ĐỀ SỐ 1

II. PHONETICS (0,5 mark)

A. Choose the word whose primary stress is pronounced difƒerently from that oƒ the others.
1. A. employer B. reunite C. recommend D. understand
2. A. politician B. rhinoceros C. artificial D. controversial
B. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced difƒerently from that oƒ the others.
1. A. motion B. question C. contribution D. emotion
2. A. since B. sure C. sun D. sick
3. A. hatred B. sacred C. warned D. decided
III. GRAMMAR —- VOCABULARY (3,5 marks)
A. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to cormplete each sentence. Write questions on the
question sheet.
Ï suggest ………….. we outside the cinema tomorrow at 8:30 p.m.
A. met B. meeting C. meet D. will meet
2. It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver ………….. in the crash.
A. was injured B. injured C. were injured D. had
injured
3. His house ………………. mine.
A. twice as big as B. as twice big as C. as two times big as D. as big as twice
4. Donˆt worry. He’ll do the job as ………… as possible.
A. economizing B. economic C. economical D.
economically
5. In 1849, …………. American inventor, patented a design that served as the basis for modern safety
pins.
A. Walter Hunt, an B. Walter Hunt, he was an C. Walter Hunt, who D. Walter Hunt, was an
6. It is very important for a company to keep …………… the changes in the market.
A. pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up
with
7. I won't change my mind …………………. what you say.
A. whether B. no matter C. because D. although
8. You ………….... to your teacher like that. It was very rude.
A. shouldn't talk B. mustn't talk C. shouldn't have talked D. mustn°t
have talked
9. The clown was wearing a ………….. wig and a red nose.
A. funny plastic red B. funny red plastic C. red plastic funny D. red funny plastic
10. The fire ……………………… to have started in the furnace under the house.
A. is believed B. that is believed C. they believed D. that they believe
E. Fill in the gaps in the ƒollowing sentences with suitable particles. (0) has been done ds an
exarnple.
0. Could you deal with this problem? I'm rather busy.
1. John would like to specialize ……………. computer sclence.
2. The man was showing ……..….. his new sports car to his friends.
3. Sally looks ……………. on everyone who isn’t as clever as her.
4. I admired him for being so confident ………….. his age.
5. She didn't get …………..well with her boss, so she left the company.
B. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end øƒ each line to /orm a word that
fits in the space in the same line. Write your answers on the answer sheet.
ISLAND IN THE SUN
With its (1) TROPIC sunshine, clear, blue water and the warm welcome you will receive, this
island is hard to beat as a holiday destination. The island has something for everyone, but the (2)
DELIGHT west coast 1s the perfect (3) CHOOSE for people who love water sports, such as water-sking
and windsurfing. For those who prefer a more relaxing holiday, there are beaches of fine, white sand,
facing the calm Caribbean Sea and also an (4) IMPRESS selection of restaurants, where the local
seafood is (5) HIGH recommended.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
D. Comiplefe the passage with the correct form oƒ the verbs in the brackets.
When you first apply for a job, you might not succeed in (1. get) 1t. I”s always a good idea to ask
them to explain to you what prevented ftom beating the other candidates. Don't (2. complain) about the
situation, but ask them to advise you of what you can do befter next time. Perhaps the interviewer
disapproved of or disagreed with something you said. Perhaps they just glanced at your application and
(3. see) something that made it easy (4. choose) between you and another candidate. Don't regard it as a
failure, but recognize it as a chance to learn more. As long as you donˆt worry too much about it and
continue to believe in yourself, you'll eventually find the chance you (5. wait) for. Then, your family and
friends will be able to congratulate you on your success.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
B. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end øƒ each line to /orm a word that
fits in the space in the same line. Write your answers on the answer sheet.
ISLAND IN THE SUN
With its (1) TROPIC sunshine, clear, blue water and the warm welcome you will receive, this
island is hard to beat as a holiday destination. The island has something for everyone, but the (2)
DELIGHT west coast 1s the perfect (3) CHOOSE for people who love water sports, such as water-sking
and windsurfing. For those who prefer a more relaxing holiday, there are beaches of fine, white sand,
facing the calm Caribbean Sea and also an (4) IMPRESS selection of restaurants, where the local
seafood is (5) HIGH recommended.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

READING (4,0 marks)

A. Choose the word which best completes each blank in the ƒollowing passage.
In Germany, its important to be serious in a work situation. They don't mix work and play, so you
shouldnt make jokes (1)……… you do ¡in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work in a
very organized way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They đont like interruptions or
(2)……… changes of schedule. Punctuality is very important, so you should arrive (3)……… for
appointments. At meeting, is important to follow the agenda and not interrupt the other speaker. If you
give a presentation, you should focus (4)……… facts and technical information and the quality of your
company's products. You should also prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues
normally use the family names, and title – for example “Doctor” or “Professor”, so you shouldn't use
first names (5)……… a person asks you to.
1. A. like B. as if C. such as D.as
2. A. sudden B. gradual C. abrupt D. prompt
3. A, at times B. on time C. at once D. for once
4. A.on B.to C. at D.m
5. A. ionly B.as C. unless D. since
B. Read the text below and think oƒ the word which best fifs each space. Use onÏy one word in
cach. There was an exarnple aí the beginning (0).
A student learning English occasionally (0) meets the following problems when he (1) to talks and
lectures. lt is difficult to decide where one word finishes and the next one starts. In speech, many sounds
(2) a student some difficulty and he fails to identify them. Some words in English, which occur very
commonly, have a weak form. Án overseas student identifies them with difficulty. (3) addition, many
students sometimes do not hear the unstressed syllable in a word. This problem never arises in print. The
lecturer (4) US€S an informal style and who pronounces his vowels with a strong accent will be difficult
to follow. A student takes notes more (5) when the lecturer speaks with a BBC accent.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
C. Read the following passage and write the lefer A, B, C, or D on your answer sheef to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions usced by
the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the nations “urban”
from its “rural” population for the first time. “Urban population” was đefined as persons living in towns
of 8,000 inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in ineorporated places having 2,500
or more inhabitants.
Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of “urban” to take account of the
new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in ineorporated units of 2,500 or more,
the census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living
in the densely settled urban finge, including both incorporated and unincorporated areas located around
cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit, conceived as an integrated economic and social unit
with a large population nucleus, was named a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA). Each
SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or (b) two cities having
shared boundaries and consfituting, for general economic and social purposes, a single community with a
combined population of at least 50,000, the smaller of which must have a population of at least 15,000.
Such an area included the county in which the central city is located, and adjacent counties that are found
to be metropolitan in character and economically and socially integrated with the county of the central
city. By 1970, about two-thirds of the population of the United States was living in these urbanized areas,
and of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities.
While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969 there
were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to đescribe the elusive, vaguely defined
areas reaching out ftom what used to be simple “towns” and “cities”. A host of tcrms came into use:
“metropolitan regions,” “polynucleated population groups,” “conurbations,” “mnetropolitan clusters,”
“megalopolises,” and so on.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How cities in the United States began and developed. B. Solutions to overcrowding in
cities.
C. The changing definition of an urban area.
D. How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census.
2. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural or urban In
A. 1870 B. 1900 C. 1950 D. 1970
3. The word “distinguished” in line 2 is closest in meaning to ……………
A. differentiated B.removed C. honored D. protected
4. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as urban?
A.2,500 B. §,000 C. 15,000 D. 50,000
5. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of urban in 1950?
A. City borders had become less đistinct. B. Cities had undergone radical social change.
C. Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition.
D. New businesses had relocated to larger cities.
6. The word “those” in line 8 refers to ……………………..
A. boundaries B. persons C. unifs D. areas
7. The word “consftituting” in line 14 is closest in meaning to …………………
A. located B. determined by C. calling for D. making up
8. Which of the following is NOT true ofan SMSA?
A. It has a population of at least 50,000. B. It can include a cityˆs outÌying reglons.
C. It can include unincorporated regions. D. It consists of at least two cifIes.
9. By 1970, what proportion of the population in the United States diđ NOT live in an SMSA?
A.3⁄4 B.2⁄3 C. 1/2 D. 1⁄2
10. The Census Bureau first used the term “SMSA” in …………………….
A. 1900 B. 1950 C. 1969 D. 1970
V. WRITING (4,0 marks)
A. Wrife the second sentence so that if has the same meaning as the first one.
1. Susan isn't as good at chemistry as Sarah is.
→ Sarah is …………………………………………………..………….
2. Although Bod didn't speak Dutch, he decided to settle in Amsterdam.
→ Much to ……………………………………………………………
3. Our house really needs to be redecorated.
→ It's time we ……………………………………………………….
4. “I’m sorry I broke your glasses, Paul,” said Stacy.
→ Stacy …………………………………………………….
5. We didn't go on holiday because we didn’t have enouph time.
→ Had …………………………………………………………………….
ĐỀ SỐ 2
I. Choose the correct answer to fill each blank.
1. Every Christmas of my childhood was the same. My father ….............. late for lunch, weighed down
with presents for the family.
A. would arrive B. could arrive C. was arriving D. got
used to arriving
2. If I ……........... you a free ticket, would you go to Florence with me?
A would offer B. were to offer C. had offered D. were
offered
3. “You ………....... things. Can’t you be more careful?” sad Tom’s mother.
A. always lose B. are lost C. always lost D. are always
losing
4. …............... in the next room, her voice is like …………….... of a boy.
A. Hearing – the sound B. Hearing – the one C. Heard – that D. Having been heard
– that one
5. I’d say let’s meet on Saturday but I’m none …………...... sure what’s happening at the weekend.
A. so B. very C. that D. too
6. When the exam is over. I’ll go fishing ……………... I haven’t done for weeks.
A anything B. something C things D.
everything
7. We’re going to visit the Great Walls. Everybody says this is …………..... .
A. a too good chance for being lost B. too good a chance to be lost
C. too good a chance for being lost D. a too good chance to lose
8. ….., her suggestion is of greater value than her friend’s.
A. All things considered B. All things considering C. Considering all things D. Considered
all things
9. As far as I am concerned, education is about learning and the more you learn, …………….....
A the more for Ife are you equipped B. the more life you equip for
C. the more equipped for life you are D. the more Me you are cqupped for
10. He wants to give his daughters …………....... he can afford.
A. all for the best B. the very best C. at best D. what best
11. .... Sam had was gone when she heard that nearly all her classmates had failed to answer the teacher’s
question.
A. A little confidence B. The little confidence C. Little confidence D. Little of
confidence
12 . …..... the difficulty of the task, I shall be lucky to have completed it by June.
A. Regarding B. Presuming C. Given D.
Encountered
13. Diana took a course in shorthand and typing ……..…..... applying for a secretary job
A. on account of B. with a view to C. with a reason for D. for fear of
14. Jessica has bungled every task her boss has given her so far ..... , he’s prepared to give her one last
chance.
A. Notwithstanding B. Instead C. Furthermore D.
Nevertheless
15. The restaurant is popular with film stars and the ……................
A same B. like C such D. similar
16. Tom’s decision to leave university after a year is one he now …………..... regrets
A. painfully B. harshly C. heavily D. deeply
17. Although his paintings are abstract, the artist …………..... inspiration from the natural world.
A. draws B. pulls C. makes D. has
18. Mai: “…..........” Lan: “I’m pretty busy nght now. I’m doing my homework because I have an exam
tomorrow.”
A. How is your day going? B. How are you doing? C. What do you do? D. What are you
doing here?
19. Student 1: “Excuse me! Could you show me the way to the library?
Student 2: “Sorry, I’m new here. Student 1: “…................. “
A. Not at all B. Bad luck. C. No problem. D. Thank you all the same.
20. She …….…........ with pleasure at the unexpected compliment.
A. grinned B. glared C. beamed D. laughed
II. Choose the best word or phrase theat fits each space in the following passage.
In recent years, ready-made meals have (1)…........ Britain’s eating (2)…....... . Britains now spend four
times as much as the Italians on ready-made meal and six times more than the Spanish. (3)….......... for
instant meats has increased across Europe as a (4)…......... but why has Britain become the (5)…....
European capital of ready-made food, second only in the world to America?
Convenience is (6)…........ of the attraction. A recent survey (7)…........ that 77 percent of purchasers
said they only bought ready meals when they did not have time to cook. Dr Susan Jebb, head of nutrition
at the Medical Research Council, said: “People in the UK work the longest hours, we are very time-poor,
and we don’t have a strong (8)….....history of cooking,’
The ready-made meal boom also reflects changing social (9)…..... in Britain. More people live alone and
so are less
likely to be (10)……..to cook. And with families eating together less often, ready mealsh allow people to
eat what they want when they want. Juliaa Michna, of Marks and Spencer, says that ready meals also
reflect changing (11)…….infood. ‘Brian’s multicururalism has brought a (12)……..range of restaurants
than other European countries, and ethnic cuisines, which people are often scared of cooking from
(13)…….are (14)…….more popular. One quarter of (15)……... meals are Indian, and nearly one in five
are Chinese.
1. A. amended B. adjusted C. transferred D. transformed
2. A. ways B. forms C. habits D. manners
3. A. Request B. Order C. Demand D. Charge
4. A. conclusion B. total C. resuR D. whole
5. A. unclaimed B. unclassified C undefeated D. undisputed
6. A. element B. piece C. part D. share
7. A. found B. made C. put D. gave
8. A. tradtonal B. cultural C. modern D. customary
9. A. trends B. temptations C. drifts D. movements
10. A. offended B. bothered C. worried D. disturbed
11. A. desires B likings C. tastes D. washes
12. A. longer B. deeper C. harder D. wider
13. A. scratch B. beginning C. memory D. nowhere
14. A very B. lot C. far D. such
15. A. chilled B. decent C. meager D. junk
III. Read the passge and choose the best answer to the questions.
The radical change in the land’s surface that results when rural areas are transformed into cities is a
significant cause of the rise in temperature in cities that is known as urban heat island.
First, the tall buildings and the concrete and asphalt of the city absorb and store greater quantities of
solar radiation than do the vegetation and soil typical of rural areas.
In addtton, because the concrete and asphalt are impermeable, the runoff of water fdowing a rain is
rapid, resulting in a severe reduction in the evaporation rate. So heat that once would have been used
convert liquid water to a gas goes instead to increase the surface temperature further.
 At night, although both city and countryside cool through radiation losses, the stone-1ike surface of the
city gradually releases the additional heat accumulated during the day, keeping the urban air warmer than
that of the outlying areas.
Part of the urban temperature rise must also be attributed to waste heat from such sources as home
heating and air conditioning, power generation, industry, and transportation. Many studies have shown
that the magnitude of human-made energy in metropolitan areas is equal to a significant percentage of
the energy received from the Sun at the surface.
Investigations in Sheffield, England, and Berlin showed that the annual heat production in these cities
was equal to approximately one-third of that received from solar radiation. Another study of the densely
built-up Manhattan section of New York City revealed that during the winter, the quantity of heat
produced from combustion alone was two and one-half times greater than the amount of solar energy
reaching the ground. In summer, the figure dropped to one-sixth.
It is interesting to note that during the summer there is a mutual reinforcement between the higher
nighttime temperatures of the city and the human-made heat that helped create them. That is, the higher
temperatures result in the increased use of air-conditioners, which, in turn, use energy and further
increase the amount of urban heat. During the winter the nighttime warmth of urban areas, produced in
large part by heavy energy consumption, is beneficial because less energy needed to heat buildings.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The loss of farmland to urban development C. Waste heat generated by home heating and air
conditioning
B. The causes of increased heat in cities D. How seasonal change affects the temperature of cities
2. All of the following contribute to the urban heat island effect EXCEPT……
A. absorption of heat from the Sun B. storage of heat from the Sun
C. an increased rate of evaporation after a rainfall D. the release of heat at night from city surfaces
3. The word “convert” in the passage is closest in meaning to……
A. reverse B. transform C. reduce D.
compare
4. The word “that” in the passage refers to……
A. city B. heat C. day D. air
5. In which of the following locations would the rate of evaporation probably be highest?
A. A rural area B. A small town C. A medium-sized city D. A
big city
6. The word “magnitude’ in the passage is closest in meaning to…..
A. calculation B. comprehension C. extent D. formation
7. The author mentions Manhattan to order to demonstrate that…..
A. heat in urban areas can be reduced B. the conclusions of the Investigation in Sheffield were
wrong
C. its heat production is smaller than that of Berlin
D. human-made heat can exceed the solar energy that reaches the ground inwinter
8. According to the passage, on important consequence of the use of air-conddroners at night is…...
A. greater energy costs B. higher levels of urban heat
C. senous problems with the energy supply D. less need for air conditioning in the morning
9. The word “beneficial” in the pas“age is clo”est in meaning to…...
A. predictable B. powerful C. hazardous D. advantageous
10. Which of the following is true about cities at night in the winter?
A. Solar energy has an increased impact on the urban heat island.
B. They tend to be colder than rural areas.
C. Less energy is required to heat buildings
D. Human-made energy created a larger area of total heat than solar energy.
IV. Rearrange the following sentences so that they make a meaningful review of a computer game.
A. A selection of viewpoints, including a breakneck “biker’s eye view” are offered. This game will push
your skills and patience to the limit.
B. There are 10 tracks, of which three are available at the outset. Only by scoring gold in both classes on
all of these can you gain access to the next three, and so on.
C. Wonder Racer succeeds in bringing the body breaking speed of time-trial biking to the PC, but its
difficulty may leave you shaking. The approach is simple and unsophisticated.
D. The courses are a fictitious mix of country lanes, exotic beaches and snowy mountain passes. The 3-0
is excellent in its speed, smoothness and level of detail.
E. There are only three controls, far fewer than in many other modem games. Players start by selecting
one of sixteen riders, from a set of teams.
V. Supply each blank with a suitable word.
It is forecast that we can look forward to working (1)..……... hours in the future, but it is necessary for
health and tranquility to work a certain (2)............. of hours per week, ideally doing a variety of jobs -
something schools have – always known. It may be that house building will meet this need. It is a very
basic human instinct. Gardening is a related activity. It is already (3)............. to cultivate many fruits and
vegetables than to buy them in the shops and the house of the next decade should take this into
(4)..............
(5)............ important question is that of energy conservation. The proportion of income (6)..…..
keeping warm is steadily going up, and, with the cost of energy likely to double in real terms during the
next ten years or (7)…......., many large bady-insulated old houses will become extremely expensive to
use. The demand will be (8)…........ small, well-insulated homes located in warm protected areas and
making the best (9)............ of the sun's’warmth. Efficient heating units will be of prime importance. At
(10)……....., we waste a lot of space in planning rooms which are awkward to use.
VI. Identify the five mistakes in the following passage and correct them.
1 An ecosystem is a group of animals and plants living in a specific region and interact with one
2 another and with their physical environment. Ecosystems include physical and chemical components,
3 such as soils, water, and nutritions that support the organisms living there. These organisms may
4 range from large animals to microscope bacteria. Ecosystems also can be thought of as the
5 interactions among all organisms in a given habitat; for instance, one species may serve as food for
6 other. People are part of the ecosystems where they live and work. Hunan activities can harm or
7 destroy local ecosystems unless actions such as land development for housing or businesses are
8 careful planned to conserve and sustain the ecology of the area. An important part of ecosystem
9 management involves findng ways to protect and enhance economical and social well-being while
protecting local ecosystems.
VII. Rewrite the following sentences without chanhing the meaning. You have to use the exactly
words given in brackets for each sentence.
1. I think you should get someone to fix the computer. fixed
→ I would prefer it....................…..…....................
2. Jack was so nervous that his mind couldn't’function properly. straight
→ Such.......................…...............................
3. Suddenly, the management said it was important for us to wear dark suits to the meeting, once
→ The management insisted...................................................
4. We were not late for school because you took us in your car. time
→ If it hadn't’been for..….................…..…...........................
5. Although she didn't’agree with the management's’decision, Chloe was forced to accept it. choice
→ Much................................................................................
ĐỀ SỐ 3
Part I. Choose the word A, B, C or D whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
others. Write your answers in the numbered boxes.
1. A. pleasure B. leisure C. escape D. decision
2. A. ache B. chorus C. chef D. choir
3. A. combine B. collect C. connect D. correct
4. A. reputation B. equation C. population D. innovation
5. A. club B. subtle C. climb D. doubt
Choose the word A, B, C or D whose main stress is different from the others in the group. Write
your answers in the numbered boxes.
6. A. memory B. newspaper C. different D. important
7. A. prevent B. public C. distance D. possible
8. A. garbage B. consume C. motorbike D. schoolyard
9. A. continue B. material C. luxury D. replace
10.A. particular B. difficulty C. company D. comfortable
Part II. Choose the answer A, B, C or D which best fits the space in each of the following sentences.
Write your answers in the numbered boxes.
11. ............,we missed our plane.
A. The train is late B. The train was lateD. To be late C. The train being late
12. The climate in Sapa is much colder ________ of Ha Noi.
A. than it B. than C. than that D. than
this
13. ______ arround stones that are sunwarmed, even the smallest of stones create tiny currents of warm
air.
A. The cool air B. If the air is cool C. That the air is cool D. The cooles the air
14. They turned down the proposal ________ that it didn’t fulfil their requirements.
A. by reason B. on the grounds C. as a cause D. allowing
15. I have never seen ________ before.
A. such good film B. so good film C. so good a film D. such good a
film
16. “Is Dannis buying s house?”
A. For B. Due to C. Since D. Because of
17. ________ that took American art out of the romanticism
A. Winslow Homer’s paintings B. It was Winslow Homer’s paintings
C. When Winslow Homer’s paintings D. Paintings of Winslow Homer’s
18. Such _______ we all fetl numb.
A. a cold weather was it B. was a cold weather C. cold was the weather D. was cold
weather
19. Two of the students in our class are identical twins
A. see between them B. tell them apart C. see them through D. find them
between
20. There is no point in doing _______ the old regulations if you’re going to introduce equally stupid
new ones.
A. up with B. away with C. down against D. up
against
Part III. Read the passage below and look carefully at each line. A word is missing from most of
the numbered lines in the passage. Mark the place with a line (/) and write the missing word in
space provided on the right. If it doesn’t need a word, put a stick (√) by the number. Ther are two
examples at the beginning.
 0 …... √
Despite all the lessons we have learned from history, it is difficult to conceive what people
are likely/ to be doing a hundred years from now on. During this century, so many changes00 ….. to
have taken place any idea as to what new invention is about to become an 21………..
integral part of our life and this has become more of a gussing game than ever. For a 22………..
start, in ten year’s time, today’s innovations probably have gone out of date. There’s little
23 ………..
doubt that many of our habtual, taken for such granted activities shopping and going 24 ………..
to school will have disappeared by the year 2100, largely due to the growth of the 25 ………..
electronic media. But what we have little idea about is how this effect our pesonal 26 ………..
relationship. Or rather, not ours as this will be long after we leave this earth. What 27 ………..
28 ………..
concerns us is how our great-great grandchildren will be living. Will people still be talking
each other face to face or only via computers? Will they be able to find a frendly 29 ………..
shoulder to cry when they are feeling low? In the long run, who knows? 30
…………..
Part IV. You are going to read an article containing views of recently published books. For
questions 1 – 10, choose from views (A-F). Write your answer in the corresponding numbered
boxes.

Book Corner – A round-up of the latest fiction and non-fiction from Beth Young
A. Reading a new novelist is a bit like asking a stranger out on a date. You never quite know if this is the
start of a beautiful relationship. You check the blurbs, the publicity photograph, and flick through the
book to look for the two essentials: entertainment and substance. Beginner’s Greek by James Collins is
certainly big on the latter, weighing in at 400-plus pages. And the quotes on the back cover have the
effect of a bunch of friends saying to you, ‘Go on, you’ll get on brilliantly’. Early indications are that this
blind date could lead to a deeper relationship. Beginner’s Greek is described by The New York Times as
a “great big sunny lemon chiffon pie of a novel” about romantic love amongst the American middle
classes. It is indeed delicious.
B. In Manil Suri’s second outing The Age of Shiva we have a broad-sweeping, epic novel with an
unforgettable heroine so wilful yet flawed that it calls to mind that other famous leading lady, Scarlett
O’Hara in Gone With the Wind. The story begins at a firework party in Delhi where Meera falls
disastrously in love. We follow her journey to Bombay, marriage and obsessive motherhood, with
occasional flashbacks to a childhood that was marred by political turmoil. Mathematics professor, Suri,
captures the fluidity of the role of women with a beautiful kind of precision.
C. Devotees of playwright David Mamet, whose screen work includes Wag The Dog and the award-
winning Glengarry Glen Ross may be less than enamoured of Ira Nadel’s new biography, David Mamet:
A Life in the Theatre. It may seem churlish to question the minutia of incidents that abound in this
comprehensive tome, but whilst Nadel is clearly striving for accuracy one feels there ought to have been
more sifting, more mining for the gold amongst the biographical trivia. In addition, Nadel’s tone is
somewhat dry and academic and seems at odds with the brilliance of David Mamet’s own writing. That
said, the book offers a sound introduction to the life and career of the man hailed as one of America’s
most outstanding writers.
D. Can any Mother help me? is the true story of a desperately lonely mother who, in 1935, appealed to
other women through the letters page of a women’s magazine. Writing under a pseudonym, the woman
known as Ubique (meaning ‘everywhere’) little realised that she would be the trigger for the launch of a
new and private magazine that would last for the next fifty years. The Cooperative Correspondence Club
was formed to offer comfort and support to wives, often well-educated women, who craved stimulation
beyond the drudgery of family life. Jenna Bailey has done a superb job of organising and editing this
compendium, adding her own insightful commentary.
E. Subtitled, The Life and Times of Henry Howard, Earl of Surrey, Jessie Child’s debut historical
biography, Henry VIII's Last Victim, was the worthy winner of last year’s Elizabeth Longford Prize.
Henry Howard’s victim status is owing to the fact that he was the final person to be executed by King
Henry VIII, a mere nine days before the king himself expired. Although killed ostensibly for treason, the
Earl of Surrey’s only real crime it seems was leading an unsuccessful army campaign in France. Only 29,
he was also a distinguished poet with a fine literary voice, a persona which refutes his reputation as the
spoilt son of the Duke of Norfolk.
F. This is the 25th outing for T. Keneally but he’s lost none of his writing powers. The Widow and Her
Hero takes real life events during the Second World War as its inspiration and builds a tale of love and
intrigue. Grace looks back on her life to recall her courtship with the hero of the title, the handsome
Captain Leo Waterhouse. Leo is tragically killed whilst on a secret mission but it is many years before
Grace discovers the facts about his death. Keneally made fans galore when Schindler’s Ark was
published and later made into the award-winning Steven Spielberg film, Schindler’s List. The Widow
and Her Hero will bring him even more fans.
In which view are the following mentioned? Your answers
31. A story in which someone is unaware of the impact of their action.
32. A humorous comparison with a real-life situation.
33. A hint that the author’s future writing career will be positive.
34. A book which has already won critical acclaim.
35. A book which includes too much factual detail.
36. The tittle of the book that was changed.
37. A mention of the profession of the author.
38. A book that describes someone who was treated unfairly.
39. A comparison between the main character and another, well-known one.
40. The style of failing to match the subject matter.
Part V. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A,B,C,D) best fits each gap. Write
your answers in the numbered boxes.
RAISING AWARENESS
In cities around the world a wide range of schemes is being instigated to promote environmental
awareness. ‘It’s just as easy to (1) ______ of litter properly as it is to drop it on streets’, says the city
councillor, Mike Eward who has (2) _____ on the government to mount a concerted campaign to deal
with the problem of litter. It’s just a matter of encouraging people to do so as a (3) _____ of course. Once
the habit is ingrained, they won’t even (4) ______ they are doing it. After all, think what we have
achieved with recyclable waste in the home. Sorting paper, glass, aluminium and plastic waste and then
depositing it in the appropriate container outside is (5) _______ a great chore any more. People have
become accustomed to doing this, so it doesn’t (6) ______ to them that they are spending any additional
time in the process. Only if they have to carry this waste for some appreciable distance to find a suitable
container do they feel they are (7) ______.
Most people know they should behave in a responsible way and just need (8) _______ to do so. So a
quirky, (9) ______ gimmick might be enough to change behaviour. With this in (10) _____, the city of
Berlin is introducing rubbish bins that say ‘danke’, ‘thank you’ and ‘merci’. Berlin is a cosmopolitant
city – when someone drop an item of rubbish into them it might just do the trick in this city, too.
41. A. dispose B. discard C. jettison D.
throw
42. A. appealed B. called C. approached D. urged
43. A. principle B. system C. matter D. duty
44. A. notice B. remark C. comprehend D.
appreciate
45. A. almost B. barely C. virtually D.
hardly
46. A. concern B. occur C. impress D. strike
47. A. inconvenienced B. sacrificed C. complicated D. imposed
 48. A. ordering B. prompting C. forcing D. obliging
49. A. light-hearted B. mundane C. subjective D.
intense
50. A. context B. thought C. spirit D. mind
Part VI. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentences before it.
51. She awoke with a feeling of terror.
→ When she ……………………………………………...
52. After many years of hard work, he retired.
→ After he ……………………………………………..…
53. She prefer going out for a meal to staying at home.
→ She’d rather …………………………………………..
54. I only realised what I had missed when they told me about it later.
→ Only …………………………………………………..
55. Their attitude caused us great diappointment.
→ We ……………………………………………………..
ĐỀ SỐ 4
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Section 1: Choose the correct option marked A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences.
1. ……….. weak was a well-known fact.
A. That their team was B. That their team being C. Their team was D. If their team was
2. Richard, my neighbour, ………………. in World War II.
A. says to fight B. says to have fought C. is said to fight D. is
said to have fought
3. …………………… the phone rang later that night did Tom remember the appointment.
A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before
4. My sister has just ………………… sixteen.
A. completed B. turned C. become D. had
5. Jane really loves the …………………. jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. wooden brown nice B. nice wooden brown C. brown wooden nice D. nice brown
wooden
6. I’ve got so much spare time. Now I’m thinking of taking ……………… a new hobby like stamp
collecting.
A. in B. off C. up D. over
7. I have always …………. my older brother for his courage and honesty.
A. taken up B. taken after C. looked up to D. looked after
8. The sight of so many sweets made the children’s mouths …………………..
A. drip B. moisten C. water D. wet
9. It was such a shock to receive a letter like that ……………. .
A. in the red B. out of the blue C. in the pink D. over the moon
10. - Jane: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?” - Tony: “……………………..”
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job B. Yes, you can use it
C. Of course not. I still need it now D. Yes, it’s all right
11. Don’t be ………………….. in by his charm – he’s ruthless.
A. let B. put C. taken D. dropped
12. If Jim …………. the plane, he ………………. here by now.
A. hadn’t missed/ would have been B. didn’t miss/ would have been
13. He insisted that his method ………………… correct.
A. be B. were C. was D. is
 14. …………….. in several early civilizations, a cubit was based on the length of the forearm from the
tip of the middle finger to the elbow.
A. It used as a measurement B. A measurement was used
C. The use of a measurement D. Used as a measurement
15. You just never lift a ………………. to help me – I have to do everything myself!
A. shoulder B. hand C. finger D. wrist
16. At the end of the match the players were ………………… exhausted.
A. solely B. utterly C. actually D.
merely
17. …………………… of all of us who are here tonight, I would like to thank Mr. Jones for his talk.
A. On behalf B. On account C. In person D. Instead
18. He agreed to give me his car for the weekend on …………… that I helped him write his essay.
A. condition B. term C. rule D. decree
19. George was …………………….. from school for bad behavior.
A. exiled B. dismissed C. expelled D. discharged
20. The pictures are similar, but there are ………………….. differences between them.
A. subtle B. few C. remarkable D. clear
Section 2: Each line in the following passage contains one mistake. Find out the mistake and
correct it.
People have always valued elephants because their size and strength. Asian elephants 011…………….
has been captured and trained to work for human being for two thousand years. We 2……………….
have been used in battles from the 3 century up when World War II. Because they are 3……………….
rd

