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TÀI LIỆU ĐI KÈM BÀI GIẢNG

RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ MÔI TRƯỜNG (1)
Thuộc khóa học : Plus 2
Luyện đọc hiểu và điền từ chuyên sâu

Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương

Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct

ht
or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in

tp
vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become
extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused

s:/
almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain
but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of

/th
extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of
the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival
– and the survival of our planet.

an
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in

hv
an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then
charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend

ien
on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect
the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of

kh
products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent
animals from being hunted and killed.

oa
Question 1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Problems with industrialization
B. The Bengal tiger
C. International boycott
ho
D. Endangered species

A. distressing B. dangerous C. serious

c .ne
Question 2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “alarming” in paragraph 1?
D. gripping
Question 3. Which of the following could best replace the word “case” as used in paragraph 1?
A. trade B. contrast C. situation D. act
Question 4. The word “poachers” as used in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the
t
following?
A. concerned scientists B. trained hunters
C. illegal hunters D. enterprising researchers
Question 5. The word “callousness” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. indirectness B. independence
C. incompetence D. insensitivity
Question 6. The previous passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast.
A. specific and general information B. a comparison and a contrast
C. a problem and a solution D. a statement and an illustration

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Question 7. What does the word “this” in paragraph 1 refer to in the passage?
A. Interest in material gain B. Killing animals for personal gratification
C. Bengal tigers D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
Question 8. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in paragraph 2?
A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
Question 9. What does the term “international boycott” in paragraph 2 refers to?
A. Buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. A refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. A global increase in animal survival
D. Defraying the cost of maintaining national parks

ht
Question 10. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?

tp
A. forgiving B. surprised C. vindictive D. concerned
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.

s:/
Humans are bringing about another global-scale change in the atmosphere: the increase in what are
called greenhouse gases. Like glass in a greenhouse, these gases admit the Sun's light but tend to reflect

/th
back downward the heat that is radiated from the ground below, trapping heat in the Earth's atmosphere.
This process is known as the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the most significant of these gases –

an
there is 25 percent more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today than there was a century ago, the result
of our burning coal and fuels derived from oil. Methane, nitrous oxide, and CFCs are greenhouse gases
as well.
hv
Scientists predict that increases in these gases in the atmosphere will make the Earth a warmer place.

ien
They expect a global rise in average temperature somewhere between 1.0 and 3.5 degrees Celsius in the
next century. Average temperatures have in fact been rising and the years from 1987 to 1997 were the

kh
warmest years on record. Some scientists are reluctant to say that global warming has actually begun
because climate naturally varies from year to year and decade to decade, and it takes many years of records

oa
to be sure of a fundamental change. There is little disagreement, though, that global warming is
looming. Global warming will have different effects in different regions. A warmed world is expected to

ho
have more extreme weather, with more rain during wet periods, longer droughts, and more powerful
storms. Although the effects of future climate changes are unknown, some predict that exaggerated

c
weather conditions may translate into better agricultural yields in areas such as the western United States,

.ne
where temperature and rainfall are expected to increase, while dramatic decreases in rainfall may lead to
severe droughts and plunging agricultural yields in parts of Africa, for example. Warmer temperatures

the year 2050. A sea level rise of this magnitude would flood coastal cities, force people to abandon t
are expected to partially melt the polar ice caps, leading to a projected sea level rise of 50 centimeters by

lowlying islands, and completely inundate coastal wetlands. Diseases like malaria, which at present are
primarily found in the tropics, may become more common in the regions of the globe between the tropics
and the polar regions, called the temperate zones. For many of the world's plant species, and for animal
species that are not easily able to shift their territories as their habitat grows warmer, climate change may
bring extinction.
Question 1. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Global Warming: Problems and Solution
B. Global Warming: Advantages and Disadvantages
C. Global Warming: Future Reactions
D. Global Warming: Possible Causes and Effects

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Question 2. According to paragraph 1, which of the following factors causes an increase in

greenhouse gases?
A. Glass in a greenhouse B. Humans
C. Carbon dioxide D. Solar radiation
Question 3. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to
A. scientists B. temperatures C. gases D. increases
Question 4. The word "looming" in paragraph 2 probably means
A. fading B. showing C. ending D. appearing
Question 5. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Few scientists agree that global warming is looming.

ht
B. Global climate naturally changes over time.

tp
C. Changes in climate are not easy to be documented.
D. Some scientists are not sure that global warming has begun.

s:/
Question 6. The word "plunging" in paragraph 3 probably means
A. improving B. increasing C. preventing D. decreasing

/th
Question 7. What may be the benefit of exaggerated weather conditions for the western United
States?

an
A. Minimal natural disasters
B. Higher agricultural production

hv
C. Decrease in rainfall during wet periods
D. Favourable weather conditions

B. Informative ien
Question 8. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
A. Sarcastic C. Ironic D. Argumentative

kh
oa
ho
c .ne
t

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TÀI LIỆU ĐI KÈM BÀI GIẢNG

THI ONLINE : CHỦ ĐỀ MÔI TRƯỜNG ( ĐỀ SỐ 01)
Thuộc khóa học : Plus 2
Luyện đọc hiểu và điền từ chuyên sâu

Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương

Read the following passage and mark the letter А, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 10.

htAlthough noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is
very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective

tp
and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to

s:/
higher levels may actually cause hearing loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced
as a by-product of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm, and distracts from

/th
the quality of life for those who are exposed to it.
Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is,
therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection. Noise causes effects that the

an
hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal

hv
danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and
respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general

ien
increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of
these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound
has ceased.

kh
Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in a same
way that we would response to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response

oa
may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and

ho
well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long
known that hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that

c
some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of health as well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend

.ne
to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In
addition, the psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety

as well as the way that we interact with each other.

Question 1. Which of the following is the author’s main point?
t
increase, affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during walking hours,

A. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.
B. Loud noises signal danger.
C. Hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem.
D. The ear is not like the eye.
Question 2. According to the passage, what is noise?
A. Unwanted sound B. A by-product of technology
C. Physical and psychological harm D. Congestion
Question 3. Why is noise difficult to measure?
A. It causes hearing loss. B. All people do not respond to it in the same way.
C. It is unwanted. D. People become accustomed to it.

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Question 4. The word “congested” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ________

A. hazardous B. polluted C. crowded D. rushed
Question 5. The word “by-product” as used in the passage is closest in meaning to ________
A. a necessary product B. a product that is always by your side
C. an unexpected result D. something that is produced by environmental pollution
Question 6. It can be inferred from the passage that the eye ________.
A. responds to fear B. enjoys greater protection than the ear
C. increases functions D. is damaged by noise
Question 7. According to the passage, people respond to loud noise in the same way that they respond to
________.

ht
A. annoyance B. disease C. damage D. danger

tp
Question 8. The word accelerate in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________
A. decrease B. alter C. increase D. release

s:/
Question 9. The word it in the first paragraph refers to ________
A. the noise B. the quality of life C. advancing technology D. a by-product

/th
Question 10. With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?
A. Noise is sometimes annoying.

an
B. Noise is America’s number one problem.
C. Noise is an unavoidable problem in an industrial society.
D. Noise is a complex problem.
hv
Read the following passage and mark the letter А, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the

ien
correct answer to each of the questions from 11 to 20.
The response of most animals when suddenly faced with predator is to flee. Natural selection has acted

kh
in a variety of ways in different species to enhance the efficacy of the behaviors, known as “flight
behaviors” or escape behaviors that are used by prey in fleeing predators. Perhaps the most direct
adaptation is enhanced flight speed and agility.
oa
Adaptations for speed, however, are likely to require sacrifices biter attributes, so we might expect

ho
only some species to adopt a simple fast flight strategy. Another way of enhancing the effectiveness of
flight is to move in an erratic and unpredictable way. Many species, like ptarmigans, snipes, and various

c
antelopes and gazelles, flee from predators in a characteristic zigzag fashion. Rapid unexpected changes

.ne
in flight direction make it difficult for a predator to track prey. In some species, like the European hare,
erratic zigzag flight might be more effective in the presence of predators that are faster than they are and
straight flight more effective against predators that are slower. One observation that supports this
suggestion is the recorded tendency for slow-flying black-headed show frequent changes in flight
direction when they spot a peregrine falcon (peregrines are adept at capturing flying birds).
t
A quite different way of enhancing escape by flight is to use so-called “flash” behavior. Here, the
alarmed prey flees for a short distance and then “freezes.” Some predators are unexcited by immobile
prey, and a startling flash of activity followed by immobility may confuse them. “Flash” behavior is used
in particular by frogs and orthopteran insects which make conspicuous jumps and then sit immobile. In
some species, “flash” behavior is enhanced by the display of bright body markings. Good examples of
insects with the colorful markings are the red and yellow under-wing moths. At rest, both species are a
cryptic brown color. When they fly, however, brightly colored hind wings are exposed, which render the
moths highly conspicuous. Similarly, some frogs and lizards have brightly colored patches or frills that
may serve a “flash” function when they move quickly. Some species even appear to possess “flash”

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sounds. The loud buzzing and clicking noises made by some grasshoppers when they jump may serve to
emphasize the movement.
Question 11. The word “enhance” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. encourage B. resist C. increase D. reveal
Question 12. The description of the prey’s movement as “zigzag” suggests that the movement is
________
A. reliable B. fast C. constant D. unpredictable
Question 13. It can be inferred from the passage that the European hare ________.
A. is faster than most of its predators B. is capable of two kinds of flight
C. is more likely to escape using straight flight D. is preyed upon by gulls and falcons

ht
Question 14. The behavior of black-beaded gulls is most comparable to that of ________.

tp
A. gazelles B. European hares
C. peregrine falcons D. frogs

s:/
Question 15. It can be inferred that black-beaded gulls change direction when they spot a peregrine falcon
for which of the following reasons?

/th
A. The falcons are faster than the gulls.
C. The falcons are unpredictable.
B. The gulls want to capture the falcons.
D. The gulls depend on the falcons for protection.

an
Question 16. The word “alarmed” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. moving B. selected C. frightened D. exhausted

hv
Question 17. All of the following are mentioned as characteristics of “flash” behavior EXCEPT
________.
A. brief conspicuous activity
C. bright body markings ien
B. immobility
D. aggressive fighting

kh
Question 18. The phrase “in particular” is closest in meaning to ________.
A. especially B. with difficulty C. expertly D. frequently

oa
Question 19. The hind wings of red and yellow under-wing moths function in a way that is most similar
to _________.
A. the hind wings of peregrine falcons
C. the colored patches on frogs ho
B. the zigzag flight of European hares
D. the clicking of grasshoppers
Question 20. Why does the author mention “grasshopper” in the last line?
A. To contrast animals that “flash” with animals that “freeze”
B. As an example of an animal whose “flash” behavior is a sound
c .ne
C. To compare the jumping behavior of insects and reptiles
D. As an example of a predator that moths escape by using “flash” behavior t
Read the following passage and mark the letter А, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 21 to 28
For many people, mushroom are strange, colorless, incomprehensible plants that should be avoided.
Quaint tales and scary stories surround mushrooms become some are extremely poisonous. In reality,
however, mushrooms are fungi that are simple plants without developed roots, leaves, stems, flowers, or
seeds. They grow in wetlands, grassy meadows, and woods. Certain types of mushrooms are delicious
and are included as ingredients in many recipes and trendy snacks. For example, morels are considered
one of the choicest foods, and truffles, related to morels, are highly prized in Europe. Their shape is tube-
like, and they remain entirely underground, a foot or more below the surface. In the old days, dogs and
pigs were specially trained to hunt them by scent.

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Mushrooms stand out among other plants because they have no chlorophyll and cannot generate their
own nourishment. The part of the fungus that rises above the ground is the fruiting body, and the
vegetative part that produces growth is hidden under the ground. It can be usually dug up in the form of
dense, white tangled filaments, which, depending on the food supply and moisture, can live for hundreds
of years. In fact, mushrooms, as well as the rest of the fungus genus species, are one of the few remaining
simple plants that are believed to be among the oldest living organisms. When their environment is not
conductive to growth, filaments stop proliferating and can lie dormant for dozens of years.
Although mushrooms are rich in flavor and texture, they have little food value. Picking mushrooms
requires a thorough knowledge of environments where they are most likely to grow and an ability to tell
between edible and poisonous plants. Most mushrooms thrive in temperatures from 680 to 860 (F) with

ht
plenty of moisture, and nearly complete darkness produces the best crop. The entire mushroom should be

tp
picked, the stem, the cap, and whatever part that is underground. Brightly colored mushroom caps usually
indicate that the plant is not fit for consumption, and the more the mushroom attracts attention, the more

s:/
poisonous it is. Mushrooms with beautiful red or orange spotted caps that grow under large trees after a
good rain are particularly poisonous. If milky or white juices seep from a break in the body of plant,

/th
chances are it should not be picked. Old mushrooms with brown caps are also not very safe.
Question 21. The word “quaint” is closest in meaning to ________.

an
A. convoluted B. fanciful C. irritating D. perfunctory
Question 22. The word “trendy” is closest meaning to ________
A. tender B. experimental
hv C. fashionable D. trusted
Question 23. With which of the following statements is the author of the passage most likely to agree?

ien
A. In the old days, when the food was scarce, people chose mushrooms as food.
B. Mushrooms should be treated as all other plants.

kh
C. Because they are poisonous, people should stay away from mushrooms.
D. Mushrooms have different forms of roots, stems, and leaves.

