Diwali Assignment

(Physical Chemistry)
CHEMICAL KINETICS
1. NO2 required for a reaction is produced by the decomposition of N2O5 in CCl4 as per the
equation, 2 N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g)
The initial concentration of N2O5 is 3.00 mol L–1 and it is 2.75 mol L–1 after 30 minutes. The rate
of formation of NO2 is:
(A) 1.667 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1 (B) 2.083 × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1
(C) 4.167 × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1 (D) 8.333 × 10–3 mol L–1 min–1
[Jee Main, April 2019]
2. For a given chemical reaction
1A + 2B → 3C + 4D
Concentration of C changes from 10 mmol dm–3 to 20 mmol dm–3 in 10 seconds. Rate of

appearance of D is 1.5 times the rate of disappearance of B which is twice the rate of
disappearance A. The rate of appearance of D has been experimentally determined to be 9
mmol dm–3 s–1. Therefore, the rate of reaction is ______________mmol dm–3 s–1. (Nearest Integer)
[JEE Main, June 2022]

3. For a first order reaction, the time required for completion of 90% reaction is 'x' times the half
life of the reaction. The value of 'x' is
(Given: ln 10 = 2.303 and log 2 = 0.3010)
(A) 1.12 (B) 2.43 (C) 3.32 (D) 33.31
4. At 30°C, the half life for the decomposition of AB2 is 200 s and is independent of the initial
concentration of AB2. The time required for 80% of the AB2 to decompose is
(Given: log 2 = 0.30; log 3 = 0.48)
(A) 200 s (B) 323 s (C) 467 s (D) 532 s
[JEE Main, July 2022]
5. Sucrose hydrolyses in acid solution into glucose and fructose following first order rate law with
a half-life of 3.33 h at 25°C. After 9 h, the fraction of sucrose remaining is f. The value of log10=
1
  is ______ × 10–2. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
f 
APNI KAKSHA 1
[Assume : ln 10 = 2.303, ln 2 = 0.693]

[JEE Main, Feb 2021]
6. For the first order reaction A → 2B, 1 mole of reactant A gives 0.2 moles of B after 100 minutes.
The half life of the reaction is ...... min. (Round off to the nearest integer).
[Use : ln 2 = 0.69, ln 10 = 2.3
x
Properties of logarithms : ln xy = y ln x; ln   = ln x − ln y ]
y
(Round off to the nearest integer)
7. For the reaction 2A + B → C, the values of initial rate at different reactant concentrations are
given in the table below. The rate law for the reaction is : (Chemical
Kinetics)
[A] (mol L–1) [B] (mol–1) Initial Rate (mol L–1s–1)

0.05 0.05 0.045
0.10 0.05 0.090
0.20 0.10 0.72
(A) Rate = k[A][B] (B) Rate = k[A]2[B]2 (C) Rate = k[A]2[B] (D) Rate = k[A][B]2
8. For the following graph:

Concentration
t1/2
(a) Rate (b) (c)
Initial
Time Time
concentration
APNI KAKSHA 2
Concentration
Rate
(d) (e)
Concentration
Time
Choose from the options given below, the correct one regarding order of reaction is :
(A) (b) zero order (c) and (e) First order
(B) (a) and (b) Zero order (e) First order
(C) (b) and (d) zero order (e) first order
(D) (a) and (b) Zero order (c) and (e) First order
9. For a reaction A → 2B + C the half lives are 100 s and 50 s when the concentration of reactant A
is 0.5 and 1.0 mol L–1 respectively. The order of the reaction is__________. (Nearest Integer)
10. Consider the given plots for a reaction obeying Arrhenius equation (0ºC < T < 300ºC) : (k and
Ea are rate constant and activation energy, respectively) [Chemical Kinetics]
Choose the correct option :

(A) I is right but II is wrong (B) Both I and II are wrong
(C) I is wrong but II is right (D) Both I and II are correct
[Jee Main, Jan 2019]
11. The rate constant (k) of a reaction is measured at different temperature (T), and the data are
plotted in the given figure. The activation energy of the reaction in kJ mol–1 is : (R is constant)
APNI KAKSHA 3
10
ln k
5
0 1 2 3 4 5
103
T
(A) 2R (B) 1/R (C) 2/R (D) R
[Jee Main, 2020]
1
12. Consider the following plots of rate constant versus for four different reactions. Which of the
T
following orders is corrects for the activation energies of these reactions?
log k a
d c
b
1/T
(A) Ea > Ec > Ed > Eb (B) Eb > Ea > Ed > Ec
(C) Ec > Ea > Ed > Eb (D) Eb > Ed > Ec > Ea
[Jee Main, 2020]
13. Catalyst A reduces the activation energy for a reaction by 10 kJ mol–1 at 300 K. The ratio of rate
k
T, Catalysed
constants, k
is ex. The value of x is _______. [nearest integer]
T, Uncatalysed
[Assume theat the pre-exponential factor is same in both the cases.
Given R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1]
14. If the activation energy of a reaction is 80.9 kJ mol–1, the fraction of molecules at 700 K, having
enough energy to react to form products is e–x. The value of x is _______.
(Rounded off to the nearest integer) [Use R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1]
APNI KAKSHA 4

