film–screen contact
D. Screen speed

109. Misalignment of the tube–part–image receptor relationship results in:

A. Shape distortion
B. Size distortion
C. Magnification
D. Blur

110. Which of the following is (are) considered a geometric factor(s)

controlling recorded detail?
A. OID
B. SID
C. Screen speed
D. A and B

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111. Foreshortening may be caused by:
A. The radiographic object being placed at an angle to the image receptor
B. Insufficient distance between the focus and the image receptor
C. Very little distance between the object and the image receptor
D. A and B

112. Which of the following has an effect on distortion?

A. Source–image distance
B. Angulation of the x-ray tube
C. Angulation of the part
D. All of above

113. A radiographic image exhibiting few shades of gray between black and
white is said to possess:
A. No contrast
B. High contrast
C. Low contrast
D. Little contrast

114. What is the best way to reduce magnification distortion?

A. Use a small focal spot
B. Increase the SID
C. Decrease the OID
D. Use a slow screen–film combination

115. All of the following are related to radiographic contrast except:

A. Photon energy
B. Grid ratio
C. Object–image distance
D. Focal spot size

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116. The term used to describe image density in digital imaging is:
A. Blackening
B. Gray scale
C. Brightness
D. Resolution

117. The half-value layer is the thickness of a medium that

A. Reduces the biological damage to half the value of some reference radiation
B. Attenuates half of the incident photon beam, for a particular beam energy
C. Reduces the energy of incident charged particles by a factor of 2
D. Attenuates half the incident photon beam, independent of energy

118. Grid ratio is defined as the relationship between the height of the lead
strip and the:
A. Width of the lead strip
B. Distance between the lead strips
C. Number of lead strips per inch
D. Angle of the lead strip

119. How is source–image distance related to exposure rate and image density?
A. As SID increases, exposure rate increases and image density increases
B. As SID increases, exposure rate increases and image density decreases
C. As SID increases, exposure rate decreases and image density increases
D. As SID increases, exposure rate decreases and image density decreases

120. The effects of scattered radiation on the x-ray image include the
following:
A. It produces fog
B. It increases contrast resolution
C. It increases grid cutoff
D. All of above

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121. An increase in the kilovoltage applied to the x-ray tube increases the:
A. X-ray wavelength
B. Exposure rate
C. Patient absorption
D. All of above

122. Which of the following anatomic parts exhibits the highest subject
contrast?
A. Elbow
B. Kidney
C. Esophagus
D. Lumbar spine

123. An x-ray image that exhibits many shades of gray from white to black
may be described as having:
A. Long-scale contrast
B. Short-scale contrast
C. More density
D. Good recorded detail

124. The advantages of high-kilovoltage chest radiography include:

A. Greater exposure latitude
B. Longer scale contrast
C. Reduced patient dose
D. All of above

125. Which of the following exposure factors is used to regulate radiographic

contrast?
A. mA
B. Exposure) time
C. mAs
D. KV

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126. Which of the following contribute(s) to the radiographic contrast present
on the finished image?
A. Tissue density
B. Pathology
C. Beam restriction
D. All of above

127. The function(s) of automatic beam limitation devices include:

A. Increasing contrast resolution
B. Absorption of scattered radiation
C. Changing the quality of the x-ray beam
D. None of above

128. The sensitometric curve is used to illustrate the relationship between the:
A. Source-to-image-receptor distance and the resulting radiographic/image density
B. Exposure reaching the phosphors and the resulting fluorescence
C. Exposure given to the film and the resulting radiographic/image density
D. kV used and the resulting radiographic/image density

129. Which of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase in

exposure factors?
A. Pneumoperitoneum
B. Obstructed bowel
C. Renal colic
D. Ascites

130. The invisible latent image is converted into a visible manifest image in
the:
A. Developer
B. Stop bath
C. First half of the fixer process
D. Second half of the fixer process

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131. Poor storage or handling practices that can result in film fog include:
A. Outdated film
B. Exposure to excessive temperatures
C. Exposure to chemical fumes
D. All of above

132. The low-density areas on a radiographic image are created by:

A. Transmitted radiation
B. Scattered radiation
C. Absorbed radiation
D. Primary radiation

133. An anatomic part that transmits the incoming x-ray photon will create an
area of _______ on the radiographic image:
A. Fog
B. Low density
C. High density
D. Gray

134. A light-absorbing dye used in the screen to absorb light directed toward it
by the phosphor layer is :
A. Absorbing layer
B. Dye layer
C. Absorbing dye
D. Phosphor dye

135. Refers to the ability of phosphors to emit visible light only while exposed
to x-rays.
A. Fluoroscopy
B. Neon
C. Light-intensity
D. Fluorescence

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136. The invisible image that exists on the exposed film before it has been
chemically processed:
A. Manifest image
B. Exposed image
C. Latent image
D. Hidden image

137. The emission of light from the screen when stimulated by radiation:
A. Fluorescence
B. Luminescence
C. X-ray photon
D. Reflection

138. Occurs when screen phosphors continue to emit light after the x-ray
exposure has stopped:
A. Fluorscence
B. Luminescence
C. Emission radiation
D. Phosphorescence

139. Under what environmental conditions should radiographic film be stored

A. Temperature between 40 deg and 60 deg F and relative humidity between 4% and
60%
B. Temperature between 50 deg and 70 deg F and relative humidity between 50%
and 70%
C. Temperature between 40 deg and 60 deg F and relative humidity between 50%
and 70%
D. Temperature between 50 deg and 70 deg F and relative humidity between 40%
and 60

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140. Which of the following contributes significantly to the exposure of the
radiographer?
A. Positrons
B. Electrons
C. Compton-scattered photons
D. Compton-scattered electrons

141. What is the maximum period of time that a TLD may be worn as a
personnel dosimeter?
A. 1 hour
B. 1 week
C. 1 month
D. 3 months

142. What agency publishes radiation protection recommendations?

A. ICRP
B. NCRP
C. NRC
D. ASRT

143. Radiation safety standards assume what relationship between dose and
response?
A. Linear-threshold
B. Nonlinear-non threshold
C. Linear-non threshold
D. Nonlinear-threshold

144. Which of the following would be applicable to radiation therapy?

A. Inverse square law
B. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau
C. Reciprocity law
D. Ohm’s law

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145. During routine radiographic procedures, when a protective apron is not
being worn, the primary personnel dosimeter should be attached to the
clothing on the front of the body at:
A. Collar level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the thyroid and the
head and neck
B. Chest level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the heart and lungs
C. Hip level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the reproductive organs
D. Waist level to approximate the maximum radiation dose to the small intestine

146. Which of the following influences attenuation?

A. Effective atomic number of the absorber
B. Mass density
C. Thickness of the absorber
D. All of above

147. What does the traditional radiation unit, the roentgen, measure?
A. Equivalent does
B. Absorbed dose in biologic tissue
C. Radiation exposure in air only
D. Speed at which x-ray photons travel

148. Which of the following is the SI unit of radiation exposure?

A. C/kg
B. Gy
C. R
D. Sv

149. A fixed radiographic unit operating at 100 kVp would require:

A. 1.0-mm aluminum equivalent total filtration
B. 1.5-mm aluminum equivalent total filtration
C. 2.0-mm aluminum equivalent total filtration
D. 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent total filtration

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150. In which of the following x-ray interactions with matter is the energy of
the incident photon partially absorbed?
A. Compton
B. Photoelectric
C. Coherent
D. Pair production

151. Image acquisition, image display, and image storage are the primary
components of what system?
A. DICOM
B. CR/DR
C. PACS
D. HIS

152. Which of the following is a radiation quantity used for radiation

protection purposes that attempts to numerically specify the differences in
biologic harm that is produced by different types of radiation?
A. Absorbed dose
B. Background equivalent radiation time
C. Equivalent dose
D. Exposure

153. Leakage radiation from a diagnostic x-ray tube may not exceed:
A. 100 mrad per hour, measured at 1 m from the housing
B. 10 R per hour
C. 100 mR per hour, measured at 1 m from the housing
D. 100 R per hour, measured at 1 m from the housing

154. The typical dose for a KUB is:

A. 0.7 mSv
B. Negligible
C. 1.0 mSv
D. 2.0 mSv

33
155. A reduction in the number of primary photons in the x-ray beam through
absorption and scatter as the beam passes through the patient in its path
defines:
A. Annihilation
B. Attenuation
C. Photodisintegration
D. Radiographic fog

156. For a diagnostic radiologic examination, the selection of technical

exposure factors using an optimal kVp and mAs combination:
A. Produces an x-ray image of acceptable quality but increases patient dose
B. Produces an x-ray image of acceptable quality while minimizing patient dose
C. Produces an x-ray image of acceptable quality without affecting patient dose
D. Affects neither the quality of the completed radiographic image nor patient dose

157. The risk of an adverse biological response from mammography is

A. Unknown
B. Large
C. Small
D. Moderate

158. Which of the following interactions between x-radiation and matter does
not occur within the range of diagnostic radiology?
A. Coherent scattering
B. Compton scattering
C. Photoelectric absorption
D. Pair production

159. Gonadal shielding should be used:

A. On every examination performed
B. Whenever it does not obstruct the area of clinical interest
C. Only on children and women of childbearing age
D. Only during pregnancy

34
160. Which of the following terms describes the amount of energy per unit
mass transferred from an x-ray beam to an object in its path such as the
human body?
A. SI
B. Exposure
C. Equivalent dose
D. Absorbed dose

161. The inherent filtration in equivalent thickness of aluminum for a general

purpose x-ray tube is usually about:
A. 0.5 mm
B. 1.25 mm
C. 1.5 mm
D. 2.5 mm

162. Making a change from a 200-speed to a 400-speed film-screen system will

result in which of the following?
A. An increase in patient radiation exposure by approximately 25%
B. An decrease in patient radiation exposure by approximately 25%
C. An increase in patient radiation exposure by approximately 50%
D. An decrease in patient radiation exposure by approximately 50%

163. Which one of the following statements concerning the interaction of

photons with matter is correct?
A. The probability of the photoelectric effect decreases with the atomic number of
the absorber
B. The predominant interaction of 10 keV photons with soft tissue is the Compton
process
C. In the Compton process, the energy of the scattered photon is less than that of the
incident photon
D. Pair production occurs for photons with energies less than 1.02 MeV

35
164. The approximate minimum photon energy required to cause ionization is:
A. 10-25 eV
B. 100-250 eV
C. 1-2.5 keV
D. 10-25 keV

165. The lifetime of an OH• radical is approximately:

A. 10-15 second
B. 10-9 second
C. 10-1 second
D. 1 minute

166. In pair production, which of the following is true?

A. The incident photon is scattered with reduced energy.
B. Annihilation photons always have an energy of 0.51 MeV each.
C. A pair of orbital electrons are ejected from the atom.
D. Two positrons are emitted at 180 degrees.

167. Which of the following X-ray interactions with matter is most important
for producing high contrast diagnostic radiographs?
A. Compton process
B. Pair production
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Nuclear disintegration

168. When a live human cell is irradiated by gamma-rays, which one of the
following events may eventually cause the most of the damage to DNA.
A. Absorption of radiation energies by the chemical bonds in the DNA molecules
B. Ionization and excitation on atoms within the DNA structure
C. Ionization and excitation on atoms within the histones that bound to DNA
D. Ionization and excitation of the water molecules that surround DNA

36
169. Production of which of the following types of DNA damage is not caused
by X-rays?
A. Double-strand breaks
B. Clustered base lesions
C. Oxidized bases
D. Pyrimidine dimers

170. Concerning RBE, OER and LET, which of the following statements is
true?
A. Maximum cell killing per dose delivered occurs at an LET corresponding to
approximately 1000 keV/μm
B. RBE changes the most over the LET range of 0.1 to 10 keV/μm
C. RBE decreases with increasing LET above about 100 keV/μm
D. OER increases with LET

171. Which of the following statements concerning RBE is true? The RBE:
A. Is lower for neutrons than for protons over the therapeutic energy range
B. For high LET particles is greater for hypoxic cells than for oxygenated cells of
the same type
C. For carbon ions is diminished when delivered in several fractions rather than as
asingle dose
D. For heavy charged particles is greatest at the beginning of the particle tracks

172. Which statement concerning the linear energy transfer (LET) is correct?
A. LET is equal to the energy transferred by ionizing radiation to soft tissue per unit
mass of soft tissue.
B. LET is equal to the number of ion pairs formed per unit track length
C. Once a photon transfers all its energy to an electron, the LET is that of the
electron.
D. LET is the quotient of the average energy that a particle lost in causing ionization
to the average distance it travels between two consecutive ionizations.

37
173. All of the following are used for brachytherapy implants except:
A. Cesium-137
B. Iridium-192
C. Iodine-125
D. Iodine-131

174. Which of the following has a half-life of 30 years?

A. Cesium-137
B. Iridium-192
C. Iodine-125
D. Iodine-131

175. All of the following statements as to why larger tumors are more difficult
to control with radiotherapy than smaller tumors are true, except:
A. Larger tumors generally contain more radioresistant hypoxic cells than smaller
tumors.
B. In order to deliver a curative total dose to a large tumor, the volume of irradiated
C. adjacent normal tissue may become so large as to exceed normal tissue tolerance.
D. The fraction of rapidly proliferating cells tends to increase with size of the tumor.

176. The death of a person 30-60 days following a total body radiation dose
close to the LD50 would likely be due to damage to the:
A. Heart
B. Bone marrow
C. Central nervous system
D. Brain

177. Which of the following types of blood cells is most radio resistant?
A. Spleen-colony forming units (CFU-S)
B. Macrophages
C. Unprimed T-helper cells
D. B-cells

38
178. Which of the following statements concerning radiation-induced damage
to the eye is true?
A. The threshold X-ray dose for a radiation-induced cataract is approximately 10 Gy
B. It is often possible to distinguish a radiation-induced cataract from an age-induced
one
C. The neutron RBE for cataract formation is about 5 for low total doses
D. The tolerance dose for the production of blindness is lower than for cataract
formation

179. Directly ionizing radiation includes all of the following except:

A. Electrons
B. Positrons
C. Alpha particles
D. Neutrons

180. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning radiation effects

on the bone marrow?
A. In general, B cells are more radiosensitive than T cells
B. Following total body irradiation, thrombocytopenia is typically observed before
neutropenia
C. Lymphocyte counts do not decrease until several weeks after total body irradiation
D. Individuals suffering from the bone marrow syndrome usually die of severe
anemia

181. Which of the following statements is correct? Following acute irradiation

of the skin:
A. Epilation and the loss of sebaceous gland secretions follow similar time courses
B. The first visible reaction is moist desquamation, typically observed within 24
hours of irradiation
C. Epilation is only observed at doses much greater than those that cause the main
wave of erythema observed at about one week
D. Pigment changes are typically seen within days due to the high proliferation rate
of melanoblasts

39
182. Which of the following statements is true concerning the effects of
radiation on the gonads?
A. Older women are more sensitive to radiation-induced sterility than younger
women
B. An acute dose of 3 Gy can both destroy the gametogenic epithelium and eliminate
the production of sex hormones in adult men
C. Spermatids and spermatozoa are quite radiosensitive whereas spermatogonia are
relatively radioresistant
D. If sterility in the male is not produced within the first month after the start of
radiotherapy, it is unlikely to ever occur

183. Which of the following statements concerning irradiation of the CNS is

false?
A. Selective damage to gray matter would preclude radiation as the cause of injury
B. Demyelination and white matter necrosis are common manifestations of radiation-
induced injury to the CNS
C. Oligodendrocytes and vascular endothelial cells are considered to be the principal
target cells for radiation-induced damage to the CNS
D. Most forms of radiation injury to the CNS are characterized by distinct
pathognomonic characteristics specific to radiation-induced damage

184. Which of the following tumors are considered to be highly radiogenic?

A. Breast, thyroid, leukemia
B. Prostate, pancreas, gallbladder
C. Leukemia, brain, melanoma
D. Muscle, brain, liver

185. In children, which of the following organs is the most sensitive to the
induction of both benign and malignant tumors by X-rays?
A. Bone marrow
B. Intestine
C. Breast
D. Thyroid

41
186. The photon-tissue interaction in diagnostic radiography that results in the
total absorption of an x-ray photon and the production of contrast in the
radiographic image is:
A. Compton
B. Coherent
C. Photoelectric
D. Pair production

187. Among those who develop fatal cancers after total body irradiation,
approximately what percentage are leukemias?
A. 0.1%
B. 2%
C. 15%
D. 40%

188. Which of the following is an example of a stochastic effect of radiation:

A. Mental retardation from exposure of the fetus in utero
B. Acute radiation toxicity from high dose exposure
C. Mental retardation resulting from mutations in the sperm passed on to the
offspring
D. Development of cardiac toxicity following high dose exposure

