Jigjiga University

Institute of technology
School of Electrical Engineering & Computing
Model Exit Exam

1. Which of the following majorly determines the number of emitters in a TTL digital circuit?
A. Fan – in
B. Fan – out
C. Propagation delay
D. Noise immunity
2. What are the basic gates in MOS logic family?
A. NAND and NOR
B. AND and OR
C. NAND and OR
D. AND and NOR
3. How must the output of a gate in a TTL digital circuit act when it is HIGH?
A. Acts as a voltage source
B. Acts as a current sink
C. Acts as a current source
D. Acts as a voltage sink
4. The negative numbers in the binary system can be represented by
A. sign magnitude
B. 2\s complement
C. 1\s complement
D. all the above
5. Convert the octal number 7401 to Binary.
A. 1.111e+11
B. 1.1111e+11
C. 1.111e+11
D. 1.11e+11
6. Find the hex sum of (93)16 + (DE)16.
C.

A. (171)16
B. 271)16
C. (179)16
D. (181)16
7. Perform 2’s complement subtraction of (7)10 − (11)10.
A. 1100 (or -4)
B. 1101 (or -5)
C. 1011 (or -3)
D. 1110 (or-6)
8. What is the gray equivalent of (25)10
A. 1101
B. 110101
C. 10110
D. 10101
9. Conversion of fractional number 0.6875 into its equivalent binary number:
A. 0.1011
B. 0.1111
C. 0.10111
D. 0.0101
10. Convert the decimal number 82.67 to its binary, hexadecimal and octal equivalents A.
(1010010.10101011)2; (52. ab)16.

B. (1010010.10101011)2; (52. ab)16.

C. (1010010.10101011)2; (52. ab)16.
D. (1010010.
11. Add 648 and 487 in BCD code.
A. 1135
B. 1136
C. 1235
D. 1138
C.

12. (65.535)10 =(X)16 FIND X A. (41.88f5c28)16.

B. (42.88f5c28)16.
C. (41.88f5c)16.
D. (42.88f5c)16.
13. Convert the decimal number 430 to Excess-3 code:
A. 110110001
B. 110110000
C. 110110011
D. 110100001
14. following subtraction (i) 11001-10110 using 1’s complement
A. 11
B. 111
C. 10
D. 10011
15. The hexadecimal number for (95.5)10 is
A. (5f.8) 16
B. (9a.b) 16
C. (2e.f) 16
D. (5a.4) 16

16. How many two-input AND and OR gates are required to realize Y=AB+CD+E? A. 2, 2

B. 2, 3
C. 3, 3
D. 3, 2
17. If a 3-input NOR gate has eight input possibilities, how many of those possibilities will
result in a HIGH output? A. 1

B. 2
C. 7
C.

D. 8
18. If a signal passing through a gate is inhibited by sending a LOW into one of the inputs, and
the output is HIGH, the gate is a(n):
A. AND
B. NAND
C. NOR
D. OR
19. The format used to present the logic output for the various combinations of logic inputs to
a gate is called a(n):

A. Boolean constant
B. Boolean variable
C. Truth table
D. Logic function
20. What does the small bubble on the output of the NAND gate logic symbol mean?
A. open collector output
B. tristate
C. The output is inverted.
D. none of the above

21. A logic probe is again applied to the pins of a 7421 IC with the following results. Is there
a problem with
C.

C. Pin 8 should be pulsing.

D. no problem
22. What are the pin numbers of the outputs of the gates in a 7432 IC?
A. 3, 6, 10, and 13
B. 1, 4, 10, and 13
C. 3, 6, 8, and 11
D. 1, 4, 8, and 11
23. Logically, the output of a NOR gate would have the same Boolean expression as a(n):
A. NAND gate immediately followed by an inverter
B. OR gate immediately followed by an inverter
C. AND gate immediately followed by an inverter
D. NOR gate immediately followed by an inverter
24. The circuit of the given figure realizes the function
A. (A’+B’)C+ (DE)’
B. A’+B’+C’+D’+E’
C. AB+C+DE
D. AB+C(D+E)
C.

25. Minimum number of 2-input NAND gates

required to implement the function
F=(X+Y)(W+Z) is A. 3

B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
26. The minimum number of NOR gates required to implement the Boolean function
A+AB+ABC is equal to A. 0

B. 1
C. 4
D. 7
27. In the given figure, A = B = 1 and C = D = 0. Then Y =
A. 0
B. 1
C. Either 0 or 1
D. Indeterminate
28. In the circuit of the given figure, Y =

A. 0
B. 1
C. X
D. X’
29. The digital logic family which has the lowest propagation delay time is
A. ECL
B. TTL
C. CMOS
C.

D. PMOS
30. The logic circuit given figure below converts a binary code ABC into
A. Excess-3 Code
B. Gray Code
C. BCD code
D. Hamming Code

31. In the circuit shown below in Fig-1, Transistor Q & Diode D are ideal with negligible
collector-to-emitter saturation voltage and negligible voltage drops across diode under
forward bias. If Vcc , is +5 V X and Y are digital signals with DV as logic d and Vcc as
logic 1, the Boolean expression for Z is

A.
B. X Y
C. X Y
D. X Y

32. The logical expression Y A A B is equivalent to

A. Y AB
B. Y AB
C. Y A B
D. Y A B
C.

33. The Boolean function A + BC is a reduced form of

A. AB + BC
B. (A + B). (A + C)
C. A’B+ ABC
D. (A + C).B
34. The minimized form of the logical expression (A’B’C’ + A’BC’ A’BC ABC’ ) is

A. AC BC AB
B. AC BC AB
C. AC + BC +AB
D. A’C’ A’B BC’

35. The Boolean expression for the truth table shown is

K L M Y
0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1
1 0 0 0
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0

A. L(K M)(K’ M’)

B. L(K M’)(K’ M)
C. L (K M) (K’ M’)
D. L’(K M)(K M’)
36. If A = 1 in the logic equation
[A+ C{B’+ (C’+ AB’)]{A’+C’(A+B)}= 1, then

A. B=C
B. B = C’
C. C=0
C.

D. C=1
37. The Boolean expression (X +Y)(X +Y’) (X’Y’) + X’ simplifies to

A. X
B. Y
C. XY
D. X+Y
38. The Minimum Boolean expression for the following circuit is

A. A+B+C
B. A+B
C. AB+AC+BC
D. A+BC
39. An order of precedence of operations for Boolean algebra is
A. highest to lowest priority is NOT, then OR, then AND
B. highest to lowest priority is NOT, then AND, then OR
C. lowest to highest priority is NOT, then AND, then OR
D. lowest to highest priority is NOT, then OR, then AND
40. Which of the following Boolean algebra statements represent distributive law

A. A+BC = A.B + A.C

B. A + BC = A(B+C)
C. A + BC = (A+B).C
D. A + BC = (A + B) (A + C)

41. Which of the following Boolean algebra statements represent distributive law
C.

A. A+BC = A.B + A.C

B. A + BC = A(B+C)
C. A + BC = (A+B).C
D. A + BC = (A + B) (A + C)

42. Which of the following Boolean algebra statements represent commutative law
A. A. (A+B)+CA+(B+C)
B. B. A.(B+C)(A.B)+(A.C)
C. C. A+BB+A
D. D. A+AA
43. Match the List-I with List –II select correct answer
List-I List=II
a) A+B=B+A
1. Commutative Law
b) (A+B).(A+C)=A.A+A.C+B.A+B.C
2. Associative Law
c) A B A B
3. Distributive Law
d) A.(B.C)=(A.B). C
4. Demorgans law

A. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c

B. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
C. 1-a, 2-d , 3-b, 4-c
D. 1-a 2-b 3-c 4-d
44. K-map is used to minimize the number of
A. Flip-flops in digital circuits
B. Layout spaces in digital circuits for fabrication
C. Functions of 3, 4, 5 or 6 variables
D, Registers in CPU
C.

45. The simplified expression for 𝐹(𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷) = ∏(1, 3, 6, 9, 11, 12, 14)
A. F = BD + B'D' + A'C'D'
B. F = C'D' + AB' + CD'
C. F = AC' + AD + C'D + AB'C
D. F = A'C' + AD' + C'D + AB'C

46. For the K map in the given figure the simplified Boolean expression is

A. A’C’ + A’D’ + ABC

B. A’C + A’D’ + ABC
C. A’C + A’D’ + ACD
D. A’C’ + A’D’ + ABC’

47. The simplified form of (A'B'C'D' + AC'D' + B'CD' + A'BCD + BC'D)

A. F =BD + A'B + B' D'
B. F = B' D' +A'BD + ABC'
C. F = BD + B'D' + A'D'
D. F = B'D' + BCD + A'BD + A'BC
48. Which of the following logic circuits
is a realization of the function F whose
Karnaugh map is shown in figure.
C.

49. The K- Map for Boolean function is shown below in figure. The number of the essential
prime implicates for the function is

A. 4
B. 5 C. 6
D. 8
50. A function of Boolean variables, X, Y and Z is
expressed in terms of the min- terms as

F(X, Y, Z) = (1, 2, 5, 6, 7). Which one of the product of sums given below is equal to the
function F(X, Y, Z )

A. (X’+ Y’+ Z’).(X’+ Y+ Z).(X +Y’+ Z’)

B. (X+ +Y+ Z).(X+ Y’+ Z’).(X’+ Y+ Z)
C. (X’+ ‘Y+ Z).(X’+ Y+ Z’).(X+ Y+ Z’) (X+ Y+ ‘Z).(X+ Y+ Z’)
D. (X +Y+ Z’).(X’+ Y+ Z’).(X’ +Y+ Z) (X’+ Y’+ Z).(X’+ Y’+ Z’)
51. Following is the K-map of a Boolean function of five variables P, Q, R, S and X. The
minimum sum ofproduct (SOP) expression for the function is

A. P’Q’SX +’ PQ’SX’+ QR’S’X+ QRS’X

B. Q’SX’+ QS’X’
C. Q’SX+ QS’X’
D. Q’S+ QS’
C.

52. The number of product terms in the minimized sum of-product expression obtained through
the following K-map is (where, "d" denotes don't care states)
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

53. Which one of the following gives the simplified sum of products
expression for the Boolean function F = m 0 + m 2 + m 3 + m 5,
where m 0, m 2, m 3 and m 5 are minterms corresponding to
the inputs X, Y and Z with X as the MSB and Z as the LSB?

