VERBAL REASONING TEST

Test 3
Question Book

Structure of the book

Number of questions Number of questions to be Time allowed

answered

60 60 30 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS

1. There are 60 questions in this sample set. You have 30 minutes to complete the real test which contains
60 questions.
2. With each question there are five possible answers A, B, C, D or E. For each question, you are to
choose the ONE answer you think is best. To show your answer, fill the oval for one letter (A, B, C, D or
E) on the separate answer sheet in the section headed Verbal Reasoning.
3. If you don’t know the answer to a question, make a guess or come back to it later. You don’t lose
marks if you get something wrong. It may be difficult to finish all the questions in the time allowed, so
don’t spend too long on any one question.
4. If you decide to change an answer, rub it out completely and mark your new answer clearly.
5. If you want to work anything out you may write on the question booklet.
6. If you need the help of the supervisor during the test, raise your hand.
 Verbal Reasoning

Question 1

Every day, if Ram starts to walk early in the morning towards the south, the sun will be visible
at his left:

A. Always
B. Never
C. Often
D. Sometimes
E. Data Inadequate

Question 2

Rearrange the following five sentences in proper sequence so as to construct a coherent

paragraph, and answer the question that follows:

(i) The two neighbours never fought each other.

(ii) Fights involving three male fiddler crabs have been recorded, but the status of the
participants was unknown.
(iii) They pushed or grappled only with the intruder.
(iv) We recorded 17 cases in which a resident that was fighting an intruder was joined by an
immediate neighbour, an ally.
(v) We, therefore, tracked 268 intruder males until we saw them fighting a resident male.

Which of the following should be the fourth sentence ?

A. (ii)
B. (v)
C. (iv)
D. (i)
E. (ii)

Question 3

Is the distance from the post office to home less than the distance from the hospital to home?

Statement I : The time taken to travel from home to post office is as much as the time taken
from home to the hospital, both distances being covered without stopping.
Statement II : The road from the hospital to home is bad and speed reduces, as compared to
that on the road from home to the post office.

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A. The question can be answered with the help of Statement I alone.

B. The question can be answered with the help of Statement II alone.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are needed to answer the question.
D. The question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements
E. The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.

Question 4

A sentence has broken into four parts. Choose the part that has an error. If there is no error, the
answer is 'E'.
A. You did not wait
B. for us before you
C. went to meet him
D. isn’t it?
E. No error

Question 5
From which of the following statements it can be determined that how many persons definitely
attend meeting before K (starting from Monday to Saturday)?

A. H attend on Thursday. Only two persons attend between J and H. Only three persons attend
between I and K, who attend after H.
B. M attend meeting on Wednesday. Only one attend between K and M. Only two persons
attend between P and Q
C. No one attend between J and M. I attend on Saturday. Only two persons attend between M
and I. R attend on one of the days before J.
D. Only three persons attend between H and L, who attend after Wednesday. Only two persons
attend between L and K. I attend just after K.
E. Cannot be determined from any of the statements

Question 6

Choose the appropriate one word for the phrase “that which is bound to happen”
A. Inevitable.
B. Cosmopolitan.
C. Unanimous.
D. Unusual

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E. None of these.

Question 7

If ‘BEST MIND’ is coded as ‘%&#© W®€μ’ BROWN DOME’ is coded as ‘%¥¥£€ μ¥W&’
‘CLUB MONTH’ is coded as ‘S FD% W¥€©Y then in the given coded pattern how ‘WORD
STEM HOUR’ is coded ?

A. £¥¥μ #©&W Y¥D¥.

B. #©&W Y$D¥ £¥¥μ
C. £¥¥μ ©®DF Y¥D¥.
D. £®μW #©&W Y$D¥.
E. None of these

Question 8

MNOP is a rectangle such that M is North of N. O is North of P. Distance MO is 200m and the
longer side is 2 km. QRST is another rectangle in which Q is north of S and R is North of T.
Distance QS is 400m. QRST intersects MNOP such that QR intersects MN and OP at U and V
respectively. ST intersects MN and OP at W and X respectively.

MW = 1.6 km, QV = 0.9 km

Which of the following statements correctly depicts the directions if one person David
standing at point P wants to travel to point Q?

