STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)

PHYSICS
SECTION – A 7. The velocity v versus time t graph of a body
1. Choose the wrong statement. in a straight line is as shown in figure.
A) The motion of an object along a straight
line is a rectilinear motion.
B) The speed in general is less than the
magnitude of the velocity.
C) The slope of the displacement –time
graph gives the velocity of the body. The displacement of the body in five seconds
D) The area under the velocity-time graph is
A) 2 m B) 3 m
gives the displacement of the body.
C) 4 m D) 5 m
2. A train moves from rest with acceleration α 8. In the given v-t graph the distance travelled
and in time t1 covers a distance x. It then by the body in 5 seconds will be
decelerates to rest at constant retardation β
for distance y in time t 2 . Then
x β β t y
A) = B) =2=
y α α t1 x
x β t1
C) x = y D) y
= α
= t2

3. The slope of the tangent drawn on position

A) 60 m B) 100 m
–time graph at any instant is equal to the
C) 40 m D) 20 m
instantaneous
9. Position-time graph for motion with negative
A) acceleration B) force
acceleration is
C) velocity D) momentum A)
4. A body is travelling west to east with a speed
of 9 m/s and with an acceleration of 2 m/s 2
acting west on it. The displacement of the
body during the 5th second of its motion is
A) 0.25 m B) 0.5 m
B)
C) 0.75 m D) Zero
5. A ball thrown vertically upwards after
reaching a maximum height h, returns to
the starting point after a time of 10 s. Its
displacement is
A) h B) 2 h C)

C) 10 h D) 20 h
6. A 130 m long train is moving in up direction
with speed 72 km/hr. Another train of 120
m long is moving in down direction with
D)
speed of 108 km/hr. The time in which
second train crosses the first train will be
A) 5 s B) 10 s
C) 12 s D) 15 s

1
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
10. The nature of s-t graph shown here is a 16. A body is falling freely under gravity. The
parabola. From this graph we find that distances covered by the body in first,
second and third minutes of its motion are
in the ratio
A) 1 : 4 : 9 B) 1 : 2 : 3
C) 1 : 3 : 5 D) 1 : 5 : 6
17. A train of length 200 m travelling at 30 m/s
overtakes another train of length 300 m
A) the body is moving with uniform velocity. travelling at 20 m/s in same direction. The
B) the body is moving with uniform speed. time taken by the first train to pass the
C) the body is starting from rest and moving second is
with uniform acceleration. A) 30 s B) 10 s
D) the body is not moving at all. C) 50 s D) 40 s
11. A particle moves with uniform velocity. 18. A body is allowed to fall from a height of 100
Which of the following statements about the m. If the time taken for the first 50 m is 𝐭 𝟏 ,
motion of the particle is true? and for the remaining 50 m is 𝐭 𝟐 , then
A) Its speed is zero A) t1 = t 2 B) t1 > t 2
B) Its acceleration is zero C) t1 < t 2
D) depends upon the mass
C) Its acceleration is opposite to the velocity
19. A body is projected vertically upwards with
D) Its speed may be variable a velocity of 10 m/𝑠 −1 . It reaches maximum
12. The position x of particle varies with time t height h at time t. In time t/2, the height
as x = at 2 − bt 3 . The acceleration of the covered is
ℎ 2
particle is zero at time t which will be equal A) B) ℎ
2 5
to C)
3
ℎ D)
5
ℎ
2a b 4 8
A) B) 20. The displacement ‘s’ of a particle is
3b a
𝐚
C) D) Zero proportional to the first power of time t, i.e.,
𝟑𝐛
13. The bus starts from rest with a constant s ∝ t; then the acceleration of the particle is
acceleration of 5 ms −2. At the same time a A) Infinite B) Zero
car travelling with constant velocity of 50 C) A small finite value
D) A large finite value
ms −1 passes the bus. Assuming that the car
21. The location of a particle is changed. What
passes the bus at the instant the bus is
can we say about the displacement and
starting when the bus overtakes the car,
distance covered by the particle?
what is its speed?
A) Both cannot be zero
A) 25 ms −1 B) 50 ms−1
B) One of the two may be zero
C) 75 ms−1 D) 100 ms −1 C) Both must be zero
14. A body from top of a tower falls through 40 D) If one is positive, the other is negative
m during the last two seconds of its fall. The and vice-versa
height of tower is (g = 10 𝐦𝐬 𝟐 ) 22. If a body starts from rest, the time in which
A) 60 m B) 45 m it covers a particular displacement with
uniform acceleration is
C) 80 m D) 50 m
A) Inversely proportional to the square root
15. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60 of the displacement
km/h, can brake to stop within a distance B) Inversely proportional to the
of 20 m. If the car is going twice as fast, i.e., displacement
120 km/h, the stopping distance will be C) Directly proportional to the displacement
A) 20 m B) 40 m D) Directly proportional to the square root
C) 60 m D) 80 m of the displacement

