/ Jv{aximurn Marks: mo

i'.'-'STRllCTiONS m1
1. Answer all questions. 1. "fi'-TT ,;i -;rj - -,f;, m·,; I
2. .-'dl quc;;Lio115 carry equal mac"!,;.
3. Only one ans\1 c-r i., 10 he h'i,·en ,-(:J' .nclt
2. .r.\\ "'fi if: cc-f"q'; TI'1F'.1( I

'l"c.,1:on. -;. mii<5 >i l «>r i,:;- -t.:. \in( C:1 ow,1
".:',cfl
4. If in()rc than 01w answer., :ire 111<1 knl. !l 11\111L! 4. \. ii c.rf'..:rc;; '3nT i": ri; :;:,r; i, \:Wi i;; ll'<ff <liT
he treated ;1s wrong ,m.swcr. TIT-,1 -.'{HFi' I
5. b,c·h 4ucs1it11, h:is l'our titer:;: 1ivc res;i.1:'.,L'.'
marked .,eri:illy :1s I, 2, 3, -1. Yo1 '""'c lO :L,1 -''•
5. \/ cf, ci -:,' i, 'q/{ 7.[q';i(,tfll, .::,-f,-, ·i!f,)·Tr<i t ).if ;f,1-m:

only 011c circle or hnhhlc indic •ting th<.: c:,11;-cct l. :2, 3 . ..i J/w,a fo;- 1 'rrrt-;; 1 ,:,.:v::r cfil tr 3TI1
a11 11cr on the Ans\\'er S!tcc1 11.,i 1c. BLUE BALI. f cf.{<l s?, :::=rif , i,;<W! C!_i<, C:?. •:.'!l'TTT·T,:iw <lTT
POINT PEN. -
6. 1/3 part of the mark(s) of c 1ch quL tion wilt "--,'!"( q-;rc;; qr --?ti{ <ffi'f ,;m, ig f; "'l61T <1iT'TI (. I
he <lcrluctccl !'or each wron
,111swcr nH:ans an incorrc<.::a s1, 2r or mon·
\ii'11<l; 1Tflo T-fi•: '< fl! li\"'1 :: <F.1 !/J "IJTI,,;m
th,,:'. -f11llTTI 1f\'l<i "-<"fl: ii ·:l!\'.fS ;:_:;,:--, [ fu,m -q'r
one :m,wcrs for· ;111y quc ti n. Lca\'in,: all ih<: IJ ;;; i;, 8-i-ff$f. 'Jtf"( l i I Fcr,-,n -qt 1IH "H
relcvanl circles l)r h1hhlc, • nny qucstilln hl:t!ik tr--TTtJil lITM c!1 <f'.fi'f <ii l.<ITT,:°! ljh:.,, 'lWi 3nT i't
wi 11 n(>l he considered a 1 Tong al1S\\'C!'. > "!!1""!1 :;1fi; 'TT I
7. The candid:11c shoulJ rnsrn' th,11 Scrn::s Cude· nt
the Question Parer Book! '.I :md .-\nswcr Shi::ct
·1. I< -, 'bl ':!,f@lil "(f"c.i -6, i';, c;;'f ,-TT('!

11111st be same after op n ng the c,:vclnpc:,. lei m· qfJ nm <;f f'rc1a <ri'{ # Pc.;,; -w >l" ""l
case they arc di ffc1·L Jll. ,L ·,,nrhl:ilC nu;st t>ht;iin '!1',dcol cf$) <frfr-.,, -?,j :'.J1l '<i < t,;r«'; q,:
another Question P,1pc of t!lt: s;,me -;crie . ,:efcimii - "B# .,.7ci "t-1 -ci"1 c\'; f15 if >i" "'T-·TT «\T
Candidnte himself sha I be fL'.Sf)on,ible (or
ensuring this. ·iJ tf fh, 7.ffi'iT 1"·{1 •, -; -q,:r i;rrq:r «i< ·I
cnT
8. \fobilc Phone or any o 1er electronic gadgc1 in Q_,:,r "Of ch( q, •3T''«' Tf if.I (pi) l
the examination hall i • stric·1ly prohibitL <l. A 8, -.:n$ tfiR ,jftfctl i.@f-1co <nT -cmm _;f ri·
candidate found with a iy oi uch ot,jct·tionablc • ,ru'-r,r \:'mm t., ;:if.-: f2c,)_.\\- :;.; « \- i,; 11TB
material with him/her ill he ,1m:1\y dcJ!t as pcr , ,.. ,.,. ......., ,,,.. "
rule,. ':iTT qc.,a P=r.n r:n•rn, ,; ci1 6"'q; " oJlT!TT'T &TU
9. Please com:ctly fill _vo 1r R,,11 "!u111 cr in P.IlllTjart <f.l <:lr8 <i'l -- 1

