1

Prelims Wallah Test 2.0 - 2024

Test 24: Full Length Test - 3
1. B 26. A 51. B 76. B

2. B 27. B 52. C 77. C

3. C 28. B 53. C 78. C

4. A 29. A 54. A 79. A

5. B 30. B 55. D 80. B

6. C 31. D 56. C 81. B

7. B 32. C 57. D 82. D

8. D 33. D 58. C 83. A

9. C 34. B 59. C 84. A

10. B 35. A 60. B 85. D

11. C 36. A 61. A 86. D

12. D 37. A 62. C 87. B

13. B 38. A 63. C 88. A

14. D 39. A 64. C 89. C

15. D 40. C 65. B 90. A

16. D 41. C 66. C 91. A

17. A 42. D 67. D 92. B

18. B 43. B 68. C 93. A

19. C 44. B 69. B 94. C

20. B 45. C 70. C 95. D

21. C 46. B 71. B 96. B

22. D 47. B 72. C 97. C

23. C 48. A 73. B 98. A

24. C 49. D 74. C 99. A

25. D 50. A 75. A 100. B

 2

Option B is correct: The Constitution

1. Ans: B declares that laws made for the admission
or establishment of new states, the
Exp: formation of new states, and the alteration
Statement 1 is correct: The Constituent of areas, boundaries, or names of
Assembly elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad existing states are not to be considered
as the first President of India on January amendments to the Constitution under
24, 1950. Article 368. This means that such laws can
be passed by a simple majority and by the
Statement 2 is incorrect: Jawaharlal ordinary legislative process.
Nehru was the chairman of the
Option C is incorrect: The renaming of a
Committee for Negotiating with States.
state requires parliamentary approval
Sardar Patel was the chairman of the
under Articles 3 and 4 of the Constitution
Provincial Constitution Committee and
and the President has to refer the same to
Advisory Committee on Fundamental
the relevant state legislature for its views.
Rights, Minorities and Tribal and The views of the state assembly are not
Excluded Areas. binding, neither on the president nor on the
Statement 3 is incorrect: The constitution parliament.
of India is the lengthiest of all the written Option D is incorrect: The President or
constitutions of the world. Originally, it Parliament is not obligated to adhere to
had a Preamble, 395 Articles, 22 Parts and the opinions of the state legislature and
8 Schedules. Presently, it consists of a retains the discretion to accept or reject
Preamble, about 470 Articles, 25 Parts and them, irrespective of their timeliness.
12 Schedules. Moreover, there is no requirement to seek
Statement 4 is correct: The constitution fresh input from the state legislature each
time an amendment to the bill is proposed
of India has drawn from various sources.
and approved in Parliament. In the
The structural part of the constitution is,
instance of a union territory, there is no
to a large extent, derived from the
necessity to consult the respective
Government of India Act of 1935.
legislature to ascertain its viewpoints, as
Philosophical part of the constitution (FR Parliament has the authority to act
and DPSPs) derive inspiration from the accordingly on its own discretion.
American and Irish constitutions,
respectively. The political part of the
Constitution is derived from the British 3. Ans: C
Constitution. Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian
2. Ans: B form of socialism, termed as 'democratic
socialism', diverges from 'communistic
Exp: socialism' or 'state socialism', which
Option A is incorrect: The Constitution advocates for the nationalization of all
authorises the Parliament to form new means of production and distribution, as
states or alter the areas, boundaries or well as the elimination of private property.
names of the existing states without In contrast, democratic socialism
their consent. advocates for a 'mixed economy', where
both public and private sectors operate
alongside each other.
 3

Statement 2 is correct: The inclusion of 4. Cultural and educational rights

the term 'secular' occurred through the (Articles 29 and 30). (Hence
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of statement 3 is correct).
1976. The Indian Constitution upholds the 5. Right to participate in elections for
positive concept of secularism, ensuring the Lok Sabha and state legislative
that all religions within the country, assemblies.
regardless of their influence, receive equal
status and support from the state. 6. Right to contest for membership in
Parliament and state legislatures.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The term
'justice' within the Preamble encompasses 7. Eligibility for specific public offices,
three separate dimensions: social, including President of India, Vice-
economic, and political, safeguarded President of India, judges of the
through diverse provisions outlined in Supreme Court and high courts,
Fundamental Rights and Directive Governors of states, Attorney General
Principles. The concept of justice draws of India, and Advocate General of
inspiration from the Russian Revolution states.
of 1917. Article 22 provides safeguards for
Statement 4 is incorrect: The individuals who are arrested or
Constitution contains two provisions detained. Detention can be categorized
aimed at achieving political equality. into punitive and preventive forms.
Firstly, Article 325 prohibits the exclusion Punitive detention involves the
of individuals from electoral rolls based on punishment of an individual for an offense
religion, race, caste, or gender. Secondly, they have been tried and convicted of in
Article 326 mandates elections to the Lok court. In contrast, preventive detention
Sabha and state assemblies to be entails detaining an individual without trial
conducted through adult suffrage. or conviction by a court, with the aim of
preventing them from committing a future
offense. These protections are not
4. Ans: A extended to enemy aliens or individuals
Exp: The Constitution grants the detained under preventive detention
following rights and privileges exclusively laws. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect)
to Indian citizens, withholding them from
aliens: 5. Ans: B
1. Protection against discrimination Exp:
based on religion, race, caste, sex, or
place of birth (Article 15). (Hence Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 275
(Statutary Grants) authorizes Parliament
statement 2 is correct).
to provide financial assistance to states
2. Equal opportunity in matters of public that require it, rather than to every state.
employment (Article 16). These funds are drawn from the
3. Freedom of speech and expression, Consolidated Fund of India annually.
assembly, association, movement, Additionally, apart from this general
residence, and profession (Article provision, the Constitution outlines
19). (Hence statement 1 is correct). specific grants aimed at enhancing the
welfare of scheduled tribes in a state or
improving the administration of scheduled
 4

areas, including those in Assam. The 7. Ans: B

grants under Article 275, both general Exp:
and specific, are allocated to states
based on the recommendations of the Statement 1 is correct: The Election
Finance Commission. Commission of India normally announces
the schedule of elections in a major press
Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament
conference a few weeks before the formal
has the authority to impose surcharges
on taxes and duties mentioned in Articles process is set in motion. The Model Code
269 and 270, with the resulting proceeds of Conduct (MCC) for guidance of
exclusively allocated to the Centre. candidates and political parties comes
Consequently, states do not receive any immediately into effect after such
portion of these surcharges. announcement. The MCC is not a legally
binding document but carries moral and
However, the Goods and Services Tax
ethical weight, and candidates and
(GST) is exempt from such surcharges,
political parties are expected to adhere to
meaning that they cannot be imposed on
the GST. it voluntarily. The MCC ensures that all
political parties and candidates are given
equal opportunities to campaign and
6. Ans: C compete in the election.
Exp: The Constitution's Part IX-B Statement 2 is incorrect: The campaign
incorporates the provisions regarding period is when political parties present
cooperative societies. their candidates and viewpoints in an
Statement 1 is incorrect: The board of effort to convince people to vote for
cooperative societies will comprise a them. Candidates are allotted a week to
number of directors determined by the submit their nominations, which are then
state legislature. However, the total reviewed by Returning Officers.
number of directors in a cooperative Nominations found to be inadequate can
society cannot surpass twenty-one. be dismissed after a brief hearing.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The state Candidates who are validly nominated
legislature is mandated to arrange for the have two days following the scrutiny to
reservation of one seat for either withdraw. The official campaign
Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, duration spans at least two weeks from
and two seats for women, on the board of the compilation of the list of nominated
every cooperative society comprising candidates and formally concludes 48
members from these categories. hours before polling ends.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Elections for the
Board of Cooperatve Societies must occur
8. Ans: D
before the current board's term expires to
ensure a seamless transition, with newly Exp:
elected members taking office While the president holds authority to
immediately upon the outgoing board's delineate the responsibilities of an inter-
term conclusion. The supervision,
state council, Article 263 delineates the
direction, and oversight of the electoral
duties that can be delegated to it as
roll preparation and conduct of election
follows:
for a cooperative society will be assigned
to a body designated by the state
legislature.
 5

(a) Addressing and providing Statement 2 is correct: EU importers of

guidance on disputes that may goods covered by CBAM will register
arise between states. (Hence with national authorities where they can
option A is correct) also buy CBAM certificates. The price of
"The council's role in investigating the certificates will be calculated
and advising on inter-state disputes depending on the weekly average auction
complements the Supreme Court's price of EU ETS allowances expressed in
authority under Article 131 to €/tonne of CO2 emitted. EU importers will
adjudicate legal disputes between declare the emissions embedded in their
governments. While the Council imports and surrender the corresponding
can address both legal and non-legal number of certificates each year. The
controversies, its advisory function CBAM is designed to be compatible with
differs from the court's authoritative WTO-rules. If importers can prove that
decision-making." a carbon price has already been paid
(b) Examining and deliberating on during the production of the imported
topics of mutual interest to the goods, the corresponding amount can be
states or involving both the deducted.
Centre and the states. (Hence
option B is correct)
10. Ans: B
(c) Offering recommendations on
such matters, particularly aimed Exp:
at enhancing policy and action Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The
coordination. (Hence option C is dispute over the volcano-intensive
correct) archipelago of Kuril Islands is the
Article 262 of the Constitution outlines primary reason Japan and Russia have
the resolution of inter-state water never signed a peace treaty to formalize
disputes through two provisions: the end of World War II. At the end of
(i) Parliament is empowered to enact the war, the Soviet Union invaded the
laws for the adjudication of disputes Kuril Islands, some of which Imperial
or complaints concerning the Russia had previously controlled. While
utilization, distribution, and the transfer of the islands to the Soviet
management of waters from inter- Union was included in the Yalta
state rivers and river valleys. agreements, Japan continued to claim
(ii) Parliament may also stipulate that historical rights to the southernmost
neither the Supreme Court nor islands.
any other court has jurisdiction
Pair 2 is correctly matched: The India-
over such disputes or complaints.
Nepal border was originally delineated by
(Hence option D is incorrect)
the 1816 Sugauli Treaty, which
established the river Kali (Sharda,
9. Ans: C
Mahakali) as the boundary, with territory
Exp:
east of the river going to Nepal. The
Statement 1 is correct: The European
Kalapani-Limpaidhura-Lipulekh
Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment
trijunction territorial dispute centres on
Mechanism (CBAM) is the EU's tool to
the source of the River Kali.
put a fair price on the carbon emitted
during the production of carbon
intensive goods that are entering the EU,
and to encourage cleaner industrial
production in non-EU countries.
 6

Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Abyei Mineral Security Partnership seeks to

Area covers 4,000 square miles of desert, bolster critical minerals supply chains to
farmland, and oil fields located along the support economic prosperity and climate
ill-defined border between Sudan and objectives. It seeks to ensure that critical
South Sudan. Abyei is claimed by both minerals are produced, processed and
countries and has been a source of recycled by catalyzing investments from
conflict in the Sudans for over 50 years. governments and private sector across the
Abyei’s rich oil reserves make the region full value chain.
economically desirable to both Sudan and India has become 14th member of the
South Sudan. Its border location has also Mineral Security Partnership (MSP) in
led to conflicting ethnic, cultural, and June 2023. The other member countries
linguistic claims. Resolving the status of are United States, Australia, Canada,
the Abyei Area is one of the essential steps Finland, France, Germany, Italy, Japan,
Sudan and South Sudan need to take to Norway, the Republic of Korea, Sweden,
ensure long-term peace in the region. the United Kingdom and the European
Commission.
11. Ans: C
Exp: 13. Ans: B
A new drug prescribed for Alzheimer’s
Exp:
patients, donanemab, has generated
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar's approach
considerable interest on whether a
to teaching Sanskrit at Sanskrit College
‘breakthrough’ in treating the disease,
involved the introduction of Western
the most common form of dementia, is
thought, particularly influenced by the
in sight.
ideas of John Locke and Jean-Jacques
Donanemab is a monoclonal antibody,
Rousseau.
meaning they are lab-synthesised to mimic
antibodies, which our immune systems John Locke was an English philosopher
produce to fight antigens, or harmful, known for his ideas on political philosophy
invasive agents. The philosophy and education. His work, "Some Thoughts
underlying the use of donanemab is that it Concerning Education," laid the
can be used to neutralise the build-up of foundation for modern educational theory.
amyloid protein, believed to be most Locke emphasised the importance of a
significantly associated with the disease. child's environment and experiences in
Elevated levels of amyloid trigger another shaping their character and education. He
protein called tau that damages brain cells, believed that education should be based on
and causes the cognitive decline typified reason and experience, promoting the
by the disease. development of an individual's natural
faculties.
12. Ans: D Jean-Jacques Rousseau was a French
Exp: philosopher known for his work, "Emile,
or on Education”. Rousseau's philosophy
Minerals are essential to the global
emphasised the natural development of a
economy and to the technologies powering
child and the importance of nurturing their
the clean energy transition. Diverse,
innate qualities. He advocated for a child-
secure, and sustainable supply chains for
centred and experiential approach to
critical energy minerals are vital to
education. His ideas significantly
deploying these technologies at the speed
influenced modern educational thought.
and scale necessary to combat the climate
crisis.
 7