easily trained, they have been used to transport goods and carry huge logs from forests 4……………….
which was once their homes. Approximately twenty-five percents of the world’s 5……………….
population of Asian elephants have been caught and trained to do variety jobs, 6……………….
including carrying passengers and help to capture more wild elephants. Elephants are 7……………….
considered to be more intelligent to most animals, including domestic dogs and cats. 8……………….
This shows by the way they can easily learn to do tricks and perform tasks, as soon as 9……………….
by the playful behavior of young elephants, who energetically play games of hide and 10……………..
seek, tug of war and tag.
Section 3: Supply the correct form of the word provided to the right of each blank.
When computers appeared in the 1950s, many people thought that it would not be long before these
(1. IMPRESS)______ machines started talking, thinking for themselves and taking over the world.
People predicted all kinds of things, from robot (2. SERVE)_____ to computerized houses. None of it
happened. Despite the billions of dollars and years of research given to developing artificial
intelligence, computers are still unable to hold a normal (3. CONVERSE)_____ with a human being.
In fact, although computers today can process information thousands of times faster than they could fifty
years ago, they are only two or three times better at
using human language than they were back then. In (4. ADD)________, the huge increase in
computer use has proved that today’s computers, with their windows, mice, icons and commands, do not
operate in the same way as the human brain. If this were not true, there would be no need for the
thousands of tech support staff (5. EMPLOY)________ by all centres.
The trouble is that, even though computers can turn (6. SPEAK)_________ into text, recognise
objects by using cameras, search through (7. END)________ amounts of data and even use robot (8.
MECHANIC)________ to move like human beings, they are unable to put all these (9. ABLE)________
together and actually think and function like human beings. One of the reasons for this is that scientists
still do not know much about how the human brain works, so it is (10. POSSIBLE)______ to program
computers to copy the brain’s processes.
PART 3. READING
Section 1: Read the following passage and think of a word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word for each space.
Getting from place to place has been a challenge for humans (1) _______ the beginning of man’s
existence. Not only (2)_______ people struggle with the actually physical problems of travel, but they
also need to know the right direction to go. In one’s own little part of the world, this may have been
relatively easy, but, as humans expanded further and further, it became necessary to determine how to
get from one place to (3)_______ and back again. Paths, roads, and trails made journeys easier, and the
creation of maps transmitted this knowledge to others. (4) _______, once humans pushed onto the vast
oceans, there were (5) _______ roads or accurate maps. The compass, showing the magnetic north, was a
great, yet imperfect, aid. Latitude could be measured by sun angles, but (6) _______ the perfection of
timepieces in the 19th century, it was almost impossible to measure longitude. Fortunately, today there is
a device which allows people easily to find their position no matter (7)_______ they are: the Global
Positioning System (GPS).
The Global Positioning System (8)_______ of a series of twenty-four satellites in
geosynchronous orbit around Earth at an altitude of 12,500 miles. These satellites are in fixed positions,
so, by reading the (9)_______ from three of them, a person holding a GPS receiver can know exactly
where he is. The GPS receiver synchronizes its clock with (10) _______ of the satellites’ atomic clocks.
Section 2: Read the following passage and choose the best option marked A, B, C or D to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
What is ‘extreme’ weather? Why are people talking about it these days? ‘Extreme’ weather is an
unusual weather event such as rainfall, a drought or a heat wave in the wrong place or at the wrong
time. In theory, they are very rare. But these days, our TV screens are constantly showing such extreme
weather events. Take just three news stories from 2010: 28 centimetres of rain fell on Riode Janeiro in
24 hours, Nashville, USA, had 33 centimetres of rain in two days and there was record rainfall in
Pakistan.
The effects of this kind of rainfall are dramatic and lethal. In Rio de Janeiro, landslides followed,
burying hundreds of people. In Pakistan, the floods affected 20 million people. Meanwhile, other parts
of the world suffer devastating droughts. Australia, Russia and East Africa have been hit in the last ten
years. And then there are unexpected heat waves, such as in 2003 in Europe. That summer, 35.000
deaths were said to be heat-related.
So, what is happening to our weather? Are these extreme events part of a natural cycle? Or are
they caused by human activity and its effects on the Earth’s climate? Peter Miller says it’s probably a
mixture of both of these things. On the one hand, the most important influences on weather events are
natural cycles in the climate. Two of the most famous weather cycles, El Niño and La Niña, originate in
the Pacific Ocean. The heat from the warm ocean rises high into the atmosphere and affects weather all
around the world. On the other hand, the temperature of the Earth’s oceans is slowly but steadily going
up. And this is a result of human activity. We are producing greenhouse gases that trap heat in the
Earth’s atmosphere. This heat warms up the atmosphere, land and oceans. Warmer oceans produce
more water vapor - think of heating a pan of water in your kitchen. Turn up the heat, it produces steam
more quickly. Satellite data tells US that the water vapor in the atmosphere has gone up by four percent
in 25 years. This warm, wet air turns into the rain, storms, hurricanes and typhoons that we are
increasingly experiencing. Climate scientist, Michael Oppenheimer, says that we need to face the
reality of climate change. And we also need to act now to save lives and money in the future.
1. It is stated in the passage that extreme weather is .
A. becoming more common B. not a natural occurrence
C. difficult for scientists to understand D. killing more people than ever before
2. Which of these things is the basis of normal weather patterns?
A. greenhouse gases B. human activity C. El Niño and La Niña D. water vapour
3. What caused thousands of deaths in 2003?
A. a period of hot weather B. floods after a bad summer
 C. a long spell of heavy rain D. large-scale landslides
4. According to the passage, extreme weather is a problem because ………………….
A. we can never predict it B. it only affects crowded places
C. it’s often very destructive D. its causes are completely unknown
5. Which statement is NOT supported by the information in the passage?
A. Extreme weather is substantially influenced by human activity.
B. Unusual weather events are part of natural cycles.
C. We can limit the bad effects of extreme weather.
D. Such extreme weather is hardly the consequence of human activity.
Section 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
FENG SHUI – POSITIVE FEELINGS CHINESE STYLE
Recently, the Feng Shui business has been booming as more and more people (1)_______ an interest in
Asian culture and lifestyles. Whether people are (2)______ Feng Shui experts or simply buying books
and trying it out for themselves, there is no doubt that, in the West, in the last few years the idea of Feng
Shui has really (3)______ off.
So what exactly is Feng Shui? Well, it is a Chinese art form that is concerned (4)______the way
you arrange the rooms and the furniture in your house. It is believed that organising these things
correctly will (5)______ you happiness and good luck. In the UK there are currently about 300 Feng
Shui consultants. They will come to your house or office and give you advice (6)_____ on your
lifestyle and date of birth. According to one such expert, I (7)______ install an aquarium with six black
and one red goldfish in my living room in order to absorb bad vibes. He also told me to (8)______
attention to one of my windows. He advised me to put plants on the window sill to prevent the loss of
positive energy. The real ‘weak spot’ in my house, however, was the cooker. He reassured me that
hanging some dried vegetables above it would solve the (9)______.Whether you believe in the power
of Feng Shui or not, it is certainly having a major (10)______on the way thousands of people organize
their homes.
1. A. take B. do C. make D. give
2. A. requestingB. asking C. consulting D. advising
3. A. made B. driven C. taken D. started
4. A. with B. of C. in D. through
5. A. carry B. give C. make D. bring
6. A. based B. put C. held D. carried
7. A. ought B. need C. have D. must
8. A. give B. pay C. have D. put
9. A. fault B. error C. mistake D. problem
10. A. affect B. impact C. consequence D. power
• Section 4: You are going to read an article about treasure in the mud. Five sentences have been
removed from the article. Choose the sentences from A-F the one which best fits gaps 1-5. There is
one extra sentence which you do not need to use.
TREASURE IN THE MUD
Ian Smith likes to spend his free time looking for ancient objects
Mudlark was the nineteenth-century name for someone who searched in river mud at low tide, on the
lookout for objects that other people had lost or thrown into the water. For the original mudlarks it was
a way of making a living. But for Ian Smith it’s a hobby, because he’s looking for objects of historical
interest. Ian heads down to the River Thames at low tide with his electronic metal-detector and a spade.
Working around fast and sometimes dangerous tides, he hunts for ancient everyday objects from cups
and coins to buttons and badges. Anyone can have a go, as long as they have permission. There are
currently about 300 licensed mudlarks in Britain. But Ian, who is an antique dealer by profession, is not
an ordinary one. After thirty years, there’s barely a patch of wet mud on any tidal river in the UK that
he doesn’t know.
1. ________________
‘You’re not likely to find a chest of gold on a foreshore and the spectacular stuff in museums is there
because it is extremely rare,’ Ian tells me when I meet him under London’s Tower Bridge shortly after
breakfast. Here it’s more likely to be the everyday possessions of ordinary families. In other words,
they are objects that tell us how such people used to live centuries ago. It’s mostly rubbish – literally,
from a time when unwanted things were simply thrown into the river. Mudlarking involves working
with a metal detector, but also using your eyes – studying the surface, picking it over and knowing what
you’re looking at when you see it. Mudlarking, says Ian, is an activity that tends to attract solitary
characters.
2. ________________
‘But,’ he adds, ‘it’s also very tranquil. You may be in the middle of the city but the lapping of the water
takes you away from the hustle.’ We quickly make our first find, the sole from a sixteenth-century
shoe. Then, much to my dismay, Ian casually tosses aside our find: ‘You get to see a lot of those over
the years,’ he says.
3. ________________
That piece of shoe leather, for example, is a give-away that the patch of mud around it is likely to have
been eroded by the tides to the sixteenth-century layer. Several oyster shells – an expensive shellfish
now, but common workman’s food then – support the theory. Conscious that the tide is against us, we
dig a little deeper. An item is often better preserved in the mud that it would be if exposed to the air.
4. ________________
‘While mudlarking is ultimately about the love of history, it is also a race to capture and record what
we can before it’s gone,’ says Ian. ‘The water erodes layers, and property developments push further
and further out into the river.’ Sifting the mud in his surgeon’s gloves, Ian picks up what the untrained
eye would see as a lump of stone.
5. ________________
Next, what looks to be a bit of grit reveals itself to be a tiny silver penny bearing the image of Queen
Elizabeth I. ‘People ask fishermen what they get out of staring out over a river for hours on end and,
unless you’re a fisherman, it’s hard to explain,’ says Ian. ‘It’s the same with mudlarking. Like fishing,
it’s very easy to become obsessive about it. But unlike fishing, you also have the pure excitement of
seeing something that’s been buried for centuries. It’s still amazing to me that this stuff is there.’
Sentences
A. Long, disused sets of steps that descend into the mud are another such clue.
B. But finding such objects can point towards more interesting things nearby.
C. It turns out to be part of a sword.
D. Because of this wide experience, he has special permission to dig deep in search of antiquities.
E. This scientific fact means the muddy shoreline is a sort of time capsule.
F. You have to be that sort of person to want to poke about in the mud for thirty years.
PART 4. WRITING
Section 1: Write the sentence beginning with the word(s) given so that it has the closest meaning to the
original one. Write the answers on your answer sheet.
1. While I strongly disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time.
→ Despite my …………………………………………………...
2. I only realised that I had forgotten to close the door when she told me.
→ Only when …………………………………………………...
3. Despite Jack’s strange clothes, everybody ignored him.
→ Nobody took …………………………………………………...
4. We will not delay our voyage whether there is a rain or not.
→ Regardless …………………………………………………...
5. To pass the time, I looked through some magazines.
→ I whiled …………………………………………………...
ĐỀ SỐ 5
SECTION B. PHONETICS
Part I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.
1.A. dosage B. massage C. carriage D. voyage
2.A. architect B. parachute C. choir D. psychology
3. A. walked B. naked C. sacred D. wicked
4. A. religion B. logical C. hamburger D. teenager
5. A. waste B. dangerous C. ancient D. naturalPart II.
SECTION C. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (25 points)
Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence.
1. _________ the phone rang later that night did Anna remember the appointment
A. Just before B. Not until C. Only D. No sooner
2. Looking down at the coral reef, we saw _________ of tiny, multi-coloured fish.
A. teams B. flocks C. schools D.
swarms
3. She insisted that the reporter ______her as his source of information.
A. didn’t mention B. doesn’t mention C. hadn’t mentioned D. not mention
4. You will have to ________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.
A. put out B. put off C. put down D. put up
5. She had butterflies in her ________ before the interview.
A. face B. heart C. palms D. stomach
6. There was hardly _________ money left in my bank account.
A. more B. no C. some D. any
7. Give me your telephone number _________ I need your help.
A. in case B. so that C. unless D.
whether
8. Do you like the language center _________in the Women’s Magazine?
A. advertiser B. advertised C. advertising D. advertisement
9. Thomas has a garden which is _______ mine.
A. double as large B. semi-larger than C. twice as large as D. as two-time as large
10. ~ A: “_________” ~ B: “Well, what I mean is, I think it’s a good idea.”
A. Do you mean it? B. What’s the meaning of this word?
C. Is it what you mean? D. I don't get what you mean.
Part II. Give the correct form of the given words in brackets.
RUNNING FOR HEALTH
If you want to improve your overall level of fitness, running is one of the best sports to choose. It
can increase the strength of your bones, it is good for your heart, and it can help with weight
(1.LOSE)____ . You will soon begin to see a significant (2. IMPROVE)_____ in your general health
and if you are the sort of person who enjoys a challenge, then you could consider making the decision to
run a marathon-a race of (3. APPROXIMATE)_____ 42 kilometres.
(4. EXPERIENCE) ____ runners and sports instructors say you should make a point of having a
physical (5. CHECK)_____ with your doctor before you start training. Another (6. RECOMMEND)
_____ is that anyone who has an old back, knee or ankle injury should take extra care. You should never
use running shoes which hurt your feet or in which you feel (7. COMFORT)_____ after a long run. It is a
good idea to start by running slowly for about twenty minutes three times a week and
(8.GRADUAL)_____ increase the number of kilometres you run. You should find running long
(9.DISTANT) _____ gets progressively easier, and after a time, you may feel that even a marathon will
be (10. POSSIBILITY)_______________!
Your answers:Part III. There is one mistake in each numbered line in the following passage. Find,
underline and correct them
People are destroying the Earth. The seas and rivers are so dirty to swim in. There is so 1. ………
much smoke in the air that it is healthy to live in many of the world’s cities. In one well- 2. . …...…
known city, for example, poison gases from cars pollute the air so much that policeman 3. . …...….
have to wear oxygen masks. We have cut on so many trees that there are now vast areas of 4. . ….…
wasteland all over the world. As a result, so many farmers in parts of Africacan donot 5. . …..…
enough grow to eat. In some countries in Asian there is so little rice. Moreover, we do not 6. . …..…
take enough care of the countryside wild animals are quick diappearing. For instance, tigers 7. . ……..
are rare in India now because we have killed too much for them to survive. However, it 8. ……….
isn’t so simple to talk about a problem. We must act now before it is too late to do anything 9. . …….
about it. Join us now! 10.……….
Part IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets.
1. She left her home last week and (not see) _________ever since.
2. My teacher encouraged us (take) _________ part in the English contest.
3. My brother often fell asleep while he (do) _________his homework.
4. I’m very exhausted now because I (run) _________
5. It was the second time we (visit) _________ Ha Long Bay
SECTION D. READING COMPREHENSION

Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph. .

Solar energy is a long lasting source of energy which can be used (1)_____ anywhere. To generate solar
energy, we only need solar cells and the sun! Solar cells can easily (2)____ installed on house roofs, so
no new space is needed and each user can quietly generate their (3)_____ energy. Compared to other
renewable sources, they also possess many advantages. Wind and water power rely on turbines (4) ____
are noisy, expensive and easy to break down. Solar cells are totally silent and non-polluting. As they
have no moving parts, they require little maintenance and have (5) _____ long lifetime.
However, solar energy also has some disadvantages. We can only generate solar energy during (6) _____
because the system depends on sunlight. Besides, solar cells require (7) _____ area to work effectively.
The main disadvantage of solar energy is that it (8) ____ about twice as much as traditional sources such
as coal, oil, and gas. This is because solar cells are (9) ____. Scientists are hoping that the costs of solar
cells will reduce as more and more people see the advantages of this environmentally (10) _____ source
of energy.
Part II. Choose the best word A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage (10 points)
Reality television is a genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted dramatic
or humorous situations, documents, (1)___ events, and features ordinary people rather than professional
actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or "heightened" documentary. (2) ___ the genre has
existed in some form or another since the (3) ___ years of television, the current explosion of popularity
dates from (4) ___ 2000.
Reality television (5) ___ a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz
shows which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes (6) ____ in Japan in the 1980s and
1990s (a modern example is Gaki no tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism-focused productions (7) ___
Big Brother.
Critics say that the (8) ___ "reality television" is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows
frequently portray a modified and highly influenced form of reality, (9) ___ participants put in exotic
locations or abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in (10) ___ ways by off-screen handlers, and
with events on screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques.
1. A. factual B. actual C. real D. interesting
2. A. Because B. If C. Despite D. Although
3. A. early B. earliest C. earlier D. more early
4. A. in B. during C. around D. with
5. A. covers B. spreads C. stretches D. expands
6. A.which produced B. produced C. which was produced D. producing
7. A. such B. such as C. as D. from
8. A. saying B. words C. term D. definition
9. A. for B. into C. with D. with
10. A. other B. special C. own D. certain

Part III. Choose the most suitable heading from the list A – F for each paragraph from 1 – 5 of the
article. Write them in the numdered blanks (5 points)

A. An easy life D. Not all good news

B. Less money; less waste E. Starting to take control
C. Home’s like people F. Everything under control
INTELLIGENT HOUSING
1.
Have you ever thought about how your body works? Every day, you make your body do lots of
different actions, such as when you walk, talk, or dance. But at the same time, your body automatically
does many other things that are essential for everyday life. For instance, when you blink or yawn or
breathe, you don’t have to think about what you are doing; your body simply carries out these task for
you. You might think this is strange, but the latest houses are like this, too.

2.
Now, thanks to the work of some far- sighted architects and designers, houses have become “more
intelligent”. It isn’t quite true to say that houses are starting to think for themselves, but some modern
homes are now using sophisticated technology to control many of the routine jobs that up to now have
always been our responsibility.
3.
For years, architects and builders have been trying to find ways to make houses more economical and
comfortable to live in, as well as trying to reduce the amount of damage that houses do to the
environment. “Intelligent” houses seem to be the ideal solution. Clever use of building materials and
techniques has brought us houses that are easier and cheaper to keep warm than traditional housing.
Modern water systems, together with the recycling of washing water from bathrooms and kitchens,
means that “intelligent” houses use 30% less water than convetional homes.
4.
“Intelligent” homes might look a little unusual from the outside. This is because the builders use a lot of
glass and wood to make the walls. Some of the houses even have a grass roof because it is kinder to the
atmosphere! But, inside, they are comfortable and bright. The technology, which is similar to that of your
TV remote control, makes sure of this. There are always enough lights on in every room and the
windows close when it starts to rain. The water is always at the correct temperature whenever you want
to have a shower and the house doesn’t allow you to use more water than you need. You can even watch
TV in every room, or use the close- circuit cameras to see what’s happening in the garden.
5.
Until recently, we have always had to think about everything we want our houses to do. If we have
wanted it to be warmer or cooler, lighter or darker, we had to turn the heating or lighting on or off.
However, for some families already live in “intelligent” houses, daily life has changed in many ways.
They don’t worry about turning off the light or locking the door before they go out. The house does all
this for them. Families in “intelligent” houses don’t have to do as much work to keep their home clean
and comfortable- and the hi-tech kitchen means it isn’t difficult to prepare family meals.
Part IV. Read the passage below, then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the
following questions.
In addition to providing energy, fats have several other functionsin the body. The fat-soluble vitamins, A,
D, E and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good sources of these vitamins have high oil or
fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the body’s fatty tissues. In the diet, fats cause food to remain
longer in the stomach, this increasing the feeling of fullness for some time after a meal is eaten. Fats add
variety, taste, and texture to foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried foods. Fatty deposits in the
body have an insulating and protective value. The curves of the human female body are due mostly to
strategically located fat deposits.
Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely known.
When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes inflamed and scaly,
and their reproductive systems are damaged. Two fatty acids, linoleic and arachdonic acids, prevent
these abnormalities and hence are called essential fatty acids. They also are required by a number of
other animalsbut their roles in human beings are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid
an essential nutrient for humans.
1. This passage probably appeared in which of the followings?
A. A diet book B. A book on basic nutrition C. A cookbook D. A popular women’s magazine
2. According to the passage, which vitamin is not stored in the body’s fatty tissue?
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin B D. Vitamin E
3. The author states that fats serve all the following body function EXCEPT________
A. promote a feeling of fullness B. insulate and protect the body
C. provide energy D. control weight gain
4. The word “essential” in line 8 is closest in meaning to________
A. required for B. desired for C. detrimental to D. beneficial to
5. According to the author, which of the following is true for rats when they are fed a fat free diet?
A. They stop growing B. They have more babies
C. They lose body hair D. They require less care
SECTION E. WRITING (20 points)
Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.
1. It’s thought that he is staying in London at the time of the accident.
→ He is
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2.The train left before he got to the station.
→By the time………………………………………………………………….……………………………
3. If Cathy didn’t help me, I wouldn’t finish my work on time.
→ But ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Linda was sorry that she didn’t say goodbye to her relatives at the airport.
→ Linda regretted …………………………………………………………………………….……………
5. He never suspected that the money had been stolen.
→ At no time …………………………………………………………………………….…………………
Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given one.
Use the given word in CAPITAL letters. Do not change the word.
1. I can’t believe that he passed the exam. FIND
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. This traditional craft village is often transferred from generation to generation. DOWN
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. His coming to the party last night was unexpected BLUE
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Could you guard my handbag while I go to the shop? EYE
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. He studies hard, as the result, he gets good marks. THE
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
ĐỀ SỐ 6
I. Write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
1. How long have you been looking for_________ ?
A. employee B. employer C. employment D. employ
2. To __________ photography professionally requires a lot of skills.
A. do B. make C. commit D. carry
3. We made her an excellent offer, but she ________ it.
A. turned B. rejected C. accepted D. denied
4. That old building is going to __________ and a new library will be built in its place.
A. pushed off B. pulled down C. pushed in D. pulled through
5. You are not allowed to bring coffee into the examination room,__________?
A. do you B. aren’t you C. don’t you D. are you
6. When we met that day in Paris, I didn’t know that he was married __________ Barbara.
A. with B. to C. in D. of
7. This is __________ the most difficult job I have ever tackled.
A. by far B. by the way C. by all means D. by
rights
8. __________ about gene-related diseases has increased is welcome news.
A. Scientific knowledge B. It was scientific knowledge
C. Through scientific knowledge D. That scientific knowledge
9. Members of the rock group were asked to modify their behavior ________ leave the hotel.
A. or else B. unless C. lest D. in case
10. He __________ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.
A. should have gone B. shouldn’t have gone C. needn’t have gone D. must have
gone
11. Richard has invited Ann to his study group tonight, but she has refused. What would Richard be most
likely to say in response to Ann’s refusal?
Ann: “I’m afraid I can’t go tonight. I’m just not in the mood for it!”
Richard: “ ____________!”
A. Off you go B. You are out C. Suit yourself D. Good for
you
12. ________to the senate than he began to face some of the realities of being a U.S. senator.
A. No sooner had Obama been elected B. No sooner Obama had been elected
C. No sooner had Obama elected D. No sooner Obama had elected
13. Vietnam’s renowned rocker Tran Lap, _______ died of cancer on 17 March 2016, will be honored
with a posthumous medal for his contribution to the country’s music industry.
A. that B. who C. whom D. whose
14. _________ her friends, Mary doesn’t like outdoor activities.
A. Dislike B. Similar C. Unlike D. The
same
15. Through generations, despite many ________, some Huong Canh families have successfully
preserved their traditional job of clay pot and tile making.
 A. out and about B. odds and ends C. ins and outs D. ups and
downs
16. __________ awful the coffee she makes is!
A. What B. What a C. How a D. How
17. I told them to keep quiet but they went on ________a noise.
A. to make B. making C. to do D.
doing
18. We are going to stay with __________.
A. a relative of we B. relative of us C. a relative of ours D. one of our
relatives'
19. Regular exercise and good diet will bring ________ fitness and health.
A. about B. up C. to D. from
20. Mike: “I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!”
Jane: “__________”
A. The same to you. B. Have a nice day! C. What a pity! D. What a lovely toy!
Thanks.
II. Find a mistake in each sentence and corect it.
1. The issue was so controversial, but they were able to settle it in the end of the discussion.
2. Studies by B. F. Skinner indicate that reward positively reinforces behavior and makes that behavior
likely more to recur.
3. A food additive is any chemical that food manufacturers intentional add to their products.
4. Although the old fisherman was exhausted, but he managed to reel the giant mar in in by nightfall.
5. Long ago there used to be a beautiful island on the Atlantic Ocean.
III. Complete the following passage with the correct form of the word given in CAPITALS to the
right of each line.
THE KING IN THE CAR PARK
We are used to reading about mysteries in detective novels, but a real- life
mystery was (1)______________ solved by archaeologists when they found RECENT DISCOVER
a skeleton under a car park in a British city. The (2)___________of the INTERESTING
remains was of particular (3)____________ as they turned out to be those of TRADITION BURY
the famous King of England, Richard III. (4)____________, most monarchs KNOW
have a formal (5)__________ and their bones are placed in cathedrals or SCIENCE
abbeys, but the final resting place of Richard had been (6)______. The DESCEND
search to find his body had been a long one. Now, (7)_____ have formally ORIGIN
identified the bones as those of Richard, comparing his DNA with that of CRIME
another (8)_____. Tests have also proven that Richard’s spinal deformity
was not as bad as they had (9)_____ thought. However, his reputation of
being a (10)_______ still stands and the mystery of what really happened to
his two nephews remains unsolved.
VI. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Icebergs are among nature’s most spectacular creations, and yet most people have never seen one. A
vague air of mystery envelops them. They come into being somewhere-in faraway, frigid waters, amid
thunderous noise and splashing turbulence, which in most cases no one hears or sees. They exist only a
short time and then slowly waste away just unnoticed.
Objects of sheerest beauty, they have been called. Appearing in an endless variety of shapes they may be
dazzlingly white, or they may be glassy blue, green or purple, tinted faintly or in darker hues. They are
graceful, stately, inspiring in calm, sunlit seas. But they are also called frightening and dangerous, and
that they are, in the night, in the fog, and in storms. Even in clear weather one is wise to stay a safe
distance away from them. Most of their bulk is hidden below the water, so their underwater parts may
extend out far beyond the visible top. Also, they may roll over unexpectedly, churning the waters around
them.
Icebergs are parts of glaciers that break off, drift into the water, float about awhile, and finally melt.
Icebergs afloat today are made of snowflakes that have fallen over long ages of time. They embody
snows that drifted down hundreds, or many thousands, or in some cases maybe a million years ago. The
snows fell in the polar region and on cold mountains, where they melted only a little or not at all, and so
collected to great depths over the years and centuries.
As each year’s snow accumulation lay on the surface, evaporation and melting caused the snowflakes
slowly to lose their feathery points and become tiny grains of ice. When new snow fell on top of the old,
it too turned to icy grains. So blankets of snow and ice grains mounted layer upon layer and were of such
great thickness that the weight of the upper layers compressed the lower ones. With time and pressure
from above, the many small ice grains joined and changed to larger crystals, and eventually the deeper
crystals merged into a solid mass of ice.
1. The word which in the first paragraph refers to ………….. .
A. turbulence B. icebergs C. creations D. waters
2. The author states that icebergs are rarely seen because they are …………...
A. surrounded by fog B. hidden beneath the mountains
C. located in remote regions of the world D. broken by waves soon after they are formed
3. The passage mentions all of the following colors for icebergs EXCEPT ………….. .
A. yellow B. blue C. green D.
purple
4. The attitude of the author toward icebergs is one of ……………..
A. disappointment B. humor C. disinterest D. wonder
5. According to the passage, icebergs originate from a buildup of …………..
A. turbulent water B. feathers C. underwater pressure D. snowflakes
6. The word that in the second paragraph refers to ………….
A. bad weather B. icebergs being frightening and dangerous
C. clear weather D. how icebergs look in the seas
7. According to the passage, icebergs are dangerous because they …………..
A. usually melt quickly B. can turn over very suddenly
C. may create immense snowdrifts D. can cause unexpected avalanches
8. In the last paragraph, the expression from above in the fourth paragraph refers to …………….
A. sunlit seas B. polar regions C. weight of mountains D. layers of ice and
snow
9. The word merged in the fourth paragraph in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. became B. combined C. included D. consisted
10. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Melting of Icebergs B. The Nature and Origin of Icebergs
C. The Size and Shape of Icebergs D. The Dangers of Icebergs
V. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
CHANGING COUNTRIES
Seeking a new life and hoping for a significant (1)______ in their standard of living, foreign
workers began flocking into Western Europe during the 1950s. In Britain, some of the first immigrants
arriving (2)______ the West Indies and the Indian subcontinent were welcomed by brass bands, but the
dream of a new life soon (3)______ sour for many.
Attracted by the promise to earn good money and learn new skills, the reality they found was often
one of (4)______ wages and, in many (5)______, unemployment. There were times when the newcomers
encountered open hostility; in 1958, riots (6)______ out in Notting Hill, west London, when gangs of
white youths began taunting immigrants.
Yet despite the (7)______ difficulties they encountered, many foreign workers did manage to (8)______
to their new conditions, settling in their new adopted country and prospering. Their contribution had the
effect not only of speeding up the (9)______ of economic change in the post-war period, it also
(10)______ Western Europe into a multiracial society.
1. A. switch B. change C. modification D. variation
2. A. from B. to C. in D. at
3. A. turned B. converted C. switched D. moved
4. A. little B. small C. short D. low
5. A. occasions B. examples C. ways D. cases
6. A. broke B. carried C. came D. started
7. A. several B. high C. numerous D. heavy
8. A. fit B. adjust C. match D. suit
9. A. growth B. motion C. pace D. step
10. A. transformed B. transferred C. modified D. shifted
VI. Complete the following passage by filling in each blank with ONE suitable word.
THE COMPUTER MOUSE
When is a mouse not a mouse? When it sits on your desk and controls your on-screen cursor. The
computer mouse is a pointing device (1)______ has a flat bottom, a shaped top with buttons on and –
perhaps – a cable connecting the mouse to the computer. The mouse moves (2)______ the surface of the
desk, and the cursor copies this movement on the screen. The first computer mouse had wheels that made
contact (3)______ the working surface. The name ‘mouse’ (4)______ adopted because all earlier models
had a long cord, and this, together with the shape, made it look something (5)______ the furry little
animal of the same name.
The person who invented the mouse, and so was responsible (6)______ changing the way
computers worked, was an American (7)______ Douglas Engelbart. In fact, he invented many devices,
including ones attached (8)______ the chin or nose, to point at the screen. However, his computer mouse
soon proved to be much more convenient and far simpler to use. His first attempt (9)______ producing a
mouse was in 1964, but it was large, heavy and difficult to move. A few years later, in 1968, his
improved mouse (10)______ its first public appearance and rapidly became a huge success.
VII. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
one printed before it. The word provided (if any) must not be altered in any way.
1. Celine has always been fond of classical music. (TASTE)
→ Celine ……………………………………………………...
2. They cannot watch this film because they are not adults yet. (UNDER)
→ Since ……………………………………………………...
3. It’s a pity you didn’t ask us to spend more time with you.
→ If only ……………………………………………………...
4. She hasn’t spoken much since the day she met the President.
→ Little ……………………………………………………...
5. People think that someone started the fire deliberately.
→ The fire ……………………………………………………
VIII. Essay writing
Vietnamese educators are divided on whether the current system of high schools for the gifted should
be maintained. Whilst some argue that the system may promote unhealthy competition or
unnecessary stress among students, and therefore should be abolished, many others have praised the
merits of those schools and voiced strong approval of their existence.
What advantages can schools for the gifted offer to their students and to the society?
Write 250-300 words.
ĐỀ SỐ 7
Part I. Choose the word A, B, C or D whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
others.
1. A. pleasure B. leisure C. escape D. decision
2. A. ache B. chorus C. chef D. choir
3. A. compliments B. volunteers C. laughs D. tanks
4. A. any B. fat C. add D. habit
5. A. booked B. sacred C. placed D. promised
Choose the word A, B, C or D whose main stress is different from the others in each sentence.
6. A. advertise B. newspaper C. different D. important
7. A. possible B. public C. distance D. prevent
8. A. consume B. garbage C. motorbike D. schoolyard
9. A. continue B. resource C. luxury D. replace
10. A. throughout B. difficulty C. company D. comfortable
Part II. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences.
1. Had we caught the earlier train, we__________ home by now.
A. would have been B. would be C. were D. will be
2. There was nothing they could do _______ leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down.
A. unless B. instead of C. than D. but
3. He spent the entire night thinking and in the end _________ a brilliant idea.
A. came up to B. put up with C. came up with D. put through to
4. Mary: “Peter failed in the final examination last term.” – Nancy: “__________”
A. Really? B. Sorry to hear that. C. What’s wrong? D. I can’t believe it.
5. The man who was taken to hospital had been __________ for three hours.
A. insensitive B. unconscious C. unfeeling D. indifferent
6. After each chapter in this book _________ where reference materials may be included.
A. do the pages find B. are found the pages
C. are the pages found D. the pages are found
7. Every possible means _________ to prevent the air pollution, but the sky is still not clear.
A. is used B. have been used C. are used D. has used
8. The waves on the beach on the west coast of Florida are not ________ on the east coast.
A. much high as B. so high as that C. as high as those D. higher than
9. Assistant: “Is there anything I can do for you, sir?” – Customer: “__________.”
A. Yes, you’re welcome B. Ok. Your time
C. Not now. Thanks anyway D. Sure. Go ahead, please
10. When replying to this advertisement, please __________ a stamped addressed envelope.
A. present B. contain C. enclose D. include
11. Such ________ that we didn’t want to go home.
A. was a beautiful flower display B. beautiful the flower display was
C. a beautiful flower display was D. a beautiful flower display
12. We were very tired last night because we _________ football in the afternoon.
A. played B. had played C. were playing D. have played
13. Nobody understands what the man over there says, _________?
A. doesn’t he B. does he C. don’t they D. do they
14. We should participate in the movements _________ the natural environment.
A. organizing to conserve B. organized conserving
C. organized to conserve D. which organize to conserve
15. Another ________ will be drawn from the experiment.
A. conclusion B. notice C. contrast D. inference
Part III. Complete the space in each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition.
Nobody is safe __________________________________ suspicion at the moment.
1.
The police took the burglars ________________________________________ surprise.
2.
He had to pick up his welfare cheque __________________________________ person.
3.
400 people a year die of this disease __________________________________ average.
4.
I know her __________________________________ sight, but I don’t know her name.
5.
He says he is ill. Or ____________________________ other words, he doesn’t want to come.
6.
Mr. Knight can not be here, so his wife will accept the prize ______________________ his behalf.
7.
The surgeon would have operated ______________________ her if he had felt he could save her
8
life.
9.
The rain will become heavy ______________________ times in the afternoon.
10.
Why do you persist ______________________ blaming yourself for what happened?
Part IV. Each of the following sentences contains ONE mistake. Find and correct it.
0. Placebos look like real drugs, but most consist only in sugar or a salt solution.
1. The spinal cord is the main pathway for messages travelling between the brain for the rest of the body.
2. In 1960, chemists developed synthetic pheromones that were used to controlling insect pests.
3. Foods of animal origin generally supply greatest deal of iron to the diet than foods of plant origin.
4. Many discoveries have made in the fields of chemistry and physics.
5. There are some scissors in the dark drawer in the bedroom if you need it for cutting paper.
6. We see lightning before we hear the thunder it causes because sound travels more slowly than light is.
7. Bats are able to guide themselves by producing sound waves so high for us to hear.
8. Anyone who has ever tried to pick up spilled mercury agree that this element is hard to handle.
9. That touching toads causes warts are still one of the most widely believed superstitions in America.
10. A balance between cheap production and high quality have been a major concern in the field of
crafts.
Your answer:
0. consist only in → consist only of
1. 2.
3. 4.
5. 6.
7. 8.
9. 10.
Part V. Read the text and then give the correct form of the word in CAPITALS to complete the
gaps.
Kitchen Hygiene Your answer:
 0. ……..biggest……….……….
1.
…………………………………..
The next time you go to the supermarket don’t forget to buy the (0) 2.
__BIG__ bottle of kitchen cleaner you can to (1) __INFECT__ your ………………………………….
work surfaces. Recent (2)___SCIENCE___ research in America has 3.
shown that the kitchen is often the most (3) ___HYGIENE___ of all ………………………………….
the rooms in the home. The (4)___COMBINE___ of food, heat and 4.
dampness means the kitchen is (5) ___POTENTIAL___ a breeding ………………………………….
ground for bacteria that can cause stomach upsets and vomiting. The 5.
study at the University of Arizona examined 15 homes over 30 …………………………………..
weeks. Levels of (6) ___CLEAN___ were certainly not below 6.
average yet cutting boards and dishcloths were found to contain …………………………………..
bacteria in far greater number than elsewhere in the home. 7.
Researchers say (7) ___IGNORE___ is the cause of the problem and …………………….…….……..
point out that (8)___ADEQUATE___ cleaning can lead to serious 8.
food poisoning. The (9) ___SOLVE___? Make sure you clean all ………………………………….
work surfaces (10) ___ DAY___ and keep an eye on that dishcloth! 9.
……………………….….…….
10.
………………………….……
Part VI. Read the text and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each space.
No More Classes
The use of computers has meant students can study language programmes (1) __ their own speed when
and for how long they want and no need to worry about the teacher having a favourite or doing (2)__
another boring lesson. What’s more, in the virtual classrooms of the future the student will (3) __ on their
headset, and be transported into an imaginary school, choose their class, take the books they need off the
shelf and (4) __ conversations with other computerised students. They might (5) __ choose to pay a visit
to the supermarket or the train station, the bank or the restaurant. At the (6) __ of a button they would be
transported to (7) __ realistic settings where they could practice their English, maybe getting a hand from
a virtual English companion. All this perhaps, at the computer, from the comfort of their home: no (8) __
to catch the bus to college, or a plane to England. Exciting? Certainly, and an interesting alternative to
traditional classroom lessons. But would it ever (9) ___ the classroom? Hopefully not. Surelythe need to
relate to real people talking about real issues and generally learning a little more about others will always
lead language learners to (10) __ at least a little of their time with real people.
1. A. with B. for C. at D. in
2. A. still B. for C. yet D. already
3. A. place B. put C. set D. get
4. A. take B. do C. catch D. hold
5. A. although B. preferably C. instead D. contrary
6. A. force B. hit C. depress D. push
7. A. so B. such C. like D. alike
8. A. role B. duty C. obligation D. need
9. A. replace B. restore C. succeed D. recover
10. A. spend B. make C. have D. do
Part VII. Read the passage carefully and find the missing word to complete each space.
Exam Tips
When the day comes give yourself plenty of time to do everything: have breakfast but don’t drink too
much; go to the toilet; arrive on time, but not too (1) __ or you will find yourself getting more and more
nervous while you wait to start. Try not to talk (2) __ the exam before you go in.
In the exam, calm yourself (3) __ by breathing deeply and thinking positively. Read the exam questions
carefully and underline all of the key instruction words (4) __ indicate how the questions should
be (5) __ If possible start with the ones (6) __ can do easily to give you confidence. Remember what
you’ve learnt from practising questions and doing mock exams previously and plan your use of time.
Don’t panic (7) __ everyone around you seems to start writing furiously straight away and don’t be
tempted to follow their example.
Finally, after the exam, don’t join in a discussion about (8) __ everyone else did, unless you want to
frighten yourself, and drain your self-confidence for the next exam. Above (9) __, remember that exams
are not designed to catch you out, but to find out what you know, what you (10) __ and what you can do.
Your answer:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part VIII. You are going to read an extract from a writer’s journal. Choose the correct answer A,
B, C or D.
Six months ago I made a rash promise. The leader of the youth club in our village rang me in March
saying, “We’re thinking of running a children’s playscheme for a day in October half-term. Would you
be prepared to help?” My response was “Sure, why not?” In truth I was a little flattered to be asked, even
though working as a care assistant with old people hardly qualified me for the role. Still, I duly put the
date in my diary and of course I forgot all about it. I don’t know if you’ve noticed this but time has a
habit of speeding along faster than a police car chasing a robber and, before I knew it, the day was
dawning.
I arrived at the youth centre that morning feeling full of trepidation. There was a gang of 12 helpers
including me and each pair had been allocated a particular age group. Mine was the 10 to 11 year olds.
Even with the planning meeting I had attended the week before, I worried about whether I was up to the
task. Why hadn’t I read through the copious lesson plans we were given beforehand? And wasn’t the
average 10-year-old more interested in the latest Play Station game than making things with paper and
glue?
All too quickly the children began arriving. The look of relief on parents’ faces as they handed their
offspring over to us was quite comical. A handful of the children were already members of the club but
the other forty five or so were from the local primary schools. Again I asked myself why I had elected to
spend a day with all these ‘little monsters’ especially when I have two all of my own to contend with!
I needn’t have worried of course as it turned out to be a marvelous day. We watched entertaining DVD
clips, learned ‘action’ songs, made clay pyramids, decorated biscuits, played memory games and spent
some time in quiet reflection. I say ‘we’ because I rediscovered my inner child and joined in all the
activities.
The particular highlight for me was the final rendition of “He’s got the whole world in his hands” in the
closing part of the day. The children knew the words and actions off by heart and sang so loudly it was
almost enough to bring the roof down. It’s difficult to explain those moments; only that the body tingles
with the pleasure of having witnessed something so magical.
Of course there were also moments of great poignancy. I found it difficult to stop thinking of one little
girl, who mentioned oh-so-casually that her mum was in hospital and would be there for a long time. It’s
easy for us adults to idealise childhood and forget that some children have their own burden of anxieties
and concerns. When I got home utterly exhausted, still with modelling clay under my fingernails, I
reflected on what a privilege it had been.There was one disappointment for the children and that was that
the playscheme was only running for a day, and not the whole week. As I said farewell to my group, one
of the children turned and said “Can we do it again in the next holiday, Miss?” My response was, “Sure,
why not?”
1. When the offer of the job was made the writer____________.
A. felt she had made a mistake to agree B. thought she had appropriate experience for the job
C. believed she shouldn’t have been D. gave the impression she wasn’t sure about accepting the
asked job
2. When the day arrived the writer was surprised _____________.
A. that the day had come round so quickly B. because she witnessed a car chase on the way
C. because she’d forgotten to write down the date D. that she woke up at dawn
3. When the writer arrived to start her job she ____________.
A. put the children into pairs
B. realised she should have done more preparation
C. felt confident she could deal with 10 and 11 year olds
D. saw the children had brought their own electronic games to play with
4. According to the writer, the parents were ____________.
A. happy to stay with their children all day B. glad to leave their children
C. worried about children from the other D. nervous that their children might not behave
schools themselves
5. The writer needn’t have worried because ____________.
A. the children were quiet during the day B. the children weren’t doing messy activities
C. she had fun herself D. the time passed quickly
6. The writer’s best moment ______________.
A. occurred in the middle of the day B. took her by surprise
C. was hard to put into words D. was when the day was over
7. According to the writer, adults _______________.
A. think that being a child is a privilege B. are usually exhausted by bringing up their children
C. don’t have a stressful life D. sometimes forget that children have worries too
8. What is the writer’s attitude by the end of the day?
A. She was disappointed with the experience. B. She could imagine doing the job again next time.
C. She was sad to say good bye to the children. D. She hopes the playscheme will be longer in future.
ĐỀ SỐ 8
SECTION B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Part 1. Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences.
1. It says in the program that the show______ at 7:30.
A. starts B. has started C. will start D. started
2. Two students ______ at a bus-stop were kidnapped yesterday.
A. wait B. waited C. waiting D. were waiting
3. ______ anything suspicious arise, please phone me immediately.
A. Should B. If C. Would D. Could
4. Most American people don’t object ______ them by their first names.
A. that I call B. that I am called C. for calling D. to my calling
5. In my opinion, young ______ must be punished, but education is the best cure.
A. crime B. criminals C. crimes D. criminality
6. A cooperative program between two companies building a famous ancient city into a(n) ______ city
has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A. friendly ecology B. ecology-friendly C. friendly-ecological D. ecological-friendly
7. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _______ of his service to his country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
8. Jane: “It was really kind of you to give me a lift home.” Peter: “______”
A. Oh, don’t mention it. I was coming past your house anyway. B. I’m not pleased.
C. Oh, don’t do that. I was coming past your house anyway. D. As a matter of fact, you’re
pretty nice.
9. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in the following sentence.
I knew he was only flattering me because he wanted to borrow some money from me.
A. making me impatient B. praising me too much C. making me feel worse D. elevating
me
10. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
part in the following sentence.
I think we ought to give him a free hand and let him carry out the scheme as he thinks best without any
interference from us.
A. permit B. support C. control D. forbid
11. You need to be more ______ if you want to become a novelist.
A. imaginary B. imagination C. imaginative D. imaginatively
12. A person who is concerned only ______ his own interests cannot be a true friend.
A. about B. in C. for D. with
13. Patient: “Excuse me! Could you tell me when Dr. Smith has office hours?”
Nurse: “______.”
A. Yes, I could B. Not really, but there’s a sign on the door I think
C. By no means D. When he’s not busy
14. “______ bad weather we are having this summer!”, said the woman.
A. What a B. How C. How this D. What
15. The reporters thought that the football coach would be depressed by his dismissal, but he just _____.
A. ran it down B. called it off C. laughed it off D. turned it
down
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Part 2 (10 points). There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Identify the mistakes and write the
corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example.
Example: Line (0): the 🡪 a
0 Stress is often called the 21st century illness, but it has always
1 been with us perhaps with different names. Those days we often
2 consider stress is a necessary evil of modern life. However, stress is
3 not negative and without it we will certainly not enjoy some of the
4 high points in life just as the anticipation before a date or the
5 tension leading up to an important match. All these situations
6 produce stress, but if you can control it and not the other
7 way round you will feel stimulated, not worn out. Like these
8 situations, which are generally positive but easier to deal with,
9 sitting in a train that is late, being stuck in a traffic jam, working
10 to a tight deadline is much harder to manage and control. Stress
11 is now recognized as a medical problem and as a significant
12 factor in causing coronary heart disease, high blooded pressure
13 and high cholesterol count. The fact is that patients are often willing to
14 admit to stress problems because they feel they are a form of
15 society failure and it is important that symptoms should be identified in
16 order to avoid unnecessary sufferings. So why should we be
17 looking out for as danger signals? Some common signs of stress are
18 increased tiredness, irritability and the inability to solve certain situations.
 SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1 (15 points). Read the passage below and decide which answer (from A, B, C or D) best fits each
gap. Write your answers in ‘Your answers’ part.
SMOKING
Smoking is harmful to health. This is known to many people worldwide. But men and women
who began to smoke some thirty years ago or so did not have much research on how smoking can
(1)______ the body and threaten health. It was known that smoking could (2)______ the teeth and
fingers, dull the appetite, and be a very expensive (3)______ to maintain. But people who began to
smoke did not know that smoking, (4)______ cigarette smoking, could be extremely (5)______ to their
health.
Medical studies have shown that smoking is a great health hazard because of its effects on the
body. These studies show that the (6)______ life expectancy of a smoker is three to four years less than
(7)______ of a nonsmoker. The life expectancy of a person who smokes two or more (8)______ of
cigarettes a day may be as much as eight years (9)______ than that of a nonsmoker. In addition, research
has shown that people who smoke are more (10)______ to develop lung cancer and other serious
diseases than nonsmokers.
(11)______ warnings that cigarettes are a health hazard, smoking gains (12)______ among youth.
Frequently, young people tend to ignore the warnings about smoking because they plan to stop in five
years or so. “I can always (13)______ before real damage is done” is the reason they give. But recent
experiments prove that damage (14)______ the lungs becomes measurable almost (15)______ a person
starts to smoke.
1. A. afford B. effect C. affect D. effort
2. A. discolor B. disorder C. disable D. disqualify
3. A. custom B. way C. rule D. habit
4. A. especially B. fundamentally C. principally D. generally
5. A. bitter B. dangerous C. harsh D. hard
6. A. frequent B. average C. common D. constant
7. A. these B. this C. those D. that
8. A. boxes B. cases C. packs D. plates
9. A. fewer B. shorter C. narrower D. smaller
10. A. possible B. probable C. likely D. feasible
11. A. Despite B. Though C. With respect to D. In case of
12. A. reputation B. popularity C. respect D. prosperity
13. A. dismiss B. rid C. drop D. quit
14. A. for B. to C. of D. with
15. A. as soon as B. as far as C. as long as D. as much as
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Part 2 (15 points). You are going to read an article in which four people describe their best teacher.
For questions 1-15, choose from the people (A – D). The people may be chosen more than once.
Which person had a teacher who…
taught more than one member of the same family? 1.______
might have wished their pupils to choose a different career? 2.______
was popular with all the pupils? 3. ______
had to overcome a disadvantage when teaching? 4. ______
made contact after their pupils left school? 5. ______
taught in an unusual physical position? 6. ______
changed their pupils’ behavior? 7. ______
became their teacher as a result of a personal contact? 8. ______
developed their pupils’ physical and mental skills? 9. ______
pointed their pupils in the direction of a successful career? 10. ______
demonstrated a sense of humor? 11. ______
decided what to teach by responding to their pupils’ interests? 12. ______
showed what was necessary instead of talking about it? 13. ______
was also doing another job? 14. ______
put an emphasis on what pupils expressed, not the way they expressed it? 15. ______