15. The reaction rate for the reaction
[PtCl4]2– + H2O [Pt(H2O)Cl3]– + Cl–
was measured as a function of concentrations of different species. It was observed that
−d [PtCl4 ]2− 
= 4.8 10−5 [PtCl4 ]2−  − 2.4 10−3 [Pt(H 2O)Cl3 ]−  [Cl – ]
dt
where square brackets are used to denote molar concentrations. The equilibrium constant
Kc =_____. (Nearest integer)
[JEE Main, August 2021]
ANSWER KEY
CHEMICAL KINETICS
1. (A) 2. (1) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (81) 6. (300) 7. (D)
8. (D) 9. 02.00 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (4) 14. (14)
15. (50)
APNI KAKSHA 5
Thermodynamics
1. Among the following the number of state variable is _________. [JEE Main, July 2022]
Internal energy (U)
Volume (V)
Heat (q)
Enthalpy (H)
2. 5 moles of an ideal gas at 100 K are allowed to undergo reversible compression till its
temperature becomes 200 K. If Cv,m = 28 J K–1 mol–1, calculate U and PV for this process.
(R = 8.0 J K–1 mol–1) [Jee Main, April 2019]
(A) U = 14 J; (PV) = 0.8 J (B) U = 2.8 kJ; (PV) = 0.8 kJ
(C) U = 14 kJ; (PV) = 18 kJ (D) U = 14 kJ; (PV) = 4 kJ
3. For one mole of an ideal gas, which of these statements must be true?
(a) U and H each depends only on temperature
(b) Compressibility factor z is not equal to 1
(c) CP, m – CV, m = R
(d) dU = CVdT for any process
(A) (a) and (c) (B) (b), (c) and (d) (C) (a), (c) and (d) (D) (c) and (d)
[Jee Main, 2020]
4. For water vap H = 41 kJ mol–1 at 373 K and 1 bar pressure. Assuming that water vapour is an
ideal gas that occupies a much larger volume than liquid water, the internal energy change
during evaporation of water is_____kJ mol–1 [Use : R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1]
5. For combustion of one mole of magnesium in an open container at 300 K and 1 bar pressure,
CHΘ = –601.70 kJ mol–1, the magnitude of change in internal energy for the reaction is _____ kJ.
(Nearest integer)
(Given : R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1) [JEE Main, June 2022]
APNI KAKSHA 6
6. 2.2 g of nitrous oxide (N2O) gas is cooled at a constant pressure of 1 atm from 310 K to 270 K
causing the compression of the gas from 217.1 mL to 167.75 mL. The change in internal energy
of the process, U is '–x' J. The value of 'x' is ______. [Nearest integer]
(Given: atomic mass of N = 14 g mol–1 and of O = 16 g mol–1.
Molar heat capacity of N2O is 100 JK–1 mol–1)
7. The combination of plots which does not represent isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is:
[Thermodynamics]
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(A) (B) and (D) (B) (A) and (D) (C) (A) and (C) (D) (B) and (C)
8. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal compression from 5 m3 to 1 m3 against a constant external
pressure of 4 Nm–2. Heat released in this process is used to increase the temperature of 1 mole
of Al. If molar heat capacity of Al is 24 J mol–1 K–1, the temperature of Al increases by :
[Thermodynamics]
3 2
(A) K (B) 2 K (C) 1 K (D) K
2 3
9. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(A) Spontaneous process (I) H < 0
APNI KAKSHA 7
(B) Process with P = 0, T = 0 (II) GT.P. < 0

(C) Hreaction (III) Isothermal and isobaric process
(D) Exothermic process (IV) [Bond energies of molecules in
reactants] - [Bond energies of product
molecules
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
(B) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
(C) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(D) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) [JEE Main, June 2022]
10. Which of the following relation is not correct?
(A) H = U – PV (B) U = q + W
(C) Ssys + Ssurr  0 (D) G = H – TS

11. For the reaction;
A(l) → 2B(g)
U = 2.1 kcal, S = 20 cal K–1 at 300 K.
Hence G in kcal is___________ :
[Jee Main, 2020]
12. A process has H = 200 Jmol–1 and S = 40 JK–1mol–1. Out of the values given below, choose the
minimum temperature above which the process will be spontaneous : [Thermodynamics]
(A) 12K (B) 20K (C) 4K (D) 5K
13. Data given for the following reaction is as follows:
FeO(s) + C(graphite) ⎯→ Fe(s) + CO(g)
APNI KAKSHA 8
The minimum temperature in K at which the reaction becomes spontaneous is ________ .(Integer
answer) [JEE Main, July 2021]
14. For the chemical reaction X Y , the standard reaction Gibbs energy depends on
temperature T (in K) as : [Thermodynamics]
3
rG° (in kJ mol–1) = 120 – T
8
The major component of the reaction mixture at T is :
(A) Y if T = 280 K (B) X if T = 315 K (C) Y if T = 300 K (D) X if T = 350 K
15. 2O3 (g)  3O2(g)
At 300 K, ozone is fifty percent dissociated. The standard free energy change at this
temperature and 1 atm pressure is (–) _______J mol –1 (Nearest integer)
[Given: ln 1.35 = 0.3 and R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1]
Answer key
1. (3) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (38) 5. (600) 6. (195) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (–2.70) 12. (D) 13. (964)
14. (B) 15. (747)
APNI KAKSHA 9
IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
1. Ka for butyric acid (C3H7COOH) is 2 × 10–5. The pH of 0.2 M solution of butyric acid is _______ ×
10-1. (Nearest integer) [Given log 2 = 0.30] [JEE Main, July 2022]
2. 200 mL of 0.01 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of 0.01M H2SO4. The pH of the mixture is __________.
(A) 1.14 (B) 1.78 (C) 2.34 (D) 3.02
3. Arrange the following solutions in the decreasing order of pOH:

(a) 0.01 M HCl (b) 0.01 M NaOH
(c) 0.01 M CH3COONa (d) 0.01 M NaCl
(A) (b) > (c) > (d) > (a) (B) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b)
(C) (b) > (d) > (c) > (a) (D) (a) > (d) > (c) > (b)
[Jee Main, 2020]
4. 20 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is added to 30 mL of 0.2 M NH4OH solution. The pH of the

resultant mixture is : [pkb of NH4OH = 4.7]. [Ionic Equilibrium]
(A) 9.4 (B) 5.0 (C) 9.0 (D) 5.2
5. Class XII students were asked to prepare one litre of buffer solution of pH 8.26 by their
chemistry teacher. The amount of ammonium chloride to be dissolved by the student 1n 0.2 M
ammonia solution to make one litre of the buffer is
(Given pKb (NH3)=4.74; Molar mass of NH3=17g mol–1; Molar mass of NH4Cl= 53.5g mol–1)
(A) 53.5 g (B) 72.3 g (C) 107.0 g (D) 126.0 g
6. Consider the following statements
(a) The pH of a mixture containing 400 mL of 0.1 M H2S04 and 400 mL of 0.1 M NaOH will be
approximately 1.3.
(b) Ionic product of water is temperature dependent.
(c) A monobasic acid with Ka = 10–5 has a pH = 5. The degree of dissociation of this acid is 50%.
APNI KAKSHA 10
(d) The Le Chatelier's principle is not applicable to common-ion effect.
The correct statements are :
(A) (a), (b)and(c) (B) (a) and (b) (C) (b) and (c) (D) (a), (b) and (d)
7. An acidic buffer is obtained on mixing :
(a) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 200 mL of 0.1 M NaCl
(B) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 200 mL of 0.1 M CH3COONa
(C) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH and 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(D) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH and 200 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
[Jee Main, 2020]
8. Given below are two statements.

Statement I: In the titration between strong acid and weak base methyl orange is suitable as
an indicator.
Statement II: For titration of acetic acid with NaOH phenolphthalein is not a suitable indicator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
9. In base vs. Acid titration, at the end point methyl orange is present as
(A) quinonoid form (B) heterocyclic form (C) phenolic from (D) benzenoid form

10. If Ksp of Ag2CO3 is 8 × 10–12, the molar solubility of Ag2CO3 in 0.1M AgNO3 is :
[Ionic Equilibrium]
(A) 8×10–10 M (B) 8 ×10–13 M (C) 8×10–12 M (D) 8×10–11 M
APNI KAKSHA 11
11. The solubility of Ca(OH)2 in water is:

[Given : The solubility product of Ca(OH)2 in water = 5.5 × 10–6]
(A) 1.77 × 10–6
(B) 1.11 × 10–6
(C) 1.11 × 10–2
(D) 1.77 × 10–2
12. The solubility of AgCl will be maximum in which of the following?
(A) 0.01 M KCl (B) 0.01 M HC1
(C) 0.01 M AgNO3 (D) De-ionised water
13. When 35 mL of 0.15 M lead nitrate solution is mixed with 20 mL of 0.12 M chromic sulphate
solution, ________ × 10–5 moles of lead sulphate precipitate out. (Round off to the Nearest
Integer)
[JEE Main, March 2021]
14. The solubility of AgCN in a buffer solution of pH=3 is x. The value of x is: (Assume : No cyano
complex is formed; Ksp (AgCN) =2.2×10–16 and Ka(HCN) = 6.2×10–10]
(A) 0.625 × 10–6
(B) 1.9 × 10–5
(C) 2.2 × 10–16
(D) 1.6 × 10–6
15. The number of moles of NH3, that must be added to 2 L of 0.80 M AgNO3 in order to reduce the
concentration of Ag+ ions to 5.0×10–8 M (Kformation for [Ag(NH3)2]+ =1.0× 108) is ________ .
(Nearest integer)
[Assume no volume change on adding NH3]
ANSWER KEY
1. (27) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (B)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (525) 14. (B)
15. (D)
APNI KAKSHA 12
Electrochemistry
1. For the reaction
2Fe3+(aq) + 2I–(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(s)
the magnitude of the standard molar free energy change, rGm° = – ______ kJ.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer)
 E 0Fe2+ /Fe(s) = −0.440V; E 0Fe3+ /Fe(s) = −0.036V 

 
 E I /2I− = 0.539V;
0
F = 96500C 
 2 

2. Given that the standard potentials (E°) of Cu2+ /Cu and Cu+ /Cu are 0.34 V and 0.522 V
respectively, the E° of Cu2+/Cu+ is :
(A) –0.182 V (B) –0.158 V (C) 0.182 V (D) +0.158 V
[Jee Main, 2020]