A. X’Y+ X’Y’Z’+ XY’Z

B. X’Z’+ XY’+ XY’Z
C. X’Z’+ X’Y+ XY’Z
D. X’YZ+ X’Z’+ XY’Z
54. A function F(A B, C) defined by three Boolean variables A, B and C when expressed as
sum of products is given by F = A’.B.C+ A’.B.’C+ A.B’.C’ where, A’, B , and C’ are the
complements of the respective variables, The product of sums (POS) form of the function
F is

A. =(A’+ B’+ C’).(A’+ B+C’).(A+ B’+ C’)

B. F= (A’+ B’+ C’(A’+ B+ C’).(A+ B’+C’)
C. F= (A+ B+ C)(A+ B+ C’). (A+ B’+ C’)(A’+ B’+ C’)
D. F= (A’+ B’+ C)(A’+ B+ C).(A+ B’+C).(A+ B+ C’) .(A+ B+ C)
55. The simplified form of (A'B'C'D' + AC'D' + B'CD' + A'BCD + BC'D)
A. F =BD + A'B + B' D'
B. F = B' D' +A'BD + ABC'
C. F = BD + B'D' + A'D'
D. F = B'D' + BCD + A'BD + A'BC
56. The simplified expression for F(A, B, C, D) = ∏(1, 3, 6, 9, 11, 12, 14)
A. F = BD + B'D' + A'C'D'
B. F = C'D' + AB' + CD'
C. F = AC' + AD + C'D + AB'C
D. F = A'C' + AD' + C'D + AB'C
C.

57. The number of select lines ‘m’, required to select one out of ‘n’ input lines is

A. 𝑚 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔2𝑛
B. 𝑚 = log 𝑛
C. 𝑚 = ln 𝑛
D. 𝑚 = 2𝑛

58. How many 3-line-to-8-line decoders are required for a 1-of-32 decoder?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

59. For the device shown here, let all D inputs be LOW, both S inputs be HIGH, and the input
be LOW. What is the status of the Y output?

A. LOW
B. HIGH
C. Don't Care
D. Cannot be determined
C.

60. For the device shown here, assume the D input is LOW, both S inputs are HIGH, and the
input is HIGH. What is the status of the outputs?

A. All are HIGH.

B. All are LOW.
C. All but Y0'are LOW.
D. All but Y0'are HIGH.

61. One application of a digital multiplexer is to

facilitate:

A. data generation
B. serial-to-parallel conversion
C. parity checking
D. data selector

62. Consider the 2-bit multiplexer (MUX) shown in the figure. For OUTPUT to be the XOR
of C and D, the values for A0, A1, A2 and A3 are ___________.

A. A0 = 0, A1= 0, A2 =1,A3 =1
 C.

B. A0 = 1, A1= 0, A2 =1,A3 =0
C. A0 = 0, A1= 1, A2 =1,A3 =0
D. A0 = 1, A1= 1, A2 =0, A3 =0

63. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The Boolean expression F implemented by the
circuit is

A. X’Y’Z’ + XY+ Y’Z

B. X’ Y Z’ + XZ+ Y’Z
C. X’Y Z’ + XY+ Y’Z
D. X’Y’Z’ + XZ+ Y’Z

64. Identify the circuit below.

A. Binary to Gray code converter

B. Binary to Excess 3 code converter
C. Gray to Binary Converter
D. Excess 3 code converter to Binary

65. A 2-bit binary multiplier can be implemented using

A. 2 Input AND gates only

B. 2 Number of 2 Input XOR gates and 6 number of 2 input AND gates
C. Two 2 input NOR gates and one XNOR notes
 C.

D. XOR gate and shift registers

66. The Boolean function realized by the logic circuit shown is

A. F = m( 0,1,3,5,9,10,14)
B. F = m( 2,3,5,7,8,12,13)

C. F = m( 1,2,4,5,11,14,15)
D. F = m( 2,3,5,7,8,9,12)

A. Comparator
B. Multiplexer
C. Demultiplexer
D. Parity Generator

68. A 4:1 multiplexer is to be used for generating the output carry of a full adder. A and B are
the bits to be added while in is the input carry and out is the output carry. A and B are to
be used as the select bits with A being the more significant select bit.

67. The device shown here is most likely a ________.

 C.

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the choice of signals to be
connected to the inputs I0, I1, I2 and I3 and so that the output is C?
A. I0 =0 , I1 = Cin, I2
= Cin , I3 = 1 B. I0 =1
, I1 = Cin, I2 = Cin ,
I3 = 1 C. I0 = Cin , I1
= 0, I2 = 1, I3 = Cin
D. I0 =0 , I1 = Cin, I2 = 1 , I3 = Cin

69. A four-variable Boolean function is realized using 4 1 multiplexers as shown in the figure.

The minimized expression for F(U, V, W, X) is

A. (UV + U’V’) W’
B. (UV + U’V’) (W’X’+W’X)
C. (UV’ + U’V) W’
D. (UV’ + U’V) (W’X’+W’X)

70. What are the minimum number of multiplexers required to generate a 2 input AND gate
and a 2 input Ex-OR gate.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 1 D. 2 and 2
 C.

71. 3 bits full adder contains ________

A. 3 combinational inputs B. 4 combinational inputs C. 6 combinational inputs

D. 8 combinational inputs

72. What is the function of an enable input on a multiplexer chip?

A. To apply Vcc
B. To connect ground
C. To active the entire chip
D. To active one half of the chip

73. Which digital system translates coded characters into a more useful form?

A. Encoder
B. Display
C. Counter
D. Decoder

74. Which IC is used for the implementation of 1-to-16 DEMUX?

A. IC 74154
B. IC 74155
C. IC 74139
D. IC 74138
75. Which error detection method uses one’s complement arithmetic?
A. Simple parity check
B. Two-dimensional parity check
C. CRC
D. Checksum

76. Which gates are ideal for checking the parity bits?

A. AND
B. NAND
C. EX-OR
D. EX-NOR
 C.

76. A ripple counter's speed is limited by the propagation delay of…………….

A. Each flip-flop
B. All flip-flops and gates
C. The flip-flops only with gates
D. Only circuit gates
77. To operate correctly, starting a ring counter requires……………
A. Clearing all the flip-flops
B. Presetting one flip-flop and clearing all the others
C. Clearing one flip-flop and presetting all the others
D. Presetting all the flip-flops
78. What type of register would shift a complete binary number in one bit at a time and shift
all the stored bits out one bit at a time?

A. PIPO
B. SIPO
C. PISO
D. SISO
79. Synchronous counters eliminate the delay problems encountered with asynchronous
(ripple) counters because the:

A. Input clock pulses are applied only to the first and last stages
B. Input clock pulses are applied only to the last stage
C. Input clock pulses are not used to activate any of the counter stages
D. Input clock pulses are applied simultaneously to each stage
80. The truth table for an S-R flip-flop has how many VALID entries?
A. 1
 C.

B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
81. When both inputs of a J-K flip-flop cycle, the output will ………………
A. Be invalid
B. Change
C. Not change
D. Toggle
82. Which of the following is correct for a gated D-type flip-flop?
A. The Q output is either SET or RESET as soon as the D input goes HIGH or LOW
B. The output complement follows the input when enabled
C. Only one of the inputs can be HIGH at a time
D. The output toggles if one of the inputs is held HIGH
83. A basic S-R flip-flop can be constructed by cross-coupling of which basic logic gates?
A. AND or OR gates
B. XOR or XNOR gates
C. NOR or NAND gates
D. AND or NOR gates
84. Whose operations are faster among the following?
A. Combinational circuits
B. Sequential circuits
C. Latches
D. Flip-flops
85. The sequential circuit is also called ___________
A. Flip-flop
B. Latch
C. Strobe
D. Adder
 C.

86. The basic latch consists of ___________

A. Two inverters
B. Two comparators
C. Two amplifiers
D. Two adders

87. What is a trigger pulse?

A. A pulse that starts a cycle of operation
B. A pulse that reverses the cycle of operation
C. A pulse that prevents a cycle of operation
D. A pulse that enhances a cycle of operation
88. The circuits of NOR based S-R latch classified as asynchronous sequential circuits, why?
A. Because of inverted outputs
B. Because of triggering functionality
C. Because of cross-coupled connection
D. Because of inverted outputs & triggering functionality
89. In S-R flip-flop, if Q = 0 the output is said to be ___________
A. Set
B. Reset
C. Previous state
D. Current state
90. A NAND based S’-R’ latch can be converted into S-R latch by placing ____________
A. D latch at each of its input
B. An inverter at each of its input
C. It can never be converted
D. Both a D latch and an inverter at its input
91. How many types of flip-flops are?
A. 2
B. 3
 C.

C. 4
D. 5
92. The characteristic equation of S-R latch is ____________
A. Q(n+1) =
(S + Q(n))R’
B. Q(n+1) =
SR + Q(n)R

C. Q(n+1) = S’R + Q(n)R

D. Q(n+1) = S’R + Q'(n)R

93. One major difference between a NAND based S’-R’ latch & a NOR based S-R latch is __
A. The inputs of NOR latch are 0 but 1 for NAND latch
B. The inputs of NOR latch are 1 but 0 for NAND latch
C. The output of NAND latch becomes set if S’=0 & R’=1 and vice versa for NOR
latch
D. The output of NOR latch is 1 but 0 for NAND latch
94. When is a flip-flop said to be transparent? A. When the Q output is opposite the
input

B. When the Q output follows the input

C. When you can see through the IC packaging
D. When the Q output is complementary of the input
95. A J-K flip-flop with J = 1 and K = 1 has a 20 kHz clock input. The Q output is ________
A. Constantly LOW
B. Constantly HIGH
C. A 20 kHz square wave
D. A 10 kHz square wave
96. What is the significance of the J and K terminals on the J-K flip-flop?
A. There is no known significance in their designations
 C.

