Dropper NEET

Practice Sheet-R Milestone Test-0

DURATION: 200 Minutes M.MARKS: 720

Topics Covered

Physics: Units and Measurements, Mathematical Tools, Motion in a Straight Line

Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Redox Reaction
Botany: Cell: The Unit of Life
Zoology: Part- Structural Organization in Animals (including Frog)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four options with
a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and
151 to 185). All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and
186 to 200). In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question
paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate
shall be evaluated.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks are 720.
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
 [MS-0 | Practice Sheet-ROI | Dropper]

(PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 
7. Find value of  sin  d  ;
1. Which of the following pairs have the same 0
dimension as that of length? (1) 2
(1) Radius of gyration and light year (2) 0
(2) Wavelength and velocity gradient (3) −2
(3) Radius of gyration and velocity gradient (4) 
(4) Wavelength and torque
8. A physical quantity P is given by the relation
2. If P and Q have different non-zero dimensions, 2
which of the following operation is possible? P = P0e(−t ) . If t denotes the time, the dimensional
(1) P2 + Q2 (2) PQ2 formula of constant  is;
(3) P2 – Q2 (4) P + Q (1) [T]
(2) [T2]
3. A car moves from O to D along the path OABCD as (3) [T–1]
shown in figure. The distance travelled by the car (4) [T–2]
and its net displacement are respectively;
9. Which one of the following statements is false?
(1) A body can have zero velocity and still be
accelerated.
(2) A body can have a constant velocity and still
have a varying speed.
(1) 17 km, 5 km 37° S of E (3) A body can have a constant speed and still have
(2) 17 km, 5 km 37° N of E a varying velocity.
(3) 12 km, 3 km 37° S of E (4) The direction of the velocity of a body can
(4) 12 km, 3 km 37° N of E change when its acceleration is constant.

4. The instantaneous position x of a particle is given 10. In a particular system of units, if the unit of force is
by x = 1 + t . Velocity of the particle is;
2 2 10 N, the unit of acceleration is 2 m/s2 and unit of
t t velocity is 5 m/s, then unit of momentum in this
(1) (2)
x x2 system will be;
(1) 25 kg m/s
1 t2 t t2
(3) − (4) + (2) 40 kg m/s
x x3 x3 x3
(3) 2 kg m/s
(4) 10 kg m/s
5. What is the inclination made from the positive x-
axis by a line that is parallel to the x-axis?
11. Find the dimensions of universal gravitational
(1) 0° (2) 60°
constant ‘G’.
(3) 45° (4) 90°
(1) [ML3T–2]
(2) [M–1L3T–2]
6. A bird flies due north with velocity 20 m/s for 15 s.
(3) [M–1L2T3]
It rests for 5 s and then flies due south with velocity
(4) [ML2T–1]
24m/s for 10 s. The average speed and magnitude of
average velocity for the whole trip are respectively;
12. A particle starts moving from position of rest under a
(1) 2 m/s and 2 m/s
constant acceleration. If it travels a distance x in t
(2) 18 m/s and 2 m/s
second, what distance will it travel in next t second?
(3) 2 m/s and 18 m/s
(1) x (2) 2x
(4) 18 m/s and 18 m/s
(3) 3x (4) 4x
 18.
13. 
The value of ( x − 1)( x − 2)dx is; The magnetic moment has dimensional formula:
(Use: M = NIA, where M is the magnetic moment, N
x3 3x2 is the number of turns, I is the current and A is the
(1) − + 2x + c
3 2 area)
x3 3x2 (1) [LA]
(2) + + 2x + c
3 2 (2) [L2A]
x3 (3) [LT–1A]
(3) + 3x2 + x + c (4) [L2T–1A]
3
x3
(4) − 2 x2 + 2 x + c 19. The value of log x6 + log x2 is;
3
(1) 2 log x
14. A particle is moving along a straight-line OX. At a (2) 7 log x
time, t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the (3) 8 log x
particle from point O is given by x = 10 + 6t − 3t2. (4) 2 log x
How long would the particle travel before coming
to rest? 20. The displacement-time graph of a particle moving
(1) 23 m (2) 13 m in a straight line is shown below. The instantaneous
(3) 10 m (4) 3 m velocity of the particle is negative at the point

15. The displacement of a point moving along a straight

line is given by: s = 4t2 + 5t – 6
Here s is in cm and t is in seconds. The initial speed
of the particle is;
(1) 1 cm/s (2) 5 cm/s
(3) 1 m/s (4) 5 m/s

16. The graph for the equation y = 4 is; (1) D (2) F

(3) C (4) E

(1) 21. Find dimensional formula of surface Tension ‘S’.

 F
Use  S =  , where F is force and l is the length.
 