MY BEST TEACHER

A Sandy Ross
Brian Earle, my English teacher was a very intense man with thick glasses, and the fact that he taught a
lot of his classes standing on his head was also seen as extremely peculiar. He taught me for just one year
and it was probably one of the most creative years of my life. He didn’t believe in giving marks for
grammar or punctuation; he implied that the mechanics of writing were not important if you had
something to say. When I wrote a short story for him called ‘Army’, he simply wrote across the bottom:
'You’ve just got to keep on writing.’ Those few words of support had a fantastic effect on me in terms of
wanting to write and be involved in writing. Brian Earle had a love for teaching and his subject.
B Rajah Ishtiak
My mother was an editor of Pakistan’s largest newspaper and she knew and liked its librarian, Atif
Burkhi. Atif was well-educated and when I was about 12, my mother decided I should learn more about
the region’s history and she chose Atif as my tutor. It turned out to be an inspiring move. He would come
to our house once a week to teach me, from the end of school until supper. He took me through a lot of
history, but after a few lessons I got bored. ‘I know you’re being paid by my parents to teach me this
stuff,’ I said, ‘but there are other things in the world.’ He burst out laughing as he so often did and asked:
‘What do you want to talk about then?’ And so we would discuss global issues and world literature.
C Jennifer Pitt
Everyone loved Miss Young. She taught me between the ages of 13 and 17 and was instrumental in my
becoming an actress. She knew I was interested in acting, but it just wasn’t an option in my world. My
father was a driving examiner and I wasn’t exposed to acting as a career. It was Miss Young who told me
about the National Youth Theatre, which was an organization I was unaware of. She suggested I look
into it and think about going there. About ten years after I left school, when I was with the Royal
Shakespeare Company and playing fairly high-profile parts, I got a letter from Miss Young saying she
was following my career with interest, but as far as I know, she never came to see me perform. She
certainly never came to see me backstage.
D Sarah Parker
Tae Kwon Do is a martial art which has become popular as a sporting activity in recent years. I started
learning it in the Ivory Coast in Africa when I was about 13, and later became the country’s first black
belt. My teacher, Park Min Ho, had been sent by the Tae Kwon Do federation in Korea to open a club. It
was very successful. When he arrived he didn’t know a word of French, so he used to demonstrate rather
than explain. At the time my brother and I started learning Tae Kwon Do, we were fighting like mad. But
we quickly understood we had to stop fighting because we realized that fighting was about self-defense,
not aggression. Tae Kwon Do teaches you to control your anger and control your body. It is very good
for your memory, co-ordination and self-discipline. And you are acquiring a philosophy. Later on, Park
opened a restaurant and then moved back to Korea. We had a very friendly relationship, but somehow I
feel like I was a disappointment to him. He thought I had a future in the sport. But when I was 17, I
decided it was not what I wanted to do.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 3 (10 points). Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.
 Madison Square Garden, a world-famous sporting venue in New York City, has actually been a
series of buildings in varied locations rather than a single building in one spot. In 1873, P.T. Barnum
built Barnum’s Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26th
Street, across from Madison Square Park. Two years later, the bandleader Patrick Gilmore bought the
property, added statues and fountains, and renamed it Gilmore’s Gardens. When Cornelius Vanderbilt
bought the property in 1879, it was renamed Madison Square Garden.
A second very lavish Madison Square Garden was built at the same location in 1890, with a
ballroom, a restaurant, a theater, a rooftop garden, and a main arena with seating for 15,000. However,
this elaborate Madison Square Garden lasted until 1924 when it was torn down to make way for a forty-
storey skyscraper.
When the second Madison Square Garden had been replaced in its location across from Madison
Square Park, the boxing promoter Tex Rickard raised six million dollars to build a new Madison Square
Garden. This new Madison Square Garden was constructed in a different location, on 8th Avenue and 50th
Street and quite some distance from Madison Square Park and Madison Avenue. Rickard’s Madison
Square Garden served primarily as an arena for boxing prize fights and circus events until it outgrew its
usefulness by the late 1950s.
A new location was found for a fourth for Madison Square Garden, a top Pennsylvania Railroad
Station, and plans were announced for its construction in 1960. This current edifice, which includes a
huge sports arena, a bowling center, a 5,000-seat amphitheater, and a twenty-nine-storey office building,
does retain the traditional name Madison Square Garden. However, the name is actually quite a
misnomer. The building is not located near Madison Square, nor does it have the flowery gardens that
contributed to the original name.
1. The main point of this passage is that Madison Square Garden ________.
A. has had a varied history in various locations B. was P.T. Barnum’s major
accomplishment
C. is home to many different sporting events D. was named after and adjacent park
2. Which paragraph discusses the third location of Madison Square Garden?
A. The third paragraph. B. The second paragraph. C. The first paragraph. D. The last
paragraph.
3. According to the passage, Patrick Gilmore did all of the following EXCEPT that he ________.
A. purchased the property at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26th Street
B. made improvements to the property that he bought
C. named the property that he bought Madison Square Garden
D. sold the property to Cornelius Vanderbilt
4. The word “lavish” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. simple B. modern C. elaborate D.
outlandish
5. How long did the second Madison Square garden last?
A. 11 years B. 34 years C. 45 years
D. 60 years
6. Which of the following would most likely have taken place at Rickard’s Madison Square Garden?
A. A balloon dance B. A theater production C. A basketball game D. a tiger show
7. An “edifice” in paragraph 3 is most likely________.
A. an address B. an association C. a competition D. a
building
8. Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome was renamed Gilmore’s Gardens in ________.
A. 1890 B. 1879 C. 1875
D. 1874
9. What can be inferred about the current Madison Square Garden?
A. It is on Madison Avenue. B. It is across from Madison Square Park.
 C. It has incredible gardens. D. It is above a transportation center.
10. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Madison Square Garden has been rebuilt for the fourth time.
B. Lots of flowers have been planted inside Madison Square Garden.
C. The Madison Square Garden building is far from Madison Square.
D. Madison Square Garden still has its original name.
YPart 4 (15 points). Fill ONE suitable word into each numbered blank. Write your answers in ‘Your
answers’ part.
NEIL ARMSTRONG
Neil Armstrong was (1) ______ on 5 August 1930, in Ohio, United States. He was (2) ______ in
flying from an early age. When he was only eight years old, he (3)______ his first model plane. When he
was ten years old, he got a part-time job mowing grass so that he could have (4) ______ money to
purchase newer and bigger planes.
When Armstrong was a high school student, he continued to (5) ______ up different part-time
work. He wanted to earn more money (6) ______ was needed to pay for his flying lessons. On his
(7)______ birthday in 1946, Armstrong was (8)______ exhilarated on learning that he had gained his
pilot’s license.
The (9) ______ year, 1947, Armstrong finished high school and went to Purdue University to
study aeronautical engineering. (10)______, before he could finish his university studies, he was called
up by the Navy to fight in the Korean War.
In 1952, Armstrong returned to the USA to (11) ______ his studies at Purdue. He graduated from
the university in 1955 and worked (12) ______ a research pilot, testing new aircraft.
In 1962, Armstrong was selected by National Aeronautics and (13)______ Administration
(NASA) to be an astronaut. He and several others had to go (14)______an intensive program of training
to prepare (15) ______ for America’s first mission to land on the moon. He is still famous for his saying
“It’s only a small step of ours, but it is a giant leap of the human”.
Part 5 (10 points). Choose the most appropriate heading from the list A-H for each part (1-5) of the
article. There are TWO extra headings which you do not need to use. The first has been done as an
example.
Lists of Headings
A. Making friends during exams D. Vary the way you revise G. Set yourself targets
B. Remembering the difficult bits E. Reward yourself H. Write down the main points
C. Keep calm F. Be organized
HOT TIPS FOR STAYING COOL AT EXAM TIME
0. _____G_____
It’s always good to know what you’re aiming for so that you know if and when you get there. By having
an aim for each week, or even each day, it will help you check your progress and show you if you need
to change your plans.
1. ___________
Rather than have to work through masses of notes every time you revise something, try noting down
things you want to remember on a piece of paper. It doesn’t seem much to learn that way, but it makes
sure you don’t miss out anything important. Once you’ve learnt the main points, rewrite them on another
piece of paper without looking at your notes.
2. ___________
There is nothing worse than being confused about what you need to prepare for your coming exam. If
you have a plan and stick to it, you won’t end up cramming all your revision into the last few hours!
Make a list of your exams and what you need to learn beforehand, and then drew up a timetable covering
all the topics. You can then work out what you need to do on a weekly basis and when you are going to
do it.
3. ___________
By now you’ll probably have discovered the method of revision which suits you best. But every now and
then it might be helpful to try a different method. You could try working with a group of friends, or using
a different book which covers things from a new angle. Whatever it is, just try something different
occasionally.
4. ___________
Some things are almost impossible to remember, so you may need to do something unusual to help you
remember. Try writing them down in large letters and bright colors and sticking them on the fridge, on a
mirror or on the bathroom door. Try recording them onto a cassette player and keep playing it back to
yourself - on a personal stereo if you have got one!
5. ___________
Not too many people like exams and most of us get nervous before and during exams. But if you’ve
followed your plan and put the effort into revising, then there is no need to worry or panic. Hopefully
these tips will have helped you. Give it your best shot - that’s all that anyone can expect from you.
SECTION D. WRITING
Part 1 (10 points). Use the word in brackets, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar
meaning to the first one. DO NOT change the word given.
1. The boy was about to cry when he was punished by his mother. (point)
The boy was ______________________________________________ when he was punished by his
mother.
2. There aren’t many other books which discuss this problem so well. (discussed)
In few other
books ____________________________________________________________________ .
3. I thought about what had happened all those years before. (mind)
I cast
_______________________________________________________________________________ .
4. I’m sure it wasn’t Mrs. Smith you saw because she’s in Singapore. (been)
It ____________________________________________________________________ because she’s
in Singapore.
5. Andrew is said to be a very good cook. (reputation)
Andrew ____________________________________________________________________ a very
good cook.
ĐỀ SỐ 9
SECTION TWO: PHONETICS
Part 1. Pick up the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (3pts)
16. A. surplus B. surgery C. surprise D. surface
17. A. possessed B. opposed C. pleased D. closed
18. A. food B. fool C. foot D. tooth
Part 2. Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each group.
(2pts)
19. A. encourage B. majority C. indifferent D. generosity
20. A. communication B. international C. however D. reliable
SECTION THREE: LEXICO - GRAMMAR
Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence. (10pts)
21. He is the world champion. We all know………. he is at boxing.
A. how good B. how well C. how better D. how best
22. Don’t come and see me today. I’d rather you…….. tomorrow.
A. come B. are coming C. came D. have come
23. This pyramid is believed…………. over 200 years.
A. to be built B. to build C. to be building D. to have been built
24. He pretended………. the regulations in that village.
 A. not understanding B. not to understand C. didn’t understand D. don’t understand
25. I am very……. to be chosen for the……….. team.
A. pride/national B. proud/nation C. proud/national D. proud
of/nation
26. My mother smiled……….. at the joke.
A. quietly B. loudly C. strongly D. widely
27. Mary’s children are used to ………….up after school every day. They don’t have to walk home.
A. picking B. pick C. be picked D. being picked
28. You have to pay extra if you take too………… with you.
A. much luggages B. many luggages C. much luggage D. many luggage
29. Tom: “Help yourself with some fruit” - Peter: “…………………”
A. Thank you B. Never mind C. No, I don’t like D. Yes, I will
30. She said she liked dancing but was not in the …………….. for it just then.
A. opinion B. mood C. frame D. manner
Part 2. Put the verbs given in brackets into the appropriate tenses or forms. (5pts)
31. The child was made (eat)………….…..….…..…….…..…….…..……. everything on his plate.
32. When he (wash)……….…..…….…..…….…..……… his shirt in the bathroom, the telephone rang.
33. We saw our favorite ballet (perform)…….…..…….…..…….…..…………. at the theater last night.
34. I couldn’t resist (laugh)………….…..…….…..…….…..………at the way he answered my question.
35. He (be)………….…..…….…..…….…..…….…..…… to the theatre three times this month.
Part 3. Complete each sentence with appropriate form of the word in block capitals. (10pts)
ON TIME
For many people, punctuality is a big issue. Parents are often keen to impress upon their IMPORTANT
children the (36)………….…..…….…….…..…..…….…..… of being punctual because POLITE
they see it as an aspect of (37)……………….…..…….…..…….…..…..… and EMPLOY
consideration for others. It is also a quality that USUAL
(38)………….…..…….…….…..…..………....… regard as very positive, and those SUCCESS
who are (39) …….…..…….…..…….…..…….. unpunctual may end up being CHOOSE
(40)…….…….…..…….…..…….…..…. in their careers as a result. RELAX
It may be, however, that less punctual people have (41)……….…..…..…….…..…….. a STRESS
more (42) ……….….…..…….…..….. lifestyle than those who always arrive on time. PATIENCE
They may find it (43)………….…..…….…..………… when 50 much emphasis is REASON
placed on timekeeping. Indeed, if others get (44)………….…..…….…..……. when
they are late for appointments, this may not seem
(45)…….…..…….…..…….…..………… to them.
Part 4. Each sentence has an incorrect word or phrase. FIND and CORRECT them. There is an
example at the beginning (0). (5pts)
0. Jack allowed me use his computer at any time
46. He couldn’t sleep, so he turn off the TV to watch some programs
47. The children are playing happy in the school yard.
48. Lack of funds prevented him for continuing with his studies
49. He is too rich that he can afford to buy a beautiful and big house.
50. Mary asked Peter what can she do to help him.
Part 5. Complete each sentence with a suitable form of one of the phrasal verbs in the box. Use
each one once only. There are two extra ones that you do not need to use. (5pts)
get on get over go over hold up count on keep off keep on
51. I can ………………………………………………....my parents to help me in an emergency.
52. There was a big hole in the road which …………………………………………… the traffic.
53. The politician ……………………………………his speech before the important presentation.
54. The teacher advised me that I shouldn’t quit my hope and …………………………………going.
55. I’ve always …………………………………………….well with old people.
SECTION FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1. Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Choose A, B, C
or D to indicate your answer. (10pts)
By 1984, nonrenewable (56) …………. fuels, such as oil, coal and natural gas, provided over 82
percent of the commercial and industrial energy (57) ……….. in the world. Small amounts of energy
were (58) ………….. from nuclear fission, and the (59) ……….. 16 percent came from burning direct
perpetual and renewable fuels, (60) ………… biomass. Between 1700 and 1986 a large number of
countries (61) ……….. from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of
hydropower and solar energy (62) ………….. to electricity. The energy derived from nonrenewable
fossil fuels has been (63) ……….. produced in one location and transported to another, as is the case
with most automobike fuels. In countries with private, rather than public (64) ………, the age of
nonrenewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite (65) ……… that will have to be replaced.
56. A. clean B. unleaded C. fossil D. solid
57. A. used B. produced C. supplied D. stored
58. A. produced B. derived C. extracted D. released
59. A. resting B. leaving C. restricting D. remaining
60. A. as B. therefore C. such as D. for
61. A. shifted B. transferred C. obtained D. applied
62. A. saved B. reformed C. delivered D. converted
63. A. actually B. increasingly C. gradually D. consequently
64. A. transports B. transportation C. transporters D. transportable
65. A. reserve B. material C. resource D. power
Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in
each gap. (10pts)
Last week, Jack invited me to his birthday party. I spent a long time deciding what I should buy as
a (66) …………………………….for him. Finally, I decided to buy him a clock. I went to the nearby
shopping centre to (67)……………………………….for a suitable one. Eventually, I chose a small, blue
alarm clock. After paying for it, I asked the salesgirl to (68)………………………………. it up.
On the day of the party, I arrived (69)……………………….……. Jack's house punctually at 7
o'clock. Jack was very pleased to see me and (70)…………………………………. me for the present.
Many of our classmates have already arrived. We talked about the soccer match the previous night
(71)……………………………….. Manchester United and Juventus.
At 8 o'clock, Jack's mother brought out a birthday (72) …………………………. . On it were
seventeen lighted (73) ……………………………. . We all wished Jack a happy birthday. Jack blew out
the candles in a single breath. He then began opening his presents. Just as he was
(74)………………………………. to open the present I had given him, there was a loud ringing sound.
Startled, Jack dropped the present. I realized that the ringing sound was actually caused by the alarm
clock. When I told everyone (75)……………………….. the sound was, they all laughed.
Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer
to each question. (5pts)
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct
or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which 'once roamed the jungles in
vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become
extinct.
What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused
almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain
but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of
extinction. Animals such as the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of
the world's ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their
survival - and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in
an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then
charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also
depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols
to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of
products made from endangered species. This has' had some effect, but by itself It will not prevent
animals from being hunted and killed.
76.What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The Bengal tiger B. International boycotts
C. Endangered species D. Problems with industrialization
77. The word ‘poachers’ used in line 6 could be best replaced by which of the followings?
A. Illegal hunters B. Enterprising researchers.
C. Concerned scientists D. Trained hunters
78. What is an act of cruelty according to the passage?
A. Having interest in material gain. B. Hunting endangered animals.
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction. D. Causing the problem of extinction.
79. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a way to protect animals from
extinction?
A. Introduce laws to prohibit the killing of endangered animals. B. Establish wildlife
reserves.
C. Refuse to buy animal products. D. Raise money to invest in equipment and patrol.
80. Which of the following best describes the author's attitude?
A. Forgiving B. Surprised C. Vindictive D. Concerned
SECTION FIVE: WRITING
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (5pts)
81. He wished he had invited her to his birthday party.
→ He regretted ..........................................................................................................................................
82. I prefer having dinner at home to going out for dinner.
→ I'd rather ................................................................................................................................................
83. He couldn't play well in the last match because of his injured knee.
→ His injured knee made............................................................................................................................
84.The car was so rusty that it couldn’t be repaired.
→ The car was too........................................................................................................................................
85.As soon as the teacher came in, they stopped talking.
→ No
sooner..................................................................................................................................................
Part 2. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence using the
word given. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You must use between two and five words,
including the word given. (5pts)
86.The minister proposed regular meetings for the committee. suggested
→ The minister.………………………………………………………………………….. should meet
regularly.
87. “Congratulations on getting engaged, Sue,” said Harry. congratulated
→ Harry……………………………………………………………………………………………..
engagement.
88. I usually walk to work but today I drove. instead
→I drove to work
today……………………………...…………………………………………………..foot.
89. I haven’t decided yet whether to move or not. mind
→ I haven’t……………………………………………………………………………….whether to move
or not.
90. It took Jane five minutes to find her car. spent
→ Jane………………………………………………………………………………………….for her car
keys.
Part 3. Essay writing. (10pts)
Write an essay at least 200 words about “The benefits of reading books”.
------THE END------
ĐỀ SỐ 10