189. Which of the following statements is true about radiation exposure of the
male and female reproductive systems?
A. The dose to induce temporary sterility in the female is 2Gy
B. The latent period for temporary sterility in the female is 1y
C. The dose for low sperm count in the male is 0.15Gy
D. The dose for permanent sterility in the female is 1.0Gy

41
190. Based on animal studies, the most radiosensitive gestational age in terms
of embryonic mortality in humans is approximately:
A. 0-1 weeks
B. 1-4 weeks
C. 4-8 weeks
D. 8-15 weeks

191. Which of the following pairs of gestational stage and linked radiation-
induced developmental defect is correct?
A. Preimplantation – congenital malformations
B. Organogenesis – prenatal death
C. Early fetal period – mental retardation
D. Late fetal period – neonatal death

192. Mental retardation as a result of radiation exposure in utero is most

likely to occur when the radiation is given at what weeks of gestation?
A. 0-4 weeks
B. 4-8 weeks
C. 8-15 weeks
D. 16-25 weeks

193. Changes in the eye have been seen at doses as low as _______ mGy.
A. 100
B. 200
C. 500
D. 1000

194. Once a pregnancy is declared, the maximum permissible dose to the fetus
is:
A. 0.005 mSv per month
B. 0.05 mSv per month
C. 0.5 mSv per month
D. 5 mSv per month

42
195. The following conditions have been reported after high-dose human
embryonic/fetal irradiation, except:
A. Microcephaly
B. Spina bifida
C. Mental deficiency
D. Cardiac abnormalities

196. What are the NCRP maximum permissible annual dose limits for the eye
and to localized skin areas for radiation workers?
A. 50 mSv to the eye and skin
B. 150 mSv to the eye and skin
C. 150 mSv to the eye and 50 mSv to the skin
D. 150 mSv to the eye and 500 mSv to the skin

197. Fluoroscopy for medical purposes causes the most significant reactions in
what organ?
A. Skin
B. Brain
C. Lungs
D. Heart

198. In which phase are cells the most radiosensitive?

A. S phase
B. M phase
C. G1 phase
D. G2 phase

199. The most commonly used biologically active molecule for PET scanning is
a fluoridinated analog of which of the following:
A. Phosphate
B. Glucose
C. Calcium
D. Albumin

43
200. The fetal exposure from a planar abdominal X-ray of a pregnant woman
would be expected to be about _____ Gy.
A. 0.3
B. 0.8
C. 1.5
D. 3

201. The entrance skin exposure for a PA chest X-ray will typically be about
______ mGy.
A. 0.004
B. 0.04
C. 0.4
D. 4.0

202. The typical dose per breast from a two-view screening mammography
(CC and MLO) using a digital mammography system is
A. 0.2 mGy.
B. 0.5 mGy.
C. 1.0 mGy.
D. 2.0 mGy.

203. The threshold dose causing prompt erythema of the skin is approximately
____ Gy.
A. 0.02
B. 0.20
C. 2
D. 20

204. The computed tomography dose index (CTDI) or organ dose measured in
the center of a head CT scan is about ______ mGy.
A. 1.0
B. 15
C. 30
D. 50
44
205. Mechanisms by which ionizing radiation damages human cells include
direct damage to DNA in the nucleus and
A. Heating.
B. Cytoplasm leakage.
C. Production of free radicals.
D. Electrical current imbalance.

206. The main interaction process of neutrons in biological matter is

A. Compton scattering.
B. coulomb interactions with orbital electrons.
C. absorption resulting in the fission of heavy nuclei.
D. scattering by hydrogen nuclei, resulting in recoil protons.

207. Which of these statements is most true regarding the FFD with tube tilts?
A. The FFD does not have to be changed for any amount of tube tilt
B. We decrease the FFD five inches for every one degree of tube tilt
C. We decrease the FFD one inch for every five degrees of tube tilt
D. We increase the FFD five inches for every one degree of tube tilt

208. The upper boundary dose that can be absorbed that carries a negligible
risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual defines:
A. Maximum permissible dose
B. ALARA
C. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau
D. Effective dose limit

209. Radiation that exits the x-ray tube from the anode is called:
A. Remnant radiation
B. Gamma radiation
C. Nonionizing radiation
D. Primary radiation

45
210. Which photon-tissue interaction produces a recoil electron and a
scattered photon in diagnostic radiography?
A. Compton
B. Coherent
C. Photoelectric
D. Pair production

211. The traditional unit of in-air exposure is the:

A. Coulombs/kilogram
B. Rem
C. Becquerel
D. Roentgen

212. The SI unit of absorbed dose is the:

A. Coulombs/kilogram
B. Gray
C. Curie
D. LET

213. For purposes of radiation protection, the x-ray beam is filtered. X-ray
tubes operating above 70 kVp must have total filtration of:
A. At least 0.25-mm aluminum equivalent
B. At least 0.25-mm lead equivalent
C. No more than 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent
D. At least 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent

214. The traditional unit of dose equivalency is the:

A. Rem
B. Gray
C. Quality factor
D. LET

46
215. The SI unit of equivalent dose and effective dose is the:
A. Rem
B. Gray
C. Quality factor
D. Sievert

216. The traditional unit of activity is the:

A. Becquerel
B. Gray
C. Quality factor
D. Curie

217. Effective dose limit is defined as the upper boundary dose that:
A. Can be absorbed annually with a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage to
the individual
B. Can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with no risk of damage
to the individual
C. Can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with no risk of somatic
or genetic damage to the individual
D. Can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with a negligible risk of
somatic or genetic damage to the individual

218. Rad multiplied by a radiation weighting factor equals:

A. Rem
B. Roentgens
C. Grays
D. No such equation is used

219. Compton interaction:

A. Produces poorer recorded detail in the radiographic image
B. Results in absorption of the incident photon
C. May produce higher contrast on the radiograph
D. May produce a gray fog on the image, lowering contrast

47
220. The amount of radiation deposited per unit length of tissue traversed by
incoming photons is called:
A. REM
B. RADS
C. LET
D. RPU

221. The radiation weighting factor for x-rays is:

A. 10
B. 1
C. 20
D. 5

222. Mutations are examples of:

A. Short-term somatic effects
B. Genetic effects
C. Acute radiation syndrome
D. Long-term somatic effects

223. Effective dose limit:

A. Is the level of radiation that an organism can receive before formation of cancer
B. Is age × 1 REM
C. Is 50 mrem per month
D. Is 5000 mrem per year for occupationally exposed individuals

224. Which of the following causes about 5% of the cellular response to

radiation?
A. Direct effect
B. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau
C. Target theory
D. Indirect effect

48
225. When radiation strikes the cytoplasm, which of the following occurs?
A. Direct effect
B. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau
C. Target theory
D. Indirect effect

226. The equivalent dose limit for the embryo-fetus is:

A. 500 mrem per year
B. 5 rem per year
C. 0.05 rem per month
D. 500 mrem during gestation

227. The effective dose limit for radiographers is:

A. 3 rem per quarter
B. 500 mrem per year
C. 5 rem per year
D. 100 mrem per month

228. The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming
infrequent exposure, is:
A. 0.5 mrem
B. 500 rem
C. 0.5 rem
D. 50 mrem

229. The cumulative occupational exposure for a 29-year-old radiographer is:

A. 29 mrem
B. 55 rem
C. 11 mrem
D. 29 rem

49
230. Film badges are generally accurate down to the level of:
A. 10 rem
B. 5 rem
C. 0.1 mrem
D. 10 mrem

231. The exposure switch on a portable x-ray machine must be attached to a

cord that is at least how many feet long?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 12
D. 2

232. Under what conditions can the radiographer be exposed to the primary
beam?
A. When performing mobile radiography, as long as the exposure is low
B. Never, under any conditions
C. When performing cross-table projections, if needed to hold the cassette in place
D. When assisting with fluoroscopy

233. The secondary protective barrier must overlap the primary protective
barrier by at least:
A. 2 inch
B. 1 inch
C. 1 foot
D. ½ inch

234. The x-ray control booth is considered a:

A. Secondary protective barrier
B. Primary protective barrier
C. Mobile barrier
D. Non barrier

51
235. The exposure switch must keep the radiographer behind the:
A. Primary protective barrier
B. Secondary protective barrier
C. X-ray tube
D. Door

236. Areas for the general public such as waiting rooms and stairways are
considered:
A. Controlled areas
B. Uncontrolled areas
C. Off-limits areas
D. Radiation areas

237. An uncontrolled area must be kept under what dose annually?

A. 0.10 rem
B. 0.50 rem
C. 500 rem
D. 5000 mrem

238. Areas occupied by persons trained in radiation safety and wearing

personnel monitoring devices
are called:
A. Controlled areas
B. Uncontrolled areas
C. Off-limits areas
D. Radiation areas

239. Which of the following takes into account the volume and types of
examinations performed in the room?
A. Use factor
B. Shielding factor
C. Volume factor
D. Workload

51
240. How is workload factor measured?
A. Half-value layer
B. Amount of time the beam is on
C. mA minutes per week
D. Average kVp per week

241. The amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular barrier is
called:
A. Use factor
B. Shielding factor
C. Occupancy
D. Workload

242. The typical dose for a thoracic spine examination is:

A. 0.75 mSv
B. 2.0 mSv
C. 1.0 mSv
D. 0.2 mSv

243. Because the x-ray tube requires DC to operate properly, what device is
required in the x-ray circuit?
A. Autotransformer
B. Step-up transformer
C. Rectifier
D. Falling load generator

244. Devices in the x-ray circuit that increase or decrease voltage are called:
A. Rectifiers
B. Generators
C. Timers
D. Transformers

52
245. The filament circuit makes use of what type of transformer?
A. Step-up
B. Autotransformer
C. Step-down
D. Falling load

246. Where is the rectifier located in the x-ray circuit?

A. Between the timer and the step-up transformer
B. Between the step-up transformer and the step-down transformer
C. Between the primary and secondary coils of the step-up transformer
D. Between the step-up transformer and the x-ray tube

247. Thermionic emission occurs at the:

A. Anode
B. Control panel
C. Rectifier
D. Cathode

248. At the time of exposure, the charge on the focusing cup is:
A. Irrelevant
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. Alternating

249. An interaction that produces heat at the anode and also produces x-rays
is called:
A. Characteristic
B. Photoelectric
C. Compton
D. Bremsstrahlung

53
250. When a quality control test for exposure reproducibility is performed,
successive exposures must be within ________ of one another.
A. 2% of SID
B. 4%
C. 10%
D. 5%

251. When a quality control test for collimator accuracy is performed, the
result must be within
________.
A. 2% of SID
B. 4%
C. 10%
D. 5%

252. The accuracy of collimation at a 72-inch SID must be:

A. ± 1.44 inches
B. ± 7.2 inches
C. ± 3.6 inches
D. ± 0.02 inch

253. When a quality control test for accuracy of kVp is performed, the result
must be within ________of the control panel setting.
A. 2% of SID
B. 4%
C. 10%
D. 4

254. The accuracy of kVp at 90 kVp must be:

A. No lower than 85 kVp and no higher than 95 kVp
B. No lower than 89 kVp and no higher than 91 kVp
C. No lower than 86 kVp and no higher than 94 kVp
D. No lower than 88 kVp and no higher than 92 kVp

54
255. The feature of the image intensifier that ensures the radiation dose
striking the input phosphor is constant is the:
A. Photocathode
B. Electron focusing lens
C. Automatic brightness control
D. Vidicon tube

256. The electronic device that may be used for many quality control tests on
x-ray equipment is the:
A. Automatic exposure control
B. Digital dosimeter
C. Penetrometer
D. Densitometer

257. The amount of darkness on a radiograph is best described as:

A. Contrast
B. Detail
C. Brightness
D. mAs

258. Distance and density are governed by what law or rule?

A. Reciprocity law
B. 15% rule
C. Inverse square law
D. Density maintenance rule

259. Unwanted markings on a radiograph are called:

A. Processing irregularities
B. Processing artifacts
C. Artifacts
D. Plus-density markings

55
260. Manual manipulation of the digital image after acquisition is referred to
as:
A. Digital coding
B. Post processing
C. Leveling
D. Archiving

261. Which of the following statements is true concerning irradiation of the

salivary glands?
A. Serous acinar cells die only by mitotic catastrophe after irradiation
B. The serous acinar cells of the parotid and submaxillary glands are considered the
target cells for radiation-induced salivary gland damage
C. Salivary dysfunction is a late radiation effect rarely observed earlier than six
months following treatment
D. Mucous cells are more radiosensitive than serous cells

262. What “language” is used by PACS?

A. DICOM
B. Base
C. HIS
D. RIS

263. Effects of radiation that become more severe at higher levels of exposure
once the threshold dose is exceeded are called:
A. Dose-response curves
B. Deterministic effects
C. Genetic effects
D. Somatic effects

56
264. Which exposure factor causes excessive image noise if set too high?
A. kVp
B. mAs
C. AEC
D. Time

265. Grid ratio is expressed as:

A. Length of the lead strips to the space between them
B. Height of the aluminum strips to the space between them
C. Height of the interspacers to the lead strips
D. Height of the lead strips to the space between them

266. What is used to reduce both patient dose and the production of scatter
radiation?
A. Grids
B. High speed class
C. Collimation
D. Filtration

267. Beam restrictors reduce the amount of scatter produced by reducing

which of the following?
A. Characteristic rays
B. Photoelectric effect
C. Compton’s interactions
D. Pair production

268. The primary type of grid used in diagnostic imaging is:

A. Crosshatch
B. Parallel
C. Rhombic
D. Focused

57
269. The accuracy of collimation at a 60-inch SID must be:
A. ± 6 inches
B. ± 3 inches
C. ± 2 inches
D. ± 1.2 inches

270. Which of the following is also known as “coherent scattering”?

A. Photoelectric interaction
B. Compton interaction
C. Classic scatter
D. Pair production

271. Which of the following results in total absorption of an incident x-ray

photon?
A. Photoelectric interaction
B. Compton interaction
C. Classic scatter
D. Pair production

272. Which of the following is the only photon-tissue interaction that does not
result in ionization?
A. Photoelectric interaction
B. Compton interaction
C. Coherent scatter
D. Pair production

273. Which of the following may result in occupational exposure for a

radiographer?
A. Photoelectric interaction
B. Compton interaction
C. Coherent scatter
D. Pair production

58
274. ALARA is an acronym for:
A. As long as reasonably achievable
B. As little as reasonably achievable
C. As long as radiologist allows
D. A radiation protection concept that encourages radiation users to keep the dose to
the patient as low as reasonably achievable

275. When a quality control test for exposure linearity is performed, adjacent
mA stations must be within ________ of one another.
A. 2% of SID
B. 4%
C. 10%
D. 5%

276. Occupational cumulative exposure = age in years × what dose?

A. 5 rem
B. 0.1 rem
C. 0.5 rem
D. 1 rem

277. 41. The annual occupational effective dose limit for stochastic effects is:
A. 5 rem
B. 0.1 rem
C. 0.5 rem
D. 0.05 rem

278. The ability of different types of radiation to produce the same biologic
response in an organism is called:
A. LET
B. WR
C. RBE
D. Doubling dose

59
279. What is the embryo or fetus equivalent dose limit for gestation?
A. 5 rem
B. 0.1 rem
C. 0.5 rem
D. 0.05 rem

280. LET and biological damage are:

A. Directly proportional
B. Indirectly proportional
C. Inversely proportional
D. Unrelated

281. Most of the damage to a cell occurs as a result of:

A. Direct effect
B. Mutations
C. Law of Bergonié and Tribondeau
D. Indirect effect

282. Cells are more radiosensitive when:

A. Fully oxygenated
B. Deoxygenated
C. Slowly dividing
D. Near the skin

283. Which of the following occurs when radiation transfers its energy to
DNA?
A. Indirect effect
B. Target theory
C. Direct effect
D. Mutations

61
284. What occurs when radiation transfers its energy to the cellular
cytoplasm?
A. Indirect effect
B. Target theory
C. Direct effect
D. Doubling dose

285. Which of the following induces radiolysis?

A. Indirect effect
B. Target theory
C. Direct effect
D. Doubling dose

286. Which of the following is responsible for producing free radicals?

A. Indirect effect
B. Target theory
C. Direct effect
D. Doubling dose

287. Blood count can be depressed with a whole-body dose of:

A. 25 rem
B. 25 mrem
C. 1 rem
D. 10 rem

288. The most radiosensitive cells in the body are:

A. Lymphocytes
B. Epithelial cells
C. Nerve cells
D. Muscle cells

61
289. Cells that are least sensitive to radiation exposure include:
A. Ova and sperm
B. Epithelial cells
C. Nerve and muscle cells
D. Blood cells