2 –2
(1) [ML T ]
(2) [MLT–2]
(2)
(3) [ML0T–2]
(4) [ML–2T0]

3
22. If in a right-angled triangle, sin A = , then find
(3) 5
tan A.
3
(1)
4
3
(4) (2)
5
5
(3)
3
17. The velocity of a particle is given by (4)
4
v = (2t2 − 4t + 3) m/s where t is time in seconds. The 3
acceleration of the particle at t = 2 second.
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2
23. Velocity-time graph for a particle moving in a 28. A ball is thrown upwards from the top of a tower of
straight line is as shown. The displacement of the height 40 m with a velocity of 10 m/s. The time
particle and distance travelled in first 4 seconds are when it strikes the ground is: (g = 10 m/s2)
respectively; (1) 2 s
(2) 3 s
(3) 4 s
(4) 5 s

29. The roots of equation 2x2 + 5x – 12 are;

3
(1) and – 4
2
3
(1) 4 m and 0 m (2) and 4
2
(2) 0 m and 4 m
3
(3) 4 m and 4 m (3) and – 2
4
(4) 0 m and 0 m
3
(4) and 2
4
24. The motion of a particle along a straight line is
described by equation x = 12t − t 3 where x is in
30. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as
meter and t is in second. The time instant when
fundamentals units, then the dimensions of mass
velocity of the particle becomes zero is:
are:
(1) 2 s (2) 1 s
(1) [FVT–1]
(3) 4 s (4) 3 s
(2) [FVT–2]
(3) [FV–1T–1]
25. If energy E, velocity V and time T are chosen as the
(4) [FV–1T]
fundamental units, then the dimensional formula for
surface tension will be;
31. Assertion (A): Light year and year, both measure
(1) [EV2T–2]
time.
(2) [EV–1T–2]
Reason (R): Light year is the time that light takes
(3) [EV–2T–2]
to reach the Earth from the Sun.
(4) [E2V–1T–2]
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
26. Which of the following may give most accurate
Assertion (A).
reading for measuring the width of a cylinder?
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(1) Screw gauge with least count 0.1 mm
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(2) Screw gauge with least count 0.01 mm
Assertion (A).
(3) Vernier Caliper with least count 0.2 mm
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Vernier Caliper with least count 0.02 mm
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

27. Statement I: L/R and CR both have the same

32. The length, breadth and thickness of a metal sheet
dimensions.
are 4.234 m, 1.005 m and 2.01 cm respectively. The
Statement II: L/R and CR both have the dimensions
volume of the sheet to correct number of significant
of time.
figures is;
L, C and R are the inductance, capacitance and
(1) 0.085 m3
resistance respectively.
(2) 0.0855 m3
(1) Both statement I and II are correct.
(3) 0.08 m3
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(4) 0.08553 m3
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct.
33. A truck driver travelling uniformly at 36 km/h sees 38. If f(x) = x2 – 2x + 4, then f(x) has:
the traffic light turn red at the intersection. If his (1) a minimum at x = 1.
reaction time is 0.6 s and truck retards uniformly at (2) a maximum at x = 1.
the rate of 6 m/s2, then total distance travelled by (3) a minimum at x = −1.
truck till it stops is; (4) no minimum or maximum at any x.
(1) 8.33 m
(2) 16 m 2 v
(3) 10.22 m 39. A force is given as F = cos   v is velocity and
 
(4) 14.33 m
α and 𝛽 are constants. The dimensional formula of
4 –2 is:
34. The value of 101 using binomial approximation
(1) [MLT–2]
is;
(2) [M2L2T–2]
(1) 10.02
(3) [M2L2T–4]
(2) 10.05
(4) [ML2T–2]
(3) 10.03
(4) 10.07
40. Identify the velocity time graph which represents
constant but non-zero acceleration.
35. List-I and List-II contains some physical
quantities. Match the quantities in List-II having the
same dimensions as that of quantities in List-I.
(1)
List-I List-II
(A) Angle (I) Energy
(B) Torque (II) Energy per unit
volume
(C) Stress (III) Strain
(D) Wavelength (IV) Radius of gyration
(2)
(1) (A) → (I), (B) → (III), (C) →(II), (D) → (IV)
(2) (A) → (III), (B) → (II), (C) →(I), (D) → (IV)
(3) (A) → (III), (B) → (I), (C) →(II), (D) → (IV)
(4) (A) → (I), (B) → (II), (C) →(IV), (D) → (III)
SECTION-B
36. The value of gravitation constant G in SI units is (3)
6.67 × 10−11 Nm2/kg2. What is the value of G in CGS
system of units?
(1) 6.67 × 10−4 dyne cm2/g2
(2) 6.67 × 10−3 dyne cm2/g2
(3) 6.67 × 10−8 dyne cm2/g2
(4) 6.67 × 10−7 dyne cm2/g2 (4)

37. A car moves in a straight path such that its

displacement at time t is given by:
S = (t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4) metre. The velocity when 41. In an experiment, if the expression of Planck’s
acceleration is zero is: 3
(1) 3 ms–1 constant is given as h = where  is wavelength;
A
(2) –12 ms–1
then find dimension of constant ‘A’.
(3) 42 ms–1
(1) [ML2T2] (2) [ML–1T–1]
(4) –9 ms–1
(3) [M–1L1T1] (4) [M–1L–5T2]
42. A train moves in north direction with a speed of 47. A particle moves along z-axis such that its
54 km/h. A monkey is running on the roof of the z-coordinate as a function of time t is given as
train, against its motion with a velocity of 18 km/h z = 5 + 2t − t 2 . If v is speed, V is velocity and a is
with respect to train. The velocity of monkey as acceleration then which of the following graphs
observed by a man standing on the ground is: is/are correct?
(1) 5 m/s due south
(2) 25 m/s due south
(3) 10 m/s due south
(4) 10 m/s due north

1
43. If y = x2, then  ydx will be:
0
3 1
x
(1) +C (2)
(1) Only I
3 3
2 (2) Only I and II
(3) (4) 0 (3) Only I, II and IV
3
(4) All I, II, III, IV
44. A vernier calipers has 1 mm marks on the main
48. In wave equation y = a sin (At – Bx). If t denotes
scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier scale
time and x denotes position, then the dimensions of
which matches with 16 main scale division. The
least count of vernier caliper is; the ratio A/B are;
(1) 0.02 mm (1) [LT]
(2) [LT–1]
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.1 mm (3) [L–1T]
(4) 0.2 mm (4) [L0T0]