I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure
2. A. coughed B. weighed C. laughed D. photographed
3. A. musket B. business C. muscle D. muscular
II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
4. A. lyrical B. emotion C. favorite D. classical
5. A. entertain B. atmosphere C. serious D. joyfulness
III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
6. It was ………….we could not go out .
A. so cold that B. such cold that C. very so cold D. too cold that
7. I really prefer just about anything …………..watching TV.
A. from B. or C. than D. to
8. We have a party tonight and Daisy is worried about ………..
A. what to wear B. which wearing C.that she wears D. these wearing
9. As a rule, new comers ______ a party at the end of the first month of their stay.
A. was held B. hold C. have held D. will hold
10. The most interesting films _____ for the festival will be shown next week.
A. are chosen B. having chosen C. chosen D. being chosen
11. However _____ about the results, the children still talk merrily.
A. disappointed are they B. disappointing they are C. disappointment D. disappointed they
are
12. A child _____ to talk does not learn by being corrected all the time.
A. learned B. learns C. learning D. to learn
13. In most ………. developed countries, up to 50% of ……..population enters higher education at some
time in their lives.
A. Ø / Ø B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the /
14. Some businesses use famous cartoon _____ to advertise their products.
A. person B. people C. characters D. samples
15.The first thing you should do when you lose your bank card is to call your bank and ask them to close
your __.
A. account B. house C. loan D. debt
16. “Oh no! I can’t find my credit card!” “ _________.”
A. Thank you for letting me know B. Don’t worry. They will be back very soon
 C. It is a nice surprise. You should be glad about it D. Chill out. Try to remember when you last
used it
17.I haven’t …………………………..decided where to go on holiday this year.
A. still B. yet C. already D. then
18. How do you speak this fraction: 3/5?
A. Three over fifth B. Three-fifth C. Three-fifths D. Three-fives
19.The number of cars on the roads ______ increasing, so we need to build more roads.
A. is B. was C. were D. are
20. There is no __________ explanation for what happened.
A. scientifically B. scientist C. science D. scientific
21. I can___ what he’s doing; it’s so dark down there.
A. see through B. make out C. look into D. show up
22. Could you be more specific about what is___ in this particular job?
A. enclosed B. concentrated C. presented D. involved
23. He retired early……..ill – health.
A. on behalf of B. on account of C. believe D. imagine
24.The person who writes symphonies or concertos is a ……………..
A. composer B. conductor C. pianist D. playwright
IV. For questions 1-10, give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answer in the
numbered box on your answer sheet. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1 point)
LIFE ON OTHER PLANETS
Humans have long been fascinated by (0. OUT) …outer… space, and have wondered if there are
intelligent life-forms (1. ELSE) ……………………………, which we might be able to contact. (2.
NATURE) ……………………, we’ve all seen space creatures on our TV and cinema screens, but
“aliens” like these owe more to the (3. CONVENIENT) ……………………… of using human (4. ACT)
…………………………… to play the parts than to any real form of (5. SCIENCE) …………………
investigation.
However, many serious space (6. RESEARCH) ……………………… are now beginning to turn their
attention to the question of what alien life might (7. ACTUAL) ……………………… look like. One
early result is Arnold the Alien, (8. DESIGN) …………………………… by biologist, Dougal Dixon.
This strange being, (9. LIKE) ……………………… humans, has its eyes, ears and limbs in groups of
three instead of pairs but, despite its odd (10. APPEAR) ……………………………, its behaviour is not
very different from our town.
1. elsewhere 2. Naturally, 3. convenience 4. Actors 5. searchers 6. actually 7. Unlike 8. Appearance
V. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify it and give the correct one. Write your answers
in the space provided on your right.
1. After studying all the new materials, the student was able to rise his test score by twenty-five points.
2. In order to survive, trees rely to the amount of annual rainfall they receive, as well as the seasonal
distribution of the rain.
3. None of the two girls has turned in the term papers on air pollution to the instructor yet.
4. The book that you see laying on the table belongs to my mathematics teacher.
5. I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been working like a teacher for a long time.
VI. Read the text below and think of a word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each
space. Write your answers in the space provided on your right.
KEEPING FIT
Bodies are made to move! They are not designed for sitting around in front of the television or
reading magazines. Keeping fit doesn’t (1) ………..……..……….. you have to be a super-athlete, and
even a little exercise can give you a lot of fun. When you are fit and healthy, you’ll find you look better
and feel better, you’ll (2) …………..……..…….. more energy and self-confidence.
 Every time you move, you are exercising. The human body is designed to bend, stretch, run, jump
and climb. The (3) ………..……..…….. it does, the stronger and fitter it will be. Best of all, (4)
……..……..……….. is fun. It’s what your body likes doing most - keeping on the move.
Physical exercise is not only good (5) ………..……..…….. your body. People who take regular
exercise are usually happier, more relaxed and more alert (6) ……..……..……….. people who sit
around all day. Try an experiment next time when you’re (7) ……..……..……….. a bad mood, go for a
walk or play a ball game in the park. See how (8) ……..……..……….. better you feel after an hour.
A sense of achievement is yet another benefit of exercise. People feel good (9) …………..……..
themselves when they know they have improved their fitness. People who exercise regularly will (10)
……………….. you that they have more energy to enjoy life. So have a go. You’ll soon see and feel the
benefits!
VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased.
The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities.
Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon
credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility.
Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into
American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920
schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly
lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education and
counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the
larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by
public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of
specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young
women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many
educators considered appropriate for women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American education
gave homemaking a new definition. In pre-industrial economies, homemaking had meant the production
as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both inside
and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however,
overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was
viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers
cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic
necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions
seem quite out-of-date.
1. The paragraph preceding the passage probably discusses _____.
A. the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society in the nineteen century.
B. the urbanization in the United States in the nineteen century.
C. the industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life the United States in the 19th century
D. the formal schooling in the United States in the nineteen century.
2. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of
education in the United States was _____.
A. the increased urbanization of the entire country B. the expanding economic problems of schools
C. the growing number of schools in frontier communities D. an increase in the number of trained
teachers
3. The word "means" in line 5 is closest in meaning to _____.
 A. probability B. qualifications C. advantages D. method
4. The phrase "coincided with" in line 7 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. ensured the success of B. began to grow rapidly
C. happened at the same time as D. was influenced by
5. According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's was that
_____.
A. most places required children to attend school
B. adults and children studied in the same classes
C. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
D. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
6. “Vacation schools and extracurricular activities” are mentioned in line 9 to illustrate _____.
A. the importance of educational changes
B. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools
C. the increased impact of public schools on students
D. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs.
7. According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that _____.
A. different groups needed different kinds of education
B. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
C. more women should be involved in education and industry
D. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
8. The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. homemaking B. consumption C. education D. production
9. Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of _____.
A. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
10. The word “others” in paragraph 4 means_______.
A. other women B. other homes C. other children D. other employees
VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 35 to 44
SENSES
All five senses are important to us, but the two most important senses are (35) ________ the sense
of sight and the sense of hearing. Blind and deaf people must (36) ________ life difficult because they
are unable to do (37) ________ that the rest of us can do naturally. People who (38) ________their sense
of taste can not enjoy food as (39) ________as they used to, whilst (40) ________ who have no sense of
smell can not realize, for example , when gas is (41) _______ or food has gone (42) _______ . In
addition to our physical senses, (43) ________ is a great help in life to have sense of humour, especially
when things go wrong, and to have (44) ________ sense, something which can not be learned from
books.
1. A. probably B. likely C. certainly D. possibly
2. A. think B. consider C. find D. regard
3. A. things B. everything C. nothing D. what
4. A. miss B. haven’t C. lack D. lose
5. A. well B. happily C. much D. fully
6. A. persons B. men C. those D.these
7. A. losing B. leaking C. breaking D. flowing
8. A. on B. away C. off D. out
9. A. which B. here C. there D. it
10. A. good B. common C. spirit D. intellect
IX. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it or using the given words. (1,0 pt)
1. As my grandmother grows older, she becomes more intolerant.
→ The older…………………………………………………………..………
2.We were late because it rained so heavily.
→ But ............................................................................................................
3. I haven't decided yet whether to move or not.
→ I haven't made up ………………………………………………………
4. It is thought that the Prime Minister took bribes from a mafia group.
→ The Prime Minister………………………………………………………..
5. She only started writing the report when she had collected enough facts.
→ It was only……………………………………………………………..
X. Rewrite each sentence so that it has the same meaning as the sentence printed before. Use the
given word. (1,0 pt)
1. Could you take your shoes off before you come into the house? (removed)
→ I'd.................................................................................................... coming into the house
2. The forest outside the town started burning last night. (caught)
-> The forest ………………………………………………………………………………..
3. Nothing you do will change anything. (difference)
-> Nothing ………………………………………………………………………………….
4. Amanda will probably pass the high school entrance examination. (chance)
-> Amanda.....................................................................the high school entrance examination.
5. Frederick is such a talented artist that most critics respect him. (look)
-> Frederick is so ……………………………………………………………………………
XI. Write a short paragraph (about 120 words) about the advantages and disadvantages of the
Internet.
_____ THE END_____
ĐỀ SỐ 11
B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2.5 points)
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or
D).
21. He's really shy________ girl.
A. by B. at C. for D. with
22. ________ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who C. Only who were D. Only were who
23. I couldn't quite________ what they were doing because they were so far away.
A. bear out B. make out C. think out D. try out
24. The meal Mary cooked tastes________.
A. well B. nice C. good D. worse
25. ________ at the party, we saw Ruth standing alone.
A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were arriving
26. The people who________ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
27. The judge found him________ of stealing and sent him to prison.
A. evil B. innocent C. guilty D. wicked
28. The local authorities are conducting________ campaign to help________ disabled.
A. a/ the B. the/ ∅ C. ∅/ ∅ D. ∅/ the
29. He was turned down for the job because he is________.
A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D. qualification
30. ________, the disaster would not have happened.
 A. Had you have obeyed the orders B. You had obeyed the orders
C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces provided in the
passage. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (1.0 point)
The mysteries of the skies
Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the amazingly 31. ABLE
beautiful surface of the moon from close quarters, Galileo’s newly built telescope 32. LIVE
(31)____ him to look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere. He saw that the 33. ACT
apparently (32)__ surface was not divinely smooth and round, but bumpy and imperfect. 34. ART
He realized that although the moon might appear (33)__, resembling a still life painted 35.
by the hand of a cosmic (34)____, it was a real world, perhaps not very different from ACHIEVE
our own. This amounted to a great (35)___ hardly to be expected in his day and age, 36.
although nowadays his (36)__ may appear to some to be trivial and (37)__. CONCLUDE
Not long after Galileo lunar’s observations, the skies which had previously been so 37. SIGNIFY
(38)___ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting around for further 38. ELUDE
wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (39)__ planet of Jupiter. Nestling next to it, he 39. STRIKE
saw four little points of light circling the distant planet. Our moon it appeared, perhaps 40.
(40)__ in the eyes of those fearful of what the discovery might mean, was not alone! FORTUNE
III. In the following passage, some numbered lines contain a word that shouldn’t be there. Tick (√) the
sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn’t be there in the numbered space. (0.5
point)
Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to 0 ___√___
keep between ourselves and other people. When someone we do not 00 someone
know well gets too close that we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. 1_______________________
If 2 _______________________
such a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most 3 _______________________
common response is to move away. Some interesting studies have 4 _______________________
been 5 _______________________
done in libraries. If strangers will come too close, many people get up 6 _______________________
and leave the building, others use to different methods such as turning 7 _______________________
their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made people to develop 8_______________________
new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to 9 _______________________
strangers. Most people on so crowded trains try not to look at 10
strangers; _______________________
they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by a mistake.
People use newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other
people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance,
making
sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes.
C. READING (3.0 points)
I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. (1.0 point)
In recent years, there has been a remarkable increase into happiness. The researchers have come
up a number of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness.
First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy, in other
words, happiness (51)________ in families. And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly with the
main dimensions of personalities: extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are less so.
Second, people often report good social relations as a reason for their happiness. In particular,
friends are a great (52)________ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do together, partly
because of the way friends use positive non-verbal (53)________ such as caressing and touching, to
affirm their friendship. Marriage and similar (54)________ relationships can also form the basis of
lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (55)________ overall satisfaction, and vice versa - perhaps
this is why some people are happy in boring jobs: it (56)________ both ways. Job satisfaction is caused
not only by the essential nature of the work, but (57)________ by social interactions with co-workers.
Unemployment, on the contrary, can be a serious cause of unhappiness.
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (58)________ than most other
causes of happiness. Activities (59)________ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and
social clubs of various kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the (60)____ themselves, but
also because of the social support of other group members – it is very strong in the case of religious
groups.
51. A. runs B. arrives C. goes D. descends
52. A. source B. origin C. base D. meaning
53. A. movements B. signals C. slogans D. motions
54. A. near B. tight C. close D. heavy
55. A. consists of B. applies to C. counts on D. contributes to
56. A. works B. effects C. makes D. turns
57. A. too B. as well C. also D. plus
58. A. check B. power C. choice D. control
59. A. so B. such C. like D. thus
60. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. amenities
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the
questions. Have Have you ever thought about the names of the months? Why are “January” and
“February” not called “Primo” or “Secondo”? Is it because the original names were created in ancient
times? Or is it because the originators preferred odd words?
Take February, for example. Say it aloud a few minutes and you start to wonder. Most people don’t
know who developed these names. However, a little research reveals that the names of the months came
mostly from a combination of the names of Roman gods and goddesses, important festivals, and the
original numbers of the months.
Julius Caesar and Pope Gregory XIII change the calendar to make it more exact. Caesar developed a
new calendar of 364 and a quarter days, the time it takes the earth to orbit the sun from one spring season
to the next. The Pope’s astronomers refined the calendar regarding leap years; they determined that there
should be no leap year in years ending in 00- unless they were divisible by 400; the years 1700, 1800,
1900 and 2100 would not be considered leap years, while the years 1600 and 2000 would be. This new
Gregorian calendar was so accurate that today, scientists need only add leap seconds every few years to
the clock in order to keep the calendar matching the Earth’s cycles.
61. What is the topic of the passage?
A. how the modern calendar was named and developed
B. how the months were named
C. how the leap year system was developed
D. how accurate the modern day is calendar
62. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author think the names of the months are_________.
A. odd B. difficult to pronounce C. inappropriate D. all are correct
63. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to_________.
A. calendars B. days C. astronomers D. years
64. The word “accurate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. interesting B. informative C. correct D. simple
65. Which of the following will be a leap year?
A. 2300 B. 2400 C. 2200 D. 2500
66. Which of the following is true of the Gregorian calendar?
 A. It needs major improvements.
B. It was so well designed, it needs little adjusting today.
C. It copied the Roman calendar’s formula of leap years.
D. none of the answers
67. Why is Caesar important in calendar making?
A. He changed the length of the year B. He extended summer.
C. He altered the number of days in the year. D. He has a month named for him
68. In what order is the information in the passage presented?
A. Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian calendar, the modern calendar.
B. Roman Gods, important festivals, original numbers of months.
C. names of months, Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian Calendar.
D. none of the answers.
69. The word “refined” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. studied B. invented C. observed D. improved
70. Why is the number of 364 and a quarter important?
A. It is the length of time from the beginning of spring to the end of winter.
B. It is the length of a planetary year.
C. It is the most accurate number for calendars.
D. It was a number randomly chosen by Caesar for his calendar.
III. Read the passage carefully then fill in the blank a suitable word. (1.0 point)
The legend of the root
Ginseng is one of the great mysteries of the east. Often referred to as the “elixir of life”, its
widespread use in oriental medicine has led to many myths and legends building up around this
remarkable plant. Ginseng has featured (71)______________ an active ingredient in oriental medical
literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial effects were, at one time, (72)______________ widely
recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weight in gold.
(73)______________ the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active
part of the (74)______________ is the root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng – the word Panax,
(75)______________ the word panacea, coming from the Greek for “all healing”. There is growing
interest by western scientists in the study of ginseng. It is today believed that this remarkable plant may
(76)______________ beneficial effects in the treatment of many diseases which are difficult to treat with
synthetic drug.
Today, ginseng is (77)______________ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is
becoming widely recognized that this ancient herb holds the answer to relieving the stresses and ailments
of modern living. It is widely used for the treatment of various ailments (78)______________ as
arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and anemia. However, the truth behind (79)______________
ginseng works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness shows that the remarkable
properties are (80)______________ than just a legend.
D. WRITING (2.5 point)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one. (1.0
point)
81. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
Were you________________________________________________________________________.
82. I'd rather not go out this afternoon.
I do not feel_____________________________________________________________________.
83. Anna tries hard, but she doesn't get anywhere.
However________________________________________________________________________.
84. It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
The boss________________________________________________________________________.
85. His disabilities did not prevent him from sailing around the world.
 Despite the fact________________________________________________________________.
86. I didn't arrive in time to see her.
I wasn't_________________________________________________________________________.
87. I'd prefer you not to smoke.
I'd rather_______________________________________________________________________.
88. The mother smiled happily. She took the baby in her arms.
Smiling_________________________________________________________________________.
89. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
It was not ______________________________________________________________________.
90. You can ring this number whenever there is any difficulty.
Should __________________________________________________________________________.
ĐỀ SỐ 12
Part I: PHONETICS
Question 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers
in the space provided on your right. (5 pts)
1. 1. A. habit B. dolphin C. effective D. climate
2. 2. A. combine B. arrive C. ambition D. height
3. 3. A. culture B. country C. such D. music
4. 4. A. good B. foot C. took D. food
5. 5. A. plants B. books C. shops D. pens
Question 2: Choose the word with the different stress pattern. Write your answers in the space
provided on your right. (5 pts)
1. A. exciting B. adventure C. advertise D. excursion
2. A. opponent B. beautiful C. calendar D. monitor
3. A. ensure B. picture C. capture D. pleasure
4. A. essential B. different C. important D. invention
5. A. information B. considerate C. explanation D. preparation
Part II: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Question 1: Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers
in the space provided on your right. (35 pts)
1. Everybody was staring and laughing at her – she felt so ………………….. .