290. Which of the following is accurate as low as 10 mrem?

A. TLD
B. Film badge
C. Pocket ionization chamber
D. Handheld ionization chamber

291. A reading of 200 mR with a handheld ionization chamber means:

A. 200 milliroentgens has been detected
B. At least 200 milliroentgens has been received
C. 200 millirads has been received
D. Roentgens have been received

292. Minimum source-to-skin distance for mobile radiography must be:

A. 15 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 36 inches
D. 55 inches

293. Positive beam limitation is also known as:

A. Use of collimators
B. Beam limitation used for all examinations
C. Use of beam restrictors
D. Automatic collimation

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294. The most effective protection against radiation exposure for the
radiographer is:
A. Lead apron
B. Lead gloves
C. Lead glasses
D. Distance

295. Which of the following may be used for 3 months at a time?

A. TLD
B. Film badge
C. Pocket ionization chamber
D. Geiger-Mueller detector

296. The 15% rule states that:

A. Density may be halved by decreasing kVp by 15%
B. kVp should be 15% of the mAs selected
C. Density may be halved by increasing kVp by 15%
D. At least a 15% change in mAs is required to make a change visible

297. Elongation and foreshortening are examples of:

A. Size distortion
B. Shape distortion
C. Motion
D. Distortion caused by short SID and long OID

298. When a quality control test for exposure linearity is performed, adjacent
mA stations must be within ________ of one another.
A. 2% of SID
B. 4%
C. 10%
D. 5%

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299. Grid conversion factor (Bucky factor) is described as the:
A. Height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips
B. Distance between the lead strips divided by the height of the lead strips
C. Number of lead strips per inch or centimeter
D. Amount of exposure increase necessary to compensate for the absorption of
image-forming rays and scatter in the cleanup process

300. As kVp is increased:

A. Density decreases
B. Contrast increases
C. Recorded detail increases
D. Contrast decreases

64
 Part II

300MCQ

1. Radiograph Positioning

2. Radiograph Anatomy

3. Radiograph Pathology

65
1. Which specific positioning error is present if the mandibular rami are not
superimposed on a lateral skull radiograph?
A. Tilt
B. Rotation
C. Incorrect CR angle
D. Over flexion of head and neck

2. Which one of the following projections is the best to demonstrate the right
thoracic intervertebral foramina?
A. Lateral projection ( left lateral position )
B. Lateral projection ( right lateral position )
C. RAO position
D. A and D

3. The proper position of LSS for diagnosis the spine bifda

A. AP
B. Lateral
C. AP oblique
D. PA oblique

4. Which the following position is used to demonstrate the sternum

A. LAO position
B. RAO position
C. PA chest
D. AP chest

5. Which is the minimum amount of time a patient should be upright before

taking a projection to demonstrate intra-abdominal free air?
A. 20 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 2 minutes
D. 5 minutes

66
6. Where are the petrous ridges projected for a properly positioned modified
parietoacanthial projection?
A. Petrous ridges are projected just below the inferior orbital rim
B. Petrous ridges are projected into the lower one-third of the orbits
C. Petrous ridges are projected into the upper half of the maxillary sinuses
D. Petrous ridges are projected just below the maxillary sinuses

7. During a Panorama procedure, it is important to keep the ……….

positioning line parallel to the floor.
A. OML
B. AML
C. GAL
D. IOML

8. What is the proper position for an AP forearm projection?

A. Hand supinated
B. Hand pronated
C. Elbow at 90 degrees
D. A and C

9. The Skyline position is used to demonstrate

A. Intercondyler notch
B. Patella
C. Medial epicondyle
D. Lateral epicondyle

10. Which the following criteria are used to evaluate PA projection of chest?
A. (9 to 10 posterior ribs) should be visualized
B. Sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical
C. The scapula should be outside the lung fields
D. All above

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11. A patient with a history of ascites comes to the radiology department. Which
one of the following projections best demonstrate this condition?
A. Erect AP abdomen
B. Erect PA chest
C. Supine KUB
D. Prone KUB

12. To best visualized the lower ribs, the exposure should be made during
A. Normal inspiration
B. Inspiration, second breath
C. Shallow breathing
D. Expiration

13. Which one of the following projections would best demonstrate the distal
tibiofibular articulation?
A. AP oblique projection medial rotation
B. AP oblique projection lateral rotation
C. Lateral ankle projection
D. AP mortise projection

14. Where is the CR location for an PA oblique hand projection?

A. Perpendicular to the third MCP joint
B. Parallel to the third PIP joint
C. Perpendicular to the first MCP joint
D. Parallel to the first DIP joint

15. Regarding the Caldwell method, which one of the following is true?
A. Used to demonstrate frontal bone
B. Used as a part of basic projection of facial and cranial bones
C. May be used as reverse Caldwell for trauma patient
D. All above

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16. Regarding the AP axial projection lordotic position, which one of the
following is false?
A. The upper margin of IR should be about 3" above the shoulder
B. The exposure is made after the second full inspiration
C. The projection is performed primarily to demonstrate pleura fusion
D. CR perpendicular, directed to midterm

17. Normally, the patient is asked to stand and inhale deeply when having the
chest radiograph, which of the following is true?
A. To move the diaphragm inferiorly
B. To demonstrate free air or air-fluid level, if present
C. To prevent engorgement of pulmonary vessels
D. All the above

18. The submentovertical projection of the skull is used to demonstrate:

A. Frontal bone
B. Parietal bones
C. Base of the skull
D. Maxillary sinuses

19. Angulations of the central ray may be required

A. To avoid superimposition of overlaying structures
B. To avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition
C. In order to project through certain articulations
D. All of the above

20. Which projection of the nasal bones will demonstrate medial or lateral
displacement of fragment?
A. Oblique projection
B. Lateral projection
C. AP axial projection
D. Tangential projection

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21. Para nasal sinuses should always be taken with the central ray horizontal and
the film vertical because
A. Its more comfortable to the patient
B. The sinuses are demonstrated better
C. Fluid levels will be shown if present
D. Any infection will have drained from the sinuses

22. Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest may be performed to

demonstrate:
A. Possible small pneumothorax
B. Foreign body
C. Pleura fusion
D. A and B

23. Towne method is projection which used to demonstrate

A. Frontal bone
B. Temporal bone
C. Parietal bone
D. Occipital bone

24. Stenvers method is projection which used to demonstrate

A. Dens
B. Mastoid
C. Sella turcica
D. Occipital bone

25. Which of the following is the preferred distance for PA chest radiography?
A. 30 inches
B. 40 inches
C. 60 inches
D. 72 inches

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26. For the Water’s view of the facial bones, the OML:
A. Forms a 37 degree angle with the plane of the film
B. Forms a 15 degree angle with the tube
C. Is not used but the IOML is
D. Is perpendicular with the plane of the film

27. When examining the pelvis in AP projection, the feet should be placed in
which of the following positions?
A. Eversion
B. Inversion
C. Perfectly straight
D. Oblique

28. When the automatic exposure control system is being used for the PA chest
projection, which ionization chambers should be activated?
A. Left chamber
B. Right chamber
C. Center chamber
D. Left and right chambers

29. A radiograph of AP projection of the pelvis reveals that right iliac wing is
wider than the left. What type of the positioning error was involved?
A. Rotation toward the left
B. Tilt toward the left
C. Rotation toward the right
D. Tilt toward the right

30. When performing a lateral projection of knee, the knee should be:
A. Flexed 20-30 degrees
B. Flexed 4-10 degrees
C. Flexed 90 degrees
D. Flexed 45 degrees

71
31. A PA and lateral chest study reveals a suspicious mass located near the heart
in the right lung. The radiologist would like a radiograph of the patient in an
anterior oblique position to delineate the mass form the heart. Which
position or projection should the technologist use to accomplish this
objective?
A. 45 LAO
B. 45 RAO
C. 60 LAO
D. AP lordotic position

32. What bone is the focus of the PA ulnar deviation projection of the wrist?
A. Lunate
B. Scaphoid
C. Pisiform
D. Capitate

33. The intervertebral foramina of the lumber region are situated:

A. At right angles to the MSP
B. Slightly anteriorly to the midcoronal plane
C. At 30-50 degrees anteriorly to MSP
D. At 30-50 degrees posteriorly to the MSP

34. The largest sinuses are the __________.

A. Maxillary
B. Frontal
C. Ethmoid
D. Sphenoid

35. Which projection shows the radial head free of superimposition?

A. AP elbow projection
B. AP medial oblique elbow projection
C. AP lateral oblique elbow projection
D. Jones method

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36. In radiographing the sella turcica, many views may be taken. Which of the
following is absolutely necessary?
A. True lateral.
B. SMV.
C. Towne method.
D. Caldwell method.

37. When performing transthoracic Lawrence method, the preferred breathing

technique is:
A. Short and shallow breaths without moving the affected arm
B. Suspend respiration during the exposure
C. Suspend respiration at end of inhalation
D. Suspend respiration at end of exhalation

38. How much of a difference in degrees is there between the OML and IOML?
A. 10 degrees
B. 7 to 8 degrees
C. 3 degrees
D. None of the above

39. Regarding the AP axial projection of the cervical vertebrae, patient in supine
position, the central ray directed through C4 at an angle:
A. 15 degrees cephalad
B. 20 degrees cephalad
C. 15 degrees caudal
D. 20 degrees caudal

40. Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of

fluid in the pleural cavity?
A. Lateral decubitus, affected side up
B. Lateral decubitus, affected side down
C. AP Trendelenburg
D. AP supine

73
41. For what type of the body habitus will the diaphragm be at the highest
position?
A. Sthenic
B. Asthenic
C. Hypersthenic
D. Hyposthenic

42. Which of the following technical factors is essential when performing

abdomen studies on a pediatric patient?
A. High mA
B. Short exposure time
C. High-speed image receptor
D. All of the above

43. Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of

air in the peritoneal cavity?
A. RT lateral decubitus
B. LT lateral decubitus
C. AP Trendelenburg
D. AP supine

44. The heart chamber located most anteriorly and forming the anterior border
of the cardiac shadow on a lateral chest radiograph is the:
A. Left atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle

45. The bicuspid valve is also known as the:

A. Left atrioventricular valve
B. Right atrioventricular valve
C. Aortic valve
D. Pulmonary valve

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46. How many posterior ribs should be visible on a good inspiration PA chest
radiograph?
A. 12
B. 10
C. 8
D. 6

47. Demonstration of a pneumothorax is best accomplished by making the

exposure with the patient in the:
A. Erect, lateral position
B. Lateral decubitus position
C. Erect posteroanterior (PA) position in expiration
D. Erect PA position on inspiration

48. In the lateral projection of the knee the:

A. Femoral condyles are superimposed
B. Femoropatelloar joint is visualized
C. Knee is flexed 20◦–30◦
D. All above

49. With the patient recumbent and head positioned at a lower level than the
feet, the patient is said to be in the:
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Fowler position
C. Decubitus position
D. Sims position

50. The proximal tibiofibular articulation is best demonstrated in which of the

following positions?
A. Medial oblique
B. Lateral oblique
C. AP
D. Lateral

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51. When examining the clavicle in the PA position, how is the central ray
directed for the axial projection?
A. Cephalad
B. Caudad
C. Medially
D. Laterally

52. Which of the following should not be performed until a transverse fracture of
the patella has been ruled out?
A. AP knee
B. Lateral knee
C. Axial/tangential patella
D. B and C

53. All of the following statements regarding a PA projection of the skull, with
central ray perpendicular to the IR are true, except:
A. Orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR
B. Petrous pyramids fill the lower third of the orbits
C. Midsagittal plane (MSP) is perpendicular to the IR
D. Central ray exits at the nasion

54. Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25◦ RPO position and the central
ray entering 1-inch medial to the elevated ASIS?
A. Left sacroiliac joint
B. Right sacroiliac joint
C. Left ilium
D. Right ilium

55. With the body in the supine position, the diaphragm moves:
A. 2 to 4 inches higher than when erect
B. 2 to 4 inches lower than when erect
C. 2 to 4 inches inferiorly
D. Unpredictably

76
56. In the 15◦ to 20◦ mortise oblique projection of the ankle, the:
A. Talofibular joint is visualized
B. Talotibial joint is visualized
C. Plantar surface should be vertical
D. All above

57. Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree
of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
A. Open-mount projection
B. Moving mandible AP
C. Flexion and extension laterals
D. Right and left bending

58. A profile view of the glenoid fossa can be obtained with the CR directed
perpendicular to the glenoid fossa and the patient rotated:
A. 20-degree affected side down
B. 20-degree affected side up
C. 45-degree affected side down
D. 45-degree affected side up

59. The AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull best demonstrates the:
A. Occipital bone
B. Frontal bone
C. Facial bones
D. Sphenoid bone

60. In which of the following projections or positions will subacromial or

subcoracoid dislocation be best demonstrated?
A. Tangential
B. AP axial
C. Transthoracic lateral
D. PA oblique scapular Y

77
61. The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and:
A. In a slight oblique, affected side adjacent to image receptor
B. In a slight oblique, affected side away from image receptor
C. Erect, weight bearing
D. Erect, with and without weights

62. The manubrial notch, a bony landmark used in radiography of the

sternoclavicular joints, is located at the same level as the:
A. Vertebra prominens
B. First thoracic vertebra
C. Third thoracic vertebra
D. Ninth thoracic vertebra

63. The heart chamber located most anteriorly and forming the anterior border
of the cardiac shadow on a lateral chest radiograph is the:
A. Left atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle

64. Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the:
A. Lateral projection
B. PA axial (Caldwell method) projection
C. Parietoacanthial (Waters method) projection
D. AP axial (Towne method) projection

65. To demonstrate the pulmonary apices in the AP position, the:

A. Central ray is directed 15- to 20-degree cephalad
B. Central ray is directed 15- to 20-degree caudad
C. Exposure is made on full exhalation
D. Patient’s shoulders are rolled forward

78
66. The sigmoid colon is located in the:
A. Left lower quadrant (LLQ)
B. Left upper quadrant (LUQ)
C. Right lower quadrant (RLQ)
D. Right upper quadrant (RUQ)

67. In the lateral projection of the foot, the:

A. Plantar surface should be perpendicular to the image receptor
B. Metatarsals are non-superimposed
C. Talofibular joint should be visualized
D. All above

68. Which of the following is the most proximal structure on the adult ulna?
A. Capitulum
B. Styloid process
C. Coronoid process
D. Olecranon process

69. In the parieto-orbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal, the
median sagittal plane and central ray form what angle?
A. 90 degrees
B. 37 degrees
C. 53 degrees
D. 45 degrees

70. Which of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase in

exposure factors?
A. Pneumoperitoneum
B. Obstructed bowel
C. Renal colic
D. Ascites

79
71. Where is the CR location for all lateral hand projections?
A. Perpendicular to the third MCP joint
B. Parallel to the second PIP joint
C. Perpendicular to the second MCP joint
D. Parallel to the third DIP joint

72. The hand should be made into a fist for what projection?
A. PA hand
B. Lateral hand
C. PA wrist
D. None of the above

73. The _____ is the smallest wrist bone.

A. Lunate
B. Hamate
C. Pisiform
D. Scaphoid

74. Rotation of the forearm so the palm faces down is called:

A. Hyperflexion
B. Inversion
C. Supination
D. Pronation

75. The usual views of each breast during routine mammography examination
are the ______ views.
A. Cranial–caudal (CC) and the anterior–posterior (AP)
B. Anterior–posterior (AP) and medial–lateral oblique (MLO)
C. Cranial–caudal (CC) and the medial–lateral oblique (MLO)
D. Cranial–caudal (CC), medial–lateral oblique (MLO), anterior–posterior (AP), and
the left lateral (LL)

81
76. The hand is made up of _____ bones?
A. 25
B. 27
C. 33
D. 22

77. The wrist bones are known as:

A. Carpals
B. Tarsals
C. Metatarsals
D. Phalanges

78. In case of chest pleural effusion, kvp should be

A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Doubled
D. None of above

79. The cassette size of sinuses radiography is

A. 18×24 cm
B. 35× 35 cm
C. 31×41 cm
D. 35×43 cm

80. The plane that passes vertically through the body dividing it into anterior
and posterior halves is termed the:
A. Midsagittal plane
B. Midcoronal plane
C. Sagittal plane
D. Transverse plane

81
81. Which of the following best demonstrates the navicular, the first and second
cuneiforms, and their articulations with the first and second metatarsals?
A. Lateral foot
B. Lateral oblique foot
C. Medial oblique foot
D. Weight-bearing foot

82. What bone is the focus of the PA ulnar deviation projection of the wrist?
A. Lunate
B. Scaphoid
C. Pisiform
D. Capitate

83. The wrist is made up of _____ bones?

A. 6
B. 22
C. 8
D. 10

84. In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the central ray
directed 30◦ caudad to the OML and passing midway between the external
auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?
A. Facial bones
B. Frontal bone
C. Occipital bone
D. Basal foramina