3. Given:
Co3+ + e– → CO2+ ; Eº = + 1.81 V
Pb4+ + 2e– → Pb2+ ; Eº = + 1.67 V
Ce+4 + 3e → Ce3+ ; Eº = + 1.61 V
Bi3+ + 3e– → Bi ; Eº = + 0.20 V
Oxidizing power of the species will increase in the order:
(A) Ce4+ < Pb4+ < Bi3+ < Co3+ (B) Co3+ < Pb4+ < Ce4+ < Bi3+
(C) Bi3+ < Ce4+ < Pb4+ < Co3+ (D) Co3+ < Ce4+ < Bi3+ < Pb4+
4. If the standard electrode potential for a cell is 2 V at 300 K, the equilibrium constant (K) for the
reaction [Electrochemistry]
Zn(s) + Cu (aq)
2+ Zn (aq) + Cu(s)at 300 K is approximately.
2+
(R = 8 JK–1 mol–1, F = 96000 C mol–1)

(A) e–80 (B) e–160 (C) e160 (D) e320
5. For the given cell ;
APNI KAKSHA 13
Cu(s)|Cu2+ (C1M)||Cu2+ (C2M)|Cu(s) change in Gibbs energy (G) is negative, if :
(A) C1 = 2C2 (B) C2 = Cl (C) C1 = C2 (D) C2 = 2C1

2
[Jee Main, 2020]
6. Consider the cell at 25°C
Zn | Zn2+ (aq), (1M) || Fe3+ (aq), Fe2+ (aq)| Pt (s)
The fraction of total iron present as Fe3+ ion at the cell potential of 1.500 V is x×10–2. The value
of x is_________. (Nearest integer)
(Given: E0Fe3+
/Fe2+
= 0.77V, E0Zn 2+
/Zn
= −0.76V )

7. In the cell Pt(s)|H2(g, 1bar)|HCl(aq)|AgCl(s)|Ag(s)|Pt(s) the cell potential is 0.92 V when a 10–6
molal HCl solution is used. The standard electrode potential of (AgCl/Ag,Cl–) electrode is :
 2.303RT 
Given, = 0.06 V at 298 K  [Electrochemistry]
 F 
(A) 0.94 V (B) 0.40 V (C) 0.20 V (D) 0.76 V
8. 108g of silver (molar mass 108g mol–1) is deposited at cathode from AgNO3(aq) solution by a
certain quantity of electricity. The volume (in L) of oxygen gas produced at 273 K and 1 bar
pressure from water by the same quantity of electricity is ______ .
[Jee Main, 2020]

9. An acidic solution of dichromate is electrolyzed for 8 minutes using 2A current. As per the following
equation
Cr2 O72− + 14H + + 6e − → 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2O
The amount of Cr3+ obtained was 0.104 g. The efficiency of the process (in %) is
(Take : F = 96000 C, At. mass of chromium = 52) ________.
Given 60.31
[Jee Main, 2020]
10. A dilute solution of Sulphuric acid is electrolysed using a current of 0.10 A for 2 hours to
produce hydrogen and oxygen gas. The total volume of gases produced at STP is ________ cm3.
(Nearest integer) [Given : Faraday constant F = 96500 C mo1–1 at STP, molar volume of an ideal
gas is 22.7 L mo1–1]
11. Consider the statements S1 and S2 :
S1: Conductivity always increases with decrease in the concentration of electrolyte.

APNI KAKSHA 14
S2: Molar conductivity always increases with decrease in the concentration of

electrolyte.
The correct option among the following is:
(A) Both S1 and S2 are wrong (B) Both S1 and S2 are correct
(C) S1 is wrong and S2 is correct (D) S1 is correct and S2 is wrong

12. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The limiting molar conductivity of KCl (strong electrolyte) is higher compared to
that of CH3COOH (weak electrolyte).
Statement II: Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration of electrolyte.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(B) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
13. The molar conductivity of a conductivity cell filled with 10 mole of 20 mL NaCl solution is  m1
and that of 20 moles another identical cell having 80 mL NaCl solution is  m2 , The
conductivities exhibited by these two cells are same.
The relationship between  m2 and  m1 is
(A)  m2 = 2 m1 (B) m2 = m1 / 2 (C)  m2 = 2 m1 (D)  m2 = 4 m1

14. The limiting molar conductivities of NaI, NaNO3 and AgNO3 are 12.7, 12.0 and 13.3 mS m2 mol–
1, respectively (all at 25°C). The limiting molar conductivity of AgI at this temperature is _____
mS m2 mol–1
15. The conductivity of a weak acid HA of concentration 0.001 mol L–1 is 2.0×10–5S cm–1. If
 0m (HA) = 190 S cm2 mol–1, the ionization constant (Ka) of HA is equal to ____ × 10–6.
(Round off to the nearest integer)
APNI KAKSHA 15
ANSWER KEY
1. (46) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (24) 7. (C)
8. (5.67 or 5.68) NTA Ans. (5.66 to 5.67) 9. (60) 10. (127) 11. (C)
12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (14) 15. (12)
APNI KAKSHA 16
liquid solution
1. The resistance of a conductivity cell with cell constant 1.14 cm–1, containing 0.001 M KCl at 298
K is 1500 . The molar conductivity of 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K in S cm2 mol–1 is_______.
(Integer answer)
2. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 400 and 600 mmHg, respectively at 298 K. On
mixing the two liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the volume of the final
mixture. The mole fraction of liquid B is 0.5 in the mixture. The vapour pressure of the final
solution, the mole fractions of components A and B in vapour phase, respectively are :
(Liquid Solution)
(A) 450 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6 (B) 500 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6
(C) 500 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5 (D) 450 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5
3. A gaseous mixture of two substances A and B, under a total pressure of 0.8 atm is in
equilibrium with an ideal liquid solution. The mole fraction of substance A is 0.5 in the vapour
phase and 0.2 in the liquid phase. The vapour pressure of pure liquid A is ___ atm. (Nearest
integer)

