Rest of Opth MCQs

Important MCQS
Collected and answered by : TIMS members

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs
Retina
1. Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by except:
A. Pigmentary degeneration of the retina.
B. Chronic inflammation of the retina.
C. Consecutive optic atrophy.
D. Bone corpuscle-like pigments in the retina.
E Night blindness
2. Cherry red spot occurs in:
A. Commotio retinae. B. Central retinal artery embolism.
C. Amauritic family idiocy. D. All of the above
E. None of the above.
3. Simple retinal detachment is characterized by except:
A Low intraocular pressure. B. High intraocular pressure.
C. Presence of a retinal tear. D. The eye is usually myopic.
E. May be a history of trauma.
4. Macular star occurs in except:
A. Retinopathy of toxaemia of pregnancy B. Renal retinopathy
C Retinopathy of malignant hypertension. D. All of the above.
E. None of the above
5. Central retinal artery occlusion is characterized by except:
A. Gradual loss of vision, B. Retinal arteries are thread-like.
C. The pupil is dilated. D. Cherry red spot at the macular region.
E. Sudden loss of vision

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

6. Central retinal vein thrombosis is characterized by except:

A Retinal veins are dilated and tortuous. B. Severe pain & headache.
C. Superficial haemorrhages all over the fundus. D. Impairment of vision.
E. Secondary rubeotic glaucoma.
7. Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by:
A Microaneurysms. B. Hard exudates.
C. Deep haemorrhages
D. Presence of uncontrolled long-standing diabetes,
E. All of the above.
8. Causes of secondary retinal detachment are except:
A. Exudative choroiditis. B. Retinitis proliferans
C. Vitreous haemorrhage. D. Exudative choroiditis.
E. Subchoroidal haemorrhage
9. The macula lutea is characterized by except:
A. It is situated to the temporal side of optic disc.
B. The fovea is situated in its center
C. It is situated at the posterior pole of the eyeball.
D. A distance of 2 disc diameters separates it from the optic disc.
10.The indirect ophthalmoscope:
A. Is used to examine the fundus of the eye.
B. Shows an inverted image of the fundus.
C. Produces magnification of the image 5 times.
D. All of the above. E. None of the above

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

11.The direct ophthalmoscope:

A. Can be used to examine the fundus of the eye.
B. Produces an erect image of the retina.
C Produces magnification of the image 15 times.
D. All of the above. E None of the above.
12.The physiologic cup is characterized by except:
A. The Central retinal artery & vein appear in its centre.
B. It is deep & enlarged in primary open angle glaucoma.
C. It is situated at the posterior pole of the globe.
D. It is present in the optic disc.
E. It is soen by ophthalmoscopy
13.Retinal haemorrhages are except:
A. Causing black red reflex
B. Superficial flame shape haemorrhages.
C. Deep round haemorrhages.
D. Superficial in nerve fibre layer, or deep in deep retinal layers

1. Number of layers in neurosensory retina is:

a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
2. In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between:
a. Layers of outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer.
b. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium
c. Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina.
d. Between the retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane.

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs
3. 100 days glaucoma is seen in:
a. CRAO
b. BRAO
c. CRVO
d. BRVO
4. A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic
murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear
AC, the likely diagnosis is:
a. CRAO
b. CRVO
c. DM
d. BRVO
5. Triad of retinitis pigmentosa includes except:
a. Waxy disc pallor
b. Arteriolar attenuation
c. Macular hypopigmentation
d. Bone specule pigmentation
6. Retinitis pigmentosa most commonly presents as:
a. Night blindness
b. Diplopia
c. Scotoma
d. Bitemporal hemianopia
7. In CRAO, a cherry red spot is due to:
a. Hemorrhage at macula
b. Increased choroidal perfusion
c. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula
d. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids
8. The most common primarily intraocular malignancy in adults is:
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Choroidal melanoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva
d. Iris nevus