B. The J represents “jump,” which is how the Q output reacts whenever the clock goes
high and the J input is also HIGH
C. The letters were chosen in honor of Jack Kilby, the inventory of the integrated
circuit
D. All of the other letters of the alphabet are already in use
97. Four J-K flip-flops are cascaded with their J-K inputs tied HIGH. If the input frequency
(fin) to the first flip-flop is 32 kHz, the output frequency (fout) is ________

A. 1 kHz
B. 2 kHz
C. 4 kHz
D. 16 kHz
98. Determine the output frequency for a frequency division circuit that contains 12 flip-flops
with an input clock frequency of 20.48 MHz

A. 10.24 kHz
B. 5 kHz
C. 30.24 kHz
D. 15 kHz
99. In D flip-flop, D stands for _____________
A. Distant
B. Data
C. Desired
D. Delay
100. Which statement describes the BEST operation of a negative-edge-triggered D flip-flop?
A. The logic level at the D input is transferred to Q on NGT of CLK
B. The Q output is ALWAYS identical to the CLK input if the D input is HIGH
C. The Q output is ALWAYS identical to the D input when CLK = PGT
D. The Q output is ALWAYS identical to the D input
101. Which of the following describes the operation of a positive edge-triggered D flip-flop?
 C.

A. If both inputs are HIGH, the output will toggle

B. The output will follow the input on the leading edge of the clock
C. When both inputs are LOW, an invalid state exists
D. The input is toggled into the flip-flop on the leading edge of the clock and is passed
to the output on the trailing edge of the clock

102. The characteristic equation of D-flip-flop implies that ___________

A. The next state is dependent on previous state
B. The next state is dependent on present state
C. The next state is independent of previous state
D. The next state is independent of present state

103. The flip-flops which has not any invalid states are _____________
A. The S-R, J-K, D
B. S-R, J-K, T
C. J-K, D, S-R
D. J-K, D, T
104. Which of the following is the Universal Flip-flop?
A. S-R flip-flop
B. J-K flip-flop
C. Master slave flip-flop
D. D Flip-flop
105. The term synchronous means ____________
A. The output changes state only when any of the input is triggered
B. The output changes state only when the clock input is triggered
C. The output changes state only when the input is reversed
D. The output changes state only when the input follows it
106. A counter circuit is usually constructed of ____________
A. A number of latches connected in cascade form
 C.

B. A number of NAND gates connected in cascade form

C. A number of flip-flops connected in cascade form
D. A number of NOR gates connected in cascade form
107. The parallel outputs of a counter circuit represent the __________. (d)
A. Parallel data word
B. Clock frequency
C. Counter modulus
D. Clock count

109.A shift register is made up of how many flip-flops? (c)

A. One
B. Two
C. Three or more
D. None of the above
110.What is the difference between a serial and parallel shift register?(a)
A. A serial shift register shifts in data serially, while a parallel shift register shifts in
data in parallel.
B. A serial shift register shifts out data serially, while a parallel shift register shifts out
data in parallel.

C. A serial shift register shifts out data serially, while a parallel shift register shifts out
data serially as well.

D. A serial shift register shifts out data in parallel, while a parallel shift register shifts
out data in parallel as well.

111.Which type of shift register is used to implement a digital up-down counter? (a)
A. Serial in/serial out (SISO) type
B. Serial in/parallel out (SIPO) type
C. Parallel in/serial out (PISO) type
D. Parallel in/parallel out (PIPO) type
 C.

112.A bidirectional 4-bit shift register is storing the nibble 1110. Its input is LOW. The nibble
0111 is waiting to be entered on the serial data-input line. After two clock pulses, the shift
register is storing ________ (d)

A. 1110
B. 0111
C. 1000
D. 1001

113.In a parallel in/parallel out shift register, D0 = 1, D1 = 1, D2 = 1, and D3 = 0. After three

clock pulses, the data outputs are ________ (b)

A. 1110
B. 0001
C. 1100
D. 1000
114.What type of register would have a complete binary number shifted in one bit at a time and
have all the stored bits shifted out one at a time? (c)

A. Parallel-in Parallel-out
B. Parallel-in Serial-out
C. Serial-in Serial-out
D. Serial-in Parallel-out
115.How much storage capacity does each stage in a shift register represent? (a)
A. One bit
B. Two bits
C. Four bits
D. Eight bits
116.What is the maximum possible number of flip-flops in a decade
counter? (b) A. 1n

B. 2n
C.

C. 2n+1
D. 3n
117. The __________ is programmable logic device with a fixed OR array and a
programmable AND array.

A. PAL

B. PROM

C. PLA

D. None of the above

118.In Hamming Code technique, if the data does not have any error, then C is equivalent
to_________. A. 10001

B. 1001

C. 0000

D. 1111
119. Types of ROM memories are____________.
A. EPROM

B. PROM

C. EEPROM

D. All of these

120.To construct 2k × n ROM for given inputs and outputs, how many OR gates are
needed? A. 2 𝑛

B. n + 1

C. 2n

D.

121. To construct 2k × n ROM for given inputs and outputs, which decoder is needed?
A. 2 𝑛 decoder
 C.

B. k × 2k decoder

C. k × 2n decoder D. k × 2n decoder

122. Original Hamming Code is used to _________________.

A. detect only a single error

B. detect and correct

multiple errors

C. detect and correct only

a single error D. detect

multiple errors only

123.The applications of PLA and PAL are followings.

A. To implement combinational circuits

B. Register PALs can be used to implement sequential circuits

C. They can be programmed to use as code converters D. All of the above

124.How many locations are addresses using 18 address bits?

A. 262560

B. 262144

C. 262146

D. 250000

125.How many address bits are needed to operate a 2k

× 8 ROM?

A. 9

B. 10

C. 11
C.

D. 12

C++

1. In which steps of problem solving life cycle what input data are needed to solve problem,
what procedure is needed to achieve the result and what output are expected are identified

A. Analysis (problem specification)

B. Algorithm design.
C. Implementation or coding
D. Maintenance and documentation
2. Finiteness property of an Algorithm is
A. The number of steps in the algorithm should be finite.
B. The algorithm should terminate after a finite no. of times.
C. For all possible combinations of input data, the algorithm terminates after a finite
no. of steps

D. A and C
3. Which of the following approach is used by C++?
A. Left-right C. Right-left B. Bottom-up
D. Top-down

4. Which of the following correctly declares an array in C++?

A. array{10}; C. array array[10];
B. int array; D. int array[10];
5. Which concept allows you to reuse the written code in C++?
A. Inheritance C. Abstraction B. Polymorphism D.
Encapsulation

6. To which of the following access specifiers are applicable?

A. Member data C. Both Member data & Functions
B. Functions D. Protected members
C.

7. Which of the following refers to characteristics of an array?

A. An array is a set of similar data items

B. An array is a set of distinct data items
C. An array can hold different types of datatypes
D. None of the above

8. Which of the following can be considered as the object of an array?

A. Index of an array
B. Elements of the Array
C. Functions of the Array
D. All of the above

9. Which of the following statements is correct about the class?

A. An object is an instance of its class

B. A class is an instance of its object
C. An object is the instance of the data type of that class
D. Both A and C

10. Which of the following statements supports that reusable code should be one of the
desirable features of any language?

A. It helps in reducing the maintenance cost

B. It helps in reducing the testing time
C. It helps in reducing both the maintenance time and testing time
D. It helps in reducing the compile time

11. Which of the following concept refers to adding new components to the program at the
run time?

A. Dynamic Loading
B. Dynamic binding
C. Data hiding
D. Both A & B

12. How are the references different from the pointer?

A. A reference cannot be modified once it initialized

B. There is no need of an extra operator for dereferencing of a reference
C. A reference cannot be NULL
D. All of the above
C.

13. Which one of the following correctly refers to the command line arguments?

A. Arguments passed to the main() function

B. Arguments passed to the structure-function
C. Arguments passed to the class functions
D. Arguments passed to any functions

14. What will happen when we move the try block far away from catch block?

A. Reduces the amount of code in the cache

B. Increases the amount of code in the cache
Don't alter anything
D. Increases the amount of code

15. Which one of the following given statements is correct about the increment operator?

A. Increment operator(or ++ ) usually adds 2 to its operand

B. Decrement operator ++ subtracts 1 to its operand
C. Decrement operator ++ subtracts 3 to its operand
D. Increment operator (or ++ ) usually adds 1 to its operand

16. Which one of the following statements about the pre-increment is true?

A. Pre Increment is usually faster than the post-increment

B. Post-increment is faster than the pre-Increment
C. Pre increment is slower than post-increment D. pre decrement is slower than post-
increment

17. Why inline functions are useful?

A. Functions are large and contain several nested loops

B. Usually, it is small, and we want to avoid the function calls
C. The function has several static variables
D. All of the above

18. In C++, which of the following has the associatively of left to right?

A. Addressof
B. Unary operator
C. Logical not
D. Array element access
C.

19. Which of the following can be considered as the correct syntax of for loop?

A. for(initialization; condition; increment/decrement operator){}

B. for(initialization, condition; increment/decrement operator){}
C. for(initialization; increment/decrement operator;condition;{}
D. None of the above

20. The term modularity refers to _____.

A. To divide the program into small independent parts or sub-modules

B. To override the parts of the program
C.

To wrapping things into a single unit

D. None of the above

21. Which of the following methods can be considered the correct and efficient way of
handling arguments with spaces?

A. Use single quotes

B. Either single or double quotes
C. Use double quotes
D. There is no way of handling arguments with space

22. What is the value of p in the following C++ code snippet? #include <iostream> using
namespace std; int main(){ int p; bool a = true; bool b = false; int x = 10; int y = 5; p =
((x | y) + (a + b)); cout << p; return 0;

}
A. 12 B. 14 C. 2 D. 16

23. Which of the following statement is incorrect about preprocessor directives?

A. These are lines read and processed by the preprocessor

B. They do not produce any code by themselves
C. These must be written on their own line
D. They end with a semicolon

24. Which of the following is correct about this pointer in C++?

A. this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all static variables of a class
B. this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all the functions of a class
this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all non-static functions of a class D.
this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all static functions of a class

25. What is the difference between a declaration and a definition of a variable? A. Both can
occur multiple times, but a declaration must occur first.

