Apple B Question Bank Complete.

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching
BUY NOW  : Economics | Paper 1 | English | Commerce | Management

+ 91 98466 48366 | 9495908655 | www.applebacademy.com | [email protected]
Index
Page No.
I. Teaching Aptitude 1 - 91
i. Teaching Aptitude 2018 December 1 - 17
ii. Teaching Aptitude 2019 June 18 - 30
iii. Teaching Aptitude 2019 December 31 - 46
iv. Teaching Aptitude 2020 June 47 - 90
Teaching Aptitude – Answer Key 91
II. Research Aptitude 92 - 178
i. Research Aptitude 2018 December 91 - 110
ii. Research Aptitude 2019 June 110 - 123
iii. Research Aptitude 2019 December 124 - 134
iv. Research Aptitude 2020 June 134 - 176
Research Aptitude – Answer Key 177 - 178
III. Reading Comprehension 179 - 271
i. Reading Comprehension 2018 December 179 - 196
ii. Reading Comprehension 2019 June 196 - 214
iii. Reading Comprehension 2019 December 214 - 231
iv. Reading Comprehension 2020 June 231 - 269
Reading Comprehension – Answer Key 270 - 271
IV. Communication 272 - 360
i. Communication 2018 December 272 - 286
ii. Communication 2019 June 286 - 300
iii. Communication 2019 December 300 - 317
iv. Communication 2020 June 317 - 359
Communication – Answer Key 360
V. Mathematical Aptitude 361 - 427
i. Mathematical Aptitude 2018 December 361 - 369
ii. Mathematical Aptitude 2019 June 370 - 380
iii. Mathematical Aptitude 2019 December 380 - 392
iv. Mathematical Aptitude 2020 June 392 - 426
Mathematical Aptitude – Answer Key 427
VI. Logical Reasoning 428 - 510
i. Logical Reasoning 2018 December 428 - 445

ii. Logical Reasoning 2019 June 446 - 460
iii. Logical Reasoning 2019 December 460 - 473
iv. Logical Reasoning 2020 June 474 - 508
Logical Reasoning – Answer Key 509 - 510
VII. Data Interpretation 511 - 597
i. Data Interpretation 2018 December 511 - 527
ii. Data Interpretation 2019 June 528 - 543
iii. Data Interpretation 2019 December 544 - 560
iv. Data Interpretation 2020 June 561 - 596
Data Interpretation – Answer Key 597
VIII. Information And Communication Technology (ICT) 598 - 674
i. Information And Communication Technology (ICT) 2018
598 - 611
December
ii. Information And Communication Technology (ICT) 2019
612 - 624
June
iii. Information And Communication Technology (ICT) 2019
624 - 640
December
iv. Information And Communication Technology (ICT) 2020
641 - 672
June
Information And Communication Technology (ICT) – Answer Key 673 - 674
IX. People And Environment 675 - 762
i. People And Environment 2018 December 675 - 689
ii. People And Environment 2019 June 689 - 703
iii. People And Environment 2019 December 703 - 720
iv. People And Environment 2020 June 721 - 760
People And Environment – Answer Key 761 - 762
X. Higher Education 763 - 849
i. Higher Education 2018 December 763 - 778
ii. Higher Education 2019 June 779 - 792
iii. Higher Education 2019 December 792 - 808
iv. Higher Education 2020 June 808 - 847
Higher Education – Answer Key 848 - 849

TEACHING APTITUDE
Teaching aptitude 2018 December
2018 December||Adult Education| Anthropology| Chinese| Comparative Literature|

Comparative Study of Religions| German| Home Science| Indian Culture| Japanese|
Labour Welfare| Maithili| Management| Manipuri| Philosophy| Physical Education|
Tourism Administration and Management
Q1. Which of the following indicates the concept of Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) as
suggested by psychologist Lev Vygotsky ?
1. A learner's brain develops faster in childhood.
2. A learner learns effectively when it is supported with real life examples.
3. What a learner can do with help and without help.
4. Friends interaction is very important for proper development of child.
Q2. Which among the following is the correct set of four fundamental principles of
Rabindranath Tagore's educational philosophy ?
Options :
1. Humanism, Commercialisation, Urbanisation, Hinduism
2. Naturalism, Humanism, Internationalism, Idealism
3. Globalisation, Localisation, transformation, Capitalism
4. Socialism, Spiritualism, Tourism, Commercialism
Q3. The field of study of the theory and practice of self-determined learning that focuses on
the importance of knowing how to learn is known as :
1. Epistemology
2. Andragogy
3. Pedagogy
4. Heutagogy
Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 1

Q4. The construction of thought process, which includes remembering, problem solving and
decision making, is called as :
1. Andragogy
2. Psychology
3. Pedagogy
4. Cognitive development
Q5. The field of study dealing with methods and principles used in adult education is known
as:
1. Pedagogy
2. Andragogy
3. Anthropology
4. Gerontology
2018 December||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies| Bengali | Bodo| Environmental

Sciences| Hindi
Q6. Prime objective of using audio-lingual aids in a classroom is to keep students to develop
1. Spelling and punctuation skills
2. Listening and speaking skills
3. Reading and writing skills
4. Vocabulary and grammar
Q7. Which among the following is best instrument to evaluate quality or characteristics of a
learner?
1. Checklist
2. Rating Scale
3. Inventory
4. Rubrics

Q8. The growth, development and increased access to technology over decades have
contributed to learner characteristics in terms of using technology. Below are given two
sets, please match the generation as being popularly called based on birth year
Set I Set II
(a) Born 1945 and before i. Generation Z
(b) Born 1946 to 1964 ii. Generation Y
(c) Born 1965 to 1976 iii. Baby Boomer
(d) Born 1977 to 1995 iv. Traditionalist
(e) Born 1996 and after v. Generation X
Options: a b c d e
1. iv iii v ii i
2. ii i iii iv v
3. i v ii iii iv
4. iii iv i v ii
Q9. Which of the following is correct statement in relation to fishbowl style of classroom
layout ?
1. Students sit in ‘C’ shape formation with teacher at the centre.
2. Students are grouped together on small tables so that they can engage in small group
discussions.
3. Some students sit close together in a circle in the centre of classroom while the rest of
students stand at the back of classroom and observe the group discussion.
4. Students sit in horizontal rows so that they can clearly see each other but this does not
facilitate group discussion.
Q10. Which among the following is the apex institution in India working in the area of
training educational planners and administrators
1. NCERT
2. SCERT
3. NIEPA
4. NCTE

2018 December||Arabic| Geography| Gujarati| Library and Information Science| Nepali|
Psychology| Punjabi|
Q11. For organizing an effective teaching-learning system which of the following
combinations of statements would reflect the most appropriate concern ? Select from the
code to indicate your answer.
(a) Determining what will be the intended learning outcome
(b) Deciding as to what strategy and tactics will be used
(c) Formally approving the academic qualifications of teachers
(d) Determining the evaluation tool to be used
(e) Deciding the size of the classroom
(f) Assessing the prior academic experience of the learner
1. (a), (c), (d) and (e)
2. (a), (b), (d) and (f)
3. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
4. (c), (d), (e) and (f)
Q12. In order to promote direct learning which of the following methods would be best
suited ?
1. Team teaching method
2. Project method
3. Lecture with examples
4. Discussion session
Q13. From the following list of learner characteristics identify those which will be helpful in
ensuring effectiveness of teaching. Select our answer from the code
(a) Extent to which learner obeys the school rules
(b) Learner's level of motivation
(c) Feelings of leaners towards the social system
(d) Learner's interest in sports and games
(e) Prior experience of the learner
(f) Interpersonal relations of learners

1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (c), (d) and (e)
3. (a), (c) and (e)
4. (b), (e) and (f)
Q14. Which devices from the list given below will form part of formative evaluation? Give
vour answer by selecting from the code
(a) Conducting a quiz session
(b) Giving multiple-choice type questions in post-instructional sessions
(c) Giving a mastery test
(d) Providing corrective feedback during discussions
(e) Encouraging opportunity for metacognitive thinking
(f) Grading students’ performance on a five point scale
1. (a), (d) and (e)
2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (d), (e) and (f)
Q15. Below are given a number of key behaviours as well as helpful behaviours of
effectiveness of teaching based on research evidence. Identify those which are key
behaviours and indicate your answer by selecting from the code.
(a) Structuring through comments by the teacher in respect of what is to come.
(b) Questioning through content and process level questions.
(c) Lesson clarity implying the extent to which presentations are not involved.
(d) Probing which implies statements to encourage students to elaborate.
(e) Engagement rate devoted to learning when students are actually on task.
(f) Rate at which students understand and correctly comprehend assignments and exercises.
1. (a), (d) and (e)
2. (b), (c) and (d)
3. (c), (e) and (f)
4. (a), (d) and (f)

