Practice Test 62
Practice Test 62
Practice Test 62
PART A
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1. Nam and Mai are having a party at Nam’s house.
- Nam: “Would you like to have some more dessert, Mai?” - Mai: “_______. I’m full.”
A. That would be great B. Yes, I like your party C. Yes, please D. No, thanks
Question 2. Alex and Beatrix are talking about married women.
- Alex: From my point of view, married women should not go to work.
- Beatrix: ______. I think if they stay at home, they gradually lose touch with social life.
A. I can’t agree with you more B. That’s right C. I agree with you D. I completely disagree
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. disappear B. overcome C. determine D. recommend
Question 4. A. purchase B. borrow C. prefer D. notice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 5. The weather condition was too dangerous for players. We cancelled the football match
yesterday.
A. If the weather condition had been too dangerous for players, we would have cancelled the football
match yesterday.
B. If the weather condition hadn’t been too dangerous for players, we wouldn’t cancel the football match
yesterday.
C. If the weather condition hadn’t been too dangerous for players, we wouldn’t have cancelled the
football match yesterday.
D. If the weather condition hadn’t been too dangerous for players, we would have cancelled the football
match yesterday.
Question 6. He had just turned off the oven. He noticed he had left the door open.
A. Only after he noticed he had left the door open did he turn off the oven.
B. Had he not turned off the oven, he would have noticed he had left the door open.
C. Not until he noticed he had left the door open did he turn off the oven.
D. Hardly had he turned off the oven when he noticed he had left the door open.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 7. Maria said, "I went hiking in the mountains last weekend.”
A. Maria said that he went gone hiking in the mountains the previous weekend.
B. Maria said that he had gone hiking in the mountains the weekend before.
C. Maria said that he had gone hiking in the mountains the last weekend.
D. Maria said that he went hiking in the mountains the weekend before.
Question 8. It’s three years since we last visited that charming little town.
A. We have visited that charming little town for three years.
B. We last visited that charming little town since three years.
C. We didn’t visit that charming little town for three years.
D. We haven’t visited that charming little town for three years.
Question 9. It isn’t necessary for us to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We needn’t discuss this matter in great detail. B. We should discuss this matter in great detail.
C. We mustn’t discuss this matter in great detail. D. We might discuss this matter in great detail.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each the numbered blanks (from 10 to 14).
With a coastline of over 3,260 kilometres, Viet Nam is (10) __________ to many different kinds of flora and
fauna. From the Fansipan Peak all the way down to the Mekong Delta, the country has a rich diversity of
wildlife. However, due to population growth and rapid urban development, many of Viet Nam’s plant and
animal species are endangered.
Natural habitats are threatened by deforestation and the overuse of natural resources. Several unique species
have almost disappeared in recent years (11) __________ the illegal wildlife trade. The trade in animal parts
continues to be a serious problem despite the heavy punishment. There is still high demand for elephant
ivory, rhino horn, turtle eggs, and (12) __________ wild animal parts. This has forced a number of
mammals and other (13) __________ onto the Red List of Threatened Species. In 2010, Viet Nam’s last
Javan rhino was shot and killed for its horn.
Nevertheless, there are still many other native species (14) __________ are found in the country’s dense
forests. Scientists continue to discover unique and rare animals such as the saola and the pangolin. However,
if the country wants to conserve its biodiversity and fascinating features, it still has a long way to go.
Question 10. A. place B. area C. location D. home
Question 11. A. although B. despite C. due to D. because
Question 12. A. much B. every C. other D. another
Question 13. A. flora B. creatures C. birds D. thin
Question 14. A. whom B. which C. where D. who
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 15. Writer Michelle McNamara was dedicated to finding out who the Golden State Killer was but
A
unfortunately, she died before his identity was definitely known.
B C D
Question 16. The students packed their backpacks in preparation for its long field trip to the museum.
A B C D
Question 17. She walked through the crowded market and chat with the vendors about the products.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 18. The principal aim of the project is to reduce pollution in the city by introducing more green
spaces.
A. chief B. main C. unimportant D. major
Question 19. Students on their gap year are usually travelling on a shoestring so often stay in cheap
guesthouses or youth hostels.
A. using their own shoes B. travelling during a long distance
C. using very little money D. spending much money
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. hand B. make C. save D. face
Question 21. A. hurtful B. honest C. horror D. hungry
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The restaurant was relatively busy for a Tuesday night, so we had to wait a bit longer for our
food.
A. respectively B. approximately C. comparatively D. considerably
Question 23. Global warming can have serious consequences such as rising sea levels, polar ice melting
and extreme weather events.
A. results B. issues C. causes D. advantages
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 24. I believe that if you____ yourself goals in life, you’re more likely to succeed, both financially
and career-wise.
A. set B. do C. make D. gain
Question 25. He regrets not ______ more time with his parents before leaving his hometown.
A. spend B. to spend C. to spending D. spending
Question 26. Social media provide entertainment and ways to connect _____ people.
A. in B. with C. by D. to
Question 27. Julia is _______ young lady I’ve ever met.
A. the more hard-working B. most hard-working
C. more hard-working D. the most hard-working
Question 28. The house ________ by the fire before the fire brigade arrived.
A. had destroyed B. were destroyed C. had been destroyed D. destroyed
Question 29. You're going to the party tonight, _____?
A. aren’t you B. don’t you C. didn’t you D. weren’t you
Question 30. All ___ are required to send in an up-to-date CV together with a recent photo.
A. applicants B. applicable C. applications D. apply
Question 31. Most people feel a slight ____ of nostalgia as they think back on their schooldays.
A. series B. surge C. pang D. chain
Question 32. We stood on the bridge _______the two halves of the city.
A. connecting B. is connecting C. connected D. to connect
Question 33. ______ police are investigating the disappearance of a young woman.
A. The B. An C. Ø D. A
Question 34. They will have finished the construction ______________.
A. after the inspector left B. until the inspector had arrived
C. while the inspector was arriving D. before the inspector arrives
Question 35. He _______ in his room when his phone rang loudly.
A. is studying B. studied C. studies D. was studying
Question 36. After failing the exam, he decided to _____ his study habits to improve his grades.
A. take up B. switch up C. give away D. look over
Question 37. Many people lost their jobs during the recession, so we're all in the same _____ trying to find
new employment opportunities.
A. bed B. room C. place D. boat
Question 38. My colleague _______ a parking space on a monthly basic because his house doesn’t have a
garage.
A. employs B. rents C. hires D. leases
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Caffeine, as any other drug, can potentially have a disastrous effect on your developing brain and
body. The parts of the brain that are in charge of higher functions including the prefrontal cortex and the
temporal lobe and, at a young age, these areas are still being developed and refined.
The reason that caffeine makes you feel alert and less sleepy is because it blocks the action of
adenosine, the brain chemical which controls your sleep patterns, and increases adrenaline production, speeds
your metabolism. So, get out of the habit of slamming down too many of those high caffeine energy drinks
every day; otherwise, you can wave goodbye to good quality sleep and have your brain potentially affected!
You can also stop kidding yourself that you're reaching for the caffeine just for the taste because it is tasteless
at the levels found in beverages. What you taste is the massive amount of sugar that added to the drink. The
caffeine is there to add the kick and to stimulate the production of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens. This
is the pleasure and rewarding part of the brain which forms addictions. The upshot is that your brain associates
the pleasure of sugar with the stimulation of the caffeine, making you want more.
Question 39. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Consuming caffeine in high amounts can have negative effects on the brain and body.
B. Caffeine has no effect on your sleep patterns.
C. Sugar in energy drinks is healthier than caffeine.
D. Caffeine is beneficial for a developing brain and body.
Question 40. The word “potentially” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. definitely B. certainly C. unlikely D. possibly
Question 41. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. action B. caffeine C. reason D. brain
Question 42. According to the passage, why should you avoid drinking too many high-caffeine energy drinks?
A. They can damage your heart and lungs.
B. They may cause addiction and disrupt your sleep.
C. They don't contain enough caffeine to give you energy.
D. They taste bad and are unpleasant to drink.
Question 43. Which statement is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Caffeine has a pleasant taste on its own.