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs
9. Which of the following is ideal for evaluating macular functions in a
patient whose vision is only hand movement (HM)?
a. Color perception
b, Confrontation test
c. Light projection
d, Light perception
10. Night blindness is caused by:
a. Central retinal vein occlusion
b. Dystrophies of retinal rods
c. Dystrophies of the retinal cones
d. Retinal detachment
11. A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae
volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of
fundus could be seen. He might have:
a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy
b. Cystoid macular edema
c. Vitreous hemorrhage
d. Central retinal vein occlusion
12. Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery
results in one of the following filed defects:
a. Lower nasal sector filed defect
b. Upper nasal sector filed defect
c. Upper temporal filed defect
d. Lower temporal sector filed defect
13. Which of the following is true of Diabetic retinopathy?
a. Always associated with hypertension
b. Seen only in uncontrolled diabetes
c. Incidence increases with duration of disease
d. Determines prognosis of the disease
14. Enlargement of blind spot is a sign of:
a. Avulsion of Optic nerve
b. Papillitis
c. Papilledema
d. Retinal detachment

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs
15. Commotio retinae is seen in:
a. Concussion injury
b. Papilloedema
c. Central vein thrombosis
d. Central artery thrombosis
16. Simple retinal detachment is usually due to:
a. Tumour
b. Choroidal haemorrhage
c. Exudative retinitis
d. None of the above
17. Cherry red macula is seen in:
a. Acute Congestive glaucoma
b. Uveitis
c. Central retinal artery occlusion
d. Central retinal vein occlusion
18. Which is not found in papilloedema?
a. Blurred vision
b. Blurred margins of disc
c. Cupping of disc
d. None
19. Retinal change specific in proliferative diabetic retinopathy is:
a. Microaneurysm
b. Soft cotton wool exudates
c. A-V shunt
d. Neovascularization
20. Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is:
a. Macular oedema
b. Microaneurysm
c. Retinal hemorrhage
d. Retinal detachment

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs
21. Which of the following not found in diabetic retinopathy on fundus
examination:
a. Microaneurysms
b. Retinal hemorrhages
c. Arteriolar dilatation
d. Neovascularisation

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

Optic Nerve:
1. Signs of optic nerve oedema (papillaedema) are except:
A. Blurring of disc margin
B. Hyperemia of optic disc.
C. Increased physiologic cup.
D. Obliteration of physiologic cup.
2. Papillaedema can be differentiated from optie neuritis by except:
A Blurring of disc margin. B. Oedema more than 2 dioptres.
C. Painful eye movements. D. Transical loss of vision.
3. Retrobulbar neuritis is characterized by:
A. May be acute or chronic.
B. Shows central or para central scotoma for red & green
C. Inflammation of optic nerve behind the eye.
D. May be due to disseminated sclerosis.
E. All of the above.
4. Primary Optie atrophy is characterized by:
A. Optie disc is white in colour. B. Lamina cribrosa is well seen
C. Retina & blood vessels are normal. D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
5. Consecutive optic atrophy occurs in except:
A Retinitis pigmentosa B. Chorioretinitis.
C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. All of the above
E. None of the above.

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

6. Pseudo-neuritis occurs in:

A. Increase intracranial tension B. High myopia
C. High hypermetropia. D. Retinal detachment.
E None of the above.
7. Papillaedema is a passive oedema of optic disc:
A True B. False

1.Primary optic atrophy results from:

a. Retinal disease
b. Chronic glaucoma
c. Papilledema
d. Neurological disease
2. Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by:
a. Marked swelling of the optic disc.
b. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
c. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye
d. Normal visual acuity
3. The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is:
a. Secondary optic atrophy
b. Connective optic atrophy
c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy
d. Primary optic atrophy
4. A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes.
Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On
examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left
eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc.
The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Raised intra cranial pressure
b. Raised ocular tension
c. Central retinal artery occlusion
d. Optic neuritis