45. A packet contains silver powder having mass 49. A jet air plane travelling with a speed of 500 km/h
ejects its products of combustion with a speed of
(20.23  0.01) g. Some additional powder having
1500 km/h relative to the jet plane. The speed
mass (5.75  0.01) g is added to the packet, the total
of the latter with respect to an observer on the
mass of the powder now is;
ground is:
(1) (14.48  0.02) g
(1) 1500 km/h
(2) (25.00  0.02) g
(2) 2000 km/h
(3) (25.98  0.01) g (3) 1000 km/h
(4) (25.98  0.02) g (4) 500 km/h

46. 50.
x
Find the derivative of: y = e nx A particle at rest starts moving in straight line with
ex
acceleration a = 10 m/s2, then moves with constant
(1) + e x nx
x velocity and then decelerates to rest at 10 m/s2. Total
ex time of journey is 25 s. Average velocity during this
(2) − e x nx time interval is 40 m/s. The time interval for which
x
the car moved with constant velocity is:
ex
(3) +x (1) 5 s
x
(2) 10 s
ex
(4) −x (3) 15 s
x
(4) 20 s
 [MS-0 | Practice Sheet-ROI | Dropper]

(CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 58. Oxidation states of X, Y, Z are +2, +5 and –2
respectively. Formula of the compound formed by
51. Chemical equation is balanced according to;
these elements will be;
(1) Law of multiple proportion
(1) X2YZ6
(2) Avogadro’s law
(2) XY2Z6
(3) Law of conservation of mass
(3) XY5
(4) Law of definite proportions
(4) X3YZ4
52. What is the oxidation state of Xe in Ba2XeO6?
59. Mass of one atom of the element A is 4 × 10–23 g. How
(1) 0 (2) +4
many atoms are contained in l g of the element A?
(3) +6 (4) +8
(1) 2.50 × 1022
(2) 6.022 × 1023
53. A sample of pure carbon dioxide, irrespective of its
(3) 12.044 × 1022
source contain 27.27% carbon and 72.73% oxygen.
(4) 4 × 1023
The data support;
(1) Law of constant composition
60. In the reaction:
(2) Law of conservation of mass
(3) Law of reciprocal proportions 3Br2 + 6CO32– + 3H2O → 5Br – + BrO3– + 6HCO3–
(4) Law of multiple proportions (1) Bromine is oxidized and carbonate is reduced.
(2) Bromine is oxidized and water is reduced.
54. Oxidants are substances which; (3) Bromine is both oxidized and reduced.
(1) Show a decrease in their oxidation number (4) Bromine is neither oxidized nor reduced.
during a process.
(2) Gain electrons during a process. 61. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O. Its
(3) Oxidise others and reduce themselves. molecular weight is 180. The molecular formula of
(4) All of these. compound is;
(1) C4HO4
55. Carbon and oxygen combine to form two oxides, (2) C3H6O3
carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide in which the (3) C6H12O6
ratio of the weights of carbon and oxygen is (4) C5H10O5
respectively 12:16 and 12:32 respectively. These
figures illustrate the; 62. Which of the following statements is correct about
(1) Law of multiple proportions oxidation state of S in Na2S4O6?
(2) Gay lussac’s law of gaseous volumes (1) All S–atoms are in +2.5 state
(3) Law of conservation of mass (2) All S–atoms are in +2 state
(4) Law of constant proportions (3) Two S–atoms are in 0 state and other two, in
+5 state
56. Oxidation number of sulphur in Caro's acid is; (4) Two S–atoms are in –1 state and other two, in
(1) +6 +6 state
(2) +4
(3) +8 63. Na2SO4 xH2O has 50% H2O by mass. Hence, x is
(4) +7 nearly:
(Given: molar mass of Na2SO4 = 142 g mol–1)
57. The nitrogen atom has 7 protons and 7 electrons. (1) 4 (2) 5
The nitride ion (N3–) will have; (3) 6 (4) 8
(1) 7 protons and 10 electrons
(2) 4 protons and 7 electrons 64. The oxidation number of C in CO2 is;
(3) 4 protons and 10 electrons (1) – 2 (2) + 2
(4) 10 protons and 7 electrons (3) – 4 (4) + 4
65. Mass of one molecule of methane (CH4) is; 72. 8 g NaOH is dissolved in one litre of solution, its
(1) 16 g molarity is;
(2) 16 mg (1) 0.8 M (2) 0.4 M
(3) 16 u (3) 0.2 M (4) 0.1 M
(4) 16 NA u
73. The reaction:
66. Which of the following reaction involves oxidation 3ClO– (aq) → ClO3– (aq) + 2Cl – (aq) is an example
and reduction both? of;
(1) NaBr + HCl → NaCl + HBr (1) Oxidation reaction
(2) HBr + AgNO3 → AgBr + HNO3 (2) Reduction reaction
(3) H2 + Br2 → 2HBr (3) Disproportionation reaction
(4) Na2O + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O (4) Decomposition reaction

67. Mass of ammonia produced on mixing 56 g of N2 74. The amount of anhydrous Na2CO3 (molar mass =
and 18 g H2 is; 106 g/mol) present in 250 ml of 0.25 M solution is;
(1) 17 g (2) 68 g (1) 6.225 g (2) 66.25 g
(3) 34 g (4) 51 g (3) 6.0 g (4) 6.625 g