2018 December|| Archaeology| Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies| Dance| Folk
Literature| Forensic Sci-ence| French| Hindustani Music| History| Karnatik Music|
Kashmiri| Konkani| Linguistics| Mass Communication and Journalism| Museology and
Conservation| Pali| Persian| Prakrit| Rabindra Sangeet| Russian| Santali| Spanish|
Q16. Which of the following is an indicator of key behaviour in effective teaching as evident
from researches ?
1. teacher affect in developing teacher-learner relationship
2. engagement in learning by students
3. Using student ideas and contributions
4. Use of process and content questions during teaching
Q17. In the following statements identify those which relate to 'Norm-Referenced Testing'
(NRT). Select from the code to give your answer.
(a) Covering a large domain of learning tasks with just a few items measuring specific
tasks.
(b) Emphasizing discrimination among individuals in terms of relative level of learning.
(c) Focusing on a specified domain of learning tasks with a large number of items
measuring specific tasks.
(d) Interpretation requires a clearly defined group.
(e) Interpretation requires a clearly defined achievement domain.
(f) Emphasizing description of learning tasks which individuals can and cannot perform.
1. (a), (b) and (d)
2. (b) (c) and (f)
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (d), (e) and (f)

Q18. In the two sets given below, Set - I provides the different levels of teaching and
learning while Set - II gives their exemplars and concerns. Match the two sets and select
from the code to indicate your answer.
Set – I (Levels of teaching and Set – II (Exemplars and concerns)
learning)
(a) Memory level (i) Encourages critical drinking based cognitive
interchange
(b) Understanding level (ii) Protects personal interest and attitudinal concerns
(c) Reflective level (iii) Facilitates recalling and recognizing of facts
(iv) Enhances scope for seeing of relationships and
meanings
Options a b c
1. i ii iii
2. iii ii iv
3. iii iv i
4. iv iii ii
Q19. From the following list, identify the indicators of commitment areas of teachers and
learners Select from the code to give your answer.
(a) 'Do it well' approach
(b) Developing contact with community
(c) Enhancing performance in classroom including teaching-learning processes
(d) Concern for the all round development and readiness to help
(e) Acquiring curricular and content competency
(f) Respecting impartiality, objectivity and intellectual honesty
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (b), (c) and (d)
3. (a), (d) and (f)
4. (d), (e) and (f)
2018 December|| Assamese| Computer Science and Applications| Criminology| Drama or
Theatre| Human Rights and Duties| Odia| Urdu|
Q20. Which among the following best describes emotional

intelligence as a learner characteristic ?

(a) Recognise their own and other people's emotions
(b) Expressing their emotions strongly
(c) Use emotional information to guide thinking and behaviour
(d) Good observation, scientific thinking and deductive reasoning
(e) Adjusting emotions to adapt to environments
(f) Being creative and open to diverse viewpoints
1. (a), (d) and (f)
2. (c), (e) and (f)
3. (a), (c) and (e)
4. (b), (d) and (e)
Q21. Which among the following can best be used as an asynchronous teaching aid ?
(a) Skype (b) Blog (c) Facebook post (d) Online chat (e) Email (f) Google Hangout
1. (a), (c) and (f)
2. (c), (e) and (f)
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (b), (c) and (e)
Q22. The goal of formative assessment is to:

1. Promote student to next level
2. Monitor student learning to provide ongoing feedback
3. Compare student learning against a standard or benchmark
4. Form a group of students on the basis of their learning
Q23. In a school, in which there are large number of failures, you may like to develop test
for eliminating those who are likely to have substantial difficulties in meeting the academic
goals of teaching. For this you need to develop test which should be able to predict the
individual's ability or readiness to undertake the study of a school subject successfully. What
is the name of such tests ?
1. Prognostic Tests
2. Achievement tests

3. Attitude tests
4. Analytical tests
Q24. In teaching learning context, results of an evaluation are useful to teachers in various
ways Which among the following is most important use for a teacher ?
1. planning instruction and knowing the effectiveness of the teaching strategies used by
them.
2. gelling information about student's study interests,
3. to decide placement of students in other institutions,
4. to identify home influence on students.
2018 December||Commerce
Q25. Which of the following are considered as key behaviours of effective teaching as
evident from researches ?
(a)Structuring through comments made for organizing what is to come.
(b)Asking process or content based questions.
(c)Lesson clarity implying the extent, to which teacher's presentation is clear to the class
(d)Using student ideas and contributions while the teacher is presenting the subject.
(e)Instructional variety involving teacher's variability and flexibility during presentation
complete the exercises.
(f)Student success rate implying the rate at which students understand and correctly
1. (a) (b) and (c)
2. (c) (e) and (f)
3. (b) (c) and (d)
4. (a) (c) and (f)
Q26. Below are given the characteristic features of formative and summative assessment
procedures used in various teaching-learning contexts.
(a) it is used for judging learning standard.
(b) lt is used for improvement of capacity and quality.

(c) its use is extended to performance appraisal of teachers, students and institutions.
(d) it is used during instruction.
(e) Assessment is formal and post instructional in nature.
(f) lt is based on participation of both teacher and student.
Which of the given codes relate to formative procedures ?
1. (a) (b) and (c)
2. (b) (c) and (d)
3. (a) (c) and (e)
4. (b), (d) and (f)
Q27. ln the two sets given below, Set-I embodies the domain of ‘teaching competencies’
while Set-II provides the specific competencies which make a teacher effective. Match the
two sets and select appropriate code.
Set-I (Domain of teaching competencies) Set-II (Specific competencies)
(a) Personality and attitude related (i) Dynamism and flexibility
competencies
(b) Behavioural competencies (ii) Subject and general knowledge
(c) Substantive competencies (iii) Good physique and appearance
(d) Style related competencies (iv) Self efficacy and locus of control
(v) Teaching and managing
Options: a b c d
1. (iv) (v) (ii) (i)
2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
4. (iii) (i) (ii) (v)
Q28. ln which of the modalities of teaching - learning arrangements there is more scope for
critical and creative interchange ?
1. Training session
2. Conditioning to promote sensitivity

3. Instructional presentations involving scope for information processing
4. Dialogic presentations involving teachers, students and the content
Q29. Which of the following specify the factors affecting teaching. For your answer select
from the code given below :
(a) Availability of teaching aids and their use
(b) School-community linkages
(c) Interest of parents in the school programmes
(d) Subject-knowledge of the teacher
(e) Frequency of organizing co-curricular activities
(f) Verbal and non-verbal communication skills of the teacher
1. (d) (e) and (f)
2. (a) (d) and (f)
3. (a) (b) and (c)
4. (b) (c) and (e)
Q30. ln the two sets given below, Set-I embodies the list of research types while Set-II
provides their nature and characteristics. Match the two sets and give your answer from the
code which follows :
Set-I (Research types) Set-II (Nature and characteristics)
(a) Experimental research (i) Generalizations follow rather than precede the observations in
due course
(b) Exports facts research (ii) Emphasizing the access to reality by sharing the perspectives of
people
(c) Participant observation (iii) Getting at causal facts by retrospective based research analysis
(d) Grounded theory (iv) Describing the status and conditions as based research
approach obtainable
(v) Controlling the extraneous variables and observing the effect of
independent variable manipulated by the researcher on dependent
Options a b c d
1 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2 (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
3 (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4 (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

2018 December|| Defence and Strategic Studies|Dogri| Economics| Electronic Science|
International and Area Studies| Marathi| Percussion Instruments| Rajasthani| Sanskrit|
Social Medicine and Community Health| Tribal and Regional Language Literature|
Women Studies|
Q31. In the following list identify these statements which are indicative of helping behaviour
of effective teaching. Select from the code to give your answer.
(a) Instructional variety marked by multiple devices used.
(b) Using the ideas of students while making presentations.
(c) Student's success rate as evident in correctly understanding the assignments.
(d) Engagement in learning tasks.
(e) Teacher affect as manifest in relations with students.
(f) Probing to add and seek classifications of ideas.
1. (b), (e) and (f)
2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (d), (e) and (a)
4. (b), (c) and (d)
Q32. From the list given below identify these statements which relate to die characteristics
of a teaching act. Select from the code to indicate your answer.
(a) Teaching is a personal act to facilitate self-development.
(b) The goal of all teaching is to cause learning.
(c) Teaching invariably implies changing the opinion of others.
(d) Teaching is triadic rather than dyadic in nature.
(e) Teaching means selling ideas.
(f) Teaching means reaching the mind of students.
1. (a) (b) and (c)
2. (c) (d) and(e)
3. (b) (d) and (f)
4. (f) (e) and (d)

Q33. For promoting competence and excellence in and through education, which of the
needs of Maslow's hierarchy has to be addressed?
1. Need for love and belongings
2. Need for Self esteem
3. Safety needs
4. Need for self-actualization
Q34. Which of the following are hindering factors in effective teaching? Select from the
code to give your answer.
(a) Teacher's self-efficacy.
(b) Teacher's subject knowledge.
(c) Low ability and willingness level of teacher.
(d) Lack of planning and teaching skills in a teacher.
(e) Teachers's mastery of linguistic skills.
(f) Inappropriate body language of the teacher.
1. (c) (d) and (f)
2. (a) (e) and (c)
3. (b) (c) and (d)
4. (a) (c) and (f)
Q35. In the following characteristics of an evaluation procedure, identify those which

describe formative assessment. Select from the code to indicate your answer.
(a) Evaluation is a post instructional event.
(b) Evaluation occurs during instruction.
(c) Evaluation is carried out by policy makers.
(d) Evaluation takes place periodically.
(e) The aim of evaluation is to improve the process of teaching.