2
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
23. Choose the correct statement from the 29. In 1. 0s a particle goes from point A to point
following: B, moving in a semicircle of radius 1. 0 m as
A) The magnitude of instantaneous velocity shown in figure the magnitude of average
of particle is equal to its instantaneous velocity is
speed.
B) The magnitude of the average velocity in
an interval is equal to its average speed
in that interval.
C) It is possible to have a situation in which
the speed of the particle is never zero but
the average speed in an interval is zero. A) 3.14 m/s B) 2.0 m/s
D) It is possible to have a situation in which C) 1.0 m/s D) Zero
the speed of the particle is zero but the 30. A ball is thrown downwards with velocity v
average speed is not zero. from the top of a tower and it reaches the
24. A stone falls from a balloon that is ground with speed 3v. what is the height of
descending at a uniform rate of 12ms −1 . The the tower?
displacement of the stone from the point of A) v 2 /g B) 2v 2 /g
release after 10 seconds is: C) 4v /g
2
D) 8v 2 /g
(g = 9.8 m/s2 ) 31. Which of the following curves does not
A) 490 m B) 510 m represent motion in one dimension?
C) 610 m D) 725 m A)
25. The velocity acquired by a body moving with
uniform acceleration is 30 m/s in 2 seconds
and 60 m/s in 4 seconds. The initial velocity
is:
A) Zero B) 2 m/s B)
C) 4 m/s D) 10 m/s
26. A car moving with a velocity of 10 m/s can
be stopped by the application of a constant
force F in a distance of 20 m.
If the velocity of the car is 30 m/s. It can
C)
be stopped by this force in
𝟐𝟎
A) 𝟑
m B) 20 m
C) 60 m D) 180 m
27. A body starts from rest and moves with
constant acceleration for t s. It travels a D)
distance 𝒙𝟏 in first half of time and 𝒙𝟐 in next
half of time, then
A) x2 = 3x1 B) x2 = x1
C) x2 = 4x1 D) x2 = 2x1
32. A body is projected vertically upwards. The
28. A body A starts from rest with an
times corresponding to height h while
acceleration 𝒂𝟏 . After 2 seconds, another
ascending and while descending are t1 and
body B starts from rest with an
t 2 respectively.
acceleration𝒂𝟐 . If they travel equal
Then the velocity of projection is (g is
distances in the 5th second, after the start
acceleration due to gravity)
of A, then the ratio 𝒂𝟏 ∶ 𝒂𝟐 is equal to 𝐠√𝐭 𝟏 𝐭 𝟐 𝐠(𝐭 𝟏 +𝐭 𝟐 )
A) 5 : 9 B) 5 : 7 A) 𝟐
B) 𝟐
gt1 t2
C) 9 : 5 D) 9 : 7 C) g √t1 t 2 D) (t1 +t2 )

3
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
33. A particle moving with uniform acceleration 40. Which one of the following represents
has velocity of 6 m 𝒔−𝟏 at a distance 5 m displacement-time graph of two objects A
from the initial position. After moving and B moving with zero relative velocity?
another 7 m the velocity becomes 8 m 𝒔−𝟏 . A)
The initial velocity and acceleration of the
particle are
A) 2 ms −1 ; 4m s −2 B) 4 ms −1 ; 2m s −2
C) 4 ms ; 4m s
−1 −2
D) 6 ms −1 ; 1m s −2
34. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a
velocity of 20 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 from the top of a multi-
storey building of 25 m high. How high will
B)
the ball rise?
(Take g = 10 m/s −2 )
A) 40 m B) 45 m
C) 20 m D) 25 m
35. A body covers a distance of 4 m in 3rd second
and 12 m in 5th second. If the motion is
uniformly accelerated, how far will it travel
from 5 s to 8 s?
C)
A) 10 m B) 30 m
C) 40 m D) 60 m

SECTION – B
36. A body initially at rest is moving with unifom
acceleration a. Its velocity after n seconds is
v. The displacement of the body in last 2s is
2v(n−1) v(n−1) D)
A) n
B) n
v(n+1) 2v(n+1)
C) n
D) n
37. A bullet fired into a wooden block loses half
of its velocity after penetrating 40 cm. It
comes to rest after penetrating a further
distance of
22 40
A) cm B) cm 41. Assertion: The slope of position-time graph
3 3
20 22
C) cm D) cm of a body moving uniformly in a straight line
3 5
38. A car moving with a speed of 50 km h−1 can
is parallel to position axis.
be stopped by applying brakes after moving
at least 6 m. If the same car is moving at a Reason: The position-time graph in a non-
speed of 100 km h−1 the minimum stopping uniform motion gives constant velocity at all
distance is instants of time.
A) 6 m B) 12 m
C) 18 m D) 24 m A) If both Assertion & Reason are True &
39. A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 the Reason is a correct explanation of the
km h−1 ejects its products of combustion at Assertion.
the speed of 1500 km h−1 relative to the jet B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
plane. The speed of the products of Reason is not a correct explanation of
combustion with respect to an observer on the Assertion.
the ground is C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
A) 500 km h−1 B) 1000 km h−1 False.
C) 1500 km h −1
D) 2000 km h−1 D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