A. excited B. exhausted C. embarrassed D.

amused
2. It took my son a long time to find the answer …………………….that question.
A. for B. to C. with
D. of
3. Children usually avoid swearing in front of adults, …………………. .
A. so in order not to annoy or shock them B. so not to annoy or shock them
C. so as not to annoy or shock them D. so not annoying or shocking them
4. Having been selected to represent the class at the school meeting,……………. .
A. the members applauded him B. a speech had to be given by him
C. he gave a short acceptance speech D. the members congratulated him
5. The doctor insisted that his patient ……………...
A. did not work too hard for three months B. to take some vacation for three months
 C. take it easy inside of three months D. take it easy for three months
7. My mother prefers cooking for the whole family ………………out.
A. to eat B. and eats C. than eats
D. to eating
8. " …………….. children like ice-cream." - "That's quite natural."
A. Most of B. Most C. The most D. The
most of
9. Nearly all of the reporters the press conference had questions …………………..
A. attend / asked B. attended / to ask C. attending / to ask D. would attend / to
be asked
10. - “Let’s go out and have a drink, shall we?” - “Yes. ……………...”
A. Go first, please B. I’ll follow you C. After you, Sir D. We
shall
11. Not until ………….home …………… that he had taken someone else's bike.
A. did he get / he realised B. he got / did he realise C. he got / he realised D. he got / he
did realised
12. I am late because my alarm clock didn't …………….this morning.
A. come on B. ring out C. go off
D. turn off
13. The instructor warned the students ……………..sailing alone on the lake.
A. on B. for C. of
D. against
14. My uncle is in …………….. of 60 engineers and workers.
A. leadership B. management C. direction D.
charge
15. good reader can acquire more information in reading for two hours than someone watching TV can
acquire in …………..full day.
A. The / the B. The / a C. A / a D. A /
the
16. My boss is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work that I …………… last week.
A. should do B. should have done C. must have done D. might have done
17. It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver in the crash.
A. were injured B. injured C. was injured
D. had injured
18. ………….., he felt so unhappy and lonely.
A. Despite his wealthy B. Rich as was he C. Rich as he was D. In spite of his
being wealth
19. He was ……………………… speaker!
A. so good a B. what a good C. so a good D. such good
20. We must ………………. our pounds for dollars before going to New York.
A. change B. convert C. exchange D. turn
21. Forget all and try your best next time. Lightning never twice in the same place.
A. strikes B. attacks C. beats
D. hits
22. ………….. of all of us who are here tonight, I would like to thank Mr. Jones for his talk.
A. On behalf B. On account C. In person D. Instead
23. I’d rather …………….. to the party last Sunday.
A. not to go B. not to have gone C. not go D. not have
gone
24. - “Do you mind my taking this seat?” - “…………………..”
A. Yes, sit down please B. No, of course not C. Yes, take it please D. No, you can’t take
it
25. - "……………….." - “Yeah, down this street, on the left.”
A. Is there a station near here? B. How often does the train come?
C. Is this a train station? D. Would you like to go by train?
26. “Never say that again, ?”
A. won’t you B. do you C. don’t you D. will you
27. It was very ………………. of you to pay for all the drinks last night.
A. thoughtful B. generous C. grateful D. sensitive
28. Mary and Tom invited ………………. to their silver anniversary.
A. my wife and I B. I and my wife C. both my wife and I
D. my wife and me
29. I waved to Karen but failed ……………………..her attention.
A. attracted B. to attract C. attracting D. to be
attracted
29. ………………..I get your letter, I will reply to you at once.
By the time B. Now that C. As though D. As soon as
30. - “Thank you very much for the lovely party.” - “……………………..”
A. Have a good day B. Not at all C. Thanks D. You are
welcome
31. - “What would you like to drink?” - “ .”
A. Yes, please B. Thank you C. No, I don’t D. Tea, please
32. In order to grow vegetables properly, gardeners must know .
A. what are each vegetable’s requirements B. what the requirements for each vegetable are
C. that is required by each vegetable D. that the requirements for each vegetable
33. Doctors usually have to study for at least 7 years before becoming fully .
A. examined B. qualified C. tested D.
approved of
34. He ………………….. to be offered the job.
was so inexperienced B. was too inexperienced C. was such inexperienced D. not experienced
35. ……………….. lay its eggs in the sand on the beach than it goes back to the sea.
A. No sooner a turtle does B. No sooner does a turtle
C. A turtle does no sooner D. Does no sooner a turtle
Question 3: Read the following sentences. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to
form a word that fits the space provided on your right. (10 pts)
1. The hurricane caused terrible ………….………….………….…………. along the coast. DESTROY
2. Teenagers are now ………………….………….………….……….. dressed. FASHION
3. It is still a bit …………………….………….………….…. to use the Internet in everyday life. COST
4. Despite the ……………….………….…….weather, thousands of soldiers helped protect the area.
STORM
5. Parks are best places for us to go ……………….………….………….……….. PICNIC
6. His health was seriously affected because he suffered from constant ………….………….…………...
SLEEP
7. Scientists are working together to find solutions to the ……………….………….……. warming.
GLOBE
8. Some friends arrived …………………….…………...last night, so we all went out to dinner. EXPECT
9. Make sure that you ……………….………..the electricity before you start mending this light switch.
CONNECT
10. He is ……………….………….………….……of what he has done. SHAME
Question 4: Fill in each space with a suitable form/tense of the verb given in brackets. Write your
answers in the space provided on your right. (5 pts)
1. Mary has some difficulty …………….………….……. up early in the morning. (GET)
2. By the end of next year, we ……………….………….……. this advanced training course. (FINISH)
3. 'Why didn't Bill get the promotion he was expecting?' 'He may not be qualified. If he were, he
…………….………….…… that promotion last year.' (GIVE)
4. If only I …………………….………….. the car last night! (NOT / CRASH)
5. I’m sorry I wasn’t in when you came round. I would like ………………….………….… you. (SEE)
Question 2: Read the passage and choose the best answers. Write your answers in the space
provided on your right. (5 pts)
The White House, the official home of the United States president, was not built in time for
George Washington to live in it. It was begun in 1792 and was ready for its first inhabitants: President
and Mrs.
John Adams, who moved in on November 1, 1800. When the Adamses moved in, the White House was
not yet complete, and the Adamses suffered many inconveniences; for example, the main staircase was
incomplete, which hindered movement from floor to floor, and the future laundry yard was merely a
pool of mud, so wet laundry was hung in the unfinished East Room to dry. Thomas Jefferson, the third
president, improved the comfort of the White House in many respects and added new architectural
features such as the terraces on the east and west ends.
When the British forces burned the White House on August 24, 1814, President Madison was forced to
leave. All the remained after the fire was the exterior walls, the interior was completely destroyed. It was
not until December of 1817 that the following president, James Monroe, was able to move into a rebuilt
residence. Since then, the White House has continued to be modified but has been continuously occupied
by each succeeding U.S president.
1. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this text?
A. George Washington’s life in the White House. B. The Early History of the White House.
C. The burning of the White House. D. Presidential Policies of Early U.S.
Presidents.
2. Why didn’t George Washington live in the White House?
A. It had been burned by the British. B. He did not like the architectural
features.
C. He didn’t want to suffer the inconveniences that the Adamses had suffered.
D. Construction had not yet been completed.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that John Adams was ……………… .
A. the first president of the United States C. the second president of the United States
C. the third president of the United States D. the fourth president of the United States
4. What of the White House was not yet complete when the Adamses moved in?
A. main staircase B. laundry yard C. pool D. A and B
5. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses .
A. the details of the destruction of the White House by the British
B. James Monroe’s policies as presidents
C. modifications by presidents who followed
D. other presidents who were unable to occupy the White House
Question 3: Read the passage carefully and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or
phrase. Write your answers in the space provided on your right. (10 pts)
The human brain, (1) an average weight of 1,4 kilograms, is the control center of the (2)
. It receives (3) from the senses, processes the information, rapidly sends out responses; it
also stores the information (4) is the source of human thoughts and feelings. Each of the three main
parts of the brain – the cerebrum, the cerebellum, and the brain stem has its own role (5) carrying out
the functions.
The cerebrum is by (6) the largest of the three parts, taking up 85 percent of the brain by
weight. The cerebellum, located below the cerebrum in the back part of the skull, is made of masses of
bunched up nerve cells. It is the cerebellum (7) controls human balance, coordination, and posture.
The brain stem, (8) connects the cerebrum and the spinal cord, controls various body
processes such (9) breathing and heartbeat. (10) is the major motor and sensory pathway
connecting the body and the cerebrum.
1. A. on B. of C. for D. with
2. A. body B. brain C. skull D. information
3. A. news B. information C. advice D. lesson
4. A. who B. of which C. that D. whose
5. A. in B. at C. on D. by
6. A. now B. then C. from D. far
7. A. who B. which C. that D. whose
8. A. who B. that C. whose D. which
9. A. as . for C. about D. on
10. A. Here B. It C. There D. For
Part IV: WRITING
Question 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
printed one. Write your answers in the space provided. (5 pts)
1. It was only because his wife helped him that he was able to finish his book.
→ Without
……………………………………………………..…………………………..…………………………..
2. Tom said to Mike, “Would you like a cup of tea?”
→ Tom
offered …………………………………………………………………………..………………………….
.
3. He hasn't been back to his hometown for over 20 years now.
→ It
is ……………………………………………………..…………………………..…………………………
..
4. Having nowhere else to go, I tried to sleep in the station waiting room.
→
As ……………………………………………………..…………………………..………………………
…..
5. My sister regrets not buying that book.
→ My sister
wishes ………………………………………………………………………..…………………………..
Question 2: Rewrite the following sentences using the words in capital. Do not alter these words.
Write your answers in the space provided. (5 pts)
1. Your hair needs combing properly. (COMBED)
…………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………
……..
2. Impressed as I was by his new car, I found it rather expensive. (BUT)
…………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………
……..
3. When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high. (THE HIGHER)
…………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………
……..
4. “You're always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher to his students. (COMPLAINED)
…………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………
……..
5. People believe he won a lot of money on the lottery. (TO)
…………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………
……..
----- THE END -----
ĐỀ SỐ 13
SECTION A: USE OF ENGLISH
I. Select the best option to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers (A, B, C or D)
in the box provided.
1. I find her ___________ . She never stops talking.
A. exhaustion B. exhaust C. exhausting D. exhausted
2. Look at these two pieces of material I have just bought. Which do you like __________ ?
A. better B. best C. more than D. most
3. Have this one, __________ ?
A. do you B. will you C. don’t you D. haven’t you
4. Half the people in the office have __________ a strange illness.
A. gone in for B. gone C. gone through with D. gone down with
along with
5. The Police are going to __________ him very carefully.
A. check up on B. catch up on C. hold out for D. run away with
6. Many people don’t use their computers to their full ____________.
A. future B. expectation C. potential D. hope
7. When our friends have bad fortune, we try to show___________.
A. love B. sympathy C. affection D. pity
8. She should have been here but she’s _____________ flu.
A. come in for B. gone through C. gone down with D. come up against
with
9. The instructor on the course was hopeless __________ explaining things.
A. in B. of C. at D. to
10. I’m afraid there are no seat left. Every seat is ____________.
A. reserved B. full C. served D. free
11. You have to study harder to ____________ your classmates.
A. keep in touch B. keep pace with C. keep out of D. keep up
12. _________ is the safeguarding and preservation of natural resources so that they can be used and
enjoyed.
A. conservative B. conservatism C. conservationist D. conservation
13. It is imperative that this letter __________ immediately.
A. were sent B. sent C. be sent D. send
14. Two of the boys in the art class were doing self-portraits by looking at ________ in the mirror.
A. themselves B. oneself C. each other D. one another
15. The Tories won the election in 1979.
A. came into B. came into power C. came to power D. came to the power
 effect
16. While attempting to reach his home before the storm, ____________.
A. Tom had an accident on his bike C. it happened that Tom’s bike broke down
B. the storm caught Tom D. the bicycle of Tom broke down
17. After several hours on that road, they became __________ to the fact that they would never reach
the hotel by nightfall.
A. B. resigned C. depressed D. disillusioned
dejected
18. He perceived a change in temperature.
A. was afraid B. was fond of C. was interested D. was aware of
of in
19. In all __________, he’s already left.
A. odds B. probability C. certainty D. possibilities
20. __________, I like the Rolling Stones
A. No need to say B. Don’t need to C. Needless D. Needless to say
say saying
II. Use the right form of the word given in CAPITALS to complete the sentences. Write your answers
in the box provided.
1. He has known Tom for a long time and valued his __________ . (FRIEND)
2. After all he has done for us, it would be very ________ of us if we didn’t do this for him now.
HELP)
3. The storm caused terrible _________ along the coast.
(DESTROY)
4. __________ is one of the qualities required of a social worker.
(FLEXIBLE)
5. The new leisure centre doesn’t quite come up to my __________.
(EXPECT)
6. The floor of the attic needs _________ if we’re going to make it into a bedroom.
(STRONG)
7. Is it possible to __________ between a hobby and an interest?
(DISTINCT)
8. This used to be a rural area but it has become ___________.
(INDUSTRY)
9. I’m surprised at what you’ve done. I hope my confidence in you has not been ________.
(PLACE)
10. This jewel is not simply valuable. It is __________.
(VALUE)
III. Read the text and look carefully at each line. Tick (√) the lines which are correct and pick out the
unnecessary words. There are two examples at the beginning (0 and 00). Write your answers on the
right lines provided.
CAMPING
0. You’ve finally arrived at your destination place and you’re looking for somewhere ____place_
00. to set up your tent. So what should you be looking for? You need to look for _____√___
1. relatively level ground, and, whatever you do, never pitch your tent on a slope __________
2. or you will find yourself rolling around out of your sleeping bag all night. __________
3. Don’t forget to check it that there is a water source nearby. Water is essential for __________
4. camping: you’ll need it for the drinking and cooking. You don’t want to have to __________
5. walk far with a twenty-litre container, do you? Find a suitable area for cooking. __________
6. Don’t cook in you tent. Locate a flat area away from some leaves, grass or __________
7. twigs, which can make fire. Another thing you must do is keep the campsite clean. __________
8. After meals, wash the whole dishes, and put the rubbish in an appropriate place. __________
9. Remember to follow the campsite rules, which they were made so that everyone __________
10. can be enjoy the site. Leave it as you would like to find it yourself. __________
SECTION B: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the text below and choose the best word or combination of words to fill in each blank. Write
your answers (A, B, C or D) in the box provided.
AUDIOBOOKS - BOOKS ON CASSETTE
In the modern world, there is a wealth of leisure activities to choose from Entertainment industries
(1) __________ for your leisure time. You can watch TV, listen to music, go to an art gallery or concert
or, of course, read a book. Sometimes it seems that reading is (2) __________ because, (3) __________
you’re a fast reader, it can take a (4) __________ amount of time to finish a novel, for example. But in
the modern world, time is something that can be in short supply.
Book publishers haven’t been (5) __________ to realize this and are now selling a product which
needn’t (6) __________ as much of your time but still tells you an excellent story. The new products is
the audiobook - cassette recordings of shortened novels, often read by well-known personalities or the
authors themselves. Audiobooks are relatively new but people are becoming more aware of them and
sales are increasing (7) __________.
One of the attractions of audiobooks is that they’re (8) __________ listening to the radio, only
better. You can listen to what you want when you want, and you won’t ever miss anything. Much of their
appeal (9) ________ in their flexibility. They allow you do to other things while you’re listening, such as
driving or (10) __________ the housework. For some people, audio books can be a much more enjoyable
way of gaining knowledge than reading.
1. A. chase B. compete C. oppose D. pursue
2. A. neglected B. declined C. lessened D. disposed
3. A. in spite B. no matter C regardless of D. even if
4. A. plentiful B. broad C. considerable D. lasting
5. A. behind B. slow C. delayed D. overdue
6. A. take up B. fill out C. go through D. pass by
7. A. ever since then B. all the C. up until now D. from then
time on
8. A. as B. same C. like D. both
9. A. stands B. belongs C. bases D. lies
10. A. doing B. running C. making D. cleaning
II. Fill in each of the numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in
the box provided.
About two hundred years ago man lived in greater harmony with his environment because industry
was not much developed. Today the situation is quite (1) _________. People all over the world are
worried about what is happening to the environment, because of modern industry and the need for more
and more energy. Newspapers and magazines write (2) _________water pollution, air pollution and land
pollution. Why is there so much (3) ________ about pollution. After all, people have been polluting the
world around them for thousands and thousands of years. But in the past, there were not many people
and (4) ________of room in the world so they could move to another place when their settlements
became dirty.
Now, however, many parts of the world are (5)_________, people live in big cities and much of our
waste, especially waste from factories, electric (6) _______ stations, the chemical industry and heavy
industry is very dangerous. Fish die in the lakes, rivers and seas; forest trees die (7)_______. Much of
this dangerous waste goes into the air and is carried by the wind for great distances. The earth is (8)
________home . We must take care of it for ourselves and for the next generations. This means (9)
_________our environment clean.
 The importance of this task is pointed out by ecologists, the scientists who study the (10)_______
between living things and the environment. However, each of us must do everything possible to keep the
land, air and water clean.
III. Read the passage carefully and choose the best option for each sentence.
Most of us lead unhealthy lives: we spend far too much time sitting down. If, in addition, we are
careless about our diets, our bodies soon become flabby and our systems sluggish. Then the guilt feelings
start : “I must go on a diet”, “ I must try to lose weight” “ I must get more fresh air and exercise”, “I must
stop smoking”, “I must try to keep fit” . There are some aspects of our unhealthy lives that we cannot
avoid. I’m thinking of such features of modern urban life as pollution, noise, rushed meals and stress.
But keeping fit is a way to minimize the effects of these evils.
The usual suggestion to a person who is looking for a way to keep fit is to take some sports. While it
is true that every weekend you will find people playing football and hockey in the local park, they are
outnumbered a hundred to one by the people who are simply watching them. It is an illusion to think that
you will get fit by going to watch the football match every Saturday, unless you count the effort required
to fight your way through the crowds to get to the best seats.
For those who do not particularly enjoy competitive sports – and it is especially difficult to do so if
you are not good at them – there are such solitary activities as cycling, walking and swimming. What
often happens, though, is that you do them in such a leisurely way, so slowly, that is doubtful if you are
doing yourself much good, apart from the fact that you have at least managed to get up out of your
armchair. Of course you can be very thorough about exercise, even fanatical. Many sports shops now sell
frightening pieces of apparatus, chest-expanders and other mysterious gadgets of shiny spring steel,
which, according to the advertisements, will bring you up to an Olympic standard of fitness, provided
that you follow a rigorous and regular programme of exercises. Such programmes generally involve long
periods of time bending these curious bits of metal into improbable shapes.
It all strikes me as utterly boring and also time-consuming. Somebody suggested recently that all
such effort was pointless anyway because if you spend half an hour every day jogging round the local
park, you will add to your life exactly the number of hours that you wasted doing the ‘jogging’ in the
first place. The argument is false even if the facts are correct, but there is no doubt that exercise in itself
can be boring.
Even after you have found a routine for keeping in shape, through sport or gymnastics or isometrics,
you are still only half way to good health, because, according to the experts, you must also master the art
of complete metal and physical relaxation. Now, this does not mean snoozing in the armchair or going
dancing ( which is a good form of exercise in itself ) . It has to do with deep breathing , emptying your
mind of all thoughts, meditation, and so on.
Yoga, as practiced in the West, is the most widely known and popular of the systems for achieving
the necessary state of relaxation. Contrary to popular belief, you do not have to learn a lot of strange
words or become a Buddhist in order to benefit from Yoga. It seems ironical, though, that as our lives
have improved in a material sense, we have found it increasingly necessary to go back to forms of
activity – physical effort on the one hand, and relaxation on the other – which were the natural way of
life of our forefathers.
1. Unfitness is the result of ___________.
A. lack of fresh air and exercise B. overeating, smoking and living in town
C. not eating properly and not getting enough exercise D. not taking part in sports
2. Pollution, noise and stress are examples of ___________.
A. causes of unfitness B. bad features of living in towns
C. the things we must avoid if we are to stay healthy D. industrial life and work
3. Our reaction to being out of condition is to ___________.
A. give up smoking and go on a diet B. start a programme of keep-fit
exercises
C. make resolutions to lead a healthier life D. take up a sport
4. A lot of people who go to the park at the weekend are ___________.
A. football players B. football spectators C. keep-fit enthusiasts D. unfit or unhealthy
5. You cannot really enjoy competitive sports unless you are ___________.
A. young enough to play them B. very good at them
C. fit enough to play them D. a solitary kind of person
6. The reason we don’t get much out of solitary sports such as walking is that we do not _________.
A. do them often enough B. have the encouragement of others
C. take them seriously enough D. do them vigorously
enough
7. The writer does not like keep-fit programmes because he thinks ___________.
A. they take up too much time B. there are much easier ways of getting fit
C. they are a waste of time D. the apparatus is very silly
8. To be healthy we must ___________.
A. keep fit and active B. keep fit and learn to relax
C. be active and practise Yoga D. be very careful about what we eat and drink
9. Many people believe that in order to practise Yoga ___________.
A. you must learn a special vocabulary B. it is better to become a Buddhist
C. you must learn to relax completely D. you must wear special clothing
10. Our forefathers were healthy because ___________.
A. their way of life involved both exercise and relaxation
B. they were careful to get plenty of fresh air and keep fit
C. they lived in the country and spent time out of doors
D. they had simple work to do and very little to worry about
SECTION D: WRITING
I. Finish each sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the one printed before it.
1 His second attempt on the world record was successful.
Hebroke__________________________________________________________________________.
2 They were all arrested because of his incompetence.
Had______________________________________________________________________________
______
3 Please don’t smoke in the kitchen.
I’d rather
____________________________________________________________________________.
4 “That’s a lovely new dress, Jean”, said her mother.
Jean’s mother complimented ________________________________________________________.
5 I don’t really like her even though I admire her achievements
. Much____________________________________________________________________________
__.
II. For each of the sentences, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original
sentence, using the word given in CAPITALS. This word must not be altered in any way.
1. I don’t think this record will ever be popular. (CATCH)
____________________________________________________________________________________
________.
2. A police car has just stopped outside. (UP)
____________________________________________________________________________________
________.
3. They didn’t punish Karen, only gave her a warning. (GOT)
____________________________________________________________________________________
________.
4. What are you trying to say? (AT)
____________________________________________________________________________________
________.
5. Graham stopped talking to deal with a customer. (OFF)
____________________________________________________________________________________
________.
III. The Internet is now getting more and more popular all over the world. So, how important is it to
your life? Write a paragraph of about 120 words to answer this question.
........................................................................................................................................................................
....................................................................................................................................................
ĐỀ THI 14
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the
same line. (3 pts)
16.A. purse B. nervous C. surprise D. worse
17.A. architect B. parachute C. choir D. psychology
18. A. precious B. preparation C. pretty D. repetition
Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each
question. (2 pts)
19. A. invent B. literacy C. inventory D. stationery
20. A.dormitory B. handicap C. minority D. voluntary
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
21.“Go on, finish the desert. It needs _______ up because it won’t stay fresh until tomorrow.”
A. eat B. eating C. to eat D. eaten
22. My parents lent me the money. ________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
A. However B. Therefore C. Only if D. Otherwise
23. Her face turned _______when she heard that her mother met with an accident.
A. red B. blue C.white D. grey
24.That is the last _______ I am leaving.
A. straw B. pain C. limit D. nuisance
25.-“Do you mind if I take a seat?” - “______________”
A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please
C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please
26.Florida _______ Georgia to the North.
A. borders B. stretches C. frontiers D. boundaries
27. The new school complex cost _______ the city council had budgeted for.
A. twice more by far than B. twice much more than
C. almost twice as much as D. just twice as much as
28.When the electricity failed, he _________ a match to find the candle.
A. rubbed B.struck C. scratched D. started
29.I usually buy my clothes _________. It’s cheaper than going to the dress maker.
A. on the house B.in public C. off the peg D. on the shelf
30.I know this is a big disappointment but don’t take it to _______
A. soul B. mind C. spirit D. heart
Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form.(8 pts)
31. I (follow)_________________________his advice, I wouldn’t be in dangerous now.
32.I don’t know what the matter is with him. He (act)______________________ funny since you were
away.
33.He was the only student (award)_______________________ the special prize in reciting poetry
competition.
34.He is planning (complete)________________________ all his coursework by next week.
35.If you felt lonely, you ( give)_______________________ me a ring
36.They (have)______________________English from nine to ten in this room. Don’t let anyone
disturb them then.
37.Three days ago, Mr Brown ran out of money so he sold his car and one day later he won a lotterry
ticket. He (sell)_____________________ it.
38.Just as I (wonder)_____________________ what to do next, the phone rang.
Question III. Supply the correct form of the wordsgiven. (7 pts)
39.When you travel into space, you can eat and drink in _____________________ (WEIGHT)
40.How do you _____________________ the real painting from the fake one ? (DIFFERENT)
41. He _____________________and fell into the water. (BALANCE)
42.All the ______________from the last lecture were not allowed to attend (ABSENCE)
the interview for the coming project.
43.Ann ___________________ and picked up her riding hat. (MOUNT)
44. Jim is very disorganized and not very _________________ . (BUSINESS)
45. You look rather _______________ . Are you worried about something? (OCCUPY)
Question IV. There are FIVE mistakes in the text( from 46 to 50 ). Identify each mistake, write it down
and give your correction. (5pts)
As far back as 700 B.C, man has talked about childrencared for by wolves. Romulus and 1. ____
Remus, the legendarytwin founders of Rome, are purported to have been cared for by 2. ____
wolves. It is believed that wherea she-wolf loses her litter, she seeks a human child to take 3. ____
its place.
This seeming preposterous idea did not becomecredibleuntil the late nineteenth century
when a French doctor actually founda naked ten-year-old boy wandering in the woods. He 4. ____
did not walk erectly, could not speak intelligibly, or could he relate to people. He only 5. ____
growled and stared at them. Finally, the doctor won the boy's confidence and began to 6. ____
work withhim. After many long years of devoted and patient instruction, the doctor was 7. ____
able to have the boy to clothe and feed him, recognize and utter a number of words, as well 8. ____
as write letters and form words. 9. ____
10. ____
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word
in each space (10pts)
There is growing evidence that urbanizationhas a sharp impact on (51)______________, causing
changes that(52)____________wreak havocon precipitation patterns that supply the precious resource
of water. The heavy amounts of heat and pollution rising from cities (53)___________delay and
stimulate thefallof precipitation, deprivingsome areas of rain whiledrenching others.
Cities are(54)___________averageone to ten degrees warmerthan surrounding underdeveloped
areas. Cities also produce large amounts of (55)___________called aerosols, gaseous suspensions of dust
particles or byproducts from the(56)___________of fossil fuels. Both heat and aerosols
(57)___________ the dynamics of clouds. When hoisted (58)____________ in the sky, the microscopic
particles act as multiple surfaces on whichthe (59)___________in clouds can condense as tiny droplets.
This can prevent or delay the formation of larger raindrops that fall more easily from the sky,
(60)___________ it can cause the rain to fall in another location.
Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each
space. (10 pts)
Sound Advice for Language Learners
A recent issue of a language learning magazine has consulted a number of experts in the (61)
____ of second language acquisition. Their advice may prove invaluable for those (62)____ a language
course. One suggestion is that you (63) ____ whether you are likely to be successful at learning a
language? Did you enjoy studying languages at school, for example? Do you have enough time to learn a
language? The major (64)____will be your own time and effort. Therefore, you must be sure that the
course on offer leads to a (65)_____ qualification. Also, be realistic in your (66)______. If you don't set
achievable aims, you are more likely to give up. Do not be deceived (67)______thinking that the most
expensive courses are the best. (68) ______ around to get the best possible value for money. You should
also bear in mind that the quicker you learn a language, the more quickly you forget it. Sandra Miller, a
French teacher, tried to teach herself German by enrolling on a (69)______course. Already fluent in four
languages and with a sound knowledge of teaching methodology her chances of (70)______ progress
were high. Three years on she remembers very little. She feels her biggest mistake was not to follow up
her first experience. "I should have consolidated what I'd learn by continuing to study, even if it were by
myself."
61.A. branch B. field C. area D. domain
62.A. wondering B. thinking C. looking D.
considering
63. A. assess B. review C. balance D. survey
64. A. chance B. cost C. price D. evaluation
65.A. recognized B. understood C. valued D. regarded
66. A. sights B. ends C. objects D. goals
67. A. by B. about C. into D. in
68.A. nose B. push C. run D. shop
69. A. rapid B. crash C. quick D. fast
70. A. achieving B. doing C. making D.
gaining
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions below.(10 pts)
Tsunami is a Japanese word which means harbour waveand is used as the scientific term for
seismic sea wave generated by an undersea earthquake or possibly an undersea landslide or volcanic
eruption. When the ocean floor is tilted or offset during an earthquake, a set of waves is created similar
to the concentric waves generated by an object dropped into the water. Most tsunamis originate along
the Ring of Fire, a zone of volcanoes and seismic activity, 32.500 kilometres long that encircles the
Pacific Ocean. Since 1819, about 40 tsunamis have struck the Hawaiian Islands.
A tsunami can have wavelengths, or widths, of 100 to 200 km, and may travel hundreds of
kilometres across the deep ocean, reaching speeds of about 725 to 800 kilometres an hour. Upon entering
shallow coastal waters, the wave, which may have been only about half a metre high out at sea,suddenly
grows rapidly. When the wave reaches the shore, it may be 15 m high or more. Tsunamis have
tremendous energy because of the great volume of water affected. They are capable of obliterating
coastal settlements.
Tsunamis should not be confused with storm surges, which are domes of water that rise
underneath hurricanes or cyclones and cause extensive coastal flooding when the storms reach land.
Storm surges are particularly devastating if they occur at high tide. A cyclone and accompanying storm
surge killed an estimated 500.000 people in Bangladesh in 1970. The tsunami which struck south and
southeast Asia in late 2004 killed over 200 thousand people.
71.Scientifically, tsunami is the term for _______.
A. seismic sea wave. B. undersea earthquake.
C. undersea landslide. D.volcanic eruption.
72.What does the word “concentric” mean?
A.Wavy B.Having many centres
C.Having a common centre D.A ring
73.Which of the following may be a reason for a tsunami?
A.An inactive volcano. B.A landslide on the seashore.
C.An undersea earthquake. D.A storm.
74.What will happen when an object is dropped into the water?
A.Volcanic eruption may be a consequence. B.Some concentric waves will be generated.
C.There will be seismic activity. D. Earthquake may happen.
75. What is the zone of volcanoes and seismic activity in the world called?
A.The concentric wave. B.The tsunami.
C.The Pacific Ocean. D.The Ring of Fire.
76. What is the greatest speed of tsunamis travelling across the deep ocean?
A.200 kilometres an hour. B.700 kilometres an hour.
C. 800 kilometres an hour. D.150.000 kilometres an hour.
77. How high is the wave of the tsunami when it reaches the shore?
A.100 metres. B.200 metres. C.Half a metre. D.Fifteen metres.
78. How are tsunamis capable of obliterating coastal settlements?
A.They have tremendous energy due to the great volume of water affected.
B.They are a metre high or more.
C.They travel hundreds of kilometres.
D.They can strike the shore fifteen metres high.
79.What killed an estimated 500.000 people in Bangladesh?
A.A tsunami. B. A cyclone and accompanying storm surge.
C.A high tide. D.Flooding.
80.Which of the following is NOT true?
A.Tsunamis only occur in Asia.
B.A cyclone along with storm surge happened in Asia in 1970.
C.Storm surges are domes of water rising underneath hurricanes or cyclones.
D. Storm surges cause extensive coastal flooding.
SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed above it. (5 pts)
81. The company presents a gold watch to each of its retiring employees.
🡪Each
____________________________________________________________________________________
__.
82. They tried hard so that they would pass the exam.
🡪With
____________________________________________________________________________________
___.
83. On his way home Terry had an unfortunate accident .
🡪Terry
met _______________________________________________________________________________
__.
84.The Pacific Ocean is averagely deeper than the Atlantic.
🡪The average
_________________________________________________________________________________.
85.Peter said “I wish I were in your place”.
🡪 Peter said
__________________________________________________________________________________.
Question II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, using the
words given. You MUST use between TWO and FIVE words. (5 pts)
86. You’d feel better if you had a quiet holiday. (DO)
🡪 A quiet holiday___________________________________________________.
87. By chance I was in that town when the earthquake started. (HAPPENED)
🡪 I _________________________________________________that town when the earthquake started.
88. Despite knowing this place very well, I got lost. (THOUGH)
🡪 I got lost_________________________________________________________very well.
89. Were Jack not so affluent a man, she would not be dating with him. (BUT)
🡪__________________________________________________, she would not be dating with him.

90. They listened eagerly and attentively to the President’s speech. (EARS)
🡪 They____________________________________________________ to the President’s speech.
Question III. Write a paragraph 120-150 words (10 pts)
Should lower secondary school students play video games?Use specific examples and reasons to support
your idea.
ĐỀ SỐ 15
II. In most lines of the text, there is an extra word. Write the extra word or put a tick (✓) in the
gap if a line is correct. (0) and (00) have been done as examples.
There were eight of us in my family. We lived by in a very 0.………by…….
small house. It was always untidy because we left our toys 00.…..…✓……..
lying down around. At first, our parents picked our things up 1.………………
of for us. But eventually they decided not to put up with 2.………………
our untidiness any longer. They worked up out an original way 3.………………
to make it tidier. They placed one big box by on the front door 4.………………
for all the things that we dropped by on our way into the house 5.………………
from the garden. Each of us had our own personal box indoors, 6.………………
too. So, when anyone tidied the house, they could put with things 7.………………
into boxes instead of taking them upstairs. Our parents made 8.………………
us to pay a fine if we didn't pick up our things. We hated this 9.………………
punishment more than being told it off. We didn't get much pocket 10.………………
money and didn't want to waste it up on fines. So we sat down 11.………………
and worked out a schedule for tidying the house. We took off 12.………………
turns cleaning and made out sure the house was tidy when our 13.………………
parents came home. We have all grown it up and left home now 14.………………
but we agree that our parents definitely had the right idea. 15.………………
III. Read the passage carefully and choose the best option for each sentence.
Most of us lead unhealthy lives: we spend far too much time sitting down. If, in addition, we are
careless about our diets, our bodies soon become flabby and our systems sluggish. Then the guilt feelings
start : “I must go on a diet”, “ I must try to lose weight” “ I must get more fresh air and exercise”, “I must
stop smoking”, “I must try to keep fit” . There are some aspects of our unhealthy lives that we cannot
avoid. I’m thinking of such features of modern urban life as pollution, noise, rushed meals and stress.
But keeping fit is a way to minimize the effects of these evils.
The usual suggestion to a person who is looking for a way to keep fit is to take some sports. While it
is true that every weekend you will find people playing football and hockey in the local park, they are
outnumbered a hundred to one by the people who are simply watching them. It is an illusion to think that
you will get fit by going to watch the football match every Saturday, unless you count the effort required
to fight your way through the crowds to get to the best seats.
For those who do not particularly enjoy competitive sports – and it is especially difficult to do so if
you are not good at them – there are such solitary activities as cycling, walking and swimming. What
often happens, though, is that you do them in such a leisurely way, so slowly, that is doubtful if you are
doing yourself much good, apart from the fact that you have at least managed to get up out of your
armchair. Of course you can be very thorough about exercise, even fanatical. Many sports shops now sell
frightening pieces of apparatus, chest-expanders and other mysterious gadgets of shiny spring steel,
which, according to the advertisements, will bring you up to an Olympic standard of fitness, provided
that you follow a rigorous and regular programme of exercises. Such programmes generally involve long
periods of time bending these curious bits of metal into improbable shapes.
It all strikes me as utterly boring and also time-consuming. Somebody suggested recently that all
such effort was pointless anyway because if you spend half an hour every day jogging round the local
park, you will add to your life exactly the number of hours that you wasted doing the ‘jogging’ in the
first place. The argument is false even if the facts are correct, but there is no doubt that exercise in itself
can be boring.
Even after you have found a routine for keeping in shape, through sport or gymnastics or isometrics,
you are still only half way to good health, because, according to the experts, you must also master the art
of complete metal and physical relaxation. Now, this does not mean snoozing in the armchair or going
dancing ( which is a good form of exercise in itself ) . It has to do with deep breathing , emptying your
mind of all thoughts, meditation, and so on.
Yoga, as practiced in the West, is the most widely known and popular of the systems for achieving
the necessary state of relaxation. Contrary to popular belief, you do not have to learn a lot of strange
words or become a Buddhist in order to benefit from Yoga. It seems ironical, though, that as our lives
have improved in a material sense, we have found it increasingly necessary to go back to forms of
activity – physical effort on the one hand, and relaxation on the other – which were the natural way of
life of our forefathers.
1. Unfitness is the result of ___________.
A. lack of fresh air and exercise B. overeating, smoking and living in town
C. not eating properly and not getting enough exercise D. not taking part in sports
2. Pollution, noise and stress are examples of ___________.
A. causes of unfitness B. bad features of living in towns
C. the things we must avoid if we are to stay healthy D. industrial life and work
3. Our reaction to being out of condition is to ___________.
A. give up smoking and go on a diet B. start a programme of keep-fit exercises
C. make resolutions to lead a healthier life D.take up a sport
4. A lot of people who go to the park at the weekend are ___________.
A. football players B. football spectators C. keep-fit enthusiasts D. unfit
or unhealthy
5. You cannot really enjoy competitive sports unless you are ___________.
A. young enough to play them B. very good at them
C. fit enough to play them D. a solitary kind of person
6. The reason we don’t get much out of solitary sports such as walking is that we do not _________.
A. do them often enough B. have the encouragement of others
C. take them seriously enough D. do them vigorously enough
7. The writer does not like keep-fit programmes because he thinks ___________.
A. they take up too much time B. there are much easier ways of getting fit
C. they are a waste of time D. the apparatus is very silly
8. To be healthy we must ___________.
A. keep fit and active B. keep fit and learn to relax
C. be active and practise Yoga D. be very careful about what we eat and drink
9. Many people believe that in order to practise Yoga ___________.
A. you must learn a special vocabulary B. it is better to become a Buddhist
C. you must learn to relax completely D. you must wear special clothing
10. Our forefathers were healthy because ___________.
A. their way of life involved both exercise and relaxation
 B. they were careful to get plenty of fresh air and keep fit
C. they lived in the country and spent time out of doors
D. they had simple work to do and very little to worry about
IV. You are going to read an article about ice skating. Choose the most suitable heading from the
list A-I for each part (1-8) of the article. There is one extra heading which you do not need to use.
A Preparing yourself
B The benefits of the sport
C When things go wrong
D Different skating techniques
E A change in approach
F The right attitude
G Moving off
H Holding your body correctly
I How it all started
1. ______________
Ice skating has a history of thousands of years. Archaeologists have discovered skates made from
animal bone. It seems that bone skates were used until the introduction of iron into Scandinavia about the
year 200 AD. Among the Scandinavian upper classes, skating was seen as an essential skill.
2. ______________
In the early twentieth century, skating was stylish and reserved, but at the 1924 Winter Olympics, 11-
year-old Sonja Henie introduced a more athletics attitude which inspired a new wave of popularity.
Nowadays art and athletics are combined and modern skating is both graceful and physically
demanding.
3. ________________
For the beginner, balance and control are all important and speed can only increase with proficiency.
The position of your body plays a great part in balance. Legs slightly bowed and the knees bent keep the
body weight centred; in effect the body leans slightly forward in this position. For skating, probably
more than any other sport or recreation, relaxation is vital.
4. ________________
For the starting position, the heels should almost be touching and the feet should be turned outwards.
While pushing toward with the back foot, you make a very small movement with the other foot. Fairly
easy, isn’t it? If you can keep this up for a while, you can then slowly increase the length of your
movements as you gain experience.
5. ________________
Knowing how to fall must be learnt among the skater’s first skills. Even the best of the professionals
fall. In order to fall without injury, you should be as relaxed as possible. In this way the shock of hitting
the ice is lessened. To get up, use your hands to get into a kneeling position, then stand.
6. _______________
Once you have learnt to move on the ice with confidence, there are various styles to be practiced –
figure skating, free style, distance, speed, skating in pairs, and so on – but the basis of them all, and by
far the best approach, is first to learn figure skating and then elementary freestyle. With proper guidance
available at most of the ice rinks, the basic figures can soon be learnt and the turns, jumps, and spins of
elementary free style will soon follow.
7. _______________
If you look at any good or professional skater, you will see how relaxed they are and how easily they
move. To achieve this, an exercise programme should be regularly practiced. It can be dangerous to skate
with a stiff body and warm up exercises should at least include those for the legs, back and shoulders,
with special emphasis on the ankles and the knees. After a long or intense session, the same exercises
should be used afterwards to avoid stiffness.
8. _______________
 Skating improves balance, co-ordination, relaxation and movement. It improves heart and lung
activity and generally strengthens the body. Combined with swimming or jogging, it provides a great
programme for all-round health and fitness.
V. Read the text below and choose the best word or combination of words to fill in each blank.
Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the box provided.
AUDIOBOOKS - BOOKS ON CASSETTE
In the modern world, there is a wealth of leisure activities to choose from Entertainment industries
(1) __ for your leisure time. You can watch TV, listen to music, go to an art gallery or concert or, of
course, read a book. Sometimes it seems that reading is (2) __ because, (3) __ you’re a fast reader, it can
take a (4) __ amount of time to finish a novel, for example. But in the modern world, time is something
that can be in short supply.
Book publishers haven’t been (5) __ to realize this and are now selling a product which needn’t
(6) __ as much of your time but still tells you an excellent story. The new products is the audiobook -
cassette recordings of shortened novels, often read by well-known personalities or the authors
themselves. Audiobooks are relatively new but people are becoming more aware of them and sales are
increasing (7) __.
One of the attractions of audiobooks is that they’re (8) __ listening to the radio, only better. You
can listen to what you want when you want, and you won’t ever miss anything. Much of their appeal (9)
_ in their flexibility. They allow you do to other things while you’re listening, such as driving or (10) ___
the housework. For some people, audio books can be a much more enjoyable way of gaining knowledge
than reading.
1. A. chase B. compete C. oppose D. pursue
2. A. neglected B. declined C. lessened D. disposed
3. A. in spite B. no matter C regardless of D. even if
4. A. plentiful B. broad C. considerable D. lasting
5. A. behind B. slow C. delayed D. overdue
6. A. take up B. fill out C. go through D. pass by
7. A. ever since then B. all the time C. up until now D. from then on
8. A. as B. same C. like D. both
9. A. stands B. belongs C. bases D. lies
10. A. doing B. running C. making D. cleaning
VI. Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences of a letter.
Dear Sir or Madam.
81. I/ write/ complain/ hair drier/ buy/ your shop/ last Saturday/ and/ treatment/ I receive/ when/ I try/
return/ a few days later.
82.I buy/ hair drier/ Wednesday, November 22nd.
83. first time/ try/ use/ handle become/ extremely hot/ and within a few minutes/ part/ plastic casing/
begin/ melt.
84. I turn/ off/ immediately/ return/ with/ receipt/ your shop/ Saturday.
85. I explain/ situation/ one/ assistants/ ask/ money back/ but / be told/ speak/ you.
86. Unfortunately you/ not available/ that day/ I/ write instead.
87. I enclose/ hair drier/ copy of/ original receipt.
88. Please send/ full fund/ soon/ possible.
Yours faithfully.
ĐỀ SỐ 16
B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
PART IV. Choose the answer A, B, C or D which best fits the space in each of the following sentenc
es.
1. _________ saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.
 A. What the woman was B. That the woman was C. The woman was
D. When was the woman
2. “Do you mind if I take a seat?” “_____________.”
A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please
3. As the two teams left the football ground, the 100,000 _________ gave them a standing ovation.
A. bystanders B. spectators C. viewers D. audiences
4 My parents lent me the money. _________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
A. However B. Therefore C. Only if D. Otherwise
5. It is interesting to take _________ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.
A. over B. on C. in D. up
6. Jack made me _________ him next week.
A. promise calling B. to promise calling C. to promise to call D. promise to call
7. “I passed the TOEFL test, Mom.” “ _________.”
A. All right B. Thank you C. Well done D. Good luck
8. The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it _______ warmer.
A. was B. were C. has been D. had been
9. “Eric is really upset about losing his job.” “ Well, ____once myself, I can understand.”
A. Having been fired B. Fired C. Having fired D. Being fired
10. ________ you, I’d think twice about that decision. I could be a bad move.
A. Were I B. Should I be C. If I am
D. If I had been
11. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted _________ a good answer.
A. put up with B. keep pace with C. made way for
D. came up with
12. Not only ________ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.
A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused
13. The judge ________ the pedestrian for the accident.
A. accused B. Charged C. caught D. blamed
14. She had to borrow her sister’s car because hers was _________.
A. out of work B. out of order C. on duty D. off work
15. We should participate in the movement _________ to conserve the natural environment.
A. to organize B. organizing C. which organized D. organized
16. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. He is very_________.
A. openminded B. kindhearted C. narrowminded
D. absentminded
17. There is _________ in my bedroom.
A. a square wooden old table B. an old square wooden table
C. a wooden old square table D. an old wooden square table
18. “I am sorry. I broke the vase”. -“ _________.”
A. OK. Go ahead B. Yes, certainly C. Don’t worry. Things break
D. I’d rather not.
19. One’s fingerprints are _________ other person.
A. different from B. different from any C. differ from any
D. different from those of any
20. He is very happy because he passed his exam with __________ colours.
A. flying B. failing C. imagining D. changing
PART V. From four underlined parts, choose the one that needs correction then correct it.
For example : The teacher did not allow the students discussing the takehomeexam with each other.
discussing → to discuss
1. A Geiger counter is an electronic instrument is used to measure the presence and intensity of radiation.
2. A dolphin locates underwater objects in their path by making a series of clicking and whistling sounds.
3. In spite of its small size, Europe had a great impact on world history than other continents.
4. Before she moved here, Alene has been president of the organization for four years.
5. That Marta's been chosen as the most outstanding student on her campus make her parents very happy.
6. My cousin composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the major Broadway musicals.
7. Our civilization is so commonplace to us that rarely we stop to think about its complexity.
8. Ever since the world began, nations have difficulty in keeping peace with their neighbors.
9. Those of us who have a family history of heart disease should do yearly appointments with our doctors
.
10. If one had thought about the alternatives, he would not have chosen such difficult a topic for a term p
aper.
PART VI. Fill in each space in the following sentences with the most suitable prepositions.
1. I'm afraid Tom's _____________ work. But Jack's in. Would you like to speak to him?
2. Have you been to the theatre recently? ~ Yes, I was _____________ the Old Vie last night.
3. At first I found the work very tiring, but _____________ a few weeks I got used to it.
4. _____________ the daytime the streets are crowded but at night they are quite deserted.
5. I saw Tom at the bus stop this morning but couldn't speak to
him because we were standing ___________ a queue.
6. He is always in a hurry. He drives _____________ a tremendous speed.
7. Write ______________ ink and put your name on the top of the page.
8. The man with the pipe and red hair is the brother of the girl ______________ blue.