B. fruiting bodies C. nourishment oa

Question 24. It can be inferred from the passage that mushrooms multiply mostly by means of _________.
A. moisture D. root systems
Question 25. The word “Their” refers to ________
A. morels B. foods C. truffles ho
D. morels and truffles
Question 26. The word “tell” is closest in meaning to ________
A. narrate B. distinguish C. say D. see c
Question 27. What does the author of the passage imply about brightly colored mushrooms? .ne
A. They are beautiful.
C. They attract attention.
B. They should not be eaten.
D. They should be destroyed.
Question 28. The author of the passage implies that mushrooms _________.
t
A. have been known since ancient times
B. are a relatively recent form of plants
C. cannot survive without a good environment
D. have been carefully analyzed

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TÀI LIỆU ĐI KÈM BÀI GIẢNG

THI ONLINE : CHỦ ĐỀ MÔI TRƯỜNG ( ĐỀ SỐ 02)
Thuộc khóa học : Plus 2
Luyện đọc hiểu và điền từ chuyên sâu

Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương

Read the following passage and mark the letter А, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.

htAlgae is a primitive form of life, a single-celled or simple multiple-celled organism that is able to
conduct the process of photosynthesis. It is generally found in water but can also be found elsewhere,

tp
growing on such surfaces as rocks or trees. The various types of algae are classified according to pigment.

s:/
Blue-green algae, or Cyanophyta, can grow at very high temperatures and under high-intensity light. This
is a microscopic type of algae, and some species consist of only one cell. Blue-green algae is the oldest

/th
form of life with photosynthetic capabilities, and fossilized remains of this type of algae more than 3.4
billion years old have been found in parts of Africa.
Green algae, or Chlorophyta, is generally found in fresh water. It reproduces on the surfaces of enclosed

an
bodies of water such as ponds or lakes and has the appearance of a fuzzy green coating on the water. In

hv
large quantities, this type of algae may reproduce enough to give a green color to an entire lake.Brown
algae, or Phaeophyta, grows in shallow, temperate water. This type of algae is the largest in size and is

ien
most recognizable as a type of seaweed; kelp is a type of brown algae that has grown to lengths of up to
200 feet. Its long stalks can be enmeshed on the ocean floor, or it can float freely on the ocean’s surface.
Red algae, or Rhodophyta, is a small, delicate organism found in the deep waters of the subtropics, where

kh
it often grows with coral. This type of algae has an essential role in the formation of coral reefs: it secretes
lime from the seawater to foster the formation of limestone deposits.

oa (Source: TOEFL Reading)

Question 1. What is the author’s main purpose?
A. To show what color algae is ho
B. To differentiate the various classifications of algae
C. To describe where algae is found
Question 2. Which of the following is NOT true about algae?
A. All types have only one cell. B. It can be found out of water.
c
D. To clarify the appearance of different types of algae

.ne
C. It can use photosynthesis.

A. size B. composition
D. It is not a relatively new form of life.
Question 3. The word “pigment” in the passage means _______ .
C. shape D. color
t
Question 4. The word “microscopic” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. visual B. mechanical C. tiny D. bacterial
Question 5. Algae remnants found in Africa are _______.
A. still flourishing B. extremely old
C. photogenic D. red in color
Question 6. Green algae is generally found _______.
A. on the ocean floor B. in fresh water
C. throughout ponds and lakes D. surrounding enclosed bodies of water

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Question 7. According to the passage, red algae is _______.

A. sturdy B. fragile C. huge D. found in shallow water
Question 8. This passage would most probably be assigned reading in a course on _______.
A. chemistry B. botany C. physics D. zoology
Read the following passage and mark the letter А, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 9 to 15.
Fungi are a group of organisms that, despite being plants, have no leaves or flowers. In fact, fungi do
not even share the green colour that most other plants display. Scientists estimate that there are over 1.5
million different species of fungi in the world. Though, to date, only 100.000 have been identified, leaving
many more that have not been found. One interesting feature of fungi is that they often interact with oilier

ht
organisms in order to survive. These relationships are at times beneficial to both organisms. Other times,

tp
the fungus benefits without causing harm to the other organism.
Many types of fungus have beneficial relationships with plants. Initially many gardeners would be

s:/
concerned to know that their plants were colonised by a fungus. This is because some fungi can cause
plants to die. In fact, the Irish potato famine was caused by a fungus that killed entire crops of potatoes.

/th
However, many plants actually depend on certain types of fungi to help it stay healthy. Fungi are important
to plants because they help plants absorb more minerals from the soil than they could on their own. The

an
reason for this has to do with how fungi obtain food. Unlike green plants, fungi cannot make their own
food. They must absorb their food. When the fungi absorb minerals from the soil, they draw the nutrients

hv
closer to the roots of the plants, so the plant is able to use them as well. The fungus also benefits from this
relationship. Using the minerals from the soil, as well as sunlight, the plants is able to produce sugars and

ien
other nutrients. Then the fungus absorbs the nutrients from plant roots and uses them to survive.
Not all relationships are beneficial for both organisms: in some interactions, only the fungus benefits.

kh
Still, for some fungus species, contact with other organisms is essential. And though the fungi do not
provide any benefits for the other organism, they do not harm it either. One example of this is a species

oa
called Pilobolus. This fungus relies on other animals to help it reproduce. The Pilobolus grows in animal
dung. When it becomes mature, it shoots its spores away from the dung pile. The spores land in the grass

ho
where cows graze. The spores are consumed by the animal but do not grow while inside the stomach.
They travel through the body of the animal until they are passed and deposited in another area, where they
continue to grow.
Question 9. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that ________
A. Many species of fungi have yet to be discovered
c .ne
B. Fungi do harm to the organism they interact with
C. Fungi can have green or dull brown colors
D. There are 100,000 species of fungi left no identity
t
Question 10. The word "absorb" in the passage 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. consume B. get in C. deprive D. take in
Question 11. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is not true about fungus growing on or
near plants?
A. It can help maintain in the plant’s health
B. It neither benefits nor harms the plant
C. It is sometimes dangerous for plants
D. It grows near the roots of the plant

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Question 12. The word "them" in the passage 2 refers to ________.

A. minerals B. plant roots C. fungi D. nutrients
Question 13. The author discusses cows and horses in paragraph 3 in order to ______.
A. illustrate how fungus can be harmful
B. explain how a type of fungus reproduces
C. give examples of animals that eat fungu
D. show that fungus can be found anywhere
Question 14. According to the passage 3, Pilobolus fungus ________.
A. doesn’t benefit from its relationship with animals
B. needs other organisms in order to reproduce

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C. matures inside the stomachs of cows and horses

tp
D. causes horses and cows to become ill
Question 15. The word "graze" in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.
A. eat
s:/ B. live C. view D. grow
Read the following passage and mark the letter А, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the

/th
correct answer to each of the questions from 16 to 23.
Birds that feet in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting communally

an
are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to
keep warm at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered, roost.

hv
Solitary roosters shelter indense vegetation or enter a cavity - horned larks dig holes in the ground and
ptarmigan burrow into snow banks - but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling

ien
together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the
surface area exposed to the cold air, so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together

kh
were found to reduce their heat losses by a quarter, and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as "information centers”. During the

oa
day, parties of birds will have spread out to feed over a very large area. When they return in the evening
some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that

ho
when the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear
to follow those that did. The behavior of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding

c
behaviors of similar birds with different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in

.ne
a small, familiar hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area.
The common kestrel roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so
one bird can learn from others where to find insect swarms.
t
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at
any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that
mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees
can be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it
easier to catch small birds perching at the margins of the roost.
Question 16. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How birds find and store food
B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter
C. Why birds need to establish territory
D. Why some species of birds nest together

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Question 17. The word "conserve" is closest in meaning to ________.

A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
Question 18. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by ________.
A. building nests in trees B. huddling together on the ground with other birds
C. digging tunnels into the snow D. burrowing into dense patches of vegetatiotnir
Question 19. The word "magnified" in line 6 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. combined B. caused C. modified D. intensified
Question 20. The author mentions kinglets in line 9 as an example of birds that ______.
A. nest together for warmth B. usually feed and nest in pairs
C. protect themselves by nesting in holes D. nest with other species of birds

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Question 21. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?

tp
A. The common kestrel nests in larger §ocks than does the lesser kestrel.
B. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.

s:/
C. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.
D. The common kestrel nests in trees; the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.

/th
Question 22. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the
passage?

an
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.
B. Food supplies are quickly depleted.

hv
C. Some birds in the group will attack the others.
D. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are.

B. mass roosts ien

Question 23. The word "they" in the third paragraph refers to ________.
A. a few birds C. predators D. trees

kh
oa
ho
c .ne
t

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ MÔI TRƯỜNG (2)

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 3. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Global warming could cause drought and possibly famine in China, the source of much of Hong Kong’s
food, by 2050, a new report predicts. Hong Kong could also be at risk from flooding as sea levels rose.
The report recommends building sea-walls around low-lying areas such as the new port and airport
reclamations. Published by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), the report, which includes work by

ht
members of the Chinese Academy of Meteorological Sciences, uses the most recent projections on
climate change to point to a gloomy outlook for China.

tp
By 2050, about 30 to 40 per cent of the country will experience changes in the type of vegetation it

s
supports, with tropical and subtropical forest conditions shifting northward and hot desert conditions

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rising in the west where currently the desert is temperate. Crop-growing areas will expand but any benefit
is expected to be negated by increased evaporation of moisture, making it too dry to grow crops such as

th
rice. The growing season also is expected to alter, becoming shorter in southern and central China, the
mainland’s breadbasket. The rapid changes make it unlikely that plants could adapt.

an
“China will produce smaller crops. In the central and northern areas, and the southern part, there will be
decreased production because of water limitations”, Dr. Rik Leemans, one of the authors of the report,

hv
said during a brief visit to the territory yesterday. Famine could result because of the demands of feeding
the population - particularly if it grows - and the diminished productivity of the land. “It looks very

ien
difficult for the world as a whole”, he said.
Global warming is caused by the burning of large amounts of fossil fuels, such as coal and oil, which

k
release gases that trap heal in the atmosphere. World temperatures already have increased this century by

ho
about 6 degrees Celsius and are projected to rise by between 1.6 degrees and 3.8 degrees by 2100.
Dr. Leemans said China’s reliance on coal-fired power for its industrial growth did not bode well for the

a
world climate. “I think the political and economic powers in China are much greater than the

ho
environmental powers, and [greenhouse gas emissions] could accelerate,” Dr. Leemans said. “China is
not taking the problem seriously yet, although it is trying to incorporate this kind of research to see what
is going to happen.”

c.n
The climate change repot, which will be released tomorrow, focuses on China but Mr. David Melville of

et
WWF-Hong Kong said some of the depressing scenarios could apply to the territory. Food supplies, for
instance, could be affected by lower crop yields. “Maybe we could afford to import food from elsewhere
but you have to keep in mind that the type of changes experienced in southern China will take place
elsewhere as well,” he said. Sea levels could rise as glaciers melted and the higher temperatures expanded
the size of the oceans, threatening much of developed Hong Kong which is built on reclaimed land.
Current projections are that sea levels worldwide will rise by 15 to 90 centimetres by 2100, depending on
whether action is taken to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
“Hong Kong has substantial areas built on reclaimed land and sea level rises could impact on that, not
only on Chek Lap Kok but the West Kowloon Reclamation and the Central and Western Reclamation -
the whole lot,” Mr. Melville said, adding that sea walls would be needed. Depleted fresh water supplies
would be another problem because increased evaporation would reduce levels. Mr. Melville said the
general outlook could be helped if Hong Kong used water less wastefully and encouraged energy
efficiency to reduce fuel-burning. He also called on the West to help China improve its efficiency.

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Question 1. Overall, what sort of picture is painted of the future effects of global warming?
A. relatively optimistic
B. on balance things are going to be satisfactory
C. potentially disastrous
D. disastrous

ht
Question 2. What is this passage?

tp
A. a preview of a report

s
B. a report

://
C. an article describing a response to a report

th
D. an article previewing a report

an
Question 3. Mr. David Melville suggests that in future more food could be imported into Hong
Kong. He thinks these measures could be
hv
ien
A. inefficient B. efficient C. insufficient D. sufficient

k
Question 4. The main point of paragraph 3 is to describe:
A. effects of changes in the climate of China on the growing season.
ho
a
B. future changes in the climate of China.
C. projected future changes in the climate of China.
ho
c.n
D. effects of changes in the climate of China on food production.

Question 5. The main point of paragraph 5 is to describe:

A. global warming.
B. the effects of global warming.
et
C. the causes and effects of global warming.
D. the causes and projected effects of global warming.

Question 6. Why does the writer add the information in square brackets in paragraph 5?
A. because, although they are not part of the original quote, the additional information given is necessary
to understand the statement.

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B. because the writer is quoting from another source.

C. because the quote is from a second language user whose command of English is not perfect.
D. because the writer wants to emphasize the meaning of these words.