Vidyasagar also contributed significantly Statement 1 is incorrect: In 1673, the

to Bengali and Sanskrit literature. He French were granted permission by
authored several books such as Betaal Shaista Khan, the Mughal subahdar of
Panchabinsati (1847), Banglar Itihas Bengal, to establish a township near
(1848), Jeebancharit (1850), Bodhodoy Calcutta at Chandernagore.
(1851), Upakramonika (1851), Shakuntala Statement 2 is incorrect: In 1667,
(1855), Bidhaba Bibaha Bishayak Prostab Francois Caron led an expedition to
(1855). India, establishing a factory in Surat.
Mercara, who accompanied Caron,
14. Ans: D established another French factory in
Masulipatnam in 1669, having obtained a
Exp:
patent from the Sultan of Golconda.
To fund the wars against the Marathas and
Statement 3 is incorrect: Calcutta was
Mysore, Warren Hastings employed
not a major French trading center in India.
English officers as revenue farmers in
In fact, Calcutta is more closely associated
Awadh. In 1778, Major Alexander
with the British presence in India,
Hannay was appointed as an izaradar,
particularly the British East India
securing 22 lakh rupees from Gorakhpur,
Company. Pondicherry was the nerve
Basti and Bahraich. However, this tactic,
centre of French power in India.
aimed at assessing surplus funds,
backfired due to Hannay's oppressive In 1673, Sher Khan Lodi, the governor
methods. The excessive taxation led to a of Valikondapuram (under the Bijapur
rebellion by zamindars and cultivators in Sultan), awarded Francois Martin, the
1781, resulting in the siege or death of director of the Masulipatnam factory, a
Hannay's subordinates. Despite quelling location for establishing a settlement.
the rebellion, Hannay was dismissed, and Subsequently, Pondicherry was
his appointment was forcibly terminated. established in 1674. Francois Martin
played a pivotal role in its development,
elevating it to a significant position.
15. Ans: D Indeed, Pondicherry emerged as the key
Exp: stronghold for the French in India.
The French were the final European
arrivals in India for trade purposes. During 16. Ans: D
the reign of Louis XIV, the renowned
Exp:
minister Colbert established the
Compagnie des Indes Orientales (French Statement 1 is correct: Established in
East India Company) in 1664, which 1830 by Radhakant Deb, this sabha
garnered significant royal interest. This upheld orthodox principles, advocating
company was bestowed with a 50-year for the maintenance of the existing socio-
monopoly over French trade activities in religious norms, including opposition to
the Indian and Pacific Oceans. the abolition of sati. Nonetheless, it
Additionally, the French king granted the endorsed the advancement of Western
company a perpetual concession for the education, including for females.
island of Madagascar, along with any other
territories it could conquer.
 8

Statement 2 is correct: As an all-India Statement 1 is correct: The Treaty of

organization of educated orthodox 1832 between the British East India
Hindus, Bharat Dharma Mahamandala Company and the Amirs of Sindh did
advocated for the protection of traditional grant the English free passage through
Hinduism against the doctrines of the Arya Sindh for trade and travel, facilitating
Samajists, Theosophists, and the commercial interactions in the region.
Ramakrishna Mission. Additional However, the treaty explicitly prohibited
organizations established to uphold the use of warships or the
orthodox Hinduism included the Sanatana transportation of war materials through
Sindh. This clause was aimed at
Dharma Sabha (1895), the Dharma Maha
preventing the militarization of the region
Parishad in South India, and the
by the British and limited their ability to
Dharma Mahamandali in Bengal. These
use Sindh as a base for military operations,
groups merged in 1902 to form the unified
emphasizing a primary focus on trade and
Bharat Dharma Mahamandala,
diplomatic relations.
headquartered in Varanasi. This collective
aimed to implement effective management Statement 2 is incorrect: The Treaty of
of Hindu religious institutions, establish 1832 between the British East India
Company and the Amirs of Sindh did
Hindu educational establishments, and so
contain a provision explicitly stating
forth. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
that no English merchant would settle in
played a significant role in this endeavor.
Sindh and passports would be needed
for travellers. This clause was a deliberate
17. Ans: A effort to prevent English colonization or
permanent settlement in the region.
Exp:
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Treaty of
Lytton, a nominee of the Conservative
1832 included a provision that stated
government under Benjamin Disraeli tariff rates could be altered by the
(1874–80), became the Viceroy of India in Amirs if found high and no military dues
1876. He started a new foreign policy of or tolls would be demanded.
‘proud reserve’, which was aimed at
Statement 4 is correct: The Treaty of
having scientific frontiers and
1832 effectively reaffirmed and
safeguarding ‘spheres of influence’.
confirmed existing agreements while
According to Lytton, the relations with
emphasizing the spirit of mutual
Afghanistan could no longer be left
cooperation between the British and the
ambiguous. He pursued an aggressive Amirs of Sindh.
approach towards Afghanistan.

19. Ans: C
18. Ans: B
Exp:
Exp:
● The revolutionary activity in the
In 1832, William Bentinck dispatched Punjab-United Provinces-Bihar
Colonel Pottinger to Sindh with the region was primarily dominated by
purpose of negotiating a treaty with the the Hindustan Republican
Amirs. The treaty contained the following Association / Army (HRA) which
stipulations: was Founded in October 1924 in
Kanpur by Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh
 9

Chandra Chatterjee, and Sachin

Sanyal, ○ Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and
● The Kakori robbery undertaken on Rajguru faced trial in the
August 9, 1925, stands out as the Lahore conspiracy case. They
most significant action undertaken were hanged on March 23,
by the HRA. 1931 for the assassination of
● In September 1928, led by Saunders. March 23 is now
Chandrashekhar Azad, the HRA commemorated as Shaheed
underwent a name change, Diwas and Sarvodaya Day.
becoming the Hindustan Socialist
Republican Association (HSRA). 20. Ans: B
Among the participants were
Exp:
Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar
(commonly known as Sukhdev), Pair 1 is incorrect: In 1902, under the
Bhagwati Charan Vohra from Viceroyalty of Lord Curzon, the Raleigh
Punjab, and Bejoy Kumar Sinha, Commission was established to assess the
Shiv Verma, and Jaidev Kapur state and future of universities in India and
from the United Provinces. propose enhancements to their structure
and operation. The commission was
● HSRA instructed Bhagat Singh and
instructed not to investigate primary or
Batukeshwar Dutt to hurl a bomb
secondary education.
into the Central Legislative
Assembly on April 8, 1929, as a Pair 2 is correct: In 1917, during Lord
protest against the enactment of the Chelmsford's viceroyalty, the Sadler
Public Safety Bill and Trade Commission, also known as the Calcutta
Disputes Bill, which sought to University Commission, was established.
restrict the civil liberties of both Its purpose was to investigate and address
citizens and workers. issues within Calcutta University, though
its findings were generally relevant to
● Chandrasekhar Azad convened a
other universities as well. The commission
meeting with fellow revolutionaries
conducted a comprehensive review
on February 27, 1931, at Alfred
spanning from school to university
Park (now Chandrashekhar Azad
education.
Park) in Allahabad. Betrayed by an
associate, they were cornered by Pair 3 is incorrect: The proliferation of
British police. Azad resisted bravely schools and colleges had resulted in a
but sustained injuries. To avoid decline in educational standards. In
capture, he shot himself, refusing response, the Simon Commission formed
to be taken alive by the British. the Hartog Committee as a
supplementary body, with Phillip Hartog
● In December 1928, Bhagat Singh
appointed as its chairman, tasked with
and Shivram Rajguru shot dead
producing a report on education. Lord
John P. Saunders in Lahore to
Irwin was the viceory when this
avenge the death of Lala Lajpat
committee was formed.
Rai during anti Simon
Commisssion protests.
 10

Pair 4 is correct: Lord Ripon, the The award carries an amount of Rs. 1
Viceroy, established the Hunter Education crore, a citation, a plaque and an exquisite
Commission in 1882.It was aimed at traditional handicraft/handloom item. The
addressing issues related to the non- jury which decides the awardee of the
implementation of Wood’s Despatch of Gandhi Peace Prize comprises the
1854, evaluating the status of elementary ● Prime Minister of India
education in British territories, and
offering recommendations for its ● Leader of the Opposition in the
enhancement and expansion. Lok Sabha
● Chief Justice of India
21. Ans: C ● Speaker of the Lok Sabha and one
other eminent person.
Exp:
Abaucin is a Antibiotic which is known
to compromise the normal function of a 23. Ans: C
protein called CCR2. Abaucin is also Exp:
“species-selective” and it only disrupts the Gravitational lensing occurs when light
growth of A. baumannii, not other Gram- from a distant object passes near a
negative bacteria. A. baumannii is a Gram- massive object in space, causing it to
negative bacteria, which means it has a bend or curve. When observed from
protective outer membrane that allows it to Earth, this bending alters the appearance or
resist antibiotics. It has been associated position of the distant object, much like the
with hospital-acquired infections in India. effect seen through a magnifier. An
Abaucin had “modest bactericidal activity important consequence of Gravitational
against A. baumannii” in a medium lensing distortion is magnification,
containing other compounds that the allowing us to observe objects that would
bacteria resisted. They also observed that otherwise be too far away and too faint to
when they removed abaucin from the be seen. This phenomenon offers
medium “after six hours of treatment”, the invaluable insights into astrophysics and
A. baumannii regrew. cosmology, aiding in the determination of
galaxy mass profiles and the refinement of
22. Ans: D cosmological parameters.
Exp:
The Gandhi Peace Prize was established 24. Ans: C
in 1995 by the Union government on the Exp:
occasion of the 125th birth anniversary of The Mutwa and Rabari tribes are a part of
Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi. The the nomadic pastoral communities that
award is conferred as a homage to the migrated to Kutch in Gujarat hundreds of
principles championed by Mahatma years ago. They lived in bhungas that were
Gandhi. Every year, it is conferred on mud houses, circular in shape to keep the
individuals and institutions in recognition houses cool during the harsh summers.
of their efforts in promoting social, Lippan means ‘clay’ or ‘dung’ in Gujarati
economic, and political transformation and ‘kaam’ is work. Hence, Lippan Kaam
through non-violence and other methods refers to the mud work that was done on
inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's principles. the interior as well as the exterior walls
 11

of the circular homes of these tribes. Nagaraka was referred to as a city-bred

Also known as clay-relief work, individual living during a period of
traditionally, it was mostly the flourishing urbanism
womenfolk of the tribes who practiced
this special art. The women were so
26. Ans: A
well-versed in this art form that they did
all the drawings freehand. Initially, Exp:
Lippan Kaam was created to liven up the Statement 1 is correct: The founder of
harsh and bleak environments of the tribal Vardhan Dynasty was Pushyabhuti who
communities. Over time, this art form has ruled from Thaneshwar.
made the circular bhungas so sturdy that
He served as a military general under the
they miraculously withstood even the 2001
imperial Guptas and rose to power after
catastrophic earthquake that shook the
the fall of the Guptas. With the accession
state of Gujarat. The resilience of these
of Prabakara Vardhana (580–605 CE), the
homes has brought the artisans into the
Pushyabhuti family became strong and
limelight and ensured the revival of the
powerful.
Lippan Kaam.
Statement 2 is incorrect: On the
accession of Harsha to the throne, he
25. Ans: D shifted his capital from Thanesar to
Exp: Kanuj as Thanesar was too close to the
Pair 1 is incorrect: ‘Mahavastu’ is a threats from the northwest. Kanauj was
cornerstone of Mahayana Buddhist located in the rich agricultural region of
literature. The development of Mahayana the western Ganges Plain.
Buddhism spurred the creation of various Statement 3 is incorrect: Bhaga,
avadanas, which are texts detailing the life Hiranya and Bali were the three kinds of
stories and teachings of the Buddha. These tax collected during Harsha’s reign.
texts were primarily composed in Buddhist Bhaga was the land tax paid in kind.
hybrid Sanskrit to convey the principles of One-sixth of the produce was collected as
Mahayana Buddhism to a broader land revenue. Hiranya was the tax paid
audience. One significant example of this by farmers and merchants in cash.
genre is the Mahavastu. The term There is no reference to the tax Bali.
"Mahavastu" translates to "great story" or
"great event," emphasising its
27. Ans: B
comprehensive nature.
Exp
Pair 2 is incorrect: The Greeks
introduced the practice of military Statement 1 is correct: Krishna III was
governorship in India, and the military the last great ruler of the Rashtrakuta
governors were called strategos. Military dynasty. He succeeded in establishing his
governors were necessary to maintain the suzerainty over the entire Deccan
power of the new rulers over the region. It was under him the
conquered people. Rashtrakutas joined the contest that
was held then among the northern
Pair 3 is incorrect: The ‘Kamasutra’ of ruling dynasties for control of Kanauj.
Vatsyayana mentions the term ‘Nagaraka’. The continued conflict over the possession
 12