4. Two open beakers one containing a solvent and the other containing a mixture of that solvent
with a non volatile solute are together sealed in a container. Over time :
(A) The volume of the solution decreases and the volume of the solvent increases
(B) The volume of the solution increases and the volume of the solvent decreases
(C) The volume of the solution does not change and the volume of the solvent decreases
(D) The volume of the solution and the solvent does not change
[Jee Main, 2020]
5. When a certain amount of solid A is dissolved in 100 g of water at 25°C to make a dilute
solution, the vapour pressure of the solution is reduced to one-half of that of pure water. The
vapour pressure of pure water is 23.76 mmHg. The number of moles of solute A added is_____.
(Nearest Integer)
APNI KAKSHA 17
6. When 3.00 g of a substance 'X' is dissolved in 100 g of CCl4, it raises the boiling point by 0.60 K.
The molar mass of the substance 'X' is _______g mol–1. (Nearest integer)
[Given Kb for CCl4 is 5.0 K kg mol–1]
7. 1 kg of 0.75 molal aqueous solution of sucrose can be cooled up to –4°C before freezing. The
amount of ice (in g) that will be separated out is ________ . (Nearest integer)
[Given : Kf(H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol–1]
8. If 250 cm3 of an aqueous solution containing 0.73 g of a protein A is isotonic with one litre of
another aqueous solution containing 1.65 g of a protein B, at 298 K, the ratio of the molecular
masses of A and B is _______ × 10–2 (to the nearest integer).
[Jee Main, 2020]
9. A 1 molal K4Fe(CN)6 solution has a degree of dissociation of 0.4. Its boiling point is equal to that of
another solution which contains 18.1 weight percent of a non electrolytic solute A. The molar mass
of A is_____ u.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Density of water = 1.0 g cm–3]
10. Molecules of benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) dimerise in benzene. 'w' g of the acid dissolved in 30 g of
benzene shows a depression in freezing point equal to 2K. If the percentage association of the
acid to form dimer in the solution is 80, then w is : [Liquid Solution]
(Given that Kf = 5 K kg mol , Molar mass of benzoic acid = 122 g mol )
–1 –1
(A) 1.5 g (B) 1.0 g (C) 2.4 g (D) 1.8 g

11. The depression in freezing point observed for a formic acid solution of concentration 0.5 mL L–1
is 0.0405°C. Density of formic acid is 1.05 g mL–1. The Van't Hoff factor of the formic acid
solution is nearly: [Given for water Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1]
(A) 0.8 (C) 1.1 (C) 1.9 (D) 2.4

12. For the solution of the gases w, x, y and z in water at 298 K, the Henrys law constants (KH) are
0.5, 2, 35 and 40 k bar, respectively. The correct plot for the given data is :
APNI KAKSHA 18
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

13. The oxygen dissolved in water exerts a partial pressure of 20 kPa in the vapour above water. The
molar solubility of oxygen in water is _______ × 10–5 mol dm–3.
[Given : Henry's law constant = KH = 8.0×104 kPa for O2.
Density of water with dissolved oxygen = 1.0 kg dm–3]
ANSWER KEY
1. (760) 2. (B) 3. (2) 4. (B) 5. (3) 6. (250) 7. (518)
8. 177 9. (85) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (25)
APNI KAKSHA 19
SURFACE CHEMISTRY
1. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, slope of AB line is:
(A) log n with (n > 1)

(B) n with (n, 0.1 to 0.5)
1
(C) log with(n  1)
n
1 1 
(D) with  = 0 to1
n n 
2. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm. If x is the mass of the gas adsorbed
x
on mass m of the adsorbent, the correct plot of versus p is :
m
200 K
200 K
x 250 K x 250 K
m 270 K m 270 K
p p
(A) (B)
270 K 270 K
x 250 K x 250 K
m 200 K m 200 K
p p
(C) (D)
[Jee Main, 2020]
3. Given below are the critical temperatures of some of the gases:
The gas showing least adsorption on a definite amount of charcoal is:
APNI KAKSHA 20
(A) He (B) CH4 (C) CO2 (D) NH3

4. CO2 gas adsorbs on charcoal following Freundlich adsorption isotherm. For a given amount of
charcoal, the mass of CO2 adsorbed becomes 64 times when the pressure of CO2 is doubled.
The value of n in the Freundlich isotherm equation is _____× 10–2.
5. Which one of the following statements is not true about enzymes?