68. Which of the following pair of compounds have 75. The value of ‘n’ in the balanced reaction:
same mass percentage of carbon? Cr2O72– + 14H+ + nFe2+ → 2Cr 3+ + 7H2O + nFe3+
(1) CO2, CO
will be;
(2) CH4, C6H6
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) C6H6, C6H12O6
(3) 6 (4) 7
(4) HCHO, CH3COOH
76. Assertion(A): Significant figures for 0.200 is 3.
69. Assertion (A): H2SO4 can not act as reducing agent.
Reason(R): Zero at the end or right of a number are
Reason (R): Sulphur in H2SO4 can not increase its
significant provided they are not on the right side of
oxidation state beyond +6.
the decimal point.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A).
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A).
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(3) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, Reason (R) is true.

70. When 40 g of sugar is dissolved in 600 mL of H2O,

77. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the
the mass by volume percentage of sugar in the
correct option.
solution is;
List-I List-II
(1) 66.6
(A) Reduction (I) Type of chemical
(2) 70
reaction
(3) 6.66
(B) Oxidation (II) Combining with
(4) 50
hydrogen
(C) Displacement (III) Speeding up a
71. Which of the following reaction is not a
reaction
disproportionation reaction?
(D) Catalyst (IV) Combination with
(1) Br2 + CO32– + H2O → Br – + BrO3– + HCO3–
oxygen
(2) P4 + OH – + H2O → PH3 + H2 PO2– (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) H2S + SO2 → S + H2O (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) H2O2 → H2O + O2 (3) A-I, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
78. Statement I: Number of oxygen atoms in 0.2 mole 83. The equivalent weight of NaHC2O4 in reaction with
of Na2CO3.10H2O is 1.565 × 1024. NaOH is;
Statement II: Number of sodium atoms in 0.2 mole (1) 112
of Na2CO3.10H2O is 1.2 × 1024. (2) 56
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct. (3) 224
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (4) 84
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 84. Which property of an element is always a whole
correct. number?
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect. (1) Atomic weight
(2) Equivalent weight
79. How many moles of K2Cr2O7 can be reduced by 1 (3) Atomic number
mole of Sn2+ in acidic medium? (4) Atomic volume
1
(1)
3 85. In the ionic equation:
1 2K+BrO3− + 12H+ + 10e− → Br2 + 6H2O + 2K+
(2)
6 the n-factor of KBrO3 will be;
2 (1) 5
(3)
3 (2) 2
(4) 1 (3) 6
(4) 4
80. When WB gm solute (molecular mass MB) dissolves
in WA gm solvent. The molality of the solution is; SECTION-B
WB MB
(1) 
WA 1000 86. A volume of 500 mL of a 0.1 M solution of AgNO3
is added to 500 mL of 0.1 M solution of KCl. The
WB 1000
(2)  concentration of nitrate ion in the resulting solution
MB WA
is;
WA 1000
(3)  (1) 0.05 M
WB MA (2) 0.1 M
WA MB (3) 0.2 M
(4) 
WB 1000 (4) zero

81. An oxide of metal have 20% oxygen, the equivalent 87. The law of definite proportions is not applicable to
weight of oxide is; nitrogen oxide because;
(1) 32 (1) Nitrogen atomic weight is not constant
(2) 48 (2) Nitrogen molecular weight is variable
(3) 40 (3) Nitrogen equivalent weight is variable
(4) 52 (4) Oxygen atomic weight is variable

82. Assertion (A): The mass of the products formed in 88. If 5 × 10–3 kg of urea is dissolved in 15 × 10–3 kg of
a reaction depends upon the limiting reactant. water, the percent by mass of urea in solution will
Reason (R): Limiting reactant reacts completely in be;
the reaction. (1) 90% (2) 25%
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (3) 70% (4) 80%
the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
Assertion (A). 89. Equal volumes of 0.1 M H2SO4 solution and 0.3 M
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and NaOH solution are mixed. The nature of the
Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the resulting solution will be;
Assertion (A). (1) Neutral
(3) Assertion (A) is true, Reason (R) is false. (2) Acidic
(4) Assertion (A) is false, Reason (R) is true. (3) Basic
(4) Unpredictable
90. The mass of 1 × 1023 molecules of H2O is; 96. The moles of O2 required for reacting with 6.8 g of
(Given: NA = 6 × 1023) ammonia is:
(1) 2.4 g 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO +6H2O
(2) 1.5 g (1) 5
(3) 3 g (2) 2.5
(4) 4.5 g (3) 1
(4) 0.5
91. In the reaction,
Cr2O72− + 14H+ + 6I− → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 3I2 , 97. Statement I: In the reaction,
Na2S2O3 + 4Cl2 + 5H2O → Na2SO4 + H2SO4 +
The equivalent weight of Cr2O72− is;
8HCl. The equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 (molar
molecular weight
(1) M
3 mass = M) will be .
8
atomic weight Statement II: The number of moles of oxalate ions
(2)
6
oxidized by one mole of MnO−4 ion in acidic
atomic weight
(3) 5
3 medium is .
2
molecular weight
(4) (1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
6
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
92. The maximum number of molecules is present in;
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(1) 11.2 L of H2 gas at STP
correct.
(2) 5.6 L of N2 gas at STP
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect.
(3) 1.5 g of H2 gas
(4) 8 g of O2 gas
98. Lithium occurs in two isotopes, namely, 7Li (atomic
mass: 7.00 amu) and 6Li (atomic mass: 6.00 amu).
93. The oxidation states of N in aniline and
If there exists 7.4% of 6Li in naturally occurring
nitrobenzene are respectively,
lithium, then its atomic mass will be;
(1) –3, +3
(1) 6.2 amu
(2) –1, +5
(2) 6.5 amu
(3) –3, +5
(3) 6.93 amu
(4) –3, +1
(4) 7.2 amu
94. Statement I: Molarity of a solution depends upon
99. In C + H2O → CO + H2 ;H2O acts as:
temperature.
Statement II: Molality of solution does not change (1) Oxidant
with temperature. (2) Reductant
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct. (3) Bleaching agent
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (4) Hydrolysis agent
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 100. Oxidation state of P in PO3–
4 is;