B. Caffeine helps you sleep better at night.
C. Drinking high-caffeine energy drinks in excess can lead to addiction.
D. The sugar in energy drinks has no effect on your brain.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
There is a strange paradox to the success of the Asian education model. On the one hand, class sizes are
huge by Western standards with between 30 and 40 students per class, in countries like Japan and Korea. On
the other hand, school children in developed Asian economies rank among the highest in the world for
academic achievement in the areas of science and mathematics, especially on standardised tests. Meanwhile,
British secondary school students fail to shine in conditions most educational researchers would say are far
more likely to help them succeed.
Classroom management seems to be easier in places like Korea, and perhaps lessons are more effective
as a direct consequence. After all, we are only too aware of the decline in discipline standards in our own
school: belligerent and disrespectful students appear to be the norm these days. Teachers in Britain seem
powerless to control what happens anymore. Surely this situation cannot create a very effective learning
environment, so perhaps the number of students is far less relevant than is the manner in which they conduct
themselves.
But there are other factors to consider, too. There is the home environment. The traditional family unit
still remains relatively intact in Korea. Few children come from broken homes, so there is a sense of security,
safety and trust both at home and at school. In Britain meanwhile, one in every two marriages fails and divorce
rates are sky high. Perhaps children struggle to cope with unstable family conditions and their only way to
express their frustration is by misbehaving at school.
But while the Japanese, Korean and Asian models generally do seem to produce excellent results, the
statistics don’t tell the whole truth. You see, behind those great maths and science scores, there is a quite
remarkable work ethic. Asian students tend to put their education before literally everything else. They do
very few extracurricular activities and devote far more time to their studies than their British peers.
There has been a lot of attention and praise given to these Asian models and their “impressive” statistics
of late. And without question, some of this praise is justified, but it seems to be a case of two extremes in
operation here. At one end, there is the discipline and unbelievably hard work ethic of the Asian students –
success in education before all else. At the other end, British students at times appear careless and extremely
undisciplined by comparison, but at least they Do have the free time to enjoy their youth and explore their
interests. Is either system better outright? Or is it perhaps about time we stopped comparing and started trying
to combine the best bits of both, so that we can finally offer our students a balanced, worthwhile education?
Question 44. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Asian education models are flawed despite their success in standardized tests.
B. Asian students lack discipline and structure.
C. Asian education models outperform British systems but at a cost.
D. British students should focus more on extracurricular activities.
Question 45. The word “paradox” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. a common occurrence B. a complex problem C. an obvious fact D. an ironic contradiction
Question 46. The word “belligerent” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. quiet B. aggressive C. lazy D. disobedient
Question 47. How do Asian students' study habits differ from those of British students?
A. British students have less free time than Asian students.
B. Asian students focus solely on academics and have little free time.
C. Asian students prioritize extracurricular activities over studying.
D. British students study much harder than Asian students.
Question 48. The word “their” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. questions B. Asian models C. statistics D. attentions
Question 49. Which of the following can be inferred from the reading passage?
A. British students lack any form of discipline in their education system.
B. The traditional family unit plays a significant role in the academic success of Korean students.
C. Asian students prioritize extracurricular activities as much as their studies.
D. Smaller class sizes lead to higher academic achievement in Western countries.
Question 50. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. British secondary school students often struggle with unstable family conditions.
B. Asian students prioritize extracurricular activities over academics.
C. Classroom management appears to be easier in Asian countries like Korea.
D. Asian education models tend to produce excellent results in standardized tests.
PART B
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. choice B. change C. chorus D. chore
Question 2: A. shake B. game C. land D. mate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. effort B. advice C. culture D. banner
Question 4: A. challenging B. forgetful C. terrific D. expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: ______ Moby-Dick is a classic novel written by Herman Melville.
A. the B. 0 (no article) C. a D. an
Question 6: Music seems ______ psychological well-being and mental states significantly.
A. to influencing B. influence C. influencing D. to influence
Question 7: The guests should tell the receptionist in advance if they have any ______ diets.
A. specialty B. special C. specially D. specialize
Question 8: Your first son was born in America, ______?
A. didn’t he B. is he C. was he D. wasn’t he
Question 9: I will take Louisiana out to eat ______.
A. before she won the game B. while she was winning the game
C. as soon as she had won the game D. after she wins the game
Question 10: He has ______ a valuable contribution to the life of the school
A. caused B. created C. done D. made
Question 11: Children are taught to be polite ______ everyone around them, especially the elderly.
A. with B. to C. on D. in
Question 12: The concert last night was ______ than I expected it to be.
A. most exciting B. the most exciting C. as exciting D. more exciting
Question 13: The Apple II computer, ______ in 1977, was designed by Steve Wozniak.
A. created B. to be created C. was created D. creating
Question 14: He demanded, with some justice, that he should be given a/an ______ to express his views.
A. opportunity B. occasion C. event D. chance
Question 15: Some of the ______ of exercising are that it relieves stress and puts you in a good mood.
A. convenience B. advantages C. profits D. benefits
Question 16: I found these photos while I ______ out my cupboards.
A. is cleaning B. have cleaned C. was cleaning D. cleaned
Question 17: When they return, the room ______ with colorful flowers.
A. decorates B. was decorated C. will be decorated D. had been decorated
Question 18: Despite the fact that his paintings lack style and imagination, he persists on working as a
professional painter. He’s always chasing ______.
A. shadows B. rainbows C. the dragon D. his tail
Question 19: While shopping undercover at some of the top jewellers, the journalists ______ sales
pitches filled with false claims.
A. took after B. turned out C. came across D. made up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Peter and Jenny are talking about the city where they live.
- Peter: "The air quality in this city is getting worse and worse".
- Jenny: "______. I can't see anything in the morning because of too much smog."
A. You can say that again B. I don't quite agree
C. That's not a matter D. I don't really think so
Question 21: Thomas is asking Tom to hand him a book in the library.
- Thomas: “Would you mind handing me the book over there?” - Tom: “______”
A. Yes, I’m busy. B. That’s great. C. Not at all. D. Yes, go ahead.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: When it came to getting ready for a role, the actor was quite cautious in his preparation.
A. careful B. sensitive C. neglectful D. careless
Question 23: Despite her extensive preparation and experience, she felt apprehensive before the important job
interview, as she knew the outcome could have a significant impact on her career path.
A. passionate B. overconfident C. anxious D. excited
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: She was always optimistic, even when things were at their worst.
A. pessimistic B. enthusiastic C. energetic D. excited
Question 25: Although Jack loves playing sports, he is too long in the tooth to try out skydiving.
A. young B. cruel C. friendly D. humorous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is good for students to take the IELTS exam during high school.
A. Students should take the IELTS exam during high school.
B. Students mustn’t take the IELTS exam during high school.
C. Students needn’t take the IELTS exam during high school.
D. Students can take the IELTS exam during high school.
Question 27: "Who gave you this book, John?" asked the teacher.
A. The teacher asked John who had given him that book.
B. The teacher asked John who gave him that book.
C. The teacher asked John who had he given that book to.
D. The teacher asked John who he had given this book.
Question 28: The last time they went camping was a month ago.
A. They went camping for a month. B. They haven’t gone camping for a month.
C. They didn’t go camping for a month. D. They have gone camping for a month.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: There is comprehension that there may be an adverse effect on the number of patients treated.
A. adverse B. number C. treated D. comprehension
Question 30: Jane visits Trang An Scenic complex with her family last summer.
A. summer B. her C. visits D. Scenic
Question 31: Vietnamese athletes are determined to defend her regional throne in athletics.
A. regional throne B. her C. determined D. Vietnamese
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: There is so much rain in March. It is not common.
A. Seldom is there so much rain in March. B. Seldom there is so much rain in March.
C. Seldom it is rain so much in March. D. It is common to be rain so much in March.
Question 33: Chris doesn’t have enough time. He can’t travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.