(f) Evaluation is based on participation of students and teacher.
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (b), (c) and (d)

3. (b), (e) and (f)
4. (c), (d) and (f)
2018 December||Education|Kannada| Law| Population Studies| Public Administration|

Sindhi| Telugu|
Q36. Which among the following is a cognitive characteristic of learner ?

1. Sensory perception
2. Belief
3. Academic self-concept
4. Level of visual literacy
Q37. As a teacher you wish to predict the capacity and potential success in your subject.
Your main purpose is to predict, or to identify individuals who have greatest potential for
development along special lines or who are likely to profit most by special training. Which
test you would apply to accomplish that?
1. Aptitude test
2. Intelligence test
3. Personality Test
4. Prognostic Lest
Q38. According to Jean Piaget, there are _________ stages of cognitive development.
1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
Q39. John Dewey explained school as a| an _____ institution, and education as a process.
1. Social, philosophical
2. Social, social
3. Economical, philosophical
4. Environmental, psychological

Q40. Who among the following proposed theory of Multiple Intelligences ?
1. Sigmund Freud
2. Howard Gardner
3. Albert Einstein
4. Jean Paiget
2018 December || English| Sanskrit Traditional Subjects| Social Work| Visual Art| Yoga
Q41. Which among the following is the best field of study to improve the ability of students
to experiment and analyse ?
1. Science
2 History
3 Economics
4. Languages
Q42. Suppose as a teacher you are training your students in public speaking and debate
Which among the following is most difficult to develop among the students ?
1. Concept formulation
2. Voice modulation
3. Using|Selecting appropriate language
4. Control over emotions
Q43. Among the following which one is not instructional material ?

1. Audio podcast
2. Printed study guide
3. Overhead projector
4. Youtube video

Q44. Which among the following is best advantage of Choice Based Credit System ?
1. Shift in focus from teacher-centric to student-centric education
2. Improving classroom attendance
3. Helping teacher to complete syllabus on time
4. Reducing examination anxiety among students
Q45. Which among the following reflects best the quality of teaching in a classroom ?
1. Through full attendance in the classroom
2. Through the use of many teaching aids in the classroom
3. Through observation of silence by the students in classroom
4. Through the quality of questions asked by students in classroom
2018 December|| Malayalam|Political Science| Sociology| Tamil|
Q46. According to Bloom's traditional taxonomy, the highest level of learning in cognitive
domain is '
1. Application
2. Evaluation
3. Analysis
4. Comprehension
Q47. Assignment method of teaching is a combination of which of the following ?

1. Heuristic method and problem solving method
2. Lecture-cum—demonstration method and laboratory method
3. Project method and lecture method
4. Lecture method and field visit method

Q48. Heuristic method of teaching was developed by
1. John Dewey
2. Friedrich Froebel
3. H.E Armstrong
4. Anne Sullivan
Q49. There are some best practices of using teaching aids in classroom. Below are given
certain teaching media aids, please match them according to the size of the class in terms of
number of students and the teaching aid to be used
Set - I Set - II
(a) Small size class of 2-3 students (i) Flip-chart or white board
(b) Medium size class of 10-15 students (ii) PowerPoint slides
(c) Large size class of 20-25 students (iii) Oval presentation with display screen
(d) Extra large size class of more than 30
(iv) Writing on paper
students
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
3. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
4. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Q50. There are teaching aids which are centered around certain skills such as fl-_'E1£lll1§
listening and pronunciation etc. Such teaching aids are called as
1. Skill based teaching aids
2. Audio-lingual teaching aids
3. General knowledge teaching aids
4. Scientific teaching aids

2019 June || Adult Education| Anthropology| Chinese| Comparative Literature|
Comparative Study of Religions| German |Home Science |Indian Culture |Japanese
|Labour Welfare| Maithili| Management| Manipuri| Philosophy| Physical Education|
Tourism Administration and Management|
Q51. Peer group interaction in a classroom helps in

(1) Concept understanding
(2) Realization of One’s misunderstanding
(3) Rapport Building
(4) Questioning
Q52. When the learning outcomes of students are ensured with employment of less
resources and effort on the part of a teacher and more initiative for self-learning is evident,
which of the following expression will describe the teacher most appropriately?
(1) Teacher is successful (2) Teacher is eflfective (3) Teacher is intelligent (4)
Teacher is practical
Q53. Reflective Practice implies use of one’s

(1) Cognition (2) Metacognition (3) Metacognition on cognition (4) Reinforcement of
learning
Q54. Inclusive education implies

(1) Ensuring learning outcome of every child to be the same
(2) Including the disabled in the main stream
(3) Provides compulsory education for children below 14 years
(4) Ensuring that no child is left behind in education
Q55. Listening is important for a teacher to

(1) address the requirement of the learner
(2) gain knowledge
(3) keep the learner in good humour
(4) evaluate the learner for the progress made

2019 June||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies | Bengali|Bodo|Environmental
Sciences|Hindi|
Q56. As per the cognitive development theory of Jean Piaget, adolescent students are in
which stage of development?
(1) Sensory motor stage (2) Concrete operational stage (3) Operational stage (4) Formal
operational stage
Q57. Below is given a list of teaching methods and approaches. Which among them are
individualized approach?
(a) Demonstration method
(b) Modular approach based teaching
(c) Programmed learning
(d) Personalized teaching
(e) Collaborative method
Select your answer from the options given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (a), (d) and(e)
Q58. Which of the following statements is true in the case of a test prepared by you as a
teacher?
(1) If a test is reliable, it is objective
(2) If a test is valid, it is reliable also
(3) If a test is reliable, it is valid
(4) If a test is valid and reliable, it is usable
Q59. Which of the following statements best explains the concept of team teaching?
(1) More than two teachers teach
(2) More than two teachers plan and teach together the same class
(3) More than two teachers plan and teach the same class as per their expertise.
(4) A team of teachers who are ready and available to teach the students

Q60. Which among the following bases can be counted to judge the effectiveness of
teaching?
(a) Marks obtained by students in overall subjects
(b) Level of realization of instructional objectives
(c) Time taken by the students to learn.
(d) Resources used by the teacher in teaching
(e) Regularity of students in class.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
2019 June|| Arabic | Geography|Gujarati|Nepali|Psychology|Punjabi|
Q61. Which of the following is an example of higher order of cognitive learning outcome”
(1) Learning of facts and their sequences
(2) Learning roles and action sequences
(3) Learning of concepts and abstractions
(4) Learning of awareness and valuing
Q62. Which of the following is the key behaviour contributing to effective teaching?
(1) Summarising what was told by a student
(2) Encouraging students to elaborate on an answer
(3) Using direct and indirect questioning

(4) Explaining concepts in a logical step by step presentation

Q63. Instructions which encourage live participation and interaction through online classes
are called
(1) Synchronous instructions (2). Asynchronous instructions (3) Traditional instructions (4)
Theoretical instructions
Q64. What are the elements of evaluation plan?

(a) Purpose
(b) Resources
(c) Analysis
(d) Authority
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) only (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (bl and (c)
Q65. Which type of evaluation focusses on the identification of deficiencies and difficulties
of the learner?
(1) Summative evaluation
(2) Follow up evaluation
(3) Diagnostic evaluation
(4) Criterion — referenced evaluation
2019 June || Archaeology | Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies|Forensic Science|
French| History| Kashmiri|Konkani|Linguistics|Mass Communication and Journalism|
Museology and Conservation| Music Rabindra Sangeet|Pali|Performing Art (Dance
Drama Theatre)| Persian| Prakrit|Russian|Santali|Spanish
Q66. Which of the following is a social characteristic of a learner?

(1) Power of sensory perception (2) Thinking ability
(3) Power of synthetic imagination (4) Ability to relate oneself with others
Q67. Which is the characteristic of formative evaluation?