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs
5. The type of optic atrophy that following retrobulbar neuritis is:
a. Secondary optic atrophy
b. Consecutive optic atrophy
c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy
d. Primary optic atrophy
6. Injury to optic tract produces:
a. Homonymous hemianopia
b. Bitemporal hemianopia
c. Binasal hemianopia
d. Sparing of macular vision
7. All of the following statements regarding the oculomotor nerve are
true except:
a. It accommodates the eve
b. It raises the upper eyelid
c. It innervates lateral rectus
d. It constricts the pupil
8. Blurring of disc margin is found in:
a. Papillitis
b. Retrobulbar neuritis
c. Tobacco amblyopia
c. all of the above
9. In optic neuritis the best investigation to be done include:
a. Gold perimetry
b. Keratoscopy
c. Ophthalmoscopy
d. Ophthalmodynamometry
10. Elevation of the disc margin is seen in:
a. Optic atrophy
b. Papillitis
c. Papilloedema
d. None of the above

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs
11. Optic disc diameter is:
a. 1 mm
b. 1.5 mm
c. 2 mm
d. 3 mm
12. Optic nerve function is best studied by:
a. Ophthalmoscope
b. Retinoscope
c. Perimetry
d. Goniometry
13. In optic neuritis, following are seen except:
a. Headache and vomiting
b. Pain on movement of eye
c. Sudden loss of vision
d. Afferent of pupillary reflex lost
14. A 25 year old lady suddenly develops unilateral loss of vision
decreasing from 6/6 to 4/60 with ill-sustained reaction of the pupil. She
complains of slight headache and some pain in the orbit when looking
upward. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Acute frontal sinusitis
b. Acute iritis
c. Brain tumour
d. Retrobulbar neuritis
e. Acute congestive glaucoma
15. The test that would aid most in the diagnosis of the previous case is:
a. X-ray of the orbit
b. Visual field determination
c. Tonometry
d. Exophthalmometry
e. Gonioscopy

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs
16. A boy presents two weeks after an injury to his left eye. He
complains of bilateral pain and watering from right. What is the
probable diagnosis?
a. Endophthalmitis
b. Optic neuritis
c. Sympathetic irritation
d. Sympathetic ophthalmitis
17. All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except:
a. Ptosis
b. Diplopia
c. Miosis
d. Outwards eye deviation
18. Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at:
a. Optic tract
b. Optic nerve
c. Optic chiasma
d. Retina
e. Occipital cortex

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

Neuro-ophthalmology
1. Brain tumour can produce except:
A. Papillaedema
B. Retrobulbar neuritis
C Visual field defects.
D. Diplopia.
2. Pituitary adenoma can causes
A Homonymous hemianopia.
B. Bitemporal hemianopia.
C. Binasal hemianopia.
D. None o the above.
3. Occipital lobe lesion can produce:
A Bitemporal hemianopia
B. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing,
C. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia without macular sparing.
D. All of the above.
E None of the above.
4. Temporal lobe tumour can produce:
A. Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.
B. Bitemporal hemianopia.
C. Superior homonymous quadrantanopia.
D. None of the above.
5. Pituitary adenoma can end in blindness due to pressure on chiasma:
A True
B. False
6. Cerebello-pontine angle tumour can produce:
A. Affection of 5,67 & 8 cranial nerves.
B. Paralytic esotropia.
C. Lapophthalmos.
D. Neuro-paralytic keratitis.
E All of the above

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

7. Foster Kennedy syndrome consists of primary optic atrophy on the same

side and papillaedema on opposite side:
A. True.
B. False

1.Optic nerve axon emerges from:

a. Ganglion cells
b. Rods and cones
c. Amacrine cells
d. Inner nuclear layer
2. Papilloedema has all the following characteristic except:
a. Marked loss of vision
b. Blurring of disc margins
c. Hyperemia of disc
d. Field defect
3. Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in:
a. Optic chiasma
b. Retina
c. optic tract
d. Optic nerve
4. Mydriasis is present in all the following except:
a. Third nerve lesion
b. Pontine haemorrhage
c. Datura poisoning
d. Fourth stage of anesthesia
5. Miosis is present in all the following except:
a. Third nerve lesion
b. Horner's syndrome
c. Morphine poisoning
d. Argyl Robertson's pupil