4
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
42. Assertion: A particle may be momentarily at 45. Assertion: An object can have constant
rest and yet have non-zero acceleration. speed but variable velocity.
Reason: Speed is a scalar but velocity is a
Reason: The zero velocity of a particle at any
vector quantity.
instant does not necessarily imply zero A) If both Assertion & Reason are True &
acceleration at that instant. the Reason is a correct explanation of the
A) If both Assertion & Reason are True & Assertion.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Assertion.
B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
the Assertion. C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
False.
False.
D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true. D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
43. Assertion: The relative velocity between any 46. Assertion: For a moving object,
two bodies moving in opposite direction is I displacement | ≤ distance.
equal to sum of the velocities of two bodies. Reason: Instantaneous speed is equal to the
Reason: Sometimes relative velocity magnitude of the instantaneous velocity.
between two bodies is equal to difference in A) If both Assertion & Reason are True &
velocities of the two bodies. the Reason is a correct explanation of the
A) If both Assertion & Reason are True & Assertion.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Assertion.
B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
the Assertion.
C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
False. False.
D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true. D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
44. Assertion: If the displacement of the body is 47. Assertion: A body moving with constant
zero, the distance covered by it may not be acceleration, always travels equal distance
zero. in equal time intervals.
Reason: Motion of the body with constant
Reason: Displacement depends only on end
acceleration is a non- uniform motion.
points; distance (path length) depends on A) If both Assertion & Reason are True &
the actual path. the Reason is a correct explanation of the
A) If both Assertion & Reason are True & Assertion.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Assertion.
B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
the Assertion. C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
False. False.
D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true. D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

5
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
48. Assertion: In a free fall, the initial velocity 50. Assertion: The speed of a body cannot be
of a body may not be zero. negative.
Reason: Free fall means the vertical Reason: If the body is moving in the
acceleration of the body is equal to g. opposite direction of positive motion, then
A) If both Assertion & Reason are True & its speed is negative.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the A) If both Assertion & Reason are True &
Assertion.
B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
the Assertion.
C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
False. Reason is not a correct explanation of
D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
49. Assertion: A positive acceleration can be the Assertion.
associated with ‘slowing down’ of the body. C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
Reason: The origin and the positive False.
direction of an axis are a matter of choice.
D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
A) If both Assertion & Reason are True &
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is
False.
D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A 54. Find the INCORRECT arrangement with
51. In the general electronic configuration of an respect to the increasing order of
element (n − 2)f 1−14 (n − 1)d0−1 ns 2 , if the atomic/ionic radii.
value of n = 6, the element will belong to A) I + < I < I −
________. B) N < C < P
A) lanthanides B) actinides C) F − < O2− < N 3−
D) Cl < Si < P
C) transition element
55. The maximum number of elements in 4th
D) alkaline earth metals period is ________.
52. An element has electronic configuration A) 8 B) 18
1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 5s2 . Predict its C) 32 D) 36
period, group and block. 56. Identify the sixth noble gas.
A) Period = 3, group = 16, block = p A) He B) Xe
C) Rn D) Kr
B) Period = 5, group = 2, block = s
57. Identify the INCORRECT match.
C) Period = 4, group = 10, block = p Name IUPAC Official
D) Period = 5, group = 12, block = s Name
53. In P3− , S 2− and Cl− ions, the decreasing order (i) Unnilunium (a) Mendelevium
of size is (ii) Unniltrium (b) Lawrencium
A) Cl− < S 2− < P3− (iii) Unnilhexium (c) Seaborgium
B) P3− > S 2− > Cl− (iv) Unununium (d) Darmstadium
C) S 2− < Cl− < P3− A) (ii), (b) B) (iii), (c)
D) S 2− < P3− < Cl− C) (iv), (d) D) (i), (a)

6
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
58. The electronic configuration of an element is 65. Match the atomic numbers of the elements
1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 2 3p5. What is the atomic given in column I with the periods given in
number of the element which is just below column II and mark the appropriate choice.
the given element in the periodic table? Column I Column II
A) 33 B) 35 (Atomic number) (Period)
C) 37 D) 53 (a) 31 (i) 5
(b) 50 (ii) 3
59. Which of the following d-block element has
(c) 56 (iii) 4
the highest atomic number?
(d) 14 (iv) 6
A) Ti B) Zr
A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
C) Hf D) Rf B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
60. Which of the following group of elements are C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
also called as chalcogens? D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
A) Al, Sr, Ti B) Se, Te, Po 66. Match the column I with column II and
C) Rb, Cs, Fr D) Mg, Ba, Ca mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
61. The group having isoelectronic species is
________. (a) 3d-transition series (i) Z = 58 to
A) O2− , F − , Na+ , Mg 2+ Z = 71
(b) Lanthanoid series (ii) Z = 39 to
B) O− , F − , Na, Mg + Z = 48
C) O2− , F − , Na, Mg 2+ (c) Actinoid series (iii) Z = 21 to
D) O− , F − , Na+ , Mg 2+ Z = 30
(d) 4d – transition series (iv) Z = 90 to
62. The ionic radii (in Ȧ) of N 3− , O2− and F − are
Z = 103
respectively ________.
A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
A) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71
B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
B) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40 C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
C) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
67. Match the atomic numbers given in column
D) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
I with the block in which the element is
63. Match the following: placed in column II and mark the
Column I Column II appropriate choice.
i. CaO a. Acidic Column I Column II
ii. CO2 b. Basic (Atomic number) (Block)
iii. NO c. Amphoteric (a) 62 (i) d-block
iv. Al2O3 d. Neutral (b) 47 (ii) p-block
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c (c) 56 (iii) f-block
B) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b (d) 53 (iv) s-block
A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
C) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
D) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
64. The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, 68. Which of the following is arrange in order of
respectively, are ________. increasing metallic character?
A) –333, –349, –325 and –296 A) P < Si < Na < Be < Mg
B) –349, –333, –325 and –296 B) Be < Mg < P < Na < Si
C) –296, –325, –333 and –349 C) Si < Be > Mg < Na < P
D) –333, –325, –349 and –296 D) P < Si < Be < Mg < Na