(1) Evaluation occurs at the terminal point
(2) Evaluation is used before programme design

(3) Evaluation relates to indicating learning outcome of teaching
(4) Evaluation is conducted during teaching
Q68. ‘Cone of Experience‘ related to teaching-learning was suggested by
(1) John Dewey (2) Kilpatrick (3) Froebel (4) Edgar Dale
Q69. The field of study which uses role playing, simulation and self-evaluation as strategies
for adult learners is known as
(1) Pedagogy (2) Andragogy (3) Anthropology (4) Psychology
Q70. Which among the following is a non-cognitive characteristic of learner?

(1) Recalling (2) Problem solving
(3) Identifying important sensory inputs (4) Believing what is true
2019 June ||Assamese | Computer Science and Applications|Criminology|Human Rights

And Duties|Odia|Social Work|Urdu
Q71. To organize discussion method in teaching effectively, which of the following

conditions should be met?
(a) Topic be easy
(b) Topic be declared in advance
(c) Topic of common interest
(d) Availability of more than one teacher
(e) Language facility of participants
Select appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (b), (c) and (e) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a), (b) and (e) (4) (c), (d) and (e)
Q72. Who developed the theory of ‘Multiple Intelligence’?

(1) Alfred Binet (2) L. Thurstone (3) Charles Spearman (4) Howard Gardner

Q73. From the list of the effective teaching behaviours, identify those which are called key
behaviours.
(i) Direct, audible and oral delivery to all students
(ii) Encouraging students to elaborate on an answer
(iii) Warm and nurturing relationships with learners
(iv) Varying modes of presentation
(v) Preventing misbehaviour with a minimum of class disruption
(vi) Organising what is to come and summarising what has gone before
(1) (i), (iv) and (v) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (iv), (v) and (vi)
Q74. Which of the following statements explains the concepts of inclusive teaching?
(1) Teacher facilitates the learning of the gifted students
(2) Teacher facilitates the learning of the weak students
(3) Teacher takes support of parents of the students to make them learn
(4) Teacher makes the students of different backgrounds to learn together in the same class
Q75. Which among the following best describes the Emotional Intelligence of learners?
(a) Understand the emotion of other people and your own
(b) Express oneself very strongly
(c) Being rational in thinking
(d) Adjusting one’s emotion as per situation
(e) Being creative and open to criticism
(f) Accepting other people as they are
Choose your answer from the options given below :
(1) (a), (d) and (f) (2) (d), (e) and (f) (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)

2019 June || Commerce
Q76. A teacher intends to find out the learning difficulties of students. Which of the
following tests can be used?
(1) Summative Test (2) Formative Test (3) Performance Test (4) Diagnostic Test
Q77. Below are given two Columns. Column-A presents the methods of teaching and
Column-B presents the focus of a method. Match the two Columns.
Column-A Column-B
(Methods of Teaching) (Focus of a Method)
(a) Collaborative Method (i) When expertise of teachers are used in teaching
(b) Cooperative Method (ii) When emphasis is given on students as creator of knowledge
(c) Constructivist Method (iii) When students share different aspects of a learning activity
(d) Team teaching (iv) When students help each other to learn
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Q78. What is the main objective of formative evaluation?

(1) To promote students to the next class (2) To enhance students’ learning
(3) To enhance co-operation in class (4) To understand the learning difficulties
Q79. The following teaching aids can be used by a teacher in the classroom as a live
interactive device :
(a) E-mail (b) Skype (c) On-line Chat (d) Tele-conferencing (e) Face-book (f) Blog
Select your answer from the options given below
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c), (e) and (f) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

Q80. Student-Centric Classroom is meant for
(1) Addressing the individual differences
(2) Reducing teacher-oriented lectures
(3) Recalling the previous knowledge
(4) Engaging the entire class
2019 June ||Defence and Strategic Studies | Dogri|Economics|Electronic Science |Marathi

|Percussion Instruments|Politics (including International Relations and Studies)|
Rajasthani| Sanskrit| Social Medi-cine and Community Health|Tribal and Regional
Language Literature|Women Studies
Q81. In the two sets given below, Set-I provides the different levels of learning according to
Bloom's Taxonomy, while set-II gives their examples and concerns. Match the two sets and
select from the options to indicate your answer :
Set – I (Levels of Learning) Set – II (Examples)
(a) Memory level (i) Identifying examples of a given concept
(b) Understanding level (ii) Generating new ideas
(c) Analysing level (iii) Recalling information
(d) Creating level (iv) Isolating information into parts
Options (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (IV)
(3) (iv) (iii) d) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Q82. Diagnostic Evaluation ascertains

(1) Students performance at the beginning of instructions
(2) Causes and remedies of persistent learning problems during instructions
(3) Degree of achievement of instructional objectives at the end
(4) Learning progress and failure after instructions

Q83. Among the following which one is an example of instructional software?
(1) Audio podcast (2) Printed material or book (3) Radio talk (4) Edusat
Q84. Which teaching aids enhance the skills like reading, listening and pronunciation?
(1) Audio-lingual teaching aids (2) Scientific teaching aids (3) General knowledge teaching
aids (4) Theoretical based teaching aids
Q85. From the list given below identify the instructional events which form part of the
structure of a lesson plan. Select your answer from the options given below the list
List of instructional events :
(i) Gaining attention of students
(ii) Prior knowledge of students
(iii) Informing the learner of the 0bjectives
(iv) Stimulating recall of pre-requisite learning
(v) Checking the availability of reading material in the library
(vi) Eliciting the desired response
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iii) (iv) (vi)
(3) (ii) (iii) (v) (vi)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (v)
2019 June || Education | Kannada|Law|Population Studies|Public

Administration|Sindhi|Telugu
Q86. A teacher gives lot of positive and negative examples to support his | her
presentations in the classroom. This will be related to which level of teaching?
(1) Autonomous development level (2) Memory level
(3) Understanding level (4) Reflective level
Q87. Below are listed some learners’ characteristics. Identify those that help in effective
teaching.
(a) Learners’ respect for teacher
(b) Learner’s level of mental ability
(c) Learner’s previous experiences

(d) Learner’s level of interest to study
(e) Learner’s level of interpersonal relation
(D Learner’s view about the society
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (f) (2) (c), (d), (e) and (f)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (b), (c), (d) and (f)
Q88. Below are given two columns. Column — A lists methods of teaching and Column — B
lists the focus of a method. Match Column — A with Column — B.
Column A Column B
(a) Lecture method (i) Emphasizing the participative procedure of an act
(b) Demonstration (ii) Experience based learning
method
(c) Project method (iii) Imparting large amount of knowledge
(d) Collaborative method (iv) Students engage in different activities together and
learn
(1) (a)—(i); (b)—(iii); (c)—(ii); (d)—(iv)
(2) (a)—(ii); (b)—(iv); (c)—(i); (d)—(iii)
(3) (a)—(iii); (b)—(i); (c)—(ii); (d)—(iv)
(4) (fl)—(iii); (b)—(ii); (c)—(iv); (d)—(i)
Q89. Below are listed some activities performed by a teacher Which activities are of the
nature of
formative evaluation?
(a) Giving a mastery test
(b) Conducting quiz session
(c) Evaluating students in grading system
(d) Providing feedback while teaching
(e) Encouraging students reflect more
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (b), (d) and (e)
(4) (b), (c) and (e)
Q90. From the list given below, identify those teaching methods
which have a great scope for dialogic discourses,
(a) Lecture with audio — visual aids
(b) Team teaching
(c) Tutorials
(d) Problem solving methods
(e) Chalk and talk method
(f) Group discussions
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (c), (d) and (f) (3) (b), (c) and (e) (4) (d), (e) and (f)
2019 June ||English | Sanskrit Traditional Subjects|Visual Art|Yoga
Q91. Which of the learner characteristics will influence his|her perspective in a course of
study?
(i) Learners commitment
(ii) Parents interest in the learner
(iii) Prior knowledge of the learner
(iv) Skill of the learner in the concerned area
(v) Family size of the learner
(vi) Socio-economic background of the family to which the learner belongs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv), (v) and (vi)

Q92. Which of the strategies in the list given below will be associated with direct teaching?
(i) Providing examples and explanation
(ii) Promoting inquiry
(iii) Focussing on concepts
(iv) Giving review and recapitulation
(v) Offering practice and feedback
(vi) Problem raising and problem-solving

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv), (V) and (vi)
Q93. The performance of a student is compared with another student in which type of
testing?
(1) Criterion referenced testing
(2) Diagnostic testing
(3) Summative testing
(4) Norm-referenced testing
Q94. Which of the following is an example of a maximum performance test?