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

6. The following cranial nerves are responsible for ocular motility

except:
a. Third nerve
b. Fourth nerve
c, Fifth nerve
d. Sixth nerve
7. In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in
the primary position is:
a. Inward
b. Outward
c. Outward and up
d. Outward and down
8. A patient 60 year old, diabetic for 20 years. He suffered acutely of
drooping of the right eyelid. On manual elevation of the lid he sees
double vision. What is your diagnosis?
a. Diabetic sixth nerve palsy
b. Oculomotor nerve palsy
c. Trochlear nerve palsy
d. Abducent nerve palsy
9. An area of reduced or absent vision within an intact visual field is
called:
a. Scotoma
b. Homonymous hemianopia
c. Heteronymous hemianopia
d. Altitudinal hemianopia
10. Which of the following pupils is dilated?
a. Pupil in Horner's syndrome
b. Adies pupil
c. Argyl Robertson pupil
d. Pupil in open angle glaucoma, with a C/D of 0.3.

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

11. D-shaped pupil occurs in:

a. Iridocyclitis
b. Iridodenesis
c. Cyclodialsis
d. Iridodialysis

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

Errors of refraction:
1. The angle between optic axis and visual axis at the nodal point is called:
A Angle Kappa
B. Angle of deviation
C Angle alpha
D. None of the above.
2. One meridian is myopic and the other meridian is em metropic:
A. Hypermetropic astigmatism.
B. Mixed astigmatism.
C. Simple myopie astigmatism
D. Compound myopic astigmatism
3. One meridian is myopic and the other meridian is hypermetropie:
A Simple hypermetropic astigmatism
B Mixed astigmatism
C Compound hypermetropic astigmatism
D. None of the above
4. Convex lens is used for correction of hypermetropia:
A True B. False
5. Simple astigmatism is corrected by:
A. Sphero cylinder
B. Concave lens
C Cylindrical lens.
D. All of the above
6. Hypermetropia:
A Can produce apparent exotropia.
B. May produce esophoria.
C. May produce comitant esotropia.
D. Is corrected by convex lens
E All of the above
7. Myopia is characterired by except:
A May be simple or pathological
B. Can be corrected by concave lens
C. Causes poor near vision thus called short sightedness.
D. Should never be overcorrected.

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

8. Uncorrected hypermetropic astigmatism causes asthenopia:

A. True
B. False
9. In progressive myopia which of the following is the commonest:
A. Ciliary staphyloma.
B. Posterior staphyloma.
C. Equatorial staphyloma.
D. Intercalary staphyloma.
E. Total anterior staphyloma.
10.The nearest point at which a small object is clearly seen is called:
A. Aphakia.
B. Amblyopia.
C. Anisocoria.
D. Punctum proximum.
E Punctum remotum.
11.A method used to measure the refraction of the eye is called:
A. Gonioscopy
B. Retinoscopy.
C. Ophtha.moscopy.
D. Ultrasonography
12.Exophoria is commonly associated with hypermetropia:
A True.
B. False
13.Esophoria is usually associated with hypermetropia:
A. True.
B. False.
14.Myopia due to long axial length of the eye is called curvature myopia:
A. True.
B. False.
15.A patient corrected with minus 22 D concave lenses has:
A Simple myopia.
B. Compound myopic astigmatism.
C. Degenerative myopia.
D. Congenital myopia.

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

16.A patient corrected with minus 2 cylinder axis 180 has:

A Simple hypermetropic astigmatism.
B. Simple myopic astigmatism with the rule.
C. Simple myopic astigmatism against the rule.
D. Simple myopia.
17.Hypermetropia can produce apparent exotropia due to + ve angle alpha:
A. True.
B. False

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

Extra-ocular muscles & squint:

1. Action of lateral rectus is adduction:
A True. B. False
2. Actions of superior rectus are elevation, adduction & intorsion:
A True. B. False
3. Actions of superior oblique are elevation, abduction & intorsion:
A True. B. False
4. Actions of inferior rectus are depression, adduction & extorsion:
A True. B. False
5. Actions of inferior oblique are elevation, adduction & extorsion:
A True. B. False
6. Action of medial reetus is adduction:
A True. B. False
7. Looking up & to right by Rt. superior rectus & Lt. inferior oblique:
A True. B. False
8. Looking down & to right by Rt. Inferior rectus & Li. Inferior oblique:
A True. B. False
9. There are 6 pairs of yoke muscles:
A True. B. False
10.Rt. Medial rectus & Rt. Lateral rectus are direct antagonist:
A True. B. False
11.Right lateral rectus & left medial rectus are yoke muscles:
A True. B. False
12.Riglat lateral rectus & left medial reetus are indirect synergist:
A True. B. False
13.All extra-ocular muscles arise by common origin:
A True. B. False
14.The superior oblique muscle is supplied by the Trochlear
A True. B. False
15.Total ophthalmoplegia means paralysis of ocular muscles:
A True. B. False
16.Internal ophthalmoplegia means paralysis of internal ocular muscles:
A True. B. False

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

17.Binocular diplopia does not disappear on covering one eye:

A True. B. False
18.Homonymous diplopia occurs in paralytic esotropia:
A True. B. False
19.Abducent paralysis produces homonymous diplopia:
A True. B. False
20.Abducent paralysis produces paralytic exotropia:
A True. B. False
21.Primary & secondary angles of deviation are equal in paralytic squint:
A True. B. False
22.The third nerve supplies the following muscles except:
A. Superior rectus. B. Superior oblique
C. Medial rectus. D. Inferior rectus.
E. Inferior oblique
23.Orthophoria means complete muscle balance:
A True. B. False
24.In paralytic strabismus, angle of deviation changes in different directions:
A True. B. False
25.For investigation of latent strabismus, the following are done except:
A. Cover test. B. Diplopia chart.
C. Maddox rod test. D. Maddox wing test.
26.Exophoria is usually associated with:
A Presbyopia. B. Myopia.
C. Hypermetropia D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
27.Esophoria is most commonly associated with:
A. Myopia. B. Hypermetropia.
C Astigmatism. D. None of the above.
28.Negative angle alpha is associated with:
A Emmetropia B. High myopia
C High hypermetropia. D. Presbyopia
E. All of the above

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

29.Rough estimation of angle of squint by:

A. Retinoscopy. B. Refraction
C. Comeal light reflex D. Placido disc.
E. None of the above.
30.Paralysis of third, fourth and six cranial nerves leads to:
A. Paralytic exotropia, B. Intemal ophthalmoplegia only.
C. Total ophthalmoplegia. D. None of the above.
31.Abducent nerve supplies the lateral rectus:
A True. B. False
1. All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except:
a. Superior rectus
b. Ciliary muscle
c. Inferior oblique
d. Superior oblique
2. The action of superior rectus is:
a. Elevation, intorsion, abduction
b. Elevation, intorsion, adduction
c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction.
3. The action of inferior oblique is:
a. Depression, extorsion, abduction
b. Depression, extorsion, adduction
c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction
4. The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of
the orbit is:
a. Superior rectus
b. Superior oblique
c. Inferior oblique
d. Inferior rectus

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs
5. In paralytic squint:
a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation
b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation
c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation
d. None of the above
6. In concomitant squint:
a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation
b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation
c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation
d. None of the above
7. In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary
deviation in the gaze of direction of the paralytic muscle:
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
8. In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is:
a. Simultaneous macular vision
b. Fusion
c. Stereopsis
9. The best treatment for amblyopia is:
a. Orthoptic exercises
b. occlusion
c. Surgery
d. Best treat after age 10 years

