Polity RTFQ Day 4

POLITY
Revision through 500 Questions (RTFQ)

QUESTION SET 4: Q294-399
Question
294 Which of the following statements is not correct about the speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) Speaker holds Office from the date of his/her election till immediately before the first meeting
of the Lok Sabha after the dissolution of the one to which he/she was elected.
(b) He/She is eligible for re-election.
(c) On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the
House, he/she does not vacate his/her Office.
(d) The Speaker may, at any time, resign from Office by writing under his/her hand to the
President of India.
295 With reference to election security deposit, consider the following statements
1. It is an amount that is to be deposited with the Returning Officer when a candidate files their
nomination.
2. The amount is same for all elections.
3. It is submitted either in cash, or a receipt must be enclosed with the nomination paper,
showing that the said sum has been deposited on the candidate’s behalf in the Reserve Bank of
India or in a Government Treasury.
(a) Only one of the above statements are correct
(b) Only two of the above statements are correct
(c) All three above statements are correct
(d) d) None of the statement is correct
296 Consider the following statements with reference to Lok Sabha elections in India?
1. From 1951 to 2019, India has held 17 Lok Sabha elections.
2. Both the size of the electorate and voter turnout has increased from the 1951 election till
date.
3. The 2014 election was historic as it was the first time since 1951 that a party achieved an
absolute majority.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one out of three statements
(b) Only two out of three statements
(c) All of the three statements
(d) None of the statements
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297 Consider the following:
1. The Bill is rejected by the other House.
2. More than six months elapse from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other House
without the Bill being passed by it.
3. The Houses have finally disagreed with the amendments to be made in the Bill.
In how many of the above cases joint sitting of both the houses is required?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
298 With reference to the Adjournment Motion, consider the following statements:
1. It is used for discussing a specific and important matter that should have urgent consideration.
2. It can be moved by only the council of ministers.
3. The objective of an adjournment motion is to draw the attention of the Government to a
matter of urgent public importance.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
299 With reference to the Adjournment Motion, consider the following statements:
1. It is used for discussing a specific and important matter that should have urgent consideration.
2. It can be moved by only the council of ministers.
3. The objective of an adjournment motion is to draw the attention of the Government to a
matter of urgent public importance.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
300 With reference to the composition of the Council of States, consider the following statements:
1. The allocation of seats in the Council of States are filled by representatives of the States shall
be in accordance with the provisions of the Fourth Schedule.
2. Twelve members are nominated by the President.
3. The representatives of each State in the Council of States shall be elected by the elected
members of the Legislative Assembly.
4. The members are elected by the system of proportional representation by means of the single
transferable vote.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
301 With reference to the Member of Parliament Local Area Development (MPLAD) Scheme,
consider the following statements:
1. The nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are not eligible for this scheme.
2. It is a central government scheme announced in 1976.
3. The government transfers funds directly to the respective local authorities.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
302 Consider the following statements:
1. Indian Parliament has fixed calendar of sittings.
2. The Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary
sessions.
3. The speaker of the Lok Sabha determines the date and duration of parliamentary sessions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
303 Which of the following motions of the Parliament depend upon or relate to other motion or
follow upon some proceedings in the House?
(a) Subsidiary Motions
(b) Substantive Motions
(c) Substitute Motions
(d) Closure Motion
304 Consider the following statements about the passing of bills in the parliament:
1. A Bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses.
2. If there are more than six months elapse from the date of the reception of the Bill by the other
House without the Bill being passed, then there is a provision for joint sitting.
3. A Bill pending in the Council of States which the House of the People has not passed shall lapse
on a dissolution of the House of the People.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
305 With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), consider the following statements:
1. It is constituted by the Parliament of India for the purpose of auditing the revenue and the
expenditure of the Government of India.
2. The members of the committee are allowed to be ministers in the government.
3. The Public Accounts Committee consists of not more than twenty-two members.
4. The chairperson is appointed by the President.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
306 With reference to the no-confidence motion, consider the following statements:
1. It is mentioned in the rules of Lok Sabha.
2. If a no confidence motion is passed against a government it must resign.
3. Once the motion is accepted, speaker must allot a time within 10 days for the discussion on
the motion of No Confidence.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
307 With reference to the Question Hour, consider the following statements:
1. It is during the Question Hour that the members can ask questions on every aspect of
administration and Governmental activity.