Question 7. In paragraph 7, which point is Mr. Melville NOT making?

ht
A. suggesting that there is a potential disaster in Hong Kong.
B. criticising current safeguards.

tp
C. making a call for action.

s ://
D. suggesting that reclamation areas arc at risk.

th
Question 8. How would you describe the Dr. Leeman’s attitude towards China?

an
A. admiring. B. mainly favourable.
C. supportive in theory. D. critical.

hv
Question 9. In paragraph 2, “negated” is closest in meaning to
A. reduced
ien
B. made ineffective C. made possible D. paid for

k ho
Question 10. In paragraph 7, “depleted” could be replaced by which of the following?

a
A. decaying B. decimated C. reduced D. poor

ho
c.n
Exercise 4. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
In this era of increased global warming and diminishing fossil fuel supplies, we must begin to put a

et
greater priority on harnessing alternative energy sources. Fortunately, there are a number of readily
available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth – friendly. Two such resources are
solar power and geothermal power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could meet the needs of
worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through the use of
photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes are
equipped with solar electric systems in the form of solar panels or solar roof tiles. And in other parts of
the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal power,
which creates energy by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and steam that are
trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which is produces

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electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of fossil fuel
resources. And as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is fairly simple.
A prime example of effective geothermal use is in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity where
over 80 percent of private homes are heated by geothermal power. Solar and geothermal energy are just
two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy sources. The time is long overdue to
invest in the development and use of alternative energy on global scale.
Question 1. What is the main topic of this passage?

ht
A. The benefits of solar and wind power over conventional energy sources.

tp
B. How energy resources are tapped from nature.

s
C. Two types of alternative energy sources that should be further utilized.

://
D. Examples of the use of energy sources worldwide.
Question 2. According to the passage, why should we consider using alternative energy sources?

th
A. Because fossil fuels are no longer available.

an
B. Because global warming has increased the amount of sunlight that reaches the earth.

hv
C. Because they are free and available worldwide.
D. Because conventional energy resources are being depleted, and they cause environmental damage.

ien
Question 3. Which of the following words could best replace the word “harnessing”?

k
A. Capturing
B. Harassing
ho
a
C. Depleting
D. Exporting
ho
Question 4. According to the passage, what can be inferred about solar roof tiles?
A. They are being used in many undeveloped countries.
c.n
B. They can convert geothermal energy to electricity.
C. They are more expensive than solar panels.
D. They contain photovoltaic cells.
et
Question 5. According to the passage, how is solar energy production similar to geothermal energy
production?
A. They both require the use of a generator.
B. They both use heat from the earth’s surface.
C. They both require fairly simple technology.
D. They are both conventional and costly.

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Question 6. Where is the best place in the passage to insert the following sentence: “Although the US
is not utilizing geothermal resources to this extent, the Western US has a similar capacity to generate
geothermal power”?
A. after the phrase “earth-friendly”
B. after the phrase “growing steadily”
C. after the phrase “by geothermal power”

ht
D. after the phrase “global scale”

tp
Question 7. According to the passage, which of the following is true about solar power?
A. There is very little of it available in Iceland.

s ://
B. It is being used in 100, 000 private homes worldwide.
C. It is 6,000 times more powerful than energy from fossil fuels.

th
D. There is enough of it to far exceed the energy needs of the world.

an
Question 8. What can be inferred about the use of geothermal energy in Iceland?

hv
A. It is widely used form of energy for heating homes.
B. Twenty percent of the geothermal energy created is used to heat businesses.
C. It is not effective for use in private homes.
ien
D. It is 80 times more effective than traditional forms of energy.

k ho
Question 9. What does the author imply about alternative energy sources?
A. Many different types of alternative energy sources exist.
B. Most alternative energy sources are too impractical for private use.
a
C. Alternative energy is too expensive for developing countries to produce. ho
D. Solar and geothermal energy are the effective forms of alternative power
Question 10. What best describes the author’s purpose in writing the passage?
c.n
A. To warn people about the hazards of fossil fuel use.
B. To describe the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy use.
et
C. To convince people of the benefits of developing alternative energy sources.
D. To outline the problems and solutions connected with global warming.

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Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.

Dockside Green
The green movement is catching on in many pockets of the world. This is especially true in the
construction industry. Today's buzz words, which include global warming and zero emissions, are causing
everyday people (not just celebrities) to look for ways to reduce their carbon footprint. Purchasing an
environmentally-friendly home is a good investment for those who are concerned about their own health
and the well-being of our planet. Based on this trend, entire districts, known as eco-communities, are

ht
being designed with green initiatives in mind. One of these communities is

tp
Dockside Green in the Canadian province of British Columbia. Its goal is to become the world's first
zero-emission neighbourhood.

s
Dockside Green is a mostly self-sufficient community along the harbour front of Victoria, the capital

://
city of British Columbia. The community is home to around 2,500 people and includes residential, office,
and retail space. It includes a variety of environmental features, some of which are unprecedented.

th
The planners and builders of Dockside Green have the environment in mind with every choice they make.

an
They ensure proper ventilation and guarantee residents clean air indoors. Interior and exterior building
materials, such as paints and wood, are natural and non-toxic. One of these is bamboo which is used
because it's very durable and can be grown without the use of dangerous pesticides.

hv
Energy efficiency is one of the top priorities in eco-communities like Dockside Green. Not only

ien
do energy-efficient appliances
and light fixtures reduce the environmental impact of heating, cooking and lighting, they also save
residents money. Dockside Green claims that home owners use 55% less energy than the average

k
Canadian. Though many residents are sharing space by investing in condo-style living, they have their

ho
own individual utility metres for electricity and gas. Studies show that people use around 20% less energy
when they are billed for exactly what they use.

a ho
Eco-communities also take the future into account by recycling waste and reducing carbon
emissions. At Dockside Green, waste water is treated and reused on-site for flushing toilets, and a
biomass gas plant converts waste wood into a renewable form of gas for hot water systems, stoves and

c.n
gas heaters. The community also reduces carbon emissions by using local suppliers for all their transport
and maintenance needs, and residents are encouraged to use a mini transit system and join the

et
community's car share program.
The first two stages of development at Dockside Green were completed in 2011, and additional
plans to increase sustainability are in the works. Similar green communities are now found all over the
world, especially smaller ones known as ecovillages or "intentional communities". Most have 50 to 150
residents, all of whom are trying to reduce their carbon footprints and create a model for sustainable
living in the future.
Question 1. You can reduce your carbon footprint by _______ less.
A. walking
B. driving
C. talking

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Question 2. By reducing your carbon footprint, you are helping to _______ the problem of global
warming.
A. create
B. worsen
C. solve
Question 3. Which aimed to become one of the world's first zero-emission neighbourhoods?

ht
A. British Columbia

tp
B. Victoria

s
C. Dockside Green

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Question 4. People live in eco-communities because they're concerned about _______ issues.

th
A. environmental
B. buzz word
C. investment
an
hv
Question 5. The builders of Dockside Green only used non-toxic _________.

ien
A. residents
B. building materials
C. bamboo
Question 6. Which can save you money? k ho
a
A. environmental impacts
B. energy-efficient appliances
ho
c.n
C. higher energy prices
Question 7. What's used to flush toilets at Dockside Green?
A. toxic waste
B. carbon emissions
C. treated waste water
et
Question 8. What does the biomass plant at Dockside Green produce?
A. gas
B. electricity
C. stoves and heaters
Question 9. Smaller eco-communities are sometimes called ecovillages or _______ communities.

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A. inefficient
B. intentional
C. international
Question 10. Who would be most likely to support the development of eco-communities?
A. climate scientists

ht
B. fossil fuel companies
C. coal mining investors

tp
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.

s ://
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in
such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a
very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established

th
in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or
smelled - a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has

an
developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air
pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapour might be considered an air pollutant under
certain conditions.

hv
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen

ien
oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by
various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air
purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global

k
basis, nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.

ho
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region, human

a
output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The

ho
result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the
adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the
absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant;

c.n
in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents
over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable
health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon
et
monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches
about 15 pm.
Question 11. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution.
B. What constitutes an air pollutant.
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause.
D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
Question 12. The word “adversely” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

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A. negatively
B. quickly
C. admittedly
D. considerably
Question 13. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that

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A. water vapour is an air pollutant in localized areas
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled

tp
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change

s ://
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
Question 14. The word “These” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to

th
A. the various chemical reactions

an
B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the compounds moved to the water or soil
D. the components in biogeochemical cycles
hv
ien
Question 15. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in
controlling air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.

k
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
ho
a
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
ho
c.n
Question 16. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions
A. can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
et
Question 17. The word “localized” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled
Question 18. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance
is only useful if
A. the other substances in the area are known
B. it is in a localized area

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C. the natural level is also known

D. it can be calculated quickly
Question 19. The word “detectable” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. beneficial B. special
C. measurable D. separable

ht
Question 20. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.

tp
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.

s ://
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.

th
an
Exercise 3. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Tropical rainforests are being destroyed and badly degraded at an unsustainable rate. Some

hv
scientists estimate that in the early 1990s tropical forests were being destroyed at a rate of
approximately 28 hectares a minute, or about 14 million hectares each year – an area about the size

ien
of the state of Wisconsin. This figure marked a decrease since the 1980s, when approximately 16
million hectares were destroyed each year, largely due to a reported decline of deforestation in the
Amazon River Basin in the early 1990s. However, satellite images indicate that rates may have

k
rebounded in the late 1990s as burning inthe Amazon increased again. Over the past three decades

ho
alone, about 5 million square kilometers – or 20 percent of the world's tropical forests – have been
cleared. During this time, deforestation in tropical Asia reached almost 30 percent. High rates of

a
deforestation are inevitably followed by alarming rates of plant and animal extinction because

ho
many rainforest species cannot survive outside their pristine rainforest habitat. Some scientists
estimate that dozens of rainforest species are becoming extinct every day.

c.n
Causes of deforestation vary from location to location, but certain patterns tend to be consistent
across all forests. Logging companies in search of valuable rainforest hardwoods, or, less often, oil

et
companies in search of petroleum, are often the first to enter a remote area of rainforest. Some
logged forests, if left alone, can regenerate in a few decades. But typically, they are not left alone –
the roads built by logging companies often provide access for landless farmers to enter a new area,
as well as a means to transport agricultural crops to market. For every 1 kilometer of new roads
built through a forested area, 4 to 24 square kilometers are deforested and colonized. Once the
loggers leave the land, a typical cycle of destruction ensues. When the landless farmers arrive, they
clear the land for planting. Poor rainforest soils produce a low crop yield, especially after a couple
of years. At that point, the farmers often sell their lands to cattle ranchers or large plantation
owners. After nutrients have been exhausted and soils compacted by cattle, lands are then
abandoned and often laid to waste. Rainforest does not readily regenerate on these lands without
human intervention. Meanwhile, the colonist farmers and cattle ranchers move to a new piece of
land made accessible by logging roads, where the cycle of deforestation begins again.
Question 21. What does the passage mainly discuss?

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A. Typical patterns of extinction of rainforest species

B. Causes and effects of rainforest destruction
C. The rate of rainforest destruction in the Amazon
D. The size of tropical rainforest loss
Question 22. According to paragraph 1, which of the following about the rate of rainforest
destruction is TRUE?

ht
A. It was greater in the early 1990s than in the 1980s.

tp
B. It was the same in the early 1990s as in the 1980s.

s
C. It was greater in the 1980s than in the early 1990s.

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D. It kept increasing from the 1980s to the 1990s.

th
Question 23. The word "rebounded" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by
A. fallen again
B. gone up and down
an
C. risen again
hv
ien
D. remained unchanged
Question 24. Which of the following can result from the loss of tropical rainforests?
A. The increase in the rainforest habitat
B. The disappearance of landless farmers k ho
a
C. The disappearance of many rainforest species
D. The decrease in wasted lands
ho
c.n
Question 25. According to the passage, what is the most common cause of deforestation in different
regions?

et
A. The search for new farm lands
B. The search for valuable woods
C. The search for rare animals
D. The search for oil
Question 26. The word "regenerate" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. repeat B. refine
C. recover D. renew
Question 27. The phrase "these lands" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. lands sold and colonized

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B. lands abandoned and wasted

C. lands for planting
D. lands for raising cattle
Question 28. What can be inferred about rainforests from the passage?
A. The cycle of rainforest destruction will come to an end.

ht
B. Human beings are the main contributor to deforestation in tropical regions.
C. Rainforest destruction can be reduced with the help of cattle ranchers.

tp
D. Most tropical rainforests have been sold to plantation owners.

s ://
th
an
hv
ien
k ho
a ho
c.n
et

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ KHOA HỌC VÀ CÔNG NGHỆ (1)
Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
For many years, scientists have speculated that the cataclysmic impact of ail asteroid with the earth was
responsible for the demise of the dinosaurs approximately 65 million years ago. Previous discoveries and
results have hinted that an asteroid two kilometers in diameter struck the Yucatan peninsula in Eastern
Mexico. This impact, stronger than one thousand nuclear explosions, is speculated to have cast a cloud of

ht
dust and debris into the atmosphere, covering the entire surface temperature of the earth and blocking out
the sun and consequently lowering the surface temperature of the earth. With such a radical change in the

tp
earth’s environment, scientists believe that over 99% of all animal and plant species were eradicated.

s
Only after millions of years did plants and animals even begin to recover. But, the reign of the dinosaurs

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had ended and the age of mammals had begun.
The crucial link that has held this theory together has been the element iridium. Iridium is not commonly

th
found on either the surface of the earth or inside the crust. It is more commonly found in asteroids or
meteorites throughout the solar system. Scientists have hypothesized that after the asteroid impacted the

an
earth, an even layer of iridium sediment settled over the globe and eventually became part of its surface.
The theory, of course, has depended on the discovery of such an existing layer of iridium.

hv
Unfortunately, scientists have never been able to offer absolute proof that this asteroid impact ever
occurred. Recently, however, a discovery may go a long way toward validating these scientists’ theories.

ien
In 1996, a team of marine biologists excavated samples of rock from the floor of the Atlantic Ocean just
off the coast of Bermuda. Found thousands of meters below the sea, these samples contain iridium similar
to those found in the Yucatan peninsula thousands kilometers away. At first, scientists were skeptical

k
whether the samples were from the same time period. But since carbon dating placed them to 65 million

ho
years ago, their doubts were quickly alleviated. Since then many of the other theories for the demise of
the dinosaur have been finally laid to rest.
Question 1. This passage mainly discusses a theory about
A. which type of dinosaur roamed where a ho
B. archeological evidence from Mexico and the Atlantic Ocean
C. why the dinosaurs turned into birds and reptiles c.n
D. the extinction of the dinosaurs
et
Question 2. According to the passage, approximately how large was the asteroid that scientists believe
struck the Earth?
A. 2 kilometers in diameter
B. 65 kilometers in diameter
C. 1000 kilometers in diameter
D. 99 kilometers in diameter

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Question 3. The word “hinted” is closest in meaning to

A. disproved B. flirted
C. denied D. implied
Question 4. The word “cast” is closest in meaning to
A. shone B. climbed
C. dispersed D. excused

ht
Question 5. What can be inferred from the passage about asteroid impact mentioned in the passage?

tp
A. New plants and animals evolved with the changed environment.

s
B. The gravitational force from the earth’s core is altered.