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

Orbit:
1. Orbital cellulitis can be caused by:
A Metastatic infection from septic focus.
B. Spread of infection from sinusitis.
C Perforating trauma to the orbital cavity.
D. All of the above.
E None of the above.
2. Causes of unilateral proptosis are except:
A. Unilateral cavernous sinus thrombosis.
B. Orbital tumour.
C. Unilateral occipital lobe tumour
D. Orbital cellulitis.
E. Orbital haemorrhage.
3. Causes of bilateral proptosis are except:
A. Thyrotoxicosis.
B. Bilateral cavemous sinus thrombosis.
C. Leukemia.
D. All of the above.
E None of the above.
4. Signs of orbital cellulitis are except:
A Proptosis.
B. Limitation of ocular movements
C Congestion of conjunctiva.
D. Chemosis of conjunctiva
E None of the above.
5. The medial wall of the orbit is related to ethmoid sinus:
A True
B. False
6. The ciliary ganglion lies between optic nerve & lateral rectus:
A True
B. False
7. Superior orbital fissure is separation between roof & lateral orbital wall
A True.
B. False

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

8. Enucleation can be done in panophthalmitis:

A True
B. False.
1. Most common cause of adult unilateral proptosis
a. Thyroid orbitopathy
b. Metastasis
c. Lymphoma
d. Meningioma
2. Evisceration is:
a. Excision of the entire eyeball
b. Excision of all the inner contents of the eyeball including the uveal tissue
c. Photocoagulation of the retina
d. Removal of orbit contents
3. Lagophthalmos can occur in all of the following except;
a. 7lb cranial nerve paralysis
b. 5lh cranial nerve paralysis
c. Thyrotoxic exophthalmos
d. Symblepharon
4. Ultrasonography is helpful in confirming the diagnosis of:
a. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
b. Retinitis pigmentosa
c. Subluxated clear crystalline lens
d. Central retinal vein occlusion
5. The most important symptom differentiating orbital cellulitis from
panophthalmitis is:
a. Vision
b. Pain
c. Redness
d. Swelling
6. Axial proptosis can be due to either of these except:
a. Optic nerve glioma.
b. Lacrimal gland tumour.
c. Orbital cellulitis,
d. Thyrotoxicosis.

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

7. A patient complains of severe ocular pain in the right eye and

headache. The patient is drowsy, feverish with right proptosis, lid and
conjunctival edema, mastoid edema and bilateral papilledema. The
diagnosis is:
a. Endophthalmitis
b. Panophthalmitis
c. Orbital cellulitis
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
8. The commonest cause of bilateral proptosis is:
a. Orbital cellulitis.
b. Dysthyroid ophthalmopathy.
c. Orbital emphysema.
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis,
9. The most common cause of unilateral proptosis in adult is;
a. lacrimal gland tumours
b. orbital cellulitis
c. panophthalmitis
d. thyroid diseases
10. Proptosis is present in the following condition except:
a. Homer's syndrome
b. Orbital cellulitis
c. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
11. The commonest cause of bilateral proptosis is:
a. Orbital cellulitis
b. Dysthyroid ophthalmology
c. Orbital emphysema
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
12. The commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is:
a. Thyroid eye disease
b. Lacrimal gland tumour
c. Orbital cellulitis
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

Ocular tumours:
1. Stages of retinoblastoma are except:
A Quicscent stage
B. Glaucomatous stage
C. Absolute stage
D. Suse of extra-ocular extension
E Stage of metastasis.
2. The stage of extra-ocular extension is presented by proptosis:
A True B. False
3. Treatment of second stage is by orbital excentration:
A True B. False
4. Treatment of glaucomatous stage is by filtering operation:
A True B. False
5. Retinoblastoma can be presented by except:
A Yellow reflex from the pupil.
B. Secondary buphthalmol.
C Concomitant squint.
D. Retrolental fibroplasia.
E Proptosis.
6. Causes of pseudoglioma are except:
A. Cyclinic membrane
B. Retrolental fibroplasia.
C Persistent fibrovascular sheath of the lens
D. Anisometropia.
7. Retinoblastoma is bilateral in 25 of cases:
A True
B. False
8. Malignant melanoma of the choroid is characterized by except:
A Produces trae retinal detachment
B. Produces secondary glaucoma.
C Appear mushroom-shaped in ultrasonography
D. Red reflex appears yellow.
- Stages of intra ocular tumours. (*3)