O.M.R. Sheet. 5 marks will he deducted for filling 9. q,'lrir,w:r=11 TTT'f 'l1<R-:lii<!.' -•oirc tr?<'cli '-<-< m-",ri
1,-r,rng or incomplete Roll N mtic1·. '[cf,<_f. ,fr if I 7l<'i<'lc-l'-1c!T r ""CTR 'ITT 'TT 5
Warning: Ii a candi !me i found cor ·ing or ;f ¥ w..,r<it' ii .,, "fcl1 if c;,i-z ;;mz,11
any unau 1oriscd m:itcrial is fcwnd
\ , 0m - F«J'i en,?. 1 ':fRII % m
;n his/her I' »s,'.ssion. F.I.R. would . .. "\, D , "
ITT1 « ; rm., {; '-0 :- ;o,--,l < X1ffi m.:r:r T G ;;f@ l C ell
F " '

h lodged a ain t him/her i11 the

Police St.i;inn , id he/she 1vonl<l " - l'-<ri.lf lei t.., T.fK,J"{'! 11° mm"!!<i'i <A <su
li.tbk to he prosccu cd trndcr - "j·'>fl, 0111. 91. f\::,:jRrci liAT<hl frw41t,)
Section 3 of the \!r1 i°'l ..ir,. 1992 -in f:,-,,,,- 3
0

R.P.E. l'rc,·cntilln ol" Unfoinncans) :,nir!T: : t!PJ f.T -,nm :';:B -, \q ,ii 'q" tr.j ii
92. Conuni ion nrny al.,0
i111/hc1· p rr 1a1H:111ly from ail
111 t II r
ex ,1m inai i,)n, nf l he-
r;; if;: ,-i-:t 1riT,,13,1f-; i r: <111
Co111
I; c/ll'

m
fl

1 rcontd...
1 How many numbers lie between 300 and 500 in which 4 comes only one
time?
(1) 98 (2) 99
(3) 100 (4) 101
300 (fqf soot 1tet "ITT11l 4 m ?
(I9)8 (2) 99
(3) l 00 (4) 101

2 Three views of a cube following a particular motion are given below :

What is the letter opposite to P ?

(1) S (2) T
0) R 0) U
tFr 1<:[iR\q1· q;) l1q fci T'{ m i

P '3T qf1a 0Tm- mi ?

(I) s (2) T
(3) R (4) u

3 Given that
(i)' L is the brother of M (ii) N is the father of L
(iii) 0 is the brother of P (iv) P is the daughter of M
Then the uncle of O is -
(1) L (2) M
(3) N (4) p
Rm i- :
(i) L, Mc6T -t (ii) N, Lcfil fcraT t
(iii)
0, P c6I t (iv) P, M c6T %°
Ot'qfqfi-
(1) L (2) M
(3) N (4) p

01 / PROG-1 A I 2 [Contd...
4 If a car moves from Jaipur to Delhi at a speed of 60 km/hr and comes back
from Delhi to Jaipur at a speed of 40 km/hr. What is the average speed
during the journey ?
(l) 46 km/hr
(2) 48 km/hr
(3) 50 krn/hr (4) 52 km/hr
-« 60 Pcnifr/c:flTV cCf Qffl if %, om crt1con:
"B 40 fuilTI/"EfOZT c6r Qffl U '3TTcTT %- I -.::rBIT t" c!iR cCf 0ITTRf Qffl
% ?
(1 ) 46 fu:i"trr/UUZT (2) 4s M /U1l'ZT
(3) so M; (4) 52 /

5 Statement 1f P = x¾ of y
Q = y% of X.

Then which of the following is true based on statement ?

(1) P>Q (2) P<Q
(3) P= Q (4) None of these
"cn" P=ycnlx%
Q:::oxqi""fy¾

mco "Birc6Rm i?
(1) P>Q (2) P<Q
(3) p = Q (4) "fl" cir{

6 The numbers follow a specific pattern. The missing number is -

84 81 88
14 12 18 9 ? 1I
(i) (ii) (iii)
(!) 8 (2) 12
(3) 16 (4) 22

f¥f Pcl"!tll5f ir ft;rer)- "ff{ t, amIB B&TT m-

84 81 88
14 12 18 9 ')
1l
(i) (ii) (iii)
(1) 8 (2) 12
(3) 16 (4) 22
01 / PROG-l_A) 3 [Contd...
7 The remainder obtained when a prime number greater than 6 is divisible by
6 is:
( l) 1 or 3 (2) 3 or 5
(3) 2 or 5 (4) l or 5
6"« co16B fer m1f\ mllT-
(l) 1m3 (2) 3m5
(3) 2 -qi- 5 (4) I <lT 5

8 The total population in a city is 40,000. The various sections of them are
indicated below in the circle diagram :

l - Employed in public sector TI - Employed in private sector

III - Employed in corporate sector IV - Self employed
V - Unemployed.
The number of persons employed in corporate sector is -
(L) 3,000 (2) 6,000
(3) 8,000 (4) 9,000
ITT cfiT ,iF'lti@H 40,000 '%' I c6f -rrif
if lhTJ Tf,TT i- :