7
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
69. Among the elements with atomic numbers 77. Which of the following shows the Lewis dot
9, 12, 16 and 36 which is highly formula for CO2?
electropositive? A)
A) Element with atomic number 9
B) Element with atomic number 12
B)
C) Element with atomic number 16
D) Element with atomic number 36
C)
70. What is the common property of the oxides
CO, NO and N2O?
A) All are acidic oxides. D)
B) All are basic oxides.
C) All are neutral oxides.
D) All are amphoteric oxides. 78. Two elements P and Q combine to form a
compound. If P has 2 and Q has 6 electrons
71. In which of the following, the order is not in in their outermost shell, what will be
accordance with the property mentioned. formula of the compound formed?
A) Li < Na < K < Rb – Atomic radius. A) PQ B) P2Q
B) F > N > O > C – Ionization enthalpy C) P2Q3 D) PQ2
C) Si < P < S < Cl – Electronegativity 79. Which of the following orbitals will not form
sigma bond after overlapping?
D) F < Cl < Br < I – Electronegativity
A) s-orbital and s-orbital
72. An element X has atomic number 19. What B) s-orbital and pz-orbital
will be the formula of its oxide? C) pz-orbital and pz-orbital
A) X2O B) XO D) px-orbital and py-orbital
C) XO2 D) X2O3 80. Oxygen molecule is formed by
73. In which of the following species the bond is A) one axial s-s overlap and one p-p axial
non-directional? overlap
A) NCl3 B) RbCl B) two p-p axial overlaps
C) BeCl2 D) BCl3 C) two p-p sidewise overlaps
74. Which of the following elements forms D) one p-p axial and one p-p sidewise
predominantly covalent compounds as a overlap
compared to other elements which form 81. Which of the following statements is true
ionic compounds? about hybridization?
A) Be B) Mg A) The hybridized orbitals have different
C) Ca D) Sr energies for each orbital.
75. In which the following molecules octet rule B) The number of hybrid orbitals is equal
is not followed? to the number of atomic orbitals that
A) NH3 B) CH4 are hybridized.
C) CO2 D) NO C) Hybrid orbitals form multiple bonds
76. In a covalent bond formation, D) The orbitals with large difference in
A) transfer of electrons take place energies undergo hybridization.
B) equal sharing of electrons between two 82. Atomic orbitals of carbon in carbon dioxide
are
atoms takes place
A) sp2-hybridised
C) electrons are shared by one atom only
B) sp3d-hybridised
D) electrons are donated by one atom and
C) sp-hybridised
shared by both atoms.
D) sp3-hybridised

8
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
83. Which type of hybridization is shown by 90. According to Fajan’s rule, a compound
carbon atoms from left to right in the given having which of the following properties
compound? would exhibit greater covalent character?
CH2 CH C N? A) large cation and small anion
B) large cation and large anion
A) sp2, sp2, sp B) sp2, sp, sp
C) small cation and small anion
C) sp, sp2, sp3 D) sp3, sp2, sp
D) small cation and large anion
84. If the atomic number of an element ‘X’ is 8,
91. Which of the following does not have a co-
its electron dot symbol is ________.
ordinate bond?
A)
A) H3O+ B) PCl5
C) O3 D) HNO3
B)
92. NH3 molecules attaches itself to Hydrogen
ion in NH4OH by:
C) X
A) Electrovalency B) Covalent
C) Co-ordinate valency
D)
D) None of these
93. Which of the following contains both
85. Most predominantly electrovalent
covalent and ionic bonds?
compounds are obtained by the
A) CCl4 B) NH4Cl
combination of atoms in groups ________.
C) CaCl2 D) H2O
A) 1 and 17 B) 1 and 14
94. Among the following isostructural
C) 14 and 15 D) 1 and 2
compounds, which on has highest lattice
SECTION – B energy?
A) LiCl B) MgO
86. Assertion: Alkali and alkaline earth metals
C) NaCl D) LiF
can form ionic compounds.
95. How many (i) sp hybridized carbon atoms
2
Reason: Elements having low ionization
and (ii)  bonds are present in the following
enthalpies have greater tendency to lose
compounds?
electrons.
A) Assertion and Reason are true. Reason
C C COOCH3
is correct explanation of Assertion.
B) Assertion and Reason are true. Reason
is not the correct explanation of A) 8,5 B) 7,5
Assertion. C) 8,6 D) 7,6
C) Assertion is true. Reason is false. 96. Which of the following molecules represent
D) Assertion is false. Reason is true. the order of hybridization sp2, sp2, sp, sp
87. Which of the following compound shows an from left to right atoms?
electrovalent linkage?
A)
A) CO2 B) CCl4
C) C2H4 D) NaBr HC C C CH
88. Which of the following compounds
contain(s) no covalent bond(s)?
B)
KCl, PH3, O2, B2H6, H2SO4
CH2 CH C CH
A) KCl, B2H6, PH3
B) KCl, H2SO4 C)
C) KCl
CH2 CH CH CH2
D) KCl, B2H6
89. Identify the highest melting halide. D)
A) KCl B) KF CH3 CH CH CH3
C) KBr D) KI