2. It is the first hour of a sitting of Lok Sabha.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1:
A defamation suit cannot be filed for a statement made in the House.
Statement 2:
Members of Parliament are not exempted from legal action for any statement made in the
course of their duties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct, and Statement 2 is the correct explanation
for Statement 1.
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct, and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation
for Statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct Statement 2 is incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect Statement 2 is correct.
309 Consider the following statements: (2019)
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from
disqualification on the grounds of Office of Profit.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
310 With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees
scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules,
by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly
exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation (2018)
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
311 Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct? (2018)
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill, only if it contains provisions related to imposition,
regulation, alteration of taxes.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency
Fund of India. ·
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of
India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with' the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the
Government of India.
312 For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by (2017)
(a) Anyone residing in India.
(b) A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) Any citizen of India.
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State assembly, the winning candidate must get at least, 50
percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of lndia, in Lok Sabha, the Speakers
post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
314 With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: (2017)
1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament, who is not elected but
only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time
in its history.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
315 The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the
national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the (2016)
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands Account.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the annual financial statements.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
317 When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses has to be passed by (2015)
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) two thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses
318 Consider the following statements regarding a No- Confidence Motion in India: (2014)
1. There Is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced In the Lok Sabha only.
(a) 1 only
(b)2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
319 The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing international
treaties: [2000]
(a) with the consent of all the State
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
320 Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct? [2000]
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for
consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
321 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process
in India? [1995]
(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election
is issued by the Election Commission
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification
for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification
for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification
in respect of it are done by the Election Commission
322 Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the
Constitution of India (2012)
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create
one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election and to determine the Procedure of the President and his/her
retirement pension
(d) To determine the functions of the election commission
1. The house of people shall get dissolved as soon as the five years have expired from the date
of its appointment.
2. The duration of the house of the people was changed to six years by the 42 nd Amendment
Act 1976.
(a) 1 only
(b)2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
324 Which of the following is incorrect about the president and his relationship with the parliament?
(a) President can send message to either house of parliament only with regards to bills pending
in respective houses.
(b) It is mandatory for the president to address a joint sitting of the parliament after a fresh
election to the lok sabha has been concluded.
(c) There is no time prescribed for the president to provide assent to a bill passed by the
parliament.
(d) President can summon each house of parliament at such time and place which he thinks fit.
1. Both Attorney general and Ministers have the right to speak in either house of parliament.
2. Only ministers can votes in either house of parliament and not attorney general.
(a) 1 only
(b)2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. While office of president is vacant, the vice president assumes both the offices that is acting
as president and presiding the council of states.
2. While any resolution for the removal of the Vice-President from his office is under
consideration, he is eligible to preside over the sittings of council of states but this privilege
is not available to speaker of Lok Sabha.
3. Vice president cannot vote on the resolution of his own removal while speaker can.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
327 Consider the following statements about a member of lok sabha:
1. Who is holding the office of speaker or deputy speaker shall vacate his office if he ceases to
be a member of the House of the People.
2. He may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a
simple the House.
3. At least fourteen days prior notice must be given to the speaker before moving a motion for
his removal.
4. Whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until
immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
How many of the statements give above is/are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
1. Salaries and allowance of the speaker and deputy speaker of the house of people shall be
determined by the law of parliament.
2. Each house must have their separate secretarial staff and there is no provision for having a
common staff.
3. Every member of the house before taking his seat must take oath as specified in third
schedule.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
329 Which of the statements given below is not correct?
(a) The quorum to constitute a meeting of the house is at lease one-tenth of total member
including the presiding officer.
(b) If at any time during a meeting of a House there is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the
Chairman or Speaker, to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a
quorum.
(c) If at any time it is discovered that some person who was not entitled so to do sat or voted
or otherwise took part in the proceedings the said proceedings would be declared void.