correct. (1) +4
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect. (2) +3
(3) +5
95. The oxidation number of Ba in barium peroxide is; (4) +2
(1) + 2
(2) – 1
(3) + 4
(4) + 6
 [MS-0 | Practice Sheet-ROI | Dropper]

(BOTANY)
SECTION-A 108. Statement I: Microbodies contain various enzymes.
Statement II: Microbodies are present only in
101. The name of the scientist who first saw and animal cells.
described a live cell is; (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(1) Robert Brown. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek. incorrect.
(3) George Palade. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Flemming. correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
102. The cells which have membrane bound nuclei are; incorrect.
(1) eukaryotic cells. (2) mycoplasmas.
(3) bacterial cells. (4) PPLO. 109. In a cell, the plasma membrane is __________in
nature.
103. The non-membrane bound organelles found in both (1) impermeable
eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic cells are; (2) fully permeable
(3) selectively permeable
(1) centrioles. (2) nucleolus.
(4) non-impermeable
(3) ribosomes. (4) lysosomes.
110. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
104. The prokaryotic cells are represented by; option.
(1) bacteria. (2) blue green algae. List-I List-II
(3) protozoans. (4) Both (1) and (2). (Type of (Position
chromosome) of the centromere)
105. Assertion (A): Cell is the fundamental structural (I) Metacentric (A) centromere is situated close
and functional unit of all living organisms. to its end
Reason (R): Anything less than a complete (II) Acrocentric (B) terminal centromere
structure of a cell does not ensure independent (III) Sub- (C) middle centromere forming
living. metacentric two equal arms of the
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true chromosome
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (IV) Telocentric (D) centromere slightly away
Assertion (A). from the middle of the
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true chromosome
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of I II III IV
(1) B D A C
Assertion (A).
(2) C A D B
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(3) B C D A
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (4) A C B D

106. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t chloroplast. 111. Correct sequence of layers of bacterial cell
(1) The inner chloroplast membrane is relatively envelope from outside to inside is;
less permeable than the outer membrane. (1) Cell membrane → glycocalyx → cell wall
(2) The space limited by the inner membrane of (2) Glycocalyx → cell wall → cell membrane
the chloroplast is called the stroma. (3) Glycocalyx → cell membrane → cell wall
(3) A number of organised flattened membranous (3) Cell wall → glycocalyx → cell membrane
sacs called the thylakoids, are present in the
stroma. 112. Identify the incorrect statement.
(4) The stroma of the chloroplast contains (1) The interphase nucleus has chromatin, nuclear
enzymes required for the synthesis of matrix and one or more spherical bodies
carbohydrate only. called nucleoli.
(2) The nuclear matrix or the nucleoplasm
107. The ribosomes of a polysome translate; contains nucleolus and chromatin.
(1) the mRNA into proteins. (3) Chromatin is a site for active ribosomal RNA
(2) the rRNA into proteins. synthesis.
(4) The outer membrane of the nucleus usually
(3) the mRNA into lipids.
remains continuous with the endoplasmic
(4) the rRNA into lipids. reticulum.
113. The diameter of disc-shaped sacs or cisternae of (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
golgi bodies is in the range of; and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1) 5μm to 10μm. (2) 0.5 mm to 1.0mm. Assertion (A).
(3) 0.1μm to 0.5μm. (4) 0.5μm to 1.0μm. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
114. ______ are synthesised by smooth endoplasmic Assertion (A).
reticulum. (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(1) Proteins only. (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(2) Lipids and steroidal hormones.
(3) Lipids only. 121. Statement I: Centrioles is an organelle usually
(4) Proteins and lipids. containing two cylindrical structures called
centrosome.
115. Identify the correct statements from the following. Statement II: The central part of the proximal region
A. The leucoplasts are the colourless plastids. of the centriole is proteinaceous and called the hub.
B. In eukaryotes, ribosomes are associated with (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
the plasma membrane of the cell. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
C. Bacterial cells are always non-motile. incorrect.
D. Ribosomes are the granular structures of the (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
cell. correct.
(1) B and C (2) A and D (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(3) C and D (4) B and D incorrect.