B. A definition occurs once, but a declaration may occur many times.

C. A declaration occurs once, but a definition may occur many times.
 D. Both can occur multiple times, but a definition must occur first.
26. Which development phase of problem solving life cycle Method is used to verify
correctness and that requirements are met or not.

A. Testing B. Debugging C. Analysis D. Maintenance

27. A statement that is executed in a repetition structure, skips the remaining statement in the
body of structure and proceeds with next iteration of loops, is known as

A. Break statement
B. Continue statement
C. Case statement
D. None of them
28. Identify the correct order for the program execution
A. Object code, Source code, Executable code.
B. Source code, Object code, Executable code.
C. Running, Debugging, Compiling,
D. Running, Compiling, Debugging.
29. Which of the following loop is normally used for a menu driven program?
A. Do While Loop C. While Loop
B. For Loop D. Do Loop
30. Which of the following is the correct order of program execution in “for loop” based on
the syntax below.

For (initialization; condition; increment/Decrement) {

//body of the loop
}
i. Condition is checked iii. Increment/Decrement ii.
Initialization is executed iv. statement is executed

A. ii, i, iv and iii C. ii, iv,iii and i

B. ii,i,iv and iii D. ii,iv,iii and i
31. Which of the following is not a legal variable name?
 A. _something
B. aVariable
C. float2string
D. 2manyLetters
E. X

32. Which numeric data type has the largest range?

a. int
b. char
c. float
d. double
33. In C++, out of range array index is what type of error

a. Compile time
b. Run time
c. Is not an error
d. None

34. How many times is the phrase ″In the loop″ printed when the following code is executed?

int i, j=25; for(i=0;

i<j; i++, j--)

{
if(i%2==0) continue;

cout << ″In the loop″ << endl; }

a. 6 b. 10 c. 4 d. 5 e. 2

35. What are the three basic control structures used in programming?
a. int, double, string
b. while, do..while, for
c. sequence, decision, repetition
 d. input, output, and calculation
36. A loop exit condition must
a. be the last instruction in the body of the loop
b. evaluate to true or false
c. be the first instruction in the body of the loop
d. not use compound conditions
37. A variable which is declared inside the function can be called?

a. Local variable
b. Global variable
c. Normal variable
d. Variable scope

38. If the logic of your program at some point requires you to do one thing or another, which instruction
would you use to implement this decision?
a. while
b. for
c. if..else
d. sequence
e. cin
39. Consider the following code fragment carefully, then answer the question: how many times will the cout
statement execute:

for (i = 0; i < 5; i++); cout << i;

a. 5 times
b. 4 times
c. 6 times
d. 0 times
e. 1 time
40. Find the output of the following code:
int main() { int x = 10; cout << -- x +
1<<","; cout<< x++; }
a. 10, 9
b. 10, 10
c. 9, 10
d. 9, 9
e.
41. Tasks performed by the OS include:
a. Management of secondary storage devices.
b. Memory management
 c. Allocation of CPU time
d. All
42. which is not a part of every C++ function.
a. Function header
b. Function body
c. Function selector
d. Function parameters
e. All expect c
43. which one is different from others?
a. int a ;
b. float b;
c. double d;
d. int c = 40;
44. How many times will the print statement be executed?

main(){
int i = 0; label:
cout << “Interviewbit;
i++; if(i < 3){ goto label;
}
}
a. times
b. times
c. times
d. error
45. What is the output of the following c++ source code.

float mark = 50.0L;

if(mark > 85) cout <<"Your grade is A ";

cout << "Excellent!";

a. Your grade is A Excellent!

b. Nothing will be Displayed.
c. Excellent!
d. Your grade is A

46. Given the following Statements: int grade[3] = {65, 50, 86}; what is the output of ?
 cout << *grade;

a. 65
b. 50
c. 65, 50, 86
d. It is an invalid statement.
47. How many times is the phrase ″In the loop″ printed when the following code is executed?

int a = 4, b = 12; do{ cout << ″in the loop″<< endl;

a+=2; b-=2;

} while(a<b);
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

48. Given the following function:

void calculateArea (float& a , float r)
{ a = r * r * 3.14;

}
Assume that float area = 0; float radius = 5; is declared in main (). what is the correct way to call (invoke)
the above function.
a) calculateArea(area, radius);
b) area = calculateArea(radius);
c) calculateArea(&area, radius);
d) calculateArea(area);

49. Which of the following approach is used by C++?

a. Left-right
b. Right-left
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
50. What happens if the following C++ statement is compiled and executed?

int *ptr = NULL; delete ptr;

 a) The program is not semantically correct
b) The program is compiled and executed successfully
c) The program gives a compile-time error
d) The program compiled successfully but throws an error during run-time

51. What will be the output of the following C++ code?

#include <iostream> #include <string>

using namespace std;
int main(int argc, char const *argv[])
{
char s1[6] = "Hello"; char s2[6] = "World";
char s3[12] = s1 + " " + s2;
cout<<s3; return 0;
}

a) Hello
b) World
c) Error
d) Hello World

52. Which of the following is correct about this pointer in C++?

a) this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all static variables of a class
b) this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all the functions of a class
c) this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all non-static functions of a class
d) this pointer is passed as a hidden argument in all static functions of a class

53. What will be the output of the following C++ function?

int main()
{
register int i = 1; int *ptr = &i;
cout << *ptr;
 return 0;
}

a) Runtime error may be possible

b) Compiler error may be possible
c) 1
d) 0

54. Which of the following correctly declares an array in C++?

a) array{10};
b) array array[10];
c) int array;
d) int array[10];
55. Which is more effective while calling the C++ functions?
a) call by object
b) call by pointer
c) call by value
d) call by reference
56. What will be the output of the following C++ code?

#include <iostream> using namespace

std;
int main() { char c = 74;
cout << c; return 0; }

a) I
b) J
c) A
d) N

57. What is the output of the following statements?

int k = 2, g = 20; k *= g++; cout << k <<

“ , ” << g;

a) 42 , 21
b) 40 , 21
c) 40 , 20
d) 2 , 40
58. What is the following statement?
 int addition( int, int );
a) It is a Function invocation.
b) It is a Function prototyping.
c) It is not a valid C++ statement.
d) It is a variable declaration.
59. The C++ code which causes abnormal termination/behaviour of a program should be written under
_________ block. a) catch
b) throw
c) try
d) finally
60. What is abstract class in C++?
a) Any Class in C++ is an abstract class
b) Class from which any class is derived
c) Class specifically used as a base class with atleast one virtual functions
d) Class specifically used as a base class with atleast one pure virtual functions 61. Which concept
allows you to reuse the written code in C++?
a) Inheritance
b) Polymorphism
c) Abstraction
d) Encapsulation
62. How structures and classes in C++ differ?
a) Structures by default hide every member whereas classes do not
b) In Structures, members are public by default whereas, in Classes, they are private by default
c) Structures cannot have private members whereas classes can have
d) In Structures, members are private by default whereas, in Classes, they are public by default
63. What is the value of var? int var;

var = 3 + 2 * 3 / 2 – (4 - 2);

a) 3 b) 5.5 c) 4 d) 5 e) not a valid c++ statement.

64. What will be the output of the following C++ code?

#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main ()
{ int a, b, c; a = 2;
b = 7;
c = (a > b) ? a : b; cout << c;
return 0; }
 a) 12
b) 14
c) 6
d) 7

66. Which of the following is not correct about structures?

A. It is a programmer defined data types.
B. Structures can contain variables of different data types.
C. Members of structure are accessed through structure variable.
D. The default way of passing structure variable is by reference.
67. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly paired?
a. (cin, read from key board)
b. (cout, write to screen)
c. (ofstream, read from a file)
d. (fstream, write to a file)
68. A constructor is executed when a class is declared.
a. True
b. False
69. Which of the following access modifier is used in a constructor definition by default? a. Protected
b. Public
c. Private
d. Either A or C
70. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. An ifstream object can create a file.
b. An ofstream object cannot create a file.
c. An ofstream object is used to write a file.
d. A and B

71. which one is not true about array?

a. heterogeneous datatype
b. homogeneous datatype
c. store continuous data’s
d. access the element of the array thought index 72. what is the definition of pointer?
a. variable that used to store the series of data
b. pointer is a variable that used to store the exact values of the variable
c. pointer is used to store the address ana another variable
d. pointer is a variable used to store the size of variable 73. what is pass by value?
a. pass the exact value of the variable to the certain function
b. pass the address of the variable to the certain function
c. pass the exact size of the variable to a certain function
 d. all the above
74. Which of the following statement is false?
a. Function has two parts header and the body
b. It is possible to pass a paraments to a certain function
c. Void type has a return value of 1
d. Void type has return value of empty
75. Which of the following can be considered as the correct syntax for declaring an array of pointers of
integers that has a size of 10 in C++?
A. int *arr = new int*[10]
B. int *arr = new int[10];
C. int arr = new int[10];
D. int **arr = new int*[10];
76. When an ADT is implemented as a C++ class, which of the following should normally be true?

A. Member functions are private, member variables are public

B. Member functions are public, member variables are private
C. Member functions as well as member variables are private
D. Member functions as well as member variables are public
77. What will happen while using pass by reference
A. The values of those variables are passed to the function so that it can manipulate them

B. The location of variable in memory is passed to the function so that it can use the same memory area
for its processing

C. The function declaration should contain ampersand (& in its type declaration) D. All of the
mentioned

78. What is wrong with the following code fragment?

int main()
{ int x=4,y=3; // line 1 const int i = 10;
// line2 x = x + i; // line 3 i = y*2; // line
4

}
A. Variables are not declared before use
B. There cannot be 3 variables in such a simple program
C. There is an error in line 3
 D. There is an error in line 4
E. Both C and D
79. For the following code fragment, how many times does sum get incremented? In other words, how many
times is line X executed in the following program?

for (int i=0;i<3;i++)

{ for (int j=0;j<3;j++)

{
sum++;
}
}
A. 4
B. 3
C. 9
D. 2
E. None of the above

80. What is the value stored in c?

int a=4, b=9, c; c = a++ + ++b;

A. 13 C. 14
B. 15 D. 12
81. The process of going from a set of source files to a running program has several steps.
Place the following in the correct order from the first step executed to the last:
I. Linking
II. Compiling
III. Execution
IV. Processing #include directives
A. II, IV, I, III
 B. II, III, I, IV
C. IV, II, I, III
D. IV, I, II, III
E. I, IV, II, III
82. Given below are some statements about the default (0-argument) constructor:
I. Its return type is the type of the class
II. It has no return type
III. The programmer can define it, but the C++ language doesn’t require this
IV. The programmer must define it
V. It is always defined by C++ if it isn’t provided by the programmer
VI. It is sometimes, but not always, defined by C++ if it isn’t provided by the programmer

Which of these statements are true?