A. He travels 2km North, turns left and travels 200m, again turns left and walks 1.6km.
B. He travels 400m North, takes a left turn and travel 900m, now takes a right turn and travel
400m
C. He travels 400m North, turns left and walks 200m, turns right and walks 400m again turns
left and walks 700 m
D. He walks 800m North, turns left and walk 0.7 km again turns left and walks 0.6km
E. Cannot be determined from any of the statements

Question 9

Mrs. Samuel has three children and has difficulty remembering their ages and the months of
their birth. The clues below may help her remember.

(i) The boy who was born in the month of June is 7 years old

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(ii) One of the children is 4 years old, but it is not Alex

(iii) Vicky is older than Susan
(iv) One of the children was born in September , but it was not Vicky.
(v) Susan’s birthday is in April
(vi) The youngest child is only two years old.

Based on the clues, which one of the following statements is true?

A. Vicky is the oldest, followed by Alex who was born in September, and the youngest is
Susan who was born in April.
B. Alex is the oldest being born in June, followed by Susan who is 4 years old and the
youngest is Vicky who is 2 years old.
C. Vicky is the oldest being 7 years old, followed by Susan who was born in April and the
youngest is Alex who was born in September.
D. Susan is the oldest who was born in April, followed by Vicky who was born in June and
Alex who was born in September.
E. None of these

Question 10

A person saves 15 biscuit and rest gives to his wife. A mother saves 45 biscuit and gives rest to
his son. A person saves 25 biscuit and gives rest to his sister.
C@D- C is the child of D.
C©D- C is the parent of D
C$D- C is brother of D
C*D- C is wife of D
C#D- C is sister of D
From the above information which of the following relation is true?
(i) U$C*W©S$N#S, If 205 biscuit are given to U then N receives 105 biscuit.
(ii) S#Z*F©J#P$J, If 175 biscuit are given to S then J receives 70 biscuit.
(iii)K*L©O$M#O, If 250 biscuit are given to L then M receives 165 biscuit.

A. all (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.

B. only (i) and (ii) are true.
C. only (ii) and (iii) are true.
D. only (ii) is true.
E. only (iii) is true

The following information relates to questions 11, 12, and 13

Alwin, Bill, Chad and David are to be seated in a row. But Chad and David cannot be together .
Also, Bill cannot be at the third place.

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Question 11

Which of the following must be false?

A. Alwin is at the first place.

B. Alwin is at the second place.
C. Alwin is at the third place.
D. Alwin is at the fourth place.
E. Data Inadequate.

Question 12

If Alwin is not at the third place, then Chad has which of the following option?

A. The first place only

B. The third place only
C. The first and third place only
D. Any of the places
E. Either second or fourth place

Question 13

If Alwin and Bill are together, then which of the following must be necessarily true?
A. Chad is not at the first place
B. Alwin is at the third place
C. David is at the first place
D. Chad is at the first place
E. None of these

Question 14

Four items are given. Mark the one that does not belong the group. If all the four items belong to
the same group, mark ‘E’.

A. Equestrian
B. Neigh
C. Derby
D. Bark
E. All the above belong to the same group.

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Question 15

Five options are given, of which one word is most nearly the same or opposite in meaning to the
given word in the question.

PRODIGY

A. Pauper
B. Despondent
C. Demure
D. Wanton
E. Epitome

Question 16

Which of the pair of phrases (A),(B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in
bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct? If
the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

According to author Joe, a novel is difficult to write when compared to a play is like going for
an election where one has to appeal to a thousand people at a time whereas in a book one appeals
to one only person

A. simpler, running in
B. faster, voting through
C. easier, running for
D. fool proof, voting on
E. No correction required

Question 17

The words ‘ pride’ , ‘slime’, ‘grant’ and ‘price’ share a common trait. Which one of the
following words also share the same trait?
A. proud
B. shape
C. other
D. whole
E. asked

Question 18

What letter comes next in the following sequence?

O, T, F, S, N , E , ?