85. The proximal wrist bones include the:

A. Lunate
B. Capitate
C. Trapazoid
D. Trapezium

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86. Where is the CR location for an PA oblique hand projection?
A. Perpendicular to the third MCP joint
B. Parallel to the third PIP joint
C. Perpendicular to the third MCP joint
D. Parallel to the third DIP joint

87. Which is true about the lateral facial bone position?

A. CR 2 inches above EAM
B. IOML parallel with axis of the image receptor
C. Interpupillary line parallel with image receptor
D. All the above

88. All of the following statements regarding a PA projection of the skull, with
central ray perpendicular to the IR are true, except:
A. Orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR
B. Petrous pyramids fill the lower third of the orbits
C. Midsagittal plane (MSP) is perpendicular to the IR
D. Central ray exits at the nasion

89. The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are demonstrated with the:
A. Coronal plane 45◦ to the IR
B. Midsagittal plane 45◦ to the IR
C. Coronal plane 70◦ to the IR
D. Midsagittal plane parallel to the IR

90. To better demonstrate the mandibular rami in the PA position, the:

A. Skull is obliqued toward the affected side
B. Skull is obliqued away from the affected side
C. Central ray is angled cephalad
D. Central ray is angled caudad

83
91. Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge
in the:
A. Right main bronchus
B. Left main bronchus
C. Esophagus
D. Proximal stomach

92. Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on a PA projection of the chest can
be an indication of:
A. Pleural effusion
B. Ascites
C. Bronchitis
D. Emphysema

93. Which of the following conditions is characterized by widening of the

intercostal spaces?
A. Emphysema
B. Empyema
C. Atelectasis
D. Pneumonia

94. For a lateral projection of the wrist:

A. The radius and ulna should be superimposed
B. The radial surface must be in contact with the image receptor
C. The central ray is parallel
D. Use the fastest image receptor speed possible

95. A Tangential projection is used to demonstrate what?

A. Nasal bones
B. Zygomas
C. Orbits
D. All the above

84
96. Which of the following facial bones are not paired?
A. Vomer
B. Zygomatic
C. Lacrimal
D. Palatine

97. The CR location for the nasal bones is:

A. An inch superior to nasion
B. Half inch superior to nasion
C. Half inch distal to nasion
D. An inch inferior to nasion

98. The optic foramina is best demonstrated with what position?

A. Haas
B. Townes
C. Caldwell
D. Rhese

99. The waters method is also known as a _______ projection.

A. Parietoacanthial
B. Parietomental
C. Parietoglabellar
D. Parietonasal

100. Which projection shows the coronoid process free of superimposition?

A. AP elbow
B. Medial oblique elbow
C. Lateral oblique elbow
D. AP forearm

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101. Which structure is located on the medially on an AP elbow projection?
A. Capitulum
B. Trochlea
C. Radial head
D. B and C

102. To do a medial oblique projection of the elbow:

A. Pronate the hand
B. Place the hand in a neutral position
C. Supinate the hand
D. Bend the elbow 45 degrees

103. Which structure is not on the ulna?

A. Styloid process
B. Head
C. Olecranon process
D. Capitulum

104. The olecranon fossa is located on:

A. The radius
B. The ulna
C. The scaphoid
D. None of the above

105. Which of the following projection/s is/are the best to demonstrate the
upper shaft of the dens?
A. AP projection Fuchs method
B. PA projection Judd method
C. AP projection open mouth method
D. A and B

86
106. Which structure is not on the radius?
A. Head
B. Styloid process
C. Tuberosity
D. Lateral epicondyle

107. Which projection shows the radial head free of superimposition?

A. AP elbow
B. Medial oblique elbow
C. Lateral oblique elbow
D. AP forearm

108. The hand should be pronated for an:

A. AP elbow
B. AP forearm
C. Internal oblique elbow
D. None of the above

109. Regarding the structures shown of the AP axial projection of the cervical
vertebrae, which of following is true:
A. Upper five cervical bodies are demonstrated
B. All cervical bodies except atlas are demonstrated
C. Lower five cervical vertebrae are demonstrated
D. Lower five cervical bodies and upper two or three thoracic bodies are demonstrate

110. The following projections are used to demonstrate the right sacroiliac
joint except:
A. AP axial projection
B. PA axial projection
C. AP oblique projection (RPO position)
D. PA oblique projection (RAO position)

87
111. To insure a good AP elbow projection:
A. Have the humerous in the same plane as the forearm
B. Center on the joint
C. Angle the tube 5 degrees cephalic
D. A and B

112. The most posterior sinuses are the __________.

A. Maxillary
B. Frontal
C. Ethmoid
D. Sphenoid

113. The best projection to demonstrate the maxillary sinuses is the

__________ method?
A. Caldwell
B. Towne
C. Waters
D. SMV

114. The best projection to demonstrate the ethmoidal sinuses is the

__________ method?
A. Caldwell
B. Towne
C. Waters
D. SMV

115. The best projection to demonstrate the frontal sinuses is the __________
method?
A. Caldwell
B. Towne
C. Waters
D. SMV

88
116. The CR location for a Towne’s view is:
A. 1.5 inches above glabella
B. 2 inches above glabella
C. 2.5 inches below glabella
D. 2.5 inches above glabella

117. If the OML is perpendicular on Towne’s view, the CR is:

A. 37 degrees caudad
B. 30 degrees caudad
C. 37 degrees cephalic
D. 30 degrees caudad

118. The CR is angled ________ degrees ________ for a Caldwell method.

A. 30 caudad
B. 15 cephalic
C. 15 caudad
D. 30 cephalic

119. Which of the following projections of the abdomen should be used to

demonstrate air or fluid levels when the erect position cannot be obtained?
A. AP Trendelenburg
B. Dorsal decubitus
C. Lateral decubitus
D. B and C

120. The posterior aspect of the hand is against the leg for which view of the
shoulder?
A. External rotation
B. Internal rotation
C. Neutral
D. Transthoracic

89
121. Which of the following is not a cranial bone?
A. Vomer
B. Frontal
C. Ethmoid
D. Sphenoid

122. Which view of the shoulder shows the greater tubercle in profile?
A. External rotation
B. Internal rotation
C. Neutral
D. Transthoracic

123. The spine of the scapula is on the ________ side.

A. Lateral
B. Medial
C. Inferior
D. Posterior

124. Which structure is not included on a AP shoulder projection?

A. Coronoid process
B. Acromion process
C. Lesser tubercle
D. Glenoid fossa

125. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of

the thoracic spine?
A. Intervertebral joints
B. Apophyseal joints
C. Intervertebral foramina
D. A and C

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126. The CR location for an AP humerus is:
A. 1.5 inches below the shoulder joint
B. Just below the greater trochanter
C. Perpendicular to elbow joint
D. None of the above

127. The Lawrence Method is also known as:

A. Transthoracic lateral
B. Inferosuperior axial projection
C. A and B
D. None of the above

128. The palm of the hand is against the leg for which view of the shoulder?
A. External rotation
B. Internal rotation
C. Neutral
D. Transthoracic

129. For an AP projection of the AC joints:

A. To show AC separation properly, joints both with and without weights should be
shown on one image receptor if possible
B. To show AC separation properly, separate images must be acquired with equal
weights attached to both wrists and without weights
C. The central ray is always directed midway between the AC joints
D. The patient should be seated upright and instructed to continue shallow breathing
during the exposure

130. The large end of the clavicle is the ________ end.

A. Lateral
B. Medial
C. Acromial
D. None of the above

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131. Which structure is on the humerus?
A. Olecranon fossa
B. Acromion process
C. Greater trochanter
D. Coricoid process

132. Which is the most superior?

A. Greater tuercle
B. Coracoid process
C. Acromion process
D. Surgical neck of the humerous

133. Which of the following is (are) proximal to the tibial plateau?

A. Femoral condyles
B. Tibial condyles
C. Tibial tuberosity
D. All above

134. The cassette size of adult KUB radiography is

A. 17 inch
B. 14 inch
C. 12 inch
D. 10 inch

135. The proximal tibiofibular articulation is best demonstrated in which of

the following positions?
A. Medial oblique
B. Lateral oblique
C. AP
D. Lateral

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136. Which of the following is (are) important when positioning the patient for
a PA projection of the chest?
A. The patient should be examined erect
B. Clavicles should be brought above the apices
C. Scapulae should be brought lateral to the lung fields
D. A and C

137. Chest radiography should be performed using 72 inches SID whenever

possible in order to:
A. Maximize magnification of the heart
B. Obtain better lung detail
C. Visualize vascular markings
D. B and C

138. All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true,
except:
A. The right lung has two lobes
B. The uppermost portion of the lung is the apex
C. Each lung is enclosed in pleura
D. The trachea bifurcates into mainstem bronchi

139. To demonstrate the pulmonary apices below the level of the clavicles in
the AP position, the CR should be directed:
A. Perpendicular
B. 15◦ to 20◦ caudad
C. 15◦ to 20◦ cephalad
D. 40◦ cephalad

140. What body type has the thorax narrow and shallow?
A. Hypersthenic habitus
B. Sthenic habitus
C. Hyposthenic habitus
D. Asthenic habitus

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141. Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the
liver and kidneys?
A. lateral abdomen
B. AP abdomen
C. dorsal decubitus abdomen
D. ventral decubitus abdomen

142. Bone marrow is located anatomically within the:

A. Cortex
B. Medullary canal
C. Periosteum
D. Trabeculae

143. The end portion of a long bone is referred to as the:

A. Epiphysis
B. Diaphysis
C. Metaphysis
D. None of above

144. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is referred to as:

A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Scoliosis
C. Spondylolisthesis
D. Spondylolysis

145. By use of what radiographic position can bony structures such as clavicles
be removed from the apices of the lungs?
A. AP
B. Lateral decubitus
C. Lordotic
D. 45-degree oblique

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146. An accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity is known as a(n):
A. Coin lesion
B. Empyema
C. Pleural effusion
D. Pleurisy

147. A decrease in tissue blood supply is termed:

A. Atheroma
B. Infarction
C. Ischemia
D. Necrosis

148. The radiographic string sign is associated with:

A. Achalasia
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Regional enteritis
D. Ulcerative colitis

149. Key points in performing pediatric radiography are:

A. Work quickly and impersonally, use gonadal shielding, report suspected child
abuse, keep parents in waiting room
B. Work quickly, communicate clearly with child and parents, use gonadal shielding,
report suspected child abuse
C. Work quickly and impersonally, report suspected child abuse, keep parents in
waiting room, always use Pigg-O-Stat
D. Work quickly and impersonally, use gonadal shielding only on abdominal
examinations, report suspected child abuse, keep parents in waiting room

150. A twisting of bowel about its mesenteric base best refers to a(n):
A. Ascites
B. Intussusception
C. Incarcerated hernia
D. Volvulus

95
151. Bile drains from the liver’s right and left hepatic ducts directly into the:
A. Common bile duct
B. Common hepatic duct
C. Cystic duct
D. Duodenum

152. The noninvasive modality of choice that does not employ ionizing
radiation for visualization of gallbladder disease is:
A. Computed tomography
B. Diagnostic medical sonography
C. Nuclear medicine
D. All of the above

153. The “sail sign” in an infant is commonly associated with enlargement of

the:
A. Heart
B. Pulmonary arteries
C. Thymus
D. Thyroid

154. Which of the following projection should be performed using a breathing

technique?
A. Scapula Y lateral projection
B. Transthoracic lateral
C. AP projection - internal rotation
D. AP projection - external rotation

155. Which rotation of the humerus will result in an AP position/projection of

the proximal humerus?
A. Neutral rotation (epicondyles 45 degrees to image receptor)
B. External rotation (epicondyles parallel to image receptor)
C. Internal rotation (epicondyles perpendicular to image receptor)
D. None of the above

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156. Where is the CR centered for a transthoracic lateral projection?
A. Level of the greater tubercle
E. Level of surgical neck
B. 1 inch inferior to the acromion
C. Maxilla

157. Which of the following demonstrates the greater tubercle in profile

laterally?
A. Internal rotation
B. Neutral rotation
C. External rotation
D. None of the above

158. Which of the following arm positions demonstrate the lesser tubercle in
profile medially?
A. Internal rotation
B. Neutral rotation
C. External rotation
D. None if the above

159. What are the most common routine positions for the non-trauma
shoulder?
A. Inferosuperior axial and AP neutral
B. Scapular y and AP neutral
C. AP internal and external
D. Grashey and AP internal

160. Why are the most common routine positions for the trauma shoulder?
A. Inferosuperior axial and AP external
B. Scapular Y and AP neutral
C. AP internal and external
D. Grashey and AP internal

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161. Proper positioning for the forearm for an AP projection require the hand
to be...
A. Flexed
B. Supinated
C. Lateral
D. Pronated

162. What carpal bone lies between the lunate and the pisiform?
A. Scaphoid
B. Capitate
C. Trapezium
D. Triquetrum

163. Which of the following will best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid ?
A. Lateral wrist
B. Ulnar flexion
C. Tunnel
D. Radial flexion

164. What is the tube angle for the PA scaphoid with angle and ulnar
deviation?
A. 10-15 degrees distally
B. 30-45 degrees proximally
C. 10-15 degrees proximally
D. 30-45 degrees distally

165. What are the routine positions for the wrist?

A. PA, oblique, lateral
B. PA, oblique, transthoracic, AP
C. PA, oblique, lateral, AP
D. None of the above

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166. What special/optional position best demonstrates the carpal interspaces?
A. AP oblique
B. PA
C. AP
D. Oblique

167. What carpal bone articulates with the 1st metacarpal

A. Lunate
B. Pisiform
C. Trapezium
D. Scaphoid

168. There are ______separate bones in the adult system

A. 216
B. 260
C. 206
D. 360

169. The metacarpals and phalanges are classified as ________________bones

A. Long
B. Irregular
C. Short
D. Flat

170. The most important point to remember when performing trauma

radiography is:
A. Use gonadal shielding because this patient will be having many follow-up
examinations
B. Work quickly because the injuries may be life-threatening
C. Do no additional harm to the patient
D. Perform only the projections ordered by the physician

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171. Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
A. Hip bone
B. Clavicle
C. Radius
D. Sternum

172. Which of the following bones is classified as a short bone?

A. Phalanges
B. Skull cap
C. Vertebrae
D. Carpal

173. Examples of flat bones are the :

A. Ribs, sternum, patella and pelvis
B. Sternum, scapulae, pelvis and base of cranium
C. Ribs, scapulae, and sternum
D. Sternum and pelvis only

174. What plane passes vertically through the mid axillary region of the body
and through the coronal suture of the cranium at right angles to the
midsagittal plane?
A. Transverse plane
B. Midcoronal plane
C. Median sagittal plane
D. Sagittal plane

175. What type of joint has opposing surfaces that are convex-concave,
allowing great freedom of motion?
A. Ball-and-socket joint
B. Pivot joint
C. Hinge joint
D. Saddle joint

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176. Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?
A. Femur
B. Clavicle
C. Radius
D. Skull

177. Which of the following bones is classified as an irregular bone?

A. Phalanges
B. Rib
C. Vertebrae
D. Carpal

178. Which is not true concerning sesamoid bones?

A. The largest sesamois is the patella
B. All sesamoid bone are counted as part of the appendicular skeleton
C. They are a special type of small oval-shaped bone imbedded in certain tendons
D. Seseamoid bones can be fractures by trauma

179. Which of the following bones it nit part off the appendicular skeleton?
A. Hip bone
B. Clavicle
C. Ribs
D. Scapula

180. A patient is lying on her back on the x-ray table. The right side of her
body is turned 45 degrees away the image receptor. What is this position?
A. LPO
B. RPO
C. RAO
D. LAO

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181. Which of the following terms describe the anterior aspect of the foot
A. Dorsum
B. Volar
C. Palmar
D. Plantar

182. A vertebrae is an example of a...

A. Short bone
B. Flat bone
C. Long bone
D. Irregular bone

183. A longitudinal plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior
parts is the...
A. Sagittal plane
B. Horizontal plane
C. Coronal plane
D. Oblique plane

184. Which term describes lying down in any position?

A. Fowlers
B. Recumbent
C. Horizontal
D. Anatomic

185. Patient is lying on her stomach facing the x-ray table. The right side of
her body is turned up 45 degrees assay from the image receptor with her
right elbow and knee bent. What is this radiographic position?
A. RPO
B. RA
C. LPO
D. LAO

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186. The pare of the lung that lies above the clavicle is termed the :
A. Apex
B. Hilum
C. Base
D. Costophernic angle

187. Patient is lying on her left side. The x-ray tube is horizontally directed
with the CR entering the posterior surface of her body. The IR is adjacent to
the anterior surface of her body. What is the radiographic examination
A. Left lateral
B. Right lateral decubitus
C. Left lateral decubitus
D. Dorsal decubitus