(d) The Chairman or Speaker, or person acting as such, shall not vote in the first instance.
1. No person shall be a member of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If a person is chosen as member of both a state legislature and house of parliament, then
his seat in parliament would become vacant unless he resigns from that of state legislature.
(a) 1 only
(b)2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
331 In which of the following cases a person is disqualified from being a member of parliament
1. If he holds any office of profit.
2. If he is an undischarged insolvent.
3. If he is of unsound mind.
4. If he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State
5. If he is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) 1,2,3 onlu
(b) 1,2,3,4, only
(c) 1,3,4, and 5 only
(d) All of the above
1. If any question arises as to whether a member of either House of Parliament has become
subject to any of the disqualifications, the question shall be referred for the decision of the
President and his decision shall be final.
2. Before giving any decision on any such question, the President shall obtain the opinion of
the Election Commission and shall act according to such opinion.
(a) 1 only
(b)2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
333 Consider the following statements
1. A Bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill by reason only that it provides for the
imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties.
2. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the
House of the People thereon shall be final.
3. A certificate given by speaker to the money must be endorsed to every such bill when it is
presented before the president.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
334 The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the State
falls under its: [1996]
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
335 When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to: [1996]
(a) The writ jurisdiction of any other judges of the High Court.
(b) Special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India.
(c) Discretionary powers of the Governor of the state.
(d) Special powers provided to the Chief Minister
336 The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact: [2001]
(a) on its own initiative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
337 The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter
included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with: [2003]
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
338 Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and
Nicobar Islands? [2003]
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kolkata
(c) Chennai
(d) Orissa
339 Consider the following statements: [2004]
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge
2. The District Judge are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader
of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the session’s judge awards a death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court
before it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction
is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the
concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated fund
of India.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any
court or before any authority in India except of the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for
at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge
of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any
court or before any authority in India.
343 With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements: [2009]
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies
against there to any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
344 With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct ? [2010]
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle matters at pre-litigating stage and not those matters
pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other
person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct.
345 Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
346 What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? [2012]
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief
Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the
legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the
Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
347 With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements: [2013]
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the
society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes
and schemes throughout the country.
1. If council of states passes a resolution that it is necessary or expedient in the national
interest parliament is enabled to enact even in the state list.
2. Such a resolution needs to be passes by the majority of total membership of the house and
not less than 2/3rd of present and voting.
3. Any law made in such a manner shall not have effect after a period of six months from the
date when resolution passed by the council of states have ceased to have effect.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
349 In which of the following disputes the original jurisdiction of supreme court shall prevail:
1. Between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute involves any question (whether
of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
2. A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement entered into or executed before the
commencement of this Constitution
Which of the following is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. In case of absence of chief justice of India, parliament may appoint any sitting judge of the
supreme court as acting chief justice of India.
2. A sitting judge of any High Court when appointed as an ad hoc judge of the supreme court
shall give priority to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court at the time and for the period
for which his attendance is required over his other duties.
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
351 A bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provisions dealing with all or any of
the following matters?
(a) The regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the
Government of India.
(b) The appropriation of moneys out of the contingency Fund of India
(c) The receipt of money on account of the public account of India
(d) Custody of contingency fund of India
1. A retired Supreme Court Judge cannot act as a Judge of the Supreme Court even for a
temporary period.
2. A High Court Judge may be appointed as an ad hoc Judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary
period.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
353 Which one of the following statements regarding the exercise of judicial review is not correct?
(a) A case must be brought before the Supreme Court regarding the validity of a law.
(b) Unanimous opinion of all the judges is necessary for declaring a law null and void.
(c) Legislative enactments and executive orders may be struck down by the Supreme Court.
(d) The power is implicit in the provisions of Article 13 of the Constitution.
354 Article 141 of the Constitution lays down that the law declared by Supreme Court shall be binding
on all courts within the territory of India. Which of the following is true in this context?
(a) Is bound by its earlier decisions as the expression “all courts” include Supreme Court also.
(b) Is not bound by its own decisions and may reverse a previous decision.
(c) Can reverse a previous decision only when a new legislation is enacted having the effect of
abrogating decision.