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

Eye injuries:
1. Corneal abrasion can be diagnosed by fluorescein stain:
A True
B.False
2. Blunt trauma to the eye may produce hyphaema which:
A. Can produce blood staining of the cornea
B. Can produce Ocular hypotony.
C. Can produce striate keratitis.
D. None of the above.
3. Blunt trauma to the eye can produce the following vitreous affection
A Synchitis scintillans
B. Vitreous haemorrhage.
C. All of the above.
D. None of the above.
4. Retina can be affected by blunt trauma by:
A. Retinal haemorrhage
B. Commotio retinae "Berlin's oedema".
C. Retinal tear and retinal detachment
D. All of the above.
E None of the above.
5. Delayed complication of blunt injury may be:
A. Retinal detachment.
B. Macular cyst.
C. Both of the above.
D. None of the above.
6. Alkali burns are more dangerous than acid burns:
A. True B. False
7. Blunt trauma to the eye can lead to unicular diplopia:
A True B. False.
8. Intra-ocular foreign body can produce sympathetie ophthalmitis:
A. True B. False
9. Blunt trauma to the eye can produce cataract:
A True B. False

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

Medical ophthalmology & ocular therapeutics:

1. Influenza can predispose to dendritic corneal ulcer:
A. True B. False
2. Diphtheria can produces
A Membranous conjunctivitis.
B. Paralysis of accommodation
C. Paralytic squint
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above
3. Diabetes can produce rubesis iridis:
A True
B. False
4. Anaemia can produce retinal haemorrhage:
A. True.
B. False
5. Leprosy can produce except:
A Leprotic pannus
B. Iris module
C Senile cataract
D. Facial palsy.
6. Septic focus can predispose to post-operative intraocular infections
A True.
B. False

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

7. Syphilis can produce optie atrophy:

A True
B. False
8. Vitamin A deficiency can lead to
A. Keratomalacia
B. Xerosis (xerophthalmia).
C Nightblindness
D. All of the above
9. Vitamin e deficiency can lead to spontaneous haemorrhages:
A True.
B. False
10.Miotics are drups that constrict the pupil as except:
A. Pilocarpine.
B. Adrenaline
C. Eserine
11.Atropine poisoning (toxicity) is characterized by except:
A. Fever & redness of the face.
B. Miosis
C Tachycardia
D. Dry mouth

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

12.Corticosteroids are used in

A Eczema of eyelids.
B. Spring catarrh.
C. Philyctenular keratoconjunctivitis.
D. All of the above.
13.Cortisone can produce glaucoma:
A True
B. False
14.The action of corticosteroids:
A. Anti-inflammatory
B. Anti-allergic
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book

 Rest of Opth MCQs

MCQ "‫"دي االسئلة اللي كانت موجوده في االمتحانات السابقة في باقي الشباتر‬
1- Blunt trauma to the eye may result in, except:
a) Rosette-shaped cataract b) Iridocyclitis
c) Retinal detachment d) Symblepharon
2- Retinal flame-shaped haemorrhage is present in:
a) Nerve fiber layer b) Inner nuclear layer
c) Outer nuclear layer d) All retinal layers
3- Phthisis bulbi differes from atrophia bulbi in:
a) The globe is shrunken b) The globe is disorganized
c) The lens is cataractous d) The vision is no PL
4- In proptosis, which of the followings are true, except:
a) Dysthyroid d.sease cause axial proptosis.
b) Lacrimal tumours shift the globe nasally and down.
c) Caused by fracture orbital floor.
5- All of the following statements are true as regards the blind spot Except
a) It is an absolute negative scotoma
b) It corresponds 10 the Optic disc
c) It occurs between 10 and 20-degree fixation
d) It is nasal to the point of flxation
6- Blunt trauma to the eye may result in, except:
a- Lens opacity (rosette-shaped cataract)
b- Retinal detachment
c- Iridodialysis
d- Syrnblepharon
7- Ciliary injectionless commonly occurs with:
a- Corneal ulcers
b- Gonococcal conjunctivitis
c- Iridocyclitis
d- Angle closure glaucoma

SOURCES: Past exams & Department’s book