(1) Personality tests
(2) Projective personality tests
(3) Aptitude tests
(4) Interest and attitude scales
Q95. From the list given below identify those questions which are called process rather than
content based questions?
(i) Convergent questions
(ii) Divergent questions
(iii) Fact based questions

(iv) Concept based questions
(v) Open questions
(vi) Closed questions.
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (ii), (iv) and (v)
2019 June ||Malayalam | Political Science|Sociology|Tamil
Q96. Brain storming as a method can be used for

(1) Out-of-box thinking
(2) Coherent thinking
(3) Generate new ideas in the area of interest
(4) Critical thinking
Q97. A workshop is meant for

(1) Hands — on — experience (2) Listening to scholarly lectures
(3) Learning with interaction (4) Discussing over one’s own work
Q98. Learning objectives mean

(1) Learning experience (2) Concise outcomes
(3) Academic achievement (4) Intended learning outcomes
Q99. For optimising self-learning which of the following motivational principles will be most
helpful?
(1) Using reward and punishment
(2) Creating scope for fulfilling relatedness need
(8) Providing scope for satisfying need for competence
(4) Promoting concerns for meeting status needs

2019 December || Adult Education | Anthropology|Chinese|Comparative Literature|
Comparative Study of Religions|German|Home Science| Japanese| Labour Welfare|
Maithili| Management| Manipuri|Philosophy| Physical Education|Tourism
Administration and Management
Q100. Which among the following is NOT a component of effective teaching?

(1) Questioning to check for the understanding of students
(2) Providing students with feedback
(3) Being flexible about how long it takes to learn
(4) Reactive mode of student’s behaviour
Q101. Which among the following factors doesn’t contribute to assessment bias?
(1) When language of the test and the tester is different from the languages of the students
(2) Answers that support middle — class values
(3) If assessment procedures are flexible and diverse to make disadvantaged students
comfortable
(4) Objective test for assessing abstract reasoning of the student.
Q102. Identify the factors that do not contribute to the effectiveness of teaching from the
options given below
(a) Socio — economic background of Teacher
(b) Teacher’s skill in pleasing the students
(c) Teacher’s subject knowledge
(d) Teacher’s personal contact with students
Choose the correct option :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
Q103. Choose two factors that do NOT affect the academic performance of students
adversely :
(a) Low self — efficacy belief
(b) Belief in God
(c) Indifferent attitude towards politics

(d) Teacher's low expectation from students
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (d) only
Q104. Match the following values with their distinguishing functions

List I List II
(a) Sacrifice (i) Working in a stipulated time
(b) Sincerity (ii) Confinement of individual mind on action
(c) Self control (iii) Showing love and affection
(d) Altruism (iv) Helping Without selfish motives
Choose the correct option from those given below :
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
Q105. Given below are two statements - one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Through on-line teaching a large number of students can be taught by very
competent faculty.
Reason (R) : On-line teaching helps students in developing critical thinking more than the
Off-line teaching can do.
In the light of the above two statements choose the correct option :
(1). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3). (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4). (A) is false, but (R) is true

2019 December ||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies | Bengali|Bodo|Environmental
Sciences|Hindi|Indian Culture
Q106. Which one of the following factors does not contribute to learning mathematical
concepts
(1) Real life events
(2) Assessing the existing mathematical knowledge of the learner before deciding the syllabi
(3) Teaching mathematics and history together
(4) Narrating the life experiences of the mathematician Who has given the concept
Q107. Which among the following is NOT an alternative to traditional assessments?

(1) Multiple Choice Questions (2) Performance Test (3) Portfolios (4) Exhibitions
Q108. A college teacher conducts a quiz session with a view to accelerate the tempo of
motivational participation. This will form part of which type of evaluation?
(1) Summative evaluation (2) Criterion based evaluation
(3) Formative evaluation (4) Diagnostic evaluation
Q109. Which among the following is NOT the principle associated with Positivism?
(1) Phenomenalism (2) Deductivism (3) Inductivism (4) Interpretivism
Q110. Academic performance of students is determined by :

(a) Intelligence (b) Motivation (c) Physique (d) Gender
Code:
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (d) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (c) and (d) only

Q111. Match correctly the items of column I with the items of column II
Column I Column II
(a) Dyslexia (i) Difficulty in doing mathematics
(b) Dysgraphia (ii) Difficulty in reading
(c) Dyscalculia (iii) Difficulty in writing
(d) ADHD (iv) Difficulty in concentrating
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(n), (d)-(iii)
2019 December ||Arabic |Geography|Gujarati|Nepali|Psychology|Punjabi
Q112. In the two sets given below. Set I provides levels of teaching while Set II gives their
focus of concern :
Set I (Level of Teaching) Set II (Focus of concern)
(a) Autonomous development level (i) Problem raising and problem solving
(b) Memory level (ii) Affects and feelings
(c) Understanding level (iii) Recall of facts and informations
Seeing of relationship among facts and
(d) Reflective level (iv)
their examples
(v) Peer learning
Select correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii). (c)-(iv), (d)-(v)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)(iii). (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(v). (b)-(iv). (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Q113. In the context of classroom teaching ______ the foundation on which a Warm and
nurturing relationship with learners can be built is called :
(1) Probing (2) Teacher Affect (3) Structuring (4) Feedback
Q114. From the list of learning outcomes indicated below. identify those which are said to
be high level outcomes :
(a) Learning of facts and rules
(b) Showing the ability to analyse and synthesize
(c) Awareness. responding and valuing
(d) Imitation. manipulation and precision
(e) Articulation and naturalization
(f) Organization and characterization
(1) (b). (e) and (f) (2) (a). (b) and (c) (3) (b). (c) and (d) (4) (a). (c) and (f)
Q115. Which one of the following sequences correctly reflects the evolution of educational
technology support in higher education?
(1) Programmed learning material, text book support, online and modular material
(2) Text book supplementation, programmed learning material, modular material and online
methods
(3) Modular material, programmed learning, online and text book supplementation
(4) Online methods, modular material, text-book supplementation and programmed
learning material

Q116. Match the two sets given below in which Set I mentions levels of measurment and Set
II their properties :
Set-1 (Levels of Set II (Properties)
measurement)
(a) Nominal (i) Classification, order, equal units and absolute zero
(b) Ordinal (ii) Classification, order and equal units
(c) Interval (iii) Classification
(d) Ratio (iv) Classification and order
Select correct answer from the options given below

(1) (a)-(i). (b)-ii). (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii). (b)-(i) (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iii). (b)-(iv). (c)-(ii). (d),(i)
Q117. Mini-summaries at the end of each class is called

(1) Verbal break-up (2) Clichéd conclusion (3) Verbal signposting (4) Staggered
conclusion
2019 December || Archaeology | Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies|Folk

Literature|Forensic Science| French| History| Kashmiri |Konkani| Linguistics|Mass
Communication and Journalism| Museology and Conservation| Music|Pali|Performing
Art (Dance Drama Theatre)| Persian|Prakrit|Russian|Santali|Spanish
Q118. Which of the following is the key teaching behaviour to make a teacher effective?
(1) Teachers‘ comments made for the purpose of organizing upcoming teaching process
(2) Use of content or process questions by teacher
(3) Engagement of students in the learning process
(4) Using students ideas and contributions
Q119. The basic requirements for organizing teaching at reflective level deal with
(1) Systematic and sequential presentation of facts and information by the teacher
(2) Helping explore and explain problems and their solutions by students
(3) Translating and interpreting the facts by the students
(4) Giving concrete facts and action sequences by the teacher

Q120. Identify the factors affecting teaching related to positive learning environment in an
institution :
(i) The extent to which teachers make clear presentation
(ii) The scope for sharing and open discussions within the classroom and the institution as
such
(m) Teachers mastery of the content as reflected in answering students questions
(iv) Frequent use of positive reinforcers either in the institution or classroom
(v) Availability of teacher and his|her guidance
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (iv) and (v) (4) (ii) and (iv)
Q121. In the following list. which belong to the category of learner -centered approaches?
(i) SWAYAM (ii) Computer-aided instruction (iii) MOOCS
(iv) Quizzes (v) Buzz-sessions
Select the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (V)
Q122. In the following two sets, set I mentions the evaluation system while set II gives their
descriptive features. Match the two sets
Set I (Evaluation system) Set II (Descriptive features)
(a) Formative evaluation (i) Comparing the students' performance with that
of others
(b) Summative evaluation (ii) Indicating standards of mastery
(c) Norm-referenced testing (iii) Diagnosing students' problems
(d) Criterion-referenced testing (iv) Identifying scope for improvement
(v) Judging learning standards
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a)-(iv). (b)-(v). (c)-(i). (d) - (ii)
(2) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii). (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii). (b)-(iv). (c)-(ii). (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(v). (d)-(iv)

2019 December ||Assamese | Computer Science and Applications|Criminology|Human
Rights And Duties|Odia|Social Work|Urdu
Q123. Which of the learning out-comes are intended in teaching organized at understanding
level?
(1) Longer recall and retention of facts
(2) Seeking of relationships and patterns among facts
(3) Creative construction and critical interpretation of ideas
(4) Mastery of facts and information
Q124. Which of the following statements differentiate teaching from learning?