://
C. A planetary defense system formed.

th
D. The climate remained fairly constant.

an
Question 6. The word “reign” is closest in meaning to:
A. understanding B. dominance
C. denial
hv
D. extremity
Question 7. The word “It” refers to
A. crust B. asteroids ien
C. earth D. iridium
k
Question 8. What does third paragraph of the passage mainly discuss?
ho
A. The major processes that have created the Earth’s crust.
B. The composition of the ocean floor in the Atlantic Ocean. a ho
C. Recent discoveries that may confirm the asteroid impact hypothesis.
D. The discovery of ancient fossils located far beneath the ocean floor. c.n
Question 9. According to the passage, the iridium found beneath the ocean floor near Bermuda
A. can be refined into fossil fuels
et
B. is similar to the iridium found on the Yucatan peninsula
C. originated from dinosaur remains
D. was chemically manufactured by miners
Question 10. The paragraph following the passage probably discusses
A. the relationship between volcanic activity and dinosaur extinction
B. why dinosaurs lived where they did

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C. recent computer imagery of dinosaur movement

D. the possibility of a future asteroid impact
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
The ubiquitous bar code, developed more than twenty years ago, is not a stagnant product. On the
contrary, the technology has been improved so that it can be used more efficiently. Much less expensive
than a computer chip, the bar code can hold more information than it has in the past by adding a second
dimension to the structure.

ht
The bar code consists of a series of parallel vertical bars or lines of two different widths, although

tp
sometimes four widths are used, printed in black on a white background. Barcodes are used for entering
data into a computer system. The bars represent the binary digits 0 and 1, just like basic computer

s
language, and sequences of these digits can indicate the numbers from 0 to 9, which can then be read by

://
an optical laser scanner and processed by a digital computer. Arabic numbers appear below the code.
The traditional bar code has been used to monitor skiers at ski lifts and to determine price and perform

th
inventory control on groceries, drugs, medical supplies, manufactured parts, and library books to name a
few. The bar code used on grocery products, introduced in the 1970s, is called a universal product code

an
(or UPC) and assigns each type of food or grocery product a unique code. The five digits on the left are
assigned to a particular manufacturer or maker and the five digits on the right are used by that

hv
manufacturer to identify a specific type or make of product. Traditional single dimension bar codes are
not readily customizable because there is little extra space.

ien
The two-dimensional bar code, with an information density of 1,100 bytes, allows a considerably greater
amount of information to be coded than does the traditional bar code, including customized information.

k
[A] It also has built-in redundancy, meaning that the identical information is duplicated on the same code.

ho
[B] Therefore, if the code is damaged, it can still be read. [C] The technology even allows pictures or text
to be contained within the code, as well as barcode encryption. [D] The new technology dramatically
reduces the errors of the single dimensional bar code and reduces the enormous costs that some
companies have reported in the past.
a
Question 1. The word “ubiquitous” in the first sentence is closest in meaning to:
ho
A. outdated B. ever-present C. new
Question 2. The word “stagnant” in the first sentence is closest in meaning to c.n
D. complicated

A. ever-changing B. useful
Question 3. The author implies that the bar code:
C. stale D. useless
et
A. has only recently become popular
B. will never change
C. is not useful
D. has existed in one-dimensional form for years
Question 4. The author’s main purpose is to describe
A. the current technology and newest innovation of bar codes

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B. problems with the bar code

C. the UPC used in grocery stores
D. why the bar code is no longer viable
Question 5. Where in the final paragraph ([A], [B], [C], or [D]) could the following sentence be logically
placed?
Thus, the manufacturer is able to add additional information on the bar code that it finds useful for its own

ht
tracking purposes.

tp
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
Question 6. Which of the following can be a UPC symbol?

s ://
A. A code with five digits on the left, five on the right, two different widths, and one number under each.
B. A code with six digits on the left, four on the right, two different widths, and one roman numeral under

th
each.

an
C. A code with five digits on the left, five digits on the right, five or six different widths, and one number
under each.

hv
D. A code with five digits on the left, five digits on the right, reverse form (white text on black
background), and no numbers under.
Question 7. A UPC is a type of
A. computer program ien
B. bar code
C. grocery item
k ho
D. scanner
Question 8. The word “widths” in the second paragraph refers to a ho
A. its size
B. its direction c.n
C. its location
D. its content
et
Question 9. In the past, a common use of the bar code was
A. to encrypt pictures
B.to keep track of products stocked and sold
C. to act as a computer
D. to hide text
Question 10. The word “considerably” in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to

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A. slightly
B. technologically
C. interestingly
D. far

ht
tp
s ://
th
an
hv
ien
k ho
a ho
c.n
et

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ KHOA HỌC VÀ CÔNG NGHỆ (2)
Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the
future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile
engines have already been developed that run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity,
compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-

ht
emission option presently available. Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a

tp
powerful, compact battery or another dependable source of current is available, transportation expects
foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars,

s
three-wheeled neighborhood cars, electric deliver vans, bikes, and trolleys. As automakers work to

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develop practical electric vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing on infrastructure
systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need to be as
common as today’s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be

th
equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a
concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centers

an
might be reserved for electric cars. Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains and neighborhood
vehicles all meeting at transit centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will

hv
be able to rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small
cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which is no doubt take place on automated freeways

ien
capable of handling five times number of vehicles that can be carried by a freeway today.
Question 1. The following electric vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT
A. trolleys B. trains
k
Question 2. The author’s purpose in the passage is to
C. planes

ho
D. vans

A. criticize conventional vehicles.

B. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles. a ho
c.n
C. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future.
D. support the invention of electric cars.
Question 3. The passage would most likely be followed by details about
A. automated freeways. et
B. pollution restitutions in the future.
C. the neighborhood of the future.
D. electric shuttle buses
Question 4. The word “compact” in the second paragraph is closest meaning to
A. concentrated B. squared
C. inexpensive D. long-range

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Question 5. In the second paragraph the author implies that

A. everyday life will stay such the same in the future.
B. electric vehicles are not practical for the future.
C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
D. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modern transportation.

ht
Question 6. According to the passage, public parking lots in the future will be
A. equipped with charging devices.

tp
B. more convenient than they are today.

s ://
C. much larger than they are today.
D. as common as today’s gas stations

th
Question 7. The word “charging” in this passage refer to
A. lightening
B. electricity an
C. credit cards
hv
D. parking
ien
Question 8. It can be inferred from the passage that

k
A. the present electric engines are the best option as being practical.

ho
B. electricity is the best alternative source of power as it is almost free of pollution.
C. many new types of practical electric engines have been developed.
D. the present cars are more economical than their future generation. a ho
Question 9. The word “hybrid” in paragraph 4 is closest meaning to
A. automated c.n
B. hazardous
C. futuristic
et
D. combination
Question 10. The word “commuters” in paragraph 4 refer to
A. cab drivers
B. daily travelers
C. visitors
D. shoppers

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Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use
one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are
more than a means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some
doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile
phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried

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about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phone are bad for
your health.

tp
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile

s
phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detectced with modern scanning

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equipment.In one case a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He
couldn’t remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to
talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years.

th
His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer’s doctor didn’t agree.

an
What is it that make mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines
can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there

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is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it’s best to use mobile phones less often.

ien
Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really
need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and communicative, especially in emergencies.In the future,
mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it’s wise not
to use your mobile phone too often.
k ho
Question 1. According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people because
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications
B. they make them look more stylish a ho
c.n
C. they keep the users alert all the time
D. they cannot replaced by regular phones
Question 2. The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with:
A. the mobility of the mind and the body et
B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brain
D. the resident memory
Question 3. The word “means” in the passage most closely means
A. meanings
B. expression

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C. method
D. transmission
Question 4. The word “potentially” in the passage most closely means
A. obviously
B. possibly

ht
C. certainly
D. privately

tp
Question 5. “Negative publicity” in the passage most closely means

s ://
A. information on the lethal effects of cellphones
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones

th
C. the negative public use of cellphones

an
D. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones
Question 6. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cellphones may
A. damage their users’ emotions
hv
B. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users’ temperament ien
D. change their users’ social behaviors
k ho
Question 7. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often,
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability
B. could no longer think lucidly a ho
C. abandoned his family
D. had a problem with memory c.n
Question 8. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful
A. their radiant light
et
B. their power of attraction
C. their rading power
D. their invisible rays
Question 9. According to the writer, people should
A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases
B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies

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C. keep off mobile phones regularly

D. never use mobile phones in all cases
Question 10. The most suitable title for the passage should be
A. The Reasons why Mobile Phones are Popular
B. Technological Innovations and Their Price

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C. The Way Mobile Phones Work
D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time.

tp
s ://
th
an
hv
ien
k ho
a ho
c.n
et

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ KHOA HỌC VÀ CÔNG NGHỆ (3)
Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Botany, the study of plants, occupies a peculiar position in the history of human knowledge. For many
thousands of years it was the one field of awareness about which humans had anything more than the
vaguest of insights. It is impossible to know today just what our Stone Age ancestors knew about plants,
but from what we can observe of pre-industrial societies that still exist; a detailed learning of plants and

ht
their properties must be extremely ancient. This is logical. Plants are the basis of the food pyramid for all
living things, even for other plants. They have always been enormously important to the welfare of

tp
people, not only for food, but also for clothing, weapons, tools, dyes, medicines, shelter, and a great many

s
other purposes. Tribes living today in the jungles of the Amazon recognize literally hundreds of plants

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and know many properties of each. To them botany, as such, has no name and is probably not even
recognized as a special branch of ‘knowledge’ at all.

th
Unfortunately, the more industrialized we become the farther away we move from direct contact with
plants, and the less distinct our knowledge of botany grows. Yet everyone comes unconsciously on an

an
amazing amount of botanical knowledge, and few people will fail to recognize a rose, an apple, or an
orchid. When our Neolithic ancestors, living in the Middle East about 10,000 years ago, discovered that
certain grasses could be harvested and their seeds planted for richer yields the next season, the first great

hv
step in a new association of plants and humans was taken. Grains were discovered and from them flowed
the marvel of agriculture: cultivated crops. From then on, humans would increasingly take their living

ien
from the controlled production of a few plants, rather than getting a little here and a little there from many
varieties that grew wild - and the accumulate knowledge of tens of thousands of years of experience and
intimacy with plants in the wild would begin to fade away.

k ho
Question 1. Which of the following assumptions about early humans is expressed in the passage?
A. They probably had extensive knowledge of plants.
B. They divided knowledge into well-defined fields.
C. They did not enjoy the study of botany.
a ho
D. They placed great importance on ownership of property.
c.n
et
Question 2. The word “peculiar” is closest in meaning to
A. clear B. large
C. unusual D. important
Question 3. What does the comment “This is logical” mean?
A. There is no clear way to determine the extent of our ancestors’ knowledge of plants.
B. It is not surprising that early humans had a detailed knowledge of plants.
C. It is reasonable to assume that our ancestors behaved very much like people in pre-industrial societies.
D. Human knowledge of plants is well-organized and very detailed.

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Question 4. The phrase “properties of each” refers to each

A. tribe B. hundred
C. plant D. purpose
Question 5. According to the passage, why has general knowledge of botany declined?
A. People no longer value plants as a useful resource.
B. Botany is not recognized as a special branch of science.

ht
C. Research is unable to keep up with the increasing number of plants.

tp
D. Direct contact with a variety of plants has decreased.

s
Question 6. What is the author’s purpose in mentioning “a rose, an apple, or an orchid”?

://
A. To make the passage more poetic

th
B. To cite examples of plants that are attractive

an
C. To give botanical examples that most readers will recognize
D. To illustrate the diversity of botanical life.

hv
Question 7. According to the passage, what was the first great step toward the practice of agriculture?

ien
A. The invention of agricultural implements and machinery.
B. The development of a system of names for plants.