A. Provided Chris has enough time, he can travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.
B. If Chris had enough time, he could travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.
C. If only Chris had had enough time, he could have traveled to Ha Long Bay for his holiday.
D. Chris can travel to Ha Long Bay for his holiday in case he doesn’t have enough time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Trees protect the soil beneath them; thus, tree loss can affect soil integrity. (34) ______, the rainforest
floor, home to myriad plant life as well as insects, worms, reptiles and amphibians, and small mammals, relies
on a dense canopy of branches and leaves to keep it healthy and intact. Tree roots also stabilize the soil and
help prevent erosion. In exchange a healthy soil encourages root development and microbial activity, (35)
______ contribute to tree growth and well-being. A major factor in logging-related soil damage comes from
road building, with trucks and other heavy equipment compressing the spongy soil, creating furrows where
water collects, and disrupting the underground water flow. Eventually, the topsoil wears away, leaving behind
a (36) ______ layer of rocks and hard clay.
Logging can also damage aquatic habitats. Vegetation along rivers and stream banks helps (37) ______
a steady water flow by blocking the entry of soil and other residue, and trees shade inhibits the growth of
algae. Removing trees obliterates these benefits. When eroding soil flows into waterways, the organic matter
within it consumes more oxygen, which can lead to oxygen depletion in the water, killing fish and (38) ______
aquatic wildlife.
Question 34: A. However B. For example C. Moreover D. Although
Question 35: A. that B. whom C. which D. who
Question 36: A. fruitless B. sterile C. fertile D. nutrient
Question 37: A. save B. destroy C. spoil D. maintain
Question 38: A. other B. many C. few D. others
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Aimee Fuller was born in England but now lives in the USA. She moved to the east coast of the United
States at the age of 12 because she knew she wanted to be a professional snowboarder. It wasn’t possible to
train properly in her hometown because it hardly ever snowed. There was a dry ski slope in her town, where
she learnt how to ski and snowboard, but there weren’t any mountains with snow to practice the sport.
Aimee quickly found sponsors and a coach when she arrived in the USA, and she is now a successful
and well-known snowboarding star. She has done really well in many national competitions and her dream is
to win an Olympic gold medal one day.
During her free time, Aimee likes to spend time at home, switch off her phone and laptop and hang
out with her friends and family. Aimee spends most of her time practicing on the snow, and trains in the gym
four to five times a week. She also goes cycling and running. Aimee says it is very important to keep fit
because that helps her stay safe when she is doing snowboarding tricks and jumps. Her advice to people who
want to learn how to do jumps, is to start small and only do bigger jumps when they feel ready.
Question 39: Which of the following can be the best title of the passage?
A. Preparation for Olympic Games B. U.S Immigrant Lives
C. Women’s Snowboarding Qualifications D. A Snowboarding Star
Question 40: According to the passage, Aimee enjoys ______ in her free time.
A. spending time at home B. using her phone
C. surfing the Internet D. hanging out with her coach
Question 41: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. people keeping fit B. people cycling C. people giving advice D. people learning to jump
Question 42: The word coach in paragraph 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. donor B. opponent C. referee D. trainer
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Aimee thinks being unfit is dangerous for snowboarding.
B. There was no snow in her hometown.
C. Aimee spent a short time finding a coach in the USA.
D. Aimee has won an Olympic gold medal.
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
On a boat near Costa Rica, a team of marine biologists is helping a turtle. The animal is having
trouble breathing, and the team discovers why there is something inside its nose. A scientist tries to extract
the object, but the turtle cries in pain. Finally, after eight long minutes, a 10-centimeter plastic straw is pulled
out.
The video of the turtle’s rescue has been viewed millions of times on YouTube. It has helped raise
awareness of a growing problem: The world’s seas are full of plastic. Since 2000, there has been a huge
increase in worldwide plastic production, but we recycle less than one-fifth of it. A lot of this plastic waste
ends up in the ocean. Today, scientists think about 8.1 billion kilograms goes into the sea every year from
coastal regions. Most of this plastic will never biodegrade.
This ocean plastic hurts millions of sea animals every year. Some fish eat plastic because it is covered
with sea plants, and it looks and smells like food. Typically, eating plastic leads to constant hunger. “Imagine
you ate lunch and then just felt weak ... and hungry all day,” says marine biologist Matthew Savoca. “That
would be very confusing.” In some cases, eating sharp pieces of plastic can seriously hurt sea animals and
even result in death.
Plastic is useful to people because it is strong and lasts a long time—but this is bad news for sea
creatures who eat or get stuck in it. According to Savoca, “Single-use plastics are the worst.” These are items
that are used only once before we throw them away. Some common examples include straws, water bottles,
and plastic bags. About 700 sea species (including the turtle from the video) have been caught in or have eaten
this kind of plastic. Luckily, the turtle survived and was released back into the ocean.
How will plastic affect sea animals in the long term? “I think we’ll know the answers in 5 to 10 years’
time,” says Debra Lee Magadini from Columbia University. But by then, another 25 million tons of plastic
will already be in the ocean.
Question 44. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. The Work of Marine Biologists B. Dangers Facing Sea Turtles
C. How Plastic Harms Sea Creatures D. How Plastic Dilute into Oceans.
Question 45. The word extract in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.
A. remove B. reform C. examine D. discover
Question 46. The word It in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the video B. the turtle C. YouTube D. the world
Question 47. The word constant in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. extreme B. satisfying C. temporary D. frequent
Question 48. According to paragraph 4, single-use plastics are harmful to sea creatures because ______.
A. They are made of toxic materials.
B. They are not durable.
C. They are frequently disposed of in the ocean.
D. Sea creatures mistake them for food or get entangled in them.
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Many people have watched the video of the turtle on YouTube.
B. Most of the plastic can change back to a harmless natural state.
C. We recycle less than 20 per cent of plastic products.
D. The turtle in the video was one of 700 sea species having eaten single-use plastics.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Each year, coastal areas dump 8.1 billion kg of plastic waste into the ocean.
B. The plastic waste in the ocean hurts sea animals and can even kill them.
C. Scientists will have a clear understanding of the ocean’s plastic problem in 5 to 10 years’ time.
D. Having watched the video of the turtle’s rescue, millions of people stopped using plastics.
PART C
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. shrine B. drink C. uncle D. blanket
Question 2: A. stand B. ban C. fame D. mad
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. maintain B. protect C. install D. happen
Question 4: A. hospital B. solution C. memory D. furniture
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: I will tell Mike to call you ______.
A. when I see him B. when I am seeing him C. when I saw him D. when I will see him
Question 6: The books ______ to the library when my students finish reading them.
A. will return B. will be returned C. will have returned D. have returned
Question 7: You'd better ______ a commitment to being a volunteer on a regular basis.
A. make B. do C. pull D. promise
Question 8: I'm surprised ______ the way you behave like that in front of the kids.
A. to B. at C. for D. about
Question 9: There are usually at least two ______ of looking at every question.
A. directions B. views C. opinions D. ways
Question 10: The Measure app of the new Apple iPhone 14 Pro enables us ______ someone's height.
A. measuring B. measure C. to measuring D. to measure
Question 11: The buildings ______ in the 2023 earthquake in Turkey were not built to withstand such a
disaster.
A. were destroyed B. destroying C. were destroying D. destroyed
Question 12: Did you get married after leaving ______ university
A. an B. 0 (no article) C. the D. a
Question 13: He was convicted of causing ______ to other road users.
A. danger B. dangerously C. endanger D. dangerous
Question 14: That party was a lot of fun, but I drank a bit too much and had quite a ______ head the
next morning!
A. big B. thick C. long D. thin
Question 15: Everybody in town likes to visit my mother's lavender garden, which ______ a pleasant smell.
A. takes after B. turns up C. gets over D. gives off
Question 16: There was a friendly match between Vietnam and Myanmar national teams last week, ______?
A. hadn’t there B. wasn’t there C. didn’t there D. isn’t there
Question 17: Art-related subjects are ______ than science classes.
A. the most appealing B. most appealing C. more appealing D. as appealing
Question 18: I think you owe Henry an apology. What you said to him yesterday was really below ______.