9. He sits at his desk all day with his head in his hands. It gets ______________ my nerves.
10. The children hastily changed _____________ bathing things and jumped into the river with shouts of
delight.
PART VII. Give the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage.
The __________ (say) “never judge a book by its cover” could not be more true for
Ridiculous Rules by Marjorie Allen. The cover is completely blank, whereas
the book is crammed full of wonderful examples and anecdotes. Allen is an __________ (speak)
critic of what is taught to native and non-native speakers of English, and has issued a
__________ (declare) of war against textbooks and style books which tell lies.
Take the ridiculous and __________ (mean) rule of never ending a sentence
with a preposition. The lovely if famous – story goes, that Winston Churchill,
wellknown for his numerous __________ (write) as well as for being British PrimeMinister during the
Second World War, received a manuscript back from anignorant ________(edit), who had told him rathe
r rudely that he had to __________(phrase) a sentence which ended with a preposition. Churchill respon
ded by making the simple yet forceful __________ (state) in the margin: “This is an
impertinence up with which I will not put.” – the __________ (imply)
being that not to end a sentence with a preposition often sounds ridiculous in English, Sadly,
Allen informs us that the story is probably mere __________ (hear), and that
Churchill may have actually only written “rubbish!” in the margin.
C. READING
PART VIII. Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each of the questions
Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects
of extreme
heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert
mammals also depart
from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to
keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the
expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals
allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be
fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius
have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The
overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed
the temperature may fall unusually
low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since
the heat of the first few
hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not
begin until
well into the day.Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point t
hat
would be fatal for nonadapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water
without harm to
itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally impo
rtant adaptation
is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes
in a short time, and
camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated
person, on the other hand, cannot
drink enough water to dehydrate at one session, because the human stomach
is not sufficiently big and because a too
rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication.
The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a
water hole
but can obtain food from grazing sparse and farflung pastures. Desertadapted mammals have the
further ability to fee
normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite
is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Weather variations in the desert B. Adaptations of desert animals
C. Diseased of desert animals D. Human use of desert animals.
2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
A. It helps them hide from predators.
B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.
C. It helps them see their young at night D. It keeps them cool at night.
3. The word "maintaining" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying
4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of ___________.
A. an animal with a low average temperature
B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel
C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures D. a desert animal with a constant bo
dy temperature
5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?
A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking
6. The word "tolerate" is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. endure B. replace C. Compensate
D. reduce
7. What causes water intoxication?
A. Drinking too much water very quickly B. Drinking polluted water
C. Bacteria in water D. Lack of water.
8. What does the author imply about desertadapted mammals?
A. They do not need to eat much food.
B. They can eat large quantities quickly
C. They easily lose their appetites.
D. They can travel long distances looking for food.
9. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?
A. To show how they use camels. B. To contrast them to desert mammals.
C. To give instructions about desert survival.
D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.
10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?
A. Variation in body temperatures B. Eating while dehydrated
C. Drinking water quickly D. Being active at night.
PART IX. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space.
When you read something in a foreign language, you frequently (1)______ across words you do not
fully
understand. Sometimes you check the meaning in a dictionary and sometimes you (2)______. The strate
gy you adopt
depends very much upon the (3)______ of accuracy you require and the time at your disposal.
If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is worth remembering that
every dictionary has its (4)______.
Each definition is only an approximation and one builds up an accurate
picture of the meaning of a word only after meeting it in a (5)______ of contexts. It is also imp
ortant to recognize the special dangers of dictionaries that
translate from English into your native language and vice
versa. If you must use a dictionary, it is usually far safer to
(6)______ an EnglishEnglish dictionary.
In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (7)______ you are allowed to use one, it is very
timeconsuming
to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You are, (8)______ , forced to guess
the meaning of unfamiliar
words.
When you find unknown words in an exam text, it is very easy to panic. However, if
you develop
efficient techniques for guessing the meaning, you will (9)______ a number of possible problems and hel
p
yourself to understand far more of the text than you at first thought likely.Two strategies which may help
you guess the meaning of a word are: using contextual clues, both within
the sentence and outside, and making use of clues (10)______
from the formation of the word.
1. A. put B. drop C. see D. come
2. A. look B. guess C. examine D. inspect
3. A. extent B. range C. degree D. level
4. A. limitations B. values C. advantages D. entry
5. A. multiple B. variety C. variation D. diversity
6. A. survey B. consult C. refer D. inquire
7. A. or else B. Provided C. Although D. Even if
8. A. so B. therefore C. completely D. so that
9. A. surpass B. get over C. go over D. overcome
10. A. derived B. extracted C. coming D. originated
D. WRITING
PART X. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one.
1. This will be my student's first performance in Canada.
→ This will be the first time .......................................................................................
2. This course will take us six months to complete.
→ In six months time ...............................................................................................
3. The number of people who understand his ideas exceed his expectations.
→ More people ......................................................................................................
4. She'll have to make her presentation at the end of his speech.
→ The moment he ..................................................................................................
5. Sharon will finish her exams. Then she will have more free time.
→ Once ...............................................................................................................
6. Both Mary and Peter prefer jazz to classical music.
→ Neither............................................................................................................
7. They repaired my car at the garage in town.
→ I......................................................................................................................
8. This is the last time I will speak to you.
→ I.....................................................................................................................
9. I prefer staying in to going out.
→ I'd rather........................................................................................................
10. They passed the driving test because of the easy questions.
→ If ................................................................................................................
ĐỀ SỐ 27
Part A: PHONETICS ( 5pts )
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (
2pts )
1. A. lose B. chose C. close D. rose
2. A. breath B. spread C. break D. headline
II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others. (3pts)
3. A. advocate B. nonsense C. neglect D. rubbish
4. A. discriminate B. intellectual C. hesitation D. universal
5. A. impression B. remember C. character D. attention
Part B : LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR ( 45 pts )
I.Choose the option A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase which best completes each
sentence.
6. You find it hard to ______ your temper if you think someone is making a fool out of you.
A. cool B. lose C. recover D. keep
7. Anna has a job as a personal assistant, her main role is to ______ her boss.
A. take charge of B. keep an eye on C. look after D. take care of
8. ________, the examinees knew it was time to stop.
A. Hearing the bell B. When heard the bell C. To hear the bell D. To have been heard the
bell
9. Out of the water ______.
A. jumped the penguins B. the penguins jumped C. did the penguins jump D. the penguins jump
10. “Why didn’t you pull____ at the red traffic light?”, asked the policeman.
A. over B. along C. down D. up
11. My classmate,________ father has been in hospital for a month, looked depressed this morning.
A. which B. who C. of whom D. whose
12. Some people were hurt in the accident but only one_______ to hospital.
A. has taken B. has been taking C. was taken D. was taking
13. What happened_________ their car broke down on the motorway so they didn’t get to Jo’s wedding
on time.
A. to be that B. being that C. was that D. to that
14. The selling price of the house and__________ is 24,000 USD
A. many furnitures B. some furniture C. a lot of furnitures D. some furnitures
15. Nobody is ready to go,__________?
A. are they B. isn’t he C. is he D. aren’t they.
16. George: “In my opinion, action films are exciting.” - Frankie: “_________”
A. There’s no doubt about it. B. You shouldn’t have said that.
C. What an opinion! D. Yes. Congratulations!
17. At the 22nd SEA Games, athletes from 11 participating countries competed ______ 32 sports.
A. up B. in C. into D. on
18. The survey was to find out the young people’s attitudes ______ love.
A. towards B. above C. beneath D. with
19. My brother didn’t feel well. ______, he didn’t go to work yesterday.
A. However B. Therefore C. Though D. So
20. Should you study hard, you _______ the exam into university.
A. pass B. will pass C. would pass D. would have
II. The following passage contains 10 errors. Find and correct them (10pts)
Most of the joggers who are overweigh are reasonable for talking about, worrying with, and being
obsessed with their weight. Since many people start jogging to lose weight, it is not surprised that body
size is important. More and more people are on the diet. 50% of the women and approximetely 25% of
the men in the US are watching what they eat. Body weight is the second most talk between joggers-
heart disease and high bleeding pressure are the first! There are many factors that effect your weight.
They include: body type, diet, exercise level, sex and age. What may be an “ideal” weight for you in the
age of 27 may not be ideal while you’re 54. And your ideal weight will probably be different during
racing season when you were in a specific training phase.
III. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. ( 10pts )
31. I shared a flat with him when we were students. He always __________ (complain) about my
untidiness
32. By the time we get there, I’m afraid the meeting __________(end)
33. Hello! You (be)______________ Helen. I’m Peter’s brother, George.
34. We (help)________________ but you didn’t tell us that you were in trouble.
35. Only yesterday I __________________(realise) what was going on.
36. _____________________I (come) here before 5 a.m, I would have met the doctor.
37. As soon as the teacher _____________________ (come), the students stopped talking.
38. It is advisable that Mary _____________________ (go) to the gym everyday to get over her
depression
39. We couldn’t risk _____________________ (leave) him alone.
40. From the clink of dishes, one can tell that supper _____________________ (prepare).
IV. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pts )
41. Friend’s family has suffered from his __________________. EXPEND
42. The water from the stream should be __________________ before you drink it. PURE
43. John told everyone that he worked for a large company, but the company is ______________.EXIST
44. Jim is very disorganized and not very___________________. BUSINESS
45. The principal said some___________________ words to the pupils before the exam. COURAGE
46. Although we were in danger, Ann seemed quite____________________ . CONCERN
47. Some parents feel dismayed because of their children’s_____________________ BEHAVE
48. My sister has good _____________________ skills. She can relate to teenagers very well.
PERSON
49. These young people are ____________________supporters of the new plan of our city.
ENTHUSIASM
50.My uncle is in his forties. He is a well-built ____________________man AGE
Part C : READING ( 30 pts )
I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts
)
What do you know about Bill Gates?
Bill Gates is a very important person in the computer industry. He has been __51__ executive
officer of Microsoft coroporation for several years. He is also the richest person in the United States.
How did he do it?
He learned a lot from his parents. While Bill was going to school, his father went to college, got a
__52__ and became a successful lawyer. From this, Bill learned that you have to work hard if you want
something. His mother was a very busy teacher, but she also enjoyed going to parties. From this, he
learned something __53__ : If you want to work hard and play hard, you have to make a schedule.
When Bill was young, he spent a lot of time ___54___. While most of his friends were playing, Bill
read all of the World Book Encyclopedia and finished it when he was 8 years old.
Bill’s childhood was not __55__ work, however. He used to play a lot of sports such as swimming,
water-skiing, tennis. He was very serious __56__ sports. He loved winning and he hated losing. When
Bill got older, he spent more and more time working or playing on a computer.
Before he was 20, Bill ___57___ the world’s first computer language for the personal computer.
When he was thinking _58__ the future, he realized something important. He thought that every home
was going to have a computer, and every computer would need software, his software. He said, “I’m
going to __59__ my first million dollars on software __60__ the time I’m 25.” And he did
51. A. main B. chief C. principle D. top
52. A. certificate B. license C. degree D. notice
53. A. different B. else C. other D. otherwise
54. A. lone B. lonely C. alone D. singly
55. A. all B. altogether C. entirely D. wholly
56. A. with B. to C. on D. about
57. A. evolved B. originated C. set up D. developed
58. A..on B. at C. about D. of
59. A. fetch B. obtain C. create D. make
60. A. at B. by C. until D. during
II. Supply the most suitable word for each blank. (10 pts)
Man probably could not live without the help of animals. The (61) __________ of animals in the
balance of nature ranks as their most important service to man.
Animals also (62) __________ man by supplying him with many foods and other useful products.
(63)__________ animals, man would have no meat, milk, eggs, or honey, or wool, fur, or silk.
For thousands of years, man has caused changes in the animal kingdom. He has tamed many kinds
of animals and used them for food and clothing. He has killed and driven (64) __________ animals that
once attacked him or interfered with his use of land. Today, he tries to (65)__________ many kinds of
animals that are in danger of dying out. (66)_________ man, most plants depend on animals for many of
their basic needs. Without animals, many plants could not (67)___________reproduce. For example,
many plants with flowers depend on bees and other insects to (68)__________ their pollen from plant to
plant. Many oak trees grow from acorns that squirrels burry and then forget, or from acorns that deer step
on an push deep into the soil. Birds often fly from one place to (69) __________ with seeds clinging to
their feet. The seeds may sprout a great (70)__________ from the parent plant.
III. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.(10pts)
1 In the 20th century, magazines have been a major growth area of popular publishing. Specialist
magazines cater for every imaginable field and activity. In the United Kingdom, over 12,000
 periodicals, magazines, bulletins, annuals, trade journals, and academic journals are published on a
regular basis. There are some 40 women’s magazines and over 60 dealing with particular sports,
5 games, hobbies, and pastimes. Although some US magazines, such as The Saturday Evening Post,
has succumbed to the competition of television, many continue to have enormous international
circulations, The Reader’s Digest over 16 million, The National Geographic over 10 million. For
many people, magazines have been the most available and widely used form of continuing
education, providing information about history, geography, literature, science, and the arts, financial
10 management, psychology, even marriage and family life.
Until the rise of television, magazines were the most available form of cheap, convenient
entertainment in the English-speaking world. Radio served a similar function, but it was more
limited in what it could do. Magazines and television, however, both address the more powerful
th
15 visual sense. During the third quarter of the 20 century, coincident with a dramatic rise in the
popularity of television, many general-interest, especially illustrated magazines went out of
business. The shift in attention of a mass audience from reading such magazines to watching
20 television has been a major factor in this decline, but it is an implicit tribute from television to the
older genre that its programs are generally organized in a single format and content.
71. According to the passage, which of the following magazines is no longer printed?
A. The Saturday Evening Post B. The Reader’s Digest
C. The Nation D. The National Geographic
72. In the line 2, the phrase “every imaginable field” is closest in meaning to
A. all imaginary fields in stories and poems B. all images in a camera’s field of vision
C. all professions that one can think of D. all trade journals about farming and
psychology
73. In line 7 the word “succumbed” means
A. set up for B. brought up to C. taken up by D. given
in to
74. In the line 8 the word “circulations” is closest in meaning to
A. the number of blood banks selling magazines B. the number of readers of a magazine
C. the number of international magazines D. the number of sold copies of a magazine
75. which of the following does the author describe as limited in what it could do?
A. radio B. magazines C. movies D. television
76. The passage implies that magazines
A. are less visual than radio B. put television out of business
C. influence television programs D. have a limited range of subjects
77. The word “it” in line 15 refers to
A. television B. publishing C. entertainment D. radio
78. The passage mainly discusses
A. the rise and fall of the radio business B. the growth and decline of magazines in the
th
20 century
C. magazines and continuing education D. the decline of international circulation
79. What does the author say about mass audiences?
A. They have little influence on communications in the 20th century
B. They have gone out of business
C. They get information about gardening and psychology from radio
D. They have shifted their attention from magazines to television.
80. From the passage it can be inferred that
A. movies have replaced magazines B. the author is fond of magazines
C. almost all magazines are printed in English D. home decorating magazines are
dramatic
Part D : WRITING ( 20 pts )
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to
the sentence printed before it.(5pts)
81. We continued waving until the train could not be seen any more. (SIGHT)
................................................................................................................
82. It took her quite a long time to recover from her illness. (OVER)
................................................................................................................
83. They say Linda won a special prize. (SAID)
................................................................................................................
84. I applied for the job but was turned down. (APPLICATION)
................................................................................................................
85. I’ll do the ironing in the end (ROUND)
................................................................................................................
II. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. ( 5pts )
86. Alice lost all her hope. She decided to stop her business
→ Such ................................................................................................................
87. Uncle Timber fell down the stairs a few years ago and hasn’t felt right since.
→ Ever .................................................................................................................
88. I’m sure she didn’t do it on purpose.
→ She can’t .................................................................................................................
89. If someone understands this book, they are cleverer than I am.
→ Anyone ...................................................................................................................

90. She didn’t shed a tear when the story ended in tragedy.
→ Not ........................................................................................................................
III. Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? “Grades (marks) encourage students to
learn”. Write an essay (about 150 to 200 words) to express your personal point of view.(10 pts)
_________________ The End __________________________
ĐỀ SỐ 17
B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (8.0 points).
9. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have ________ any solutions.
A. looked into B. thought over C. got round to D. come up with
13. Sarah delivered a/an ________ appeal to the court and asked for mercy.
A. sensational B. sentimental C. emotional D. affectionate
15. She ________ modern art. She visits all the local exhibitions.
A. looks down on B. goes in for C. fixes up with D. catches up with
17. Many habitats change ________ the types of plants and animals that live there.
A. with respect to B. in respect for C. as for D. as against
19. ________, the catfish is prized for its state.
A. With ugly look B. As looking ugly C. As it is looking ugly D. Ugly as it looks
20. He has been unable to find a job ________ with his ability as an accountant.
A. appropriate B. suitable C. requisite D. commensurate
21. The answer Henry gave was so confusing that his lecturer could hardly make ______ of it at all.
A. sense B. meaning C. interpretation D. intelligibility
22. Considered America’s first great architect, ______.
A. many of the buildings at Harvard University were designed by Henry Hobson Richardson
B. it was Henry Hobson Richardson who designed many of the buildings at Harvard University
 C. Henry Hobson Richardson designed many of the buildings at Harvard University
D. Harvard University has many buildings that were designed by Henry Hobson Richardson.
23. “Jack, can you help me push the piano to the corner of the hall to ______ our party?” said the teacher
A. give place to B.make place for C. take room for D. make room for
24. The surrealistic movement in art in the 1920s and 1930s placed ______ is pictured in the unconscious
and often incorporated dreamlike images.
A. to emphasize it B. an emphasis on what C. an emphasis on it D. emphasize
what
25. “Frankly, Ms. Adamson works ______ that her figures never need ______,” said the General
Manager.
A. such efficiently that/ to check B. so efficient that/ checking
C. such an efficient that/ to be checked D. so efficiently that/ to be checked
26. It is highly recommended that language learners in general and English learners ______ should learn
the language in the native community so as to master it.
A. in particular B.on the whole C. in short D. on the other hand
27. Lama:“What’s your greatest phobia, Carolina?
Carolina: “______”
A. I’m afraid not. B. I haven’t made up my mind. C. What an absurd idea! D. Worms,
definitely.
28. Waiter:“How would you like your steak, sir?
Man: “______”
A. Not too bad B.Very good C. Rare, please D. Yes, of course I like it
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points).
29. The (PREDICT) __________________ weather in the mountains can make climbing extremely
hazardous.
30. Both sides have shown a distinct lack of (ENTHUSIAST) ________________________ for
discussion.
31. The woman tried to break into a security file for which she was not (AUTHORITY)
________________.
32. Life (EXPECT) __________________ for both men and women has improved greatly in the past 50
years.
33. Julie Johnson and Mark Thomas, aged 19 and 20 (RESPECT) _________, are taking part in the
competition.
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (3.0 points).
34. The American architect Frank Lloyd developed a theory of architecture stressed the needs of the
people who used it. A B C D
35. Children subjected to violence, exploration, abuse, and neglect are in risk of death, poor physical and
mental health, HIV/ AIDS infection, and educational problems
36. The works of early American woodcarvers had many artistic qualities, but these
craftsmen probably did not think of them as
artists.
C. READING:
I. There are FIVE blanks in the passage below. From the phrases / sentences in the box, choose the
most suitable for each blank. There is ONE EXTRA option that you DO NOT need to use (5.0
points)
A. by attracting as many as several hundred thousand international students to their countries
B. so are not classed as international students
C. as defined by the Immigration Control and Refugee Recognition Act
D. in accordance to its own national education system
E. preferred by international students are the United States, United Kingdom, Germany, France, Canada
and Australia
F. by sending hundreds of thousand students to study abroad
The definition of "international student" varies in each country (41) ______. In Australia, international
students are defined as those studying onshore only with visa subclasses 570 to 575, excluding students
on Australian-funded scholarships or sponsorship or students undertaking study while in possession of
other temporary visas. New Zealand citizens do not require a visa to study in Australia, (42) ______. In
Japan, international students are defined as foreign nationals who study at any Japanese university,
graduate school, junior college, college of technology, professional training college or university
preparatory course on a “college student” visa, (43) ______.
According to the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) in their
2009 World Conference on Higher Education report, over 2.5 million students were studying outside
their home country. UNESCO also predicted that the number of international students might rise to
approximately 7 million by the year 2020. The main destinations (44) ______. Overall, the number of
international students more than doubled to over 2 million between 2000 and 2007.
However, the sharpest percentage increases of international students have occurred in New Zealand,
Korea, the Netherlands, Greece, Spain, Italy and Ireland. In recent years, some Asian and Middle East
countries have started to attract more international students. These regions have entered the market with
declared ambitions to become regional education centers (45) ______.
II. Choose the most suitable heading from the box for each paragraph below. There is ONE
EXTRA heading that you DO NOT need to use (5.0 points).
HEADINGS
A. The amount that American eat
B. Americans even getting fatter
C. Changing meal times everywhere
D. Why Americans love fast food
E. Unhealthy American schools
F. How American schools deal with obesity among teenagers
46: ______
In the past year, the adult obesity rate rose in 48 of America’s 52 states. Despite the campaigns to make
people aware of the dangers of over-eating, about 119 million, or 64% of US adults are either overweight
or obese. Worryingly, this figure is predicted to rise to 73% by the end of this year. What does this mean
for America? Already 300,000 deaths each year are caused by obesity (only smoke kills more people),
and the annual cost to the country is around $100 billion.
47: ______
Many people blame for the fast food industry, along with sedentary life styles, for the worrying increase.
The average American now consumes about three hamburgers and four portions of French fries every
week. That’s 90 grams of fat and 2.250 calories (the average person needs about 2.000 calories a day). A
recent survey found that every month 90% of America children eat at least one meal in fast food
restaurant.
48: ______
Most Americans know that fast food isn’t good for them. It is high in calories, fat, salt and sugar. Yet
fast-food restaurants are part of American life. After World War II, higher salaries and productivity,
together with technological developments and increased consumerism, made fast food restaurants
popular. It presented a modern lifestyle, and is still a popular place for teenagers to get together with
friends. The food is cheap, and many say they love the taste. The advertising is often aimed at children,
with offers of entertainment and free gifts.
49: ______
Another in fast food sales – not only in the USA, but all over the world – is our increasingly busy
lifestyles. In the past, families ate a home-cooked meal together at dinner time. These days, meals can be
eaten at any hour of the day, and people rely on easy, instant food – not always nutritious – that is
available “24/7”. America invented the “TV dinner”, and it is something most people around the world
now enjoy.
50: ______
Finding nutritious food is also difficult in schools, which is often have contracts with fast food supplies
and drinks companies. Teenage boys in the US each drink an average of 868 cans of fizzy drinks per
year. Exercise in school has become less important too. A recent report showed that half of all US teens
aged 12 – 21 got only America’s problem – Europe is also getting faster. It is estimated that over one
million children in the UK are obese and this number has trebled over the past 20 years.
III. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points).
Childhood is the time when there are (51) ______ responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child has
good parents, he is fed, looked after and loved, (52) ______ he may do. It is improbable that he will ever
again in his life be given so much without having to do anything in return. In (53) ______, life is always
presenting new things to the child - things that have lost their interest for older people because they are
too well-known. A child finds pleasure playing in the rain, or in the snow. His first visit to the seaside is
a marvellous adventure. (54) ______, a child has his pain. He is not so free to do as he wishes as he
thinks older people are: he is continually told not to do things, or being punished (55) ______ what he
has done wrong. His life is therefore not perfectly happy.
When a young man starts to (56) _ his own living, he becomes free from the discipline of school and
parents, but at the same time he is forced to accept responsibilities. He can no longer expect (57) _ to pay
for his food, his clothes and his room, but he has to work if he wants to live comfortably. If he spends
most time playing about in a day he used to as a child, he will be hungry. And if he breaks the laws of
society as he used to break the laws of his parents, he may go to prison. If, however, he works hard,
keeps out of troubles and has good health, he can have the greatest happiness of seeing himself make
steady (58) _ in his job and of building up for himself his own position in society.
Old age has always been thought of as the worst age to be, but it is not necessary for the old to be
unhappy. With old age (59) ______ wisdom and the ability to help others with advice wisely given. The
old can have the joy of seeing their children making progress in life: they can watch their grandchildren
growing up around them, and perhaps best of all, they can, if their life has been a useful one, feel the
happiness of having come (60) ______ the battle of life safely and of having reached a time when they
can lie back and rest, leaving others to continue the fight.
51. A. little B. few C. a little D. a few
52. A. whenever B. wherever C. whatever D. whosoever
53. A. short B. term C. reality D. addition
54. A. However B. But C. Therefore D. Moreover
55. A. because B. for C. at D. by
56. A. take B. have C. create D. earn
57. A. other B. another C. others D. someone
58.A. progress B. achievement C. improvements D. accomplishments
59. A. coming B. come C. came D. had come
60. A. out B. across C. through D. back
IV. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question (10 points).
Line Paul Bunyan is perhaps America’s best-known folk hero. A fictional logger of incredible strength,
(5) he was most likely based on an actual nineteenth-century logger from the northern United States or
Canada. As a folk hero, he struck a chord with Americans on some level, perhaps because he was
incredibly strong but also because he was hard-working and capable, ingenious in solving
(10) problems, and fun-loving.
 Though there is evidence that Paul Bunyan tales were part of oral tradition in the nineteen century,
Paul Bunyan stories did not appear in written form until the early twentieth century. Journalist
(15) James McGillivray included descriptions of Bunyan in a series of essay entitled “The Round River
Drive” which appeared in a number of Midwestern newspapers between 1906 and 1910. However,
it was through an extensive advertising campaign that Paul Bunyan moved solidly into print.
Recognizing the appeal of Paul Bunyan as a figure for his company’s advertising, William
Laughead, an advertising executive for the Red River Lumber Company, initiated a campaign that
(20) consisted of a series of publications featuring Paul Bunyan. For several decades, the company
distributed these publications free of charge and made no attempt to obtain a copyright on them. In
fact, the company vigorously encouraged other writers to make use of Paul Bunyan because it felt
that the use of this character enhanced the name recognition of the Red River Lumber Company
inasmuch as the name of the folk hero and the name of the company had become interwoven.
(25) The Bunyan stories published by Red River and further circulated by others were tall tales of
gigantic proportions. In these tales, Banyan is depicted as a man of superhuman proportions, who is
strong, hard-working, entrepreneurial, and innovative. In one story, for example, Paul is credited
with digging the Great Lakes in order to create a watering hole for his giant ox, Babe. In another of
these tales, Paul caused an entire winter of blue snow to fall by swearing a blue streak after he
injured himself by smashing his thumb with a large hammer. A third story in the series describes
Paul’s role in establishing the Mississippi River.
Fascination with Paul Bunyan has continued to grow, and today he is a standard of American
folklores. The prevalence of Bunyan as a figure of folklore today is evidenced by references to him
in countless stories, cartoons, poems, and songs as well as the numerous community festivals and
logging competitions featuring Paul Bunyan that can be found throughout the sections of the
country where logging has strong tradition.
61. The purpose of this passage is to ______.
A. present the actual feats of a real-life logger B. provide an overview of American folktales
C. describe logging in North America D. discuss a “larger than life” folk hero
62. It is NOT stated in the passage that Paul Bunyan is known for his ______.
A. unusual strength B. dedication to work C. ingenuity in difficult
situations D. serious nature
63. The passage states that Paul Bunyan tales first appeared ______.
A. in oral stories B. in advertising C. in newspapers D. in a series of essays
64. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred about the Red River Lumber Company’s advertising
campaign featuring Paul Bunyan?
A. It endured for quite a time.
B. The company did not protect its ownership of the stories.
C. The campaign did little to enhance the company’s profitability.
D. The company wanted the name Paul Bunyan to be known as widely as possible.
65. The pronoun “them” in line 14 refers to ______.
A. publications B. series C. decades D. writers
66. The word “interwoven” in line 17 could be best replaced by ______.
A. unfashionable B. mixed together C. not compatible D. too separate
67. Where in the passage does the author discuss a weather phenomenon that Paul Bunyan supposedly
caused?
A. Lines 3-5 B. Lines 14-17 C. lines 20-23 D. Lines 25-29
68. The word “countless” in line 27 could be best replaced by the expression ______.
A. an overestimated number of B. an insubstantial number of
C. a large number of D. a specified number of
69. Which paragraph describes the plots of some of the tales of Paul Bunyan?
 A. The second paragraph B. The third paragraph C. The fourth paragraph D. The fifth
paragraph
70. The author’s tone in this passage is ______.
A. humorous B. neutral C. sarcastic D. pessimistic
Part 4: Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage below. Write
it on your answer sheet. (2.0 points)
When an animal species is (1) ____________ endangered, it means that the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has evaluated it as nearly (2) ____________, which means that a
significant portion of its range has already died (3) ____________ and the rate of birth is lower than the
species' death rate.
Today, more and more animal and plant species are on the verge of extinction because of a (4)
____________ of major factors that cause a species to become endangered, and as you might expect,
humans play a role in quite a few of them - in fact, the biggest threat to endangered animals is human
encroachment on their habitats. By analyzing and grouping many individual cases, (5) ____________,
we find the same broad causes appearing again and again. They are habitat destruction, exotic species,
and overexploitation. Among other (6) ____________ threatening particular species are limited:
distribution, disease, and pollution. Limited distributions are often a (7) ____________ of other threats:
populations confined to one or a few small areas because of habitat loss, for example, may be
disastrously affected by random factors.
Diseases can have severe (8) __________ on species lacking natural genetic protections against
particular pathogens, like the rabies and canine distemper viruses that are currently devastating carnivore
populations in East Africa. Domestic (9) _________ are usually the reservoirs of these and other diseases
affecting wild populations, showing once again that human activities lie at the root of most causes of
endangerment. Pollution has seriously done harm (10)__________ number of terrestrial species,
although species living in freshwater and marine ecosystems are also suffering.
D. WRITING:
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before (5.0 points).
71. Something must be done to help the victims of the earthquake in Mexico.
Urgent ……………………………….
72. It was careless of you to allow your 16-year-old son to drive your car.
You should ………………………………………………………………………
73. I shall never lend John any money, no matter what happens.
Under no ………………………………………………….………
74. Someone has suggested abolishing income tax.
It …………………………………………………………
75. Thank you for reminding me about the timetable, otherwise I would have missed the last train.
If……………………..………………………………………
ĐỀ 18
PART B. PHONETICS
Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose main stress differs from that of the others in each
group.
1. A. inhabitant B. curriculum C. academic D. diversity
2. A. absorb B. capture C. abroad D. achieve
3. A. volunteer B. engineer C. referee D. committee
4. A. atmosphere B. bachelor C. abundant D. natural
5. A. picturesque B. potential C. outstanding D. nutrition

PART C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Section 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences. 1.
He worked at workshops for free ___________ develop his knowledge of classic vehicles.
A. in order that B. so that C. in order to D. in addition to

2. Parents need to be able to modify their position in the ___________ of what their child tells.
A. bright B. light C. lamp D. torch

3. It is concluded that frequent _________ to the sun can have a negative effect on the skin.
A. exposure
B. expose
C. exposed
D. exposedly

4. In most _________ developed countries, up to 50% of _________ population enters higher education
at some time in their lives.
A. Ø / a
B. the / Ø
C. Ø / the
D. the / the

5. Items purchased in this store will only be replaced on production of a _________ receipt.
A. reasonable B. valid C. mint D. adequate
6. She believes that all countries should _________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
7. The school was closed for a month because of serious _________ of fever.
A. outcome
B. outburst
C. outbreak
D. outset
8. Millie’s father accused her of _________, which made her sad.
A. trying not hard enough B. not trying enough hard
C. not trying hard enough D. trying not enough hard

9. He _________ his life to the skills of the surgeons who are working at the local hospital.

A. owes B. Keeps C. Preserves D. maintains

10. John: “Excuse me, could you take our picture? ” Jane: “___________ ”
A. We can store it. You can get it tomorrow. B. Sure, give me your camera. Ok, say cheese
everyone!
C. I’m sorry. My mobile phone needs recharging! D. It’s a pity that I don’t have a family picture
here.

Section 2. Give the correct form of the word in brackets to best complete each sentence.
One of the most delightful places in China is a small island called Gulangyu. It is often called “piano
island” because of the large number of ( 1. MUSIC) _________ who live there. But perhaps Gulangyu’s
greatest appeal is that although it has 20,000 permane nt (2. RESIDE) _________ mostly living in the
centre community one kilometer wide, there are no high-rise buildings and motor vehicles and bicycles
are banned. Personal ( 3. BELONG) _________ are carried, or pushed on small wagons.
While Gulangyu is a popular day trip for people from the neighbouring island of Xiamen, it seems a
relatively ( 4. DISCOVER ) _________ destination for visitors from else where in China
or further afield. One reason why Gulangyu has not been besieged by Chinese visitors is its ( 5.
GEOGRAPHY) _________ location. Several mountain ranges on mainland China mean that road and
rail ( 6. CONNECT) _________ from the prosperous cities to its east and south are very slow. Air
travel, via Xiamen airport, is a possibility, but it is too expensive for the majority of visitors.
There are certainly enough attractions for those tourists who do arrive, including parks, an aquarium,
and souvenir shops. There are also some excellent restaurants, though they may charge (7.
CONSIDER) _________ more than those found in other, less ( 8. PICTURE) _________ parts of the
country. However, one key tourist business that is not much in ( 9. EVIDENT) _________ is hostels –
there are only a ( 10. HAND) _________ in the centre of the island.
Section 3. The passage below contains five mistakes in five different lines. Write down the line
numbers, the corresponding mistakes, and correct them.
It seems that the mystery of why the Pyramids were built may have solved. Until quite recently people
got used to think that they were just tombs for pharaohs. Instead, the connection with astronomy seems
much more important. Egyptologists have often asked themselves how long it spent to build them and
why people built them in the first place. Experts came up with a suggestion that the Egyptians may have
believed that the River Nile was the earthly equivalent of the Milky Way. Many agree that the size of
the three Giza Pyramids are in proportion to the three stars of Orion. Nothing, then, was by the chance.
Rather, the souls of dead pharaohs were deliberately being projected through shafts to reach their goal
of the Orion constellation.