of Kanauj emboldened some of the local Statement 3 is correct: Brahmanas first

rajas to assert their independence. Their appeared in the Tamil land during
defiance destroyed the possibility of a Sangam age, with many of them serving
single kingdom ruling northern India with as poets and receiving generous rewards
its centre at Kanauj. from the king. While the concept of varna
was recognized, social classes in the early
Statement 2 is incorrect: The worship of Sangam period did not exhibit pronounced
Shiva and Vishnu was popular during the caste distinctions, which became more
Rashtrakuta reign. The famous rock-cut prominent in later stages.
Shiva temple at Ellora was built by
Krishna I. 29. Ans: A
Statement 3 is correct: The Rashtrakutas Exp:
were originally known to be the
Statement 1 is correct: Jaunpur was a
feudatories of the Western Chalukyas of
prosperous province in the eastern part
Vatapi. Though Rashtrakutas were early of Delhi Sultanate. Malik Sarwar was the
rulers, the greatest ruler of the dynasty was Governor of Jaunpur. Soon he became the
Dandidurga. ruler of Kanauj, Kara, Awadh, Sandeela,
Dalmau, Bahraich, Bihar and Tirhut.
Though Malik Sarwar did not assume
28. Ans: B
the title of Sultan, but he laid down the
Exp: foundation of the Sharqi Dynasty
Statement 1 is incorrect: The primary Statement 2 is correct: During Ibrahim’s
basis of social stratification was the kuti reign, the relations between Delhi and
system, which consisted of clan-based Jaunpur became worse. Ibrahim was the
descent groups. Within these kuti groups, greatest ruler of the Sharqi dynasty under
there were no significant barriers to inter- whom Jaunpur became an important centre
of learning. Under him, Jaunpur evolved
dining or social interaction. The ruling
a distinct architecture which is known
class, known as the arasar, maintained
as Sharqi style of architecture. The most
marital ties with the vellalas, who were
famous of their buildings was the Atala
affluent peasants and constituted the fourth Masjid at Jaunpur.
caste of peasants. The vellalas
Statement 3 is incorrect: Ibrahim’s
predominantly owned land and hired
successor Mahmud conquered the fort of
kadaisiyan, or agricultural laborers, to
Chunar. He also tried to conquer Kalpi but
perform manual farm tasks. failed. He invaded Delhi but was
Statement 2 is incorrect: The barbaric defeated by Bahlol Lodi. After Mahmud,
tradition of Sati, known as tippayadal in Jaunpur saw the rule of Muhammad Shah
Tamil society, was present, although it and Husain Shah. Husain Shah died in AD
was not mandatory, evidenced by the 1500 and with him ended the Sharqi
dynasty
existence of widows in society.
Nevertheless, widows faced dire
circumstances, as they were forbidden
from adorning themselves or engaging in
any form of entertainment.
 13

30. Ans: B emerged victorious, securing his position

Exp: in the Delhi–Agra region. He declared the
conflict against Rana Sanga to be a jihad
Statement 1 is incorrect: and assumed the title of Ghazi following
Krishnadevaraya encouraged foreign trade his triumph.
and this necessitated wider use of
Statement 2 is incorrect : Babur
currency. Coins of the Vijayanagar
introduced innovative methods of warfare
kingdom were largely struck in gold and played a significant role in
called Varaha (also called Pon in Tamil popularizing the use of gunpowder,
and Honnu in Kannada) and copper. cavalry, and artillery in India. While
Most Vijayanagar gold coins bore a sacred gunpowder had been utilized in India prior
image on the obverse and the royal legend to his time, it was Babur who greatly
on the reverse. Amongst the significant popularized its usage.
gold coins of the Vijayanagar Empire were
those bearing the image of the deity of
32. Ans: C
Tirupati, i.e., Lord Venkateswara
represented either singly or with his two Exp:
consorts. These coins inspired the 'Single Statement 1 is correct: The religious
Swami' Pagodas of the Dutch and French policies during Aurangzeb's rule, which
and the 'Three Swami' Pagodas of the included his efforts to enforce strict
English East India Company. Islamic orthodoxy and suppress non-
Raja Raja Chola issued a copper coin Muslim practices, contributed to the
downfall of the Mughal Empire by
called "Eelam Kasu," featuring an image
alienating non-Muslim subjects and
of a standing man with a flower on the
causing internal strife. Aurangzeb’s
obverse and a seated man with the Nagari
religious policy was largely responsible
legend "Rajaraja" on the reverse.
for the revolts by Rajputs, Sikhs, Jats,
Statement 2 is correct: Commerce and Marathas.
flourished with Arabia, Persia, South Statement 2 is correct: The ambitious
Africa, and Portugal to the west, and with provincial governors began to behave in an
Burma, the Malay Peninsula, and China independent manner. The rise of factions
to the east. Primary exports included among the nobles within the Mughal
cotton and silk garments, spices, rice, iron, court and administration weakened the
saltpetre, and sugar. Imports comprised central authority and led to political
horses, pearls, copper, coral, mercury, instability, which was another factor
Chinese silk, and velvet garments. contributing to the empire's decline.
Shipbuilding had advanced significantly Statement 3 is correct: The neglect of
during this period. sea power by the Mughals is also a valid
factor. The European powers, particularly
31. Ans: D the British, French, and Dutch, were
expanding their naval capabilities and
Exp: influence in the Indian subcontinent during
Statement 1 is incorrect: Battle of the decline of the Mughal Empire. The
Khanwa was one of the most fiercely Mughals' lack of attention to sea power
fought battles in Indian history occurred and maritime affairs made them vulnerable
between Babur and Rana Sanga of to external threats and limited their ability
Mewar, along with his allies. Babur to control coastal regions.
 14

33. Ans: D confined themselves to trade and

Exp: mercantile activities.

Statement 1 is correct: The banjaras Statement-II is correct: Mahavira has

were specialized in carrying bulk goods taught the Jains the right path or Dharma
like foodgrains, pulses, ghee, and salt over and stressed on renunciation of the world,
long distances. Expensive goods like strict asceticism and moral cultivation.
textiles and silks were often transported on The Jains are morally bound by their
camels, mules, or in carts, not by the religion to live in such a way that would
banjaras.
not harm any being.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Boat traffic on
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
waterways and coastal trade was more
highly developed during this historical correct and Statement-II is the correct
period in India. Coastal trade along the explanation for Statement-I
seashore and the use of rivers for
transportation were essential for the
movement of goods, making it a significant 36. Ans: A
component of inter-regional trade. Exp:
Statement 3 is correct: Hundi was a Statement 1 is correct: Following
form of a letter of credit used in Buddha's attainment of Mahaparinirvana
financial transactions. It was payable
at Kushinagar in 483 BC, the necessity
after a specified period at a discount, often
including insurance, and facilitated the arose to compile his teachings.
movement of money in trade across Consequently, four Buddhist Councils
different regions in India. were convened over a period of 500 years
to organize this material into Pitakas. The
34. Ans: B outcome was the composition of three
primary Pitakas—Vinaya, Sutta, and
Exp:
Abhidhamma—which, when unified,
The Pandya kingdom included parts of
formed the Tripitaka. All of these texts
modern Tamil Nadu and almost the whole
were composed in the Pali language.
of the present Kerala. The kingdom
enjoyed independent status around the first Statement 2 is correct: In the initial
quarter of the 13th century and came to an centuries after the Buddha's passing, the
end by the first quarter of the 14th century. community splintered into various sects,
The Pandya kingdom was famous for its
initially displaying minimal distinctions
pearl-fisheries which is testified by
among them, to the extent that is
Marco Polo.
documented (see eighteen schools). The
initial divergence took place during the
35. Ans: A
4th century BCE, concurrent with the
Exp: second council, when a faction separated
Statement-I is correct: Jainism from the Sthaviravadins, forming the
prohibited the practice of war and even Mahasanghika.
agriculture for its followers because both
involve the killing of living beings. Statement 3 is incorrect: In the fourth
Eventually the Jainas principally council of King Kanishka’s reign, there
was a split in Buddhism, and two sects
 15

were born: Hinayana and Mahayana Uparikara: Also an extra tax. Scholars
Buddhism. give different explanations about what it
was collected for.
● Hinayana Buddhism: The school
comprises followers adhering to the Hiranya: Literally, it means tax payable
original teachings of Buddha, on gold coins, but in practice, it was
leaning towards orthodoxy. They probably the king’s share of certain crops
reject idol or image worship of paid in kind.
Buddha. One of its sub-sects is Vata-Bhuta: Different kinds of cess for
Sthaviravada or Theravada. maintenance of rites for the winds (vata)
Scholars of Hinayana utilized the and the spirits (bhuta).
Pali language for communication
Sulka: A royal share of merchandise
with the masses.
brought into a town or harbour by
● Mahayana Buddhism: The school merchants. Hence it can be equated with
is characterized by a more liberal the customs and tolls.
outlook, affirming the divinity of
Klipta and Upakilpta: related to the sale
Buddha and Bodhisattvas as
and purchase of lands.
embodiments of Buddha Nature.
Mahayana adherents endorse idol or Statement 2 is incorrect: The successors
image worship of Buddha. The of Chandragupta II had to face the invasion
notion of Bodhisattva originates by the Hunas from Central Asia. While
from this school. Skandagupta managed to repel the attack,
the war drained the empire of its resources
and thus became a major factor
37. Ans: A contributing to the decline of the Gupta
Exp: Empire. Hunas excellent archery and their
Statement 1 is incorrect: Halivakara skilled horsemanship gave them a
was a plough tax paid by every cultivator considerable edge over the Gupta rulers.
owning a plough. However, Kara was a Statement 3 is correct: Chandragupta II
periodic tax levied on the villagers (not a records the prosperity of the Gupta
part of the annual land tax). Other taxes Empire. He was the first Gupta ruler to
Bhaga: King’s customary share of the issue silver coins. His rule thus formed the
produce normally amounts to one-sixth of peak period of Gupta’s territorial
the produce paid by cultivators. expansion.