A. R

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B. P
C. A
D. W
E. T

Question 19

Candace is Jane’s daughter’s aunt’s husband’s daughter’s sister. What is the relationship
between Candace and Jane?
A. Jane is Candace’s cousin
B. Candace’s father is Jane’s grandfather
C. Candace is Jane’s niece
D. Jane is Candace’s mother
E. Jane is Candace’s sister

Question 20

A part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence some alternatives are given which
can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. Find out the correct answer.

Occurring naturally over ninety elements that cannot be segregated into various kinds of matter.
A. is ninety
B. are over ninety
C. being over ninety
D. is over ninety
E. No improvement

Question 21

What is next in series?

ON , DJ , FM, AM , ??

A. PM
B. GF
C. SU
D. JJ
E. None of these

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Question 22

The words ‘Timer’, ‘spool’, ‘reward’ share a common theme. Which one of the following words
share the same theme?

A. desserts
B. theme
C. hidden
D. below
E. house

Question 23

The houses on a street are numbered 1,2,3,4,5 etc. up one side of the street; then the numbers
continue consecutively on the other side of the street and work this way back to be opposite
number 1. If house number 12 is opposite house number 29, how many houses are there on both
sides on the street?
A. 41
B. 37
C. 40
D. 22
E. 61

Question 24

Find the hidden idiom

A. It’s all black and blue
B. Half black and blue
C. Beaten black and blue
D. Blue on Black.
E. None of these

Question 25

Find the correctly spelt word.

A. Acqaintence

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 Verbal Reasoning

B. Acquaintance
C. Acquiantance
D. Acquaintence
E. Acquintanse

Question 26

One hundred doctors are attending a medical convention. Each doctor is either a surgeon or a
dermatologist. At least one is a dermatologist. Given any two of the doctors, at least one is a
surgeon. How many are dermatologists and how many are surgeons?

A. 1, 99
B. 20, 80
C. 80, 20
D. 50, 50
E. 90, 10.

Question 27

A rebus is a puzzle device that combines the use of illustrated pictures with individual letters to
depict words and/or phrases. Identify what this rebus riddle means.
A. Back To Square one from Pi
B. Eight Sigma and Pi Molecular orbital
C. Ice cubes with some pie.
D. Complex numbers sometimes equals pi
E. None of these

Question 28

Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.

BARGE:VESSEL
A. Shovel : Implement
B. Book : Anthology
C. Rim : Edge
D. Training : Preparation

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E. None of these

Question 29

Choose the phrase that best replaces the underlined part of the given sentence.

The Romanians may be restive under Soviet direction but they are tied to Moscow by
ideological and military links.

A. they are tied to Moscow by ideological and military links.

B. they are preparing for a great revolution
C. secretly they rather enjoy the prestige of being protected by the mighty soviets.
D. there is nothing they can do about it.
E. None of these

Question 30

Choose the appropriate one word for the following: A list of books
A. Manuscript
B. Catalogue
C. Linguist
D. Verbose
E. None of these

Question 31

Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word or words from the given options

Science is a sort of news agency comparable ____________ to other news agencies.

A. principally
B. in principle
C. in principal
D. in spirit and form
E. None of these

Question 32

Arrange sentences (a), (b), (c) and (d) between sentences 1 and 6 so as to form a logical sequence
of six sentences.
1. The top management should perceive the true worth of people and only then make friends.
(a) Such ‘true friends’ are very few and very rare.

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(b) Factors such as affluence, riches, outward sophistication and conceptual abilities are not
prerequisites for genuine friendship.
(c) Such people must be respected and kept close to the heart.
(d) Business realities call for developing a large circle of acquaintances and contacts; however,
all of them will be motivated by their own self-interest and it would be wrong to treat them as
genuine friends.
6. There is always a need for real friends to whom one can turn for balanced, unselfish advice,
more so when one is caught in a dilemma.

A. abcd
B. adbc
C. acdb
D. acbd
E. adcb

Question 33
A rebus is a puzzle device that combines the use of illustrated pictures with individual letters to
depict words and/or phrases. What does this rebus means ?

A. Up in the air
B. Higher ranking
C. Hijacking
D. Altering a Queue by Changing Retention Time
E. None of these

Question 34

A sentence has broken into four parts. Choose the part that has an error. If there is no error, the
answer is 'E'.
A. I would have
B. showed you the
C. documents yesterday if
D. you had asked for them.
E. No error

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Question 35
Which one of the following five words does not belong with others?