188. Which type of bod habitus requires that the image receptor be placed
crosswise rather than lengthwise for a PA chest?
A. Asthenic
B. Sthenic
C. Hypersthenic
D. Hypostehnic

189. PA chest radiograph reveals that 8ribs are seen above the diagram.
Which of the following suggestions would improve the inspiration of lungs?
A. Perform chest position supine
B. Take exposure on the second inspiration rather than on first
C. Use higher kv to penetrate the diaphragm
D. Use a shorter exposure time

190. What appropriate SID is used with a PA and lateral erect radiograph?
A. 72 inches
B. 30 inch
C. 40 inch
D. 6 inches

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191. Of the following factors, which one must be applied o demonstrate
possible air and fluid levels in the chest
A. High KVtechnique
B. 72 inch SID
C. Patient in erect position
D. Use high ma and short exposure time

192. Of the following actions, which one will remove the scapulae from the
lung fields?
A. Depress shoulders
B. Elevate chin
C. Roll shoulders forward
D. Abduct arms

193. A correctly positioned lateral chest radiograph demonstrates some

separation of the posterior ribs due to the divergent x-ray beam. A separation
of more than ______indicates objectionable rotation from a true lateral
A. 2 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 0.5 cm
D. 1 cm

194. The CR for an AP supine chest should be?

A. Centered 6-8 inches blow the jugular notch
B. Angled 45 degrees
C. Centered to level of T7
D. Centered directly below the xiphoid process

195. Rotation on a PA chest radiograph is determined by examining?

A. Posterior ribs
B. The diaphragm
C. Sternal ends of the clavicles
D. The inferior angle of the scapula

114
196. Which of the following solid organs is the largest found in the abdomen?
A. Kidneys
B. Pancreas
C. Spleen
D. Liver

197. A patient is in the intensive care unit with multiple injuries. The attending
physician is concerned about a pleural effusion in the left lung. The patient
and surgery recently and cannot be placed in the erect position. What
position would be best to rule out of the pleural effusion (fluid)?
A. Right lateral decubitus
B. LPO and RPO
C. AP supine
D. Left lateral decubitus

198. The two most important land marks for locating central ray for the chest
positioning are..
A. Jugular notch
B. vertebrae prominence
C. Top shoulders and xiphoid tip
D. Jugular notch and vertebra prominence

199. Why is the right kidney usually lower than the left?
A. Presence of the liver
B. Presence of the stomach
C. Presence of the right colic flexure
D. Presence of right suprarenal gland

200. What type of respiration should be used for abdominal radiography?

A. Expiration
B. Shallow breathing during exposure
C. Inspiration
D. Both inspiration or expiration

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201. Which of the following factors must be applied to minimized
magnification of the heart?
A. High kv technique
B. Perform study erect
C. Use high ma and short exposure time
D. 72 SID

202. A patient is erect with the left side directly against the image receptor.
The CR enters the right side of the body what is this radiographic position?
A. Left lateral decubitus
B. Left lateral
C. Right lateral
D. Ventral decubitus

203. What type of joint permits rotary movement in which a ring rotates
around a central axis?
A. Ball-and-socket joint
B. Pivot joint
C. Hinge joint
D. Saddle joint

204. What type of joint is the hip?

A. Ball-and-socket joint
B. Pivot joint
C. Hinge joint
D. Saddle joint

205. In which of the four major quadrant of the abdomen would the cecum be
found?
A. Left upper
B. Right lower
C. Right upper
D. Left lower

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206. Patient comes to radiology with possible mass beneath the right clavicle.
The pa and left lateral projections are inconclusive. Which additional
projection can be taken to demonstrate this possible mass?
A. Right lateral
B. AP and lateral of upper airway
C. AP erect?
D. Apical lordotic

207. Which of the following kv ranges ire recommended for a KUB on an adult
A. 70 - 80
B. 90 to 100
C. 50 – 60
D. 110 - 120

208. The inner membrane of the pleura that encloses the lungs and heart is
called the?
A. Pericardial sac
B. Visceral pleura
C. Parietal pleura
D. Pleura cavity

209. What two bone land marks are palpate for positioning of the elbow
A. Humeral epicodnyles
B. Corocnoid process and coronoid fossa
C. Radial and ulnar styloid processes
D. Trochle and capitulum

210. Which one of the following structures is not part of the ulna?
A. Radial notch
B. Ulnar neck
C. Styloid process
D. Coronoid process

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211. To ensure or double check that the inferior margin of the abdomen is
included on a KUB radiograph, the technologist should palpate the...
A. ASIS
B. Greater trochanter to locate symphysis pubis
C. Iliac crest
D. Inferior costal margin

212. At what level should the CR be placed for an AP lateral decubitus

projection of the abdomen?
A. 2 inches ( 5 cm )above iliac crest
B. ASIS
C. Iliac crest
D. Umbilicus

213. What CR centering should be used for a dorsal decubitus projection of

the abdomen?
A. At level of umbilicus
B. 2 inches (5 cm ) above iliac crest
C. At level of iliac crest
D. 4 inches (10 cm )above iliac crest

214. What are the routine position projections for the humerus?
A. AP
B. Oblique
C. Lateral
D. AP and lateral

215. To ensure the diaphragm is included on the erect abdomen projection, the
top of the image receptor should be placed at the level of the...
A. Jugular notch
B. Xiphoid process
C. Inferior costal margin
D. Axilla

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216. A patient is in ICU after abdominal surgery. The surgeon is concerned
about a possible perforated bowel. The patient can't stand or sit. Which of
the following positions will best demonstrate any possible intra-abdominal
free air?
A. Dorsal decubitus
B. Ventral decubitus
C. Right lateral decubitus
D. Left lateral decubitus

217. Which of the following structures is considered to be most distal?

A. Olecranon process
B. Radial tuberosity
C. Radial
D. Ulnar head

218. Which of the following is not true about the elbow joint?
A. Elbow joint is gynglmus type of joint
B. The elbow joint is synovial
C. The elbow joint is synathrodial
D. The elbow joint includes the radius, ulna and humerus

219. Which structures from the proximal radioulnar joint?

A. Radial notch and radial head
B. Radial tuberosity and ulnar notch
C. Ulnar notch and head of ulna
D. Coronoid tubercle and radial notch

220. Which basic projection of the elbow best demonstrates the olecranon
process in profile and the fat pads of the elbow
A. AP
B. Media rotation
C. Lateral
D. lateral rotation

119
221. A dorsal decubitus abdomen is ordered on a patient. The patient is placed
on his back on trolley. The CR will enter the left side of the patient with the
patients right side against the image receptor. What type of marker should be
used?
A. Left
B. Dorsal decubitus
C. Right
D. No marker should be used

222. What plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions?
A. Transverse plane
B. Midcoronal plane
C. Median sagittal plane
D. Sagittal plane

223. What condition is more commonly seen in elderly patients?

A. Trimalleolar fracture
B. Giant cell myeloma
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Pott fracture

224. For an AP projection of the femur:

A. The lower leg should be rotated laterally 15 degrees
B. The central ray is directed toward the affected joint
C. The patient is prone
D. The lower leg is rotated medially 15 degrees

225. What is the name of a fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli of the
ankle with ankle joint dislocation?
A. Trimalleolar fracture
B. Giant cell myeloma
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Pott fracture

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226. Which of the following structures should be visualized on a properly
exposed AP supine abdomen (KUB)radiograph on a small to average size
patient?
A. Pancreas
B. Ureters
C. Spleen
D. Psoas muscle

227. What condition involves the posterior portion of the tibia and the medial
and lateral malleoli?
A. Trimalleolar fracture
B. Giant cell myeloma
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Pott fracture

228. What is the purpose of performing the partially flexed projections of the
elbow?
A. Separate the radial head from the ulna
B. Provide an AP perspective if patient cannot fully extend elbow
C. Provide a view of the radial head and capitulum
D. Demonstrate any possible elevate fat pads

229. Which of the following views is NOT performed at a 72” FFD?

A. AP lower cervical
B. Cervical flexion
C. Lateral cervical
D. Left anterior cervical oblique

230. What would be the optimal kVp for an AP thoracic?

A. 70 kVp
B. 80 kVp
C. 90 kVp
D. 100 kVp

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231. Which routine prediction of the elbow best demonstrates the radial head
and neck free of super imposition
A. Lateral
B. External oblique
C. AP
D. Internal oblique

232. How should the humeral epicondyles be positioned for a lateral projection
of the elbow
A. Parallel to image receptor
B. Perpendicular to image receptor
C. 45 degrees to image receptor
D. 30 degrees to image receptor

233. With the radial head projections, what is the only difference between the
four projections
A. The CR angulation
B. The position of the hands and the wrist
C. The amount of flexion of elbow
D. The SID used for each projection

234. Which of the following best demonstrates the radial head using the
trauma lateral routine?
A. Elbow flexed 90 degrees, CR angled 30 degrees toward shoulder
B. Elbow flexed 90 degrees, CR angled 45 degrees toward shoulder
C. Elbow flexed at 90 degrees CR perpendicular to image receptor
D. Elbow flexed 80 degrees, CR angled 45 degrees away from shoulder

235. Which of the following is true about an AP lower cervical exam?

A. Collimation should exclude the lung apices
B. Optimal kVp would be approximately 90
C. There are no filters required for this image
D. There is 0˚ tube tilt

112
236. Elbow flexed 90 degrees, CR angled 30 degrees towards shoulder Which
one of the following statements is not true about a lateral projection of the
humerus for an adult
A. Place epicodnyles parallel to IR
B. Use 40 SID
C. You can use 14x17 inch image receptor
D. Internally rotate arm to get into lateral position

237. In which view would you most likely see the left intervertebral foramen at
C4?
A. AP lower cervical
B. Right anterior cervical oblique
C. Right posterior cervical oblique
D. Swimmer’s lateral

238. Which view in the typical thoracic spine series does NOT require
secondary filtration?
A. AP thoracic
B. Lateral chest
C. Lateral thoracic
D. PA chest

239. Which of the following statements is true regarding a PA chest?

A. The FFD is typically 40” unless the patient is over 25 cm in size
B. The patient direction are for double expiration and hold
C. The vertical collimation should be approximately the midclavicular line
D. We take the film with slow expiration to blur out the ribs

240. A left posterior lumbar oblique would be the best way to see;
A. The L5/S1 disc space
B. The left lumbar intervertebral foramen
C. The left pars interarticularis
D. The right lumbar intervertebral foramen

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241. What is true regarding a right posterior lumbar oblique?
A. A left marker should be placed anterior to the spine
B. The patient should have their right side touching the bucky
C. The tube should be tilted 15” caudad
D. We should aim the central ray 2” below the iliac crest in the midline

242. The 10 day rule states that we may perform pelvic radiographs of a
female if;
A. Her menstrual period is never more than 10 days late
B. She has had the chief complaint for more than 10 days
C. She has not had sex within the last 10 days
D. She is within 10 days of the start of her menstrual period

243. Which of these should views will best demonstrate the greater tuberosity
of the humerus?
A. AP shoulder
B. Baby arm shoulder
C. External shoulder rotation
D. Internal shoulder rotation

244. In what elbow view is the palm of the hand flat on the tabletop?
A. AP elbow
B. Lateral elbow
C. Lateral oblique elbow
D. Medial oblique elbow

245. In what skull view will you best be able to see the occipital bone?
A. AP
B. Caldwell
C. Lateral
D. Townes

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246. Which view in the foot series allows us to see the cuboid-cuneiform joint
space most clearly?
A. AP (dorsal-plantar)
B. Lateral
C. Lateral oblique
D. Medial oblique

247. Where should the central ray enter the hand on a lateral hand view?
A. Base of the proximal phalange of the 2nd ray
B. Base of the proximal phalange of the 3rd ray
C. Head of the 2nd metacarpal
D. Head of the 3rd metacarpal

248. Which of the following structures MUST be seen on an AP full spine?

A. Frontal bone
B. Humeral heads
C. Intervertebral foramen of the cervical spine
D. Ischial tuberosities

249. What body type has the stomach and gallbladder low, vertical, and near
the midline?
A. Hypersthenic habitus
B. Sthenic habitus
C. Hyposthenic habitus
D. Asthenic habitus

250. What is a tumor that arises on bone with a large bubble appearance and
may be benign or malignant?
A. Trimalleolar fracture
B. Giant cell myeloma
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Pott fracture

115
251. What body type has the thorax broad and deep?
A. Hypersthenic habitus
B. Sthenic habitus
C. Hyposthenic habitus
D. Asthenic habitus

252. The central ray for an AP projection of the hip is:

A. Directed parallel to a point 2 inches medial to the ASIS and at the level of the
superior margin of the greater trochanter
B. Directed parallel to a point 2 inches lateral to the ASIS and at the level of the
superior margin of the greater trochanter
C. Directed parallel to a point 2 inches medial to the ASIS and at the level of the
inferior margin of the greater trochanter
D. Directed perpendicular to a point 2 inches medial to the ASIS and at the level of
the superior margin of the greater trochanter

253. What plane passes transversely across the body?

A. Transverse plane
B. Midcoronal plane
C. Median sagittal plane
D. Sagittal plane

254. What is a defect in the pars articularis?

A. Jefferson’s fracture
B. Hangman’s fracture
C. Spondylolysis
D. Spina bifida

255. For RPO and LPO positions for sacroiliac joints:

A. Image the joint nearest the image receptor
B. The part must be angled at 10 to 15 degrees to coincide with the angle of the joints
C. Image the joint farthest from the image receptor
D. The central ray must be angled 25 degrees cephalad

116
256. What condition is characterized by the degeneration of one or several
joints?
A. Trimalleolar fracture
B. Giant cell myeloma
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Pott fracture

257. What plane passes vertically through the midline of the body from front
to back?
A. Transverse plane
B. Midcoronal plane
C. Median sagittal plane
D. Sagittal plane

258. What is a defect of the posterior aspect of the spinal canal caused by
failure of the vertebral arch to form properly?
A. Jefferson’s fracture
B. Hangman’s fracture
C. Spondylolysis
D. Spina bifida

259. What condition is a collapse of lung tissue and is harder to penetrate?

A. Atelectasis
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. COPD
D. Emphysema

260. What is a comminuted fracture of the ring of the atlas involving both
anterior and posterior arches and causing displacement of the fragments?
A. Jefferson’s fracture
B. Hangman’s fracture
C. Spondylolysis
D. Spina bifida

117
261. For an AP projection of the coccyx:
A. The central ray should be directed 10 degrees caudad, entering 2 inches superior
to the symphysis pubis
B. The central ray should be directed 10 degrees cephalad, entering 2 inches superior
to the symphysis pubis
C. The central ray should be directed 25 degrees caudad, entering 2 inches superior
to the symphysis pubis
D. The central ray should be directed 25 degrees caudad, entering 4 inches superior
to the symphysis pubis

262. What condition should not be imaged with use of an AEC?

A. Atelectasis
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. COPD
D. Emphysema

263. What is lung cancer arising from bronchial mucosa?

A. Atelectasis
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. COPD
D. Emphysema

264. What condition involves an intestinal obstruction?

A. Annular carcinoma
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Hiatal hernia
D. Ileus

265. What condition may be a dynamic or non-mechanical?

A. Annular carcinoma
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Hiatal hernia
D. Ileus

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266. What progressive condition is marked by diminished capabilities of
inspiration and expiration?
A. Atelectasis
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. COPD
D. Emphysema

267. For RAO position of the sternum:

A. The body should be rotated 45 to 60 degrees to prevent superimposition of the
sternum and spine
B. The patient is supine
C. Breathing should be shallow during exposure; a falling load generator should not
be used, if possible
D. The best image is obtained with suspended breathing

268. When a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection is performed for the facial

bones:
A. The MSP is parallel to the IR
B. The MSP is perpendicular to the IR, the head rests on the chin, and the OML
forms a 53-degree angle with the plane of the image receptor
C. The MSP is perpendicular to the IR, the head rests on the chin, and the OML
forms a 37-degree angle with the plane of the image receptor
D. The MSP is perpendicular to the IR, the head rests on the nose, and the OML
forms a 37-degree angle with the plane of the image receptor

269. For radiography of the sternoclavicular articulations:

A. PA and lateral projections are required
B. RAO or LAO positions are used to eliminate superimposition of joints onto
vertebral shadow
C. The patient should breathe during exposure; a falling load generator should be
used if possible
D. An AP projection is used to reduce magnification of joints

119
270. What condition is characterized by air trapped in the alveoli, which
makes the condition very easy to penetrate?
A. Atelectasis
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. COPD
D. Emphysema

271. What condition is characterized by soft bones resulting from deficiency of

vitamin D and sunlight?
A. Hydrocephalus
B. Paget’s disease
C. Osteoporosis
D. Rickets