Bhoga: Periodic supply of fruits,

firewood, flowers, etc., which the village 38. Ans: A
had to provide to the king. Exp:
Bali: A voluntary offering by the people to Tansen wrote several Dhrupads in praise
the king, but later became compulsory. It of Ramchandra Vaghela and emperor
was an oppressive tax. Akbar. Among the four Banis of Dhrupad
Udianga: Either a sort of police tax for the prevalent during that time – Khandar,
maintenance of police stations or a water Nauhar, Dagar and Govarhar, Tansen is
tax. Hence, it was also an extra tax. believed to have initiated the Govarhar
Bani.
 16

Statement 1 is incorrect: Tansen was 40. Ans: C

also a follower of the Shattari Silsilah Exp:
order (not Kubwariya order). Shattari
Silsilah was established by Sheikh The uneven socio-economic developments
Sirajuddin Abdullah Shattar and became of the different localities is also seen in
popular in Malwa, Jaunpur and Bengal. political forms too. Three levels of rulers
are found:
Statement 2 is correct: Akbar had “Nine
Navaratnas” or nine jewels in his court. ● Kizhar
They included Abul Fazl, Faizi, Tansen, ● Velir
Birbal, Raja Todar Mal, Raja Man Singh, ● Vendar.
Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana, Fakir Aziao-
Din and Mullah Do Piyaza. It is believed Pair 1 is correct: The Kizhar were the
that Tansen invoked rain upon singing heads of the villages or a small territory,
Raga Malhar and lighted lamps upon later known as Nadu. They were the chiefs
singing Raga Deepak. of tribal communities living in specific
areas.
Statement 3 is correct: Tansen is
regarded as an important exponent of Pair 2 is correct: The Velir who were
Hindustani classical music. He is credited many in number, controlled the
with introducing ragas such as the territories of varied geographical
Miyan ki Malhar, Miyan ki Todi and nature, mainly hilly and forest areas,
darbari in Hindustani classical music. that were in between the muvendar’s
fertile territories.
Pair 3 is correct: The Vendar were kings
39. Ans: A
controlling larger, fertile territories.
Exp:
Temples were constructed in three types 41. Ans: C
based on their access and the presence of a
circumambulatory path within them. They Exp:
are: The “sponge city” initiative was
Sandhara temples feature a square designed to make greater use of lower-
sanctum surrounded by a pillared gallery impact “nature-based solutions” to
designed for Pradakshina, providing them better distribute water and improve
with a Pradakshinapatha. drainage and storage. Those solutions
included the use of permeable asphalt, the
Nirandhara temples lack construction of new canals and ponds and
Pradakshinapathas. also the restoration of wetlands, which
Sarvatobhadra temples are characterized would not only ease waterlogging, but also
by four operational entrances situated on improve the urban environment. The
the cardinal directions, along with a initiative was launched to boost flood
Pradakshinapatha encircled by a row of 12 resilience in major cities and make
pillars surrounding the sanctum better use of rainwater through
sanctorum. These temples allow access architectural, engineering and
from all directions. infrastructural tweaks.
 17

42. Ans: D ghungroos (anklets), ghantis (bells) and

Exp: other decorative metal craft and brassware.
The Thatheras community, which resides
Africa is one of the world's most in a mohalla (locality) named Hathras,
vulnerable continents to the impacts of makes these products.
climate change. Climate change, which
leads to an increased frequency and Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Bebinca is
intensity of extreme weather events, has a a multi-layered cake that has been
direct impact on migration. A total of 48 dubbed the "queen of Goan desserts"
African countries have now agreed to and is a traditional Indo-Portuguese
adopt the Kampala Ministerial pudding. It is a fluffy cake or pudding,
Declaration on Migration, Environment baked in layers, with golden and caramel
and Climate Change (KDMECC) to hues, and a sweet, eggy taste. The origins
address the nexus of human mobility of this sweet are unclear but as per one
and climate change in the continent. fascinating legend, a group of nuns—
The Declaration is the first including one named Sister Bebiana—in
comprehensive, action-oriented the Santa Monica Convent in Old Goa
framework led by Member States to came up with the recipe. The nuns would
address climate-induced mobility in a use egg whites to starch their garments,
practical and effective manner. and used the leftover egg yolks to make
sweets.

43. Ans: B
44. Ans: B
Exp:
Exp:
A geographical indication (GI) is a sign
used on products that have a specific The ‘Five Eyes’ is a multilateral
geographical origin and possess qualities intelligence-sharing network shared by
or a reputation that are due to that origin. over 20 different agencies of five English-
In order to function as a GI, a sign must speaking countries:
identify a product as originating in a given ● Australia
place. ● Canada
Pair 1 is correctly matched: ‘Udaipur ● New Zealand
Koftgari Metal Craft’ crafts from
Rajasthan was given GI tag. In this type ● United Kingdom
of metal crafting, weapons are exquisitely ● United States.
ornamented by a complicated process of The Five Eyes Intelligence Oversight and
etching designs, heating, and then cooling, Review Council (FIORC) was created in
intertwined with embedding gold and 2016 as the “non-political intelligence
silver wire into the metal, pressing and oversight, review, and security entities” of
flattening it to a smooth surface with the member countries to exchange views
moonstone, and finally polishing it. on subjects of mutual interest, compare
Pair 2 is correctly matched: At Jalesar in best practices, explore areas of
Uttar Pradesh’s Etah district, once the cooperation, and maintain contact with
capital of Magadha king Jarasandha, non-Five Eyes countries, among other
over 1,200 small units are engaged in aims.
making ‘Jalesar Dhatu Shilp’, including
 18

45. Ans: C 46. Ans: B

Exp: Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It consists of The Medieval period saw the emergence
Buddhist mural paintings and is located of Persian as the mode of communication
97 km from the Dhar district of Madhya and writing of the Delhi Sultanate and
Pradesh. Mughal courts. The language of Hindi also
● Unlike Ajanta, paintings in Bagh developed from the ancient Apabhramsa
have more tightly modeled figures language during this period. In the Delhi
with stronger outlines. Sultanate, multiple texts were written in
Persian. Many of them were concerned
● Figures are more earthly and with creating histories for the rulers. Amir
human. Khusrau and Amir Hasan Dehlavi were
● Cave No. 4, known as Rang Mahal notable Persian poets of Medieval India.
contains murals depicting Buddhist Statement 1 is correct: Padshahnama
Jataka tales. Here paintings have was written by Abdul Hamid Lahori. It
acquired a secular tone as the is about Shah Jahan. It contains valuable
contemporary lifestyle of the people insights into the art, architecture, and
is depicted with religious undertone. events of Shah Jahan's time. The
Statement 2 is correct: Features of Padshahnama is lavishly illustrated. This
Mughal Paintings during Shahjahan’s era book is a good example of the skills that
● Artificial elements and Persian craftsmen possessed in the art of
introduced unnatural stillness manuscript illustration.
inspired by European influence Statement 2 is incorrect: Babur wrote
was introduced. his autobiography, Tuzuk-i-Baburi or
● Significant attention was given to ‘Baburnama’ in Turkish (not Persian).
portraits. His grandson Akbar got the book
translated into Persian. This book
● Use of charcoal for drawing was provides information about the Mughal
dicouraged and pencil sketching conquest of India.
was promoted.
● There was an increase in the use of
47. Ans: B
gold and silver in paintings, along
with a preference for brighter colour Exp:
palettes compared to his The Mughals brought uniformity and
predecessors. consolidation of the system of coinage
Statement 3 is correct: Nathdwara throughout the Empire. Mughal coin
paintings are a substyle of the Mewar designs came to maturity during the reign
school of paintings. The main theme of of the Grand Mughal, Akbar.
these paintings is Krishna and his leela. Statement 1 is correct: Jahangir took a
The amalgamation of the cultural personal interest in his coinage. Jahangir
traditions of the Braj and Mewar is adorned his coins with poetic couplets, and
reflected in these paintings. Nathdwara on certain occasions, he included the name
style also has a subtype called Pichhwai of his beloved wife, Nur Jahan. One of his
Paintings, themes of which include the most renowned coin designs featured
life of Krishna, seasons etc. representations of the Zodiac signs. The
 19

Zodiac signs, portraits and literary verses Statement 3 is incorrect: Indian sculpture
and the excellent calligraphy that came to considerably progressed during the
characterise his coins took Mughal Mauryan period and was largely
coinage to new heights. influenced by Buddhism. However,
sculptures of the Mauryan period are
related to all three religions - Jainism,
Hinduism and Buddhism. Example:
Didarganj Yakshini, The Torso of a
male figure found at Lohanipur (Bihar)
probably represents a Jain Tirthankara etc.

Fig: Jahangir’s coin with a Libra Zodiac

49. Ans: D
Sign
Exp:
Statement 2 is incorrect: In 1579, Akbar
introduced gold coins known as Ilahi A fine example of a Pala Buddhist palm
coins to promote his new religious leaf manuscript is ‘Astasahasrika
philosophy, 'Din-i-Ilahi.' These coins Prajnaparamita’ or the ‘Perfection of
bore the inscription 'God is great, may his Wisdom’ written in eight thousand
glory be glorified,' and their denomination lines. It is one of the earliest Mahayana
was equivalent to 10 rupees. Sahansah was scriptures. The "Perfection of Wisdom in
the largest gold coin. These coins bore the Eight Thousand Lines" presents its
names of the Persian solar months. doctrine in the form of a dialogue between
the Buddha and one of his disciples, the
48. Ans: A arhat Subhūti. Painted at the monastery of
Nalanda in the last quarter of the eleventh
Exp:
century during the reign of Pala king,
Statement 1 is correct: A torana is a free- Ramapala, it has six pages of illustrations
standing ornamental or arched gateway for and wooden covers painted on both sides.
ceremonial purposes. The Shunga
dynasty introduced the idea of Torans.
The Torans were carved with figures and 50. Ans: A
patterns and were evidence of Hellenistic Exp:
influence.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The sculptural
Statement 2 is incorrect: Spotted red tradition in Mathura was modelled on the
sandstone was used in Mathura School lines of earlier Yaksha images whereas in
of Art. It was purely indigenous modelled
Gandhara it had Hellenistic features.
on the lines of earlier Yaksha images
found during the Mauryan period. It had Statement 2 is incorrect: Images of
influence of Hinduism, Buddhism and Vaishnava and Shaiva faiths are also
Jainism. It was patronised by Kushanas. found at Mathura but Buddhist images are
Amaravati School is purely indigenous. It found in large numbers.
encompasses religious and secular images, Statement 3 is correct: In later years
but the main theme includes the life stories
Mathura Buddha images continue to depict
of Buddha and the jatakas. White marble
folds of the drapery in the Buddha images
was used as the building material. This
and the halo around the head is profusely
school was patronised by Satavahanas.
decorated. The Buddha image at
 20

Mathura was modelled on the lines of 52. Ans: C

earlier Yaksha images. The faces are Exp:
round and smiling, heaviness in the
sculptural volume is reduced to relaxed Statement 1 is correct: During the
flesh. The garments of the body are Mahajanapadas period (500 BC), the first
clearly visible and they cover the left Indian punch-marked coins called
shoulder. Puranas, Karshapanas or Pana were
minted. During the Mauryan Period
(322–185 BC), these punch marked
51. Ans: B coins were referred to as Karshapanas.
Exp: ● Chanakya mentioned the minting of
Statement 1 is incorrect: Kalaripayattu punch-marked coins such as
belongs to the state of Kerala. This martial ‘Rupyarupa’ (silver), ‘Suvarnarupa’
art is practised in the training hall or (gold), ‘Tamrarupa’ (copper), and
gymnasium known as Kalari. According to ‘Sisarupa’ (lead) in his Arthashastra
legends, it was introduced by sage treatise.
Parasurama. It includes unarmed and ● Symbols of the sun and six-armed
armed combat with a strong emphasis on wheel were the most consistent.
footwork. Women and men practise it.
Statement 2 is correct: Satavahana
Statement 2 is correct: Thoda is a martial kings (232 BC-227 AD) primarily used
art form from Himachal Pradesh. The lead and an alloy of silver and copper
name "Thoda" is derived from the round known as "potin" as materials for minting
wooden piece attached to an arrow's head the coins. Figures like elephants, horses,
to minimise its lethal potential. It lions, or Chaitya on one side of the coin
combines martial arts, sports, and culture and the Ujjain symbol (a cross with four
to invoke the blessings of Goddesses circles at the end of the two crossing lines
Mashoo and Durga during Baisakhi. Two on the other) were used.
groups of around 500 people called Pashis
Statement 3 is incorrect and statement 4
and Saathis participate. They are believed
is correct: Sultans of Delhi issued gold,
to be descendants of the Pandavas and
silver, copper, and billon coins featuring
Kauravas.
inscriptions with the king's name, title,
Statement 3 is correct: Kuttu Varisai is mint’s name and Hijri calendar date.
the martial art of Tamil Nadu. It was first
● Iltutmish introduced Silver Tanka
mentioned in Sangam literature. It is
and Copper Jital.
empty-hand Silambam, focussing on
athleticism, footwork, stretching, yoga, ● Alauddin Khilji replaced the Khalif's
gymnastics, and breathing exercises. name with self-praising titles.
Techniques include grappling, striking, ● Muhammad bin Tughlaq
and locking. introduced bronze, copper coins and
Statement 4 is incorrect: Pari Khanda is token paper currency.
a martial art of Bihar. Its elements are ● Sher Shah Suri established weight
absorbed into the Chhau dance, which standards, rupiya (silver), and dam
relies on its steps and techniques. The (copper).
Rajputs created it using a shield (Pari) and
a Sword (Khanda).
 21