A. the belt B. a tap C. a screen D. the stress
Question 19: Our volunteer club received large ______ from the students and their parents.
A. donations B. benefits C. advantages D. experiences
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Tim and his friend had a quarrel last week, and now Tom is giving Tim advice.
- Tom: "I think the best way to solve that problem is to keep silent."
- Tim: “______. Silence may kill our friendship.”
A. I'm not wrong B. That's a great idea C. That's not a good idea D. Yes, I think much
Question 21: Lan has come to granny and grandpa’s house for lunch.
- Grandpa: “Hello, my little one! Would you like to pick some vegetables from the garden for lunch?”
- Lan: “______”
A. Of course you can. B. No, thanks. I love salad.
C. Yes, please! Let’s make salad. D. You’re welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The way animal wastes are used and stored has significant effects on human health and the
environment.
A. beneficial B. adverse C. enormous D. negative
Question 23: Despite the warnings advised by the authorities, the driver continued to speed recklessly down
the narrow and winding road, putting not only himself but also the lives of his passengers and other drivers in
danger.
A. carelessly B. carefully C. irresponsibly D. dangerously
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Wet weather always depresses me. I don’t have the pleasure of doing anything special then.
A. saddens B. delights C. encourages D. surprises
Question 25: I would need to be humble with her. I don’t want to burn my bridges with her.
A. build relationships B. build bridges C. destroy relationships D. ruin the relationship
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It isn’t necessary for us to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We mustn’t discuss this matter in great detail.
B. We might discuss this matter in great detail.
C. We should discuss this matter in great detail.
D. We needn’t discuss this matter in great detail.
Question 27: I last talked to my grandparents three months ago.
A. I have talked to my grandparents for three months.
B. I talked to my grandparents for three months.
C. I didn’t talk to my grandparents for three months.
D. I haven’t talked to my grandparents for three months.
Question 28: "What subject are you studying this semester, John?" asked the professor.
A. The professor asked John what subject is he studying this semester.
B. The professor asked John what subject he is studying that semester.
C. The professor asked John what subject he was studying that semester.
D. The professor asked John what subject was I studying that semester.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 29: In this study, the searches for life expectation data were particularly successful in terms of
offering a relatively high precision.
A. particularly B. precision C. relatively D. expectation
Question 30: It was not until the late 1970s that these country people enjoy the benefits of electricity.
A. country people B. benefits C. enjoy D. not until
Question 31: When a virus attacks you for the first time, your body doesn’t know how to combat them and
you become ill.
A. attacks B. body C. them D. combat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She doesn’t know a foreign language. She can’t get a job easily.
A. If she knew a foreign language, she could get a job easily.
B. Provided that she knows a foreign language, she can’t get a job easily.
C. If she had known a foreign language, she could have gotten a job easily.
D. If she knew a foreign language, she couldn’t get a job easily.
Question 33: The train arrived at the station. Shortly after that the passengers rushed towards it.
A. Only after the passengers rushed towards the station did the train arrive.
B. Had the train arrived at the station, the passengers could have rushed towards it.
C. No sooner had the train arrived at the station than the passengers rushed towards it.
D. Not until the passengers had rushed towards the station did the train arrive.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Reality shows have been around for longer than most of us can remember. TV producers find them
cheaper to produce than soap operas or dramas. And the format seems to be as popular as ever. (34) ______
shows are so addictive that people can’t resist tuning in to them week after week. But why? Do viewers know
how ‘real’ reality TV actually is? Of course, some shows are better than others. When Romeo Met Juliet, (35)
______, was convincing enough for us to believe what went on in the show. But other shows are less real.
(36) ______ are more likely to tell contestants what to say and do than you may realize and the sob stories
(37) ______ we hear each week are more planned than ‘real’. Nevertheless, it seems that the more we watch
reality TV, the more tempted we are to believe it's all true. Is that such a bad thing? Well, one (38) ______
could be that there is a lot more gossiping and bullying on some shows than seems good for anybody.
Question 34: A. Much B. Little C. Many D. Each
Question 35: A. however B. for example C. therefore D. in addition
Question 36: A. Producers B. Creators C. Constructors D. Inventors
Question 37: A. where B. who C. when D. which
Question 38: A. advantage B. credit C. problem D. solution
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
In the past, people tended to classify things as either worth something or worthless. Household, office,
and industrial waste, seen as worthless, was usually burned or buried in landfills. However, as landfills fill up,
the planet heats up, and energy and raw material prices go up, we are rethinking what we consider" waste"
and "pollution." New technologies are making it possible to reuse waste materials, and businesses are finding
ways to not only throw away less, but to turn trash into cash.
Recycling is the most widespread form of waste reuse. Not only does it save governments money by
reducing spending on landfills, but it also helps companies and individuals lower garbage disposal costs.
Another type of waste, organic material, has a clear economic value. Scientists have developed ways to turn
vegetables, grains into biofuel. Through creative efforts, other waste materials are being turned into
completely new products. An interesting example is EaKo, a UK- based company which makes beautiful bags
and wallets from used fire hoses. On the other side of the world, a local government effort in the Philippines
to turn old plastic bags and other materials into construction blocks.
Even factories are finding opportunities to increase profits in Earth-friendly ways. As goods are
produced, factories often generate large amounts of heat and gas, which are then released into the air. Yet by
refitting a plant, it is possible to capture these materials and turn them into energy, which the factory can then
reuse. Excess energy can even be sold to power companies for a profit. Recaptured energy from US factories
could meet 20% of the country's power needs.
Question 39: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Turning Waste into Wealth. B. Reducing waste of all types
C. Making Profit from Goods D. Treating waste with new technologies
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. recycling B. waste C. spending D. money
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Some governments, factories and companies are applying earth-friendly methods.
B. Waste used to be considered as valueless.
C. Technologies enable people to burn waste more effectively.
D. Scientists have been successful in turning organic materials into biofuel.
Question 42: The word “generate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. produce B. absorb C. consume D. conserve
Question 43: Why would factories want to capture gas before it is released into the air?
A. To use the gas again. B. To refit the plant.
C. To turn it into products. D. To generate more heat.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions front 44 to 50.
Shakespeare's Globe Theatre is a popular topic for people interested in theater and history. However,
the Globe Theatre as we know it today is not the same building that was used originally. In fact, the Globe
was situated in many different places during its long history.
When the rental agreement on the original location ended, one of the actors bought a theater called the
Blackfriars, which was located in another part of town. However, many complaints from neighbors and the
town council led to the creation of a petition that requested that the acting group move their company out of
town. Upset with this news, the actors returned to the original theater, took most of it apart, and then moved
the materials across the Thames River to Bankside, where they proceeded to construct the next version of the
Globe.
This endeavor, though, did not go so smoothly. The owner of the original Globe Theatre, who had
rented it to the actors, took the acting group to court. He wanted the actors to pay for the damage they had
done to his building. In the end, however, the actors won the case and continued to construct their “newly-
acquired” theater. Later, the actors split their plays between the original theater and the new Globe.
In 1643, the original Globe Theatre burned to the ground. Historians believe that a cannon that was
shot during a performance of the play Henry Vill started a large fire. Yet, the Globe Theatre still survived.
A new Globe was later completed on the same site before Shakespeare's death. However, it was shut
down by the Puritans in 1642 because it could not sell tickets and later destroyed during the English Civil War
of 1643.
In May of 1997, Queen Elizabeth II officially opened a newly constructed version of the Globe with a
production of Henry V. This is the Globe Theatre that people visit today. The queen wanted the new theater
to be much like the old one. The new model is very similar to the original theater. For instance, it is also a
three-story building. Also, it has seating for 1,500 people and an area called the “yard” on the lower level. In
its first season, the theater attracted 210,000 people.
Question 44: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The history of the Globe Theatre B. The renovation of the Globe Theatre
C. The construction of the Globe Theatre D. Acting at the Globe Theatre
Question 45: Performers built the new Globe in Bankside because ______.