(A) Enzymes are non-specific for a reaction and substrate.
(B) Almost all enzymes are proteins.
(C) Enzymes work as catalysts by lowering the activation energy of a biochemical reaction.
(D) The action of enzymes is temperature and pH specific

6. Match List I with List II.
List-I (Enzyme) List-II (Conversion of

A. Invertase I. Starch into maltose
B. Zymase II. Maltose into glucose
C. Diastase III. Glucose into ethanol
D. Maltase IV. Cane sugar into
glucose
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) A-III, B-IV. C-II. D-I
(B) A-III. B-II. C-I. D-IV
(C) A-IV, B-IIL C-I. D-II
(D) A-IV, B-II. C-III. D-I
7. Match List - I with List - II.
List-I List-II
(Processes/Reactions) (Catalyst)
APNI KAKSHA 21
(a) 2SO2(g)+O2(g) → 2SO3(g) (I) Fe(s)
(b) 4NH3(g)+5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) (II) Pt(s)-Rh(s)
(c) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) (III) V2O5
(d) Vegetable oil(l)+H2 →Vegetable ghee(s) (IV) Ni(s)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a) - (III), (b) - (I), (c) - (II), (d) - (IV)
(B) (a) - (III), (b) - (II), (c) - (I), (d) - (IV)
(C) (a) - (IV), (b) - (III), (c) - (I), (d) - (II)
(D) (a) - (IV), (b) - (II), (c) - (III), (d) - (I)

8. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
Example of Colloids Classification
(a) Cheese (i) dispersion of liquid in liquid
(b) Pumice stone (ii) dispersion of liquid in gas
(c) Hair cream (iii) dispersion of gas in solid
(d) Cloud (iv) dispersion of liquid in solid
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

9. Haemoglobin and gold sol are examples of : [Surface Chemistry]
(A) negatively and positively charged sols, respectively
(B) positively and negatively charged sols, respectively
(C) negatively charged sols
(D) positively charged sols
APNI KAKSHA 22

10. The sol given below with negatively charged colloidal particles is :
(a) FeCl3 added to hot water
(B) KI added to AgNO3 solution
(C) AgNO3 added to KI solution
(D) Al2O3.xH2O in water
11. Which one of the following statements is FALSE for hydrophilic sols?
(A) Their viscosity is of the order of that of H2O
(B) The sols cannot be easily coagulated
(C) They do not require electrolytes for stability.
(D) These sols are reversible in nature.
12. Using very little soap while washing clothes, does not serve the purpose of cleaning of clothes
because
(A) soap particles remain floating in water as ions
(B) the hydrophobic part of soap is not able to take away grease
(C) the micelles are not formed due to concentration of soap, below its CMC value
(D) colloidal structure of soap in water is completely disturbed.

13. Incorrect statement for Tyndall effect is :-
(A) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium differ greatly in
magnitude.
(B) The diameter of the dispersed particles is much smaller than the wavelength of the light
used.
(C) During projection of movies in the cinemas hall, Tyndall effect is noticed.
(D) It is used to distinguish a true solution from a colloidal solution.

14. Most suitable salt which can be used for efficient clotting of blood will be :
(A) NaHCO3 (B) FeSO4
(C) Mg(HCO3)2 (D) FeCl3 [JEE Main, Feb 2021]
APNI KAKSHA 23
15. Among the following, the false statement is : [Surface chemistry]

(A) Latex is a colloidal solution of rubber particles which are positively charged
(B) Lyophilic sol can be coagulated by adding an electrolyte.
(C) It is possible to cause artificial rain by throwing electrified sand carrying charge opposite to
the one on clouds from an aeroplane.
(D) Tyndall effect can be used to distinguish between a colloidal solution and a true solution.
16. The INCORRECT statements below regarding colloidal solutions is:

(A) A colloidal solution shows colligative properties.
(B) An ordinary filter paper can stop the flow of colloidal particles.
(B) The flocculating power of Al3+ is more than that of Na+.
(D) A colloidal solution shows Brownian motion of colloidal particles.
17. 100 mL of a water sample contains 0.81 g of calcium bicarbonate and 0.73 g of magnesium
bicarbonate. The hardness of this water sample expressed in terms of equivalents of CaCO3 is :
(molar mass of calcium bicarbonate is 162 g mol–1 and magnesium bicarbonate is 146 g mol–1)
(Surface Chemistry)
(A) 10,000 ppm (B) 100 ppm (C) 5,000 ppm (D) 1000 ppm
18. The flocculation value of HCl for arsenic sulphide sol. is 30 m mol L–1. If H2SO4 is used for the
flocculation of arsenic sulphide, the amount, in grams, of H2SO4 in 250 ml required for the
above purpose is ___________.
(Molecular mass of H2SO4 = 98g/mol)
[Jee Main, 2020]
ANSWER KEY
1. (4) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (17) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (B)
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (D)
15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (0.37) NTA Ans. 0.36 to 0.38
APNI KAKSHA 24
Thermochemistry
1.
Based on the above thermochemical equations, find out which one of the following algebraic
relationships is correct ?
(A) x = y–z (B) y = 2z–x (C) z = x + z (D) x = y + y
2. ( )
The standard heat of formation  ƒ H 0298 of ethane (in kJ/mol), if the heat of combustion of
ethane, hydrogen and graphite are –1560, –393.5 and –286kJ/mol, respectively is _________.
[Jee Main, 2020]
3. At 25C and 1 atm pressure, the enthalpy of combustion of benzene (1) and acetylene (g) are –
3268 kJ mol–1 and –1300 kJ mol–1, respectively. The change in enthalpy for the reaction 3
C2H2(g) → C6H6(l), is
(A) + 324 kJ mol–1 (B) +632 kJ mol–1
(C) – 632 kJ mol–1 (D) – 732 kJ mol–1