53. Ans: C 55. Ans: D

Exp: Exp:
The patent office of Government of India Statement 1 is incorrect: The LEAP
has granted a patent to Botanical Survey of AHEAD initiative is launched by
India for ‘reusable straw and its Ministry of Electronics & Information
manufacturing’. The reusable straw is Technology (MeitY) and is a joint
developed from a species of endemic collaboration of Software Technology
bamboo plant which is found in the Parks of India (STPI) and The Indus
Andamans and Nicobar Islands. The Entrepreneurs (TiE). The initiative will
support and accelerate the success of tech
bamboo species Schizostachyum
startups across India. With this initiative,
andamanicum was discovered on the
technology startups will gain entry into the
island about three decades ago and now
market, experience rapid growth and
its economic potential has received a boost diversify into new horizons. This program
with the granting of the patent for reusable is focused mainly on two things –
straw and its manufacture. The germplasm mentorship and co-investment.
of the bamboo species is only found in
Statement 2 is incorrect: This initiative
some forested areas of Andamans and will be a game-changer for tech Startups
large-scale production of the straw will be that are in the scaling stage, growth
dependent on commercial cultivation of stage, product diversification or
the species. planning expansion into new
geographical locations. They can benefit
through funding support of up to ₹ 1 Crore
54. Ans: A
and a comprehensive three-month
Exp:
mentorship program that combines virtual
The World Bank, in partnership with and in-person sessions for a well-rounded
Japan, and joined by Italy, the Republic of learning experience. Furthermore, the
Korea, Canada, and the United Kingdom, initiative will provide start-ups with access
has launched an initiative aimed at to an extensive network and personalised
addressing the dual challenges of job guidance through one-on-one mentorship
creation and climate change. The sessions with seasoned investors and
initiative, will focus on assisting emerging industry experts.
markets and developing countries in
expanding their clean-energy product 56. Ans: C
manufacturing and increasing their Exp:
involvement in the minerals industry. This
Decentralised Autonomous
presents a unique opportunity for Organisations (DAOs) represent a
emerging markets and developing groundbreaking innovation at the
countries to bolster their manufacturing intersection of blockchain technology
capabilities, stimulate employment and governance. These digital entities
growth, and foster long-term economic operate without centralised control and are
development. governed by smart contracts and the
consensus of their members, often utilising
cryptocurrencies as a means of decision-
 22

making and resource allocation. The idea ● Biosparging entails the injection of
behind DAOs is to create self-sustaining, pressurized air beneath the water table
community-driven entities governed by to elevate groundwater oxygen levels,
smart contracts on blockchain networks. thereby accelerating the biological
These smart contracts automatically breakdown of contaminants by
execute predefined rules without the need bacteria.
for intermediaries, ensuring trust through
code rather than traditional authorities.
58. Ans: C
The process for a decentralised
Exp:
autonomous organisation (DAO)
involves defining rules on the Beyond the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas
blockchain, followed by a funding phase bend sharply to the south and spread along
where tokens are issued and sold to fill the eastern boundary of India. They are
the DAO treasury. Token holders gain known as the Purvanchal or the Eastern
proportional voting rights in exchange for hills and mountains. The Purvanchal
their fiat contributions. Once funded, the comprises the Patkai hills, the Naga
DAO is prepared for deployment, utilising hills, the Manipur hills and the Mizo
the treasury for its decentralised hills.
operations. The specific steps may vary, ● Patkai hills: They are located in the
and compliance with regulations is crucial. Indo-Myanmar border falling in the
north-eastern Indian states of
57. Ans: D Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and
Upper Burma region of Myanmar.
Exp: The Pangsau Pass offers the most
Statement 1 is incorrect: Lakes are important route through the Patkai.
classified into oligotrophic (low in ● Naga hills: The Naga hills are a
nutrients), mesotrophic (moderately mountain range located in the
nutrient-rich), and eutrophic (highly northeastern Indian state of Nagaland.
nutrient-rich) categories based on their The highest point of the Naga hills is
nutrient content. The majority of lakes in Mount Saramati .
India tend to be eutrophic or mesotrophic
due to the influx of nutrients from their ● Manipur hills: The Manipur hills are a
surroundings or the introduction of organic mountain range located in the
waste. northeastern Indian state of Manipur.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Bioremediation ● Mizo hills: The Mizo hills, also known
harnesses microorganisms such as bacteria as the Lushai hills, are a mountain
and fungi to break down environmental range located in the northeastern Indian
pollutants into less harmful substances. state of Mizoram. Phawngpui, also
Genetic engineering techniques can be known as Blue Mountain, is the
employed to tailor microorganisms for highest mountain peak in the Mizo
specific bioremediation purposes. Hills.

● Bioventing involves the introduction

of nutrients into contaminated soil
through wells to promote bacterial
growth.
 23

● Hispar Glacier: It is the third largest

glacier of the Karakoram region. It
occupies a tributary of the Hunza
River.
● Biafo Glacier: It is located between
Hispar and Baltoro glaciers and
occupies the Braldoh Valley. It is the
4th largest glacier of the Karakoram
region.
● Baltoro Glacier: It is found on the
59. Ans: C Karakoram range, west of the Siachen
Exp: glacier. It gives rise to the Shigar
Pair 1 is correct: Mica, a naturally found river, a tributary of the Indus river.
non-metallic mineral comprised of The Zemu Glacier, situated at the
silicates, serves as an excellent insulator, foothills of Kangchenjunga in the
finding diverse applications in the Himalayan region of Sikkim, holds the
electrical and electronics sectors. With distinction of being the largest glacier in
its ability to endure high voltage and the Eastern Himalaya. Serving as the
minimal power loss, it's highly sought primary water source for the Teesta River,
after. Additionally, mica is utilized in it plays a crucial role in the region's
toothpaste and cosmetics. India stands out hydrology.
as a key global supplier of mica, with The Rongbuk Glacier is located in the
mica-bearing igneous formations located Himalayas of southern Tibet.
in regions such as Andhra Pradesh, Bihar,
Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan. Batura Glacier is located in the upper
Hunza Valley in the Gilgit-Baltistan
Pair 2 is correct: Quartz is one of the region.
most important components of sand and
granite. It consists of silica. It is a hard
mineral virtually insoluble in water. It is 61. Ans: A
white or colourless and used in radio and Exp:
radar.
Statement 1 is correct: Brahmaputra,
Pair 3 is correct: Aluminium, calcium, among the world's largest rivers, originates
silicon, iron, magnesium are the major from the Chemayungdung glacier near
elements of amphiboles. It is green or Mansarovar lake in the Kailash range.
black in color and is used in the asbestos Initially known as the Tsangpo, it flows
industry. Hornblende is another form of eastward for about 1,200 km in southern
amphibole. Tibet. The Rango Tsangpo is its major
right-bank tributary in Tibet.
60. Ans: B Statement 2 is correct: The river
Exp: emerges in India from the foothills
under the name of Siang or Dihang.
The Karakoram Range is a Trans- Flowing southwest, it receives its main left
Himalayan mountain that starts from the bank tributaries viz., Dibang or Sikang and
Pamir Knot. The Glaciers of the Lohit; thereafter, it is known as the
Karakoram range include Hispar, Brahmaputra.
Chogo Lungma, Batura, Biafo, Baltoro
and Siachen.
 24

Statement 3 is incorrect: Subansiri is the Ecological drought is when the

longest tributary of Brahmaputra. It joins productivity of a natural ecosystem fails
Brahmaputra in Assam. due to a shortage of water and as a
consequence of ecological distress,
damages are induced in the ecosystem.

63. Ans: C
Exp:
Jet streams are bands of strong wind that
generally blow from west to east all across
the globe. They impact weather, air travel
and many other things that take place in
our atmosphere.
62. Ans: C Statement 1 is correct: When the
Exp: temperature contrast reaches its peak, the
jet stream tends to flow along a nearly
The term ‘drought’ is applied to an extended straight trajectory. However, as the
period when there is low water availability temperature contrast diminishes, the jet
due to inadequate precipitation, excessive stream begins to adopt a winding course.
rate of evaporation and over-utilization of Therefore, the degree of meandering is
water from the reservoirs and other contingent upon the temperature
storages, including the groundwater. gradient. If a meander points towards the
Statement 1 is incorrect:. Hydrological poles, it's termed a peak or ridge, while if
drought results when the availability of it points towards the equator, it's referred
to as a trough.
water in different storages and
reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, Statement 2 is incorrect: Jet streams
reservoirs etc. falls below what the travel just beneath the Tropopause
precipitation can replenish. layer. Polar jet streams operate at altitudes
ranging from 6 to 9 kilometers above
Statement 2 is incorrect: Agricultural
ground level, while sub-tropical jet
drought, also called soil moisture
streams operate at altitudes between 10
drought, is characterised by low soil and 16 kilometers above ground level.
moisture that is necessary to support the
Statement 3 is correct: Jet streams play a
crops, thereby resulting in crop failures.
significant role in determining the weather
Moreover, if an area has more than 30 %
conditions in the lower atmosphere. The
of its gross cropped area under irrigation,
path followed by temperate cyclones or
the area is excluded from the drought-
mid-altitude weather disturbances is
prone category.
largely controlled by these upper
Meteorological drought is a situation circulations. The movement of jet streams
when there is a prolonged period of is also important in determining prolonged
inadequate rainfall marked with mal- periods of floods or droughts. Jet streams
distribution of the same over time and also affect the regularity of monsoonal
space. winds.
 25

monsoonal climate. It is thus also called

the Temperate Monsoon Type of climate.

64. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: A subsequent
river is created when headward erosion Statement 2 is correct: The China-type
occurs along underlying rock after the climate, as experienced in most parts of
primary drainage pattern (known as a
China, exhibits more rainfall than the
consequent river) has been established.
Mediterranean climate in the same
Within the Ganga river basin, rivers such
latitudes, with the precipitation mainly
as the Chambal, Sind, Ken, Betwa, Tons,
occurring during the summer.
and Son intersect the Yamuna and Ganga
rivers perpendicularly, showcasing During summers, the monsoon here does
subsequent drainage patterns. not "burst" or "pour" as strongly as it does
Statement 2 is correct: Consequent in India while in winters, there is little
rivers are those that flow in alignment rainfall in the region. Typhoon frequency
with the general slope of the land. The is another aspect of the climate in southern
majority of rivers in peninsular India are China that is linked to the China type of
consequent rivers. For instance, the climate.
Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery rivers,
originating from the Western Ghats and
streaming into the Bay of Bengal, 66. Ans: C
exemplify some of the consequent rivers Exp:
of Peninsular India.
Statement 3 is correct: Superimposed Statement 1 is correct: Mangroves
drainage occurs when a river, flowing thrive in tropical and subtropical areas,
over a softer rock layer, encounters harder primarily inhabiting intertidal zones
basal rocks but maintains its original spanning latitudes between 24° N and
course, seemingly unaffected by the 38° S. Their presence is facilitated by a
underlying harder stratum. The Damodar, sophisticated salt filtration system inherent
Subarnarekha, Chambal, Banas etc. are in mangrove vegetation, allowing them to
notable examples of superimposed efficiently manage water loss at the root
drainage. level and adapt to brackish environments.
These adaptive processes require
65. Ans: B substantial energy and are dependent on
Exp: sufficient exposure to solar radiation.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The China
Statement 2 is correct: The Sundarbans
Type Climate is found on the eastern
in West Bengal stands as the largest
margins of continents in warm
temperate latitudes, just outside the mangrove forest area globally and holds
tropics. It is a modified form of the designation of a UNESCO World
Heritage Site. Within this forest, one can
find habitats for the Royal Bengal tiger,
 26

Gangetic dolphins, and Estuarine from 45 to 55 meters below the sea

crocodiles. surface.
Statement 3 is incorrect: West Bengal ● Optimal growth conditions include
holds 42.45% of India's mangrove cover, clear saltwater, as freshwater and
with Gujarat following at 23.66%, and highly saline environments are
the Andaman and Nicobar Islands at detrimental. Hence, Statement 2 is
12.39%. correct.
Bhitarkanika in Odisha ranks as the second ● Adequate oxygen and plankton
largest mangrove forest in India in terms supply are crucial for their growth,
of area. with corals typically proliferating on
Statement 4 is correct: The "Mangroves the seaward side due to the abundance
for the Future (MFF)" initiative, of plankton in those areas.
developed by IUCN and UNDP, is a ● Corals are exceptionally delicate and
distinctive effort aimed at fostering susceptible to pollution and climate
investment in the conservation of coastal change. Even slight increases in
ecosystems. Member nations of this marine pollution pose significant
initiative comprise Bangladesh, risks, making the presence of little to
Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Maldives, no pollution essential for their
Myanmar, Pakistan, Seychelles, Sri survival.
Lanka, Thailand, and Vietnam. ● The coral reefs are more diverse than
tropical rainforests because coral
67. Ans: D reefs have more than 1,000,000
species. Hence, Statement 3 is
Exp: Coral reefs consist of calcareous
correct.
skeletons formed by numerous small
marine organisms known as coral polyps.
Ideal conditions for coral growth: 68. Ans: C