(a) Teaching is a social act while learning is a personal act
(b) Teaching implies learning
(0) Teaching is like selling while learning is like buying
( d) Teaching can occur without learning taking place
(e) In teaching. influence is directed towards learning and learner. while in learning it is
usually towards oneself
Choose the correct answer from the following options :
(1) (a). (c) and (e) (2) (a). (b) and (c) (3) (b). (c) and (d) (4) (c). (d) and (e)
Q125. Which of the following are classroom related factors that influence efifectiveness of
teaching?
(a) Prior task related behaviour of students
(b) Adherence to linear pattern of communication by the teacher
(c) Socio-economic status of the family to which learners belong
(d) Inappropriate use of technological resources by the teacher
(e) Cultural background of students
Choose your answer from the following options :
(1) (a)- (b) and (c) (2) (b)- (c) and (d)
(2) (3) (a)- (b) and (d) (4) (c)- (d) and (e)

Q126. In which of the following types of learning materials. the presentations are highly
structured and individualised?
(1) Textbooks prescribed by the universities
(2) Journals and the articles recommended for readings
(3) Writings of great thinkers selected for reflective readings
(4) Programmed instructional and modular learning material
Q127. Which of the following types of assessment is conducted periodically with an eye on
standards?
(1) Formative assessment (2) Summative assessment
(3) Portfolio assessment (4) Performance assessment
2019 December || Commerce
Q128. Which of the following will be considered key teaching behaviour belonging to the
category of effectiveness?
a) Making ideas clear to learners who may be at different level of understanding
b) Showing enthusiasm and animation through variation in eye contact, voice and gestures
c) Using student ideas by acknowledging and summarizing
d) Probing through general questions and shifting a discussion to some higher thought level
e) Using meaningful verbal praise to get and keep students actively participating in the
learning process
1. (a), (b) and (c) only 2. (a), (b) and (e) 3. (b), (c) and (d) only 4. (c), (d) and (e)
only
Q129. Identify the sequence which correctly indicates the order for ensuring teaching-
learning activities in a constructivist approach
1. Explore, Explain, Engage, Extend and Evaluate
2. Evaluate, Extend, Engage, Explain and Explore
3. Explain, Engage, Explore, Evaluate and Extend
4. Engage, Explore, Explain, Evaluate and Extend

Q130. Which of the following factors have been labelled as ‘social competence‘ in
influencing learning?
(a) Socio-economic status
(b) Motivation
(c) Intelligence - general and specific
(d) Emotional well-being
(e) Inability to translate thoughts into action
1. (a), (b) and (c) only 2. (b), (c) and (d) only
3. (a), (b) and (d) only 4. (c), (d) and (e) only
Q131. The compositional skills and creativity in presentation of students can be most
effectively evaluated by which of the following tests?
1. Objective type tests 2. Essay type tests
3. Short answer tests 4. Projective type tests
Q132. The main purpose of using ICT for classroom teaching is to

1. Make the classroom instructions interesting 2. Divert students‘ attention in the class
3. Keep students engaged in the class 4. Optimize learning outcomes of teaching
2019 December|| Defence and Strategic Studies| Dogri | Economics |Electronic Science|
International and Area Studies| Marathi| Sanskrit| Social Medicine and Community
Health| Tribal and Regional Language Literature| Women Studies
Q133. From the list given below identify those competencies of an effective teacher which
relate to the domain of personality and attitude.
(a) Locus of control (d) Self-efificacy
(b) Communicating (e) Teacher enthusiasm
(c) Managing (f) Being organised and orderly

(1) (a) (b) and (c) (2) (a). (d) and (e)
(2) (3) (b) (c) and (d) (4) (d) (e)and (f )

Q134. In the spectrum of teaching methods which of the following will be called 'dialogic'?
(a) Demonstration method (d) Team teaching based method
(b) Problem—solving method (e) Interactive presentation
(c) Chalk and talk method (f) Tutorials
(1) (a) (b) and (c) (2) (b) (c) and (d) (3) (c) (d) and (e) (4) (b). (e) and (f)
Q135. In which level of teaching. lower level learning outcomes get focussed?
(1) Memory level (2) Understanding level (3) Reflective level (4) Autonomous
development level
Q136. Which of the following evaluation systems belongs to the category of being an
innovative practice?
(1) Semesterized examinations (2) Performance evaluation
(3) Portfolio based evaluation (4) Learning outcome based evaluation
2019 December || Education | Kannada |Law | Population Studies | Public Administration

| Sindhi | Telugu
Q137. Identify those features of learner behaviour which are associated with understanding
level teaching :
(a) The student renders facts and information in his|her own Words
(b) The student immediately recalls the facts taught
(c) The student gives his | her own examples in order to explain a point
(d) The student interprets the meanings in various ways
(e) The student correctly reproduces the sequence taught
Select your answer from the following options :
(1) (a). (b) and (c) (2) (b). (c) and (d)
(2) (3) (b). (d) and (e) (4) (a). (c) and (d)

Q138. Which of the following sequence depicts outcome based curriculum design for
college level teaching programmes?
(1) Content. teaching-learning. learning outcomes. evaluation
(2) Desired learning outcomes. content. teaching-learning. assessment and evaluation
(3) Teaching-learning. content. learning outcomes. assessment and evaluation
(4) Content. learning outcomes desired. teaching-learning. evaluation and assessment
Q139. Which of the following is a key to effective teaching behaviour?

(1) Teacher mediated dialogue which helps learners restructure What is being learned
(2) Elicting clarification of an answer given by students
(3) Soliciting additional information about a response of students
(4) Promoting low error rate (high success) contributive to increased levels of students self
esteem and positive attitude
Q140. For encouraging ‘learning to learn‘. the emphasis on which of the following would be
most appropriate?
(1) Use of educational technology gadgets
(2) Organizing teaching to increase opportunity for transfer of learning
(3) Assigning tasks to be mastered by students
(4) Frequent tests to be conducted
Q141. In which of the following modes of assessment the potential for increasing intrinsic
motivation is optimum?
(1) Formative assessment based evaluation
(2) Computer testing based assessment
(3) Summative assessment
(4) Norm-referenced based testing assessment

2019 December || English | Sanskrit Traditional Subjects | Visual Art | Yoga
Q142. The emphasis in memory level teaching is on which of the following?

(a) Organisation of thoughts and ideas
(b) Seeing of relationships among facts
(c) Systematic presentations to enable quick reproduction
(d) Critical thinking
(e) Mastery of correct sequencing of facts
(f) Segregating one feature from another
Choose the answer from the following options :
(1) (a). (b) and (c) (2) (a). (c) and (e) (3) (b). (c) and (d) (4) (d). (e) and (f)
Q143. Below are given two sets in which set I specifies the four behaviour modification
techniques while set II indicates their exemplification. Match the two sets:
Set I (Behaviour modification Set II (Example)
techniques)
(a) Positive reinforcement (i)
Withdrawal of a pleasant stimulus or
application of an aversive stimulus to stop
the behaviour
(b) Negative reinforcement (ii) Painful or aversive stimulus is presented to
stop the occurrence of behaviour
(c) Punishment (iii) The behaviour increases in frequency after
the removal of the stimulus
(d) Extinction (iv) The behaviour increases in frequency after
the presentation of a stimulus
Choose your answer from the following options:
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii). (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(i), (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv ), (b)-(iii). (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iii). (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Q144. The most characteristic feature of an adolescent learner which determines his|her
social and moral development is the
(1) Tendency to be away from parents
(2) Concern for hero worshipping for emulating values and standards
(3) Mixing up with peers in the neighbourhood
(4) Identity crisis
Q145. Which of the following teaching method (s) is|are contributive to direct learning?
(a) Team teaching and lecturing
(b) Simulation and role playing
(c) Lecture with or without use of audio-visuals
(d) Participation in workshop and assignments
(e) MOOCs and heuristics
(f) Interactive presentation
(1) (b) (d) and (e) (2) (a)- (b) and (c) (3) (c) (d) and(f) (4) (d) (e) and (f)
Q146. Which of the following is an example of maximum performance test‘?