A. I, III and V only

B. I, II and VI only
C. II and IV only
D. II, III and V only 3.
E. II, III and VI only
83. Which of the following functions will correctly return true if its argument is an odd integer ?
I. bool IsOdd (int x) {
return (x % 2 == 1);

}
II. bool IsOdd (int x) {
return (x / 2 == 1);

}
III. bool IsOdd (int x) {
if (x % 2 == 1) return true; else
return false;

}
 A. II only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only 4.
E. I, II and III
84. Suppose you have a function prototype int foo(char *), and call it from main(), but forget to write the
code that actually implements foo - but everything else in your program is correct. When will the error be
detected, and what kind of error will it be? A. The compiler will report an "undefined function body"
error.
B. There will be an undefined error at run-time, because the compiler will generate code that branches to an
undefined address; anything could happen, so it is undefined.
C. Some very confusing compiler messages will result because the compiler will try to find all possible
overloads of functions that take a char * argument, of which there are many, especially if the iostream
header has been #included.
D. The linker will report an "undefined symbol" error for "foo" and no executable will be built.
85. On most machines, addresses have the identical binary format, no matter what kind of object they are the
address of. Why then, is it necessary to declare a pointer variable with the type of the pointed-to object?
A. It is a matter of readable programming style, but not required by the Standard.
B. If the pointer is used to access members of a class or a struct, the compiler must be able to tell what class
or struct is involved.
C. If the pointer is modified using pointer arithmetic, the size of the pointed-to object must be known.
D. The premise of the question is false; pointers of different types usually have different binary
representations in the computer hardware
86. What is the output of the following code?
1. if ( 6 > 8)
2. {
3. cout << " ** " << endl ;
4. cout << "****" << endl;
5. }
6. else if (9 == 4)
7. cout << "***" << endl;
8. else
9. cout << "*" << endl;
A. ****
B. ***
C. *
D. **

87. Which of the following features of object oriented programming plays an important role in allowing
objects having different internal structures to share the same external interfaces.
 A. objects
B. classes
C. plymorphism
D. message passing

88. What is the effect of using small inline functions on the number of cache misses?

A. increase the number of cache misses

B. decrease the number of cache misses
C. No cache misses
D. None of these

89. If a derived class object is created, which constructor is called first?

A. Derived class constructor

B. Base class constructor
C. Totally Depends on that how we call the object
D. Both a and B

90. Observe following program and answer

class Example{

public: int a,b,c;

Example(){a=b=c=1;}

//Constructor 1

Example(int a){a = a; b = c = 1;}

//Constructor 2

Example(int a,int b){a = a; b = b; c = 1;}

//Constructor 3

Example(int a,int b,int c){ a = a; b = b; c = c;}

//Constructor 4
 }

In the above example of constructor overloading, the following statement will call which constructor

Example obj = new Example (1,2,3);

A. Constructor 2
B. Constructor 4
C. Constrcutor 1
D. Type mismatch error
91. What will be the output of the following C++ code?

#include <iostream> #include <string> using namespace std; int main() {

string str {"Steve jobs"}; unsigned long int found =

str.find_first_of("aeiou"); while (found != string :: npos)

str[found] = '*'; found = str.find_first_of("aeiou", found +

1);

cout << str << "\n";

return 0;
}
a. Steve
b. Jobs
c. St*v* j*bs
d. St*v*
i. Output of this program will be ____? #include using
namespace std; int main() { int a = 5, b = 10, c = 15;
int arr[3] = {&a, &b, &c}; cout << *arr[*arr[1] – 8];
return 0; }
A. 18
B. 15
C. garbage value
D. compile time error
92. What will be the output of this program? #include
<stdio.h> using namespace std;
int array1[] = {1200, 200, 2300, 1230, 1543}; int array2[] =
{12, 14, 16, 18, 20}; int temp, result = 0;
int main()
{
for (temp = 0; temp < 5; temp++) {
result += array1[temp];
}
for (temp = 0; temp < 4; temp++) {
result += array2[temp];
} cout << result; return
0; }
A. 6553 B. 6533
C. 6522
D. 12200

93. What happens when both of the following C++ programs are compiled and executed?

===== Program 1 =====

#include <iostream>
#include <array>

using namespace std;

int main()
{
array<int,5> arr1; arr1.fill(5);
cout<<get<5>(arr1);
return 0;
}
=====================
===== Program 2 =====
#include <iostream>
 #include <array>

using namespace std;

int main()
{
array<int,5> arr1; arr1.fill(5);
cout<<arr1.at(5); return 0;
}
=====================

a. Program 1 gives compile-time error and Program 2 gives run-time error

b. Program 1 gives run-time error and Program 2 gives compile-time error
c. Both programs results into compile-time error
d. Both programs results into run-time error

94. Identify the correct statements.

i. Derived class do not inherit or overload constructors or destructors from their base classes.
ii. Destructors can be declared with the keyword virtual
iii. Constructors can be declared with the keyword virtual

A. (i) and (iii) only

B. (i) and (ii) only
C. (ii) and (iii) only
D. (i),(ii) and (iii)

95. Which option gives the correct interpretation of the following declaration in C++?

int (*x[10])();

a. X is a pointer to such function which return type is array

b. X is a pointer to an array of function
c. X is an array of ponters to functions
d. X is a pointer to functions.
96. Which of the following statement is true about preprocessor directives?
a. These are lines read and processed by the preprocessor
b. They do not produce any code by themselves
 c. These must be written on their own line
d. They end with a semicolon
97. What is the output of the following program.

main(){ int i={1,2,3};

cout<<i<<endl;

a. 1
b. 123
c. 3
d. Error
98. What does the following code fragment print?

int[] a = { 1, 2, 3 }; int[] b = { 1, 2, 3 };

System.out.println(a == b);
A. It prints true B. It prints false.
C. Compile time error
D. None

99. Which from the following is not a correct way to pass a pointer to a function?

A. Non-constant pointer to non-constant data

B. A non-constant pointer to constant data
C. A constant pointer to non-constant data
D. All of the above

100. Which of the following is a correct identifier in C++?

A. VAR_1234 B. $var_name C. 7VARNAME D. 7var_name
 EXIT EXAM QUESTION’S INTRODUCTION TO POWER SYSTEM
1. _________________________ is used to represent a power system using simple symbols for each
component resulting.
A. Impedance and reactance Diagram C. Transmission line
B. Substation reactance D. Single line diagram
2. A, B, C, and D are the parameters that depend on the transmission line constants R, L, C, and G. So, which
one of the following is Not correct?
A. B and C are dimensions C. the unit of B is ohms
B. The unit of C is siemens D. All
3. Which one of the following is used as an interconnection of structures of power system?
A. Distributions B. Transmissions C. Generations D. Loads
4. One of the following is an important of corona?
A. Due to corona formation, the air surrounding the conductor becomes conducting and hence virtual
diameter of the conductor is increased. The increased diameter reduces the electrostatic stresses between
the conductors.
B. Corona is accompanied by a loss of energy. This affects the transmission efficiency of the line.
C. Ozone is produced by corona and may cause corrosion of the conductor due to chemical action.
D. The current drawn by the line due to corona is non-sinusoidal and hence non-sinusoidal voltage drop
occurs in the line. This may cause inductive interference with neighboring communication lines.
5. If the generator and load neutrals are at the same potential, so that 𝐼 𝑛 =0. thus, the neutral impedance 𝑍 𝑛
will be
A. Does affect network behavior.
B. Greater than the impedances found on the network
C. Equal to the sum of all the impedances
D. Does not affect network behavior
6. Which one of the following is correct about the Y-Y and D-D transformers?
A. The phase shift of secondary winding is three times the primary winding.
B. There is no phase shift between corresponding quantities on the low and high voltage windings.
C. There is always a phase shift between corresponding quantities on the low and high voltage windings.
D. None
7. _________________ accounts for leakage currents are negligible as compared to the current flowing across
insulators and ionized pathways in the air.
A. Shunt capacitance C. Series resistance
B. Shunt conductance D. Series inductance.
8. Which one of the following is NOT among the properties of conductor material used for transmission and
distribution of electric power?
 A. High tensile strength in order to withstand mechanical stresses.
B. High electrical conductivity.
C. High cost so that it can be used for long distances.
D. Low specific gravity so that weight per unit volume is small.
9. For long distance transmission and higher voltages, which type of pole is employed?
A. Steel poles B. RCC poles. C. Steel towers D. Wooden poles
10.When there is a dead end of the line or there is corner or sharp curve, the line is subjected to greater tension.
So, the insulator type is ________________.
A. Pin type insulators C. Shackle insulators.
B. Strain insulators D. Suspension type insulators
11.The conductor sag should be kept to a minimum in order to reduce
A. The conductor material required
B. To avoid extra pole height for sufficient clearance above ground level
C. It is also desirable that tension in the conductor should be low to avoid the mechanical failure of
conductor
D. All
12.The ratio of voltage across the whole string to the product of number of discs and the voltage across the
disc nearest to the conductor is known as ____________________.
A. Conductance C. Transmission Efficiency
B. Voltage regulation D. String efficiency
13.The line supports should have the following properties, except?
A. Less mechanical strength to withstand the weight of conductors and wind loads etc.
B. Light in weight without the loss of mechanical strength.
C. Cheap in cost and economical to maintain.
D. Easy accessibility of conductors for maintenance.
14.While solving problems relating to string efficiency, the following points must be kept in mind, except?
A. The maximum voltage appears across the disc nearest to the conductor
B. The voltage across the string is equal to Line voltage
C. The voltage across the string is equal to phase voltage
D. Line Voltage = 3 × Voltage across string

15.Which one of the following is NOT CORRECT about corona?