● Corals are particularly sensitive to Exp:

rapid environmental changes, Asian Ambrosia beetle (Xylosandrus
thriving best in regions with stable crassiusculus) is a commonly found
climates over prolonged periods, variety of ambrosia beetles in Kerala. It
notably in equatorial oceans with belongs to the wood-boring insect families
warm currents. Scolytinae and Platypodinae. This species
● They flourish in perpetually warm is spread across eastern Africa, India, Sri
tropical waters between latitudes Lanka, China, Japan and Southeast Asia.
30°N and 30°S, where temperature However, recent trends have shown the
fluctuations are minimal, typically beetle has spread to other parts, adapting
around 20°C. Their absence on the to a wide range of climate zones including
western coasts of tropical continents tropical, subtropical and temperate areas.
is attributed to cold ocean currents. Statement 1 is correct: Ambrosia beetle
Hence, Statement 1 is correct. species largely prefer deceased trees to
● Preferring shallow depths, corals establish intricate galleries and cultivate
require ample sunlight for survival, ambrosia fungi that act as a vital food
typically thriving at depths ranging source for their larvae.
 27

Statement 2 is correct: The beetle is ● The Act stipulates that the Central
known to bore fuel pipes that lead to fuel government is responsible for
leaks causing automobile fire. The appointing:
species is also feared to become pests to ○ Management Authority: This
natural rubber trees, a vital cash crop in the authority is tasked with issuing
State of Kerala. export or import permits for the
trade of specimens.
69. Ans: B ○ Scientific Authority: This
authority offers guidance on
Exp:
matters pertaining to the impact
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Act, on the survival of the specimens
both Central and state governments being traded.
have the authority to designate areas ● The Central government has the
neighbouring national parks and authority to control or forbid the
sanctuaries as conservation reserves importation, trade, possession, or
aimed at safeguarding flora, fauna, and spread of invasive alien species.
their habitats.
● The Act assigns the responsibility of
Statement 2 is incorrect: Amendment to overseeing, managing, and preserving
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, has all sanctuaries within a state to the
reduced the total number of schedules Chief Wildlife Warden, who is
from six to four. appointed by the respective State
government.
Schedule I pertains to animal species
receiving the utmost level of protection.
Schedule II encompasses animal species 70. Ans: C
with a reduced level of protection. Exp:
Schedule III pertains to protected plant Statement 1 is incorrect: Coastal
species. Regulation Zone-I encompasses
ecologically sensitive areas and the zone
Schedule IV pertains to specimens listed
between the High Tide Line (HTL) and
under CITES.
Low Tide Line (LTL). Within this zone,
The schedule for vermin species has been new construction is generally
removed. prohibited, except for specific essential
activities such as support services for
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act allows
Atomic Energy Plants and Defense
individuals to voluntarily relinquish any
needs, facilities needed for the disposal
captive animals or animal products to the
of treated effluents, and other port-
Chief Wildlife Warden. No compensation
related waterfront activities.
will be provided to the individual for
surrendering such items. Upon Statement 2 is incorrect: In 2019, the
surrender, these items will become the Government of India introduced new CRZ
property of the state government. Rules with the aim of promoting
sustainable development, which includes
Additional Information encouraging tourism in coastal regions,
Other provisions of Wildlife (Protection) while also emphasizing the conservation
Amendment Act, 2022 of coastal environments. The revised rules
establish two distinct categories for
CRZ-III (Rural) areas:
 28

○ CRZ-IIIA
CRZ-IIIA: In densely populated rural ○ CRZ-IIIB
regions categorized as CRZ-IIIA with a ● CRZ-IV: Activities affecting sea and
population density of 2,161 per square tidal-influenced water bodies will be
kilometre according to the 2011 Census, regulated, with the exception of
the no-development zone has been traditional fishing and associated
reduced to 50 meters from the high-tide activities carried out by local
level, compared to the previous communities. Discharge of untreated
stipulation of 200 meters. sewage, effluents, and pollution from
oil drilling is strictly prohibited.
CRZ-IIIB: Areas falling under the CRZ-
IIIB classification (rural areas with a ● The new Rules establish a 20-meter
population density below 2,161 per square no-development zone for all islands
kilometer) will maintain a no-development near the mainland coast and for all
zone extending up to 200 meters from the backwater islands on the mainland.
high-tide line.
Statement 3 is correct: Projects situated 71. Ans: B
within CRZ-I (Ecologically Sensitive Exp:
Areas) and CRZ IV (areas extending from
Pair 1 is incorrect: The Malabar Large-
the Low Tide Line to 12 Nautical Miles Spotted Civet, also known as the Malabar
seaward) will be handled for CRZ Civet, is a medium-sized carnivorous
clearance by the Ministry of Environment, mammal resembling a cat.
Forests, and Climate Change (MoEF).
● Range: Exclusive to the southern
Clearances for CRZ-II and III projects
regions of the Western Ghats.
have been delegated to the state level.
● Habitat: Found in lowland forests
Additional Information
and swamps within coastal plains.
Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Rules
● Threats: Facing habitat loss
2011 primarily due to agricultural
● CRZ I: expansion and plantation activities.
● CRZ II: The area developed up to or ● Conservation status: Classified as
near the shoreline, including Critically Endangered by the IUCN,
designated urban areas that are largely listed under Appendix III of CITES,
built up. Construction is allowed only and categorized under Schedule I of
on the inland side of existing the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA).
authorized structures. Pair 2 is incorrect: The Sangai, also
● CRZ III: These are the areas that known as the Brow-antlered deer or
remain relatively untouched and do not Dancing deer, is a subspecies of Eld’s deer
found in South and Southeast Asia.
fall under either CRZ-I or CRZ-II,
Endemic to Manipur, it holds the
comprising primarily rural regions and
distinction of being the state animal.
areas within designated urban zones
that are not extensively developed. The ● Distribution: Exclusively located
revised rules of 2019 establish two within Keibul Lamjao National Park,
distinct categories for CRZ-III where it resides on the floating biomass
(Rural) areas: known locally as phumdi in the Logtak
Lake.
 29

● Threats: Facing challenges from 72. Ans: C

habitat loss and hunting pressures.
Exp:
● Conservation status: Classified as
Statement 1 is incorrect: Global warming
Endangered by the IUCN, listed
potential (GWP) represents the heat
under Appendix I of CITES, and
categorized under Schedule I of the absorbed by any greenhouse gas in the
Wildlife Protection Act (WPA). atmosphere, expressed as a multiple of the
heat absorbed by the same mass of CO2.
Pair 3 is correct: The Nilgiri Tahr,
Nitrous Oxide is a greenhouse gas with
locally known as Varaiaadu, serves as the
state animal of Tamil Nadu. It stands as the GWP of around 300 times more than
sole mountain ungulate ( a herbivorous that of Carbon Dioxide. Nitrous oxide is
hoofed mammal) in southern India among released into the atmosphere through
the 12 species found in the country. burning of fossil fuels, wood and crop
Distribution: Endemic to the Nilgiri Hills, residue; fertilisers.
it is confined to the Western Ghats in Statement 2 is correct: Tropospheric
Kerala and Tamil Nadu. The largest Ozone serves as a significant greenhouse
population is found in Eravikulam gas, although it exists in minimal
National Park in the Anamalai hills of
quantities at ground level. The majority
Kerala.
is found in the stratosphere, where it acts
Habitat: Occupying tropical montane as a shield against harmful ultraviolet
grasslands, shola forests, and rocky areas (UV) radiation. At the Earth's surface,
at high elevations.
pollutants including Carbon Monoxide
Threats: Facing challenges primarily (CO), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), and
from acacia and eucalyptus plantations. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC),
Conservation status: Classified as undergo a photochemical reaction in the
Endangered by the IUCN and categorized presence of sunlight, leading to the
under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection formation of tropospheric ozone (O3) from
Act (WPA). oxygen (O2).
Pair 4 is correct: The Clouded Leopard, Statement 3 is correct: Water vapor is
holds the status of the state animal of
highly variable in the atmosphere,
Meghalaya. Dampa Tiger Reserve in
comprising between 0.02% and 4% of the
Mizoram boasts the highest population
density of clouded leopards. total volume, depending on the climate
conditions, ranging from cold to dry to
Distribution: Spread across Bangladesh,
humid tropical climates. It absorbs both
Bhutan, China, India, Nepal, and
long-wave terrestrial radiation
Southeast Asia. In India, its range extends
up to Valmiki Tiger Reserve in Bihar. (infrared radiation or heat emitted by
the Earth at night) and a portion of
Conservation status: Classified as
incoming short-wave solar radiation
Vulnerable by the IUCN, listed under
(visible and ultraviolet radiation).
Appendix I of CITES, and categorized
under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection
Act (WPA).
 30

73. Ans: B stakeholders to help data-driven policy

Exp: making. The Amplifi 2.0 (Assessment and
Monitoring Platform for Liveable,
118 countries signed a renewable energy Inclusive and Future-ready urban India)
pledge at the ongoing COP28 climate portal was launched by the Ministry for
summit to triple the world’s green energy this purpose.
capacity to 11,000 GW by 2030, thereby,
reducing the reliance on fossil fuels in The website provides data on a range of
generating energy. information for several cities, including,
the total diesel consumption; the
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Global number of samples tested for water
Renewables and Energy Efficiency quality; the average annual expenditure
Pledge was spearheaded by the European on healthcare; the total number of
Union, the United States and the United people residing in slums; the fatalities
Arab Emirates and supported by Brazil, recorded due to road accidents. The
Nigeria, Australia, Japan, Canada, Chile initiative also provides the opportunity to
and Barbados. According to the pledge, create new frameworks brd on open data.
the tripling of renewable energy is The 14 sectors are — demography,
expected to practically eliminate fossil economy, education, energy, environment,
fuels as energy sources by 2050. The finance, governance, health, housing,
pledge is neither legally binding nor a mobility, planning, safety and security,
part of the official COP28 calendar. solid waste management, and water and
India and China have stayed away as the sanitation.
initiative calls for phasing down of coal
and “ending the continued investment in
unabated new coal-fired power plants. 75. Ans: A
Statement 2 is correct: The Global Exp:
Renewables and Energy Efficiency Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Sada
Pledge is a commitment by signatories Tanseeq is the name of the first joint
to triple the world’s installed renewable military exercise between the Indian
energy capacity and to double the Army and the Royal Saudi Land Force.
annual rate of energy efficiency The aim of the Exercise is to train troops
improvements by 2030. If implemented, of both sides for Joint Operations in Semi
it could potentially close one-third of the Desert terrain under Chapter VII of the
‘mitigation gap’ — the difference between United Nations Charter. The Exercise will
the world’s emissions pathway, based on enable both the sides to share their best
current climate ambitions, and what is practices in the tactics, techniques and
required to prevent crossing the 1.5 C procedures of conducting operations in
threshold outlined in the Paris Agreement. sub-conventional domains. It will facilitate
developing interoperability, bonhomie and
74. Ans: C camaraderie between troops from both
sides.
Exp:
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Khanjar
The Union Ministry of Housing and is an annual joint military exercise
Urban Affairs is making raw data from between India and Kyrgyzstan that
Indian cities available on a single platform focuses on counterterrorism and special
for academics, researchers, and forces operations in mountainous areas
 31

and high altitudes. The exercise aims to measures to prevent and suppress
exchange experiences and best practices in transnational crimes in the region. It would
Counter Terrorism and Special Forces further enhance the operational synergy by
Operations in Built-up Area and exchange of information and conduct of
Mountainous Terrain under Chapter VII of coordinated operations to handle maritime
United Nations Charter. The exercise will incidents/ accidents.
emphasise on developing Special Forces
skills, advanced techniques of insertion
77. Ans: C
and extraction.
Exp:
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Ex-
Ayutthaya is the name of the first Statement 1 is correct: A Wholesale
bilateral maritime exercise between the Price Index (WPI) measures change in the
Indian Navy and the Royal Thai Navy. overall price of goods before they are sold
The Indo-Thai Bilateral Exercise is being at retail. In the case of India, services are
named as ‘Ex-Ayutthaya’, which literally excluded from the wholesale price index
translates to ‘The Invincible One’ or (WPI).
‘Undefeatable’, and symbolises the Statement 2 is incorrect: The GDP
significance of two of the oldest cities deflator represents the ratio of the GDP
Ayodhya in India and Ayutthaya in at current prices to that of constant
Thailand, the historic legacies, rich prices, indicating the increase in GDP
cultural ties and shared historical value due to inflation between the base
narratives dating back to several centuries. year (i.e., the year of constant prices) and
the current year. It encompasses the
76. Ans: B entire spectrum of goods and services
produced in the economy, it is
Exp: considered a more comprehensive
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Colombo measure of inflation than the Consumer
Security Conclave (CSC) was Price Index.
established in 2020 when India, Sri Statement 3 is incorrect: The Consumer
Lanka and Maldives agreed to expand Price Index measures the overall change in
the scope and membership of their consumer prices based on a representative
Trilateral Meeting on Maritime basket of goods and services over time.
Cooperation. Mauritius joined the The Consumer Price Index for
conclave at the 5th NSA-level meeting of Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) comprises
the Conclave in 2022 held in Male, a basket of 260 items (including services)
Maldives. with the base year set as 2001. Primarily,
Statement 2 is correct: CSC Focused this index pertains to government
Operation’ is being conducted with an employees excluding personnel from
aim of keeping this vital part of the banks and embassies. The wages or
Indian Ocean Region safe and secure salaries of central government employees
for commercial shipping, international are adjusted based on fluctuations in this
trade and conduct of legitimate maritime index, with dearness allowance (DA)
activities. The Focused Operation would revisions announced biannually. During
help to build understanding and pay revision recommendations by the
interoperability between the lead maritime Pay Commission, the CPI (IW) serves as
security agencies, and facilitate institution of the benchmark.
 32