A. the council forced them to upgrade the theater for better services.
B. the theater was sold and they did not have any place for their performance.
C. The town council proposed to relocate it for a more magnificent view.
D. They were outraged about the town council’s decision on relocation.
Question 46: The word proceeded in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. caught B. began C. marched D. hurried
Question 47: The word acquired in paragraph 3 could be best replaced with which of the following?
A. stolen B. bought C. discovered D. obtained
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. There was controversy surrounding the Globe when it was first in operation.
B. The new version of the Globe is much like the Globe as it was hundreds of years ago.
C. Today the original Globe Theatre stands in its original location.
D. Theater-goers should understand that the Globe is not like other modern theaters.
Question 49: Based on the information in paragraph 4, what can be inferred about the Puritans?
A. They loved Shakespeare. B. They lived in America.
C. They did not like plays. D. They wore black clothes.
Question 50: The word its in paragraph 5 refers to _______.
A. the season’s B. the program’s C. the theater’s D. the play’s
PART D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 1. John and David are talking about online learning.
- John: “I think online learning has more advantages than disadvantages.”
- David: “________. Studying online means we have to sit in front of a computer for many hours.”
A. Yes. It’s very exciting B. I think you’re right C. I couldn’t agree more D. I don’t agree with you
Question 2. Jack is inviting Jill to join his volunteer group.
- Jack: “Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?” - Jill: “______ .”
A. I wouldn't. Thank you. B. Yes, you're a good friend.
C. Yes, I'd love to. Thanks. D. Do you think I would?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 3. Yesterday was __________ day of the year.
A. the most hot B. the hottest C. the more hot D. the hotter
Question 4. We thanked the hosts for their generous ______ and got under way.
A. hospitable B. hospitably C. hospitalize D. hospitality
Question 5. Some of the phones ____________ last month are broken.
A. sold B. selling C. to sell D. were sold
Question 6. That was one of _______ best films I've ever seen.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7. Mai is using a dictionary to ______the meaning of the word “antibiotics”.
A. look up B. put off C. take after D. look after
Question 8. The invitation ______ to all the guests by email when this meeting ended.
A. was sending B. was sent C. sends D. has sent
Question 9. The bicycle needs___________ as soon as possible.
A. repairing B. repair C. to repair D. to repairing
Question 10. You can get stamps from the local newsagents, _________?
A. can you B. can’t you C. do you D. don’t you
Question 11. The organization works on the ______ that all members have the same rights.
A. regulation B. law C. rule D. principle
Question 12. Your piano playing has really come on since I last _________ you play.
A. heard B. hear C. was hearing D. have heard
Question 13. His 15 stores employ 200 workers at an average ______ of $7.40 an hour.
A. money B. wage C. salary D. income
Question 14. ______, he will look for a job in a big city.
A. When he graduated from university B. When he was graduating from university
C. When he has graduated from university D. When he had graduated from university
Question 15. I think we should ______ as much emphasis on preventing disease as we do on curing it.
A. put B. get C. take D. make
Question 16. It is necessary ______ all of us to be present at the meeting this afternoon.
A. of B. for C. about D. from
Question 17. The full horror of the war only hit ___________ when we started seeing the television pictures
of it in our living rooms.
A. the emotion B. house C. home D. the feeling
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. weather B. therefore C. neither D. theory
Question 19. A. make B. way C. late D. sad
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of stress
in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. dangerous B. romantic C. expensive D. effective
Question 21. A. decide B. collect C. discuss D. broaden
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each
of the following questions.
Question 22. The wonderful diversity of our region's wildlife is now coming under threat.
A. variety B. similarity C. quality D. benefit
Question 23. The government acknowledged the need for immediate action to address the climate crisis.
A. reduced B. removed C. created D. accepted
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. The jeweler carefully examined every minute detail of the diamond, searching for any
imperfections.
A. huge B. equal C. total D. exact
Question 25. The negotiations between the two countries were a hard nut to crack, as both sides had very
different opinions and demands.
A. a simple issue to solve B. a complex problem to tackle
C. a challenging job to get D. a soft nut to crush
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
WHERE MANNERS ARE THE KEY TO SUCCESS
Whatever line of work you’re in, there’s a lot to learn when you start a new job. At big Japanese
companies, new employees have to undergo (26) ______ weeks of formal instruction in the basics of how to
behave at work. After mastering the company song, new recruits are taught everything from how to shake
hands to how to hand over a cup of tea correctly. In Japan, manners play an important role in all aspects of
adult life. Business has its own rules of behaviour, (27)______ must be adhered to. Business cards, for
example, must be presented and received with the body held at a specific angle. Cards must be (28)______
respectfully as they are considered an extension of the holder’s identity. An inexperienced businessman, for
instance, who put a card he had just received into his trouser pocket would cause great offense. This would
seriously diminish his chances of closing a deal. (29)______, the correct gestures have to be learnt and
practised. Even after completing the training course, new employees may still find that (30)______ life is not
easy. Workers at large Japanese firms are expected to sacrifice a great deal for the company. They often live
in company-owned accommodation with their colleagues and put in long hours at work. In offices, workers
are not free to leave until their superiors have done so.
Question 26: A. every B. another C. much D. several
Question 27: A. which B. whom C. where D. who
Question 28: A. activated B. demanded C. handled D. solved
Question 29: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. Although D. Otherwise
Question 30: A. mutual B. corporate C. commercial D. collaborative
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
When a new superhero movie comes out, it dominates the box office for weeks. The trailer for
Captain America: Civil War was one of the most downloaded trailers ever and A-list actors are keen to take
on superhero roles. Many superhero films have had Oscar nominations, and fan events like Comic-Con keep
fans excited about the latest blockbusters.
First of all, there’s the adventure, the action and the costumes, the great soundtracks, the special
effects and computer-generated images. They’re fun and entertaining, and we love escapism. But is that
enough? We have to look deeper to find out why people love them. Superheroes have feelings. They cope
with human experiences that we can relate to. In other words, they are not so different from regular people.
Psychologist Mary Tavost has written books about the psychology of superheroes, and she thinks that they
inspire their fans because their goals in life are similar to human goals. They want peace, justice and love,
just as we do. The lives of superheroes reflect real life as we know it.
Question 31: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Superheroes and Their Superpowers B. The Hard Life of Superhero Actors
C. Why We Love Superhero Movies D. The Psychology of Superheroes
Question 32: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. superhero B. movie C. trailer D. box office
Question 33: The word blockbusters in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.
A. special awards B. hit singles C. successful films D. digital images
Question 34: According to the passage, superheroes, like ordinary people, ______.
A. are fun and entertaining B. have a lot of experiences
C. are inspiring and peaceful D. have their own emotions
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Superheroes’ goals are quite different from those of humans.
B. A-list actors are interested in taking on superhero roles.
C. Superheroes fight for justice and even sacrifice themselves.
D. Superhero movies are one of the most popular cinema genres.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
Are you preparing for a big test? If so, you may do sports between hitting the books. Based on
information collected over the years, researchers have seen an apparent connection between exercise and brain
development. Judy Cameron, a researcher at Oregon Health and Science University, studies brain
development. According to her research, it seems that exercise can make blood vessels, including those in the
brain, stronger, more fully developed and helps people concentrate better. She says, “While we already know
that exercise is good for the heart, it can literally cause physical changes in the brain.”
The effects of exercise on brain development can even be seen in babies. Babies who do things
requiring a lot of movement and physical activity show greater brain development than less physically active
babies. With babies, even a little movement can show big results. Margaret Barnes, a pediatrician, believes in
the importance of exercise. She thinks that many learning disabilities children have in elementary school or
high school can be traced back to a lack of movement as babies. “Babies need movement that stimulates their
five senses,” says Barnes. “They need to establish a connection between motion and memory. In this way, as
they get older, children will begin to associate physical activity with higher learning.”
The benefits of exercise on the brain are not just for babies. Older people can beef up their brains by
working out as well. Researchers at Cornell University studied a group of seniors from seventy to seventy-
nine. Their study showed a short-term memory increase of up to forty percent after exercising just three hours
a week. The exercise does not have to be very difficult, but it has to increase the heart rate. Also, exercise for
older people should involve some complexity. Learning some new skills or motions, such as with yoga or tai-
chi, helps open up memory paths in the brain that may not have been used for ages.