(1) Projective personality test (2) Interest inventory
(3) Aptitude test (4) Attitude scales
Q147. Match the following study skills with their effective learning techniques:
Study skills Learning techniques

Elaborative Mixing different kinds of problems together when
(a) (i)
interrogation studying
Explaining what a section of text or an example problem
(b) Practice testing (ii)
means to you
(c) Self-Explanation (iii) Testing yourself on the material you are trying to learn
(d) Interleaved practice (iv) Answering why a fact is true

(1) (A)-(IV). (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

(2) (A)-(I) (B)-(II) (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(II). (B)-(IV). (C)-(I): (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(III). (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
2019 December || Malayalam | Political Science| Sociology| Tamil
Q148. Identify the form of education having high potential for providing optimism. self-
esteem and commitment to personal fulfillment. ethical judgement and social responsibility
from the following :
(1) Formal education
(2) Technical education
(3) Moral education
(4) Value education
Q149. In a developing country like India which among the following statements is indicative
of challenges in the context of computer based testing?
(1) Many teachers do not have knowledge of computer
(2) Computer will destroy guru-shishya relationship
(3) Indian government can't afford to buy a large number of computers
(4) In remote locations availability of computer and electricity is not feasible Options :
Q150. Which among the following is least important for the academic success of students?
(1) Cognitive competence
(2) Emotional competence
(3) Legal competence
(4) Social competence
Q151. Identify the skills promoted by communication from the following :

(a) Reading and Listening
(b) Listening and helping
(c) Helping and speaking

(d) Speaking and writing
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (d) only
(4) (c) and (d) only

TEACHING APTITUDE 2020
2020 June || Adult Education | Chinese| Comparative Study of Religions|

Dogri | Gujarati| Indian Culture | Japanese| Kannada | Konkani | Maithili|
Manipuri| Persian | Prakrit | Rajasthani | Sanskrit | Sindhi | Spanish | Tribal
and Regional Language Literature
Q152. In which level of teaching, the learner gets an opportunity to discriminate at length
between positive and negative exemplars of concepts?
1. Memory level
2. Understanding level
3. Reflective level
4. Autonomous development level
Q153. During teaching, a teacher's statements that encourage students to elaborate on an

answer, either their own or that of others will be called,
1. Structuring
2. Instructional variety
3. Engagement in the learning process
4. Probing
Q154. Which of the following will be called behavioural rather than "attitude and beliefs'
related competencies for becoming an effective teacher?
A. Locus of control
B. Communicating
C. Managing and monitoring
D. Teacher enthusiasm
E. Evaluating and providing feedback
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. B, C and E only
4. C, D and E only

Q155. From the following list of methods of teaching used in institutions of higher learning,
identify those which are learner-centred
A. Project work
B. Chalk and talk
C. Lecturing with audio-visual
D. Computer-aided instruction
E. Simulation and role-playing
1. B, C and D only
2. D and E only
3. A, B and C only
4. C, D and E only
Q156. Match List I with List II

List 1 List II
A. Formative Evaluation I. Percentile rank and standard scores are used for
reporting
B. Summative Evaluation II. Standards indicative of mastery
C. Criterion-referenced test III. The intention of using it is to identify scope and
potential for improvement
D. Norm-referenced test IV. Its intention is to judge learning standards
1. A -III, B - IV C - II D-I
2. A-I B - II C - III, D -IV
3. A -ll, B- l C - IV D -III
4. A -IV, B - Ill C - I D - II

2020 June || Anthropology | Home Science | Public Administration | Social Work | Yoga |
Q157. If teaching is viewed as a continuum, which of the following modality, involves active
'give' and 'take' between the teacher and learner?
(1) Training
(2) Conditioning
(3) Instruction
(4) Indoctrination
Q158. What is the correct sequence from lower to higher, for indicating learning outcomes
related to affective domain?
(A) Receiving
(B) Valuing
(C) Responding
(D) Organization
(E) Characterization
(1) (A). (B). (C). (D) and (E)
(2) (A), (C). (B). (D) and (E)
(3) (C). (D). (E). (A) and (B)
(4) (B). (C). (A). (D) and (E)
Q159. Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Ability of an individual or group implies the components of knowledge, skill and
experience.
Statement II : Willingness of an individual or group implies the components of confidence,
commitment and motivation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answrer from the options
given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Q160. Match List I with List II: List I provides the basic management functions to be
performed by a teacher while the List II gives their description.
List I List II
It involves feedback of results and follow up to compare
(A) Planning (I)
accomplishments.
(B) Organizing (II) It involves engagement in task relevant activities.
(C) Motivating (III) It involves bringing together resources and people.
(D) Controlling (IV) It involves setting goals and objectives.

(1) (A)-(IV). (B)-(III). (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(2) (A) (I). (B)-(II), (C) (III). (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(II). (B)-(I). (C)-(IV). (D)-(III)
(4) (A) (III). (B)-(IV). (C)-(I). (D)-(II)
Q161. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The use of ICT has a great potential for optimising learning outcomes.
Reason (R) : ICT promotes scope for variety, flexibility and attractiveness.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

2020 June || Arab Culture and Islamic Studies | Arabic | Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and
Peace Studies | Defence and Strategic Studies | Linguistics | Mass Communication and
Journalism | Nepali | Odia | Pali | Tamil |
Q162. The Phrase T-L model of teaching implies that

1. Teaching and learning are independent acts
2. Teaching and learning are integrally related acts
3. Teaching aims at learning
4. Teaching causes learning
Q163. From the following list of learner characteristics, identify those which are associated
with ‘field independent’ learners
A. Focuses on facts and principles
B. Perceives global aspects of concepts and materials
C. Prefers and likes to compete
D. Can organize information by himself/herself
E. Likes to cooperate
1. A, B and C only
2. B. C and D only
3. A, C and D only
4. C, D and E only
Q164. Which of the following are said to be style-related competencies of an effective

teacher?
A. Organized demeanor which means being orderly, clear and in control
B. Literacy which implies general knowledge as well as good at reading and writing
C. Self-efficacy which refers to a person's self-perceived capacity to perform a task
D. Flexibility which means being sensitive and lenient
E. Evaluating and providing feedback

1. A and D only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. D and E only

List I Scale of measurement List II Properties
A. Nominal I. Classification and order
B. Ordinal ll. Classification. order and equal units
C. Interval III. Classification, order, equal units and absolute zero
D. Ratio IV. Classification only
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Q166. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Use of ICT is justified during teaching with a view to optimize learning
outcomes
Reason R: Learning outcomes are contingent on use of ICT during teaching
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is not correct
4. A is not correct but R is correct

2020 June || Archaeology | Human Rights And Duties | International and Area Studies |
Library and Information Science | Philosophy |
Q167. Which school of thought laid down one of the principles of teacher and learner role
as follows, "The teacher's role is not to direct. but to advise because the child's own interest
should determine what he learns"
1. Perennialism
2. Progressionism
3. Essentialism
4. Reconstructionism (question mistake)
Q168. From the list given below, identify those features which relate to an approach to
teaching and learning in indirect strategies of teaching
A. Engagement in an inquiring process
B. Concept-based content presentation
C. Gaining attention and informing the learners of the instructional objective
D. Presenting the stimulus material and stimulating recall of prerequisite learning
E. Encouraging students to use references from their own experiences
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, B and E only
4. C, D and E only
Q169. For use during teaching, from the list given below, identify questions that are ‘process
type’ rather than ‘content-type‘
A. Divergent questions
B. Fact-based questions
C. Concept-based questions
D. Lower order questions
E. Higher-order questions

1. A, C and E only
2. B, C and D only
3. C. D and E only
4. B, D and E only
Q170. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Reliability is a necessary but insufficient condition for validity
Statement II: In respect of evaluation tools, validity is not an all or none concept but it exists
as a continuum
given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q171. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
Assertion A: Systems of education which are place-specific, time-specific and person-specific
are said to be formal and are created by laid down law and procedures
Reason R: Open universities and open schools are the example of a formal system of
education because they are created by laid down procedures
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

2020 June || Assamese | Malayalam | Punjabi | Russian | Telugu |
Q172. From the following, identify those characteristics which go within the category
‘helping behavior’ for becoming an effective teacher :
(A) Structuring
(B) Student success rate
(C) Using student ideas
(D) Probing
(E) Instructional variety
1. (A). (B) and (C) only
2. (B). (C) and (D) only
3. (C). (D) and (E) only
4. (A). (C) and (D) only
Q173. What are the activities of teaching associated with its interactive stage?
(A) Planning of lesson
(B) Determining learning outcomes
(C) Presenting the content interspersed with questions
(D) Providing feedback and probing. if need be
(E) Motivating and monitoring students tasks

Q174. In Gagne's hierarchy of learning which type of learning immediately precedes ‘Rule
learning"?
(1) Problem solving learning
(2) Concept learning
(3) Discrimination learning
(4) Chain learning
Q175. In which of the scales of measurement. the properties of classification and order.
both are present?
(1) Nominal
(2) Ordinal
(3) Interval
(4) Ratio