A. Corona has associated power loss, radio and TV interference and audible noise.
B. Corona does not influence the line losses and the design of overhead transmission line conductors.
 C. Corona is that it is accompanied by loss of power, which is dissipated in the form of heat, light, sound
and chemical action.
D. All are incorrect answers.
16.Underground cables have several advantages such as
A. High voltage drops and better general appearance.
B. Low maintenance cost, less chances of faults,
C. Greater installation cost
D. Introduce insulation problems at high voltages compared with the equivalent overhead system
17.The insulating materials used in cables should have the following properties:
A. Less insulation resistance to avoid leakage current.
B. Less dielectric strength to avoid electrical breakdown of the cable.
C. Less mechanical strength to withstand the mechanical handling of cables.
D. Non-inflammable and Low cost so as to make the underground system a viable proposition.
18._________________ is an insulating material which is synthetic compound, that obtained from the
polymerization of acetylene and is in the form of white powder.
A. Vulcanized India Rubber C. Impregnated paper
B. Varnished cambric D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
19.Which one of the following is correct about medium transmission lines?
A. The value of constants A and C are equal.
𝑍𝑌 𝑍𝑌
B. The constants B and D are 1 + and 1 + respectively.
2 4
C. The constant B is equal to Z.
D. All are correct
20.Aluminum conductor steel reinforced (ACSR) have the following advantages, except.
A. It is cheaper than copper conductors of equal resistance.
B. Corona losses are reduced because of the larger diameter of the conductor.
C. It has superior mechanical strength and hence span of larger lengths which results in smaller number of
supports for a particular length of transmission line.
D. None
21.The ratio of receiving end power to the sending end power of a transmission line is known as
the___________________.
A. Voltage regulation C. Transmission efficiency
B. String efficiency D. A and B are the correct answer.
22. While selecting the site for a hydro-electric power station, one of the following is not taken in to account?
A. Availability of water C. Labor cost
B. Cost and type of land D. Transportation facilities.
23. __________________ of a hydro-electric power station includes alternators, transformers, circuit breakers
and other switching and protective devices.
A. Reaction turbines C. Electrical equipment
B. Water turbines D. Hydraulic structures
24. One of the following is the advantage of diesel power station?
A. The plant has high running charges as the fuel used is costly.
B. It can be located at any place.
C. The plant can only generate small power.
D. The cost of lubrication is generally high.
25. All are advantages of interconnected system, except?
A. Exchange of peak loads C. Use of older plants
B. Increases diversity factor D. Increases plant reserve capacity

GOOD LUCK!!!
 Introduction to communication System
1. Converts electrical signal to a form that is suitable for transmission.
A. transducer B. Receiver C. Transmitter D. none of the above
2. Which one of the following is not mode of communication System?
A. Point to Point B. Multicast C. Unicast D. MIMO
3. Method of data communication Consist of?
A.PSK B. QAM C.FSK D. none
4. Data transmission can take place in both directions simultaneously.
A. Simplex B. Duplex C. Half Duplex D. all
5. During generation and consumption–message signals are analog.

A.True B.False
6. Which one of has the following is the disadvantages of analogue signal?

A. It is inflexible
B. It is prone to noise and distortion.

C. Control and manipulation of signals is difficult.

D. all

7. These days digital electronic circuitry is cheaper than analogue circuitry for the implementation of
complex functions.
A. True B. False
8. Among the following one is not the advantage of Digital signal?

A. Normally large scale digital systems are software controlled

B. It is less prone to noise or distortion.

C. it is inflexible

D. It is relatively easy to manipulate signals

9. The theory of radio waves was originated by?

A. Marconi B. Maxwell C. Bell D. Hertz

10. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic Ocean was?

A. Marconi B. Maxwell C. Bell D. Hertz

11. The transmission of radio waves was first done by?

A. Marconi B. Maxwell C. Bell D. Hertz

12. A complete communication system must include?

A. a transmitter and receiver

B. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel

C. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer

D. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel

13. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called?

A. sub-channeling B. SINAD C. signal

switching D. multiplexing

14. TDM stands for?

A. Time-Division Multiplexing

B. Time Domain Measurement

C. Two-level Digital Modulation

D. none of the above

15. FDM stands for?

A. Fast Digital Modulation B. Frequency-Division Multiplexing

C. Frequency Domain Measurement D. none of the above

16. Noise in a communication system originates in?

A. the sender B. the channel

C. the receiver D. all of the above

17. Digital communication is _______ to environmental changes?

A. Less sensitive

B. More sensitive

C. Does not depend

D. None of the mentioned

18.Advantages of digital communication are

A. Easy multiplexing
B. Easy processing
C. Reliable
D. All of the mentioned

19. Analog to digital conversion includes

A. Sampling
B. Quantization
C. Sampling & Quantization
D. None of the mentioned

20. Thermal noise is generated in:

A. transistors and diodes B. copper wire C. resistors

D. all the above

21. Shot noise is generated in:

 A. transistors and diodes B. copper wire C. resistors

D. none of the above

22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as:

A. signal voltage divided by noise voltage.

B. signal power divided by noise power.

C. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power

D. none of the above

23. Distortion is caused by:

A. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies

B. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other

C. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies

D. all of the above

24. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its:

A. frequency-domain representation B. spectrum C. Fourier series

D. all of the above

25. "Man-made" noise can come from:

A. equipment that sparks B. static

C. temperature D. all of the above

 JIGJIGA UNIVERSITY
INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
Department of Electrical and Computer Engineering
Model Exit Exam – May 2024

Degree & Programme: Bachelor of Science in Electrical and Computer Engineering

Year: V
Course Title: Applied Electronics-I

Objective Type Question For Model - Exit Exam

1.
Which of the following equation represents mass action law for semiconductors in electronic circuits?
a) n × p = ni2
b) n × p = ni
c) n × p = ni3
d) n × p = ni1/2
Answer: a

2. Which of the following is correct about photo diode electronic devices?

a) P-N junction is connected in reverse bias.
b) Electron-hole pairs are generated by impurity injection in depletion layer
c) It is a photovoltaic cell
d) No external voltage is applied
Answer: a

3. In which of the following region does BJT act as the amplifier electronic device?
a) Cut-off
b) Saturation
c) Active
d) Reverse saturation
Answer: c

4. Which of the following diode is used in ultra-high-speed switching electronic circuits?

a) Zener diode
 b) Varactor diode
c) Tunnel diode
d) Schottky diode
Answer: c

5. Which of the following acts as a buffer?

a) CC amplifier
b) CE amplifier
c) CB amplifier
d) cascaded amplifier
Answer: a
6. What is the most efficient way to calculate voltage or current in a two – port network?
a) Z parameters
b) Y parameters
c) H parameters
d) G parameters
Answer: c
7. How do we determine the value of the hybrid parameter h21 in a two – port network?
a) h21 = I1 / I2
b) h21 = V1 / V2
c) h21 = I2 / I1
d) h21 = V2 / V1
Answer: c
8.
The Shockley equation is __________________
a) ID = (1 – Vgs/Vp)2
b) ID = IDSS (1 – Vgs/Vp)2
c) ID = IDSS (1 – Vgs/Vp)1
d) ID = IDSS (1 + Vgs/Vp)2
Answer: b

9. The pinch off voltage of JFET is 5v. What is its cut off voltage?
a) 2.5V
b) 3V
c) 4V
d) 5V

Answer: d

10. Necessary condition to create a channel in n-channel enhancement MOSFET is ____________

a) Vgs > Vt
 b) Vgs < Vt
c) Vgs < 2Vt
d) 2Vgs > Vt
Answer: a

11. MOSFET can be used as ________

a) Voltage controlled capacitor
b) Current controlled capacitor
c) Voltage controlled inductor
d) Current controlled inductor

Answer: a

12. Which of the following statement is true about FET common source amplifier compared to BJT
amplifier?
a) It has High input impedance
b) It has low input impedance
c) No input Voltage is needed
d) Input Voltage is needed
Answer: a
13. In a full wave rectifier without filter, the ripple factor is
(A) 0.482 (B) 1.21 (C) 1.79 (D) 2.05
Ans: A

14. In a JFET, at pinch off voltage applied on the gate (A) the drain current becomes almost zero (B) the drain
current begins to decrease (C) the drain current is almost at saturation value. (D) the drain to source
voltage is close to zero volts.
Ans: C

15. The common collector amplifier is also known as (A) collector follower (B) Base follower (C) Emitter
follower (D) Source follower
Ans: C
16. In class–A amplifier, the output current flows for
(A) a part of the cycle or the input signal. (B) the full cycle of the input signal. (C) half the cycle of the input
signal. (D) 3/4th of the cycle of the input signal.
Ans: B

17. In the voltage regulator shown below, if the current through the load decreases,
 (A) The current through R1 will increase. (B) The current through R1 will decrease. (C) zener diode
current will increase. (D) zener diode current will decrease.
Ans. (C)

18. The type of power amplifier which exhibits crossover distortion in its output is (A) Class A (B) Class B
(C) Class AB (D) Class C
Ans. (B)

20. The main characteristics of a Darlington Amplifier are

(A) High input impedance, high output impedance and high current gain. (B) Low input impedance, low
output impedance and low voltage gain. (C) High input impedance, low output impedance and high current
gain. (D) Low input impedance, low output impedance and high current gain.
Ans: C

21. N type silicon is obtained by (A) Doping with tetravalent element (B) Doping with pentavalent
element (C) Doping with trivalent element (D) Doping with a mixture of trivalent and tetravalent
element
Ans: (B)

22. The transconductance, gm, of a JFET is computed at constant VDS, by the following:

Ans: A

23. What are n-stage cascading amplifiers also known as?

a) Common collector amplifier
b) Multistage amplifiers
c) Common base amplifier
d) Common emitter amplifier
Answer: b
24. Which type of biasing is used in CE amplifier?
a) Fixed bias
b) Collector to base bias
c) Voltage divider bias
d) Emitter bias
Answer: c
25. What is the value of β in an emitter follower amplifier if Vf = 12V and VO = 12V?
a) 1
b) 124
c) 1.24
d) 0.124
Answer: a