D. The changing diets of early humans. k

C. The discovery of grasses that could be harvested and replanted.

ho
Question 8. The word “controlled” is closest in meaning to
A. abundant B. managed a ho
C. required D. advanced
c.n
Question 9. The relationship between botany and agriculture is similar to the relationship between
zoology and
A. deer hunting
B. bird watching
et
C. sheep raising
D. horseback riding
Question 10. Where in the passage does the author describe the benefits people derive from plants?
A. Botany, the study of plants, … of human knowledge.
B. Plants are the basis … many other purposes.

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C. Unfortunately, the more … knowledge of botany grows.

D. From then on, … to fade away.
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of
extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun’s rays .Desert
mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature.
Instead of trying to keep down the body temperatures deep inside the body, which would involve the

ht
expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally
be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant’s gazelles.

tp
The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall

s
unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of

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the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does
not begin until well into the day.

th
Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be
fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without

an
harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight.
An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can

hv
drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few
minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to dehydrate at one

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session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body
fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the
desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and

k
far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely

ho
dehydrated; it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate
thirst.
Question 11. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Weather variations in the desert a ho
B. Adaptations of desert animals
C. Diseases of desert animals c.n
D. Human use of desert animals
Question 12. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
et
A. It helps them hide from predators.
B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.
C. It helps them see their young at night.
D. It keeps them cool at night.
Question 13. The word “maintaining” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to:
A. measuring

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B. inheriting
C. preserving
D. delaying
Question 14. The author uses of Grant’s gazelle as an example of
A. an animal with a low average temperature
B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel

ht
C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures

tp
D. a desert animal with a constant body temperatures.

s ://
Question 15. When is the internal temperature of large desert mammal lower?
A. Just before sunrise
B. Just after sunset
th
an
C. In the middle of the day
D. Just after drinking

hv
Question 16. The word “tolerate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. endure
B. replace ien
C. compensate
D. reduce k ho
Question 17. What causes water intoxication?
A. Drinking too much water very quickly a ho
B. Bacteria in water
C. Drinking polluted water c.n
D. Lack of water
Question 18. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?
et
A. They do not need to eat much food.
B. They can eat large quantities quickly.
C. They easily lose their appetites.
D. They can travel long distances looking for food.
Question 19. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?
A. To show how they use camels.

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B. To contrast them to desert mammals.

C. To give instructions about desert survival.
D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.
Question 20. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?
A. Variation in body temperatures.
B. Drinking water quickly.

ht
C. Eating while dehydrated.

tp
D. Being active at night.

s ://
th
an
hv
ien
k ho
a ho
c.n
et

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ THỂ THAO

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Parents whose children show a special interest in a particular sport have a difficult decision to make about
their children's careers. Should they allow their children to train to become top sportsmen and women?
For, many children it means starting very young and school work, going out with friends and other
interests have to take second place. It's very difficult to explain to a young child why he or she has to train

ht
for five hours a day, even at the weekend, when most of his or her friends are playing.

tp
Another problem is of course money. In many countries money for' training is available from the
government for the very best young sportsmen and women. If this help cannot be given it means that it is

s
the parents who have to find the time and the money to support their child's development - and sports

://
clothes, transport to competitions, special equipment etc. can all be very expensive.
Many parents are understandably worried that it is dangerous to start serious training in a sport at an early

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age. Some doctors agree that young muscles may be damaged by training before they are properly
developed. Professional trainers, however, believe that it is only by starting young that you can reach the

an
top as a successful sports person. What is clear is that very few people do reach the top and both parents
and children should be prepared for failure even after many years of training.

hv
Question 1. When a child is determined to train a sport, it means that

ien
A. he or she has to study much harder in class
B. he or she needs to get the best marks in class
C. his or her time must be devoted to school work
k
D. his or her school work is considered less important than training
ho
a
Question 2. In many countries, it’s the government that
A. trains all of the young sportsmen and women
ho
c.n
B. provides the best young sportsmen and women with the money for training
C. helps parents with the transport to competitions
D. supplies the time and education for the best young sportsmen and women.
Question 3. Some doctors think that et
A. training at an early age may cause damage to the muscles
B. young muscles can be properly developed by training hard
C. by starting young a child can reach the top as a sportsperson
D. it’s dangerous for young children to play any sports

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Question 4. According to the author, parents and their children should

A. look forward to the failure
B. be made to expect the failure
C. think of the failure they may meet
D. prepare for many years of training
Question 5. What’s the writer’s intention?

ht
A. inform us about training

tp
B. discuss training methods

s
C. give details about training costs

://
D. suggest a training program

th
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.

an
In ancient Greece athletic festivals were very important and had strong religious associations. The
Olympic athletic festival, held every four years in honour of Zeus, eventually lost its local character,
became first a national event, and then, after the rules against foreign competitors had been abolished,

hv
international. No one knows exactly how far back the Olympic Games go, but some official records date
from 776 B.C.

ien
The Games took place in August on the plain by Mount Olympus. Many thousands of spectators gathered
from all parts of Greece, but no married woman was admitted even as a spectator. Slaves, women and

k
dishonoured people were not allowed to compete. Records show that the evening of the third day was

ho
devoted to sacrificial offerings to the heroes of the day, and the fourth day, that of the full moon, was set
aside as a holy day. On the sixth and last day all the victors were crowned with holy garlands of wild
olive from a sacred wood. So great was the honour that the winner of the foot race gave his name to the

telling. a
year of his victory. How their results compared with modern standards, we unfortunately had no means of

ho
c.n
After an uninterrupted history of almost 1,200 years, the Games were abolished in A. D. 394 because of
their pagan origin. It was a great many years before there was another such international athletic
gathering. The Greek institution was brought back into existence in 1896 and the first small meeting took
place in Athens. After the 1908 London Olympics, success was re-established and nations sent their best
representatives.
Today, the Games are held in different countries in turn. The Olympics start with the arrival in the
et
stadium of a torch, lighted on Mount Olympus by the sun’s rays. It is carried by a succession of runners to
the stadium. The torch symbolizes the continuation of the ancient Greek athletic ideals, and it burns
throughout the Games until the closing ceremony.
Question 1. The first Olympic Games took place
A. in the 17th century A.D
B. certainly before 700 B.C

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C. over three thousand years

D. a thousand years ago
Question 2. At the ancient Olympic Games, any competitor had to be
A. Greek
B. male
C. unmarried

ht
D. neither a slave nor a foreign

tp
Question 3. The word “that” refers to

s
A. the third day

://
B. the fourth day

th
C. the evening

an
D. a holy day
Question 4. During the Games, on the evening before the moon was full,
A. sheep and cattle were sacrificed to Zeus
hv
ien
B. all the victors were crowned with garlands
C. olive branches were gathered from a sacred wood

k
D. the heroes were honoured with sacrificed offerings

ho
Question 5. Modern athlete’s results cannot be compared with those of the ancient runners because
A. details such as times were not recorded in the past
B. the Greeks had no means of telling the time a ho
c.n
C. modem athletes are much better
D. official records were lost soon after the Games were abolished
Question 6. The word “pagan” is closest in meaning to
A. Greek et
B. Olympic
C. religious
D. sporty
Question 7. The continuity of the Olympic Games
A. was broken in the year A.D 1200
B. was broken in 1896

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C. was interrupted for over 1,500 years

D. was interrupted for almost 1,200 years
Question 8. The phrase “in turn” can best be replaced by
A. in a sequence
B. by chance
C. in order

ht
D. in time

tp
Question 9. The word “succession” is closest in meaning to

s
A. procession
B. a number
://
th
C. process

an
D. marching
Question 10. The modern Olympics compared with the ancient ones are
A. inspired by the same ideals
hv
ien
B. more restricted in the variety of events
C. different in every respect
D. too much concerned with international rivalry
k ho
a ho
c.n
et

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ THỂ THAO (2)

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts, Dr. James A.
Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at the International YMCA, now
Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in exercise among students during the
wintertime. The New England winters were fierce, and the students balked at participating in outdoor

ht
activities. Naismith determined that a fast-moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void
after the baseball and football seasons had ended.

tp
First he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but he soon found

s
them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would have to invent a game.

://
In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets as either end of the gymnasium at the
school, and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side, organized the first basketball game. The

th
early rules allowed three points for each basket and made running with the ball a violation. Every time a
goal was made, someone had to climb a ladder to retrieve the ball.

an
Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was being played in both the

hv
United States and Canada. Five years later, a championship tournament was staged in New York City,
which was won by the Brooklyn Central YMCA.

ien
The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in the 1897 season.
When basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Louis, it
quickly spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was used for the first time to replace the
basket, but the name basketball has remained.
k
Question 1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
ho
A. The Olympic Games in St. Louis in 1904
B. The development of basketball a ho
c.n
C. The YMCA athletic program
D. Dr. James Naismith
Question 2. When was the first demonstration game of basketball held during the Olympics?
A. 1891 et
B. 1892
C. 1897
D. 1904
Question 3. The phrase “balked at” in paragraph 1 could best replaced by
A. resisted
B. enjoyed

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C. excelled at
D. were exhausted by
Question 4. The word “fierce” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. long
B. boring
C. extreme

ht
D. dark

tp
Question 5. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to

s
A. indoors
B. seasons
://
C. games
th
an
D. areas
Question 6. Where in the passage does the author discuss the first basketball championship
tournament?
hv
ien
A. Naismith determined that a fast-moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void after the
baseball and football seasons had ended.
B. In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets as either end of the gymnasium at the

k
school, and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side, organized the first basketball game.

ho
C. Five years later, a championship tournament was staged in New York City, which was won by the
Brooklyn Central YMCA.

a ho
D. The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in the 1897 season.
Question 7. What does the author mean by the statement in: “When basketball was introduced as a

c.n
demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Louis, it quickly spread throughout the
world”?
A. Basketball was not considered an Olympic sport at the St. Louis games.
B. Basketball became popular worldwide after its introduction at the Olympic Games in St. Louis. et
C. Basketball players from many countries competed in the Olympic Games in St. Louis.
D. Basketball was one of the most popular sports at the Olympic Games in St. Louis.
Question 8. Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball?
A. He did not like soccer or rugby.
B. He was tired of baseball and football.
C. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter.

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D. He could not convince his students to play indoors.

Question 9. The author mentions all of the following was typical of the early game of basketball
EXCEPT
A. three points were scored for every basket
B. running with the ball was not a foul
C. nine players were on a team

ht
D. the ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score

tp
Question 10. It can be inferred from the passage that the original baskets

s
A. were not placed very high

://
B. had a metal rim

th
C. did not have a hole in the bottom
D. were hung on the same side

an
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.

hv
Foot racing is a popular activity in the United States. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but also as
a way to exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like-minded people, and to donate money to a good

ien
cause. Though serious runners may spend months training to compete, other runners and walkers might
not train at all. Those not competing to win might run in an effort to beat their own time or simply to
enjoy the fun and exercise. People of all ages, from those of less than one year (who may be pushed in

k
strollers) to those in their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city streets, on college

ho
campuses through parks, and in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length.
The largest foot race in the world in the 12-kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San Francisco

a
every spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on the west

ho
side at the Pacific Ocean. There may be 80,000 or more people running in this race through the streets and
hills of San Francisco. In the front are the serious runners who compete to win and who might finish in as

c.n
little as 34 minutes. Behind them are the thousands who take several hours to finish. In the back of the
race are those who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was a group of men who
dressed like Elvis Presley, and another group consisted of firefighters who were tied together in a long

long white gown and the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to bystanders, and
they were actually married at some point along the route.
et
line and who were carrying a fire hose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was dressed in a

Question 1. The phrase "to a good cause" in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of
the following?
A. to protect a wise investment
B. for a good purpose
C. to reward the winner
D. for an award

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Question 2. A "bystander" in the second paragraph refers to which of the following?

A. walker
B. participant
C. spectator
D. judge
Question 3. Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?

ht
A. chronological order

tp
B. statement and example

s ://
C. cause and result
D. specific to general

th
Question 4. The word "camaraderie" in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A. companionship
an
B. jokes
hv
ien
C. games
D. views

k
Question 5. Which of the following is NOT implied by the author?
A. Entering a race is a way to give support to an organization.
ho
a
B. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart.
C. Walkers can compete for prizes.
ho
c.n
D. Foot races appeal to a variety of people.
Question 6. In what lines does the author give reasons for why people enter foot races?
A. People of all ages … in length.
B. The largest … 34 minutes.
C. Behind them … a fire hose.
et
D. Foot racing … and exercise.
Question 7. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runners were serious about winning.
B. Some runners were participating in a wedding.
C. Some runners were ready to put out a fire.

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D. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley.