A. Taciturn
B. Reserved
C. Clamorous
D. Silent
E. Reticent

Question 36

How many students among P, Q, R and S have passed the examination?

Statement I: The following is a true statement : P and Q passed the examination.
Statement II: The following is a false statement : At least one among R and S has passed the
examination.

A. The question can be answered with the help of Statement I alone.

B. The question can be answered with the help of Statement II alone.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are needed to answer the question.
D. The question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements
E. The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.

The following information relates to questions 37 and 38

At a gathering of mathematicians, everyone shook hands with four other people, except for two
people, who shook hands with only one other person. If one person shakes hands with another,
each person counts as one handshake.

Question 37

What is the minimum number of people who could have been present?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
E. 14

Question 38

What is the minimum total number of handshakes that took place?

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A. 20
B. 22
C. 24
D. 26
D. 28

Question 39

A. operation
B. Incomplete Operation
C. Painless Operation
D. Multiple Objection Operation
E. None of these

The following information relates to the questions 40, 41 and 42

Four married couples live on a street in four different coloured houses.

1) One of the houses is red.
2) Harry does not live in the white house
3) Alice is not married to Brad
4) Steve lives in the yellow house.
5) John is not married to June
6) Harry does not live in the blue house.
7) Alice lives in the blue house.
8) June is married to Harry.
9) Nancy is not married to Steve
10) Sara is one of the wives.

Question 40
What is the colour of Harry’s house?

A. Blue
B. White
C. Yellow
D. Red
E. Cannot be determined

Question 41

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Who is married to Nancy?

A. Harry
B. John
C. Brad
D. Steve
E. Cannot be determined.

Question 42

Alice lives in ___________ with _________

A. Blue , John
B. Red , John
C. Yellow , Brad
D. White , Brad
E. Cannot be determined

Question 43

A rebus is a puzzle device that combines the use of illustrated pictures with individual letters to
depict words and/or phrases. What does this rebus puzzle mean?

A. Congruent
B. Show list till end
C. Behind the bars
D. Stacked bars end to end
E. None of these

The following information relates to the questions 44, 45 and 46

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Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:-

In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three months old cubs. The mother bear
has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full
access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra
meal at the expense of others. The smallest of the cubs forfeits many meals to stronger siblings.
Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of
photographing polar bears, I have only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.

Question 44

Female polar bears give birth during

A. Spring
B. Summer
C. Autumn
D. Winter
E. Either A or C

Question 45

Mother bear
A. Takes sides over cubs
B. Lets the cubs fend for themselves
C. Feeds only their favourites
D. Sees that all cubs get an equal share
E. All of these

Question 46
With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made
1. Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non-availability of prey.
2. Polar bears always give birth to triplets.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
E. Cannot be determined

Question 47

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In a class of thirty students, Rachael secured third rank among the girls, while her brother Philip
studying in the same class secured the sixth rank in the whole class. Between the two, who had a
better overall rank?

Statement I : Philip was among the top 25% of the boys merit list in the class in which 60% were
boys.
Statement II: There were three boys among the top five rank holders and three girls among the
top ten rank holders.

A. The question can be answered with the help of Statement I alone.

B. The question can be answered with the help of Statement II alone.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are needed to answer the question.
D. The question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements
E. The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.

The following information relates to the questions 48, 49, 50, 51, 52 and 53
Select the most appropriate word from the options against each number.
As home entertainment, television is rapidly becoming more (48) than any other form. A news
broadcast becomes more immediate when people (49) actually see the scene (50) question and
the movement of the figures. Films could be viewed in the (51) of the home and a variety of
shows are also available. One of the advantages of travel programmes is the (52) of faraway
places which many viewers would not (53) see.