For most people, any type of physical activity that increases the heart rate is helpful. The main goal is
to increase the brain’s flow of blood. Your brain can benefit from as little as two to three hours of exercise a
week.
Question 36: Which of the following can be the main idea of the passage?
A. Playing basketball may help you prepare better for a test.
B. Extraordinary benefit of doing exercises on brain development.
C. Exercising everyday may help us to have a good heart.
D. The connection between blood vessels and the brain is apparent.
Question 37: The word literally in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.
A. quietly B. rarely C. actually D. hardly
Question 38: According to the reading, what is the connection between exercise and brain development?
A. Exercise makes us less intelligent. B. The brain needs special mental exercise.
C. The more exercise, the bigger the brain. D. Physical exercise helps us think better.
Question 39: The word Their in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. older people of the study B. older people’s brains
C. researchers at Cornell University D. a group of seniors
Question 40: The phrase beef up in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. achieve B. soften C. strengthen D. annoy
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The more physical activities they have, the greater the brain develops.
B. The children’s senses can be developed when they move.
C. Less physical activity improves brain development in infants.
D. To study well in elementary or high school, babies need to learn how to connect motion and memory.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Yoga is suitable for the old because it includes very easy motions.
B. Exercises can change mental health.
C. Physical motion can enhance memory for both children and adults.
D. Exercises for the elderly should be as simple as possible.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
Question 43. They took my advice. That’s why they got success.
A. If they had taken my advice, they would have got success.
B. If they did not take my advice, they would not get success.
C. If they had not taken my advice, they would not have got success.
D. If they had not taken my advice, they will not have got success.
Question 44. He spent all his money. He even borrowed some from me.
A. As soon as he borrowed some money from me, he spent it all.
B. Hardly had he borrowed some money from me when he spent it all.
C. Not until he spent all his money did he borrowed some from me.
D. Not only did he spend all his money but he borrowed some from me as well.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
Question 45. The employees don’t usually side with the boss, but in this instance, they agree with their
scheme.
A. employees B. side C. instance D. their
Question 46. The participants were informed that they would hear each sentence three times in a row, with
less noise on each successful presentation.
A. row B. successful C. noise D. informed
Question 47. Many children take part in an English Speaking Contest at this time last year.
A. an B. at C. Many D. take
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 48. It is obligatory for my students to wear their face masks when going out.
A. My students can wear their face masks when going out.
B. My students mustn’t wear their face masks when going out.
C. My students don’t need to wear their face masks when going out.
D. My students must wear their face masks when going out.
Question 49. We last went out together two years ago.
A. We have gone out together for two years. B. We didn’t go out together for two years.
C. We haven’t gone out together for two years. D. We went out together for two years.
Question 50. “I’ll tell you about this tomorrow, Mary.” said Tom.
A. Tom said to Mary that he will tell her about that the next day.
B. Tom told Mary that I would tell you about that the next day.
C. Tom told Mary that he would tell her about that the next day.
D. Tom told Mary that she would tell him about that the next day.
PART E
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chairman B. choir C. challenge D. childhood
Question 2: A. like B. hide C. pick D. shine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 3: Linda and Daisy are talking about the environment.
- Linda: "Our environment is getting more and more polluted." - Daisy: "_________. It's really worrying."
A. Surely that's not the case B. Actually, I can't make it
C. Sorry to hear that D. I totally agree with you
Question 4: William and Janet have just finished the meeting with their customers.
-William: "Shall I bring your laptop back to the office?" - Janet: “___________. Please put it on my desk."
A. Thank you. That would be great B. No. I forgot my laptop
C. I can't carry it D. Oh, I can help you
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 5: It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
A. You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B. You have to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
C. You mustn't finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D. You needn't finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
Question 6: Daisy asked Tom: "Did you buy a new car last year?".
A. Daisy asked Tom if you had bought a new car the previous year.
B. Daisy asked Tom if he would buy a new car the next year.
C. Daisy asked Tom whether he had bought a new car the previous year.
D. Daisy asked Tom whether you bought a new car last year.
Question 7: The last time I updated my Facebook status was 6 months ago.
A. I have updated my Facebook status for 6 months.
B. I have 6 months to update my Facebook status.
C. I haven't updated my Facebook status for 6 months.
D. I started updating my Facebook status 6 months ago.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 8: My cousin was going to the supermarket to buy some sugar at present.
A. My cousin B. was going C. the D. some
Question 9: Farmers are concerned that their food-bearing plants may be subjective to the difficulties of a
severe winter.
A. concerned B. subjective C. difficulties D. severe
Question 10: Electric bikes are becoming increasingly popular nowadays thanks to its convenience.
A. are becoming B. popular C. thanks D. its
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 11: A. develop B. devastate C. integrate D. organise
Question 12: A. area B. effort C. actor D. disease
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 13 to 17.
The Singapore Science Centre is located on a six-hectare site in Jurong. At the centre, we can discover
the wonders of science and technology in fun way. Clap your hands and colourful bulbs will light up. Start a
wheel spinning and it will set off a fan-churning. It is a place to answer our curiosity and capture our
imagination.
The centre features over four hundred exhibits covering topics like solar radiation, communication,
electronics, mathematics, nuclear energy, and evolution. It aims to arouse interest in science and technology
among us and the general public. The centre is the first science one to be established in Southeast Asia. It
was opened in 1977 and it now receives an average of one thousand two hundred visitors a day. The exhibits
can be found in four exhibition galleries. They are the Lobby, Physical Sciences, Life Sciences and Aviation.
These exhibits are renovated annually so as to encourage visitors to make return visits to the centre.
Instead of the usual "Hands off" notices found in exhibition halls, visitors are invited to touch and feel
the exhibits, push the buttons, turn the cranks or pedals. This is an interesting way to learn science even if
you hate the subject. A Discovery Centre was built for children between the ages of three and twelve. This
new exhibition gallery was completed in 1985. Lately this year a stone-age exhibit was built. It shows us
about the animals and people which were extinct.
Question 13: What can be the best title of the passage?
A. Science Centre B. Discovery Centre C. Singapore Science Centre D. Physical Sciences
Question 14: The word It in paragraph 2 refers to______.
A. Solar radiation B. The general public C. Evolution D. The centre
Question 15: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about the Singapore Science
Centre?
A. The centre was not opened until 1977.
B. The centre is the first one to be established in the world.
C. Visitors are encouraged to return to the centre.
D. The exhibits in the centre cover a wide range of topics.
Question 16: What does the word renovated in paragraph 2 mostly mean?
A. shown B. upgraded C. changed D. painted
Question 17: What can visitors do in the Singapore Science Centre?
A. hate the subject B. build a new exhibition gallery
C. touch and feel the exhibits D. invite other guests
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 18 to 24.
We get great pleasure from reading. The more advanced a man is the greater delight he will find in
reading. The ordinary man may think that subjects like philosophy or science are very difficult and that if
philosophers and scientists read these subjects, it is not for pleasure. But this is not true. The mathematician
finds the same pleasure in his mathematics as the school boy in an adventure story. For both, it is a play of
the imagination, a mental recreation and exercise. The pleasure derived from this activity is common to all
kinds of reading. But different types of books give us different types of pleasure. First in order of popularity
is novel-reading. Novels contain pictures of imaginary people in imaginary situations, and give us an
opportunity of escaping into a new world very much like our world and yet different from it. Here we seem
to live a new life, and the experience of this new life gives us a thrill of pleasure. Next in order of popularity
are travel books, biographies and memoirs. These tell us tales of places we have not seen and of great men in
whom we are interested. Some of these books are as wonderful as novels, and they have an added value that
they are true.
Such books give us knowledge, and we also find immense pleasure in knowing details of lands we have
not seen and of great men we have only heard of. Reading is one of the greatest enjoyments of To book-
lovers, nothing is more fascinating than a favourite book. And, the ordinary educated man who is interested
and absorbed in his daily occupation wants to occasionally escape from his drudgery into the wonderland of
books for recreation and refreshment.