26. In the circuit given below, assume VCC = 12V, VBE = 0.7V, RB = 330kΩ, RC = 3.3kΩ, RE = 2.7kΩ and
β = 50. What is the base current IB?

a) 16.432µA
b) 17.856µA
c) 20.542µA
d) 17.936µA
Answer: d
Explanation: To find the value of IB, we substitute the values in the below equation. Given values are
VCC = 12V, VBE = 0.7V, RB = 330kΩ, RC = 3.3kΩ, RE = 2.7kΩ and β = 50.
IB = (VCC – VBE) / (RB + β × (RC + RE))
IB = (12 – 0.7 / (330 + 50 × (2.7 + 3.3)) = 11.3 / (330 + 50 × 6) = 11.3 / 630 = 17.936µA.
 27. The linear (active) operating region of a transistor lies along the load line below ________ and above
___________
a) cut off, saturation
b) saturation, cut off
c) active, saturation
d) cut off, active
Answer: b
28. Negative feedback in amplifier _____________
a) Improves the signal-to-noise ratio at input
b) Improves the signal-to-noise ratio at output
c) Does not improve the signal-to-noise ratio at I/O
d) Reduce Distortion
Answer: d

29. The device associated with voltage-controlled capacitance is a

A. Light-emitting diode
B. Photodiode
C. Varactor diode
D. Zener diode

Answer: c

30. The material used for construction of LED is

A. Si
B. Ge
C. GaAsP
D. None of these

Answer: c
 JIGJIGA UNIVERSITY
INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
Department of Electrical and Computer Engineering
Model Exit Exam – May 2024

Degree & Programme: Bachelor of Science in Electrical and Computer Engineering

Year: V
Course Title: Signals and systems analysis

Objective Type Question For Model - Exit Exam

1. Which among the following are the stable discrete time systems?
1. y(n) = x(4n)
2. y(n) = x(-n)
3. y(n) = ax(n) + 8
4. y(n) = cos x(n)

a. 1 & 3
b. 2 & 4
c. 1, 3 & 4
d. 1, 2, 3 & 4

ANSWER: (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

2. Find the Z-transform of x(n) = u(-n).

a) 1/(z−1)
b) 1/(z+1)1.
c) 1/(1−z)
d) −1/(z+1)
Answer: c

3. Find the inverse Laplace transform for 1/(s+1)2.

a) tet u(t)
b) te-t u(t)
 c) tu(t)
d) et u(t)

Answer: b

4. The spectral density of white noise is ____________

a) Exponential
b) Uniform
c) Poisson
d) Gaussian
Answer: b

5. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a continuous time causal and stable LTI
system?
(A) All the poles of the system must lie on the left side of the jw axis
(B) Zeros of the system can lie anywhere in the s-plane
(C) All the poles must lie within s = 1
(D) All the roots of the characteristic equation must be located on the left side of the jw axis.

Answer: C

6. The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function does not have the
(A) dc term (B) cosine terms
(C) sine terms (D) odd harmonic terms

Answer: C

7. The trigonometric Fourier series for the waveform f (t) shown below contains

(A) only cosine terms and zero values for the dc components
(B) only cosine terms and a positive value for the dc components
(C) only cosine terms and a negative value for the dc components
(D) only sine terms and a negative value for the dc components

Answer: C

8. The sampling frequency of a signal is Fs = 2000 samples per second. Find its Nyquist interval.

a) 0.5 sec b) 5 msec c) 5 sec d) 0.5 msec

Answer: d

9. Find the Laplace transform of u(t) and its ROC.

a) 1/s, σ<0

b) 1/s, σ>0

c) 1/(s−1), σ=0

d) 1/(1−s), σ≤0

Answer: b

10. All causal systems must have the component of

a) memory

b) time invariance

c) stability

d) linearity

Answer: a

11. Which one of the following systems is causal?

a) y(t)=x(t)+x(t-3) +x(t2)

b) y(n)=x(n+2)
 c) y(t)=x(t-1) +x(t-2)

d) y(n)=x(2n2)

Answer: c

12. Discrete time signal is derived from continuous time signal by _____________ process.

a) Addition

b) Multiplying

c) Sampling

d) Addition and multiplication

Answer: c

13. AM radio signal is an example for __________

a) y (t) = a x (t)

b) y (t) = x1 (t) + x2 (t)

c) y (t) = x1 (t) * x2 (t)

d) y (t) = -x(t)

Answer: c

14. The step function u (t) is integral of _______ with respect to time t.

a) Ramp function

b) Impulse function

c) Sinusoidal function

d) Exponential function

Answer: b

15. Which of the following systems is linear?

 a) y(t) = sin(x(t))

b) y(t) = log(x(t))

c) y(t) = cos(x(t))

d) y(t) = dx(t)/dt

Answer: d

16. Determine the nature of the given system: y(t)=x(sint)

a) Causal, Non-linear

b) Causal, Linear

c) Non-Causal, Non-linear

d) Non-causal, Linear

Answer: d

17. Determine the nature of the system: y(t)= t2 x(t-1)

a) Linear, time invariant

b) Linear, time variant

c) Non-linear, time invariant

d) Non-linear, time variant

Answer: b

18. For the system, y (t) = x (t-5) – x (3-t) which of the following holds true?

a) System is Linear, time-invariant, causal and stable

b) System is time-invariant, causal and stable

c) System is Linear, time-invariant and stable

d) System is Linear, time-invariant and causal

Answer: c

19. Discrete-time signals are _________________

a) Continuous in amplitude and continuous in time

b) Continuous in amplitude and discrete in time

c) Discrete in amplitude and discrete in time

d) Discrete in amplitude and continuous in time

Answer: b

20. Unit Impulse function is obtained by using the limiting process on which among the following
functions?

a) Triangular Function

b) Rectangular Function

c) Signum Function

d) Sinc Function

Answer: b

21. The response of any discrete time system can be decomposed as _____________

a) Total Response=Impulse+step

b) Total Response=Impulse+Ramp

c) Total Response=zero-output response

d) Total Response=zero-state response+zero-input response

Answer: d

22. Which of the following systems is stable?

a) y(t) = log(x(t))

b) y(t) = sin(x(t))
 c) y(t) = exp(x(t))

d) y(t) = tx(t) + 1

Answer: b

23. What is the full form of BIBO?

(a) Boundary input Boundary Output (b) Boundary Input Bounded Output

(c) Bonded Input Bonded Output (d) Bounded Input, Bounded Output

Answer: d

24. What are the mathematical tools to convert a system from a time domain to frequency domain?

a) Fourier series, Fourier transform, Laplace transform, Z-transform

b) Fourier series only

c) Fourier series and Laplace transform only

d) Fourier series, Fourier transform and Laplace transform only

Answer: a

25. What is the full form of the LTI system?

a) Linear time inverse system

b) Late time inverse system

c) Linearity times invariant system

d) Linear Time Invariant system

Answer: d

26. How are the convolution integral of signals represented?

a) x(t)+h(t)

b) x(t)-h(t)
 c) x(t)*h(t)

d)x(t)**h(t)

Answer: c

27. For an LTI discrete system to be stable, the square sum of the impulse response should be

a) Integral multiple of 2pi

b) Infinity

c) Finite

d) Zero

Answer: c

28. Which of the following system is memoryless?

(a) h(t)=0,t ≠0 (b) h(t)=x(t-1)

(c) h(t)=0, t=0 (d) h(t)=kx(t+2)

Answer: a

29. Which of the following system is causal?

(a) y[n] = 2[n] – 3[n+1] (b) y[n] = 2[n] + 3

(c) y[n] = 2[n-7] – 3[n+1] (d) y[n] = 2[n]*3[n+1]

Answer: b

30. What is a convolution sum?

(a) ∑x[k]h[n-k], k from -∞ to +∞ (b) ∑x[k]*∑h[n-k], k from -∞ to +∞

(c) ∑x[k]+∑h[n-k], k from -∞ to +∞ (d) ∑∑x[k]h[n-k], k from -∞ to +∞

Answer: a

31. Weighted superposition of time-shifted impulse responses is termed as _______ for discrete-time
signals.
a) Convolution integral

b) Convolution multiple

c) Convolution sum

d) Convolution

Answer: c

32. Find the convolution sum of sequences x1[n] = (1, 2, 3) and x2[n] = (2, 1, 4).

(a) {2, 5, 12, 11, 12} (b) {2, 12, 5, 11, 12}

(c) {2, 11, 5, 12, 12} (d) {-2, 5,-12, 11, 12}

Answer: a

33. What is the period of the signal: 2cost/6?

(a) 8π (b) 16π

(c) 12π (d) 10π

Answer: c

34. What is the period of cos3t + sin14t?

(a) 4π (b) π

(c) 2π (d) 3π

Answer: b

35. What are the conditions called which are required for a signal to fulfil to be represented as Fourier
series?

(a) Dirichlet’s conditions (b) Gibbs phenomenon

(c) Fourier conditions (d) Fourier phenomenon

Answer: a

36. Fourier series uses which domain representation of signals?

(a) Time domain representation (b) Frequency domain representation

(c) Both combined (d) Neither depends on the situation

Answer: b

37. The input and output of a continuous time system are respectively denoted by x (t) and y (t). Which of
the following descriptions corresponds to a causal system?
(A) y (t) = x (t - 2) + x (t + 4) (B) y (t) = (t - 4) x (t + 1)
(C) y (t) = (t + 4) x (t - 1) (D) y (t) = (t + 5) x (t + 5)

Answer: C

38. Which of the following can be impulse response of a causal system?

Answer: D

39. The impulse response h [n] of a linear time-invariant system is given by h [n] = u [n + 3] + u [n - 2) - 2n
[n - 7] where u [n] is the unit step sequence. The above system is
(A) stable but not causal (B) stable and causal
(C) causal but unstable (D) unstable and not causal

Answer: A

40. The Fourier transform of a conjugate symmetric function is always

(A) imaginary (B) conjugate anti-symmetric
(C) real (D) conjugate symmetric

Answer: C

41. The region of convergence of the z - transform of a unit step function is

(A) z > 1 (B) z < 1
(C) (Real part of z ) > 0 (D) (Real part of z ) < 0

Answer: A

42. If a signal f (t) has energy E, the energy of the signal f (2t) is equal to
(A) 1 (B) E / 2
(C) 2E (D) 4E
Answer: B

43. The impulse response of an LTI system can be obtained by __________.

a. Differentiating the unit ramp response

b. Differentiating the unit response
c. Integrating the unit ramp response
d. Integrating the unit step response
Answer: B

44. For a series RLC circuit excited by an impulse voltage of magnitude 1 and having R = 4Ω, L =
1H, C = 13 F, the value of the current I(t) is ___________
−t
a) 3/2e –1/2e
3t

b) 3/2e3t–1/2et
c) 3/2e−3t–1/2e−t
d) 3/2e−3t–1/2et

Answer: c

45. What is the laplce tranform of the first derivative of a function y(t) with respect to t : y’(t)?
a) sy(0) – Y(s)
b) sY(s) – y(0)
2
c) s Y(s)-sy(0)-y'(0)
d) s2 Y(s)-sy'(0)-y(0)
Answer: b
 Exit Exam Question of Introduction to Electrical Machines Prepared by Seid E.