Question 8. The main purpose of this passage is to
A. describe a popular activity
B. encourage people to exercise
C. make fun of runners in costume
D. give reasons for the popularity of foot races

ht
tp
s ://
th
an
hv
ien
k ho
a ho
c.n
et

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ THỂ THAO (3)

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
There are many different kinds of sports that are undertaken by a wide variety of different people. Some
people do sport for their career and other people purely do sport for enjoyment and recreation. Some
sports, like cricket, require the use of a lot of equipment, while others need very little in order to
successfully play a game in that sport. Some people use public playing fields to play sport for free, while

ht
other sports such as squash, tennis, badminton and table tennis are usually paid for on an hourly basis in
the comfort of a local leisure centre.

tpMost sports are played with a round object often known as a ball. Some sports use more than one ball

s
and snooker is one of the unique sports that make use of a number of balls while being played. The game

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itself is often controlled by an impartial individual known as an umpire in cricket and a referee in sports
like football and rugby. Most sports have a duration of not more than a few hours, however some athletic

th
tournaments can last for up to a week and a game of cricket can be five days in duration before a winner
is announced.

an
Some people prefer to watch sport. This can either be done by going to a stadium, a local leisure centre,
park or on the television. It is often cheaper to watch sport from the comfort of a person’s home than to

hv
visit the stadium or a special event. Some sports, such as football and cricket, are really popular in the
United Kingdom but not in the USA. In the USA people often play basketball and baseball. However,

ien
most countries put aside time to compete in world sporting events such as the football world cup or the
Olympics, which occur every four years.

k
Nowadays, people who suffer from any kind of disability are also encouraged to participate in sport and
most sport equipment is adapted to suit the needs of a disabled person. This means sport is something that

ho
can be enjoyed no matter the physical ability of the person. The para-olympics takes place a week after
the main event and it is equally popular. Participation in sporting activity is encouraged by doctors and at

a
schools given the beneficial impact it has on the health of the individual that participates, and it is for this

ho
reason and the competitive nature of individuals that sport remains a very popular activity worldwide.
Question 1. Which sport requires the use of a lot of equipment?
A. Football
c.n
B. Athletics
C. Cricket
D. Rugby
et
Question 2. What sport is popular in the United Kingdom?
A. Baseball
B. Cricket
C. Basketball
D. Athletics

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Question 3. What sport is popular in the United States?

A. Cricket
B. Baseball
C. Football
D. Squash
Question 4. What sport can last longer than a day in duration?

ht
A. Football

tp
B. Baseball

s
C. Rugby
D. Cricket
://
th
Question 5. How often is the Olympics held?

an
A. Every year
B. Every two years
C. Every four years
hv
D. Every day

ien
k
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.

ho
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat,

a
rounders, and town ball.originating in England. As early as the American Revolution. It was noted that
troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York

ho
Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three
strikers – you’re – out, batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning, a nine man team. “The New York

c.n
Game” spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way
of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban – industrial society. At its inception it was it

et
was played by and for gentlemen. A club might consists of 40 members. The president would appoint two
captains who would choose teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and
Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainments for the winners.
During the 1850- 70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism
(charging admission), under – the – table payments to exceptional to players, and gambling on the
outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur
first - nine, and their “muffins” (the gently duffers who once ran the game). Beginning with the first
openly all – salaried team Cincinnati‟s Red Stocking Club. In 1869, the 1870- 1890 period saw the
complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional
baseball players in 1871. The National League of Professional Baseball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by
business-minded invertors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League
Baseball‟s “Golden Age”. Profits soared, player‟s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became

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one of 132, a weekly periodical “The sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-
deck stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In
1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Mid-west proclaimed itself the American
League.
Question 6. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields
B. a weekly periodical commenced

ht
C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed

tp
D. profits soared

s
Question 7. The word “somewhat” is closest in meaning to

://
A. to a significant extent

th
B. to a minor extent

an
C. to not the same extent
D. to some extent

hv
Question 8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

ien
A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity
if they did not want to mix with other or become a “muffin”

k
B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and

ho
commercialism that develop in baseball
C. the “New York “spread rapidly because it was better formalized
D. business – minded investors were only interested in profits
Question 9. The word “inception” is closest in meaning to a ho
A. requirements
B. beginning c.n
C. insistence
D. rules
et
Question 10. The word “lavish” is closest in meaning to____.
A. prolonged
B. very generous
C. grand
D. extensive
Question 11. Where in the passage does the author first mention payments to players?

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A. lines 4-7
B. lines 8-10
C. lines 11-14
D. 15- 18
Question 12. What is the passage mainly about?
A. the origin of baseball

ht
B. the commercialization of baseball

tp
C. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball

s
D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century

://
Question 13. Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at
its inception?

th
A. a team might consist of 40 members

an
B. the president would choose teams from among the members
C. they didn‟t play on weekend
hv
D. they might be called “duffers” if they didn‟t make the first nine

ien
Question 14. According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true except

k
A. commercialism became more prosperous
B. the clubs are smaller
ho
a
C. outstanding players got extra income
D.people gamed on the outcome of games
Question 15. The word “itself” refers to ho
A. the Western League
c.n
B. growing cities
C. the Midwest
D. the American League
et
Exercise 3. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
When I injured my back I had to take a break from my running career. I decided to introduce more
women to the sport, to show them how much fun it can be and to give them the confidence to get out and
run. I decided to start a running club for women in my area because I was annoyed by the attitude of
many race organizers. They complained about the lack of women in the sport but also used this as an
excuse for not providing separate changing facilities.

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I put up posters and 40 women, young and old, fit and unfit, joined. All of them were attracted by the
idea of losing weight but I don't think they had really thought about running before. When or if they did,
they had a picture of painful training. They didn't think of chatting and smiling while running in beautiful
places, like by a river.
At first they ran only for a minute - now they can run for thirty minutes. They've also learned from
other runners about diet and keeping fit in general. I want to do something for women’s running and I
have had so much pleasure watching their progress - almost as much as they’ve had themselves

ht
Question 16. What is the writer's main aim in writing the text?
A. to describe her own running career

tp
B. to complain about race organizers

s ://
C. to talk about women runners
D. to describe good running method

th
Question 17. What would a reader find out from the text?

an
A. the best kind of places for running
B. how runners can avoid injuring themselves

hv
C. the progress made by the women in the club
D. the teaching skills of the writer
ien
Question 18. What is the writer’s opinion of the runners she trained?
A. They were too serious.
B. They needed encouraging,
k ho
C. They couldn't develop their skills.
D. They were difficult to train. a ho
Question 19. Why did the women join the running club?
A. to have a good time c.n
B. to meet other people
C. to help them lose weight
et
D. to become top runners
Question 20. Which of the following would be the best title for the club poster?
A. Discover the Pleasures of Running
B. Riverside Running Club for Women
C. Athletics Competition: How to Win
D. Keep Fit by Training Hard

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ht
tp
s://
th
an
hv
ien
k ho
a ho
c.n
et

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ GIÁO DỤC (1)

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Of course, we all think our children are the best and brightest in the class, but have you ever seriously
thought that your child might be highly intelligent? Does he or she stand out in class as being far ahead of
his or her classmates? How can we be sure? Child psychiatrists and educationists have compiled a profile
of highly gifted children so that parents can have the opportunity to see for themselves which

ht
characteristics are true for their own offspring and then take the appropriate steps. Have a look at the
profile below which we hope will help you to form a truer opinion of your own child's intelligence.

tp
Firstly, these children have an unusually wide vocabulary, enjoy reading and show curiosity about the

s
world and what makes things work. Secondly, they are perfectionists, have the ability to work

://
independently and are interested in adult topics such as religion, war, and politics, and so on.
Furthermore, highly gifted children are sensitive, creative and adventurous. They have a good sense of

th
humour and usually have the ability to look on the bright side of a difficult situation. They often show a
desire to improve them and they dislike conforming just for the sake of it. Finally, they are self-confident

an
- especially in the company of adults - adaptable and responsible.
All of the above characteristics contribute to making up what is seen as a highly gifted child. If you feel

hv
that your child shows this particular combination, then it is advisable to get in touch with one of the
organizations that exist to give guidance to parents where they will no longer feel "different” but, possibly

ien
for the first time, on equal footing with their peers.
Question 1. This article is aimed at
A. highly intelligent children
B. teachers at special schools k ho
C. parents in general
D. other educationists a ho
c.n
Question 2. In order to understand whether a child is highly intelligent, you should
A. put him or her through a series of tests
B. have serious discussions with the child on different matters
C. get advice from the experts first et
D. compare his or her characteristics with the checklist given.
Question 3. Gifted children
A. are able to see the funny side of life
B. do not get on well with other children
C. need guidance in their work
D. accept things without questioning.

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Question 4. If you put a highly gifted child in a room full of adults, he or she would
A. be very shy
B. talk non – stop about silly things
C. participate sensibly in the conversation
D. stay in a corner and play with some toy
Question 5. What is the advantage of school and camps for these children?

ht
A. They can have relaxing time

tp
B. They parents know they are being looked after

s ://
C. They can learn faster in a group
D. They no longer feel isolated

th
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.

an
People appear to be born to compute. The numerical skills of children develop so early and so inexorably
that it is easy to imagine an internal clock of mathematical maturity guiding their growth. Not long after
learning to walk and talk, they can set the table with impressive accuracy – one plate, one knife, on spoon,

hv
one fork, for each of the five chairs. Soon they are capable of nothing that they have placed five knives,
spoons, and forks on the table and, a bit later, that this amounts to fifteen pieces of silverware. Having

ien
thus mastered addition, they move on the subtraction. It seems almost reasonable to expect that if a child
were secluded on a desert island at birth and retrieved seven years later, he or she could enter a second-

k
grade mathematics class without any serious problems of intellectual adjustment.

ho
Of course, the truth is not so simple. This century, the work of cognitive psychologists has
illuminated the subtle forms of daily leaning on which intellectual progress depends. Children were

a
observed as they slowly grasped – or, as the case might be, bumped into – concepts that adults that for

ho
granted, as they refused, for instance, to concede that quantity is unchanged as water pours from a short
stout glass into a tall thin one. Psychologists have since demonstrated that young children, asked to count
the pencils in a pile, readily report the number of blue or red pencils, but must be coaxed into finding the

c.n
total. Such studies have suggested that the rudiments of mathematics are mastered gradually, and with
effort. They have also suggested that the very concept of abstract numbers – the idea of a oneness, a

et
twoness, a threeness that applies to any class of objects and is a prerequisite for doing anything more
mathematically demanding than setting a table – is itself far from innate.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Trends in teaching mathematics to children
B. The use of mathematics in child psychology
C. The development of mathematical ability in children
D. The fundamental concepts of mathematics that children must learn
Question 2. It can be inferred from the passage that children normally learn simple counting
A. soon after they learn to talk

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B. by looking at the clock

C. when they begin to be mathematically mature
D. after they reach second grade in school
Question 3. The word “illuminated” is closest in meaning to
A. illustrated
B. accepted

ht
C. clarified

tp
D. lighted

s ://
Question 4. The author implies that most small children believe that the quantity of water changes
when it is transferred to a container of a different

th
A. color
B. quality
C. weight
an
D. shape
hv
ien
Question 5. According to the passage, when small children were asked to count a pile of red and
blue pencils they
A. counted the number of pencils of each color
B. guessed at the total number of pencils
k
C. counted only the pencils of their favourite color ho
a
D. subtracted the number of red pencils from the number of blue pencils
Question 6. The word “They” refers to
ho
A. mathematicians
c.n
et
B. children
C. pencils
D. studies
Question 7. The word “prerequisite” is closest in meaning to
A. reason
B. theory
C. requirement
D. technique
Question 8. The word “itself” refers to

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A. the total
B. the concept of abstract numbers
C. any class of objects
D. settings a table
Question 9. With which of the following statements would the author be LEAST likely to agree?
A. Children naturally and easily learn mathematics.

ht
B. Children learn to add before they learn to subtract.

tp
C. Most people follow the same pattern of mathematical development.

s ://
D. Mathematical development if subtle and gradual.
Question 10. Where is the passage does the author give an example of a hypothetical experiment?

th
A. Not long after learning to walk and talk… this amounts to fifteen pieces of silverware.

an
B. It seems almost reasonable … without any serious problems of intellectual adjustment.
C. Children were observed … into a tall thin one.

hv
D. They have also suggested … is itself far from innate.

ien
k ho
a ho
c.n
et

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RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ GIÁO DỤC (2)

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a
disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which
ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will
fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are
ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very
supportive of their child. Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help
him a lot by taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even
drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music,
but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music
competitions if he is unwilling. Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his
parents are successful musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be
as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy
when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always
seems quiet and unhappy.
Question 1. One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to
A. push their child into trying too much
B. help their child to become a genius
C. make their child become a musician
D. neglect their child’s education
Question 2. Parents’ ambition for their children is not wrong if they
A. force their children into achieving success
B. themselves have been very successful
C. understand and help their children sensibly
D. arrange private lessons for their children
Question 3. Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians.
B. Unrealistic parents.
C. Their children.
D. Educational psychologists.
Question 4. Michael Collins is fortunate in that
A. his father is a musician

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B. his parents are quite rich

C. his mother knows little about music
D. his parents help him in a sensible way
Question 5. The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means
A. "surprised at"
B. "extremely interested in"
C. "completely unaware of"
D. "confused about"
Question 6. Winston’s parents push their son so much and he
A. has won a lot of piano competitions
B. cannot learn much music from them
C. has become a good musician
D. is afraid to disappoint them
Question 7. The word "They" in the passage refers to
A. concerts
B. violin lessons
C. parents in general
D. Michael’s parents
Question 8. All of the following people are musical EXCEPT
A. Winston’s father
B. Winston’s mother
C. Michael’s father
D. Michael’s mother
Question 9. The word "unwilling" in the passage mostly means
A. "getting ready to do something"
B. "eager to do something"
C. "not objecting to doing anything"
D. "not wanting to do something"
Question 10. The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that
A. successful parents always have intelligent children

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B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children