Question 18: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Reading as a pleasurable activity B. Different types of books
C. Reading as an exercise for the brain D. Different kinds of reading
Question 19: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Philosophers and scientists do not read for pleasure.
B. Ordinary people may think that philosophy and science are difficult.
C. Reading about mathematics is mentally entertaining for a mathematician.
D. A more advanced person takes greater pleasure in reading.
Question 20: The word derived in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. differed B. established C. obtained D. bought
Question 21: The word it in paragraph 1 refers to______.
A. a new life B. a thrill of pleasure C. our world D. an opportunity
Question 22: The word immense in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. personal B. great C. limited D. controlled
Question 23: According to the passage, travel books, biographies and memoirs_____.
A. tell stories of well-known places B. are less popular than novels
C. are more valuable than novels D. are wonderful novels
Question 24: Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. People can get not only knowledge but also pleasure from books.
B. Reading is the greatest enjoyments of life.
C. Nothing is more important than a good book.
D. People occasionally escape from their drudgery for recreation and refreshment.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 25: Although he knew very little about linguistics, he pretended_____ an expert in the field.
A. being B. to be C. been D. be
Question 26: I have left my book in______ kitchen and I would like you to get it for me.
A. the B. a C. an D.(no article)
Question 27: The report on the vulnerable species_________ by the research team tomorrow.
A. will be completed B. completed C. will complete D. is completing
Question 28: I think that he is______ than his opponent.
A. intelligent B. most intelligent C. more intelligent D. as intelligent
Question 29: These cats look immensely lovely,______?
A. are these B. are they C. don't they D. don’t these
Question 30: Luckily, they successfully_______ the fire and saved all of the children.
A. took out B. took off C. take off D. put out
Question 31: _____, she will buy her parents a new TV.
A. After she had received her salary B. Until she received her salary
C. When she receives her salary D. Once she received her salary
Question 32: Now that he's met the love of his life, he finally________ a chance at real happiness.
A. makes B. runs C. has D. keeps
Question 33: My grandmother_________ in the kitchen when she saw a mouse.
A. has cooked B. was cooking C. cooks D. is cooking
Question 34: The little girl______ with my son in the living room is my brother's daughter.
A. was played B. to play C. was playing D. playing
Question 35: Many people have objected to the use of animals in______ experiments.
A. scientific B. scientifically C. sciences D. scientist
Question 36: After Tom's boss had assessed his performance, he was offered a written______ of
employment.
A. certificate B. licence C. contract D. degree
Question 37: Environmental groups try to stop farmers from using harmful______ on their crops.
A. instruments B. lands C. investments D. chemicals
Question 38: This place is famous________ its beautiful landscape and friendly inhabitants.
A. with B. for C. to D. at
Question 39: When hearing the news, Tom tried his best to keep a________ on his surprise.
A. roof B. lid C. hat D. hood
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 40: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them look younger.
A. maximize B. worsen C. enrich D. improve
Question 41: Peter racked his brains, trying to find a solution to this Maths question.
A. damaged his brains B. operated his brains
C. thought very hard D. thought in a relaxing way
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 42: I don't pay attention to the teacher. I don't understand the lesson.
A. I would understand the lesson if I didn't pay attention to the teacher.
B. Although I pay attention to the teacher, I don't understand the lesson
C. Unless I understood the lesson, I would pay attention to the teacher.
D. I would understand the lesson if I paid attention to the teacher.
Question 43: Peter told us about his leaving the school. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. No sooner had Peter arrived at the meeting than he told us about his leaving the school.
B. Only after his leaving the school did Peter inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
C. Hardly had Peter informed us about his leaving the school when he arrived at the meeting.
D. Not until Peter told us that he would leave the school did he arrive at the meeting.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 44: I think it's impossible to abolish school examinations. They are necessary to evaluate students'
progress.
A. stop B. distinguish C. continue D. organise
Question 45: Tom is an outstanding player. He's won 3-matches in this year's tournament.
A. normal B. kind C. polite D. excellent
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 46 to 50.
WAVE POWER
Engineers are building machinery to harness the power of ocean waves. As an abundant source of clean
energy, wave power can be categorised along with (46)_______ sustainable energy sources, such as wind
and solar power.
Wave power is extracted by wave energy converters, or WECs, which are placed along ocean
(47)________ that produce strong waves. The first wave farm, (48)____ comprises three WECs, was built
off the coast of Portugal in 2008. It was set to produce over two megawatts of energy - enough to power
2,000 homes. Sadly, the project hit a stumbling block two months into (49)______ and has remained offline
ever since, demonstrating the high probability of technical difficulties that can still arise.
Engineers are continuing to build wave farms worldwide (50)_______it is worth cultivating the
extraction of wave power. The amount of power that could potentially be extracted is three terawatts-
enough for billions of homes and businesses.
Question 46: A. others B. every C. other D. another
Question 47: A. streams B. currents C. floods D. brooks
Question 48: A. which B. why C. who D. that
Question 49: A. operation B. presentation C. demonstration D. preparation
Question 50: A. because B. so C. but D. despite
PART F
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. kite B. pipe C. night D. miss
Question 2. A. garden B. gender C. dragon D. grapefruit
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. pursue B. believe C. argue D. involve
Question 4. A. elegant B. humorous C. respectful D. positive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5. The teacher read the boy’s essay, ______ ?
A. doesn’t she B. didn’t she C. isn’t she D. hasn’t she
Question 6. I don’t think this programme is ______ for children under 5.
A. suitable B. suit C. suitably D. suitability
Question 7. They will start the meeting ______ .
A. after every guest had arrived B. as soon as every guest arrives
C. before every guest arrived D. when every guest was arriving
Question 8. Sam was so disappointed ______ the test result that she cried all night long.
A. with B. on C. towards D. over
Question 9. We do not allow ______ in this private room.
A. to smoke B. to smoking C. smoke D. smoking
Question 10. The phone system ______ last Friday seems to work very smoothly.
A. to replace B. replacing C. replaced D. were replaced
Question 11. The man got his car ______ by a mechanic yesterday.
A. maintain B. maintained C. to maintain D. be maintained
Question 12. The explorer stumbled upon ______ treasure map in the abandoned temple.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 13. Van chose to work in Bangkok because job opportunities here are ______ than in other cities.
A. the better B. better C. the best D. good
Question 14. Bob ______ along the shady path when he saw an old friend.
A. was cycling B. has cycled C. is cycling D. would cycle
Question 15. The state government will ______ a new restriction on personal weapons.
A. stay over B. take off C. bring in D. put aside
Question 16. The company is able to ______ a competitive advantage over its rivals by launching a new
marketing strategy.
A. make B. stay C. gain D. take
Question 17. Their traditional ______ is Hanbok, often worn on special occasions.
A. costume B. style C. fashion D. uniform
Question 18. The book she wrote in collaboration with a noted researcher was a magnificent work of
______ .
A. reward B. scholarship C. grant D. award
Question 19. The journalist really put the singer on the ______ by asking him about the scandal last year.
A. corner B. kick C. spot D. field
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 20. Martin becomes more confident since he became a member of the reading club.
A B C D
Question 21. These figures are outdated; citing it in the research paper is valueless.
A B C D
Question 22. Some violent scenes in this film are not recommended for people of a nervous
A B
disposal because they can provoke extreme reactions.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 23. Ken and Bob are talking about the party.
- Ken: “Would you like to come to my birthday party this Sunday?”
- Bob: “ ______ . I’m free this weekend.”
A. Yes, I’d love to B. Never mind C. I’m so sorry D. No, thanks
Question 24. Minh and Lien are talking about jobs.
- Minh: “I believe that job satisfaction is one of the most important factors.”
- Lien: “ ______ . A happy day at work can result in greater productivity.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you B. That’s not entirely true.
C. I go along with you D. You must say that again
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 25. It's mandatory to take off your shoes when entering the temple.