116. Chromatin contains; 122. In plant cells the vacuoles can occupy up to ____
(1) DNA. per cent of the volume of the cell.
(2) some basic proteins histones. (1) 80 (2) 70
(3) some non-histone proteins. (3) 90 (4) 50
(4) all of these.
123. In Amoeba the contractile vacuole is important for;
117. All the statements are correct for eukaryotic cells, (1) osmoregulation. (2) transportation.
except; (3) respiration. (4) digestion.
(1) The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in
maintenance of the shape of the cell. 124. Identify the incorrect statement.
(2) A single human cell has approximately two (1) The eukaryotes include all the protists, plants,
metre long thread of DNA distributed among animals and fungi.
its forty six chromosomes. (2) In eukaryotic cells there is an extensive
(3) The nucleoli are not membrane bound. compartmentalisation of cytoplasm.
(4) ER divides the intracellular space into two (3) Eukaryotic cells possess an organised nucleus
distinct compartments, i.e., luminal with a nuclear envelope.
(cytoplasm) and extra luminal (inside ER). (4) All eukaryotic cells are identical.

118. The ______ is bound by a single membrane called 125. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
tonoplast. option.
(1) vacuole List-I List-II
(2) golgi apparatus (I) Vacuoles (A) Possess hydrolytic
(3) endoplasmic reticulum enzymes
(4) peroxisome (II) Lysosomes (B) Important site of formation
of glycoproteins
119. Choose the single membrane bound organelles (III) Golgi bodies (C) Contain water, sap
among the following. (IV) Flagella (D) Possess a number of
(1) Mitochondria (2) Plastids microtubules
(3) Lysosome (4) Nucleus I II III IV
(1) B D A C
120. Assertion (A): The ion concentration is significantly (2) C A B D
higher in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm. (3) B C D A
Reason (R): In many cells, as in protists, food (4) A C B D
vacuoles are formed by engulfing the food particles.
126. The matrix of mitochondria possesses; (1) A - Interdoublet bridge, B - Central microtubule,
(1) double circular DNA molecule. C - Plasma membrane, D - Radial spoke
(2) single circular DNA molecule. (2) A - Peripheral microtubules, B - Central
(3) double linear DNA molecule. microtubule, C - Interdoublet bridge, D - Radial
(4) single linear DNA molecule. spoke
(3) A - Peripheral microtubules, B - Interdoublet
127. Statement I: The mitochondria divide by fission. bridge, C - Central microtubule, D - Radial spoke
Statement II: The golgi apparatus principally (4) A - Peripheral microtubules, B - Interdoublet
performs the function of packaging materials. bridge, C - Radial spoke, D - Central microtubule
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 133. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t transport via
incorrect. plasma membrane.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) Many molecules can move briefly across the
correct. membrane without any requirement of energy.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are (2) Neutral solutes may move across the
incorrect. membrane by the process of simple diffusion
along the concentration gradient.
128. In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte (3) Water may also move across plasma membrane
has approximately; from higher to lower concentration.
(1) 40 per cent protein and 52 per cent lipids. (4) As the non-polar molecules cannot pass
(2) 52 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids. through the nonpolar lipid bilayer, they
(3) 25 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids. require a carrier protein of the membrane.
(4) 40 per cent protein and 25 per cent lipids.
134. The number of chloroplast in Chlamydomonas is;
129. Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging (1) 1 per cell. (2) 4-6 per cell.
in the; (3) 20-40 per cell. (4) 10-20 per cell.
(1) endoplasmic reticulum.
(2) golgi apparatus. 135. The genetic material is basically naked, not
(3) vacuole. enveloped by a nuclear membrane, in;
(4) chloroplast. (1) plants. (2) animals.
(3) fungi. (4) bacteria.
130. Inner membrane of mitochondria forms;
(1) cisternae. (2) cristae. SECTION-B
(3) thylakoids. (4) lamellae.
136. Assertion (A): The endomembrane system include
endoplasmic reticulum (ER), golgi complex,
131. The two subunits of prokaryotic ribosomes are;
lysosomes and vacuoles.
(1) 50S and 40S. (2) 50S and 30S.
Reason (R): The mitochondria, chloroplast and
(3) 60S and 40S. (4) 60S and 30S.
peroxisomes are not considered as part of the
endomembrane system.
132. Identify A, B, C and D in the diagrammatic
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
representation of internal structure of centriole.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

137. Ribosomes are composed of;

(1) ribonucleic acid (RNA) and proteins.
(2) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and proteins.
(3) lipids and proteins.
(4) ribonucleic acid (RNA) and lipids.
138. Read the following statements and choose the (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
correct option. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 70S. incorrect.
B. The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
C. Both 70S and 80S ribosomes are composed of correct.
two subunits. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
A B C
(1) Incorrect Correct Incorrect 145. The middle lamella mainly consists of;
(2) Correct Incorrect Correct (1) calcium pectate.
(3) Correct Correct Incorrect (2) calcium sulphate.
(4) Incorrect Incorrect Correct (3) magnesium carbonate.
(4) cellulose.
139. The surface structures found in bacteria which help
them to attach to the host tissues are; 146. Choose the incorrectly matched pair.
(1) flagella. (2) cilia. (1) Mitochondria - 70S ribosomes
(3) fimbriae. (4) centrioles. (2) Chloroplast - 80S ribosomes
(3) Cytoskeleton - mechanical support
140. Statement I: Majority of the chloroplasts of the (4) Cilia - motility
green plants are found in the mesophyll cells of the
leaves. 147. Cell theory was formulated by;
Statement II: Unlike mitochondria, the chloroplasts (1) Schleiden and Schwann.
are not double membrane bound cell organelles. (2) Rudolf Virchow.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (3) Robert Brown.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) Robert Hooke.
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 148. I. It is the extension of plasma membrane into
correct. the cytoplasm.
II. It helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication,
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
respiration, secretion processes, increases the
incorrect.
surface area of plasma membrane and enzymatic
contents. It also helps in cytokinesis.
141. Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in
III. It is the characteristic of bacterial cells.
the cytoplasm in the form of;
The above features are attributed to;
(1) vesicles. (2) inclusion bodies.
(1) plasmid. (2) nucleoid.
(3) tubules (4) lamellae.
(3) mesosome. (4) pili.
142. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
149. Assertion (A): Mitochondria are called ‘power
option. houses’ of the cell.
List-I List-II Reason (R): Mitochondria are the sites of
(I) Amyloplasts (A) store oils and fats anaerobic respiration.
(II) Aleuroplasts (B) store proteins (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(III) Elaioplasts (C) store carbohydrates and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
I II III Assertion (A).
(1) B A C (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(2) C A B but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(3) C B A Assertion (A).
(4) A C B (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
143. Both the cilium and flagellum emerge from
centriole-like structure called the; 150. Arrange the following cells in an ascending order
(1) axoneme. of their size and select the correct option.
(2) hub. I. Ostrich egg
(3) spokes. II. Mycoplasma
(4) basal bodies. III. Bacteria
IV. Human RBCs
144. Statement I: Plastids are found in all plant cells (1) II → III → IV → I
and in euglenoides. (2) I → IV → III → II
Statement II: Plastids are not easily observed (3) II → I → IV → III
under the microscope as they are small. (4) I → II → IV → III
 [MS-0 | Practice Sheet-ROI | Dropper]

(ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 159. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. junction
and its function?
151. Which of the following structure is not present in a
neuron? (1) Tight junction  Promotes leaking of
(1) Axon (2) Dendrites substances across a tissue
(3) Nerve endings (4) Adhering junctions (2) Adhering junction  Keep neighbouring cells
together
152. Choose the correct option for cardiac muscle fibres. (3) Gap junction  Helps in rapid transfer of ions
(1) Striated and involuntary and small molecules
(2) Striated and voluntary (4) Gap junction  Facilitates the cells to
(3) Non-striated and involuntary communicate with each other
(4) Non-striated and voluntary
160. Which of the following is correct for biceps muscle
153. One the basis of structures and functions, animal fibres present in our forelimbs?
tissues are classified into; (1) Can’t be contracted merely by thinking about it.
(1) 3 types (2) 2 types (2) Has alternate light and dark bands.
(3) 1 type (4) 4 types (3) Show tapering ends.
(4) Has a single nucleus at its centre.
154. Identify the types of muscles present in the
gastrointestinal tract.
161. Columnar epithelial tissue having microvilli is
(1) Striated muscles (2) Smooth muscles
located in;
(3) Cardiac muscles (4) Skeletal muscles
(1) fallopian tube. (2) oesophagus.
155. The functional junction between the axon of one (3) trachea. (4) small intestine.
neuron and the dendrite of the next is called as
_________. 162. Which of the following is correct pairing of a body
(1) Desmosome part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
(2) Synapse (1) Blood vessel  Involuntary smooth muscle
(3) Intercalated disc (2) Heart wall  Involuntary unstriated muscle
(4) Tight junction (3) Body wall  Smooth muscle fibres
(4) Intestine  Cardiac muscle
156. Which of the following epithelium helps in pushing
out of trapped dust particles from the respiratory 163. Which of the following is the most widely
tract? distributed connective tissue in the body of animals?
(1) Squamous epithelium (1) Areolar connective tissue
(2) Glandular epithelium (2) Adipose connective tissue
(3) Ciliated epithelium (3) Cartilage
(4) Compound epithelium
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

157. Identify the connective tissue that prevent loss of

164. Which of the following represents the example of
heat from the body.
dense irregular connective tissue?
(1) Areolar (2) Adipose
(1) Dermis in the skin
(3) Blood (4) Cartilage
(2) Tendon
158. Which of the following is correct for neuroglia? (3) Ligament
A. Provide protection to neurons. (4) Muscle
B. Constitute one – third of the neural tissues.
C. Support neurons. 165. Which of the following connective tissue provides
D. Make up more than one-half the volume of support to the body and serve weight-bearing
neural tissues. functions?
(1) A, B and C (2) A, C and D (1) Tendon (2) Bone
(3) B, C and D (4) A and B only (3) Ligament (4) Blood and lymph
166. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its 173. How many of the following statements is/are
location? incorrect?
Tissue Location A. Lymph is the main circulating fluid in our body
(1) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of intestine that helps in transport of various substances.
(2) Smooth muscle Wall of stomach B. Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
(3) Areolar tissue Tendons substance rich in collagen fibres and calcium
(4) Compound epithelium Tip of nose salts.
C. Most of cartilage in vertebrate embryos are
167. Which of the following is/are absent in fluid replaced by bones in adult.
connective tissue? D. Areolar tissue is present beneath the skin.
(1) Matrix (2) Fibre (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Cell (4) All of these
(3) One (4) Four

168. The nuclei in a skeletal muscle fibre are;

174. Identify the correct option from the following.
(1) diffused.
A. All cells in epithelium are held together with
(2) centrally located.
large intercellular material.
(3) peripherally located.
(4) located at the base. B. Collagen fibres are present in rows in dense
regular connective tissue.
169. In which type of muscle fibres do you observe the C. Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres
presence of intercalated discs? that are loosely arranged in semi-fluid ground
(1) Smooth muscle fibres substance.
(2) Skeletal muscle fibres (1) A and B are correct, C is incorrect
(3) Cardiac muscle fibres (2) B and C are correct, A is incorrect
(4) Visceral muscle fibres (3) A and C are correct, B is incorrect
(4) All are incorrect
170. Choose the correctly matched pair.
(1) Cartilage  non pliable, hardest tissue 175. Which of the following is a secretion of endocrine
(2) Ligament  Connect bone to bone gland?
(3) Areolar tissue  Dense regular connective tissue (1) Mucus (2) Saliva
(4) Tendon  Connect bone to bone (3) Hormone (4) Ear wax