Question 48

A. Interesting
B. Popular
C. Powerful
D. Purposeful
E. None of these

Question 49

A. could
B. would
C. might
D. shall
E. None of these

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Question 50

A. of
B. with
C. as
D. in
E. to

Question 51

A. surroundings
B. assistance
C. comfort
D. privilege
E. existence

Question 52

A. glimpses
B. image
C. portrait
D. picture
E. art

Question 53

A. possible
B. rather
C. else
D. otherwise
E. wherever

Question 54
A certain number of persons sit in a row adjacent to each other. Some of them like different
fruits and others like different flowers. Six persons sit between the one who like orange and the
one who like banana. The one who likes lily sit third to the left of the one who likes banana. Two
persons sit between the one who likes lily and the one who likes lavender, who is not a

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neighbour of the one who likes orange. Only one person sit to the right of the one who likes
lavender. No one sit to the right of the one who likes orange.
Note: The one who likes fruits faces South and the one who likes flowers face North.
How many persons sit between banana and lavender?

A. 11
B. 18
C. 15
D. 5
E. 13

Question 55

Statement- More than 9 million high-school students across China are taking the biggest exam
of their lives known as the gaokao, this week. For millions of teenagers, it's a big source of
stress. For many businesses, it's a great chance to make money.

Which of the following statements/facts substantiates the importance of this test for Chinese
people?

(i) The gruelling test determines where the students can go to university and what they'll study.

(ii) Parents are willing to loosen the purse strings to try to ensure success, splashing out on
private tutors, good luck charms and even luxury hotels.

(iii) Chinese students have also begun spending more on drugs and dietary supplements that they
believe will improve their memory and attention.

A. Only (i)
B. Both (i) and (ii)
C. Only (iii)
D. Both (ii) and (iii)
E. All (i), (ii) and (iii)

The following information relates to questions 56, 57 and 58

Seven persons have their birthday on seven different dates of seven different months viz.
January, February, March, April, May, June, July. U has birthday on 11. Difference between the
dates of birthdays of U and Q is 8. The difference between the birthdays of P and T is of more
than 9 days but less than 13 days. O’s birthday is in the month having least number of days. P’s
birthday is in a month having 30 days. Q’s birthday is in a month immediately after U but in a

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month having 30 days. T’s birthday is in one of the months after Q’s birthday. The one whose
birthday is in a month having least number of days has birthday on 26. Difference between the
dates of the birthdays of Q and O is not less than 10. The one whose birthday is in June has
birthday on a date which is immediately after O’s birthday. T’s birthday is on an even date. The
one whose birthday is in May month has birthday on an odd date before the date on which P’s
has birthday. The difference between the birthdays of P and S is more than 36 days but less than
39 days. The difference between the dates of the birthdays of R and O is same as the difference
between the dates of the birthdays of O and S.

Question 56
Q has birthday in which of the following month?
A. May
B. January
C. April
D. March
E. None of these

Question 57
S has birthday on which of the following date?
A. 25
B. 21
C. 19
D. 20
E. None of these

Question 58

How many months gap is there between the birthday months of R and S?
A. One
B. Three
C. Two
D. None
E. More than three

Question 59

Three professors Mathew, Patrick and Shawn are separately given three sets of numbers to add.
They were expected to find the answers to 1+1, 1+1+2 and 1+1 respectively. Their respective
answers were 3, 3 and 2. How many of the professors are mathematicians?

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Statement I : A mathematician can never add two numbers correctly, but can always add three
numbers correctly.
Statement II : When a mathematician makes a mistake in a sum, the error is +1 or -1.

A. The question can be answered with the help of Statement I alone.

B. The question can be answered with the help of Statement II alone.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are needed to answer the question.
D. The question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements
E. The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.

Question 60
Statement- Drinking in moderation can help our health, some research has showed. Many
doctors recommend a glass of wine or beer a night as part of diet plans such as the Mediterranean
diet and the DASH diet, which have been proven to keep your heart and brain healthy. However,
a new study suggests that even moderate drinking may not be great for your brain.

Which of the following can be deduced from the above statement?

(i) Scientific researches can contradict at times.
(ii) Moderate intake of wine is less harmful than cigarette.
(iii) Something which is not good for brain does not mean it cannot be healthy.

A. Only (i)
B. Both (i) and (ii)
C. Only (iii)
D. Both (ii) and (iii)
E. None of these

END OF EXAMINATION

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