A. You may take off your shoes when entering the temple.
B. You should take off your shoes when entering the temple.
C. You need to take off your shoes when entering the temple.
D. You must take off your shoes when entering the temple.
Question 26. The last time Trang used her passport was on the trip to Thailand.
A. Trang didn’t use her passport on the trip to Thailand.
B. Tim has used her passport since the trip to Thailand.
C. Tim will use her passport on the trip to Thailand.
D. Trang hasn’t used her passport since the trip to Thailand.
Question 27. “How was your interview yesterday?” asked Tim.
A. Tim asked me how was my interview the day before.
B. Tim asked me how my interview had been the previous day.
C. Tim asked me how had my interview been the day before.
D. Tim asked me how your interview had been the previous day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 28. Sam didn’t finish upper secondary education. Now he regrets it.
A. Sam regrets having finished upper secondary education.
B. Sam wishes he had finished upper secondary education.
C. If Sam finished upper secondary education, he wouldn’t regret it.
D. Unless Sam finishes upper secondary education, he will regret it.
Question 29. The storm last night was ferocious. It laid waste to the wooded area near my village.
A. Such was the ferocity of the storm last night that it laid waste to the wooded area near my village.
B. Not only did the storm last night lay waste to the wooded area near my village but it was also severe.
C. So dangerous was the storm last night that it didn’t lay waste to the wooded area near my village.
D. Only after the storm last night had become serious did it lay waste to the wooded area near my village.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30. A lot of people advocate that women should not be discriminated against at work on the
grounds of their sex.
A. oppose B. improve C. support D. distract
Question 31. Although I have read the instruction manual three times, I am none the wiser and cannot start
assembling the shelf.
A. find it easy to understand B. have to seek others’ help
C. refuse to get advice from others D. am unable to comprehend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 32. These tedious tasks are probably killing my creativity and motivation for the job.
A. rewarding B. boring C. bright D. relevant
Question 33. It's unbelievable that lazy Peter won a place at one of the top universities.
A. artificial B. vulnerable C. incredible D. unsurprising
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
WORKING FOR NOTHING?
One of the main reasons young people find employment is to make money, and that's important. But
have you ever considered doing voluntary work? You might think of it as 'working for nothing', but that's
definitely not the case! (34) ______ you won't see any financial reward for your work, you'll get a lot of (35)
______ from doing something for other people and for your community.
Volunteers do a wide variety of work. They might help to clean up an area in their own neighbourhood,
or go abroad and help people (36) ______ live in poverty in other countries. The skills they learn, the
experience they get and the friendships they (37) ______ are all things that volunteers gain from giving their
time to help (38) ______ people.
(Adapted from Optimise by Malcom Mann and Steve Taylore-Knowles)
Question 34. A. Since B. So C. But D. Although
Question 35. A. sympathy B. satisfaction C. entertainment D. prospect
Question 36. A. whom B. whose C. which D. who
Question 37. A. devote B. forge C. secure D. access
Question 38. A. much B. other C. a little D. each
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
You might think trash is just something you throw away. But some people have found creative ways to
turn trash into cash.
Trash made Cheung Yan one of the richest women in the world. Cheung Yan buys paper garbage in the
United States and sends it to her factories in China. In her factories, the paper becomes cardboard boxes.
Companies in China use her cardboard boxes to send products made in China, such as TVs and microwaves,
to Europe and the United States. When people in the United States throw the boxes away, Cheung Yan buys
them, and her trash-to-riches process starts all over again. Cheung Yan's company made $3.8 billion in
2011.
Collecting trash helped 14-year-old Willow Tufano buy a house. Willow collected things on the
sidewalk in her neighborhood that people didn't want anymore, items such as furniture and electronics. "It's
amazing the things they throw away," Willow said. If the items were broken, Willow fixed them. Then she
sold the items on the Internet. She earned $6,000 from her sales. Her mother added another $6,000, and
together they bought an inexpensive house in Port Charlotte, Florida. Willow continues to make money by
renting the house to tenants.
Question 39. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. Recycling Household Waste B. Streets Full of Garbage
C. Make a Fortune by Selling Old Items D. Trash to Cash
Question 40. According to paragraph 2, Cheung Yan ______ .
A. has her factories in many parts of the world B. earns money from waste by American people
C. is the wealthiest women in the world D. buys cardboard boxes because of low prices
Question 41. The word them in paragraph 2 refers to ______ .
A. companies B. products C. microwaves D. boxes
Question 42. The word fixed in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. repaired B. shared C. sold D. designed
Question 43. As stated in paragraph 3, how did Willow Tufano earn money?
A. She sold inexpensive items to her tenants. B. She became an online estate agent.
C. She bought old items from her neighbours. D. She collected products thrown away by others.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Are you addicted to technology? You probably think you aren't, but just take a minute to look more
closely at your daily life. Your mobile phone alarm wakes you up, and the first thing you do is check if you
have any new email messages, maybe even check the weather forecast so you can decide what to put on. On
the way to college, you pop in your MP3 player earbuds and listen to some music you downloaded the
previous night. Once at college, your teacher is using an interactive whiteboard. Some students are using
tablets to take notes. When the class has finished, you look at your mobile to see that your friend Lucy has
texted to tell you where everyone's meeting for lunch. Are you still so sure you could relinquish
technology?
Increasing numbers of people, however, are taking the decision to go technology free. This involves
making a concerted effort to remove all technological devices from their lives. Take Laura Jo Wegman and
Donovan Corliss. Not only have they got rid of the obvious technology, such as computers and TVs, they
have also modified their cooker to remove the LED display and have a rotary dial telephone. ‘I think TV and
internet and phones become such a time suck that people feel they don't have time for anything else,’
explains Corliss. He goes on to explain how much more time they have now. The family now play musical
instruments, make bread and even talk to each other! They say it's revolutionized their lives.
And this family isn't alone. The 'unplugging' movement is growing fast. Not everyone takes it as
seriously as Wegman and Corliss, but more and more people are adopting new approaches to technology.
For example, Tiffany Shlain pioneered the idea of having a technology-free day once a week, usually on a
Saturday. Shlain says that ‘It's definitely harder to make plans,’ as, instead of sending lots of texts, she needs
to make an arrangement and stick to it. And as Shlain points out, the quality of interaction with people who
aren't constantly checking their mobiles is much better.
Another popular activity is to take a digital detox retreat, a long weekend hiking out in the countryside
with no gadgets. It allows you to develop the skill of finding your way without Google Maps, and seeing the
beauty of nature without having to take a digital photograph of it. So why not try reverting back to a tech-
free world, even if just for a while? And, if you can't even imagine kicking the habit, ask yourself if you
really aren't addicted.
Question 44. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. ‘Unplugging’ from Technology: A Passing Fad B. The Paradox of Internet Addiction
C. Living without Technology D. No Technology, No Life!
Question 45. According to paragraph 1, what is indicated about people addicted to technology?
A. They are obsessed with email messages and weather forest reports.
B. They typically use MP3 to listen to some downloaded music.
C. They tend to use tablets for a chat while their teachers are lecturing.
D. Their everyday activities are connected with modern technology.
Question 46. The word relinquish in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by ______ .
A. stop using B. remain loyal to C. be addicted to D. invest in
Question 47. The word concerted in paragraph 2 mostly means ______.
A. partial B. valuable C. determined D. complex
Question 48. The word it in paragraph 3 refers to ______ .
A. week B. arrangement C. quality D. text
Question 49. Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. A growing number of people are trying to get rid of technological devices from their lives.
B. The Wegman-Corliss family is the first one to adopt a lifestyle without modern technology.
C. Tiffany Shlain typically has a day without using technology at the beginning of the week.
D. Google Maps can’t be used appropriately for a long journey to some mountainous areas.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Taking photographs of nature has always been part of a long journey to exotic places.
B. The Wegman-Corliss family didn’t use to have a conversation with each other regularly.
C. Tiffany Shlain will ultimately go back to a tech-free world to improve her quality of life.
D. It’s impossible to remove technological devices because they are necessary for our lives.