4. 2.4 g coal is burnt in a bomb calorimeter in excess of oxygen at 298 K and 1 atm pressure.
The temperature of the calorimeter rises from 298 K to 300 K. The enthalpy change during the
combustion of coal is – x kJ mol–1. The value of x is ___________. (Nearest integer)
(Given : Heat capacity of bomb calorimeter 20.0 kJ K–1. Assume coal to be pure carbon)

5. For the reaction
C2H6 → C2H4 + H2
the reaction enthalpy rH = ______ kJ mol–1.
(Round off to the Nearest Integer).
[Given : Bond enthalpies in kJ mol–1 : C–C : 347, C=C : 611; C–H : 414, H–H : 436]
APNI KAKSHA 25
6. If enthalpy of atomisation for Br2(l) is x kJ/mol and bond enthalpy for Br2 is y kJ/mol, the
relation between them :
(A) is x = y (B) is x > y (C) does not exist (D) is x < y
[Jee Main, 2020]

7. The Born-Haber cycle for KCl is evaluated with the following data:
 f H– for KCl = – 436.7 kJ mol–1 ;
 sub H–for K = 89.2 kJ mol–1;
 ionization H– for K = 419.0 kJ mol–1;
 electron gain H– for Cl(g) = – 348.6 kJ mol–1;
 bond H– for Cl2 = 243.0 kJ mol–1;

The magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCl in kJ mol–1 is _______ (Nearest integer)
8. Lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution of NaCl are 788 kJ mol–1 and 4 kJ mol–1, respectively.
The hydration enthalpy of NaCl is :
(A) 784 kJ mol–1 (B) –780 kJ mol–1 (C) –784 kJ mol–1 (D) 780 kJ mol–1
[Jee Main, 2020]
9. While performing a thermodynamics experiment, a student made the following observations,

HCl + NaOH → NaCl+ H2O H = –57.3 kJ mol–1
CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O H = –55.3 kJ mol–1.
The enthalpy of ionization of CH3COOH as calculated by the student is________ kJ mol–1.
(Nearest integer)

10. When 600 mL of 0.2 M HNO3 is mixed with 400 mL of 0.1M NaOH solution in a flask, the rise in
temperature of the flask is _________ × 10–2 0C.
(Enthalpy of neuralization = 57 kJ mol–1 and specific heat of water = 4.2 JK–1 g–1)
(Neglect heat capacity of flask)
APNI KAKSHA 26
ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (–192.50) NTA Ans. (–192.00 to –193.00) 3. (C) 4. (200)

5. (128) 6. (B) 7. (718) 8. (C) 9. (2) 10. (54)
APNI KAKSHA 27
SOLID STATE
1. Select the correct statements.
(a) Crystalline solids have long range order.
(b) Crystalline solids are isotropic.
(c) Amorphous solid are sometimes called pseudo solids.
(d) Amorphous solids soften over a range of temperatures.
(e) Amorphous solids have a definite heat of fusion.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(A) (a), (b), (e) only
(B) (b), (d) only
(C) (c), (d) only
(D) (a), (c), (d) only

2. The parameters of the unit cell of a substance are
a = 2.5, b = 3.0, c = 4.0,  =90°,  =120°,  =90°.
The crystal system of the substance is :
(A) Hexagonal (B) Orthorhombic
(C) Monoclinic (D) Triclinic

3. The radius of the largest sphere which fits properly at the centre of the edge of body centred
cubic unit cell is : (Edge length is represented by 'a') : [Solid State]
(A) 0.047 a (B) 0.027 a (C) 0.067 a (D) 0.134 a
4. Consider the bcc unit cells of the solids 1 and 2 with the position of atoms as shown below. The
radius of atom B is twice that of atom A. The unit cell edge length is 50% more in solid 2 then in
1 What is the approximate packing efficiency in solid 2 ?
APNI KAKSHA 28
A A A A
A A A A
B
A
A A A A
A A A A
Solid 1 Solid 2
(A) 90% (B) 45% (C) 75% (D) 65%
5. A diatomic molecule X2 has a body-centred cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 300 pm.
The density of the molecule is 6.17 g cm–3. The number of molecules present in 200 g of X2 is:
(Avogadro constant (NA) = 6 × 1023 mol–1)
(A) 8 NA (B) 2 NA (C) 4 NA (D) 40 NA
[Jee Main, 2020]
6. An element with molar mass 2.7 × 10–2 kg mol–1 forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 405
pm. It its density is 2.7 × 103 kg m–3, the radius of the element is approximately ___×10–12 m (to
the nearest integer).
[Jee Main, 2020]