272. What condition is an abnormal demineralization of bone, seen more often

in females?
A. Hydrocephalus
B. Paget’s disease
C. Osteoporosis
D. Rickets

273. When the skull is radiographed in the lateral position:

A. The MSP must be perpendicular to the IR, the IOML must be parallel to the IR,
and the IPL must be parallel to the IR
B. The MSP and IOML are parallel to the IR, and the IPL is perpendicular to the IR
C. The MSP is perpendicular to the IR, and the IPL is parallel to the IR
D. The MSP and IOML are perpendicular to the IR, and the IPL is parallel to the IR

274. What condition involves chronic inflammation of portions of the bowel?

A. Annular carcinoma
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Hiatal hernia
D. Ileus

121
275. What condition is marked by abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal
fluid in the brain?
A. Hydrocephalus
B. Paget’s disease
C. Osteoporosis
D. Rickets

276. For a direct PA projection of the skull, the central ray is directed:
A. 15 degrees caudad
B. 25 degrees caudad
C. Perpendicular to the image receptor
D. Perpendicular to the image receptor, exiting the nasion when the OML is
perpendicular to the IR

277. For a parietoorbital (Rhese) projection of the optic foramen:

A. The head is resting on the forehead, nose, and zygoma
B. The MSP forms an angle of 53 degrees from the perpendicular
C. The central ray exits the unaffected orbit
D. The head rests on the zygoma, nose, and chin while the MSP is rotated 53 degrees
from the IR

278. When the mandibular body is radiographed with the patient in the SMV
position:
A. The head and neck are extended and resting on the chin
B. The MSP is parallel with the IR
C. The IOML is perpendicular with the plane of the image receptor, the head and
neck are resting on the vertex, and the MSP is perpendicular to the IR
D. The IOML is parallel with the plane of the image receptor, the head is resting on
the vertex, and the MSP is perpendicular to the IR

121
279. What is a condition in which a portion of the stomach protrudes through
the diaphragm?
A. Annular carcinoma
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Hiatal hernia
D. Ileus

280. What condition appears in an “apple-core” pattern on barium enema

examination?
A. Annular carcinoma
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Hiatal hernia
D. Ileus

281. What condition is visualized by performing an upper GI series?

A. Diverticula
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Adynamic ileus

282. What condition is characterized by pouchlike herniations of the colonic

wall?
A. Diverticula
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Adynamic ileus

283. What condition causes a narrowing of the sphincter at the distal end of
the stomach?
A. Diverticula
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Adynamic ileus

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284. What condition is a severe inflammation of the colon and rectum with loss
of mucosal lining?
A. Diverticula
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Adynamic ileus

285. What condition is characterized by fluid-filled masses in the kidney?

A. Polycystic kidney disease
B. Renal calculus
C. Wilms’ tumor
D. Renal cysts

286. Which of the following is a malignant cancer of the kidney?

A. Polycystic kidney disease
B. Renal calculus
C. Wilms’ tumor
D. Renal cysts

287. What condition includes enlarged kidneys containing numerous cysts?

A. Polycystic kidney disease
B. Renal calculus
C. Wilms’ tumor
D. Renal cysts

288. Which of the following conditions is seen primarily in children?

A. Polycystic kidney disease
B. Renal calculus
C. Wilms’ tumor
D. Renal cysts

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289. What describes a kidney stone?
A. Polycystic kidney disease
B. Renal calculus
C. Wilms’ tumor
D. Renal cysts

290. For an AP projection of the ribs above the diaphragm, which of the
following statements is true?
A. The top of the cassette is placed 1 to 2 inches above the shoulders
B. The shoulders are relaxed, and the scapulae are flat against the table
C. The central ray is directed to T7
D. All of above

291. For a lateral projection of the cervical spine, which of the following
statements are true?
A. The patient may be upright, seated, or supine, depending on his or her condition
B. SID of 72 inches should be used because of increased object-to-image receptor
distance
C. The cervical collar should be removed so that it does not obstruct pertinent
anatomy
D. All of above

292. For the lateral projection of the scapula, which of the following
statements are true?
A. Patient should be upright to reduce pain
B. The body is adjusted by palpating axillary and vertebral borders of the scapula so
that the scapula is lateral
C. Scapula must be projected free of the rib cage
D. All of above

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293. When a lateral knee projection is performed, which of the following
statements are true?
A. The patient turns onto the affected side
B. The knee is flexed 20 to 30 degrees
C. The central ray enters the knee joint inferior to the medial condyle
D. All of above

294. When the clavicle is being radiographed, which of the following

statements are true?
A. The patient’s head should be turned away from the affected side
B. AP projection may be used for patient comfort
C. A central ray angle of 25 to 30 degrees caudad is used for the PA axial projection
D. All of above

295. For a lateral projection of the humerus, which of the following statements
are true?
A. The patient may be upright or supine
B. The humeral epicondyles are placed perpendicular to the cassette
C. The central ray is directed perpendicular to the midshaft
D. All of above

296. For a PA oblique (scapular Y) projection of the shoulder, which of the

following statements are true?
A. The central ray is directed to the shoulder at a 10-degree cephalad angle
B. The anterior surface of the affected shoulder is centered to the cassette
C. The patient is rotated so that the midcoronal plane forms a 60-degree angle with
the cassette
D. B and C

125
297. What is the most common body habitus, present in about 50% of the
population?
A. Hypersthenic habitus
B. Sthenic habitus
C. Hyposthenic habitus
D. Asthenic habitus

298. Which one of the following methods is used to visualize the bicipital
groove?
A. Fisk method
B. West point method
C. Grashey method
D. Garth method

299. Before bringing the patient into the radiographic room, the radiographer
should:
A. Be certain that the x-ray room is clean and orderly
B. Check that all necessary accessories are available in room
C. Check for clean x-ray table and fresh pillowcases
D. All above

300. For AP radiography of the foot, which of the following statements are
true?
A. A trough-compensating filter may be used
B. The dorsal surface rests on the cassette
C. The central ray is directed 10 degrees anterior
D. None of above

126
 Part III

200 MCQ

1. Fluoroscopy Imaging
2. Computed Tomography
3. Magnetic Imaging
4. Different Questions

127
1. Which is true for barium sulfate?
A. Radio opaque positive contrast media
B. Contraindicated in case of GIT perforation
C. Mal absorption material
D. All above

2. For IVU procedure, the plain film is needed for

A. Determine the optimal technical factor
B. Differentiate any calcification or stone before enhancing with contrast media
C. Evaluation the preparation of the patient
D. All above

3. The most safety contrast media is

A. Low osmolarity
B. High osmolarity
C. Ionic
D. B+C

4. In Case of barium swallow for trachoesophageal fistula the contrast which

used is
A. Gastrographin
B. Soft barium
C. Ionic contrast media
D. None of above

5. Barium Swallow is procedure used to demonstrate

A. Esophagus
B. Stomach
C. Small bowel
D. Large bowel

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6. When examining the IVU procedure for hypertensive patient, the films
should be taken in which of the following series times?
A. 2min, 5min, 10min
B. 5min, 10min, 15min
C. 10min, 15min, 20min
D. 15min, 20min, 25min

7. In order to demonstrate the Urinary tract, the following procedures are used
for this purpose except:
A. T- Tube
B. MCUG
C. IVU
D. Urethrography

8. HSG is procedure used to demonstrate

A. Uterus and fallopian tubes
B. Liver and Billary system
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Urinary tract

9. In fluoroscopy, when protective aprons are worn, the dosimeter should be

worn:
A. Outside the apron at level of the collar
B. Inside the apron at level of the top torso
C. Outside the apron at level of the waist
D. Not necessary worn dosimeter with apron

10. The concentration of barium in barium enema procedure

A. 100% W/V
B. 150%W/V
C. 200%W/V
D. 250%W/V

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11. Visibility of detail in fluoroscopy can generally be improved by using:
A. Low KV
B. Small FOV (field of view)
C. Low MA
D. Low exposure rate

12. During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a

stomach of average size and shape will usually demonstrate:
A. Barium-filled fundus
B. Double contrast of distal stomach portions
C. Barium-filled duodenum and pylorus
D. A and B

13. The usual preparation for an upper GI series is:

A. Clear fluids 8 hours prior to examination
B. NPO after midnight
C. Enemas until clear before examination
D. Light breakfast day of the examination

14. During a GI examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of

average shape will usually demonstrate:
A. Anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach
B. Barium-filled fundus
C. Double-contrast body and antral portions
D. B and C

15. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the esophagus
and trachea?
A. Esophagus is posterior to the trachea
B. Trachea is posterior to the esophagus
C. Esophagus is lateral to the trachea
D. Trachea is lateral to the esophagus

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16. To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in the:
A. Recumbent position
B. Erect position
C. Anatomic position
D. Fowler’s position

17. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate a double contrast of
the hepatic and splenic flexures?
A. Left lateral decubitus
B. AP recumbent
C. Right lateral decubitus
D. AP erect

18. In which of the following positions are a barium-filled pyloric canal and
duodenal bulb best demonstrated during a GI series?
A. RAO
B. Left lateral
C. Recumbent PA
D. Recumbent AP

19. What position is frequently used to project the GB away from the vertebrae
in the asthenic patient?
A. RAO
B. LAO
C. left lateral decubitus
D. PA erect

20. Which of the following barium-/air-filled anatomic structures is best

demonstrated in the RAO position?
A. Splenic flexure
B. Hepatic flexure
C. Sigmoid colon
D. Ileocecal valve

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21. Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver
and kidneys?
A. Lateral abdomen
B. AP abdomen
C. Dorsal decubitus abdomen
D. Ventral decubitus abdomen

22. During IV urography, the prone position is generally recommended to

demonstrate:
A. Filling of obstructed ureters
B. The renal pelvis
C. The superior calyces
D. A and C

23. Which of the following examinations require(s) catheterization of the

ureters?
A. Retrograde urogram
B. Cystogram
C. Voiding cystogram
D. IVU

24. Hysterosalpingograms may be performed for the following reason(s):

A. Demonstration of fistulous tracts
B. Investigation of infertility
C. Demonstration of tubal patency
D. All of above

25. A post void image of the urinary bladder is usually requested at the
completion of an IVP/IVU and may be helpful in demonstrating:
A. Residual urine
B. Prostate enlargement
C. Ureteral tortuosity
D. A and B

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26. During routine intravenous urography, the oblique position demonstrates
the:
A. Kidney of the side up parallel to the IR
B. Kidney of the side up perpendicular to the IR
C. Urinary bladder parallel to the IR
D. Urinary bladder perpendicular to the IR

27. To better demonstrate contrast-filled distal ureters during intravenous

urography, it is helpful to:
A. Use a 15◦ AP Trendelenburg position
B. Apply compression to the proximal ureters
C. Apply compression to the distal ureters
D. None of above

28. Lead aprons used in fluoroscopy must be at least:

A. 0.5-mm lead
B. 0.25-mm lead
C. 0.1-mm lead
D. 0.25-mm lead equivalent

29. The method by which contrast-filled vascular images are removed from
superimposition upon bone is called:
A. Positive masking
B. Reversal
C. Subtraction
D. Registration

30. In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the:

A. Cisterna magna
B. Individual intervertebral discs
C. Subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae
D. Subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

133
31. Lower extremity venography requires an injection of iodinated contrast
medium into the:
A. Superficial veins of the foot
B. Deep veins of the foot
C. Femoral vein
D. Popliteal vein

32. Proper treatment for contrast media extravasation into tissues around a vein
includes:
A. Application of cold wet towel to affected area
B. Application of moist heat to affected area
C. Application of pressure to injection site
D. B and C

33. What is the most frequently used site for intravenous injection of contrast
agents?
A. Basilic vein
B. Cephalic vein
C. Antecubital vein
D. Femoral

34. The characteristic(s) of computed tomography (CT) which give(s) it a distinct

advantage over conventional radiography is/are:
A. Higher visibility of detail (resolution).
B. Better contrast sensitivity (low contrast detectability).
C. Lower noise.
D. Fewer artifacts.

35. A CT number value of 100 for a specific soft tissue indicates that it:

A. Has a higher than normal water content.

B. Probably has a density greater than 1 gm/cc.
C. Will appear bright if a window with a width of 50 is centered at 50.
D. Will change to a value of 50 if the slice thickness is reduced to one half.
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36. The visibility of anatomical detail in a CT image will increase (blur will
decrease) when:

A. The slice thickness is decreased.

B. The field of view is increased.
C. The matrix size is decreased.
D. The smoothing filter algorithm is used.

37. Changing the CT image matrix size will have a significant effect on:

A. CT number values
B. Image detail
C. Image noise
D. B and C

38. CT image detail (blurring) can be affected by:

A. The size of the focal spot

B. The size of the detector
C. The size of a voxel
D. All of above

39. Iodine is a good CT contrast agent because

A. We can achieve very high concentrations in target organs

B. The k-edge (33 keV) is much lower than x-ray energies produced by a 120 kV
C. The k-edge (33 keV) is near the average diagnostic x-ray energy produced by a
120 kV tube
D. It simulates the attenuation of bone

40. The CT number (Hounsfield unit) of fat depends on

A. kV
B. mAs
C. Reconstruction algorithm
D. Nothing - it is constant

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41. Beam hardening in x-ray imaging refers to

A. Decreasing x-ray beam strength as it passes through a dense material

B. Decrease in a photon's energy as it is scattered by a dense material
C. Increase in a photon's energy as it is scattered by a dense material
D. Increased average x-ray energy as a beam passes through a dense material

42. A hardened beam has what effect on the CT appearance of soft tissue

A. No change
B. Darker with poorer contrast
C. Darker with better contrast
D. Brighter with the same contrast

43. The major technical challenge in cardiac CT is

A. Spatial resolution
B. Temporal resolution
C. Contrast resolution
D. Three-dimensional reconstruction

44. The major determinant of temporal resolution in CT is

A. Gantry rotation speed

B. Reconstruction algorithm
C. Fan-beam angle
D. Detector collimation

45. The most important physical process responsible for tissue contrast in CT
imaging is

A. Coherent (Rayleigh) scatter

B. Photoelectric absorption
C. Incoherent (Compton) scatter
D. Characteristic x-ray production

136
46. Increasing the number of rows in MDCT principally allows for

A. Greater spatial resolution

B. Greater temporal resolution
C. Greater axial coverage
D. Greater contrast resolution

47. A dose-reduction strategy in prospectively gated cardiac CT would be

A. Increasing tube mAs
B. Increasing tube kV
C. Utilizing ultrahigh pitch technique
D. Utilizing a scanner with more detector rows

48. An advantage of a cone-beam scanner (versus standard MDCT) in cardiac

CT is
A. Improved spatial resolution
B. Improved temporal resolution
C. Improved contrast resolution
D. Improved patient motion artifacts

49. High radiation doses seen in retrospectively gated cardiac CT, as compared
to prospectively gated CT, are a result of
A. Increased scanner mAs
B. Increased scanner kV
C. Increased scanner pitch
D. Decreased scanner pitch

50. Retrospective gating (versus prospective gating) would be particularly useful

in a patient with
A. Large body habitus
B. Slow heart rate
C. Irregular heart rate
D. Anomalous coronary artery origin

137
51. The goal of automated exposure compensation is
A. To generate images of similar noise in different patient sizes
B. To scan patients of different sizes with the same kV and mAs settings
C. To obtain pretty, low-noise images
D. To eliminate the radiation risks from CT examinations

52. The major technical challenge in cardiac CT is

A. Spatial resolution
B. Temporal resolution
C. Contrast resolution
D. Three-dimensional reconstruction

53. Decreasing kV in CT is advantageous because

A. X-ray penetration improves
B. Tissue contrast improves
C. Scan times are reduced
D. Metal streak artifacts are improved

54. Positioning the patient off-center within the CT gantry will result in
A. Decreased dose
B. Increased dose
C. Reconstruction artifacts
D. Incorrect Hounsfield unit numbers

55. Dose in CT can be reduced by which of the following parameter adjustments

(assuming other factors constant):
A. Increasing kV
B. Increasing mAs
C. Increasing Pitch
D. Increasing scan length

138
56. Deterministic effects in CT would best be measured by looking at
A. CT Dose Index (CTDI)
B. Dose-length product (DLP)
C. Effective dose
D. Pitch

57. How is radiation dose distributed in the patient's body in CT?

A. Mostly at the skin surface
B. Mostly in the center of the body
C. More at the skin surface than in the center
D. Entirely uniformly from the skin to the center of the body

58. In helical CT, a low-pitch technique might be most helpful for

A. Scanning a tachypneic patient
B. Detecting a non-displaced fracture
C. Detecting a subtle liver lesion
D. Scanning a young child

59. High-pitch techniques are useful for

A. Very small findings (e.g. non-displaced fracture)
B. Gated cardiac CT
C. Accurate multiplanar reconstructions
D. Fast scans