1). An electro-mechanical energy conversion device is one which converts _______

A) Electrical energy to mechanical energy only
B) Mechanical energy to electrical energy only
C) Electrical to mechanical and mechanical to electrical
D) None of the mentioned
2). What is the coupling field used between the electrical and mechanical systems in energy conversion
devices?

A) Magnetic field B) Electric field

C) Magnetic field or Electric field D) None of the mentioned 3). The speed at
which the rotating magnetic field revolves is called?

A) Induction speed B) Synchronous speed

C) Relative speed D) Rotating speed
4). The magnitude of rotating flux _____________ at all instants of time.
A) Changes B) Remains constant C) Pulsates D) Any of the mentioned 5). Which of the
following statements is/are correct regarding the generation of EMF in rotating electrical machines in
the armature winding? EMF is generated ____________

A) by rotating armature windings through a magnetic field

B) by rotating the magnetic field with respect to the armature windings
C) by designing the magnetic circuit to have variable reluctance with rotor rotation
D) all of the mentioned
6). For squirrel cage and slip ring induction motor, cooling methods is efficient in _________
A) squirrel cage induction motor B) slip ring induction motor
C) both of the motors D) none of the mentioned
7). A consideration of the power losses in electrical machines is essential for which of the following
reasons?

A) Operating cost B) Temperature rise

C) Voltage drops D) All of the mentioned
 8). Which of the following statements are correct regarding brush contact losses?
A) In DC machine: proportional to armature current
B) In synchronous machine: neglected
C) In induction machine: neglected
D) Any of the mentioned
9). In rotating electrical machines, when the armature rotates, there are continuous magnetic reversals and
the power required for their reversals is called _____________

A) Eddy current loss B) Hysteresis loss

C) Resistance or ohmic losses D) Mechanical loss
10). The usual lamination thickness selected to minimize the eddy current loss in rotor is
A) 0.1 mm to 0.2 mm B) 0.3 mm to 0.4 mm
C) 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm D) 0.9 mm to 0.10 mm
11). The electromechanical energy conversion devices used in power systems are never operated to deliver
maximum power output because at maximum power output

_____________
A) Efficiency is less than 50%
B) The temperature of the power devices is much more than the specified allowable temperature rise

C) Half of the power input appears as losses

D) Any of the mentioned
12). A 200V, 10 hp, 4 poles, 60 Hz, Y-connected induction motor had a full load slip of 5%.
Then the rotor speed of the motor with respect to the stator is?
A) 1710 rpm B) 1800 rpm C) 90 rpm D) 3510 rpm 13). _______
generator is used in arc welding purposes.

A) Differential compound dc B) Dc series

C) Cumulative compounded dc D) Shunt 14). What is
Commutator?

A) rotating segment to which brushes are attached

B) stationary segment to which rotating brushes are attached
C) rotating segment to which the rotating brush segment is attached
D) any of the mentioned
15). For a four-pole, 16-slot armature with two coil-side/slot having lap connected progressive winding has
single turn coils. Then number of commutator segments is?

A) 16 B) 32 C) 4 D) 8
16). While operation of the DC motor, there are sparking at the commutation observed. These can be
happening due to ________
A) under commutation B) over commutation
C) too rapid reversal of the current D) any of the mentioned
17). A Shunt Generator delivers 450A at 230V and the resistance of shunt field and armature if 50Ω and
0.03Ω respectively. How much EMF is generated

A) 243.6 V B) 216.3 V C) 230.14 V D) 246.8 V

18). A six-pole machine has an armature with 90 slots and 8 conductors per slot, the flux per pole is 0.05
Wb and rms at 1000 rpm. What is the value of induced emf if winding is (i) lap connected and (ii) wave
connected respectively?

A) 600 V & 1800 V B) 1800V & 600 V C) 450 V & 1200 V D) 1200V & 4500 V

19). A dc shunt motor is running at 1000 rpm at the rated load torque. If we reverse the filed winding
terminals, then the __________

A) The direction of rotation reverses and commutation will be unaffected

B) The direction of rotation will be the same and commutation will be unaffected
C) The direction of rotation reverses and commutation will be affected
D) The direction of the rotation will be the same and commutation will be affected 20). Armature characteristic is
also known as _________

A) regulation characteristic B) magnetization characteristic

C) external characteristic D) load characteristic
21). Why is the armature of a DC machine made of silicon steel stampings?
A) To reduce hysteresis loss B) To reduce eddy current loss
 C) For the ease with which slots can be created D) To achieve high permeability 22). Which of the
following will happen in a transformer when the number of secondary turns is less than the number of
primary turns?

A) The voltage gets stepped up B) The voltage gets stepped down

C) The power gets stepped up D) The power gets stepped down
23) lamination of the core in an electrical machine is used to reduce
A) Hysteresis loss B) Eddy current loss C) Copper loss D) A&B
24) If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will
A) increase B) decrease C) remain the same D) become zero
25) Which method is suitable for the speed control, below and above the normal rated speed of the d.c shunt
motor?

A) Flux control method B) Rheostatic control method

C) Voltage control method D) All of these
 Jigjiga University (IOT)
Computer Architecture and Organization Model Exit Exam 2016 E.C
1. What is computer organization?
A. Structure and behavior of a computer system as observed by the user
B. Structure of a computer system as observed by the developer
C. Structure and behavior of a computer system as observed by the developer
D. All of the mentioned

2. Which of the following is not considered as a peripheral device?

A. CPU
B. Keyboard
C. Monitor
D. All of the above

3. Which of the architecture is power efficient?

A. RISC
B. IS
C. IANA
D. CISC
4. Which of the following computer memory is fastest?
A. Register
B. Hard disk
C. RAM
D. None of the above
5. Which of the following operations is/are performed by the ALU?

A. Data manipulation
B. Exponential
C. Square root
D. All of the above

6. In the case of, Zero-address instruction method the operands are stored in _____

A. Registers
B. Accumulators
C. Push down stack
D. Cache
7. The DMA differs from the interrupt mode by __________

A. The involvement of the processor for the operation

 B. The method of accessing the I/O devices
C. The amount of data transfer possible
D. None of the mentioned
8. Which operations are used for addition, subtraction, increment, decrement and complement function:

A. Bus
B. Memory transfer
C. Arithmetic operation
D. All of these
9. The access method used for magnetic tape is_________

A. Direct
B. Random
C. Sequential
D. None of the above
10. ______ serves as an intermediary between the device and the BUSes.

A. Interface circuits
B. Device drivers
C. Buffers
D. None of the mentioned
11. The registers, ALU and the interconnection between them are collectively called as
_____
A. process route
B. information trail
C. information path
D. data path
12. The transfer of large chunks of data with the involvement of the processor is done by
_______

A. DMA controller
B. Arbitrator
C. User system programs
D. None of the mentioned
13. The main components (or basic units) of a computer system are

A. Input/Output unit
B. Central Process Unit (CPU)
C. Memory unit (Storage unit)
D. All of the above
14. The major basic functions performed by a computer are
 A. Data and Instructions are accepted as input.
B. Data and Instructions are stored (called data storage).
C. Processing of data as per the instructions (called data processing)
D. Control of all operations inside the computer and produced the result in the form of
output.
E. All of the above
15. A unit that decodes, interprets each instruction and generates the required enable signal for ALU and
other units is called

A. arithmetic unit
B. CPU
C. logical unit
D. control unit
16. Which of the following register keeps track of how instructions are being executed?

A. Instruction registers
B. Memory address registers
C. Program counter register
D. Memory and memory data register 17. Full-Adder circuit needs ____ inputs and ____
outputs.

A. Three binary inputs and Three binary outputs.

B. Two binary inputs and Three binary outputs.
C. Four binary inputs and Three binary outputs.
D. Three binary inputs and Two binary outputs.
18. Which of the following is also known as Content Addressable Memory (CAM)?

A. Auxiliary memory
B. Magnetic tape
C. Associative memory
D. Cache memory
19. Which of the following mode is used when the operand is too large?

A. Register-based addressing
B. Memory-based addressing
20. What does the control unit generate to control other units?

A. Transfer signals
B. Command Signals
C. Control signals
D. Timing signals
21. The most common addressing techniques employed by a CPU is:
 A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Immediate
D. All of these
22. What is a pipelining strategy called?

A. Instruction manipulation
B. Instruction decoding
C. Instruction prefetch
D. Instruction execution

23. An I/O module is often responsible for error detection and for subsequently reporting errors to the

A. Processor
B. Main memory
C. RAM
D. None of them
24. SDRAM stands for

A. Static dynamic random access memory

B. System dynamic random access memory
C. Synchronous dynamic random access memory
D. Syndrome dynamic random access memory
25. Each cache location in ____ cache memory holds both the memory address and the contents.

A. Direct mapping,
B. Full Associative
C. Set-Associative