C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their
knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in streaming pupils. It
does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both
the bright and the not-so-bright child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top
grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one
aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not
just their academy ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed-
ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning.
In our classrooms, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the
opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope
with personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, and
to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers.
Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes they work on individual tasks and assignments; and
they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate.
We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this
effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced work; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect
our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal.
Question 1. In this passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed-ability teaching” is
A. critical
B. questioning
C. approving
D. objective
Question 2. The phrase “held back” in paragraph 1 means
A. forced to study in lower classes
B. prevented from advancing
C. made to remain in the same classes
D. made to lag behind
Question 3. The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of the
pupils
A. learning ability and communicative skills

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B. intellectual abilities
C. personal and social skills
D. total personality
Question 4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities.
B. Group work gives pupils to opportunity to learn to work together with others.
C. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers.
D. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability.
Question 5. The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to
A. Recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
B. Emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching
C. Offer advice on the proper use of the school library
D. Argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class.
Question 6. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability class.
B. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work.
C. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes different intellectual abilities
D. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full.
Question 7. According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-ability
teaching
A. Formula class teaching is the important way to give the pupils essential skills such as those to be used
in the library.
B. Pupils can be hindered from an all-around development.
C. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own.
D. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class.
Question 8. Which of he following statements can best summarize the main idea of the passage?
A. Children, in general develop at different rates.
B. Bright children do benefit from mixed-class teaching.
C. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not-so-bright pupils.
D. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class.
Question 9. According to the passage, “streaming pupils”

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A. is the act of putting pupils into classes according to their academic abilities
B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience.
C. is quite discouraging
D. will help the pupils learn best.
Question 10. According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because
A. formal class teaching is appropriate
B. it aims at developing the children’s total personality
C. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems
D. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils

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THI ONLINE - RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ GIÁO DỤC

Cô: Vũ Thị Mai Phương
Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
It’s often said that we learn things at the wrong time. University students frequently do the minimum of
work because they’re crazy about a good social life instead. Children often scream before their piano
practice because it’s so boring. They have to be given gold stars and medals to be persuaded to swim, or
have to be bribed to take exams. But the story is different when you’re older.
Over the years, I’ve done my share of adult learning. At 30, I went to a college and did courses in History
and English. It was an amazing experience. For starters, I was paying, so there was no reason to be late –
I was the one frowning and drumming my fingers if the tutor was late, not the other way round. Indeed, if
I could persuade him to linger for an extra five minutes, it was a bonus, not a nuisance. I wasn’t
frightened to ask questions, and homework was a pleasure not a pain. When I passed an exam, I had
passed it for me and me alone, not for my parents or my teachers. The satisfaction I got was entirely
personal.
Some people fear going back to school because they worry that their brains have got rusty. But the joy is
that, although some parts have rusted up, your brain has learnt all kinds of other things since you were
young. It has learnt to think independently and flexibly and is much better at relating one thing to another.
What you lose in the rust department, you gain in the maturity department.
In some ways, age is a positive plus. For instance, when you’re older, you get less frustrated. Experience
has told you that, if you’re calm and simply do something carefully again and again, eventually you’ll get
the hang of it. The confidence you have in other areas – from being able to drive a car, perhaps – means
that if you can’t, say, build a chair instantly, you don’t, like a child, want to destroy your first pathetic
attempts. Maturity tells you that you will, with application, eventually get there.
I hated piano lessons at school, but I was good at music. And coming back to it, with a teacher who
could explain why certain exercises were useful and with musical concepts that, at the age of ten, I could
never grasp, was magical. Initially, I did feel a bit strange, thumping out a piece that I’d played for my
school exams, with just as little comprehension of what the composer intended as I’d had all those years
before. But soon, complex emotions that I never knew poured out from my fingers, and suddenly I could
understand why practice makes perfect.
Question 1. It is implied in paragraph 1 that
A. parents should encourage young learners to study more
B. young learners are usually lazy in their class
C. young learners often lack a good motivation for learning
D. teachers should give young learners less homework
Question 2. The writer’s main point in paragraph 2 is to show that as people grow up,
A. they have a more positive attitude towards learning
B. they cannot learn as well as younger learners
C. they tend to learn less as they are discouraged

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D. they get more impatient with their teachers

Question 3. The phrase “For starters” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
A. First and foremost
B. At the starting point
C. At the beginning
D. For beginners
Question 4. While doing some adult learning courses at a college, the writer was surprised
A. to get on better with the tutor
B. to feel learning more enjoyable
C. to have more time to learn
D. to be able to learn more quickly
Question 5. In paragraph 3, the word “rusty” means
A. impatient because of having nothing to do
B. not as good as it used to be through lack of practice
C. staying alive and becoming more active
D. covered with rust and not as good as it used to be
Question 6. The phrase “get there” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. arrive at an intended place with difficulty
B. achieve your aim with hard work
C. have the things you have long desired D. receive a school or college degree
Question 7. All of the following are true about adult learning EXCEPT
A. adult learners have fewer advantages than young learners
B. adults think more independently and flexibly than young people
C. experience in doing other things can help one’s learning
D. young people usually feel less patient than adults
Question 8. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that maturity is a positive plus in the learning
process because adult learners
A. pay more attention to detail than younger learners
B. are able to organize themselves better than younger learners
C. are less worried about learning than younger learners

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D. have become more patient than younger learners

Question 9. It is implied in the last paragraph that when you learn later in life, you
A. should expect to take longer to learn than when you were younger
B. can sometimes understand more than when you were younger
C. are not able to concentrate as well as when you were younger
D. find that you can recall a lot of things you learnt when younger
Question 10. What is the writer’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To encourage adult learning.
B. To describe adult learning methods.
C. To show how fast adult learning is.
D. To explain reasons for learning.
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Surprisingly, no one knows how many children receive education in English hospitals, still less the
content or quality of that education. Proper records are just now kept.
We know that more than 850,000 children go through hospital each year, and that every child of
school age has a legal right to continue to receive education while in hospital. We also know there is only
one hospital teacher to every 1,000 children in hospital.
Little wonder the latest survey concludes that the extent and type of hospital teaching available differ a
great deal across the country. It found that half the hospitals in England which admit children have no
teacher. A further quarter have only a part - time teacher. The special children’s hospitals in major cities
do best; general hospitals in the country and holiday areas are worst off.
From this survey, one can estimate that fewer than one in five children have some contact with a
hospital teacher - and that contact may be as little as two hours a day. Most children interviewed were
surprised to find a teacher in hospital at all They had not been prepared for it by parents or their own
school, if there was a teacher, they were much more likely to read books and do maths or number work;
without a teacher they would only play games.
Reasons for hospital teaching range from preventing a child falling behind and maintaining the habit of
school to keeping a child occupied, and the latter is often all the teacher can do. The position and
influence of many teachers was summed up when parents referred to them as “the library lady” or just
“the helper”.
Children tend to rely on concerned school friends to keep in touch with school work. Several parents
spoke of requests for work being ignored or refused by the school. Once back at school, children rarely
get extra teaching, and are told to catch up as best they can.

Many short - stay child - patients catch up quickly. But schools do very little to ease the anxiety
about Falling behind expressed by many of the children interviewed.
Question 11. The writer of this article points out that

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A. every child in hospital receives some teaching

B. not enough is known about hospital teaching
C. hospital teaching is of poor quality
D. many children pass through hospital each year
Question 12. This latest survey found that hospital teaching is provided
A for the whole of the usual school day
B. in every children’s hospital in the country
C. for a small proportion of children
D. by full - time teachers
Question 13. It seems that the children interviewed in hospital
A. liked having maths lessons regularly
B. wanted to play games most of the time
C. did not expect to receive any teaching
D. did not want any contact with their schools
Question 14. It is suggested that most teachers of children in hospital were
A. successful in getting the co - operation of parents
B. unable to get help from other hospital staff
C. unable to provide a proper teaching programme
D. in a position of great influence in the hospital
Question 15. Some children in hospital are able to keep up with their school work because
A. the nurses try to teach them
B. their friends help them to do so
C. teachers from the school come to the hospital
D. their parents bring them books from the library
Exercise 3. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Increasing numbers of parents in the U.S. are choosing to teach their children at home. In fact, the U.S.
Department of Education has estimated that in 1999, about 850,000 children were being homeschooled.
Some educational experts say that the real number is double this estimate, and the ranks of homeschooled
children seem to be growing at the average rate of about eleven percent every year.
At one time, there was a theory accounting for homeschooling: it was traditionally used for students who
could not attend school because of behavioral or learning difficulties. Today, however, more parents are
taking on the responsibility of educating their own children at home due to their dissatisfaction with the

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educational system. Many parents are unhappy about class size, as well as problems inside the classroom.
Teacher shortages and lack of funding mean that, in many schools, one teacher is responsible for thirty or
forty students. The children are, therefore, deprived of the attention they need. Escalating classroom
violence has also motivated some parents to remove their children from school.
Although there have been a lot of arguments for and against it, homeschooling in the U.S. has become a
multi-million dollar industry, and it is growing bigger and bigger. There are now plenty of websites,
support groups, and conventions that help parents protect their rights and enable them to learn more about
educating their children. Though once it was the only choice for troubled children, homeschooling today
is an accepted alternative to an educational system that many believe is failing.
Question 16. The number of parents who want to teach their own children in the U.S. is
A. remaining unchanged
B. remaining the same
C. going up
D. going down
Question 17. The past participle “homeschooled” in the first paragraph is best equivalent to
“_____ at home”.
A. taught
B. self-learned
C. untaught
D. self-studied
Question 18. This estimated number was presented by
A. a governmental office
B. school teachers
C. the parents
D. homeschooled children
Question 19. According to some experts, the exact number of homeschooled children then must be
A. 1,600,000
B. 850,000
C. 1,900,000
D. 1,700,000
Question 20. The closest synonym of the participle phrase “accounting for” in the second
paragraph is
A. explaining

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B. reasoning
C. counting for
D. calculating documents of
Question 21. More parents teach their children because they completely _____ the current
educational system.
A. please with
B. object to
C. appeal to
D. approve of
Question 22. The noun “dissatisfaction” in this paragraph is best equivalent to “_____”.
A. disappointment
B. disagreement
C. discrimination
D. discouragement
Question 23. Many parents stop their children from going to school because it is now too _____ for
them.
A. explosive
B. expensive
C. dangerous
D. humorous
Question 24. The word “arguments” at the beginning of the third paragraph can be best replaced
by
A. rows
B. quarrels
C. viewpoints
D. discussions
Question 25. The attitude of the author towards homeschooling can be best described as
A. acceptable
C. remarkable
B. favorable
D. unfavorable

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PRO 3M/ PRO 3MPLUS – ÔN LUYỆN TOÀN DIỆN CHO KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA
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TÀI LIỆU ĐI KÈM BÀI GIẢNG

RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ DANH NHÂN
Thuộc khóa học : Plus 2
Luyện đọc hiểu và điền từ chuyên sâu

Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương

Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Ever since she burst onto the pop scene in the early eighties, Madonna has remained one of the most
well-known celebrities in the world. She has shown herself to be a talented singer, dancer, songwriter and
actress. To have achieved this she undoubtedly has a strong belief in herself and her abilities.
It is possible she gained her strong personality through her touch childhood experiences. She went to a
strict catholic school, was one of many children, and her family was split up after her mother died from
cancer. Eventually, in search of fame, she left college and went to New York with only her suitcase and
a few dollars.
Hugely successful, often through controversy, Madonna has always known what the public and media
want. She has gone from shocking clothes and pop songs to setting trends and family life. She caused
disagreement by playing feminist roles in films and featuring in pop videos with images of Jesus Christ.
Throughout all her years and different styles and phases, she has always been able to give the general
public entertainment. Madonna has become one of the biggest stars on the planet, and has sold over 100
million recorders worldwide, making her one of the highest-earning entertainers of her generation.
Even now as she approaches fifty and is a mother, Madonna is likely to contribute to entertain us for many
more years, but what nobody can be sure of is exactly what she will do next.
Question 1. What is the writer’s main purpose in writing this text?
A. To discuss Madonna’s acting career, and encourage other pop stars to go into acting
B. To show how well Madonna achieved success throughout the years
C. To remind people that money is not everything, and it comes and goes
D. To claim that fashion is always change, and no one can stay famous forever
Question 2. As a child, Madonna was probably ________
A. Happiest during her school days
B. Lonely and without anyone to talk to
C. Unhappy in New York
D. Made stronger due to different events
Question 3. What is true according to the text?
A. Madonna has always been careful not to offend the public
B. Madonna apologized to the Church after causing offence with a pop video
C. Madonna often upset people but achieved a great deal
D. Madonna disliked the controversy in her career
Question 4. What does the writer say about Madonna’s success?
A. She is one of richest performers of her time
B. She has earned more money than many international businesses
C. Her success is mainly due to the American market
D. Her consistent style has followed her to earn so much money

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Question 5. How would the writer probably describe Madonna’ future?