7. An element crystallizes in a face-centred cubic (fcc) unit cell with cell edge a. The distance
between the centres of two nearest octahedral voids in the crystal lattice is:
a a
(A) (B) (C) a (D) 2a
2 2
[Jee Main, 2020]
8. Element ‘B’ forms ccp structure and ‘A’ occupies half of the octahedral voids, while oxygen
atoms occupy all the tetrahedral voids. The structure of bimetallic oxide is : (Solid State)
(A) AB2O4 (B) A4B2O (C) A4BO4 (D) A2B2O
9. An element has a face-centred cubic (fcc) structure with a cell edge of a. The distance between
the centres of two nearest tetrahedral voids in the lattice is:
a 3
(A) 2a (B) a (C) (D) a
2 2
APNI KAKSHA 29

10. In a binary compound, atoms of element A form a hcp structure and those of element M occupy 2/3
of the tetrahedral voids of the hcp structure. The formula of the binary compound
is:
(A) M2A3 (B) M4A3 (C) M4A (D) MA3
11. In a solid AB. A atoms are in ccp arrangement and B atoms occupy all the octahedral sites. If
two atoms from the opposite faces are removed, then the resultant stoichiometry of the
compound is AxBy. The value of x is_______. [nearest integer]
12. Given below are two statements.

Statement I: Frenkel defects are vacancy as well as interstitial defects.
Statement II: Frenkel defect leads to colour in ionic solids due to presence of F-centres.
Choose the most appropriate answer for the statements from the options given below:
(A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
13. Metal deficiency defect is shown by Fe0.93O. In the crystal, some Fe2+ cations are missing and
loss of positive charge is compensated by the presence of Fe3+ ions. The percentage of Fe2+ ions
in the Fe0.93O crystals is _________ . (Nearest integer)
14. A hard substance melts at high temperature and is an insulator in both solid and in molten state.
This solid is most likely to be a / an :
(A) Ionic solid (B) Molecular solid
(C) Metallic solid (D) Covalent solid
15. Match items of List–I with those of List–II : [JEE Main, August 2021]
List–I List–II
(Property) (Example)
(a) Diamagnetism (i) MnO
APNI KAKSHA 30
(b) Ferrimagnetism (ii) O2

(c) Paramagnetism (iii) NaCl
(d) Antiferromagnetism (iv) Fe3O4
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(B) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(C) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(D) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
APNI KAKSHA 31
ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (143) 7. (A)
8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (3) 12. (C) 13. (85) 14. (D)
15. (C)
APNI KAKSHA 32

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(Physical Chemistry)

[Jee Main, April 2019]

2. For a given chemical reaction

1A + 2B → 3C + 4D

Concentration of C changes from 10 mmol dm–3 to 20 mmol dm–3 in 10 seconds. Rate of

[JEE Main, June 2022]

(Given: ln 10 = 2.303 and log 2 = 0.3010)

(A) 1.12 (B) 2.43 (C) 3.32 (D) 33.31

[JEE Main, June 2022]

(Given: log 2 = 0.30; log 3 = 0.48)

(A) 200 s (B) 323 s (C) 467 s (D) 532 s

[JEE Main, July 2022]

[Assume : ln 10 = 2.303, ln 2 = 0.693]

[Use : ln 2 = 0.69, ln 10 = 2.3

(Round off to the nearest integer)

[JEE Main, July 2021]

[A] (mol L–1) [B] (mol–1) Initial Rate (mol L–1s–1)

[Jee Main, April 2019]

8. For the following graph:

[JEE Main, July 2022]

Choose the correct option :

(A) Ea > Ec > Ed > Eb (B) Eb > Ea > Ed > Ec

(C) Ec > Ea > Ed > Eb (D) Eb > Ed > Ec > Ea

[Jee Main, 2020]

[Assume theat the pre-exponential factor is same in both the cases.

Given R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1]

[JEE Main, June 2022]

[JEE Main, Feb 2021]

was measured as a function of concentrations of different species. It was observed that

1. (A) 2. (1) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (81) 6. (300) 7. (D)

Internal energy (U)

(A) U = 14 J; (PV) = 0.8 J (B) U = 2.8 kJ; (PV) = 0.8 kJ

(C) U = 14 kJ; (PV) = 18 kJ (D) U = 14 kJ; (PV) = 4 kJ

(a) U and H each depends only on temperature

(b) Compressibility factor z is not equal to 1

(c) CP, m – CV, m = R

(d) dU = CVdT for any process

[Jee Main, 2020]

(Given : R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1) [JEE Main, June 2022]

(Given: atomic mass of N = 14 g mol–1 and of O = 16 g mol–1.

Molar heat capacity of N2O is 100 JK–1 mol–1)

[JEE Main, June 2022]

9. Match List-I with List-II

(B) Process with P = 0, T = 0 (II) GT.P. < 0

(A) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)

(B) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)

(C) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

10. Which of the following relation is not correct?

(A) H = U – PV (B) U = q + W

(C) Ssys + Ssurr  0 (D) G = H – TS

[JEE Main, July 2022]

U = 2.1 kcal, S = 20 cal K–1 at 300 K.

Hence G in kcal is___________ :

[Jee Main, 2020]

15. 2O3 (g)  3O2(g)

temperature and 1 atm pressure is (–) _______J mol –1 (Nearest integer)

[Given: ln 1.35 = 0.3 and R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1]

[JEE Main, June 2022]

1. (3) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (38) 5. (600) 6. (195) 7. (A)

(A) 1.14 (B) 1.78 (C) 2.34 (D) 3.02