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26. To start a business, the owners need A) a market where there is demand for their product. B) a clear vision of what products or services they want to produce. D C) the know-how to successfully market their product. D) all of the above. 27. A stakeholder is A) anyone geographically close to the firm's headquarters. B) anyone with a claim on the cash flows of the firm. B C) any governmental agency. D) all of the above. 28. If you have loaned capital to a firm, then you could be A) a shareholder. B) a stakeholder. B C) a partner. D) all of the above. 29. Which of the following are stakeholders? A) a shareholder B) a lender D C) the IRS D) all of the above 30. A trademark is an example of A) a productive asset. B) an intangible asset. B C) a nebulous asset. D) none of the above. 31. Which of the following is a basic source of funds for the firm? A) debt B) equity D C) asset liquidations D) a and b above 32. The cash remaining after the firm has met its operating ex- penses, payments to creditors, and taxes is called A) earnings per share. C B) capital contributed in excess of par. C) residual cash. D) assets. 33. Cash dividends are paid out of A) residual cash. B) liquidated assets. A C) long-term debt. D) all of the above. 34. Current liabilities are liabilities that A) will be converted to cash within a year. B) must be paid within a year. B C) will be converted to equity within a year. D) none of the above 35. Capital budgeting involves A) how a firm's day-to-day financial matters should be managed. B) how the firm should finance its assets. C C) which productive assets the firm should employ. D) all of the above. 36. Working capital management decisions involve A) how a firm's day-to-day financial matters should be managed. B) how the firm should finance its assets. A C) which productive assets the firm should employ. D) all of the above. 37. Capital budgeting decisions generally involve A) the fixed asset portion of the balance sheet. 1/6 [FIN202] Chap 1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_2fa6qa B) the short-term portion of the balance sheet. C) the current liability portion of the balance sheet. A D) all of the above. 38. A good capital budgeting decision is A) one in which the benefits of the project are equal to the cost of the asset. B) one in which the benefits of the project are less than the cost C of the asset. C) one in which the benefits of the project are more than the cost of the asset. D) all of the above. 39. Financial markets in which equity and debt instruments with maturities greater than one year are traded are called A) money markets. B B) capital markets. C) stock markets. D) none of the above. 40. Profitability of a firm can be negatively affected by A) too much inventory. B) too little inventory. C C) either a or b. D) neither a nor b. 41. About 75 percent of all businesses in the United States are A) sole proprietorships. B) partnerships. A C) corporations. D) limited liability partnerships. 41. About 75 percent of all businesses in the United States are A) sole proprietorships. B) partnerships. D C) corporations. D) limited liability partnerships. 43. Which of the following business organizational forms creates a tax liability on income at the personal income tax rate? A) sole proprietorship D B) partnership C) corporation D) a and b 44. Which of the following business organizational forms is easiest to raise capital? A) sole proprietorship C B) partnership C) corporation D) a and b 45. Which of the following owners is protected by limited liability? A) a sole proprietor B) a general partner C C) a limited partner D) none of the above 46. Which of the following cannot be engaged in managing the business? A) a sole proprietor C B) a general partner C) a limited partner D) none of the above 47. Which organizational form accounts for 90 percent of the revenues of all firms in the United States? C A) sole proprietorship B) partnership 2/6 [FIN202] Chap 1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_2fa6qa C) corporation D) a and b 48. Which organizational form best enables a firm to sell its securities to the market? A) sole proprietorship D B) partnership C) private corporation D) public corporation 49. Which of the following organizational forms is subject to the most SEC regulations? A) sole proprietorship D B) partnership C) private corporation D) public corporation 50. Which organizational form best enables the owners of the firm to monitor the actions of other owners of the same firm? A) sole proprietorship B B) partnership C) private corporation D) public corporation 51. Which of the following is considered a hybrid organizational form? A) sole proprietorship D B) partnership C) corporation D) limited liability partnership 52. Which of the following reports directly to the owners of the firm (assume the firm is a public corporation) A) CFO C B) CEO C) board of directors D) audit committee 53. Which of the following is responsible for seeing that the best possible financial analysis is presented? A) CFO A B) CEO C) board of directors D) audit committee 54. Which of the following is responsible for performing an inde- pendent audit of the firm's financial statements? A) CFO C B) CEO C) CPA firm D) audit committee 55. How is the CPA firm insulated from being pressured by man- agement? A) The audit committee approves hiring, firing and fees paid to external auditors. B) The chairman of the board approves the external auditor's fees A as well as the engagement letter. C) The IRS approves the external auditor's fees as well as the engagement letter. D) The CPA firm is not insulated from management. 56. Which of the following is an appropriate goal for the firm? A) profit maximization B) revenue maximization C C) shareholder wealth maximization D) tax minimization