Il

V - (liiPII{

lt a 'ff (1'5'PII{ a fc@;q'i c6T. B"&TT %- -

(l) 3,000 (2) 6,000

(3) 8,000 (4) 9,000
01/PROG-l A] 4 [Contd...
 9 In the following number series, one number is wrong. Find the Odd number
2, 6, 24, 96, 285, 568, 567
(1) 24 (2) 96
(3) 285 (4) 567

f::tk!fM@a if qcn %, (TJWJ) %- -

2, 6, 24, 96, 285, 568, 567
(1) 24 (2) 96
(3) 285 (4) 567

10 Given a question and two statements numbered I and II are following. Give
answer as :
(1) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(2) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(3) If the data even in both statement I and II together is sufficient to
answer the question.
(4) If the data neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient to ·answer
the question.
Question : What is the sum of 5 real numbers ?
Statements : (I) The product of the numbers is 630.
(Il) The average of the numbers is 30.

"C% 1 cJm c6 (I er II) TDZ I c6 if io ®mt 'Q'Z

i3m t: i
(I) 1£ ';'.f c6l' io fi;fQ; -i=rBT en I Zn tr tI
(2) "!i -T coT i3W Zn llrST en II io tr %-1

(3) "!i -T c6l' it colII * fllWb<

ti

(4) '11 en I -T tr 'co II i6 -.,it i3Wll

ti en

-., 5 ctl@fciqi ,m c6T m"TT cRlT m1ll ?

en (I) ,m col01.-Jlhiii 630 % I

(Il) w col 30 %1

01 /PROG-l_A] 5 [Contd...
11 The Chief of Army staff of India is -

(l) Bikram Singh (2) Bimal Kumar

(3) V. K. Singh (4) D. K. Joshi

'qffif Uf t-
(I) m (2)

(3) cft. t. (4) tr. - \Jff TI

12 The Agni-IV Missile was tested on -

(1) November, 2012 (2) September, 2012

(3) December, 2010 (4) September, 20 l 0

,mr.,-1v flH-n ct cnT WafUT fcFicn T1c:rT -

(1) . 2012 (2) fuc1Iq{, 2012

(3) m-r, 2010 (4) R-taR.t <, 2010

13 Who first used the word Swaraj ?

(I) Ram Mohan Roy (2) Ram Krishna Paramhansa

(3) Swami Dayanand (4) S. N. Banerjee

TEGC-OTWTTTT ?

(2) "{l1l 9{9

(4) - "Q;f.

14 How many persons have been honoured with Bharat Ratna till now ?

(I) 60 (2) 41
(3) 61 (4) 43

(l) 60 (2) 41
(3) 61 (4) 43
01 / PROG-l_A) 6 [Contd...
15 Hawa Mahal at Jaipur was constructed by -

(I) Man Singh (2) Ram Singh

(3) Pratap Singh (4) Jai Singh

W-@ q lGt;efl c6T RmUl cITT"11lr -

(l) 1 -111fu6 (2) {P-ffu6

(3) \.la1qfut; (4) 'l'lllfut;

16 The total length of roads in Rajasthan in March, 2012 was -

(l) 189402 km. (2) 199502 km.

(3) 170402 km. (4) 155372 km.

(I) 189402 fcom. (2) 199502 M.

(3) 170402 - (4) 155372 fcn4r.

17 When the 'MGNREGA' first launched in Rajasthan ?

(!) 2nd Feb. 2006 (2) 2nd May, 2007

(3) I st April, 2008 (4) 2nd Feb. 2009

i:r 'lAtrll' tfl-f mt\T ct'I" i-r4T?

(1) 21:fiTcliT, 2006 (2) 2 "B"{, 2007

(3) l . 2008 (4) 21:fiTcliT, 2009

01 /PROG-l_A l 7 [Contd...
18 The Mangarh Dham is situated in the district -

(1) Dungarpur (2) Udaipur

(3) Chittorgarh (4) Banswara

Lfl,jll 'cWf fure if -.

(1) •I('.!( (2) 13c:_1.1g<

(3) Ril.'dts•t
(4) iBcll9I

19 The Tenth Pravasi Bhartiya Divas Conclave was held at -

(1) Ajmer (2) New Delhi

(3) Mumbai (4) Jaipur

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

20 The amount fixed for the Chief Minister scholarship for higher education in
Rajasthan is -

(1) < 5,000 (2) < 6,000

(3) 7,000 (4) 8,000

(I) 5,000 (2) Z 6,000

(3) < 7,000 (4) 8,000

01 / PROG-l_A I 8 [Contd...
21 Which one of the following problems can occur due to introducing locks in
a concurrent transaction scenario?

(I) Information overwrite (2) Loss of information

(3) Deadlock (4) Lack of integrity

22 Which one of the following techniques is sometimes used to solve integrity

problems in a concurrent transaction scenario?