60. What are the two phases of the Non-Equilibrium Phase utilized for Bi-Phasic
studies of the pancreas and liver?
A. Hepatic and arterial and portal venous
B. Bolus and equilibrium
C. Hepatic arterial and bolus
D. Portal venous and equilibrium

139
61. In helical CT, pitch is defined as
A. Table movement in 360 degrees / beam width
B. Patient dose in 360 degrees / beam width
C. Reconstructed slice thickness / beam width
D. Gantry angle with respect to the scan axis

62. Thorough patient preparation and education prior to a CT scan will do

which of the following?
A. Reduce repeat radiation exposure
B. Reduce patient anxiety
C. Ensure best possible images
D. All of the above

63. The technique used in obtaining Hi-Resolution CT (HRCT) includes:

A. Thin collimation
B. Utilizing a high spatial frequency algorithm or filter
C. Increased technical factor
D. A and B

64. The adrenals should be included on a routine oncology chest scan because
A. Lung may be seen below the adrenal glands
B. Lung is never seen below the adrenal glands
C. Adrenal glands enlarge with infection
D. Lung tumours can metastasis to the adrenals

65. Routine brain CT scans should end at the vertex and begin where?
A. Skull base
B. Orbits
C. Vomer
D. Zygoma

141
66. Which of the following questions should be included in the pre-screening for
a contrast CT exam on a 35 year old female?
A. Chance of pregnancy
B. Allergies?
C. Diabetic?
D. All of the Above

67. What CT development allows for more than one slice to be acquired during
each tube rotation?
A. Host computers
B. Data acquisition system
C. Multi-row detector arrays
D. Single-row detector arrays

68. What type of contrast is often used to enhance CT images of the large
intestines and the pelvic organs?
A. Oral barium sulfate
B. Rectal contrast
C. Intrathecal contrast
D. Oral water soluble prep

69. What adrenal pathology may precipitate a hypertensive crisis if IV contrast

is utilized?
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Diabetes
C. Pheochromocytoma
D. Renal insufficiency

70. Which the following is done with High Resolution CT?

A. CT chest of lung
B. Temporal bone
C. Extremities
D. All above

141
71. What is a typical mAs used in routine abdomen CT studies on an average
sized patient?
A. 400-500 mAs
B. 25-100 mAs
C. 200-300 mAs
D. 100-150 mAs

72. Which CT Procedure requires Prothrombin Time (PT) and Partial

Thromboplastin Time (PTT) laboratory results prior to starting the
procedure?
A. CT abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast
B. CTA PE chest
C. CT guided liver biopsy
D. CT soft tissue neck with IV contrast

73. More recently, as MDCT scanners have become commonplace, the technique
known as ______________ is replacing the HRCT axial protocols.
A. HRCT
B. MRI
C. CT
D. Volumetric HRCT

74. For Brain CT in case of head trauma, the following are true except
A. Patient is supine and the head in head rest if possible
B. Administration of 60 cc I.V contrast media
C. Printing soft tissue window
D. Printing bone window

75. Which is (are) true for petrous temporal bone CT?

A. Slice thickness is 1mm
B. Table increment 1mm
C. Printing bone window
D. All above

142
76. What are the two phases of the Non-Equilibrium Phase utilized for Bi-Phasic
studies of the pancreas and liver?
A. Hepatic arterial and portal venous
B. Bolus and equilibrium
C. Hepatic arterial and bolus
D. Portal venous and equilibrium

77. A routine liver abdomen CT is often scanned is one portal venous phase.
What is an indication to scan the liver bi-phasic?
A. Hyper-vascular lesions
B. Hepatic vascular anatomy
C. Hemangiomas
D. All of the above

78. For a constant injection rate, as the contrast dose is increased (by increasing
contrast volume), the magnitude of the _____________increases and the time
required to reach that peak also increases.
A. Contrast dose
B. Aortic enhancement
C. Peak enhancement
D. Contrast enhancement

79. Intravenous (IV) contrast medium is administered for musculoskeletal CT, is

often may be helpful in evaluating the vascularity of a __________ or in
showing the relationship of major arteries or veins to musculoskeletal masses.
A. Musculoskeletal trauma
B. Tailored
C. Tumor
D. Clinical

143
80. Musculoskeletal images are viewed in both _________(window width
approximately 450; window level approximately 50) and bone (window width
approximately 2,000; window level approximately 600) window settings.
A. Soft-tissue
B. Shoulder trauma
C. Knee
D. Prosthesis

81. Protocols for _____________most often include thin slices acquired in the
axial plane. Scanning begins at the acromioclavicular joint and terminates a
few centimeters below the most inferior fracture line.
A. Soft-tissue
B. Shoulder trauma
C. Knee
D. Prosthesis

82. The pancreas differs in size, shape, and location depending on the individual
patient. In general, the pancreas is located between the areas of the twelfth
_____________and the second lumbar vertebra (inferiorly).
A. Thoracic vertebra
B. Pancreatic duct
C. Bile duct calculi
D. Obscure

83. The ionizing radiation used in CT is an x-ray with maximum energy from
120 to _________and an average energy near 70 keV.
A. 120 keV
B. 130 keV
C. 140 keV
D. 150 keV

144
84. What protocols cover the entire lung so they result in a more complete
assessment of the lung? In addition, they allow post processing techniques
such as maximum (MIP) and minimum (Min IP) intensity projection
reformation.
A. ECG
B. Helical
C. Volumetric HRCT
D. MIP

85. The __________ advantages of high temporal and spatial resolution are
particularly well suited to accurately image the heart and thoracic vessels
and have resulted in many new scanning protocols.
A. HRCT
B. CT
C. MDCT
D. MRI

86. The normal CT attenuation of the ______in unenhanced studies varies

among individuals and ranges from 38 to 70HU.
A. Rectum
B. Pancreas
C. Liver
D. Spleen

87. What is the techniques measure cerebral blood flow, whereas CT

angiography of the carotid arteries and vessels of the circle of Willis can
demonstrate stenos is or occlusion of extra cranial and intracranial arteries?
A. Venous anatomy
B. CT angiography
C. CT perfusion
D. Cerebral and carotid CTA

145
88. All the following are true for High Resolution Chest CT except
A. Administration 60cc IV contrast media
B. Printing lung window
C. This indicated for intrstial lung disease
D. Slice thickness 1-2mm with 10 table increment

89. The routine technique for abdomen CT

A. Oral contrast media
B. Un enhanced 2-5mm scans through liver
C. Enhanced 2-5 scans after IV contrast
D. All above

90. What helical or spiral computed tomography term is defined as the table
increment in distance per mm per 360 degrees gantry rotation divided by the
section thickness in mm?
A. Rotation
B. Spiral
C. Helix
D. Pitch

91. Which of the following determines the maximum number of shades of gray
that can be displayed on the CT monitors?
A. Window level
B. Window width
C. Pixel size
D. Matrix size

92. Which describes the relationship between section thickness and noise?
A. If section thickness increases, noise increases
B. If section thickness increases, noise decreases
C. If section thickness decreases, noise decreases
D. If section thickness decreases, noise remains unchanged

146
93. Which statement regarding the Hounsfield unit scale is correct ? The
Hounsfield unit scale is:
A. Specific to ultrasound imaging (US)
B. Specific to positron emission tomography (PET)
C. Specific to magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D. Specific to computed tomography (CT)

94. In healthy subjects the attenuation of the liver is at least 10HU greater than
that of the_______.
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Limbs
D. Spleen

95. Which of the following statements concerning computed tomography (CT) is

correct?
A. Tissues that strongly absorb X-rays appear black while others that absorb poorly
appear white on CT images.
B. Iodine-based contrast agents are mainly used in the imaging of the digestive
system by CT scanning.
C. Water has an X-ray attenuation of 0 Hounsfield units or 0 HUs.
D. Organ-specific radiation doses from CT scans are negligibly low compared to
those associated with conventional radiography.

96. What laboratory test(s) should be performed prior to CT exams that require
IV contrast media injections to determine renal function?
A. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and Creatinine
B. Prothrombin Time (PT)
C. Platelet Count and Complete Blood Count (CBC)
D. Liver enzymes

147
97. What is considered a normal range for Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)?
A. 30-55 mg/dl
B. 0.6-1.7 mg/dl
C. 5-25mg/dl
D. 55-190 mg/dl

98. Arterial and venous renal blood flow in a patient who has received a kidney
transplant is best assessed by using:
A. Computed tomography
B. Conventional urography
C. Doppler sonography
D. Magnetic resonance imaging

99. In the presence of a uniform magnetic field, hydrogen protons

A. Line up along the field and rotate around its axis
B. Line up along the field and precess around its axis
C. Remain oriented mostly randomly and precess around the field axis
D. Are not affected by the magnetic field

100. After a radiofrequency pulse, protons will

A. Dephase according to T2* and then recover along B0 according to T1
B. Dephase according to T1 and then recover along B0 according to T2 *
C. Recover along B0 according to T1 and then dephase according to T2 *
D. Recover along B0 according to T2* and then dephase according to T1

101. A spin echo is formed by

A. Reversing the direction of B0
B. Flipping proton direction by a radiofrequency pulse
C. Applying a negative magnetic field gradient
D. None of above

148
102. The difference between T2 and T2* is
A. T2* represents the combination of static magnetic field inhomogeneity, which is
T2, and varying molecular magnetic field inhomogeneity
B. T2 represents the combination of static magnetic field inhomogeneity, which is
T2*, and varying molecular magnetic field inhomogeneity
C. T2* represents the combination of static magnetic field inhomogeneity and
varying molecular magnetic field inhomogeneity, which is T2
D. T2 represents the combination of static magnetic field inhomogeneity and varying
molecular magnetic field inhomogeneity, which is T2*

103. The fast spin echo sequence alters the spin echo sequence by
A. Adding successive 90 degree pulses
B. Adding successive frequency-encoding gradients
C. Adding successive 180 degree pulses
D. Adding successive spoiler gradients

104. TR and TE in spin echo sequences refer to

A. TR: the spacing between successive 90-degree pulses; TE: time before the 90-
degree pulse and the spin echo
B. TR: the spacing between successive 90-degree pulses; TE: the spacing between
the 90-degree pulse and the 180-degree pulse
C. TR: time before the 90-degree pulse and the spin echo; TE: the spacing between
successive 90-degree pulses
D. TR: the spacing between the 90-degree pulse and the 180-degree pulse; TE: the
spacing between successive 90-degree pulses

105. Compared with spin echo, fast spin echo sequences have
A. Increased T2 weighting but decreased susceptibility
B. Increased T2 weighting and increased susceptibility
C. Decreased T2 weighting but increased susceptibility
D. Decreased T2 weighting and decreased susceptibility

149
106. Compared with spin echo (SE), the gradient echo (GRE) sequence
A. Has a 180-degree pulse and demonstrates T2* dephasing
B. Has no 180-degree pulse and demonstrates T2* dephasing
C. Has a 180-degree pulse and demonstrates T2 dephasing
D. Has no 180-degree pulse and demonstrates T2 dephasing

107. Compared with SE, GRE sequences use

A. Longer TR and longer TE
B. Shorter TR and longer TE
C. Longer TR and shorter TE
D. Shorter TR and shorter TE

108. In GRE sequences, the trade-off with _decreasing_ flip angle for the
excitation pulse is
A. Increased T1 weighting but decreased signal
B. Decreased T1 weighting but improved signal
C. Increased T2* weighting but decreased signal
D. Decreased T2* weighting but improved signal

109. Balanced SSFP (steady-state free precession) sequences are used for
cardiac and vascular imaging because they are
A. Flow sensitive
B. Flow insensitive
C. Null blood signal
D. Employ gadolinium contrast

110. Echo planar imaging (EPI) is most commonly used in

A. Vascular imaging
B. Routine T2-weighted imaging
C. Post-contrast T1-weighted imaging
D. Diffusion-weighted imaging

151
111. Echo planar imaging forms echoes using
A. Successive 90-degree pulses
B. Successive alternating 90-degree pulses
C. Successive 180-degree pulses
D. Successive alternating gradients

112. Spatial localization in MRI primarily relies on

A. Distance to the receiving coil
B. Distance from the transmission coil
C. Varying magnetic field across the patient
D. Tomographic reconstruction

113. Slice-selection is performed by

A. Turning on a gradient coil prior to excitation
B. Turning on a gradient coil during excitation
C. Turning on a gradient coil prior to readout
D. Turning on a gradient coil during readout

114. In order to select a slice for excitation, the MR scanner

A. Tunes the frequency of the excitation pulse
B. Tunes the phase of the excitation pulse
C. Tunes the magnetic field of the excitation pulse
D. Tunes the spacing between the excitation and refocusing (180-degree) pulses

115. When digitizing a signal, the sampling (measurement) frequency should

be set based on
A. The maximum amplitude in the signal
B. The maximum phase shift in the signal
C. The maximum frequency in the signal
D. The desired frequency resolution

151
116. Within-slice signal localization in MRI is performed with
A. Tomography
B. Iterative reconstruction
C. Fourier transform
D. Selective excitation

117. The strength of the frequency-encoding gradient

A. Is varied multiple times to generate K-space
B. Is irrelevant for image appearance
C. Alters the bandwidth of the signal
D. Alters the tissue contrast

118. You are attempting to perform a liver MRI to evaluate for metastatic
disease, and a copy ('ghost') of the aorta appears over segment 3. What is the
best way to remove this artifact ?
A. Swap phase and frequency encoding directions
B. Phase oversampling
C. Increase bandwidth
D. Use an inversion-recovery sequence

119. The phase-encoding gradient is turned on

A. During excitation
B. During slice-selection
C. During frequency-encoding
D. Prior to readout

120. In MR imaging, matrix size determines

A. Field of view
B. Aliasing
C. Resolution
D. Bandwidth

152
121. The most signal in K-space is present
A. In the center
B. In the periphery
C. Along the frequency-encoding axis
D. Along the phase-encoding axis

122. The center of K-space contains

A. Frequency information
B. Degree of T2 weighting
C. Tissue contrast
D. Temporal resolution

123. SNR in MRI is improved by increasing :

A. Resolution
B. Bandwidth
C. Gradient strength
D. Acquisition time

124. Motion artifact in MRI is caused by :

A. Long time in between acquisition of points in k-space along the frequency-
encoding direction
B. Long time in between acquisition of points in k-space along the phase-encoding
direction
C. Frequency shifts in protons related to velocity
D. Dephasing of protons related to velocity

125. Increasing bandwidth in MRI causes :

A. Worsened chemical shift artifact
B. Worsened SNR
C. Worsened metal hardware artifacts
D. Longer echo acquisition time

153
126. The spacing of lines in k-space corresponds to :
A. Resolution
B. Number of excitations
C. Matrix size
D. Field of view

127. Aliasing refers to the mathematical phenomenon of :

A. Frequency or phase misregistration because of signal under sampling
B. Pixel misregistration related to gyromagnetic differences
C. Pixel blurring caused by lack of sampling high frequencies
D. Pixel misregistration because of patient motion

128. Radiofrequency contamination artifact causes :

A. "Ghosting" of multiple copies of structures
B. Diagonal lines across the image
C. Line(s) parallel to the frequency-encoding axis
D. Line(s) parallel to the phase-encoding axis

129. Radiofrequency contamination artifact is best addressed by :

A. Checking or replacing the receiver coils
B. Checking or replacing the transmit coils
C. Shimming the magnet
D. Checking or replacing room and door shielding

130. To null the signal from a particular tissue with an IR sequence, TI should
be chosen based on
A. The proton density of the tissue
B. The T1 value of the tissue
C. The T2 value of the tissue
D. The T2* value of the tissue

154
131. MRI employs differences in what physical phenomena to obtain tissue
contrast :
A. Gyromagnetic ratio
B. Spin-spin and spin-lattice relaxation constants
C. Carbon and nitrogen abundance
D. Magnetic field inhomogeneity

132. In order to measure recovery in the longitudinal axis (T1 relaxation), an

MR scanner measures :
A. Signal in the longitudinal axis (z-axis, along B0)
B. Signal in the transverse plane (xy-plane)
C. Proton precession frequency
D. Local magnetic field

133. The MR imaging parameter that determines how much T1 (longitudinal)

recovery is allowed to occur is the
A. TR
B. TE
C. Bandwidth (BW)
D. Number of excitations

134. A tumor that enhances with gadolinium contrast is bright on T1-weighted

images because
A. Gadolinium chelates slow T1 recovery of water molecules by interacting with the
water and changing the rotational speeds of the hydrogen atoms
B. Gadolinium has a short T1 value
C. The hydrogen atoms in the chelation groups of the contrast agent have a short T1
value
D. Gadolinium chelates speed T1 recovery of water molecules by interacting with the
water and changing the rotational speeds of the hydrogen atoms