A. “After so much success, acting will become more important than singing”
B. “Family life will be the main factor in Madonna’s everyday life, no more wild days!”
C. “She’ll keep on pleasing the public in a predictable way”
D. “Madonna is sure to keep us guessing on her future plan”
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Ralph Earl was born into a Connecticut farm family in 1751. He chose early to become a painter and
looked for what training was available in his home state and in Boston. Earl was one of the first American
artists to paint landscapes. Among his first paintings were scenes from Revolutionary War battles of
Lexington and Concord. In 1778 Earl went to London to study with Benjamin West for four years. When
Earl returned to United states, he was jailed for fourteen months for outstanding debts. While still a
prisoner, he painted portraits of some New York City’s most elegant society women and their husbands.
After his release, he took up the trade of itinerant portrait painter, working his way through southern New
England and New York. Earl didn’t flatter his subjects, but his portraits show a deep understanding of
them, perhaps because he had sprung from the same roots.
Among Earl’s most famous paintings is his portrait of Justice Oliver Ellsworth and his wife, Abigail. To
provide counterpoint to the severity of the couple, he accurately details the relative luxury of the
Ellsworth’s interior furnishings. The view through the window behind them shows sunlit fields, wellkept
fences, and a bend of the Connecticut River. One of Earl’s paintings is something of an anomaly.
Reclining Hunter, which for many years was attributed to Thomas Gainsborough, shows a well- dressed
gentleman resting beneath a tree. In the foreground, he displays a pile of birds, the result of a day’s hunt.
The viewer can also see a farmer’s donkey lying in the background, another of the hunter’s victims. This
outrageously funny portrait couldn’t have been commissioned – no one would have wanted to be
portrayed in such an absurd way. However, this painting uncharacteristically shows Earl’s wit as well as
his uncommon technical skills.
Question 1. What is the author’s main purpose?
A. to discuss the life and work of an American painter.
B. to compare the art of Ralph Earl and Thomas Gainsborough.
C. to trace Ralph Earl’s artistic influences.
D. to describe the art scene in New York in the late eighteenth century.
Question 2. Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as a subject of one of Earl’s
paintings?
A. People B. Landscapes C. Battle scenes D. Fruit and Flowers
Question 3. According to the passage, Benjamin West was Ralph Earl’s ________
A. subject B. teacher C. student D. rival
Question 4. Which of the following could be substituted for outstanding without changing the
meaning of the sentence?
A. Excellent B. Shocking C. Unpaid D. illegal
Question 5. The word “itinerant” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. traveling B. successful C. talented D. innovative
Question 6. The author uses the phrase “sprung from the same roots” to indicate that Ralph Earl
and his subjects _________
A. lived in the same town B. were about the same age
C. were equally successful D. had the same background

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Question 7. According to the passage, one of the distinguishing features of the portrait of Oliver
and Abigail Ellsworth is the contrast between ________
A. the plainness of the figures and the luxury of the furnishings.
B. the two styles used to paint the two figures
C. the sunlit fields and the dark interior
D. the straight fences and the curving Connecticut River
Question 8. Why does the author refer to Reclining Hunter as “something of an anomaly’’?
A. It is so severe B. It is quite humorous
C. It shows Earl’s talent D. It was commissioned
Question 9. The word “he” in the last paragraph refers to?
A. Ralph Earl B. the farmer C. the hunter D. Thomas Gainsborough
Question 10. The author’s attitude toward Ralph Earl is _______
A. admiring B. antagonistic C. neutral D. unflattering

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RÈN LUYỆN CHỦ ĐỀ DANH NHÂN (2)

Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Marian Anderson's brilliant singing career began at age six when she sang
spirituals at the Union Baptist Church in her hometown of Philadelphia. She toured
Europe in the 1920s, drawing vast acclaim; however, when she returned to the
United States she was still barred from performing on the American operatic stage.
Strict segregation laws were in force at the time, keeping many Black performers
out of exclusively white theaters and concert halls. After she was prevented from
singing in Washington's segregated Constitution Hall in 1939, Eleanor Roosevelt
intervened and arranged for Miss Anderson to perform at the Lincoln Memorial.
Marian Anderson's beautiful contralto voice broke down racial barriers, showing
white Americans that blacks had a profound contribution to make to America's
cultural life. Eventually, in 1955, she became the first African-American singer to
perform at New York's Metropolitan Opera. In her many years of touring she had
to endure a racism that forced her to enter concert halls and hotels through service
entrances. Her grace under this stress showed a moral perseverance that paralleled
that of the famous Martin Luther King, Jr.

Question 1. We can conclude from the passage that Marian Anderson first
toured Europe instead of the United States because
A. she was paid more in Europe
B. she was not allowed to perform in the United States
C. there were better operatic facilities in Europe
D. it was too expensive to tour in the United States
Question 2. The word “acclaim” could best be replaced by
A. publicity
B. fund
C. approval
D. attention
Question 3. The word “intervened” could best be replaced by

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A. appreciated
B. supported
C. interrupted
D. interfered
Question 4. The significance of Anderson’s Lincoln memorial performance
was that
A. Eleanor Roosevelt arranged it
B. her contralto voice was beautiful
C. 75,000 people came
D. she was a black performer
Question 5. The phrase "broke down racial barriers" means
A. disclosed opportunities
B. shattered obstacles
C. revealed inaccuracies
D. analyzed destinations
Question 6. Where is the best place in the passage to add the following
sentence?
“A crowd of 75,000 people came to watch her sing before the Memorial.”
A. after the word “…Memorial”
B. after the word “…Stage”
C. after the word “…Opera”
D. after the word “…entrances”
Question 7. The word “grace” is similar in meaning to
A. awkwardness
B. cruelty
C. elegance

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D. saintliness
Question 8. According to the passage, what did Marian Anderson have in
common with Martin Luther, Jr.?
A. Moral perseverance
B. a clear strong voice
C. a performance at the Lincoln memorial
D. singing in church
Question 9. The author’s tone in this passage is
A. instructive
B. critical
C. respectful
D. regretful
Question 10. What does the word “this” refer to?
A. touring for many years
B. racist attitudes toward her
C. performing before thousands of people
D. being like Martin Luther King, Jr

Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
Computer programmer David Jones earned £35,000 a year designing new
computer games, yet he cannot find a bank prepared to let him have a cheque card.
Instead, he has been told to wait another two years, until he is 18.
The 16 – year - old works for a small firm in Liverpool, where the problem of
most young people of his age is finding a job. David's firm releases two new games
for the expanding home Computer market each month.
But David's biggest headache is what to do with his money. Despite his salary,
earned by inventing new programmes within tight schedules, with bonus payments

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and profit - sharing, he cannot drive a car, take out a mortgagee, or obtain credit
cards.
He lives with his parents in their council house in Liverpool, where his father is
a bus driver. His company has to pay £ 150 a month in taxi fares to get him the five
miles to work and back every day because David cannot drive.
David got his job with the Liverpool - based company four months ago, a year
after leaving school with six O-levels and working for a time in a computer shop.
"I got the job because the people who run the firm knew I had already written some
programmes," he said.
"I suppose £35,000 sounds a lot but actually that's being pessimistic. I hope it
will come to more than that this year." He spends some of his money on records
and clothes, and gives his mother £20 a week. But most of his spare time is spent
working.
"Unfortunately, computing was not part of our studies at school," he said. "But I
had been studying it in books and magazines for four years in my spare time. I
knew what I wanted to do and never considered staying on at school. Most people
in this business are fairly young, anyway."
David added: "I would like to earn a million and I suppose early retirement is a
possibility. You never know when the market might disappear."
Question 1. Why is David different from other young people of his age?
A. He earns an extremely high salary
B. He is not unemployed
C. He does not go out much
D. He lives at home with his parents
Question 2. David's greatest problem is
A. making the banks treat him as an adult
B. inventing computer games
C. spending his salary
D. learning to drive
Question 3. He was employed by the company because

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A. he had worked in a computer shop

B. he had written some computer programmes
C. he works very hard
D. he had learnt to use computers at school
Question 4. He left school after taking O - levels because
A. he did not enjoy school
B. he wanted to work with computers and staying at school did not help him
C. he was afraid of getting too old to start computing
D. he wanted to earn a lot of money
Question 5. Why does David think he might retire early?
A. You have to be young to write computer programmes.
B. He wants to stop working when he is' a millionaire.
C. He thinks computer games might not always sell so well.
D. He thinks his firm might go bankrupt;

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TÀI LIỆU ĐI KÈM BÀI GIẢNG

RÈN KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC HIỂU CHỦ ĐỀ NGHỆ THUẬT
Thuộc khóa học : Plus 2
Luyện đọc hiểu và điền từ chuyên sâu

Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương

Exercise 1. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
One of the major problems in the art world is how to distinguish and promote an artist. In effect, a market
must be created for an artist to be successful. The practice of signing and numbering individual prints was
introduced by James Abbott McNeill Whistler, the nineteenth-century artist best known for the painting
of his mother, called “Arrangement in Grey and Black”, but known to most of us as “Whistler’s Mother”.
Whistler’s brotherin-law, Sir Francis Seymour Haden, a less well-known artist, had speculated that
collectors might find prints more attractive if they knew that they were only a limited number of copies
produced.
By signing the work in pencil, an artist could guarantee and personalize each print.As soon as Whistler
and Haden began the practice of signing and numbering their prints, their work began to increase in value.
When other artists noticed that the signed prints commanded higher prices, they began copying the
procedure.
Although most prints are signed on the right-hand side in the margin below the image, the placement of
the signature is a matter of personal choice. Indeed, prints have been signed within the image, in any of
the margins, or even on the reverse side of the print. Wherever the artist elects to sign it, a signed print is
still valued above an unsigned one, even in the same edition.
Question 1. What was true about the painting of Whistler’s mother?
A. It was a completely new method of painting.
B. Its title was “Arrangement in Grey and Black”.
C. It was not one of Whistler’s best paintings.
D. It was painted by Sir Francis Seymour Haden.
Question 2. Which of the following would be a better title for the passage?
A. Copying Limited Edition Prints
B. The Practice of Signing Prints
C. Whistler’s Mother
D. Whistler’s Greatest Works
Question 3. What made Whistler’s work more valuable?
A. His brother-in-law’s prints. B. His painting of his mother.
C. His signature on the prints. D. His fame as an artist.
Question 4. The word “it” refers to ________
A. the same edition B. the image C. the reverse side D. a print
Question 5. Where in the passage does the author indicate where an artist’s signature might be
found on a work?
A. Although most prints …reverse side of the print.
B. By signing the work … personalize each print.
C. Wherever the artist elects … even in the same edition.
D. When other artists … copying the procedure

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Question 6. What does the author mean by the statement: “As soon as Whistler and Haden began
the practice of signing and numbering their prints, their work began to increase in value”?
A. The signatures became more valuable than the prints.
B. The signing and numbering of prints was not very popular.
C. The prints that were signed and numbered were worth more.
D. Many copies of the prints were made.
Question 7. The word “distinguish” is closest in meaning to _________
A. allow exceptions B. accept changes
C. recognize differences D. make improvements
Question 8. The author mentions all of the following as reasons why a collector prefers a signed
print EXCEPT _________
A. it guarantees the print’s authenticity
B. it makes the print more personal
C. it encourages higher prices for the print
D. it limits the number of copies of the print
Question 9. The word “speculated” could best be replaced by ________
A. guessed B. denied C. noticed D. announced
Question 10. It can be inferred from the passage that artists number their prints _______
A. at the same place on each of the prints.
B. to guarantee a limited edition.
C. when the buyer requests it.
D. as an accounting procedure.
Exercise 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question.
It is very difficult to succeed in the music business; nine out to ten bands that release a first record fail
to produce a second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it requires
an intricate knowledge of how a record company functions. The process begins when a representative of
a company's Artists and Repertoire (A & R) department visits bars and night clubs, scouting for young,
talented bands. After the representative identifies a promising band, he or she will work to negotiate a
contract with that band. The signing of this recording contract is a slow process. A company will spend a
long time investigating the band itself as well as current trends in popular music. During this period, it is
important that a band reciprocate with an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about
the record company and making personal connections within the different departments that will handle
their recordings.
Once a band has signed the contract and has finished recording an album, the Publicity and Promotions
department takes over. This department decides whether or not to mass produce and market the band's
album. Most bands fail to make personal contacts in this second department, thus losing their voice in
the important final process of producing and marketing their album. This loss of voice often contributes
to the band's failure as a recording group.
Question 11. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. Nine out of ten bands fail to produce a second record.
B. It is important for a band to have an intricate knowledge of how a recording company works.
C. Making personal connections will help the band in the final decisions about the promotion of their
album.
D. The main factors in a band's success are luck and patience.

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Question 12. The phrase "an intricate" could be best replaced by which of thefollowing?
A. a fleeting B. a straightforward C. an extraneous D. a detailed
Question 13. According to the passage, the initial contact between a band and a recording company
is made by _________
A. the band's manager B. a band member
C. an AR representative D. the Publicity and Promotions department
Question 14.The word "reciprocate" could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. commence B. respond C. practice D. confirm
Question 15. The word "investigation" is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. production B. betrothal C. credential D. examination
Question 16. What is the meaning of "takes over"?
A. takes charge B. takes pleasure C. takes advice D. takes blame
Question 17. The author mentions that a band's success is dependent on all of the following factors
EXCEPT _________
A. having patience
B. making personal contacts with people in the company
C. understanding how a record company functions
D. playing music that sounds like music of famous bands
Question 18. According to the passage, the Publicity and Promotions department _________
A. has the final decision in producing an album
B. handles the recording arrangements for the band
C. sends representatives to look for new talent
D. visits bars and night clubs
Question 19. The author uses the phrase "losing their voice" to illustrate that they _________
A. are forbidden to speak B. are unable to visit
C. have no representation D. are too shy to express their desires
Question 20. It can be inferred from the passage that ___________
A. the music industry is full of opportunities for young bands
B. the AR department has a very large staff
C. most bands do not fully understand how record companies operate
D. the cost of recording an album is very expensive

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