78. Ans: C 79. Ans: A

Exp: Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Foreign portfolio Least Developed Countries (LDCs) are
investment (FPI) consists of securities and nations with limited income and facing
other financial assets held by investors in significant obstacles to achieving
another country. It does not provide the sustainable development. They are entitled
investor with direct ownership of a to specific international assistance,
company's assets and is relatively liquid, particularly in the realms of development
depending on the volatility of the market. aid and trade.
SEBI introduced several regulatory Statement 1 is incorrect: The Committee
amendments aimed at fostering safer and for Development Policy (CDP), as
increased foreign portfolio investment in mandated by both the General Assembly
the country during 2018–19. These (GA) and the Economic and Social
changes included: Council (ECOSOC), conducts triennial
● Relaxation of the KYC (Know-Your- reviews of the LDC list. The
Client) requirement. recommendations are not exclusively
● Authorization for foreign entities to based on the criteria scores,
engage in commodity derivatives. complementary country-specific
information and the views of the
● Approval for NRIs to invest through government are also taken into account.
the FPI route.
Statement 2 is correct: Recommendations
● Reduction of the timeline for public regarding the inclusion or graduation of
issue of debt securities to 6 days eligible nations are based on the following
(from 12 days). criteria:
● Authorization for FPIs to invest up to ● Gross National Income (GNI) per
25% in Category III Alternative capita averaging below USD 1,230
Investment Funds (AIF). over three years.
● Approval for FPIs to invest in Real ● Human Assets: This assesses the
Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) level of human capital.
and Infrastructure Investment
Trusts (InvITs). ● Economic and Environmental
Vulnerability (EVI): The EVI
Statement 2 is correct: In the Indian evaluates structural susceptibility to
context, a Participatory Note (PN or P- economic and environmental shocks.
Note) essentially serves as a derivative
instrument issued in foreign jurisdictions Additional Information
by a SEBI-registered Foreign Institutional Criteria to graduate from the list of
Investor (FII). These notes are backed by LDCs
Indian securities, which could ● A nation must have a GNI per capita
encompass equity, debt, derivatives, or of at least USD 1,242 for two
even an index. PNs are alternatively consecutive triennial reviews, which
referred to as Overseas Derivative shows that this level of income can be
Instruments, Equity Linked Notes, Capped sustained over the long term.
Return Notes, and Participating Return
Notes, among other names.
 33

● By using measures like education, account are invested in securities issued by

health, and nutrition, a nation must both central and state governments. The
show that it has improved its human management of the fund falls under the
capital by expanding literacy rates, purview of the Department of Economic
lowering malnutrition rates, and Affairs, Ministry of Finance, Government
enhancing access to healthcare and of India.
education. Statement 3 is correct: States get money
● A nation must also show an improved from the National Small Savings Fund as a
ability to withstand external economic loan. The Centre also takes money from
shocks like natural catastrophes or this fund to reduce its dependence on
shifts in commodity prices in order to market borrowings. Borrowings from the
pass the economic vulnerability test. National Small Savings Fund are repaid
using the Consolidated Fund of India
funds.
80. Ans: B
Exp: These savings instruments are
designed to incentivize individuals to save 81. Ans: B
consistently, regardless of their age. They Exp:
offer returns typically surpassing those of Statement 1 is correct: Certificate of
bank fixed deposits. These instruments can Deposits (CDs) are negotiable and
be categorized into three groups: tradable in the money market.
● Postal deposits, which include Established in 1989, they utilized by
savings accounts, recurring deposits, banks and issued to depositors for
time deposits with different maturity durations typically less than one year.
periods, and the monthly income Since 1993, the Reserve Bank of India
scheme (MIS). (RBI) permitted financial institutions like
● Savings certificates include the IFCI, IDBI, IRBI (later known as IIBI
National Small Savings Certificate since 1997), and the Exim Bank to engage
VIII (NSC) and Kisan Vikas Patra in CD operations. These institutions are
(KVP). authorized to issue CDs with maturity
periods extending beyond one year and
● Social security schemes, including up to three years.
the Public Provident Fund (PPF) and
the Senior Citizens' Savings Scheme Statement 2 is incorrect: Commercial
(SCSS). bills are issued by a range of financial
entities including All India Financial
Statement 1 is correct: The initiation of Institutions (AIFIs), Non-Banking
small saving instruments is carried out by Finance Companies (NBFCs), Scheduled
the central government, while their Commercial Banks, Merchant Banks,
mobilization is overseen by the state Co-operative Banks, and Mutual Funds.
government. The central government
Commercial paper is utilized by
both deposits and manages these
corporate entities in India, which must
instruments.
be listed companies with a minimum
Statement 2 is incorrect: All deposits working capital of ₹5 crore. These
collected through different small savings companies that issue commercial papers
schemes are consolidated within the are required to obtain a designated credit
National Small Savings Fund. Funds in the rating from an agency approved by the
 34

RBI, such as CRISIL, ICRA, etc. With the raised through issuance of units via
objective of expanding investor follow-on offer, preferential issue,
involvement, in October 2019, SEBI institutional placement and rights issue
permitted the listing of commercial papers. of units. REITs can also raise debt
Statement 3 is correct: Cash capital through issuance of debt
Management Bills (CMBs) are non- securities. REITs are required to list the
standardized instruments issued at a debt securities issued by them on
discount for maturities shorter than 91 recognised stock exchanges.
days. These bills possess characteristics Statement 3 is incorrect: Angel investors
similar to Treasury Bills, being issued at a are allowed to invest in companies that
discount to their face value, being tradable, are not older than 3 years, according to
and being eligible for the ready forward SEBI regulations. They are required to
facility. Banks consider investment in invest in startups at an early stage, and the
CMBs as an acceptable form of
funds need to be invested in a firm for at
investment in government securities for
least three years, supporting small and
statutory liquidity ratio (SLR)
young enterprises.
compliance.
Statement 4 is incorrect: While existing
Treasury Bills fulfill a similar purpose as 83. Ans: A
that of CMBs, they were placed under the Exp:
provisions of Ways & Means Advances
(WMAs) by the Government of India in Statement 1 is correct: Reverse Charge
1997. Consequently, they no longer means the liability to pay tax is on the
provide a discretionary avenue for the recipient of supply of goods or services
government to access funds as needed in instead of the supplier of such goods or
the short term. In contrast, Cash services in respect of notified categories of
Management Bills (CMBs) do not fall supply.
under similar WMAs provisions. A supplier cannot take an Input Tax Credit
of GST paid on goods or services used to
82. Ans: D make supplies on which the recipient is
Exp: liable to pay tax.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Alternative Statement 2 is incorrect: Supplies of
Investment Funds (AIFs) are not goods under the reverse charge mechanism
primarily focused on investments in
include Cashew nuts (not shelled or
publicly traded securities like stocks
peeled), Bidi wrapper leaves (tendu),
and bonds. They are a newly created class
Tobacco leaves, Raw cotton, Supply of
of pooled-in investment vehicles for real
lottery, etc.
estate, private equity, and hedge funds, and
their investments can encompass a wide
range of alternative assets, including those 84. Ans: A
that are not publicly traded.
Exp:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Real Estate
Investment Trusts (REITs) can raise unit Statement 1 is correct: The Market
capital from investors through issuance of Intervention Scheme (MIS), akin to
units via initial offer. Such units are Minimum Support Price (MSP), is
required to be listed on recognised stock initiated at the request of state
exchanges. Further unit capital can be governments to procure perishable and
 35

horticultural commodities during price

declines. It is activated when there is either Statement 2 is incorrect: PACE will
a 10% increase in production or a 10% help us better understand our ocean and
decrease in prevailing rates compared to atmosphere by measuring key variables
the previous normal year. MIS proposals associated with cloud formation,
are approved upon specific requests particles and pollutants in the air, and
from state/UT governments, with microscopic, floating marine life
states/UTs agreeing to bear 50% of the (phytoplankton). These observations will
losses (25% for North-Eastern states) help us better monitor ocean health, air
incurred during implementation. quality, and climate change.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central NASA is collaborating with India on
Pool comprises stocks held by the Food another advanced Earth-observing satellite
Corporation of India (FCI), stocks from due to launch this year. Named Nisar, it
the Decentralised Procurement Scheme will use radar to measure the effect of
operated by participating states, and rising temperatures on glaciers and other
stocks from state government agencies melting icy surfaces.
(SGAs).
Statement 3 is incorrect: In late March 86. Ans: D
2015, the Government of India initiated Exp:
the Price Stabilisation Fund (PSF) as a The European Union formally launched
Central Sector Scheme to aid market a bespoke naval mission to protect
interventions for regulating prices of commercial vessels in the Red Sea from
perishable agricultural and horticultural attacks by Iran-backed Houthi rebels.
commodities. The expenses will be
Mission ‘Aspides’ will aim to preserve
shared equally between the center and
freedom of navigation in the Red Sea
the states, except for the North Eastern
and the Gulf of Aden, a region plagued
states, where the respective shares will
with instability since Houthi rebels began
be in a ratio of 75:25. targeting vessels navigating the waterway
with a barrage of drone and rocket attacks.
85. Ans: D Dubbed ‘Aspides’, a Greek term for
“shield,” the mission will be run out of
Exp:
Larissa in central Greece — home to the
Statement 1 is incorrect: Pace (Plankton, Hellenic Air Force and a NATO
Aerosol, Cloud, Ocean Ecosystem) is the headquarters — under the command of
most advanced mission ever launched to Greek Commodore Vasilios Griparis.
study ocean biology. It is launched by Apsides has an exclusively "protective"
NASA and will help better understand mandate and will "only act when there is a
how climate change is affecting blooms threat, with minimum force." The mission
of ocean phytoplankton. The mission will have at least four frigates and will be
will also help decipher how particles in the fully operational in a "few weeks’ time."
air (like dust and smoke) can influence
cloud formation and the warming and
cooling of the planet.
 36

87. Ans: B locations across the country. This

Exp: recommendation was aimed at ensuring
nationwide interoperability and ease of
The Maldives government has decided to travel for individuals using public transit.
not renew an agreement with India that
allowed India to conduct hydrographic Statement 3 is incorrect: The NCMC is
surveys in Maldivian waters. an open-loop card, not a closed-loop
card. This means it can be used for a wide
The hydrographic survey agreement was range of payments beyond just transit
signed between India and Maldives in payments, such as tolls, parking, and retail
2019. The agreement allows India to purchases. The card's open-loop system is
perform a thorough investigation of the designed to work across different cities
island nation's territorial waters, and transit systems, promoting
including reefs, lagoons, coastlines, interoperability and convenience for users.
ocean currents, and tidal levels.
Hydrographic surveys are carried out by
89. Ans: C
ships, which use methods such as sonar to
understand the various features of a water Exp:
body. According to the US National Blood is a special connective tissue
Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma, and
(NOAA), these surveys help “map out formed elements.
water depth, the shape of the seafloor and
Statement 1 is correct: Erythrocytes or
coastline, the location of possible
red blood cells (RBC) are the most
obstructions, and physical features of
abundant of all the cells in blood. RBCs
water bodies”, to ensure the efficiency and
are formed in the red bone marrow in the
safety of maritime transportation.
adults. RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most
of the mammals and are biconcave in
88. Ans: A shape. They have a red coloured, iron
Exp: containing complex protein called
haemoglobin. These molecules play a
Statement 1 is correct: The National significant role in transport of respiratory
Common Mobility Card (NCMC) was gases. RBCs have an average life span of
launched in India with the tagline of ‘One 120 days after which they are destroyed
Nation One Card’ on March 04, 2019. The in the spleen (graveyard of RBCs).
National Common Mobility Card
(NCMC) does indeed function as both a Statement 2 is correct: Platelets also
regular debit card and a local wallet for called thrombocytes, are cell fragments
contactless payments. This dual produced from megakaryocytes (special
functionality allows the NCMC card to be cells in the bone marrow). Blood normally
used for a variety of transactions, contains 1,500,00-3,500,00 platelets mm–
including ATM withdrawals and 3. Platelets can release a variety of
contactless payments for transit services. substances most of which are involved in
the coagulation or clotting of blood. A
Statement 2 is correct: The High-level reduction in their number can lead to
Committee on Deepening of Digital clotting disorders which will lead to
Payments, chaired by Shri Nandan excessive loss of blood from the body.
Nilekani, recommended that NCMC
cards should be usable at all transit
 37