PART D. READING
Section 1. Read the following extract and choose the option (A, B, C or D) which best answers
each of the following questions.
The term "folk song" has been current for over a hundred years, but there is still a good deal of
disagreement as to what it actually means. The definition provided by the International Folk Music
Council states that folk music is the music of ordinary people, which is passed on from person to person
by being listened to rather than learned from the printed page. Other factors that help shape a folk song
include: continuity (many performances over a number of years); variation (changes in words and
melodies either through artistic interpretation or failure of memory); and selection (the acceptance of a
song by the community in which it evolves).
When songs have been subjected to these processes their origin is usually impossible to trace. For
instance, if a farm laborer were to make up a song and sing it to a couple of friends who like it and
memorize it, possibly when the friends come to sing it themselves one of them might forget some of the
words and make up new ones to fill the gap, while the other, perhaps more artistic, might add a few
decorative touches to the tune and improve a couple of lines of text. If this happened a few times, there
would be many different versions, the song's original composer would be forgotten, and the song would
become common property. This constant reshaping and recreation is the essence of folk music.
Consequently, modern popular songs and other published music, even though widely sung by people
who are not professional musicians, are not considered folk music.
The music and words have been set by a printed or recorded source, limiting scope for further artistic
creation. These songs' origins cannot be disguised and therefore they belong primarily to the composer
and not to a community.
The ideal situation for the creation of folk music is an isolated rural community. In such a setting folk
songs and dances have a special purpose at every stage in a person's life, from childhood to death. Epic
tales of heroic deeds, seasonal songs relating to calendar events, and occupational songs are also likely to
be sung.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Themes commonly found in folk music B. Elements that define folk music
C. Influences of folk music on popular music D. The standards of the International Folk Music
Council
2. Which of the following statements about the term "folk song" is supported by the passage?
A. It has been used for several centuries. B. The International Folk Music Council invented it.
C. It is considered to be out-of-date. D. There is disagreement about its meaning.
3. The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to _________.
A. community B. song C. acceptance D. memory

4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a characteristic of the typical folk song?
A. It is constantly changing over time. B. It is passed on to other people by being
performed.
C. It contains complex musical structures. D. It is usually impossible to trace its origin.
5. The word "subjected" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. reduced B. modified C. exposed D. imitate

6. The author mentions the farm laborer and his friends in order to _________.
A. explain how a folk song evolves over time.
B. illustrate the importance of music to rural workers.
C. show how subject matter is selected for a folk song.
D. demonstrate how a community chooses a folk song.
7. According to the passage, why would the original composers of folk songs be forgotten?
A. Audience prefers songs composed by professional musicians.
B. Singers dislike the decorative touches in folk song tunes.
C. Numerous variations of folk songs come to exist at the same time.
D. Folk songs are not considered an important form of music.
8. The word "essence" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. basic nature B. first phase C. full extent D. growing importanc

9. The author mentions that published music is not considered folk music because ________.
A. the original composer can be easily identified
B. the songs attract only the young people in a community
C. the songs are generally performed by professional singers
D. the composers write the music in rural communities
10. Which word best describes the tone of the passage above?
A. humorous B. argumentative C. informative D. sarcastic
Section 2. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D to complete each
numbered gap in the passage below.
Parents whose children show a special interest in a particular sport have a difficult decision to (1)
_______ about their children ’s career. Should they let their childre n train to become top sportsmen and
sportswomen? For many children it ( 2) _______ starting very young and school work, going out with
friends and other ( 3) _______ have to take second place. It’s very difficult to explain to a young child
why he or she has to train for five hours a day, even at the weekend, when ( 4) _______ of his or her
friends are playing.
Another problem is of course money. In many countries money for training is ( 5) _________ from the
government for the very best young sportsmen and sportswomen. If this help cannot be given, it means
that it is the parents ( 6) __________ have to find the time and the money to support their child’s
development - and sports clothes, transport to competitions, special equipment etc. can all be very
expensive.
Many parents are understandably (7) _______ that it is dangerous to start serious training in a sport at an
early age. Some doctors agree that young (8) _______ may be damaged by training before they are
properly developed. Professional trainers, however, believe that it is only by starting young that you can
reach the top as a successful sports person. What is clear is that very (9) _______ people reach the top
and both parents and children should be prepared for (10) ________, even after many years of training.
1. A. do B. plan C. make D.
prepare
2. A. should B. means C. helps
D. tries
3. A. hopes B. dreams C. satisfactions
D. interests
4. A. almost B. few C. most D. none

5. A. enough B. available C. possible D. enormous

6. A. that B. whom C. they D.
which
7. A. interested B. excited C. cared D.
worried
8. A. bloods B. capacities C. muscles D.
physics
9. A. little B. few C. a few D. many
10. A. failure B. failing C. failed
D. fail
Section 3. Read the passage carefully and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. Air
pollution is a well-known problem, but now light pollution is also causing concern. Light
pollution occurs (1) ________ there are many electric lights around us which are so powerful (2)
________ they stop us seeing the stars in the night sky. It is now such a problem that in some places
people (3) _______ outdoor lighting is too bright could even be given a heavy fine. Business owners,
supermarkets and even home-owners that install security lights may face legal action if their lights are so
bright that they spoil (4) ________ neighbours’ enjoyment of the night sky.
Amazingly, many children growing up in big cities today have never seen the night sky properly because
of the (5) ________ in light pollution. And it is (6) ________ only in cities – people living in the country
are also affected (7) ________ lights from nearby towns. It is a problem for those simply trying to enjoy
the stars, and for serious astronomers (8) ________ well.
One university in the UK has come up with an interesting solution. It has built a telescope in the Canary
Islands and allows schools to use this (9) ________ the Internet. But it does seem ridiculous that children
can ’t see the stars properly (10) ________ using their computers
PART E. WRITING
Section 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.
1. When the minister was asked about the strike, he declined to comment.
→ On __________________________________________________________.
2. I haven't been to Oxford for at least ten years.
→ The last time ______________________________________________.
3. I regret not going to the airport to say goodbye to him.
→ I wish ______________________________________________________.
4. Apart from Philip, everyone else at the meeting was a party member.
→ With _______________________________________________________.
5. She got down to writing the report as soon as she returned from her walk.
→ No _________________________________________________________.
Section 2. Essay writing
Cars have changed the way we travel. However, some people believe that there are more
disadvantages to it than advantages.
To what extent do you agree with this opinion?
Write at least 250 words.
Đề 19
PART ONE: PHONETICS (1.0POINT)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.(0.5pt)
1. A. supposedly B. markedly C. allegedly D. determinedly
2. A. endure B. feature C. procedure D. measure
3. A. complete B. command C. common D. community
4. A. comb B. climb C. debt D. cable
5. A. neighbour B. height C. sleigh D. weight
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.(0.5pt)
1. A. possibility B. disappointed C. manufacture D. instrument
2. A. environment B. mystery C. contribute D. terrific
3. A. deficiency B. psychology C. ecological D. competitor
4. A. recommend B. difficulty C. admirable D. document
5. A. encouragement B. interviewer C. acknowledge D.
miraculously
PART TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7.0POINTS)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences. (2.5pts)
1. Only after the atomic bomb ________ and development in the air travel _______, ______ science
fiction really become popular.
A. had created/ had taken off/ was B. had been created/ had been taken off/ has
C. had been created/ had taken off/ did D. had been created/ / had taken off/ had
2. We’ve bought some ________ chairs for the garden so that they are easy to store away.
A. adapting B. adjusting C. bending D. folding
3. I don’t think she can get her message _______ to the students. She seems too nervous.
A. across B. around C. out D. over
4. _______, it is obvious that the whole thing was a waste of time and effort.
A. None of us wanted to go in the first place
B. Staff meetings are often boring and have no apparent point to them
C. Since the results were far more satisfactory than anyone had expected
D. Seeing that we couldn’t solve anything in the end
5. There are ______ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to this fact.
A. a large many B. quite many C. a great many D. quite a lot
6. This car has many features including _________.
A. stereo, safety devices, air condition, and it saves gas
B. good music, safety devices, air conditioning, and gas
C. stereo, safety devices, air conditioned, and good gas
D. stereo, safety devices, air conditioning, and low gas mileage
7. Round and round ___________.
A. the wheels of the engine went B. did the wheels of the engine go
C. went the wheels of the engine D. going the wheels of the engine
8. The replacement of shops such as the groceries and chemists’ by the café _______ the housewives
with insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to have left
9. Your argument _______ that Britain is still a great power, but this is no longer the case.
 A. outlines B. presupposes C. concerns D. presents
10. They are happily married although, of course, they argue _______.
A. most times B. from day to day C. every now and then D. on the occasion
11. He promised to mend the broken wheel soon without ___________ .
A. fail B. failure C. trouble D. mistake
12. One of the first exercises in math class is ______ measure the radius of a circle.
A. to learn and B. to learn how to C. learning to D. learn to
13. We were shocked to hear the news of your ________.
A. having fired B. being fired C. having been fired D. to have been fired
14. I don’t know French, but I’ll ________.
A. get Tom to translate itB. have it translate C. have Tom to translate it D. make it translate
15. _______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer
to
16. _______ have settled, one of their first concerns has been to locate an adequate water supply.
A. Wherever people B. There are people who C. Where people D. People
17. Politicians should never lose ______ of the needs of the people they represent.
A. view B. sight C. regard D. prospect
18. _______ team sports require cooperation.
A. Of all B. They are all C. Why all are D. All
19. Studies indicate _________ collecting art today than ever before.
A. there are that more people B. more people that are
C. that there are more people D. people there are more
20. Doctors advise people who are deficient __________ vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. from B. of C. in D. for
21. Dick put ____ ball in ____ net in _____ second half but ____ goal was disallowed.
A. a - a - a - a B. the - the - the - the C. the - the - a - a D. a - a - the - the
22. There is a real possibility that these animals could be frightened _______ a sudden loud noise.
A. being there B. should there be C. there was D. there have been
23. The computer has dramatically affected ______ photographic lenses are constructed.
A. is the way B. that the way C. which way do D. the way
24. Six novels a year, you say? He’s certainly a __________ writer.
A. fruitful B. fertile C. virile D. prolific
25. The handwriting is completely ______ . This note must have been written a long time ago.
A. inedible B. indellible C. illegible D. unfeasible
II. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. (1.5pt)
a The children were frightened because the lights suddenly (1. go) _____ out and they (2. sit) _______ in
the dark.
b. What tune (3. play) ________ when we (4. come) ________ in?
c. She was badly hurt when her car hit another car. If she (5. wear) ____ her seat belt, she (6. not hurt)
___ so badly.
d. It is vital that no one else (7. know) _______ about the secret government operation.
e. It seems strange to be standing here, (8. look) _______ out at Sydney Harbor.
f. Tom had a lucky escape. He (9. kill) ________ when a car crashed into the front of his house.
g. _____ (10. Rank) as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it
was created.
III. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (1.5 pt)
It seems that the mystery of why the Pyramids were built may have solved. Until quite recently
people got used to think that they were just tombs for pharaohs. Instead, the connection with astronomy
seem much more important. Egyptologists have often asked them how long it spent to build them and
why people built them in first place. Experts came up with a suggestion that the Egyptians may have
believed in the River Nile was the earthly equivalent of the Milky Way. Many agree that the sizes of the
three Giza Pyramids are in propotion to the three stars of Orion. Nothing, then, was by the chance.
Rather, the souls of dead pharaohs were deliberatedly being project through shafts to reach at their goal
of the Orion constellation.
IV. Give the correct form of the word in each of the following brackets. (1.5pt)
It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through face-to-face (1. INTERACT)
______ and with counterparts and customers by phone or letter. But the world of communication has
undergone a dramatic transformation, not for all the good. Email, while (2. DOUBT) _____ a swift
means of communication providing your server is fully (3. FUNCTION) ______ and that the address
you have contains no (4. ACCURATE) _____ has had a (5. SIGNIFY) _____ effect on certain people’s
behaviour, both at home and business. For those people, the use of email has become irresistibly (6.
ADDICT) _____ to the extent that it is (7. THREAT) _____ their mental and physical health. Addicts
spend their day (8. COMPULSION) _____ checking for email and have a (9. TEND) ______ to panic if
their server goes down. It is estimated that one in six people spend four hours a day sending and
receiving messages, the equivalent to more than two working days a week. The negative effect on (10.
PRODUCE) ________ is something employers are well aware of.
PART THREE: READING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to each of the
following questions.(2.0pts)
In the United States in the early 1800's, individual state governments had more effect on the
economy than did the federal government. States chartered manufacturing, banking, mining, and
transportation firms and participated in the construction of various internal improvements such as canals,
turnpikes, and railroads. The states encouraged internal improvements in two distinct ways; first, by
actually establishing state companies to build such improvements; second, by providing part of the
capital for mixed public-private companies setting out to make a profit.
In the early nineteenth century, state governments also engaged in a surprisingly large amount of
direct regulatory activity, including extensive licensing and inspection programs. Licensing targets
reflected both similarities and differences between the economy of the nineteenth century and that of
today: in the nineteenth century, state regulation through licensing fell especially on peddlers,
innkeepers, and retail merchants of various kinds. The perishable commodities of trade generally came
understate inspection, and such important frontier staples as lumber and gunpowder were also subject to
state control. Finally, state governments experimented with direct labor and business regulation designed
to help the individual laborer or consumer, including setting maximum limits on hours of work and
restrictions on price-fixing by businesses.
Although the states dominated economic activity during this period, the federal government was
not inactive. Its goals were the facilitation of western settlement and the development of native
industries. Toward these ends, the federal government pursued several courses of action. It established a
national bank to stabilize banking activities in the country and, in part, to provide a supply of relatively
easy money to the frontier, where it was greatly needed for settlement. It permitted access to public
western lands on increasingly easy terms, culminating in the Homestead Act of 1862, by which title to
land could be claimed on the basis of residence alone. Finally, it set up a system of tariffs that was
basically protectionist in effect, although maneuvering for position by various regional interests
produced frequent changes in tariff rates throughout the nineteenth century.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. States's rights versus federal rights.
B. The participation of state governments in railroad, canal, and turnpike construction.
C. The roles of state and federal governments in the economy of the nineteenth century.
D. Regulatory activity by state governments.
2. The word “effect” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
 A. value B. argument C. influence D. restraint
3. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as areas that involved statevernments in the
nineteenth century EXCEPT _________.
A. mining B. banking C. manufacturing D. higher education
4. The word “distinct” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. separate B. innovative C. alarming D. provocative
5. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the nineteenth century canals and railroads were
_________.
A. built with money that came from the federal government
B. much more expensive to build than they had been previously
C. built predominantly in the western part of the country
D. sometimes built in part by state companies
6. The regulatory activities of state governments included all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. licensing of retail merchants B. inspecting materials used in turnpike maintenance
C. imposing limits on price-fixing D. control of lumber
7. The word “setting” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. discussing B. analyzing C. establishing D. avoiding
8. The word “ends” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. benefits B. decisions C. services D. goals
9. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Homestead Act of 1862?
A. It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West.
B. It was a law first passed by state governments in the West.
C. It increased the money supply in the West. D. It established tariffs in a number of
regions.
10. Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the federal government in the nineteenth
century?
A. Control of the manufacture of gunpowder. B. Determining the conditions under which
individuals worked.
C. Regulation of the supply of money. D. Inspection of new homes built on western
lands.
II. Read the text below and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0pts)
The British are widely (1) _____ to be a very polite nation, and in (2)______ respects this is true.
An Italian journalist once commented of the British that they need (3) _____ fewer than four “thank
yous” merely to buy a bus ticket. The first, from the bus conductor means, “I’m here.”. The second
accompanies the handling over of the money. The third, again from the conductor, (4) ____ “Here is
your ticket.”, and then the passenger utters a final one as he accepts the tickets. Such transactions in most
(5) ____ parts of the world are usually conducted in total silence. In sharp contrast to this excessive
politeness with strangers, the British are strangely lacking (6) _____ ritual phrases for social interaction.
The exhortation “Good appetite”, uttered in so (7) ______ other languages to fellow-diners before a
meal, does not exist in English. The nearest equivalent – Enjoy your dinner! – is said only by people who
will not be pataking of the meal in question. What’s more, the British (8) ____ happiness to their friends
or acquaintances only at the start of a new year and at (9)_____ such as birthdays, (10) _____ the Greeks
routinely wish all and sundry a “good week” or a “good month”.
III. Read the passage and choose the best option for each of the following blanks. (2.0pts)
Media and advertising
After more than fifty years of television, it might seem only obvious to conclude that it is here to
(1) ______ . There have been many objections to it during this time, of course, and (2) ______ a variety
of grounds. Did it cause eye-strain? Was the (3) ______ bombarding us with radioactivity? Did the
advertisements contain subliminal messages, persuading us to buy more? Did children turn to violence
through watching it, either because so (4) ______ programs taught them how to shoot, rob, and kill, or
because they had to do something to counteract the hours they had spent glued to the tiny screen? Or did
it simply create a vast passive (5) ______ drugged by glamorous serials and inane situation (6) ______ ?
On the other hand did it increase anxiety by sensationalizing the news [or the news which was (7)
______ by suitable pictures] and filling our living rooms with war, famine and political unrest? (8)
______ in all, television proved to be the all-purpose scapegoat for the second half of the century,
blamed for everything, but above all, eagerly watched. For no (9) ______ how much we despised it,
feared it, were bored by it, or felt that it took us away from the old paradise of family conversation and
hobbies such as collecting stamps, we never turned it off. We kept staring at the screen, aware that our
own tiny (10) ______ was in if we looked carefully.
1. A. be B. stay C. exist D. prolong
2. A. with B. over C. by D. on
3. A. screen B. danger C. machine D. reason
4. A. that B. far C. many D. what
5. A. program B. personality C. audience D. tense
6. A. comedies B. programs C. perhaps D. consequently
7. A. taken B. presented C. capable D. accompanied
8. A. Taken B. All C. Somewhat D. Thus
9. A. one B. matter C. difference D. reason
10. A. fault B. reflection C. situation D. consciousness
PART FOUR: WRITING (6.0POINTS)
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it.
1. If the work is finished by lunchtime, you can go home.
🡪 Get _____________________________________________________________________
2. You haven’t done your work, have you?
🡪 It’s about ___________________________________________________________________
3. The fourth time he asked her to marry him, she accepted.
🡪 Only on his __________________________________________________________________
4. He said that he had won as a result of good luck.
🡪 He attributed _________________________________________________________________
5. That reminds me of the time I climbed to the top of Mount Fuji.
🡪That takes me _________________________________________________________________
6. People rumour that he is rich but stingy.
🡪 What _______________________________________________________________________
7. Such a ridiculous proposal isn’t worth serious consideration.
🡪There is _______________________________________________________________________
8. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh.
🡪The very ______________________________________________________________________
9. We cannot see animals in a vast area after the forest fire.
🡪 There is an_____________________________________________________________________
10. The staff hated Frank’s new policies so intensely that they went on strike.
🡪 So intense ______________________________________________________________________

THE END
ĐỀ 20
I. Choose the correct answer to fill in the blank. (20 pts)
1. “I’m sure the Whitleys were involved.” “They _____ have since they know nothing about the
business.”
A. can’t B. wouldn’t C. shouldn’t D. mustn’t
2. “Candy’s an excellent pianist, isn’t she?” - “She ___ to win the prize if she plays this well during the
competition.”
A. is due B. is bound C. is about D. is set
3. _____, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncovered C. Left uncovered D. Been left
uncovered
4. His friends offered to _____ the next time he was in town so that he wouldn’t have to pay for a hotel.
A. place him in B. put him up C. back him up D. turn him out
5. Susan became so tired of city life that she decided to buy a piece of land _____.
A. out of the ordinary B. as the crow flies C. far and away D. in the middle of nowhere
6. The _____ of our cruise includes stops at six ports in three different countries.
A. timetable B. intention C. itinerary D. itemisation
7. My mind went _____ when the official asked me my phone number – I couldn’t remember it at all.
A. empty B. clear C. blank D. vacant
8. The life _____ of individuals in developed countries increases dramatically every decade.
A. expectation B. exception C. exertion D. expectancy
9. She believes that all countries should _____ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away
with
10. Although the journey was _____ with danger, it turned out to be a rewarding experience for
everyone.
A. fraught B. filled C. full D. littered
11. One way to let off _____ after a stressful day is to take some vigorous exercise.
A. cloud B. tension C. steam D. sweat
12. I’m amazed that this game ever _____ – it is so silly!
A. took in B. caught on C. took up D. caught by
13. They avoid the usual tourist attractions in favour of places that are off the _____ track.
A. gone B. worn C. beaten D. ridden
14. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break new ____ in the field and possibly lead to
a cure.
A. earth B. ground C. soil D. land
15. The _____ of the building of the new shopping centre are doing everything they can to prevent the
project from even starting.
A. advocates B. opponents C. independents D. opposites
16. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play _____ on him.
A. games B. jokes C. tricks D. fun
17. Finding the gorillas alive had been _____ his wildest dreams.
A. past B. beneath C. beyond D. without
18. He has been _____ to supporting his nephews.
A. determined B. allowed C. compromised D. committed
19. She worried _____ about her exam and couldn’t focus on her revision.
A. constantly B. practically C. decidedly D. effectively
20. Different measures have been _____ to help the homeless.
A. made B. taken C. done D. conducted
21. The noisy music _____ the students from their test.
A. distracted B. disrupted C. dissolved D. disqualified
22. Health food is now _____ in popularity.
A. growing B. raising C. getting D. flying
23. _____ fire, please break the glass and ring the bell.
A. In case of B. During C. Because of D. With a view to
24. Left-handed children are said to be _____ to accidents in the kitchen.
A. prone B. clear C. subject D. bound
25. It was _____ of Harry to arrive late and then try to dominate the meeting.
A. common B. usual C. ordinary D. typical
26. During their first date, Jane had nervously peppered the conversation with _____ talk.
A. unimportant B. tiny C. small D. trivial
27. The match will be screened on ITV with _____ commentary by Andy Gray.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
28. The job creation scheme is still in its _____.
A. childhood B. babyhood C. opening D. infancy
29. I am subjected to _____ smoking in the office and at home.
A. passive B. inactive C. involuntary D. reluctant
30. Dr Chen advised me to use this remedy in _____ as it is extremely potent.
A. restraint B. moderation C. control D. regulation
31. I’m _____ my brother is.
A. nowhere like so ambitious C. nothing as ambitious than
B. nothing near as ambitious as D. nowhere near as ambitious as
32. Reports are coming in that a flood has hit a heavily-_____ area in the south of India.
A. crowded B. personalised C. peopled D. populated
33. It was _____ a victory that even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it.
A. such surprising B. so surprising C. too surprising D. surprising
34. I always clean the flat before my mom comes round, but she always finds at least one _____ of dust.
A. scrap B. gust C. speck D. blade
35. Everyone _____ around the old woman on the floor, but no one offered her any help.
A. crowded B. spread C. put D. hung
36. I do agree there _____ simple solution to this problem.
A. is no B. be not C. not to be D. not being
37. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’d sooner you _____ me the whole truth yesterday.
A. could have told B. told C. have told D. had told
38. As the drug took _____, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
39. The dawn redwood appears _____ some 100 million years ago in northern forests around the world.
A. was flourished B. having to flourish C. to have flourished D. have flourished
40. His comments _____ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
A. reflect B. bear C. give D. possess
II. CHOOSE THE WORD OR PHRASE THAT BEST FITS EACH SPACE IN THE
FOLLOWING PASSAGE.
We often assume the best way to (1) _____ to a decision is to spend ages taking into account a lot
of information before we arrive at our conclusion. We (2) _____ the evidence in the belief that instant
decisions are unreliable. However, there are arguments for a reassessment of that (3) _____. It may be
that (4) _____ our subconscious mind does a better job in a moment than our conscious mind does.
When Evelyn Harrison, a(n) (5) _____ on sculpture, was shown a statue that the J. Paul Getty Museum
had purchased for $10 million, she (6) _____ out that it was a fake. It came (7) _____ a shock to the
museum. Harrison was (8) _____ to explain why she had formed that impression, but it was enough to
(9) _____ doubt on the statue. Now most experts have come round to her (10) _____, but how did she
(11) _____ the difference between that and the (12) _____ article so quickly? It’s probable that her
subconscious mind sorted through information that escaped the (13) _____ of her conscious mind.
Although we are rarely, (14) _____, aware of our subconscious mind, it can be surprisingly (15) _____.
1. A. come B. go C. reach D. make
2. A. measure B. observe C. weigh D. give
 3. A. outlook B. view C. proof D. support
4. A. many a time B. from time to time C. all the time D. the time of the
live
5. A. scholar B. specialist C. artist D. expert
6. A. put B. figured C. mumbled D. blurted
7. A. as B. with C. in D. by
8. A. incapable B. difficult C. unable D. hard
9. A. put B. lay C. cast D. place
10. A. place B. position C. argument D. point
11. A. made B. tell C. realize D. seek
12. A. inimitable B. true C. actual D. real
13. A. notice B. procession C. realization D. guard
14. A. let alone B. in fact C. even then D. if ever
15. A. influential B. dependent C. effective
III. IDENTIFY THE MISTAKE IN EACH SENTENCE
1. Asteroids may be fragments (A) of a planet shattered (B) long ago (C) or from material (D) the nuclei
of old comets.
2. Between (A) the ages of nine and fifteen, almost (B) all young people undertake (C) a rapid series of
(D) psychological changes.
3. Ponds are noted (A) for their rich and varied types of (B) plant and animal life, all maintain (C) in a
delicate ecological balance (D).
4. The explorers said that (A) they could make (B) the round trip shorter if (C) the weather had not been
that bad (D).
5. The Pinebrook Inn has (A) a courtesy bus which (B) runs every thirty minute (C) both to and from (D)
the downtown area.
6. Most authorities consider both (A) dreaming while (B) sleep and daydreaming to be (C) forms of
fantasy (D).
7. Antique auctions (A) are getting more and more (B) popular in the United States because of
increasingly (C) public awareness of the value of (D) investing in antiques.
8. An X-ray microscope enables (A) a person to see on (B) solid materials such as (C) metal and bone
(D).
9. The growth rate (A) of the Pacific Rim countries is twice faster than (B) other comparable (C) areas
during (D) the Industrial Revolution.
10. Computers have (A) made access (B) to information instantly available (C) just to push (D) a few
buttons.
IV. READ THE PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWERS TO THE QUESTIONS.
In the early days of the United States, postal charges were paid by the recipient and charges varied with
the distance carried. In 1825, the United States Congress permitted local postmasters to give letters to
mail carriers for home delivery, but these carriers received no government salary and their entire
compensation depended on what they were paid by the recipients of individual letters.
In 1847 the United States Post Office Department adopted the idea of a postage stamp, which of course
simplified the payment for postal service but caused grumbling by those who did not like to prepay.
Besides, the stamp covered only delivery to the post office and did not include carrying it to a private
address. In Philadelphia, for example, with a population of 150,000 people still had to go to the post
office to get their mail. The confusion and congestion of individual citizens looking for their letters was
itself enough to discourage use of the mail. It is no wonder that, during the years of these cumbersome
arrangements, private letter-carrying and express businesses developed. Although their activities were
only semi-legal, they thrived, and actually advertised that between Boston and Philadelphia they were a
half-day speedier than the government mail. The government postal service lost volume to private
competition and was not able to handle efficiently even the business it had.
Finally, in 1863, Congress provided that the mail carriers who delivered the mail from the post offices to
private addresses should receive a government salary, and that there should be no extra charge for that
delivery. But this delivery service was at first confined to cities, and free home delivery became a mark
of urbanism. As late as 1887, a town had to have 10,000 people to be eligible for free home delivery. In
1890, of the 75 million people in the United States, fewer than 20 million had mail delivered free to their
doors. The rest, nearly three-quarters of the population, still received no mail unless they went to their
post office.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The increased use of private mail services C. A comparison of urban and rural postal
services
B. The development of a government postal system D. The history of postage stamps
2. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the USA in the early 19 century _____.
A. the recipient had to pay to receive the letters C. postage stamps for letters came into use
B. the recipient paid the same for all kinds of letters D. the mail carriers earned a lot of money
from the government 3. Which of the following was seen as a disadvantage of the postage stamp?
A. It had to be purchased by the sender in advance. C. It was difficult to affix to letters.
B. It increased the cost of mail delivery. D. It was easy to counterfeit.
4. Why does the author mention the city of Philadelphia?
A. Its postal service was inadequate for its population.
C. It was the largest city in the United States in 1847
B. It was the site of the first post office in the United States.
D. It was commemorated by the first United States postage stamp.
5. In the 1950s, _____.
A. American people were happy with every postal service
B. people in Philadelphia had their letters delivered free of charge by the government
C. there was a preference among Americans for private mail services
D. the American government managed their mail businesses satisfactorily
6. The word ‘they ’ refers to _____.
A. Boston and Philadelphia B. businesses C. arrangements D. letters
7. The private postal services of the 19 century claimed that they could do which of the following better
than the government?
A. Deliver a higher volume of mail C. Deliver mail faster
B. Deliver mail more cheaply D. Deliver mail to rural areas
8. In 1863 the United States government began providing which of the following to mail carriers?
A. A salary B. Housing C. Transportation D. Free postage stamps
9. All of the following statements are true of the American postal service in the second half of the 19
century EXCEPT ___.
A. Delivery service distinguishes cities from the countryside.
B. People paid more to get their letters delivered to their home.
C. Small towns did not provide delivery service.
D. About 55 million people had to get to the post office to receive their mail.
10. The word ‘confined ’ is closest in meaning to _____.
A. granted B. scheduled C. limited D. recommended
V. SUPPLY THE APPROPRIATE FORMS OF WORDS IN THE BRACKETS
1. The students were __________ to hear that the class had been cancelled. (JOY)
2. A sports club has just been established and aims to have a _______ of 500 in the next two years.
(MEMBER)
3. The spectators booed when the second goal was __________. (ALLOW)
4. __________, we didn’t buy better quality goods from the beginning. (REGRET)
5. A fatal __________ was made by air traffic control. (CALCULATE)
6. Despite having a __________ job, she has difficulty making ends meet. (PAY)
7. When the lab findings and the research results were ______, an amazing discovery came to light.
(RELATE)
8. I really believe that it should be a major mistake to ________ any drugs that are currently illegal.
(CRIME)
9. The attack in the city centre last night is said to __________ the kind of behaviour amongst young
people that many people object to. (EXAMPLE)
10. Theo and his twin brother are always together. They are __________. (SEPARATE)
11. Reading is an effective way to __________ your vocabulary. (RICH)
12. John considers reading others’ diaries an __________ invasion of privacy. (PERMIT)
13. His failure in the exam was a real __________ for his parents. (LET)
14. There is __________ a great demand for organic vegetables. (DENY)
15. Having a deep __________ of strangers, he felt reluctant to talk to the newcomer. (TRUST)
VI. SUPPLY EACH BLANK WITH ONE SUITABLE WORD
The development of the sport of skateboarding can be (1) ________ back to the early 1890s, when
children in California used wooden boards to ‘surf’ the streets. During the 1950s, the (2) ________ of the
sport increased and manufacturers began producing the first factory-made boards. By the 1960s, the sport
had (3) ________ an impressive following, not just in the USA, but (4) __________.
However, by 1965, (5)_________ about safety resulted in regulations being (6)_________ to ban
skateboarding in most public places in the USA. This effectively killed the sport there for the next
decade. Companies that had been making a (7) __________ selling skateboards suddenly faced huge
losses and many (8)_________ out of business. Over the next eight years a few enthusiasts continued
practising the sport but, although they tried hard to raise its profile, they were (9) __________ in their
efforts.
Then in 1973, some technological breakthroughs revolutionised the sport. The invention of new
materials (10)_________ that manufacturers (11)_________ strengthen the boards but at the same time
make them lighter and more manoeuvrable. Such improvements also made the boards (12) __________
dangerous and pressure from an increasing number of users (13) __________ to the installation of
special skateboarding parks. Despite the various (14)________ it has suffered over the years, the sport is
now stronger than (15) _________.
VII. REWRITE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCES WITHOUT CHANGING THE MEANING
1. He played so well that he received a standing ovation from the audience. (SUCH)
→ His _______________________________________________________________________
2. Sam tried extremely hard to convince her, but it was no use. (BRING)
→ Hard _____________________________________________________________________
3. Unless you take the train, you will be late for work. (MAKE)
→ Only by ____________________________________________________________________
4. Surprisingly, the website wouldn’t allow me to access certain pages. (WHICH)
→ The website denied ___________________________________________________________
5. She worked hard during her final year. Therefore, she easily got admitted to this prestigious high
school. (INDUSTRY)
→ Had it ____________________________________________________________________
6. Looking back, I really believe I did everything I could do to stop her. (MORE)
→ I can honestly say, with _______________________________________________________
7. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. (GIVEN)
→ On _________________________________________________________________________
8. “I must say goodbye to Peter at the airport,” said Helen. (OFF)
→ Helen insisted _______________________________________________________________
9. Jane said it would be a good idea if I called in the plumber to check the plumbing. (CHECKED)
→ Jane urged ___________________________________________________________________
10. Arguing about the referee’s decision would be a waste of time. (ARGUMENT)
→ There’s _____________________________________________________________________
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60 points)
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 pts)
1. When we start work in the morning, I usually ______ at the schedule for the whole day.
A. glimpse B. watch C. monitor D. glance
2. Scottish pound notes are not legal ______ in England.
A. tender B. money C. exchange D. value
3. If you’re interested in a career in ______, you must be prepared to work hard for little money.
A. acting B. playing C. performance D. stage
4. Mrs. Smith always likes someone to ______ her to the bus stop at night.
A. go B. company C. join D. accompany
5. After the funeral, the residents of the apartment building ______.
A. sent to the cemetery each week flowers faithfully.
B. sent faithfully flowers all week to the cemetery.
C. sent flowers faithfully to the cemetery each week.
D. sent each week faithfully to the cemetery flowers.
6. I don’t like Anthony, he seems to take too much ______ in criticizing everyone.
A. joy B. fascination C. pleasure D. entertainment
7. Conversations you strike up with travelling acquaintances usually tend to be ______.
A. insufficient B. perverse C. trivial D. imperative
8. He found that the test was child's ______.
A. play B. games C. matches D. delight
9. The unscrupulous salesman ______ the old couple out of their life savings.
A. deprived B. swindled C. robbed D. extracted
10. _______ for Tom's opposition, we would have agreed to the contract.
A. Be it not B. Would it not have been C. Should it not have been D. Had it not
been
11. Sheila couldn’t attend the meeting as the date ________ with her holidays.
A. clashed B. struck C. opposed D. occurred
12. Our town has a real problem with youth crime, ______ do many other British towns.
A. so B. nor C. as D. like
13. It was Martin who ______ the initiative in introducing our guests to the princess.
A. adopted B. took C. led D. pursued
14. I was proud to be ______ out for special praise for my performance.
A. selected B. singled C. separated D. distinguished
15. The teacher gave me some ______ advice on which college to enrol.
A. nonsensical B. sound C. loud D.
preposterous
16. She did six hours’______ studying a day for her exam.
A solid B heavy C strong D big
17. He opened the account with a(n) ______ to running up a healthy overdraft.
A. aim B. view C. purpose D. plan
18. I haven’t got the time to do my own work, ______ help you with yours.
A. leaving aside B. not counting C. let alone D. apart from
19. Helen was very much in ______ of her father.
A. respect B. awe C. regard D. admiration