(d) Can reverse a previous decision only when that previous decision was given because of
overlooking another previous decision.
1. Parliament can extend but cannot curtail the jurisdiction and power of the Supreme Court.
2. No discussion can take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any judge of the
Supreme Court in the discharge of his duties.
3. A retired judge of the Supreme Court cannot appear or plead in any court or before any
authority within the territory of India.
4. The salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
356 Which one of the following is not an essential condition for appointment as a judge of the
Supreme Court?
(a) A citizen of India
(b) At least five years’ experience as judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in
succession
(c) Must have completed 35 years of age
(d) At least ten years’ experience as an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts
in succession
357 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A retired judge of Supreme Court is prohibited from appearing and pleading in any court
within the territory of India.
(b) Supreme Court may issue writs for the enforcement of any legal right within the territory of
India.
(c) Supreme Court has the power to punish any person for its contempt.
(d) Salary of Judges of the Supreme Court is not subject to vote of the legislature.
358 Consider the following statements regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
1. The reference for advice may be made to the Supreme Court on a question of law or fact by
the President of India.
2. Disputes arising out of pre-constitution treaties and agreements excluded from the original
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may also be referred to it.
3. The advice given by the Supreme Court is binding on the Government.
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 only
359 Which one of the following statements is correct?
If the Chief Justice of India is to make a request for attendance of a Judge of a High Court at the
sitting of the Supreme Court as an ad hoc judge:
(a) Only previous consent of the President of India is required.
(b) Previous consent of the President of India and consultation with the Chief Justice of the
concerned High Court is required.
(c) Only consultation with the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court is required.
(d) Neither previous consent of the President of India nor consultation with the Chief Justice of
the concerned High Court is required.
360 Which of the following statements regarding Supreme Court of India are correct?
1. It has the power to entertain appeal from any court or tribunal within India.
2. It has the power to deliver advisory opinion on any question of fact or law referred to it by the
President.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are subject to vote by the Parliament.
4. Its jurisdiction is binding on all other courts within India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
361 With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022)
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers
and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition
of law colleges?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was
passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for
contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
363 With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements: (2021)
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme
Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the
Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved
misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are
given in 4 the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the
motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total
membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House
present and voting.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
365 In India, Judicial Review implies: (2017)
(a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive
orders.
(b) The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c) The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented
to by the President.
(d) The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different
cases.
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism,
fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and
to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
367 In India Legal Services Authority provide free legal services. To which of the following types of
citizen?
1. Person with an annual income of less than ₹1,00,000.
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than ₹2,00,000.
3. Member of Other Backward Classes with annual income of less than ₹3,00,000.
4. All senior citizens.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
368 The transfer of Judges from one High Court to another High Court may be made by the:
(a) President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of that High Court.
(b) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.
(c) Governor of the concerned State in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
(d) President of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
1. The district judge exercises both judicial and administrative powers.
2. The sessions judge has no power to impose capital punishment.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
What are administrative powers?

 The district Judge has the power to appoint the class III and IV employees, transfer and
promotion of the employees.
 To award the annual remark to the officers and employees working under his kind control.
 To take departmental and disciplinary action against the employees.
 To inspect the court & offices functioning in the district.
 He inspects the jail inspection along with D.M. & Supdt. of police in each quarter and to hold
the monthly meeting of judicial officers and meeting of monitoring cell.
370 Who among the following appoints the District judge in a State?
(a) The Governor of the State (b) The President of India
(c) The Chief Minister of the State (d) Chief Justice of the High Court of the State
371 Who appoints the judicial officers of the subordinate judiciary other than the district judges?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) State Public Service Commission
(c) Governor in accordance with the rules made by him in consultation with the High Court and
State Public Service Commission
(d) Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such state
372 Which one of the following is not a qualification for a person to be appointed as district judge?
(a) He should not already be in the service of the Central or the State Government.
(b) He should have been an advocate or a pleader for seven years.
(c) He should have completed the 30 years of age.