171. Statement I: Areolar tissues act as energy reservoir 176. On the basis of structural modification of cells,
in our body. simple epithelium is classified into how many
Statement II: Muscular tissues perform the types?
function of linking and supporting other (1) Four (2) Three
tissues/organs of body. (3) Two (4) One
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 177. Which of the following tissue covers moist surface
incorrect. of buccal cavity and pharynx?
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) Cuboidal epithelium
correct. (2) Columnar epithelium
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(3) Simple epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium
172. Assertion (A): Cardiac muscle fibres are the only
type of muscle fibres that act involuntarily.
178. The fibres and fibroblasts are oriented differently
Reason (R): Actions of cardiac muscles cannot be
(not in parallel bundles) in;
controlled by our conscious will.
(1) Areolar tissues
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (2) Dense irregular connective tissues
Assertion (A). (3) Dense regular connective tissues
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true (4) Skeletal connective tissues
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A). 179. Identify the cells of areolar tissue that secrete fibres.
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (1) Mast cells (2) Macrophages
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (3) Fibroblasts (4) Chondrocytes
180. When two or more organs perform a common (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
function by their physical/chemical interaction, they (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
together form an ________. incorrect.
Fill in the blank with correct option. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) organ correct.
(2) organ system (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(3) tissue
(4) cellular aggregate 187. The spaces in which bone cells are present are called as;
(1) Lamella
181. The type of connective tissue that provides support (2) Lacunae
framework for the epithelium is; (3) Stroma
(1) Adipose tissue (4) Matrix
(2) Blood
(3) Areolar tissue 188. Choose the incorrect match.
(4) Tendons
Epithelium Function
(1) Columnar – Absorption, Secretion
182. Which of the following tissue acts as a lining for the
(2) Cuboidal – Secretion, reabsorption
body cavities, ducts and tubes?
(3) Squamous – Filtration, exchange of
(1) Cardiac muscular tissue
(2) Cuboidal epithelial tissue gases
(3) Simple epithelial tissue (4) Simple – Two or more layers
(4) Smooth muscular tissue
189. Assertion (A): The study of externally visible
183. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct features in an organism is termed as morphology.
option. Reason (R): The study of morphology of internal
List-I List-II organs in the animals is anatomy.
(A) Adipose tissue (I) Nose (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(B) Stratified epithelium (II) Blood and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(C) Cartilage (III) Skin Assertion (A).
(D) Fluid connective tissue (IV) Fat storage (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
A B C D but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(1) I II III IV Assertion (A).
(2) IV III I II (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(3) III I IV II (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(4) II I IV III
190. The epithelium having limited role in absorption
184. Inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and and secretion is;
fallopian tubes have which type of epithelium? (1) simple squamous epithelium.
(1) Ciliated epithelium (2) simple columnar epithelium.
(2) Compound epithelium (3) compound epithelium.
(3) Cuboidal epithelium (4) cuboidal epithelium.
(4) Squamous epithelium
191. Which type of cell junction connect the cytoplasm
185. Identify the isolated glandular cell from the of adjoining cells?
following. (1) Tight junctions
(1) Goblet cell (2) Gap junctions
(2) Salivary gland (3) Adhering junctions
(3) Liver cell (4) All of these
(4) Pancreatic cell
192. Identify the most abundant and widely distributed
SECTION-B tissues in the body of complex animals?
186. Statement I: Cells of cartilage are enclosed in small (1) Muscular tissues
cavities within the matrix secreted by them. (2) Neural tissues
Statement II: Cartilage is only present in outer ear (3) Connective tissues
joints in our body. (4) Epithelial tissues
193. Refer to the figure given below and identify the 197. In response to stimulation, the muscle fibres
structures A, B and C respectively. undergo;
(1) shortening.
(2) lengthening.
(3) contraction.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

(1) A: RBCs, B: WBCs, C: Platelets 198. A sheath of which of the following tissue covers the
(2) A: WBCs, B: Platelets, C: RBCs several bundles of muscle fibres together?
(3) A: Platelets, B: WBCs, C: RBCs (1) Epithelial tissues
(4) A: WBCs, B: RBCs, C: Platelets (2) Neural tissues
(3) Muscular tissues
194. Which of the following component of connective (4) Connective tissues
tissues provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to
the tissues? 199. Muscle fibres with fusiform ends are;
(1) Matrix (1) cardiac muscle fibres.
(2) Cells (2) smooth muscle fibres.
(3) Fibres (3) skeletal muscle fibres.
(4) Cartilage (4) present in biceps.

195. In our body, the bones are attached to the skeletal 200. Statement I: In unicellular organisms all functions
muscles by; are performed by a single cell.
(1) ligaments. Statement II: In complex multicellular animals, the
(2) dense irregular connective tissues. same basic functions are carried out by different
(3) tendons. groups of cells.
(4) areolar tissues. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
196. Which of the following specialized connective incorrect.
tissue is present between the adjacent bones of the (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
vertebral column? correct.
(1) Bone (2) Cartilage (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(3) Lymph (4) Myocyte

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