(I) First-come first-served

(2) Greedy algorithms
(3) Strassens's algorithm
(4) Two-phase Jocking

23 In transaction, cascade rollback

(1) Can occur in systems which use deferred writeback

(2) Can occur in systems which use immediate writeback

(3) Occurs in systems which use the "waterfall" transaction

management system

(4) Ts a result of simultaneous transaction commits.

24 Given a relation country(namG, continent, population) which of the following

is a valid SQL statement?

(1) SELECT continent, population FROM country GROUP BY continent

(2) SELECT continent, SUM(population) FROM country GROUP BY

continent

(3) SELECT name, population FROM country GROUP BY continent

(4) SELECT name, SUM(population) FROM country GROUP BY

continent

01 / PROG-l_A] 9 fContd...
25 An athletics meeting involves several competitors who participate in a number
of events. The database is intended to record who is to take part in which
event and to record the outcome of each event. As results become available
the winner attribute will be updated ith thecid of the appropriate competitor.

Competitor(cid, name, nationality)

Event(eid, description, winner)

Competes(cid, eid)

Competitor Event Competes

cid name nationality eid description wrnner cid eid
01 Pat British 01 running 0101
02 Hilary Brifish 02 Jumping 02 01
03 Sven Swedish 03 throwing 03 02
04 Pierre French 04 02
04 03

Select the true statement :

(1) There is a British competitor in every event.

(2) Pierre does not ·compete in any event

(3) Sven has been entered in two events

(4) . Hilary has entered only the running event

01 / PROG-l_A 1 [Contd ...

26 An athletics meeting involves several competitors who panicipate in a number
of events. The database is intended to record who is to take part in which
event and to record the outcome of each event. As results become available
the winner attribute will be updated with the cid of the appropriate competitor.

Competitor(cid, name, nationality)

Event(eid, description, winner)

Competes(cid, eid)

Competitor Event Competes

cid name nationality eid description winner cid eid
01 Pat British 01 running 01 01
02 Hilary British 02 Jumping 02 01
03 Sven Swedish 03 throwing 03 02
04 Pierre French 04 02
04 03

Identify the result of the follo ing SQL statement :

SELECT eid FROM Competes, Competitor

WHERE Competes.cid=Competitor.cid

AND nationality = 'Swedish'

(I) 0l (2) 02

(3) 03 (4) 04

01 / PROG-l_A] 11 [Contd...
27 Relation C is a projection of relation A. Which of the following statements
must be trne in all cases where relation C is different from relation A?

(1) The cardinality of C is greater than the cardinality of A

(2) The cardinality of C is less than the cardinality of A

The arity of C is greater than the arity of A

(4) The arity of C is less than the arity of A

28 When the referential integrity rule is enforced, which one is usually not a
valid action in response to the deletion of a row that contains a primary key
value referenced elsewhere?

(I) Do not allow the deletion

(2) Accept the deletion without any other action

(3) Delete the related rows

(4) Set the foreign keys of related rows to null

29 When an equi-join is performed on a table of N rows and a table of M rows,

the resulting table has the following number of rows

(1) M

(2) N

(3) The smaller of M or N

(4) A number in the range O to M*N

30 In an SQL query that gets its data from two tables, and where the keywords
WHERE, GROUP, ORDER and HAVING appear, which operation is
performed before the other ones"

(1) Restriction on WHERE conditions

(2) Restrictions on HAVTNG conditions

(3) ORDER BY

(4) Sort on GROUP BY

01 /PROG-l_A] 12 [Contd...
31 A Trigger is
( l) A statement that enables to start any DBMS
(2) A statement that is execute_d by the user when debugging an application
program
(3) A condition the system tests for the validity of the database user
(4) - A statement that is exec ted automatical!y by the system as a side
effect of modification to the database

32 With regard to the expressive power of the formal relational Query Languages
which of the following statements is TRUE ?
(1) Relational algebra is more powerful than relational calculus.
(2) Relational algebra has the same power as relational calculus.
(3) Relational algebra has the same power as safe relational calculus.
(4) None of these

33 In SQL, relation can contain nuJI values, and comparisons with nu\! values
are treated as unknown suppose all comparisons with a null value are treated
as false.
Which of the following pairs is not equivaient?
(1) x::::: 5 not (not (x = 5))
(2) x -== 5 x > 4 and x < 6, where x is an integer
(3) x -:t; 5 not (x = 5)
(4) none of these

34 The SQL expression

Select distinct T branchname from branch T, branch S where T.
assets > S. assets and S. branchcity = "XYZ"
Finds the names of
(l) All branches that have greater assets than some branch located in XYZ
(2) All branches that have greater assets than all branches located in XYZ
(3) The branch that has the greatest asset in XYZ
(4) Any branch that has greater asset than any branch located in XYZ

01 / PROG-1 A I 13 [Contd...
35 Let R = (A, B, C, D, E, F) be a relation scheme with the following
dependencies :

C F, E A, EC D, A B

Which of the following is a key for R?