(d) He should be recommended by the High Court for appointment
373 Supreme Court has the power to directly listen to matters between two states governments or
between the Centre and the state as per the:
(a) Article 130
(b) Article 131
(c) Article 139
(d) Article 225
374 Consider the following statements about removal of judges from supreme court:
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of
the President.
2. A resolution to that effect must be passed by the both houses of parliament by a majority
of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the
members of that House present and voting.
3. Such resolution must be presented before the president in the same session.
4. A judge of the supreme court can be removed on the grounds of violation of the
constitution.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All Four
375 Which of the following statements regarding subordinate courts are correct?
1. They function at district and lower levels.
2. The pattern and designation of subordinate courts in the States is not uniform.
3. Munsiff ’s courts have both civil and criminal jurisdiction.
4. The pattern of subordinate courts in metropolitan areas is the same as that in districts.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
1. All the elections in India are based on single member constituencies, first-past-the-post system
and a bicameral legislature.
2. The first general elections were held in India in the year 1950 following the ratification of the
Constitution.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
377 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts reduced the voting age from 21 years to
18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as the assembly elections?
(a) 56th Amendment
(b) 59th Amendment
(c) 61st Amendment
(d) 63rd Amendment
378 Disqualification on the ground of defection for a Member of Parliament will not apply:
(a) If he goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party with a two
third majority.
(b) If he has voluntarily given up his membership of the political party.
(c) If he abstains from voting in the house contrary to the direction of the political party.
(d) If a nominated member of a House joins a political party after six months
379 Which of the following amendments to the constitution of India capped the maximum strength
of council of ministers to 15 per cent of the popular house?
(a) 61st Amendment
(b) 52nd Amendment
(c) 91st Amendment
(d) 100th Amendment
1. The power of superintendence to all the elections of Parliament, State Legislature, President
and Vice President of India is vested in Election Commission of India.
2. Article 324 vest the power in Election Commission to prepare the electoral rolls for the
election except that of president and vice president.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Regional election commissioners can be appointed by the Chief Election Commission after
prior consultation of the President.
2. Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of
the Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Separation of Power
2. Unity and integrity of the Nation
3. Federal character of the Constitution
4. Judicial Review
Which of the above are parts of the “Basic Structure” evolved during Kesavananda Bharati v State
of Kerala?
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
383 With reference to the committee for appointment of Elections Commissioners and Chief Election
Commissioners, consider the following statements:
1. It consists of the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and Four senior-most
judges of the Supreme Court. (CJI)
2. In the absence of the Leader of Opposition, the committee will include the leader of the largest
Opposition party in Lok Sabha in terms of numerical strength.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
384 Which of the following States is not included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) Tripura
(b) Mizoram
(c) Manipur
(d) Assam
385 With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements : (2022)
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months
of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a
defection case.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
386 Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (2017)
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
1. For the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List, a
resolution must be passed in both the Houses of the Parliament.
2. A resolution passed under article 249 cannot be extended beyond 1 year.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
388 Consider the following statements about Union-State relations:
1. In case of overlapping of a matter between the three kinds of subjects of legislations,
predominance has been given to the Union Legislation.
2. In the concurrent sphere, in the case of repugnancy between a Union and a State law relating
to the same subject, the former prevails, even if the State law was reserved for the assent of the
President and has received such assent.
3. The vesting of residual power under the Indian Constitution follows the precedent of Canada.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
389 If any directions are issued by the Union Government to a State under article 257 and they have
not been complied with, then which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It shall be presumed that the constitutional machinery in the State had failed as per Article
365 of the Constitution
(b) It shall be presumed that the State had law and order problem and action under Article 365
is required
(c) The Union Government can appoint advisers to help the Governor for performing his
functions
(d) The Parliament may make laws for that State
390 The idea of the Union giving directions to the States was adopted by the makers of the Indian
Constitution from:
(a) The Government of India Act, 1935
(b) The US Constitution
(c) The Soviet Constitution
(d) The Australian Constitution
391 On the subject of Income Tax:
(a) The Union Government has more powers than State governments
(b) The State governments have more powers than the Union government
(c) Both Union and State governments have equal powers, but Union shall prevail in case of
conflict
(d) Only the Union government has power
The executive power of the Union extends to giving of directions to a State in respect of:
1. Construction and maintenance of means of communication of national or military importance
2. Maintenance of law and order in the State
3. Protection of railways within the State
4. Protection of secular character of the country
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
393 Which of the following formed a part of the terms of reference of the Punchhi Commission on
Centre-State Relations constituted by the Government of India?