9
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
97. In a homologous series of organic 100. sp2 hybridized C-atoms are absent in the
compounds, successive members differ from compound ________.
A)
each other by ________ group. O
A) -CH- B) -CH2-
C) -CH3 D) -H
CH C C NH2
98. The type of linkage present in most of the
B)
organic compounds is ________. CH2 CH C CH
A) Ionic B) Coordinate C)
H C H
C) Covalent D) Electrovalent
99. What is the IUPAC name of an element with
the atomic number 119? O
A) Unilunium B) Unununium D)
CH3 C C CH3
C) Ununnilium D) Ununennium

BOTANY
SECTION – A 106. Choose the wrong statement from the
101. Plastids which store fats and oils are called. following:
A) Amyloplast B) Chromoplast A) The chloroplasts are generally much

C) Elaioplast D) Aleuroplast larger than mitochondria.

102. Unless specifically stained, which of the B) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria
following is not visible under microscope. have an internal compartment the
A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum thylakoid space by thylakoid membrane
B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi apparatus C) Both mitochondria and chloroplast
D) Mitochondria contain an inner and outer membrane
103. Mitochondria divides by: D) Both chloroplast and mitochondria
A) Meiosis B) Budding
contain DNA
C) Endomitosis D) Fission
107. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in.
104. Plasma membrane possess. A) Chloroplast B) Mitochondria
A) Protein and cholesterol C) Ribosomes D) Chromoplast
B) Protein and lipid 108. Main area of cellular activities in both plant
C) Protein and carbohydrate and animals' cells is.
D) All of the above A) Cell organelles B) Nucleus
105. Why Golgi complex remain in close
C) Cytoplasm D) Centriole
association with endoplasmic reticulum.
A) Material to be packaged from ER fuses to 109. Inner mitochondrial membrane forms
infoldings called.
cis face of Golgi body and move to
A) Thylakoids B) Cisternae
maturing face. C) Oxytones D) Cristae
B) They are structurally same. 110. Which of the following synthesizes steroidal
C) They form endomembrane system. hormone in animal?
A) SER B) RER
D) There is no reason. C) Mitochondria D) Ribosomes

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STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
111. Which of the following is correct for origin of 118. In plant tonoplast facilities the transport of
lysosomes? number of (i) ________ (ii) ________ the
A) ER → Golgi bodies → lysosomes concentration grades.
B) Nucleus → Golgi bodies → lysosomes A) (i) Solutes (ii) Along
C) Golgi bodies → ER → lysosomes B) (i) Ions, (ii) Along
D) Mitochondria → ER → Golgi body →
C) (i) Ions, (ii) Against
lysosomes
112. Cell membrane is a. D) (i) Solutes, (ii) Against
A) Semi permeable membrane 119. Which one of the following is cell organelle
B) Selectively permeable membrane is not the part of endomembrane system?
C) Non-permeable membrane A) Vacuole B) Peroxisome
D) Permeable membrane
C) Lysosomes D) Golgi body
113. Read the following statements and name the
organelle. 120. The plasma membrane of human RBCs
(i) Granular structure contains.
A) 70% phospholipid and 30% sterols
(ii) First observed under electron
B) 52% proteins and 40% lipids
microscope as dense particles by C) 40% proteins and 52% lipids
George palate D) 90% water and 10% integral proteins
121. The ability of proteins to move laterally
(iii) Not surrounded by any membrane
within the overall bilayer lipid molecules of
(iv) Composed of RNAs and proteins plasma membrane is measured as.
A) Nucleolus B) Mitochondria A) Fluidity B) Stability
C) Ribosomes D) Lysosyme C) Thickness
114. The membrane of a vacuole is. D) Degree of permeability
A) Single membrane B) Tonoplast 122. Lysosomes enzymes act at:
C) Both A and B D) None A) Basic pH B) Neutral pH
115. Important site for formation of glycoprotein C) Acidic pH
and glycolipid is. D) Acidic inside lysosome and basic pH in
A) Vacuoles cytosol
B) Golgi apparatus 123. Golgi bodies is a site of formation of.
C) Plasmid A) Glycoprotein and glycolipid
D) Lysosomes B) Protein
116. The structure that are formed by stacking of C) Glycolipid
organized flattened membranous sacs in the D) Glycoprotein
chloroplast? 124. Number of mitochondria in a cell varies
A) Grana B) Stroma depending on.
C) Stroma lamella D) Cristae A) Habitat of organism
117. Which of the following statements is not B) Same in all cell
correct? C) Shape of cell
A) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic
D) Physiological activity of cell
enzymes.
B) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are 125. The function like delivery of packaged
active under acidic pH. material either to intracellular targets or
C) Lysosomes are membrane bound secreted outside the cell is principally
structures. performed by:
D) Lysosomes are formed by process of A) Lysosomes B) Golgi body
packaging in endoplasmic reticulum. C) Vacuole D) GR