(I) CD (2) EC
(3) AE (4) AC

36 Consider the schema R = (S T U V) and the dependencies S T,

T U, U V and V S. Let R = (RI and R2) be a decomposition such
that Rl n R2 = <j>. The decomposition is

(l) not in 2 NF (2) in 2 ·NF but not in 3 NF

(3) in 3 NF but not in 2 NF (4) in both 2 NF and 3 NF

37 A functional dependency of the form .x y is trivial if

(1) y X
(2) y C X

(J) X y (4) x c y and y c x

38 • Given the functional dependencies.

x w; x y; y z and z pq

Which of the following docs not hold good?

(I) X Z
(2) w z
("->) X wy (4) None of these

39 Consider Join of a relation R with a relation S. If R has m tuples

and S has n tuples, then maximum and minimum sizes of the Join
respectively are

(I) m + n and 0
(2) m n and 0
(3) m + n and lm-nl
(4) m n and tn + n
01 / PROG-l_A j
14 !Contd...
40 For two union compatible relations R1 (A, B) and R2 (C, D), what is the
result of the operation R1 A=C AB=D R2 ?
(I) R1uR2 (2) R1xR2
(3) R1-R2 (4) R1nR2

41 A primary key, if combined with a foreign key creates

(1) Parent child relationship between the tables that connect them
(2) Many-to-many relationship between the tables that connect them
(3) Network model between the tables connect them
(4) None of these

42 The employee's salary should not be rnore than Rs. 6000. This is
(1) Integrity constraint
(2) Referential constraint
(3) Over-defined constraint
(4) Feasible constraint

43 A relational model which allows non-atomic domains is

(1) Nested relational data model
(2) Non-atomic data model
(3) Hierarchical data model
(4) None of these

44 If adjacency relation of vertices in a graph is represented in a table Adj(x_y),

then which of the following Queries cannot be expressed by a relational
algebra expression of constant length ?
(l) List all vertices adjacent to given vertex
(2) List all vertices which have self-loops
(3) • List all vertices which belong to cycle of less than three vertices
(4) List all vertices reachable from a given vertex

45 Which of the following is true of the data manipulation language (DML)?

(l) It refers to data using physical addresses •
(2) It cannot interface with high-level programming language
(3) It is used to define the physical characteristics of each record
(4) None of these
01 / PROG-1 A] 15 [Contd...
46 Using relational algebra, the query that finds customers, who have a balance
of over 3000 is

( l) 1C cu lorncr _name ( CY balancc>:Woo(Deposit))

(2) CY customer _namj CY b;ilancc;•:VlOO(Deposit))

(3) 1C customcr_nairn/ CT habnc:c>3()(J(i(Borrow))

( 4) CY CllSltllll.:r n,mH:( 1[ balance> >l.l00(13orrow))

47 Embedded pointer provides a/an

(I) Secondary access path (2) Physical record key
(3) Inverted index (4) All of these

48 The physical locations of a record is determined by a mathematical formula

that transforms file key into a record location in a/an
( l) B-tree file
(2) Indexed file
(3) Hashed file
(4) All these

49 Minimum number or record movements required to merge five files A (with

IO records), B (with 1.0 records), C (with 15 records), D (with 5 records) and
E (with 25 records) is
(1) I65 (2) 90
(3) 75 (4) 65

50 Which command allow:; us to add to our database fi!e ?

(\) CLEAR
(2) CREATE
(3) APPEND
(4) APPEND BLANK

51 Which of the following commands permanently delete the record marked for
deletion from the data base field';>
(\) PACK (2) ZAP
(3) SEEK (4) SKIP

01 / PROG-I_A I 16 fContd ...

52 A relational database which is in 3NF may still have undesirable data
redundancy because there may exist

(]) Transitive functional dependencies.

(2) • Non-trivial functional dependencies involving prime attributes and the

right side.

(3) Non-trivial functional dependencies involving prime attributes only on

the left side.

(4) Trivial functional dependencies involving number of attributes.

53 Data security threats include

(l) Privacy invasion (2) Hardware failure

(3) Fraudlent manipulation of data (4) All of these

54 Which of the following queries finds the clients of banker xyz and the city
they live in ?

(1) 1t client.cu,tomcr_nmne.customcr_cit/ CT cl icnt.cus tomcr-

namc=customcr.cuSlom_cr name( CT Banker _nnmc=='·xyz''(Client x Customer)))

(2) TC cus1omcr_namc.cnstomcr_cit/ CT Bank<..'T_namc=''xyi,(Client x Customer))

(3) TC client.customcr_namc.customcr _ci1y( cr Bankcr_name='\;:yz"( (j clicnl.cusl.orner

namc"'customcr.cu,;\on\cr_name( Client >< Customer)))

(4) 7!Cuslonier_name,Customer_cit/ CT Banker_name-="xyz'{Clientx Customer))

55 If P and Q are predicates and P is the relational algebra expression, then

which of the fol_lowing equivalence are valid ?