3/6 [FIN202] Chap 1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_2fa6qa 57. When analysts and investors determine the value of a firm's stock, they should consider A) the size of the expected cash flows associated with owning the stock. D B) the timing of the cash flows. C) the riskiness of the cash flows. D) all of the above. 58. One reason for the existence of agency problems between managers and share holders is that A) there is a separation of ownership and control of the firm. B) managers know how to manage the firm better than sharehold- A ers. C) shareholders have unreasonable expectations about manage- rial performance. D) none of the above 59. Which of the following is a principal within the agency relation- ship? A) a company engineer C B) the CEO of the firm C) a shareholder D) the board of directors 60. Shareholders elect ______________ to represent their inter- est in the firm. A) a chairman C B) CEO C) a board of directors D) all of the above 61. An example of a direct agency cost is A) a manager turning down a value-contributing project because of its risks. B) a manager expensing a large dinner on the company expense B report. C) a manager using too little debt within the firm's capital structure because of the additional risk associated with debt. D) all of the above 62. Which of the following can help align the behavior of managers with the goals of shareholders? A) management compensation D B) managerial labor markets C) an independent board of directors D) all of the above 63. If a firm has had an agency problem that is reflected in a poor performing stock for a long period of time, then the firm may become a target of _________________. A) an SEC investigation. B B) a corporate raider. C) an IRS investigation. D) a bankruptcy lawyer. 64. Executives that repeatedly put their own interests before that of the firm may find that they have difficulty finding another job after their current one. This is an example of A) the managerial labor market disciplining managers. A B) the market for corporate control. C) the board of directors affecting the prospects of a manager. D) none of the above.
65. Who or what is responsible for setting the agenda at meetings
of the board of directors? A A) chairman of the board of directors B) president
4/6 [FIN202] Chap 1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_2fa6qa C) nominating committee D) audit committee 66. A director who is not an employee of the firm is called A) an executive director. B) an inside director. C C) an independent director. D) an official director. 67. Which of the following is NOT one of the strategies incorpo- rated in the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002? A) attain greater board independence D B) establish compliance programs C) establish ethics programs D) dictate maximum compensation levels 68. Which of the following powers does the audit committee have the authority to do? A) audit the personal bank account of the CEO B B) question any person employed by the firm C) audit the compensation files of firms in the same industry D) none of the above 69. What is the major complaint concerning the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 by firms? A) the legislative maximum allowable compensation for a CEO B) the legal requirement to disclose project information C C) the cost of compliance D) the cost of maintaining an SEC-employed officer at the firm's premises 70. A society's ideas about what actions are right and wrong are A) morals. B) ethics. B C) laws. D) unwritten laws. 71. The golden rule is an example of A) a current law. B) an historical law. D C) an unworkable rule in financial markets. D) an ethical norm. 72. An example of an economy that had trouble establishing a stock market and attracting foreign investment is A) Russia. A B) China. C) the Czech Republic. D) Japan. 73. Corruption in business A) creates inefficiencies in an economy. B) inhibits growth in an economy. D C) slows the rate of economic growth in a country. D) all of the above 73. Corruption in business A) creates inefficiencies in an economy. B) inhibits growth in an economy. B C) slows the rate of economic growth in a country. D) all of the above 75. An officer of a firm that is a majority owner in a competing firm will probably be subject to A) an IRS audit. B B) a conflict of interest with his share holders. C) arbitrage profit returns to the SEC. D) an FBI investigation.
5/6 [FIN202] Chap 1 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_2fa6qa 76. _____________occur(s) when one party in a business trans- action has information that is unavailable to the other parties in the transaction. A) Profits B B) Information asymmetry C) Information efficiency D) None of the above 77. With regard to information, a central idea of fairness suggests that A) decisions should be made on an even playing field. B) insiders should be able to trade whenever they want. A C) insiders should never be able to trade. D) outsiders should not be allowed to trade since, by definition, they are at a disadvantage. 78. Which of the following individuals is typically most responsible for managing a large corporation's financial function? A) The CEO. D B) The Chairman of the board. C) The CBO. D) The CFO. 79. If a firm establishes maximizing profits at the most important goal of the firm, which of the following would not be given proper consideration? A) Sales revenues C B) Expenses C) Risk D) Cost of goods sold 80. Which of the following does maximizing shareholder wealth not usually account for? A) Risk. B B) Government regulation. C) The timing of cash flows. D) Amount of cash flows. 81. Which of the following factors or activities can be controlled by the management of a firm? A) Capital budgeting. A B) The level of economic activity. C) The level of interest rates. D) Stock market conditions. 82. The legal system and market forces impose substantial costs on individuals and institutions that engage in unethical behavior. Which of the following would not be an example of the above? A) Financial losses. C B) Legal fines. C) Agency conflicts. D) Jail time.