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STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
126. Select the incorrect match. 133. Fluid mosaic model was given by.
A) Thylakoids – Contain Chlorophyll A) Ernest Magee
pigment B) Singer and Nicolson
B) Chromoplast – Contain xanthophyll C) Roberts Virchow
C) Leucoplast – stores tannin and resin D) Schwann and Schleiden
D) Food vacuoles – Have food particles 134. Molecules moving across the membrane
127. How many of the following are associated, without any requirement of energy is called.
with endomembrane system? A) Active transport
Synthesis of steroidal hormone, digestion of B) Passive transport
food, storage of waste, storage of proteins, C) Osmosis
synthesis of ATP, formation of glycolipid. D) Cytoplasmic streaming
A) Four B) There 135. Endoplasmic reticulum distributes _____
C) Five D) Two space into two compartments.
A) Outer B) Cytoplasmic
128. Which of the following is not membrane
C) Nuclease D) Intracellular
bound cell organelle present in cell of mango
plant? SECTION – B
A) Mitochondria B) Chloroplast
136. The cis and trans faces of Golgi apparatus
C) Ribosomes D) Centriole are.
129. According to fluid mosaic model of plasma A) Similar but not inter connected
membrane the nature of. B) Similar but inter connected
A) Protein enable the lateral movement of C) Entirely different but interconnected
lipid within the overall bilayers D) Entirely different but not inter connected
B) Lipid and protein enable the lateral 137. Carotenoid pigments are found in.
movement of carbohydrate (I) Chlorophyll
C) Lipid enables lateral movement of protein (II) Chromoplasts
within overall bilayers (III) Leucoplast
D) Lipid enables flip-flop movement of A) Only I B) Only I and II
proteins C) Only III D) I, II, III
130. Which of the following feature is common in 138. Select the correct match in the following
all types of plastids? pairs.
A) Double of chlorophyll A) Smooth ER-Oxidation of phospholipids
B) Presence of chlorophyll B) Smooth ER-Synthesis of lipid
C) Bear specific pigment, thus imparts C) Rough ER-Syntheses of glycogen
colour to plants D) Rough ER-Oxidation of fatty acid
D) Store carbohydrate 139. Select the correct statement from the
131. Which membrane of mitochondria have their following regarding cell membrane.
own specific enzymes associated with A) Na+ and K+ ions moves across cell
mitochondrial function? membrane by passive transport.
A) Outer membrane B) Proteins make up 60% to 70% of cell
B) Inner membrane membrane
C) Both membrane C) Lipids are arranged in a Bilayer with polar
D) None heads towards inner part
132. Membrane bound vesicular structures D) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was
formed by process of packaging in Golgi proposed by singer and Nicolson
apparatus is: 140. Which one of the following has its own
A) Lysosomes B) Vacuoles DNA?
C) Endoplasmic reticular A) Mitochondria B) Dictyosomes
D) Ribosomes C) Lysosome D) Peroxyl some

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STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
141. In plant all the concentration of ions is more 146. Isolated lysosomal vesicles are rich in all type
in. of ________ enzymes.
A) Cytoplasm B) Vacuoles A) Transferase B) Hydrolase
C) Equal in both D) Nucleus C) Lyases
142. Golgi complex participates in.
D) Oxidoreductase
A) Fatty acid breakdown
B) Formation of secretory vesicles 147. The inner compartments of Mitochondria are
C) Replication in bacteria filled with ________ called matrix.
D) Activation of amino acid A) Dense heterogenous – Substances
143. Match the columns: B) Light heterogenous – Substances
Column-I Column-II C) Dense homogenous – Substances
D) Light homogenous – Substances
1. Thylakoid (a) Disc shaped sacs in
148. Phospholipids are arranged within the
Golgi apparatus
membrane with.
2. Cristae (b) Condensed
A) Polar heads towards inner side and
structure of DNA
hydrophobic tails towards outride
3. Cisternae (c) Flat membranous
B) Polar heads towards outside and
sac in stroma
hydrophobic tail towards inside
4. Chromatin (d) Infolding in C) Both head and tail are inner side
mitochondria D) Both head and tail towards outer side
A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b 149. Why some organelles are called as
B) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b endomembrane system?
C) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b A) They are structurally same.
D) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a B) Their function is coordinated.
144. Find out the incorrect match. C) They are located close to each other.
A) Lysosome – Intra cellular scavenging D) They are structurally and functionally
B) Golgi complex – formation of similar.
Glycoprotein 150. Select to odd one out on the basis of
C) Elaioplast – Oil and fat storage endomembrane system.
D) Middle lamella – Magnesium pectate A) Lysosomes and Golgi complex
145. Mark the incorrect statement
A) Golgi cisternae are concentrically B) Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi
arranged near nucleus complex
B) Cis face is convex C) Endoplasmic reticulum and lysosomes
C) Trans face is concave
D) Chloroplast and mitochondria
D) Trans face is forming face

ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A 153. Accessory genital gland found only in males
151. Human female reaches menopause at the is
age of about A) Glands of skene
A) 25 Years B) 35 Years B) Bartholin gland
C) 50 Years D) 70 Years C) Perineal gland
152. The function of the male sex accessory duct D) Prostate gland
is 154. Birth canal is formed by
A) Storage of sperms A) Uterus along with vagina
B) Transport of sperms B) Uterus along with cervix
C) Formation of sperms C) Cervical canal along with vagina
D) Both (A) and (B) D) Uterus, cervix and vagina