(1) ( cr p( <J Q(e)) = cr cl cr p(e)))

(3) ( cr p( cr p(e)) = cr p(e)) (4) None of these

01 / PROG-l_A] 17 [Contd...
56 Find the correct match for terms in Column I to those in Column II :
Column I Column II
a
Roll back p Relationship
b
Atomicity Q Checkpoint
C Entity R Attribute
d Domain s Transaction
(1) a - S, b - P, C - R, d-Q
(2) a - Q, b - S, C - P, d-R
(3) a - S, b - Q, C - R, d-P
(4) a - Q, b - P, C - R, d-S

57 Consider a weak entity set Wand its identifying (owner) entity set 0. P.rimary
key of W is composed of
(I) Discriminator of W and primary key of 0
(2) Superkey of W and primary key of 0
(3) Discriminator of W and foreign key of 0
(4) Superkey of Wand foreign key of 0

58 Which of the following is an assertion in DBMS9

(I) Domain Constraint
(2) Generalization
(3) Trigger
(4) View

59 Find the correct match for terms in Column I to those in Column 11

Column I Column TI
a Audit Trail p Tuple
b Row Q Privileges
C Revoke· R Event-Condition-Action
d Trigger s Security
(I) a - S, b - P, C - R, d-Q
(2) a - P, b - S, C - Q, d-R
(3) a - S, b - Q, C - R, d- p
(4) a - S, b - P, C - Q, d-R

01 / PROG-1 A J 18 [Contd ...

60 Consider the statement, "Either -2 x < -\ or l x 2 ."
The negation of this statement is

(1) x < - 2 or 2 S x or - 1 < x < 1

(2) x<-2 or 2<x or -lSx<l

(3) x S - 2 or 2 < x or - 1 x < l

(4) None of these

61 Let A={O, 1}><{0, l}x{O, l} and B={a, b, c}x{a, b, c}x{a, b, c}. Suppose
A is listed in lexicographic or er based on O < l and B is listed in
lexicographic order based on a < b < c. If AxBxA is listed in lexicographic
order, then the next element aft.er ((1, 0, 0), (c, c, c), (1, 1, l)) is

(l) ((1, 0, 1), (a, a, b), (0, 0, 0))

(2) ((l, 0, 1), (b, a, a), (0, 0, 1))

(3) ((1, 0, l), (a, a, a), (0, 0, 0))

(4) ((1, 0, 0), (a, a, b), (0, 0, 1))

62 Which normal form is considered adequate for database design?

(!) 2NF (2) 3NF

(3) 4NF (4) 5NF

63 Which of the following statements is FALSE?

(1) {2, 3, 4} E A and {2, 3} E B implies that {4} A - B.

(2) {2, 3, 4} A implies that 2 E A and {3, 4} A.

(3) A n B ;;;;;i {2, 3, 4} implies that {2, 3, 4} A and

{2, 3, 4} B.

(4) A - B ::! {3, 4} and {l, 2} c B implies that

{1, 2, 3, 4} A u B.

01 / PROG-1 Al 19 {Contd...
64 Find the correct match for terms in Column I to those in Column II :

Column I Column ll

a topological sorting p grant

b privileges Q concurrency

C multivalued dependency R 4NF

d improved throughput s serializable order

(I)
a - P, b - Q, C - R d- S

(2) a - Q, b - S, c - P, d-R

(3) a - S, b - Q, C - R d-p

(4) a - S, b - P, C - R, d -Q

65 Two concurrent transactions Tl and T2 are in conflict when

(I) Tl reads from x, T2 reads from y

(2) Tl reads from x, T2 writes to x

(3) Tl reads from x, T2 writes to y

(4) TI writes to x, T2 writes to y

66 Identify correct matching of the following sets :

a Transaction 1 index

b Natural join 2 relational algebra

C B-tree 3 two phase locking

d Concurrency control 4 ACID

(l) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-J (2) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2

(3) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4 (4) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

01 / PROG-l_A] 20 (Contd...
67 In context of two phase locking protocol, which of the following statements
is correct ?
(1) Growing phase occurs after shrinking phase.
(2) In shrinking phase, transaction can obtain as well as release locks but
in growing phase, it can only obtain locks.
(3) In growing phase, transaction can obtain as well as release locks but
in shrinking phase, it can only release locks.
(4) In growing phase, transaction can only obtain locks and in shrinking
phase, it can only release locks.

68 Which one of the following is not related to Normal Forms (Normalization)

rule with regards to the Relational Model?
(I) All fields within a table must relate to or directly describe the Primary
Key.
(2) Repeating Groups must be eliminated from tables.
(3) Fields that can contain non-numeric data are to be removed and placed
within their own tables with an associated Primary key.
•
(4) Redundant data is to be eliminated by placing the offending fields in
another table.