155
135. Increasing B0 affects the T1 value of water in what way ?
A. Longer T1
B. Shorter T1
C. Does not change T1
D. Only changes T1 of water-protein mixtures

136. T2-weighted images are often referred to as "water-sensitive" because

A. Water molecules have very long (slow) T2 relaxation
B. Water molecules have very short (long) T2 relaxation
C. Trick question - T2-weighted images are not water sensitive
D. T2-weighted images are only sensitive to water-gadolinium complexes

137. Inversion-recovery (IR) sequences are helpful to

A. Improve T2 weighting
B. Improve signal-to-noise (SNR)
C. Shorten imaging time
D. Improve tissue contrast

138. Reasonable parameters for a T1-weighted image would be

A. TR 500 ms, TE 20 ms
B. TR 2800 ms, TE 90 ms
C. TR 6000 ms, TE 160 ms, TI 2000 ms
D. TR 2800 ms, TE 20 ms

139. Chemical shift artifact causes misregistration of fat and water signal in
which of the following ways :
A. Fat signal is collected in a separate echo from water signal
B. Fat signal is shifted along the frequency-encoding axis
C. Fat signal is shifted along the phase-encoding axis
D. Fat signal is shifted along the slice-selection axis

156
140. Increasing bandwidth has what effect on chemical shift artifacts :
A. Worsens chemical shift artifacts
B. Improves signal misregistration but not destructive interference (phase
cancellation)
C. Improves signal misregistration and destructive interference (phase cancellation)
D. No effect on chemical shift artifact

141. Fat-water phase differences in an MR image are determined by what

imaging parameter
A. TR in a spin echo (SE) sequence
B. TE in a spin echo (SE) sequence
C. TR in a gradient echo (GRE) sequence
D. TE in a gradient echo (GRE) sequence

142. Diffusion-weighted imaging measures the :

A. Motion of water molecules
B. Motion of cells
C. Chemical composition of tissue
D. Ratio of water to fat

143. Diffusion is typically NOT restricted by

A. Intracellular water
B. Extracellular water
C. Pus
D. Tumor cells

144. The diffusion weighting in DWI images is created by means of

A. Two balanced gradients spaced in time
B. Triphasic flow compensation gradients
C. An inversion pulse
D. Two inversion pulses

157
145. The most common pulse sequence used for DWI is
A. Standard spin echo (SE)
B. Fast spin echo (FSE)
C. Gradient echo (GRE)
D. Echo-planar imaging (EPI)

146. Protons in different molecules differ in all of the following ways except
A. T1
B. T2
C. Gyromagnetic ratio
D. Precession frequency

147. Typical pathology as seen on DWI and ADC images is

A. Bright on DWI and bright on ADC
B. Bright on DWI and dark on ADC
C. Dark on DWI and bright on ADC
D. Dark on DWI and dark on ADC

148. False-positive findings on DWI are often attributed to

A. T1 effects
B. T2 effects
C. Anisotropy
D. Poor signal to noise

149. Utilizing a single direction of diffusion, white matter tracts would appear
to
A. Uniformly restrict diffusion because of their organized structure
B. Uniformly show fast diffusion because of their organized structure
C. Heterogeneously restrict diffusion depending on their orientation
D. Uniformly show dark signal because of their fat content

158
150. Are cardiac pacemakers safe for MRI?
A. Yes
B. Some are. It depends on the pacemaker, and this should be properly checked
C. No, they are a contraindication
D. It depends on the machine magnet

151. What advice would you give to a medical doctor about scanning a
pregnant woman?
A. It's up to her, she should make the decision
B. Only scan her when you can detect a fetal heartbeat
C. Avoid scanning in the first trimester
D. None of above

152. Can a pregnant staff member enter the scanning room?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes, but they should be given the option to stay out of the Inner Controlled Area
during the first trimester
D. No, not until the end of the first trimester

153. What is quenching (in superconducting magnets)?

A. Routinely using up all the cooling fluids
B. Urgent and fast topping up the cooling fluids
C. Sudden rapid boil-off of the cooling fluids
D. Suppressing heat deposition in the patient

154. What is the point of a STIR sequence?

A. To enhance the fat signal
B. To suppress the fat signal
C. To test the inversion pulse on a scanner
D. To measure T1

159
155. What is the Larmor equation?
A. M0 = 1-exp(-t/T1)
B. cos αE = exp(-TR/T1)
C. ω0 = γ B0
D. Mxy = exp(-t/T2*)

156. How is proton density weighting achieved?

A. Short TE, long TR.
B. Short TE, short TR.
C. Long TE, long TR.
D. Long TE, short TR.

157. How is T1 weighting achieved?

A. Short TE, long TR.
B. Short TE, short TR.
C. Long TE, long TR.
D. Long TE, short TR.

158. How is T2 weighting achieved?

A. Short TE, long TR.
B. Short TE, short TR.
C. Long TE, long TR.
D. Long TE, short TR.

159. Which of the following is not a contra indication for MRI imaging?
A. Patient with cardiac pacemaker.
B. Patient with femur fixation done two years before the study.
C. Patient with cochlear (ear) implants.
D. Patient with sharpness due to metallic foreign body.

161
160. Signal to noise in MRI is increase with the following except
A. Decrease matrix size
B. Thicker slice
C. Longer TE
D. User of higher magnet field

161. The diagnostic imaging modalities of choice for following the progress of
a liver malignancy are:
A. Computed tomography
B. Radiography
C. Sonography
D. A and C

162. A malignant liver tumor is a:

A. Hepatitis
B. Hemangioma
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Jaundice

163. Arterial and venous renal blood flow in a patient who has received a
kidney transplant is best assessed by using:
A. Computed tomography
B. Conventional urography
C. Doppler sonography
D. Magnetic resonance imaging

164. Which of the following procedures may be performed to image a

nonfunctioning kidney?
A. Computed tomography (CT)
B. Intravenous urography (IVU)
C. Renal sonography
D. A and C

161
165. The imaging modality of choice for demonstration of herniated nucleus
pulposus is:
A. Computed tomography (CT)
B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C. Conventional myelography
D. Sonography

166. In which anatomic region of the breast do the majority of breast masses
occur?
A. Lower inner quadrant
B. Lower outer quadrant
C. Upper inner quadrant
D. Upper outer quadrant

167. Breast microcalcifications are seldom seen on routine chest radiographs

because:
A. The film size is too large.
B. Of an increased mass attenuation coefficient for soft tissue at chest radiographic
kVps.
C. Of a decreased mass attenuation coefficient for soft tissue at chest radiographic
kVps.
D. Of a decreased mass attenuation coefficient for Calcium at chest radiographic
kVps.

168. A fracture of the skeletal system in which the bone has penetrated the
skin is termed:
A. Closed
B. Comminuted
C. Noncomminuted
D. Open

162
169. Shoulder dislocations are most commonly displaced:
A. Anteriorly
B. Posteriorly
C. Interiorly
D. Exteriorly

170. “Incomplete expansion of a lung as a result of partial or total collapse”

describes:
A. Atelectasis
B. Empyema
C. Pleurisy
D. Pneumothorax

171. Which of the following conditions would not be an indication for

performing hysterosalpingography?
A. Determination of the patency of the oviducts
B. Status of pregnancy
C. Abnormal uterine bleeding
D. Uterine polyps

172. Penetrating chest trauma could lead to a:

A. Coma
B. Coup lesion
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. Pneumothorax

173. Which type of renal stone is least likely to be visible on an X-ray?

A. Uric acid
B. Calcium oxalate
C. Calcium phosphate
D. Cysteine

163
174. An examination that uses motion and blurring to view anatomy by setting
the x-ray tube and image receptor in motion is:
A. CT
B. Autotomography
C. Conventional tomography
D. Fluoroscopy

175. For RAO position of the esophagus:

A. The patient is rotated obliquely by elevation of the right side 35 to 40 degrees, and
the esophagus is centered to the image receptor at the level of T5 or T6
B. The patient is rotated obliquely by elevation of the left side 35 to 40 degrees, and
the esophagus is centered at the level of T5 or T6
C. The patient is rotated obliquely by elevation of the right side 55 to 60 degrees, and
the esophagus is centered to the image receptor at the level of T5 or T6
D. The patient is rotated obliquely by elevation of the left side 55 to 60 degrees, and
the esophagus is centered to the image receptor at the level of T5 or T6

176. For a PA projection of the stomach:

A. Center midway between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus
B. Center halfway between the midline and lateral border of abdominal cavity
C. Center midway between the manubrium and the umbilicus and halfway between
the midline and lateral border of abdominal cavity
D. Center midway between the xiphoid process and the umbilicus and halfway
between the midlineand lateral border of the abdominal cavity

177. A procedure used to evaluate biliary and pancreatic pathological

conditions with an endoscope is:
A. Ultrasound
B. MRI
C. ERCP
D. IVP

164
178. For the LPO or RPO positions for the colon:
A. The patient is prone, rotated 35 to 45 degrees, with the central ray at the level of
the iliac crest
B. The patient is supine, rotated 55 to 60 degrees, with the central ray at the level of
ASIS
C. The patient is supine, rotated 35 to 45 degrees from AP, with the central ray at the
level of the iliac crest
D. The patient is prone, rotated 55 to 60 degrees, with the central ray at the level of
the iliac crest

179. For a lateral decubitus position of the colon:

A. The patient is lying on one side, the cassette is centered to the iliac crest, and the
central ray is horizontal to the midline at the level of the iliac crest
B. The patient is prone, the cassette is centered to the iliac crest, and the central ray is
horizontal to the midline at the level of the iliac crest
C. The patient is lying on one side, the cassette is centered 3 inches above the iliac
crest, and the central ray is horizontal 3 inches above the iliac crest
D. The patient is prone, the cassette is centered to L1, and the central ray is
horizontal to L1

180. What is the diagnostic modality of choice for identifying renal calculi?
A. Abdominal X-ray/KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder)
B. Intravenous urogram
C. Ultrasound
D. Non-contrast CT KUB

181. Regarding the imaging modalities of the chest:

A. High resolution computed tomography (HRCT) uses a slice thickness of 4–6 mm
to identify mass lesions in the lung
B. Spiral CT ensures that no portion of the chest is missed due to variable inspiratory
effort
C. MRI shows excellent detail of the lung anatomy
D. Bronchography is the technique of choice to visualize the bronchial tree

165
182. In a chest radiograph:
A. The anterior junctional line is usually straight and extends to the right ventricle
B. The posterior junctional line is anterior to the oesophagus
C. The azygo-oesophageal line is below the aortic arch
D. The right paravertebral stripe is thicker than that on the left due to the azygos vein
.
183. In skeletal imaging: true except
A. Phased array surface detection coils greatly improve the signal to noise ratio in
MRI of bone joint and soft tissue.
B. Abnormalities of cortical bone and calcification are usually not detected by MRI.
C. Meniscal abnormalities of the knee are best demonstrated on T1- weighted scans.
D. A fat fluid level within the suprapatellar bursa of the knee joint indicates a fracture
within the joint.

184. In vascular imaging of the gastrointestinal tract:

A. Digital subtraction angiography may be degraded by patient movement.
B. The coeliac axis arises from the aorta at the level of T12 and L1 interspace.
C. The coeliac axis may be compressed by the median arcuate ligament preventing
antegrade flow of blood.
D. The coeliac axis is inferior to the lesser omentum.

185. The location of epidural hematoma is:

A. Between skull and epicranium
B. Between skull and dura
C. Between dural and arachnoid
D. Between arachnoid and brain

186. The examination of choice to diagnose subarachnoid bleeding is:

A. Skull X-ray
B. Ultrasound
C. CT scan
D. MRI

166
187. Investigation of choice for detection and characterization of interstitial
lung disease is:
A. MRI
B. Chest X-ray
C. High resolution CT scan
D. Ventilation perfusion scan

188. Imaging procedures that may be used to demonstrate an abdominal

aneurysm include:
A. Angiography
B. CT
C. Sonography
D. All above

189. Regular, yearly mammographic screening should occur in women ___

years of age or older.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50

190. In digital fluoroscopy, what equipment should be used to view the image?
A. Conventional view box
B. High-resolution monitor capable of displaying millions of pixels
C. High-definition television
D. Plasma television required

191. A primary advantage to digital fluoroscopy is:

A. Post processing manipulation of the image
B. Radiation dose to the patient is substantially lower
C. No radiologist is needed
D. Lower cost

167
192. Optimal recorded detail may be created using which of the following
factors?
A. Large focal spot
B. Narrow pixel pitch
C. Long OID
D. Short SID

193. What detection device sounds an alarm to indicate the presence of

radioactivity?
A. TLD
B. Film badge
C. Pocket ionization chamber
D. Geiger-Mueller detector

194. Which of the following is the most accurate personnel monitoring device?
A. TLD
B. Film badge
C. OSL dosimeter
D. Geiger-Mueller detector

195. Compared with younger and older women, ova in women of reproductive
age are:
A. More radiosensitive
B. Less radiosensitive
C. About the same
D. None of above

196. Most somatic effects occur:

A. At doses delivered during diagnostic radiography
B. At doses beyond doses used during diagnostic radiography
C. In middle age
D. In old age because of an increase in medical care

168
197. Somatic effects manifest in:
A. The person who has been irradiated
B. The next generation
C. Newborns
D. Imaging technologists

198. Which of the following is considered a late somatic effect?

A. Carcinogenesis
B. Genetic effect
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. Parkinson’s disease

199. What is the embryo or fetus equivalent dose limit per month?
A. 5 rem
B. 0.1 rem
C. 0.5 rem
D. 0.05 rem

200. Which of the following statements are true regarding the anatomy and
function of the urinary system?
A. The amount of urine formed in a typical day is about 1 to 1.5 L
B. Urine is formed and excreted in the nephron, the microscopic unit of the kidney
C. The left kidney lies lower than the right because of the spleen’s presence above it
D. A and C

169
 Answers

Part I 300 MCQ

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1O

B D A D D B C C C C

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C D D A A C B D C A

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D B A A C D A C D D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A C A B D C D B B D

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

D D C D D A B C B C

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

D A A D C D B D B A

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

C B A B A A A C B A

71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

D C D B D D D D D A

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

C B A C D B D D B D

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

B A D D A C B C C B
171
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 11O

B B B A C B D C A D

111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

D D B C D C B B D A

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130

B A A D D D A C D A

131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140

D C C A D C A D D C

141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

D B C B A D C A D A

151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160

A C C A B B C D B D

161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170

A D C A B B C D D C

171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180

B C D A D B B B D A

181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190

A A D A D C C C C A

191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200

C C A C B D A A B A

171
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 21O

B D C B B D C D D A

211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220

D B D A D D C A C D

221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230

B B D A D D C C D D

231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240

B B D A B B D A D C

241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250

A B C D C D D C A D

251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260

A A B C B B C C C B

261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270

B A B B D C C D D C

271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280

A C B D C D A C C A

281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290

D A D A A A A A C B

291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300

A B D D A C B C D D

172
 Part II 300 MCQ

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1O

B D A B D D D A B D

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

A D A A D C D C D D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

C D D B D A B D C A

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

C B A A C A A B A B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

C D B C A B C D A A

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

B C B A A D C C A D

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

A C C C A A A D B D

71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

C C C D C B A A A B

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

B B C C A A A B D C

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

A A A A B A C D A B

173
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 11O

B A D D D D C C D C

111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

D D C D A D B C D B

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130

A A D A D D C C B B

131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140

A C A A A D D A C D

141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

B B A B C B C C B D

151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160

B B C B B B C A C B

161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170

B D B C A C C C A C

171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180

D D C B D D C B C A

181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190

A D C B D A C D B A

191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200

C C D C C D D D A A

174
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 21O

D B B A B D A B A B

211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220

B A B D D D D C A C

221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230

C A C D D D A B A B

231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240

B B B A C A C D D C

241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250

B D C D D D C D D B

251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260

A D A C C C C D A A

261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270

C A B D D C A C B C

271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280

D C B B A D D D C A

281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290

C A C B D C A C B D

291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300

D D D D D D B C D D

175
 Part III 200 MCQ

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1O

D D A B A A A A B B

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

B D B D A A D A B B

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B D A D D A A D C D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

A D C B B A D D C A

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

D B B A B C C D D C

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

A A B B C A C B D A

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

A D D D A D C B C D

71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

C C D B D A D C C A

81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

B A C B C C C A D D

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

B B D D C A C C C A

176
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 11O

C C C A A B D B B D

111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

D C B A C C C A D C

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130

A C D B B D A D D B

131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140

B B A D A A D A B B

141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

D A B A D C B B C C

151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160

C C B B C A B C B C

161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170

D C C D B D D D A A

171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180

B D A C D B C C A D

181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190

B C C D B C C D D B

191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200

A B D C A B A A D D

177