13
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
155. Which of the following is the correct match 158. The figure given below depicts a
about the female external genitalia and diagrammatic sectional view of ovary. Which
one set of three parts out of I-VI are correctly
their functions?
identified?
A) Mons pubis : Cushion of fatty
tissue covered by
skin and public hair
and surround the
vaginal orifice
B) Labia majora : Fleshy folds of tissue
which extend down
from the mons pubis
and surround the
vaginal opening A) VI-Primary follicle; III-Graafian follicle,
C) Labia minora : Paired folds of tissue V-Corpus luteum
under the labia B) II-Secondary follicle; III-Tertiary; IV-
majora homologous Ovulation
C) I-Primary follicle; II-Tertiary follicle; V-
to scrotum in males
Corpus luteum
D) Clitoris : A tiny finger like D) I-Primary follicle; II-Corpus luteum; V-
structures which lies Graafian follicle
at the upper junction 159. Release of second polar body from human
of the two labia egg occurs:
minora above the A) After entry of sperm
urethral opening. It B) After fertilization
is analogous to penis C) Before sperm entry
in males
D) With no relation to sperm entry
156. Which one of the following is incorrect 160. Estrogen is secreted by-
A) Corpus luteum
match?
B) Membranous granulosa of Graafian
A) Myometrium : Exhibits strong follicle
contractions during C) Germinal epithelium of ovary
delivery of the baby D) Pituitary gland
161. Assertion: Corticotrophin releasing
B) Endometrium : Undergoes cyclical
hormones is a part of the clock that
changes during establishes the timing of birth.
menstrual cycle Reason: The signals for parturition originate
C) Perimetrium : Serosa of uterus from the fully developed foetus and placenta
which induce mild uterine contractions
D) Uterus : Birth canal
called foetal ejection reflex.
157. Which of the following best represents the A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
normal path of a sperm cell as makes its way the reason is the correct explanation of
from the point of entry into the female’s the assertion.
reproductive tract to the place where B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
fertilization typically occurs? the reason is not the correct
A) Cervix, vagina, ovary, oviduct explanation of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
B) Vagina, cervix, uterus, oviduct
is false.
C) Uterus, cervix, vagina, oviduct D) Both Assertion and reason are false
D) Vagina, uterus, cervix, oviduct statements.

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STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
162. Phase of menstrual cycle after which 171. Which one of following serves as embryonic
ovulation occurs is urinary bladder?
A) Luteal B) Menstrual A) Amnion B) Chorion
C) Proliferative D) Secretory C) Allantois D) Yolk sac
163. Which hormone level reaches peak during 172. Given below are four statements (a – d) each
luteal phase of menstrual cycle? with one or two blanks. Select the option
A) Luteinizing hormone B) Progesterone which correctly fill up the blanks in two
C) Follicle stimulating hormone statements:
D) Estrogen (a) The human male ejaculates about __(i)__
164. How many primary follicles are present in million sperms during a coitus. Out of
each ovary during puberty? which, for normal fertility at least __(ii)__
A) 20,000—40,000 percent sperms must have normal shape
B) 2,00,000—20,00,000 and size
C) 60,000—80,000 (b) A primary spermatocyte completes
D) 2,000—3,000 __(i)__ meiotic division leading to the
165. Sperms produce an enzymatic substance or formation of two equal haploid cells
lysine for dissolving egg coverings. It is called __(ii)__
called (c) Spermatogenesis starts at the age of
A) Hyaluronic acid __(i)__ due to significant increase in the
B) Hyaluronidase secretion of __(ii)__ a hypothalamic
C) Androgamone hormone
D) Permease (d) Oogenesis is initiated during embryonic
166. Pregnancy begins with implantation of development and at puberty only __(i)__
A) Fertilized ovum B) Embryo primary follicles are left in each ovary
C) Blastopore D) Blastocyst A) a – (i) : 200 to 300; (ii) 40
b – (i) : Second; (ii) Spermatids
167. Site of fertilization in a mammal is
B) a – (i) : 200 to 300; (ii) 40
A) Ovary B) Uterus
d – (i) : 60,000 to 80,000
C) Vagina
C) b - (i) :First; (ii) Secondary spermatocytes
D) Fallopian tube
c – (i) : Puberty; (ii) GnRH
168. Development of blastocyst and its
D) c – (i) : Puberty; (ii) gonadotropins
attachment to the uterine wall in human
d – (i) : 60,000 to 80,000
beings is called
173. The milk-ejection reflex is stimulated by
A) Fertilization B) Gestation
A) Oxytocin B) Estrogen
C) Implantation D) Insemination C) Prolactin D) Progesterone
169. Which of the following does not occur in the 174. Assertion: Failure of testes to descend into
time during and immediately following the scrotum causes sterility in man.
fertilization? Reason: Higher internal body temperature is
A) Fusion of the sperm and ovum nuclei not suitable for sperm development.
B) Division of the oocyte cell by meiosis A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
C) Implantation of the ovum in the uterus the reason is the correct explanation of
D) Digestion of cell layers around the oocyte the assertion.
by sperm B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
170. Which layer of blastocyst gets attached to the reason is not the correct
the endometrium? explanation of the assertion.
A) Trophoblast C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
B) Inner cell mass is false.
C) Umbilical cord D) Both Assertion and reason are false
D) Both (A) and (C) statements.