69 Which of the following SQL query shall output names of all customers
ending with "Smith" ?
(I) Select name from customer where name like '_Smith'
(2) Select name from customer where name like '¾Smith'
(3) Select name from customer where name like 'Smith¾'
(4) Select name from customer where name like '%Smith%'

70 Which of the following is correct ?

( l) An SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates.
(2) An SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations.
(3) SQL queries can be nested.
(4) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation.

01 /PROG-l_A] 21 [Contd ...

71 172.17.225 _125 IP address belong
to
(2) Private IP address
(I) Public IP address
(4) None
(3) Both

72 Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) and Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) are
examples of
(1) packet filtering services.
(2) network address translation protocols.
(3) security protocols.
(4) service set identifiers.

73 Match the following acronyms to their definitions :

I HTTP a protects IP addresses from hackers

II SMTP b a protocol associated with Web pages

Ill NAT C a protocol used for e-mail
IV WAP d an access point on a wireless network
(1) I-b, II-a, 111-d, IV-c
(2) I-b, II-c, Ill-a, IV-d
(3) 1-c, 11-a, III-d, IV-b
(4) l-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b

74 In the p-persistent approach of CSMA protocol, when a station finds an idle

line, it _

( l) Waits sec before sending

(2) Sends with probability I - p
(3) Sends with probability p
(4) Sends immediately

75 You have a network ID of 131.107.0.0 and you need to divide it into

multiple subnets. You need 600 host IDs for each subnet with the largest
amount of subnets available. Which subnet mask should you assign ?
(l) 255.255.224.0 (2) 255.255.240.0
(3) 255.255.248.0 (4) 255.255.252.0

01 / PROG-l_A J 22 [Contd...
76 • •What protocol is used to convert IP addresses to MAC addresses?

(1) IP (2) ARP-

(3) RARP (4) ICW

77 A system has an n-layer protocol hierarchy. Applications generate messages

of length M bytes. At each of the layers. An h-byte header is added. What
fractions of the network bandwidth is filled with headers?

h ho
(1)
(2) M+nh
M

nh
(3)
(4)
M

78 The ABC Corporation ofXYZ has a fully connected mesh network consisting
of 99 devices. Calculate the number of ports for each device.

(1) 4950 (2) 485)

(3) 100 (4) 98

79 FDDI is a

(1) Ring network (2) Star network

(3) Mesh network (4) Bus based network

80 In networking terminology UTP means

(l) Unshielded Twisted pair (2) Unshielded Teflon port

(3) Uniformly terminating port (4) Unshielded T-connector port

01 /PROG-l_A) 23 [Contd...
81 Four bits are used for packed sequence numbering in a sliding window
protocol used in a computer network. What is the maximum window size?

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 15
(4) 16

82 . IP address can be used to specify a broadcast and map to hardware broadcast

if available. By conversion broadcast address has hosted with all bits

(1) 0
(2) l
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

83 ICMP (internet control message protocol) is

(l) A protocol that handles error and control messages

(2) A protocol used to monitor computers

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of these

84 Error detection at the data link level is achieved by

(I) Bit stuffing (2) Cyclic redundancy codes

(3) Hamming codes (4) Equalization

85 The topology with highest reliability is

(I) By topology (2) Star topology

(3) Ring topology (4) Mesh topology

86 How many characters per sec (7 bits + I parity) can be transmitted over a
240o' bps line if the ·transfer is synchronous (1 start and I stop bit)?

(I) 300 (2) 240

(3) 250 (4) 275

01 / PROG-l_A] 24 [Contd ...

87 In Ethernet CSMS/CD, the special bit sequence transmitted by media access
management collision handing is called

( l) Preamble
(2) Postamble
(3) Jam
(4) None of these

88 A terminal multiplexer has six 1200 bps terminals and 'n' 300 bps terminals
connected to it. If outgoing line is 9600 bps, then maximum value of n is
(1) 4
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 28

89 In time division switches, if each memory access takes 100 ms and one
frame period is 125 ms, then maximum number of lines that can be supported
IS

(l) 625 (2) l 250

(3) 2300 (4) 318

90 If data rate of ring is 20 Mbps, signal propagation speed is 200 b/ms, then
number of bits that can be placed on the channel of 200 km is
(1) 2,000 bits (2) 20,000 bits
(3) 1,000 bits (4) None of these

91 Decryption and encryption of data are responsibilities of

(1) Physical layer

(2) Data link layer
(3) Presentation layer
(4) Session layer

92 Router function in which layers

(1) Physical and data link layer

(2) Physical, data link layer and network

(3) Data link and network

(4) Network and transport

01 / PROG-l_A} 25 [Contd...
93 A channel has a bit rate of 4 kbps and one-way propagation delay of 20 ms.
The channel uses stop and wait protocol. The transmission time of the
acknowledgement frame is negligible. To get a channel efficiency of at least
50%, the minimum frame size should be
(1) 80 bytes
(2) 80 bits
(3) 160 bytes
(4) l 60 bits