90. Ans: A 91. Ans: A

Exp: Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Myopia is also Pair 1 is correct: Acetic acid is a key
known as near - sightedness. A person component found in vinegar. Vinegar is
with myopia can see nearby objects clearly a liquid that is typically made through the
but cannot see distant objects distinctly. fermentation process, where ethanol
Such a person may see clearly upto a (alcohol) is converted into acetic acid by
distance of a few metres. In a myopic eye, acetic acid bacteria. This acetic acid gives
the image of a distant object is formed vinegar its characteristic sour taste and
in front of the retina and not at the retina
acidic properties.
itself. This defect may arise due to
excessive curvature of the eye lens, or Pair 2 is incorrect: Formic acid is
elongation of the eyeball. This defect can responsible for the burning sensation
be corrected by using a concave lens of and discomfort associated with ant
suitable power. stings. When certain species of ants, such
Statement 2 is correct: The human eye as fire ants, bite or sting, they inject a
functions similar to a camera, with a lens mixture of venom into their target. This
system that projects images onto the retina, venom can contain various compounds,
a light-sensitive screen. Light enters including formic acid.
through the cornea, a transparent Pair 3 is incorrect: Lactic acid is
membrane covering the front of the responsible for the tangy or sour taste in
eyeball. The eyeball is roughly spherical, yoghurt. It is produced during the
about 2.3 cm in diameter, and most fermentation process when certain types of
refraction occurs at the cornea's outer bacteria, primarily Lactobacillus, convert
surface. The iris, behind the cornea, lactose, a sugar found in milk, into lactic
controls the size of the pupil which
acid.
regulates the amount of light entering the
eye. The lens fine-tunes focal length for Pair 4 is incorrect: Oxalic acid is a
focusing objects onto the retina. Images natural organic compound that can be
formed on the retina are inverted and found in varying amounts in a wide range
real. The retina contains numerous light- of plants, including spinach, rhubarb,
sensitive cells that generate electrical beet greens, and Swiss chard, as well as
signals upon illumination. These signals in certain nuts and seeds like almonds
are transmitted via optic nerves to the and cashews.
brain, where they are interpreted, allowing
us to perceive objects. Name of the Acid Found In
Statement 3 is correct: The minimum
distance, at which objects can be seen most Acetic Acid Vinegar
distinctly without strain, is called the least
distance of distinct vision. It is also called
Formic Acid Ant’s Sting
the near point of the eye. For a young adult
with normal vision, the near point is
about 25 cm. The farthest point upto Citric Acid Citrus Fruits such
which the eye can see objects clearly is as oranges, lemons etc.
called the far point of the eye. It is
infinity for a normal eye.
 38

Statement 2 is correct: A recent study

Lactic Acid Curd found that erythritol increases platelet
activation and promotes clot formation.
Oxalic Acid Spinach Platelets are blood cells responsible for
clotting when they aggregate. This
Ascorbic Acid Amla, Citrus Fruits clustering of platelets obstructs blood flow
in various parts of the body's blood
[Vitamin C]
vessels, heightening the risk of heart
attacks and strokes.
Tartaric Acid Tamarind, Grapes
, Mangoes (Unripe) 93. Ans: A
Exp:
Name of the Base Found In
Option A is correct: Guillain-Barré
syndrome (GBS) is a rare condition in
Calcium Hydroxide Lime Water
which a person’s immune system attacks
the peripheral nerves. This could be a
Ammonium Window Cleaner bacterial or viral infection. In rare
Hydroxide instances, vaccinations may increase the
risk of people getting GBS, but the chance
Sodium Hydroxide/ Soap of this occurring is extremely low.
Potassium Occasionally, surgery can trigger GBS.
Hydroxide People of all ages can be affected, but it is
more common in adults and in males. Most
people recover fully from even the most
Magnesium Milk of Magnesia
severe cases of Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Hydroxide
Severe cases of Guillain-Barré
Table: Some Acid, Bases and their syndrome are rare but can result in near-
Occurence. total paralysis and problems breathing.
Guillain-Barré syndrome is potentially
life-threatening.
92. Ans: B
Option B is incorrect: Turner
Exp: syndrome, a condition that affects only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Erythritol is a females, results when one of the X
type of sugar alcohol which is frequently chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is
employed as a sugar substitute in foods missing or partially missing. Turner
and drinks. Unlike conventional sugars, it syndrome can cause a variety of medical
contains no calories and does not elevate and developmental problems, including
blood sugar levels. Additionally, it is short height, failure of the ovaries to
thought to have a lower glycemic index develop and heart defects.
(GI) compared to other sweeteners, Option C is incorrect: Ebola virus
potentially resulting in less impact on disease (formerly known as Ebola
insulin levels. The glycemic index (GI) is haemorrhagic fever) is rare but often fatal.
a measure used to assess the extent to Ebola enters the body through cuts in the
which certain foods raise blood sugar skin or when touching one’s eyes, nose or
levels.
 39

mouth. Ebola is introduced into the human 95. Ans: D

population through close contact with the Exp:
blood, secretions, organs or other bodily
Statement 1 is incorrect: Nuclear
fluids of infected animals such as fruit
facilities fall under the oversight of the
bats, chimpanzees, gorillas, monkeys,
International Atomic Energy Agency
forest antelope or porcupines found ill or
(IAEA) if the uranium source, the fissile
dead or in the rainforest. Early symptoms
material for nuclear reactors, originates
include fever, fatigue and headache. Some from outside India's territory or if new
types of Ebola can be prevented with reactor plants are established through
vaccines and treated with medicines. foreign collaboration. Presently, there
Option D is incorrect: In Graves' disease are 22 operational reactors, with 14 of
the immune system produces antibodies them under IAEA safeguards due to
that stimulate the thyroid gland to release their use of imported fuel. Under the
excess amounts of thyroid hormone into safeguards agreement, the IAEA possesses
the blood (hyperthyroidism). Symptoms of both the right and obligation to ensure the
Graves' disease can include bulging eyes application of safeguards on all nuclear
as well as weight loss, nervousness, material within the State's territory,
jurisdiction, or control, exclusively for the
irritability, rapid heart rate, weakness, and
designated purpose.
brittle hair. Destruction or removal of the
thyroid gland, using medicines or surgery, Statement 2 is incorrect: The renowned
is usually required to treat Graves' disease. physicist Homi Bhabha formulated India's
Learn more about treatments for Graves' three-stage nuclear power program in the
disease. 1950s. The program consists of:
Stage I: Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors
(PHWRs) fueled by natural uranium.
94. Ans: C
Stage II: Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs)
Exp: utilizing plutonium-based fuel.
Every year from September-November, Stage III: Advanced nuclear power
the Earth passes through a broad stream of systems designed for the utilization of
debris left by Comet Encke. The dust thorium.
associated with the comet hits the
Earth’s atmosphere at 65,000 mph and
burns up, creating the Taurid meteor 96. Ans: B
shower. Most of the years, the shower is Exp:
weak, and only a few Taurid meteors can Moon's dark regions, visible to the naked
be seen each night. eye is known as the 'mare'. The large mare
The Geminids, named after the regions on the near side of the Moon that
constellation Gemini from which they we always see from Earth, mainly consists
appear to radiate, stand out in the meteor of basalts which are volcanic rocks. These
shower calendar. Unlike most meteor regions hold the key to how the Moon
showers caused by comet debris, the cooled and evolved and what were the
sources of heat that melted and crystallized
Geminids originate from an asteroid,
the material to the present day rocks. The
giving them a unique rocky composition
Apollo, Luna, and Chang’E-5 missions
that often results in bright, bold meteors
have brought to Earth an extensive
with a distinctive greenish hue. Hence,
collection of mare basalts.
Option C is correct.
 40

Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 98. Ans: A

is correct: Apollo Mare basalts are Exp:
abundant in potassium, rare earth
elements, and phosphorus, collectively Statement 1 is correct:The Members of
referred to as the Procellarum KREEP Parliament Local Area Development
Terrane (PKT). KREEP stands for a Scheme (MPLADS) is a Plan Scheme
location containing deposits of potassium fully funded by the Government of
(K), rare earth elements (REE), and India. It was introduced in December
phosphorus (P). 1993. Works which can be done under the
MPLADs scheme includes:
Statement 3 is correct: These are rich in
radioactive elements that provide the ○ Lok Sabha Members can recommend
heat to melt rocks resulting in KREEP works within their Constituencies
rich basalts. ○ Elected Members of Rajya Sabha can
recommend works within the State of
Election.
97. Ans: C
○ Nominated Members of both the
Exp:
Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can
Statement 1 is incorrect: The recommend works anywhere in the
Department of Biotechnology (DBT) country.
has started the UMMID Initiative which
Statement 2 is correct: The Ministry of
is designed on the concept of
Statistics and Programme
‘Prevention is better than Cure’. In
Implementation will been responsible
India’s urban areas, congenital
for the policy formulation, release of
malformations and genetic disorders are
funds and prescribing monitoring
the third most common cause of mortality
mechanism for implementation of the
in newborns.
Scheme.The objective is to enable the
Statement 2 is correct: Under the Members of Parliament (MP) to suggest
UMMID initiative, NIDAN (National and execute developmental works of a
Inherited Diseases Administration) capital nature based on locally felt needs
Kendras have indeed been established. with an emphasis on the creation of
These Kendras are meant to provide durable assets.
comprehensive clinical care including
Statement 3 is incorrect:The annual
counseling for genetic disorders, which
MPLADS fund entitlement per MP
is an integral part of the UMMID
constituency is Rs. 5 crore.There is a
initiative.
greater need to develop areas inhabited by
Statement 3 is incorrect: The UMMID Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in
initiative aims to provide prenatal order to give special attention for the
testing and diagnosis, but it does not infrastructure development of such areas.
specify a primary focus on private Members of Parliament are required to
healthcare institutions. Instead, the recommend every year works costing at
initiative is designed to be implemented in least 15 percent of the MPLADS
government hospitals, making genetic entitlement for the year for areas inhabited
disorder care more accessible and by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per
affordable. cent for areas inhabited by S.T. population.
 41

99. Ans: A 100. Ans: B

Exp: Exp:
Indus Waters Treaty, treaty was signed on Statement 1 is incorrect: Finlandisation
September 19, 1960, between India and refers to the policy of strict neutrality
Pakistan and brokered by the World Bank. that Finland followed between Moscow
The treaty fixed and delimited the rights (USSR) and the West during the
and obligations of both countries decades of the Cold War. During the
concerning the use of the waters of the Cold war, Finland did not join NATO and
Indus River system. European military powers, and this policy
Statement 1 is incorrect: The treaty enabled Finland to resist pressure from
gave the waters of the western rivers— Moscow to become part of the Soviet bloc
the Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab—to or the Warsaw Pact.
Pakistan and those of the eastern
Statement 2 is correct: The principle of
rivers—the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej—to
neutrality was rooted in the Agreement of
India. It also provided for the funding and
building of dams, link canals, barrages, Friendship, Cooperation, and Mutual
and tube wells—notably the Tarbela Dam Assistance that Finland signed with the
on the Indus River and the Mangla Dam on USSR in April 1948. The 1948 treaty
the Jhelum River. These helped provide formed the basis of Helsinki-Moscow
water to Pakistan in the amounts that it had relations until 1992, when Finland signed
previously received from the rivers now a new agreement with post-Soviet Russia.
assigned to India’s exclusive use. The treaty protected it from being attacked
Statement 2 is correct: India has also or incorporated into the USSR like the
been given the right to generate Baltic and eastern European states. It
hydroelectricity through run of the allowed the country to pursue the path
river (RoR) projects on the Western of democracy and capitalism while
Rivers (Jhelum, Chenab and Indus) i.e., staying out of the conflict between the
the rivers which have been assigned to great powers.
Pakistan for unrestricted use under the
treaty. These runs of the river plants are
subject to specific criteria for design and
operation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The treaty
required the creation of a Permanent
Indus Commission and not ad-hoc
commission with a commissioner from
each country, in order to maintain a
channel for communication and to try to
resolve questions about implementation of
the treaty. In addition, a mechanism for
resolving disputes was also provided.

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