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STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
175. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is 182. Which Extraembryonic membrane in
induced by humans prevents desiccation of the embryo
A) Release of oxytocin from pituitary inside the uterus?
B) Fully developed foetus and placenta A) Amnion B) Chorion
C) Differentiation of mammary glands C) Allantois D) Yolk sac
D) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid 183. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an
176. An important factor contributing to the endocrine gland after ovulation?
onset and maintenance of labour A) Vitelline membrane B) Stroma
contractions is C) Graafian follicle D) Germinal
A) Increased contractility of the uterine 184. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
muscles from increased oxytocin levels human reproductive system get blocked, the
B) Mechanical pressure on the cervix gametes will not be transported from
generated by the emerging baby's head A) Vagina to uterus
C) Stretching of the uterus during the final B) Testes to epididymis
stages of foetal growth C) Epididymis to vas deferens
D) All of the above D) Ovary to uterus
177. In human females, meiosis – II is not 185. Which one of the following is the correct
completed until? matching of the events occurring menstrual
A) Birth B) Puberty cycle?
C) Fertilization A) Proliferative : Rapid
phase regeneration of
D) Uterine implantation
myometrium and
178. Identify the correct statement on inhibin maturation of
A) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and Graafian follicle
inhibits the secretion of LH B) Secretory : Development of
B) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and phase corpus luteum
Prolactin and increased
C) Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary secretion of
and inhibits the secretion of FSH progesterone
D) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary C) Menstruation : Breakdown of
and inhibits the secretion of LH myometrium and
179. Signals for parturition originate from ovum not fertilized
A) Fully developed foetus only D) Ovulation : LH and FSH
B) Both placenta as well as fully developed attain peak level
foetus and sharp fall in
C) Oxytocin released from maternal the secretion of
pituitary progesterone
D) Placenta only
180. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading SECTION – B
from
186. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the
A) Epididymis to urethra
ovary is
B) Testicular lobules to rete testis
A) Ampulla B) Isthmus
C) Rete testis to vas deferens
C) Infundibulum D) Cervix
D) Vas deferens to epididymis
187. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized,
181. Secretions from which one of the following
which one of the following is unlikely?
are rich in fructose, calcium and some
A) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
enzymes?
B) Estrogen secretion further decreases
A) Male accessory glands B) Liver
C) Primary follicle starts developing
C) Salivary glands D) Pancreas D) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines

16
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
188. Assertion: In spermatogenesis, the first 192. Which of the following depicts the correct
haploid forms are spermatids. pathway of transport of sperms?
Reason: At the end of meiosis cells have A) Rete testis → Efferent ductules →
haploid set of chromosomes. Epididymis → Vas deferens
A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and B) Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent
the Reason is the correct explanation of ductules → Vas deferens
C) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferent
the Assertion. ductules → Epididymis
B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the D) Efferent ductules → Rate testis → Vas
Reason is not correct explanation of deferens → Epididymis
Assertion. 193. Which of the following layers in an antral
C) Assertion is true statement but Reason follicle is acellular?
is true statement but Reason is false. A) Zona pellucida B) Granulosa
D) Both Assertion and Reason are false C) Theca interna D) Stroma
statements. 194. The Leydig cells as found in the human body
189. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in are the secretory source of
reproduction, acts on A) Glucagon B) Androgens
A) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates C) Progesterone
secretion of LH and oxytocin D) Intestinal mucus
B) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates 195. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as
secretion of LH and FSH A) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal
C) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates imbalance
secretion of oxytocin and FSH B) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
C) Implantation of embryo at site other than
D) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
uterus
secretion of LH and relaxin D) Implantation of defective embryo in the
190. Match Column-I with Column-II and select uterus
the correct option using the codes given 196. Hysterectomy is surgical removal of
below: A) Mammary glands B) Uterus
Column-I Column-II C) Prostate gland
a Mons pubis 1 Embryo D) Vas-deference
197. The second maturation division of the
formation
mammalian ovum occurs
b Antrum 2 Sperm A) In the Graafian follicle following the first
maturation division
c Trophoectoderm 3 Female
B) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum
external makes entry into the Fallopian tube
C) Until after the ovum has been penetrated
genitalia
by a sperm
d Nebenkern 4 Graafian D) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused
with that of the ovum
follicle
198. The testes in humans are situated outside
Codes: the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called
a b c d scrotum. The purpose served is for
A) 3 4 2 1 A) Providing a secondary sexual feature for
B) 3 4 1 2 exhibiting the male sex
C) 3 1 4 2 B) Maintaining the scrotal temperature
D) 1 4 3 2
lower than the internal body
191. A temporary endocrine gland in the human
temperature
body is
A) Pineal gland C) Escaping any possible compression by
B) Corpus cardiacum the visceral organs
C) Corpus luteum D) Providing more space for the growth of
D) Corpus allatum epididymis

17
STUDY BHARAT TEST-03 (04-09-2022)
199. Which one of the following statements about 200. Assertion: In human, ovum is alecithal
human sperm is correct? type.
Reason: It is almost free of yolk.
A) Acrosome serves no particular function
A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
B) Acrosome has a conical pointed
the Reason is the correct explanation of
structure used for piercing and
the Assertion.
penetrating the egg resulting in
B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
fertilization
reason is not the correct explanation of
C) The sperm lysins in the acrosome
the Assertion.
dissolve the egg envelope facilitating
C) Assertion is true statement but Reason
fertilization
is false.
D) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure
D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
leading the sperm towards the ovum
statements.

STUDY BHARAT
Test-03 (04-09-2022)

18