1. Panchayati Raj institutions
2. Communal violence
3. An integrated domestic market
4. Central Law Enforcement Agency
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
394 Consider the following statements on Zonal Councils:
1. Zonal Councils were set up under the provisions of the States Reorganisation Act.
2. Zonal Councils discuss various issued of common interest in the field of planning, river waters,
inter-state transport.
3. They enable the Centre and States to co-operate in evolving uniform policies in social and
economic matters.
4. Their decisions are binding on Centre as well as on State governments.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Hint:
Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies.
They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
The act divided the country into five zones- Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern
and provided a zonal council for each zone.
North Eastern Council was created by separate act in 1971.
Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura and Sikkim.
Chairman: The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.
395 Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? (2013)
1.National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
396 Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions relating to trade,
commerce and intercourse:
1. Parliament may by law impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse
between one state and another in the public interest.
2. Bills imposing restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse within the state
cannot be moved in the state legislature without the sanction of the Central Government.
3. Parliament may enact any law giving or authorizing any discrimination to deal with a situation
arising from the scarcity of goods in any part of Indian Territory.
4. Trade and commerce within the state is a subject in the concurrent list.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Hint:
 Art 301- Subject to other provision of constitution freedom of trade and intercourse.
 A 302- Power of Parliament to impose restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse in public
interest
 A 303- parliament may by laws provide for discriminating b/w states in case of scarcity of goods
 A 304- State Legislature impose such reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce
or intercourse with or within that State as may be required in the public interest
397 With reference to the Data Protection Board (DPB), consider the following statements:
1. It will be established through the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP), 2023
2. The board will have quasi-judicial powers.
3. The members of the board will be appointed partially by the central government and partially
by the state governments.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Hint:
The Act declares that for the “security of the state, maintenance of public order or preventing
incitement to any cognisable offence relating to any of these, and the processing by the central
government of any personal data that such instrumentality may furnish to it”.
— The Act also provides that the central government notify a Significant Data Fiduciary (SDF),
and impose obligations on it, including periodic audits and data protection impact assessments,
among others.
— The Act mandates the establishment of an adjudicatory body, Data Protection Board (DPB).
— The board will enjoy quasi-judicial powers.
— The members of the board will be completely appointed by the central government.
398 With reference to the election commission, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution lays down a specific legislative process for the appointment of the Chief
Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs).
2. The Prime Minister makes the appointment on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners must hold posts for a period of
six years.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
1. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States.
2. The salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the Supreme Court.
3. Any sums required to satisfy any judgment, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal.
How many of the above shall be expenditures charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Additional Notes about Dual Member Constituency:

 Dual-member constituencies were introduced to reserve seats with sizeable SC and ST
populations.
 Seats with more than half the population belonging to SCs or STs were single-member
constituencies.
 However, after the first two Lok Sabha elections, in 1952 and 1957, the system was discarded
through the Two-Member Constituencies (Abolition) Act, 1961.
 There were 86 two-member seats in the 1952 Lok Sabha elections. Uttar Pradesh had the
most, with 17 seats out of a total of 69, while Madhya Pradesh and the former Vindhya
Pradesh had the largest percentage, with 50%. West Bengal had the sole three-member seat,
with one MP from the general, one from the SC, and one from the ST categories. There were
91 two-member seats in 1957, with UP having the most (18) and Odisha having the largest
proportion (50%). In 1951, there were 579 two-member Assembly seats (and one three-
member seat in the former Bombay state) and 551 in 1957.
 Dual-membership faced major criticism after the 1957 election as 20 such constituencies
saw winners from the same group, either SC or ST, and did not elect a general candidate.

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POLITY

Revision through 500 Questions (RTFQ)

What are administrative powers?

Additional Notes about Dual Member Constituency:

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