94 In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called ----

(l) an ad hoc architecture
(2) an infrastructure network
(3) either an ad hoc architecture or an infrastructure network
(4) None of the choices is correct

95 In a network ofLANs connected by bridges, packets are sent from one LAN
to another through intermediate bridges. Since more than one path may exist
between two LANs, packets may have to be routed
through multiple bridges. Why is the spanning tree algorithm used for bridge
routing?
(1) For shortest path routing between LANs
(2) For avoiding loops in the routing paths
(3) For fault tolerance
(4) For minimizing collisions

96 The layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node)
to the next.
(1) physical (2) data link
(3) transport (4) none of the above

97 A po_rt address in TCP/IP is bits long.

(I) 32
(2) 48
(3) 16
(4) none of the above

01 / PROG-l_A] 26 [Contd...
 98 Which of the following IP address class is

(1) Class-A (2) Class-B

(3) Class-C (4) Class-O

• 99 Which of the following layer of OSI mode] also called end-to-end layer ?

(1) Presentation layer (2) Network layer

(3) Session layer (4) Transport layer

100 For a sliding window of size (n-1) (n sequence numbers), there can be
maximum of how many frames sent but yet to be acknowledged

(l) 0
(2) n- I
(3) n
(4) n+ l

101 Pick the incorrect statement in error retransmission used in continuous ARQ
method

(1) Go back N method requires more storage at the receiving side

(2) Selected repeat involves complex logging than Go back N

(3) Go back N has better line utilisation

(4) Selective repeat has better line utilisation

102 An IP Network subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255,255. I 92.
What is the maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?

( l) I4
(2) 30
(3) 62
(4) 126

01 /PROG-l_A] 27 [Contd...
103 An organization having IP Network has a class B network and wishes to
form subnets for 64 departments. The subnet mask would be

(1) 255.255.0.0 (2) 255.255.64.0

(3) 255.255.128.0 (4) 255.255.252.0

104 A local area network operates Ethernet with CSMNCD mechanism and
iuns at a transmission rate of 8 Mbps nd a one-way signal propagation time
of 25 µs. How long (µs) has a station to wait before trying to access the
channel again, after experiencing 5 successively collisions?

(I) 125 (2) 625

(3) 800 (4) 1600

I05 What is the term for two modems establishing communications with each
other?

(I) Handshaking
(2) Syncing
(3) Pinging
(4) Linking

106 ln computer network terminology, RTS is :

(1) Ready to Sequence (2) Ready Task Set

(3) Request to Send (4) Ready Time Status

107 RS-232 is a standard that is for :

(1) RAM checksum (2) Serial ports

(3) BIOS error checking (4) Parallel ports

108 The first section of a URL identifier is the _

(1) protocol (2) path

(3) host (4) port

01 / PROG-I_A l 28 [Contd...
109 In HTTP, server is a computer that keeps copies of responses to
recent requests.

( l) a regular (2) a proxy

(3) an auxiliary
(4) a remote

110 During an FTP session the data connection may be opened _

(l) only once (2) only two times

(3) as many times as needed (4) none of the choices is correct

111 In FTP, there are three types of_ : stream, block, and compressed.

(1) file types (2) data types

(3) transmission modes (4) none of the choices is correct

112 The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet
is called _

(I) SMTP
(2) SNMP
(3) TELNET
(4) SSH

113 In the stop-and-wait protocol, the maximum send window size is _

and the maximum receive window size is where m is the number
of bits in the sequence.

(1) 1; 1 (2) 2m; - I

(3) I; 2m (4) 2m; 2m

114 In TCP, a SYN segment consumes sequence number(s).

(I) No (2) One

(3) Two (4) None of the choices is correct

01 / PROG-l_A] 29 [Contd...
 115 A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when either the
• : ·i--
, sending application program creates data slowly or_ the receiving application
..-...., program consumes data slowly, or both. This problem is called the _
• ( l) silly window·syndrome
(2) unexpected syndrome window
(3) bug
(4) None of the choices is correct

116 In TCP's - -- algorithm the size of the congestion window

increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold.
(1) congestion avoidance (2) congestion detection
(3) slow start (4) None of the choices is correct

It 7 The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing

can be_· _
( 1) any number
(2) must be a multiple of 256
..
• (3) must be a power of 2
(4) None of the choices is correct

118 allows a site to use a set of private addresses for internal

commurucation and a set of global Internet addresses for communication
with the rest of the world.
(I) DHCP (2) NAT
(3) IMCP (4) None of the choices is correct

119 Which of the following is true about ICl\llP messages?

(I) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICl\llP error message.
(2) An ICMP error message may be generated for a fragmented datagram.
(3) An ICl\llP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram.
(4) None of the choices is correct

120 The 0pen Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing
protocol based on routing.
( l) distance vector (2) link state
(3) path vector
(4).., None of the choices is correct

01 I PROG-l_A] . 30 [Contd ...

 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

01 /PROG-l_A] 31 [Contd...
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

01 / PROG-1_A} 32 ■