20. ______ are a form of carbon has been known since the late eighteenth century.
 A. Diamonds B. Because diamonds C. That diamonds D. Diamonds, which
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
II. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the errors and write the corrections in
the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 pts)
Example: Line 1: ever => never

The market for tourism in remote areas is booming as ever before. Countries all across the world are
active promoting their 'wilderness' regions – such as mountains, Arctic lands, deserts, small islands and
wetlands – to highly spending tourists. The attraction of these areas is obvious: by defining, wilderness
tourism requires little or no initial investment. But that does not mean that there is no cost. Like the 1992
UN Conference on Environment and Development recognized, these regions are fragile (i.e. highly
vulnerable of abnormal pressures) not just in terms of the culture of their inhabitation. The three most
significant types of fragile environment in these respects are deserts, mountains and Arctic areas. An
important character is their marked seasonality. Consequently, most human acts, including tourism, are
limited to clearly defined parts of the year.
Tourists are drawn to these regions by their natural beauty and the unique culture of its people.
And poor governments in these areas have welcomed the 'adventure tourists', grateful for the currency
they bring. For several years, tourism is the prime source of foreign exchange in Nepal and Bhutan.
Tourism is also a key element in the economics of Arctic zones such as Lapland and Alaska and in desert
areas such as Ayres Rocks in Australia and Arizona’s Monument Valley.
III. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). (10 pts)
0. He finds it hard to put _________ the noise of the nearby factory.
Answer: up with
1. Leave me alone. I’m not ____________ the mood for your silly joke.
2. He never told us he was Italian and that his real name was Franco. We all knew him ____________
the name of Eddie.
IV. Use the word in capitals at the end of each of the following sentences to form a word that fits
suitably in the blank. There is an example at the beginning (0).
0. We had an interesting ______________ about football. DISCUSS
Answer: discussion
1. Most peasants were living in subhuman conditions as the Feudalism had ______________ them for a
long time. POOR
2. Many diseases which were once thought _______________ now can be routinely treated. CURE
3. Are all those ______________ they put in food really necessary? ADD
4. Your presence has enriched our lives ______________. MEASURE
5. Doris Carter, who is 107 today, puts her ______________down to having a loving family and seven
cups of tea a day. LONG
6. Film studios spend millions of dollars on ______________for new movies. PUBLIC
7. The trouble with Mr. Brown is that he’s so ______________. One minute he goes mad when you
come late then he says nothing. You never know where you are! CONSIST
8. This matter is very ______________ . Don’t discuss it outside the office. CONFIDENCE

C. READING (60 points)

I. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts)
Phobias, such as an extreme fear of spiders or heights, can cause genuine suffering. In the past,
one (1) __________ to treatment involved the use of mind-(2) __________ drugs, although these often
caused undesirable (3) __________ - effects in the patient. Another common method still in use is
behavioural therapy. This involves exposing people to their particular phobia under controlled (4)
__________. The (5) __________ behind this is that a new memory can be created which says the feared
object or situation in (6) __________ is safe. In most cases, the effects seem to be more positive than
those achieved through chemical intervention.
Most recently, in 2009, a series of (7) __________experiments led by Elizabeth Phelps at New York
university looked at the way ‘fear memories’ were retrieved and the way they could be manipulated.
Originally, the experiments had been (8) __________ on laboratory rats. Every time the rats were
exposed to a certain sound, they were given an electric shock, so they learnt to fear the sound. Scientists
(9) __________ it was possible to eliminate that fear through ‘extinction training’, in which the rats were
then exposed repeatedly to the sound without any electric shock.
The timing of this training was (10) __________. Fear of the sound was only erased in those rats that
were trained after an interval of a few minutes but no longer than a few hours after the fear memory was
revived. Phelps’ study, on human (11) __________ given electric shocks when shown coloured cards,
was (12) __________ on the rat tests. A year after the experiments, nineteen of her (13) __________
took part in further tests. Those who had received ‘extinction training’ more than six hours after the fear
memory was revived still showed signs of fear towards the coloured cards. Those who had been trained
quickly showed no signs of fear - (14) __________ that the fear memory had been eradicated. The
research team’s (15) __________ seemed to offer hope for a new form of phobia treatment.
1. A. way B. means C. method D. approach
2. A. altering B. changing C. adapting D. transferring
3. A. other B. after C. side D. over
4. A. examples B. conditions C. cases D. rules
5. A. action B. theory C. practice D. process
6. A. front B. mind C. question D. point
7. A. pioneering B. leading C. main D. breaking
8. A. found out B. taken part C. looked into D. carried out
9. A. gained B. discovered C. acquired D. wondered
10. A. meaningful B. urgent C. crucial D. foremost
11. A. volunteers B. nominees C. candidates D. applicants
12. A. derived B. aimed C. designed D. based
13. A. members B. interviews C. subjects D. people
14. A. indicating B. pointing C. noting D. gesturing
15. A. findings B. intentions C. options D. summaries
Your answer:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each
gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0).
(15 pts)
Example: 0. when
THE BLOOD MOON
A lunar eclipse occurs (0) ________the Earth’s shadow falls directly onto the moon. (1)
________ happens as a result is that the moon stops being a silvery white colour and turns coppery red
instead; the sort of colour usually only seen in the sky at dawn or sunset. An astronaut on the moon,
looking towards Earth (2) ________ a lunar eclipse, would see a black disc, surrounded (3) ________a
bright red ring. It’s the light from this red ring which is reflected back to the dark Earth from the moon’s
surface. In ancient times, long (4) ________ any of this was understood, the lunar eclipse was known (5)
________a blood moon and was thought to be an omen of disaster.
 Total eclipses can only occur when there is a full moon, and then only if it is lined (6) ________
with the Earth in a particular way. (7) ________easily obscured by cloud cover, blood moons are fairly
common, and it is relatively easy to calculate where and when you might be (8) ________ to see one.
For example, in 1504 Christopher Columbus was stranded in Jamaica and (9) ________ dire need
of provisions, but the local inhabitants were reluctant to help. Columbus knew that a lunar eclipse would
occur on 29 February, however. So, the day before, he warned local leaders that the moon would
disappear (10) ________ they helped him. They remained skeptical. But when the moon slowly started
to change colour, they became so frightened that they started to bring food.

III. Read the text below and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts)
Staggering tasks confronted the people of the United States, North and South, when the Civil
War ended. About a million and a half soldiers from both sides had to be demobilized, readjusted to
civilian life, and reabsorbed by the devastated economy. Civil government also had to be put back on a
peace time basis and interference from the military had to be stopped.
The desperate plight of the South has eclipsed the fact that reconstruction had to be undertaken
also in the North, though less spectacularly. Industries had to adjust to peacetime conditions: factories
had to be retooled for civilian needs.
Financial problems loomed large in both the North and the South. The national debt had shot up
from a modest $65 million in 1861, the year the war started, to nearly $3 billion in 1865, the year the war
ended. This was a colossal sum for those days but one that a prudent government could pay. At the same
time, war taxes had to be reduced to less burdensome levels.
Physical devastation caused by invading armies, chiefly in the South and border states, had to be
repaired. This herculean task was ultimately completed, but with discouraging slowness.
Other important questions needed answering. What would be the future of the four million Black
people who were freed from slavery? On what basis were the Southern states to be brought back into the
Union?
What of the Southern leaders, all of whom were liable to charges of treason? One of these leaders,
Jefferson Davis, president of the Southern Confederacy, was the subject of an insulting popular Northern
song, "Hang Jeff Davis from a Sour Apple Tree", and even children sang it. Davis was temporarily
chained in his prison cell during the early days of his two-year imprisonment. But he and the other
Southern leaders were finally released, partly because it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a
Southern Confederate state, would convict them. All the leaders were finally pardoned by President
Johnson in 1868 in an effort to help reconstruction efforts precede with as little bitterness as possible.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Wartime expenditures B. Problems facing the United States after the war
C. Methods of repairing the damage caused by the war
D. The results of government efforts to revive the economy
2. The word "Staggering" is closest in meaning to ________.
A. specialized B. confusing C. various
D. overwhelming
3. The word "devastated" is closest in meaning to ________.
A. developing B. ruined C. complicated D. fragile
4 According to the passage, which of the following statements about the damage in the South is
correct?
A. It was worse than in the North. B. The cost was less than expected.
C. It was centred in the border states. D. It was remedied rather quickly.
5. The passage refers to all of the following as necessary steps following the Civil War EXCEPT
________.
A. helping soldiers readjust B. restructuring industry
 C. returning government to normal D. increasing taxes
6. The word "task" refers to ________.
A. raising the tax level B. sensible financial choices
C. wise decisions about former slaves D. reconstruction of damaged areas
7. Why does the author mention a popular song?
A. To give an example of a Northern attitude towards the South
B. To illustrate the Northern love of music
C. To emphasize the cultural differences between the North and the South
D. To compare the Northern and Southern presidents
8. The word "them” refers to ________.
A. charges B. leaders C. days D. irons
9. Which of the following can be inferred from the phrase "...it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a
Southern Confederate state, would convict them"?
A. Virginians felt betrayed by Jefferson Davis. B. A popular song insulted Virginia.
C. Virginians were loyal to their leaders. D. All of the Virginia military leaders had been put in
chains.
10. It can be inferred from the passage that President Johnson pardoned the Southern leaders in
order to ________.
A. raise money for the North C. prevent Northern leaders from punishing more
Southerners
B. repair the physical damage in the South. D. help the nation recover from the war
IV. Read the following passage then do the tasks that follow. (15 pts)
THE ALEXANDER TECHNIQUE AND DISABILITY
A. The Alexander Technique is a method of psychophysical re-education developed by F.
Matthias Alexander more than a century ago, initially as a result of trying to solve a vocal problem. It is a
technique for the elimination of ingrained habits of 'misuse' that interfere with the healthy and
harmonious functioning of ourselves as a whole, often the underlying cause of many conditions, such as
back pain, neck and shoulder tension, fatigue, breathing disorders and other stress-related illnesses.
B. Our natural reflex mechanisms for balance and posture are largely dependent on the co-
ordination of the head, neck and back. The Technique addresses the causes of 'misuse' and lack of poise
that may be interfering with this relationship. When these mechanisms are allowed to work in harmony,
'good use' spontaneously returns, resulting in easier breathing, freer, lighter movement and a greater
ability to control our reactions and our movements. In other words, the Technique enables us to 'use'
ourselves better, and, in that sense, is concerned with helping anybody - the so called 'able bodied' as
well as disabled people to overcome their disabilities. Hence, the Alexander teacher's approach when
working with the disabled is, in essence, the same as with any pupil of the Technique.
C. For example, if we take a violinist with a 'misuse' problem of the upper limbs causing technical
limitations to his or her playing, the Alexander teacher will work on improving the pupil's overall 'use' by
encouraging the inhibition of the habitual muscular tension pattern that interferes with the co-ordination
of the head/ neck/ back relationship in order to enable him/ her to play with more ease. Similarly, when
working with a pupil who has lost mobility in the left arm from a stroke, the teacher will first of all
address the head/ neck/ back relationship, and the inhibition of extraneous tension that prevents
maximum use of the affected limb. In this way, it is possible to enable the stroke patient to retrain
mobility of the paralysed part of the body.
D. The approach and what results can be expected vary greatly depending on the disability. For
the stroke patient, especially if lessons are commenced early after the stroke, the Alexander Technique
can play an important role in rehabilitation and mobility retraining. With a blind person, the work is
likely to focus instead more directly on eliminating tension habits that have developed to compensate for
the loss of sight, e.g. insecurity leading to stiff and overcautious walking, balancing difficulties and poor
head poise.
 E. Working with the disabled pupil, the Alexander teacher can offer help with everyday activities,
things that the average person takes for granted, such as the ability to brush one's teeth, shave, tie one's
shoelaces or cut a slice of bread. By looking at compensatory tension patterns, the teacher can, in many
instances, help the disabled person find a new means whereby they can perform these everyday tasks.
F. In this respect, the lessons may extend to include the disabled person's carer, for example the
person who regularly has to help someone in and out of a wheelchair. Using the Alexander Technique,
the carer learns not only to lift and give support in the most efficient way to avoid damaging his/her own
back, but, as the two learn together, they also become better skilled at working out strategies enabling the
disabled person to become more independent.
G. There are, of course, several factors which have to be taken into consideration when working
with disabled pupils. They may suffer intense pain and discomfort, loss of kinaesthetic awareness
(sometimes with total loss of sensitivity in parts of the body), severe lack of co-ordination, loss of
mobility, memory loss, blindness, deafness, and speech impairment. The effect this has on the person's
emotional and psychological state also has to be taken into account. Some disabled pupils may need
longer lessons, because of the time required to move them from the wheelchair, take off casts, slings and
other movement aids, etc. Others may only be able to concentrate for short periods of time and,
therefore, require shorter lessons more frequently. It often requires a certain amount of inventiveness on
the part of the Alexander teacher, both as far as practical arrangements and the approach to teaching are
concerned, a challenge that, in most cases, is greatly rewarded by the positive results.
A. The Reading Passage above has seven paragraphs (A-G). Choose the most suitable heading from
the List of Headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xii) in boxes 1-5.
Paragraphs C and G have been done for you.
List of Headings
i. Co-ordination - important for all
ii. Tension and daily routine
iii. Brushing one’s teeth and slicing bread 1. Paragraph A
iv. Fitting the technique to the disability 2. Paragraph B
v. Challenges for the Alexander teacher Paragraph C xi
vi. Musical solutions 3. Paragraph D
vii. Potential drawbacks 4. Paragraph E
viii. Helping the disabled through their helpers 5. Paragraph F
ix. Pain problems Paragraph G v
x. Better body ‘use’ for all
xi. Retraining limbs
xii. Breaking bad habits
B. Complete the summary below using information from the passage. You may use NO MORE THAN
TWO WORDS from the passage for each blank. You may need to CHANGE THE FORM of the
word(s). Write your answers in Boxes 6-10.
Example: Alexander Matthias ___________ the technique named after him more than a hundred years
ago.
Answer: developed.
With the Alexander Technique, people are 6. ____________ in a psychophysical way. The
Technique works on the body’s reflex mechanisms/ reflexes so that they all operate 7.____________. As
a result, bad habits are 8.____________ and the individual is able to live a healthy life. Alexander’s
technique can help any of us to use ourselves better. As regards 9.____________ person, the expected
results and exact method used vary, according to the disability of the individual, e.g. shorter and more
regular sessions in the case of clients who find it difficult to concentrate. With disabled clients, in fact, a
number of factors have to be considered, and for the teacher, who often needs to be very inventive, this is
10._____________.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
D. WRITING (40 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the sentence before it.
(7.5 points)
1. Everybody was honoured by the boss with the exception of one clerk.
4All but ___________________________________________________________________
2. My brother works better when he is pressed for time.
4The less ___________________________________________________________________
3. She is proud of being such a good cook.
4She prides ___________________________________________________________________
4. 'Nothing will persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,' she said.
4She flatly ___________________________________________________________________
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given. You must use between TWO and SIX words, including the word
given. (7.5 points)
1. By the end of the meeting, the committee had agreed on the next step. REACHED
4By the end of the committee meeting, an __________________________________________what to
do next.
2. I really felt relieved on completion of my thesis. SENSE
4I felt a __________________________________________completed my thesis.
3. Dawn’s boss is constantly criticizing her work. FAULT
4Dawn’s boss __________________________________________ her work.
4. I saw a TV programme last month, which was very similar to this one. BEARS
4This TV programme __________________________________________ the one I saw last month.
III.(25 pts) Write a paragraph of about 150 words to express your view on the following statement:
Technology has made the world a better place to live in.
Đề 21
II. PHONETICS
Pick out the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of
the other words. (5 pts)
16. A. decided B. hatred C. warned D. sacred
17. A. legal B. petal C. pedal D. level
18. A. devise B. promise C. surprise D. realize
19. A. ghost B. hostage C. lost D. frosty
20. A. debate B. depute C. depress D. deputy
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence. (10 pts)
21. Does anyone know ............. that jacket might be?
A. who B. whom C. whose D. which
22. The cheetah runs 70 miles ............. hour. It’s the fastest animal in the world.
A. each B. per C. a D. one
23. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, ......... he snapped at me angrily when I asked him to join us.
A. yet B. so C. for D. and
24. There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is .............
A. the another B. the other C. other D. another
25. I read in one paper that they are ............. married.
A. getting B. got C. being D. having
26. There was hardly ............. food left in the fridge.
A. more B. any C. no D. some
27. We spent the ............. days on the beach.
A. few last sunny B. last sunny few C. last few sunny D. few sunny last
28. ............. not fallen over, the athlete would have won the gold medal.
A. If he B. If not C. Unless he had D. Had he
29. Rarely............. to work on his own.
A. he is seen B. does he seen C. is he seen D. does he
30. “We’re going to the seaside”. - “Can............. ?”
A. I come as well B. also I come C. I too come D. I as well come
Part 2. Complete each sentence with a suitable form of one of the phrasal verbs in the box. Use
each one once only. (5 pts)
catch on go up let down take up settle down
31. Why do prices keep ............. ............. ?
32. This new game is really............. ............. . Everyone is playing it.
33. It’s time your brother ............. ............. and started a family.
34. When she retired, she ............. ............. gardening so she wouldn’t get bored.
35. I’m sorry to ............. you ............. but I can’t take you to the airport after all.
Part 3. Complete the following sentences with appropriate form of the word in block capitals. (5
pts)
36. ACT There is a saying in English: “ ............. speak louder than words.”
37. QUALIFY He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later ............. when a
medical check proved that he had been taking drugs.
38. NATION Do you have a ............. costume in your country?
39. LAND The plane had to make a crash ............. in a field.
40. TROULE Traveling in big cities is becoming more ............. every day.
Part 4. Put the verbs given in the brackets into the appropriate tenses or forms. (10 pts)
41. “You were late for your dental appointment.” - “I know. I (not/ stay) ............... so long at the
library.”
42. It is necessary that everyone (be) .................. calm in times of danger.
43. If you want to see us, come to Tom’s on Sunday. We (wait) .................. for you there at midday.
44. It was a fine day and the roads were crowded because a lot of people (rush) ..................to the
seaside.
45. Those were the highest words of praise they ever (hear) .................. from the old man.
46. Our little children enjoy (take) .................. to the water park every Sunday.
47. I don’t feel good. I (stay) .................. home from work tomorrow.
48. It won’t be safe to use these stairs until they (repair) .................. .
49. The city is now crowded with the people who (seek) .................. employment.
50. The old man is said (leave) .................... all his money to an old people’s home when he died.
Part 5. In each of the following sentences, the 4 words or phrases are marked A, B, C or D.
Identify the one underlined expression that is not correct and correct it. (5 pts)
51. Almost American Indian cultures have been agricultural societies since 2000 BC.
A B C D
52. Would you like to contribute for our earthquake fund?
A B C D
53. The violence is a very great problem in the world.
A B C D
54. Now that the stress of examinations are over, we can go somewhere for our holiday.
A B C D
55. Passengers are advised not to leave their luggage attended.
A B C D
IV. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) which best fits each space. (10
pts)
In the past people suffered (56) .................... a disease called scurvy. Their gums bled, their skin
became rough, their wounds did not (57) .................. and their muscles wasted away. The (58)
................... of these symptoms was a lack of vitamin C; people ate preserved meats and foods and could
not get fresh vegetables and fruits.
The best (59) ................... of vitamin C are oranges, lemons, grapefruit, cantaloupes, strawberries,
and fresh vegetables. These fruits must be fresh because vitamin C is destroyed by heat, storage, or
exposure (60) .................. air.
Although today more people (61) ................... vitamin C pills than any other supplement, some
people still have scurvy, (62) .................. some of the elderly, alcoholics, and the chronically ill.
Research shows that vitamin C reduces the (63) ................... of colds and can help prevent cancer.
There is also evidence that vitamin C prevents heart disease, (64) ................... wound healing, helps
prevent gum disease, and helps protect us from pollutants such as cigarette smoke. Some recent research
also shows that vitamin C has a positive effect on some mental (65) ................... and increases life span.
56. A. from B. with C. by D. at
57. A. close B. recover C. heal D. get well
58. A. reason B. cause C. origin D. signs
59. A. store B. resources C. provider D. sources
60. A. to B. towards C. in D. by
61. A. consume B. drink C. take D. have
62. A. containing B. including C. consisting D. like
63. A. severity B. seriousness C. gravity D. importance
64. A. hastens B. hurries up C. quickens D. speeds
65. A. chaos B. confusions C. disorders D. disturbances
Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word
in each space. (10 pts)
At sixteen Henry Vincent was separated from his family as a result of the war. He wandered
aimlessly from (66) ................ country to another (67) ................ finally setting down in Australia, where
he trained (68) ................ an electronics engineer. He established his own business but it called for so
much work that marriage was out of the (69) ................ .
His retirement suddenly (70) ................ him realize (71) ................ lonely he was and he decided
to (72) ................ up a hobby. With his interest in electronics, amateur radio seemed a natural choice. He
installed his own equipment and obtained a licence and his call sign, which is the set of letters and
numbers used to announce oneself when making radio contact with other radio amateurs all over the
world.
Soon Henry had a great many contacts in far-off places. One in particular was a man in California
with whom he had much in common. One night the man in California (73) ................ to mention the
village in Europe he had come from. Suddenly, Henry realised that this man was in fact his younger
brother, Peter. At first, the two brothers were at a (74) ................ for words but then little by little they
filled in the details of their past lives and not (75) ................ afterwards Henry Vincent flew to California
to be reunited with his brother.
Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answers (A, B, C, or D). (5 pts)
May 7, 1840, was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century:
Peter Illich Tchaikovsky. The son of a mining inspector, Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later
studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred
between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed the patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman
he never met, who gave him a living stipend of about $1,000 a year. Madame von Meck later terminated
her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she herself was facing financial
difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck's patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky
created the music for which he is most famous, including the music for the ballets of “Swan Lake” and
“The Sleeping Beauty”. Tchaikovsky's music, well known for its rich melody and sometimes
melancholy passages, was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this,
little attention had been given to the music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died on November 6, 1893,
ostensibly of cholera, although there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
76. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. The life and music of Tchaikovsky. B. Development of Tchaikovsky's music for
ballets.
C. Tchaikovsky's relationship with Madame von Meck. D. The cause of Tchaikovsky's death.
77. Where is the best place in the passage to add the following sentence?
She had commissioned some works from him and had so admired his music that
she agreed to support him.
A. In line 2 after the word “Tchaikovsky” B. In line 6 after the word “year”
C. In line 7 after the word “difficulties” D. In line 12 after the word “dance”
78. In lines 5, the phrase “enjoyed the patronage of” probably means:
A. liked the company of B. was mentally attached to
C. solicited the advice of D. was financially dependent upon
79. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT:
A. She had economic troubles. B. She was generous.
C. She was never introduced to Tchaikovsky. D. She enjoyed Tchaikovsky's music.
80. According to the passage, “Swan Lake” and “The Sleeping Beauty” are:
A. dances B. songs C. operas D. plays
V. WRITING
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
81. I am only interested in why he did it.
→ The only thing.............................................................................
82. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
→ There has been ...........................................................................
83. I can’t understand how this new computer works.
→ This new computer works ..........................................................
84. She didn’t inherit anything under her uncle’s will.
→ Her uncle didn’t .........................................................................
85. I only recognized him when he came into light.
→ Not until .....................................................................................
Part 2. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words,
including the word given. (5 pts)
86. People claim that he was the best tennis player of his times. said
→ He................................. the best tennis player of his times.
87. They left early because they didn’t want to get caught in the traffic. avoid
→ They left early in order ................................. in the traffic.
88. Why didn’t they tell me about these changes earlier? should
→ I ................................. about these changes earlier.
89. He had a very traditional upbringing, didn’t he? traditionally
→ He ................................., wasn’t he?
90. I would like to express my thanks for everything you have done for me. thankful
→ I’d like to say................................. am for everything you have done for me.
Part 3. Composition (10 pts)
The world is experiencing a dramatic increase in population. This is causing problems not only for poor,
developing countries, but also for industrialized and developed nations. Describe some of the problems
that overpopulation causes and suggest at least one possible solution. You should write at least 200
words.
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ĐỀ 22
II. Choose ONE word or phrase which best completes each sentence. (3ps)
1. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ………………………..
A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood
2. I must take this watch to be repaired; it____ over 20 minutes a day.
A. increases B. gains C. accelerates D. progresses
3. Since they aren't answering the phone, they __________.
A. need have left B. can’t have left C. must have left D. should have left
4. I'd sooner they _________ deliver the new furniture tomorrow.
A. mustn't B. shouldn't C. didn't D. wouldn't
5. John's got very ______ feelings about taking on more responsibility at the moment.
A. puzzled B. mixed C. jumbled D. muddled
6. The college will soon be ready to ______ candidates for new courses.
A. enrol B. involve C. call D. recall
7. Someone ……….here recently: these ashes are still warm.
A. should be B. had to be C. must have been D. might have been
8. I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back, we are home and dry.
A. have been successful B. have not got wet C. have got no water D. have got
home dry
9. I know his name, but I can’t recall it at the moment. It’s on the tip of ________.
A. tongue B. brain C. mind D. memory
10. To the best of my _______ , he married an Irish girl .
A. retention B. recall C. memory D. recollection
11. ________ to the big city, I have got lost many times.
A. Useless B. Unused C. Unfamiliar D.
Unacquainted
12. He never………….. his word
A. goes back on B. puts up with C. makes up for D. goes down with
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (2ps)
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become
extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the
jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will
become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been
caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material
gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the
problem of extinction. Animals, such as Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable
parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure
their survival and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries,
in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They
then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also
depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols
to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott
of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent
animals from being hunted and killed.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “alarming” in the first paragraph?
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
3. The word “callousness” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. indirectness B. independence C. incompetence D. insensitivity
4. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast_______.
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information
5. What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refers to in the passage?
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger
population
6. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in the second paragraph?
A. set aside B. combined C. organized D. taken off
7. What does the term “international boycott” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animal survival
D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
8. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised

IV: Read the text and decide which word best fits each blank by circling the letter A, B, C or
D (2p).

United Parcel Service (UPS) believes that its employees should give the firm a fair day’s
work for a fair’s day pay. The package delivery firm seems willing to give more than a fair’s day pay.
But in (1) ____, UPS expects maximum output from its employees.

Since 1920s, the firm’s industrial engineers have been studying every detail of every task (2) ____ by
most UPS employees. From their studies have come time and motion standards that govern how those
tasks are performed and how long they should take. Drivers, for example, are expected to walk to a
customer’s door at a speed of exactly three feet per second. They are told to knock as soon as they get
there, rather than (3) ____ time looking for a doorbell.
Work engineers are (4) ____ riding with drivers, timing everything from stops at traffic lights, to
wait at customers’ doorway, to stairway climbs, to coffee break. And they are not (5) ____ to pointing
out the occasional inefficiency. Additionally, supervisors ride with the least good drivers, noting how
they work and constantly (6) ____ them until their work is up to standard.
The (7) ____of all this work engineering is efficiency, and UPS has been called one of the most
efficient companies anywhere. It's also a highly profitable company. Most drivers take the regimentation
in stride: many show (8) ____ in meeting the UPS standards each day. Others, however, feel that they are
constantly being pushed, that it is impossible for them to relax at work. UPS officials claim that the
standards provide accountability. And, they say, employees who work according to UPS standards
should feel less tired at the end of the day.
1: A. fact B. exchange C. return D. short
2: A. hold B. performed C. accepted D. under
3: A. wasting B. spend C. spending D. waste
4: A. consistently B. continually C. constructively D. chronically
5: A. impolite B. brave C. intimate D. averse
6: A. scolding B. criticizing C. encouraging D. correcting
7: A. task B. reason C. object D. target
8: A. pride B. passion C. interest D. pleasure

V. The passage below contains 7 mistakes. (0) has been done for you as an example. IDENTIFY
and CORRECT the other six. (1.5 p)
1. all complete 🡪completely
Things started to go wrong as soon as we got to the hotel. We were all complete exhausted after
our long journey and looking forward to a shower and a rest. However, we found that our room was not
ready, which was very annoy, although the manager was extremely apologetic. While we were waiting,
we asked about the excursions to places of an interest which we had read about in brochure. Imagine
how we felt when we were told they had all cancelled! Apparently, the person responsible for organising
them had left suddenly and had not been replaced. Then Sally saw a notice pinning to the door of the
restaurant, saying it was closed for redecoration, and Peter discovered that the swimming pool was
empty. When we eventually got to our room we were horrified find that it was at the back of the hotel,
and we had a view of a car park, which seemed to be used as a rubbish dump. We seriously began to
wonder whether or not to stay.

VI. Using the word given and other words, complete the sencond sentence so that it has a similar
meaning to the first sentence. (2 Ps)

1. Barbara runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her five children.
• Not only ……………………………………………………………………………….………
2. The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was
imposed. (decline)
• There ……………………………………………………………………………….…………
3. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning. (question)
🡪My changing ……………………………………………………………………………….……
4. As a result of the bad weather, there may be delay to some international flights. (subject)
🡪Due to the bad weather ……………………………………………………………possible delay.

VII: Read the passage and use ONLY ONE suitable word to fill in each gap (1.5 p).
In a village on the east coast of Scotland, people were waiting for news. Two of fishing-boats had
been caught in the storm which had blown up during the night. In the cottages round the harbor Page
people stood by their doors (1)______ worried to talk.
The rest of the fishing fleet had (2)______ the harbor before dark, and the men from these ships
waited and watched with the wives and families of the missing men. Some had (3)______ thick blankets
and some flasks of hot drinks, knowing that the men would be cold and tired. When dawn began to break
over in the east, a small point of light was (4) ______ in the darkness of the water and a few minutes
later, there was a shout.
 (5) ________ long, the two boats were turning in, past the lighthouse, to the inside of the harbor.
The men were helped out of their boats, and although they were stiff (6)______ cold and tiredness, they
were all safe.

VIII. Complete the following passage by supplying the correct form of the word to fill in each
blank. (1.5ps)
BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
The black widow spider’s notoriety is not without foundation. However, an element of exaggeration has
led to certain (1. CONCEPT) regarding its evil nature.
Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the most venomous
species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the prairie rattlesnake, its bite injects
such as amount of venom by comparison that it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact, (2. FATAL) are rare.
Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only the adult female
is poisonous. Those most at risk from the female are the spider’s natural pray-insects-and male black
widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is (3. SOLITUDE) by nature, and has been known
to kill and eat the male after mating. Such occurences are rare, but they explain how the spider got its
name – and its reputation.
Nevertheless, the unpleasant effects of this spider’s bite should not be (4. ESTIMATE), and if you live in
a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is advisable to take (5. CAUTION). Black
widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you should wear gloves when handling firewood.
Furthermore, since black widow spiders are (6. RESIST) to many insecticides, you should regularly
clean out likely hiding places.
IX: In some countries, teenagers have jobs while they are still students. Do you think it is a good
idea? Support your opinion by using specific reasons and details. (in about 100 to 150 words) (You
can write in this page)