Statement I : The purpose of ICT interventions in classroom teaching is to promote and
optimise learning outcomes.
Statement II : Most of the on-line methods like Swayam and MOOCs etc. have the potential
to become effective supplements to conventional teaching-learning systems.
In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement H are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

2020 June || Bengali | Bodo | Kashmiri | Social Medicine and Community Health | Urdu |
Q177. Which level of teaching uses higher level of cognitive abilities as specified in Bloom's
taxonomy?
(1) Memory level
(2) Understanding level
(3) Reflective level
(4) Autonomous development level
Q178. The teaching strategy best suited to deal with students who in terms of performance
readiness level are in the category of "able but unwilling". will be.
(1) Assigning challenging tasks and delegation of roles
(2) Involving in tasks and providing socio-emotional support with scope for recognition
(3) Mentoring and guiding with close supervision
(4) Keeping the tasks specific and soft
Q179. Which of the following are said to be the behavioural competencies in an effective
teaching- behaviour repertoire?
(A) Self efficacy and locus of control
(B) Planning and teaching
(C) Managing and monitoring
(D) Evaluating and providing feedback
(E) Logical. clear and confident
(1) (B). (C) and (D) only
(2) (A). (B) and (C) only
(3) (A). (D) and (E) only
(4) (C). (D) and (E) only

Statement I : In a classroom assessment, a teacher finds that the distribution of students
score is positively skewed. Hence. the mean of scores will be greater than median and
median will be greater than mode.
Statement II : When the distribution of students‘ score is found to be normal. all the three
measures of central tendency coincide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Assertion (A): Teaching-learning systems to be effective must be carefully planned.
adequately implemented and appropriately evaluated.
Reasons (R) : Effectiveness of teaching-learning systems is a pre-requisite for all levels of
education.
below :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2020 June || Commerce (1) |
Q182. Which of the following have been identified as key behaviours contributing to
effective teaching?
(A) Lesson clarity
(B) Instructional variety
(C) Using student ideas and contribution
(D) Engagement in learning process
(E) Structuring

(1) (A). (B) and (D) only
Q183. In which of the following. the direction of influence is mainly one way :
1. Counselling
2. Guiding
3. Teaching
4. Learning
Q184. The communication process is active and interactive at a very high level in which of
the following level of teaching?
(3) Memory level

Statement I : In order to be effective. teaching and testing must go together.
Statement II : Feedback does not form an essential component of formative assessment.
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :

Q186. Which of the following ‘need strengths" in Maslow's hierarchy are related to higher
order learning?
(A) Physiological needs
(B) Safety needs
(C) Social needs
(D) Esteem needs
(E) Needs for self actualization
1. (A) and (B) only
2. (B) and (C) only
3. (C) and (D) only
4. (D) and (E) only

Q187. For optimising learning outcomes which of the following factors have been identified
as most effective in terms of research evidences in the global context?
(1) Home related factors
(2) School related factors
(3) Teacher related factors
(4) Supplementary technological devices related factors
Q188. What is the hallmark of reflective teaching?

(1) Clear organized and well structured content
(2) Personalized. interactive and high level of cognitive interchange
(3) Systematic. planned and quick question-answer session
(4) Logical. coherent and example based presentations

Q189. Identify the correct sequence of cognitive behaviours in the taxonomy of educational
objectives:
(A) Knowledge
(B) Application
(C) Understanding
(D) Analysis
(E) Synthesis
1. (A). (B). (C). (D) and (E)
2. (D). (E). (A). (B) and (C)
3. (A). (C). (B). (D) and (E)
4. (D). (E). (A). (C) and (B)
Q190. In which scale of measurement. classification. order and equality of units are
ensured?
(1) Ordinal
(2) Nominal
(3) Interval
(4) Ratio

Statement I : Computer based testing ensures high reliability and validity in the process of
evaluation centred on effective and conative domains of behaviour.
Statement II : Support materials in the form of programmed instructional models have a
tremendous potential to maximize learning.
below:
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

2020 June || Comparative Literature | Criminology | Folk Literature | Forensic Science |
French | Museology and Conservation | Psychology | Tourism Administration and
Management |
Q192. Teaching differs from training and conditioning in so far as it promotes

1. Disciplined drill
2. Critical thinking
3. Steady association
4. Mastery of facts
Q193. In the spectrum of teaching methods given below, which are considered dialogic?
A. Laboratory work
B. Demonstration
C. Tutorials
D. Group discussion
E. Project work
1. C and D only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. D and E only
Q194. Identify from the following, those features of key behaviours which are contributive
to the effectiveness of teaching
A. Lesson clarity which implies making ideas clear to the learner
B. Questioning-implying fact and concept based questions
C. Probing involving eliciting and soliciting moves
D. Teacher-task orientation with a focus on outcomes of the unit clearly defined
E. Engagement in the learning process which implies the
amount of time students devote to learning

1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, D and E only
4. B, D and E only
Q195. Which of the following factors contributing to school learning are termed as social
competence?
A. Motivation
B. intelligence
C. Social skills
D. Family support
E. Specific abilities of the learner
1. A, C and D only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. C. D and E only
List I Methods of estimating the

List ll Description
reliability of a test
l. Administering the test in one session with
A. Test-retest method two equivalent halves of the test for
correlation
ll. Two or more raters score the test
B. Alternate form method
independently
lll. Administering the same test to the same
C. Split-half method
group at two different sessions
IV. Administering the two forms of the test to
D. Inter-rater method
the same group at two different sessions

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. A-lll, B-IV, C-l, D-II
2020 June || Computer Science and Applications |
Q197. Which of the following teacher competency belongs to the domain of personality and
attitude?
(1) Locus of control and self-efficacy
(2) Managing and Monitoring
(3) Planning and instructing
(4) Personalising and contextualizing
Q198. Identify the teaching strategies which are employed during indirect instruction :
(A) Emphasizing direct and indirect exemplars
(B) Presenting the stimulus material
(C) Inquiry based question-answer session
(D) Presenting. asking and providing feed back
(E) Promoting problem solving approach
4. (A). (C) and (E) only

Q199. In which level of teaching the teacher’s role is more active rather than being
interactive?
(1) Memory level
List I (Scales of List II (Description of properties)

measurement)
(A) Nominal (I) Classification and order
(B) Ordinal (II) Classification
(C) Interval (III) Classification. order and equal units
(D) Ratio (IV) Classification, order. equal units and Absolute Zero
(1) (A)-(IV) (B)-(III) (C)-(II) (D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(II)- (B)-(I)- (C)-(III)- (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(I). (B)-(II). (C)-(IV). (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(III). (B)-(IV). (C)-(I)- (D)-(II)

Statement I: Indirect instruction is an approach to teaching and learning in which the
process is inquiry. the content involves concept and the context is a problem.
Statement II : In NRT test data tell us about a student's level of proficiency in mastery of
some skills or set of skills.
below :

2020 June || Economics
Q202. In which level of teaching. the activities of structuring, guiding and closely supervising
the students‘ behavior predominate?
1. Autonomous development level
2. Reflective level
3. Understanding level
4. Memory level
Q203. Which of the following constitutes the 'ability' (can do) component for describing the
competence of a teacher?
A. Confidence in performing teaching task
B. Knowledge of the subject being taught
C. Skill in analysing the learning tasks
D. Experience in handling learning task related situations
E. Commitment to organizing teaching-learning tasks
1. B, C and D only
2. A, B and C only
3. A, C and D only
4. C, D and E only
Q204. When reflective level teaching and learning are successful, students emerge with
A. A strong logical basis to retain the information
B. An enlarged store of tested insights of a generalized character
C. A firm relational structure in the items of information
D. An enhanced ability to develop and solve problems on their own
E. Seeing relationship and tool use of a fact

1. A and B only
2. B and D only
3. C and D only
4. D and E only
Q205. A model of teaching is a description of

1. Teacher behaviour including teacher and student talk
2. Learning environment including teaching behaviour
3. Learner-behaviour including personality characteristics
4. Subject matter including its logical structure

Statement I: Maximum performance tests are designed to assess the upper limits of the
examinee's knowledge and abilities
Statement II: Typical response tests are designed to measure the behaviour and
characteristics of examinees
given below
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2020 June || Education |
Q207. The modality of 'teaching‘ has to be differentiated from 1:1 training or instructing in
terms of which of the following learning outcomes?
Options :
1. Disciplined and patterned behaviour
2. Critical and creative thinking
3. Firm and durable association of ideas
4. Quick feedback

Q208. Which of the given learner characteristics are associated with field dependent
(holistic/visual) learning style?
(i) Focusing on facts and principles
(ii) Relating concepts to personal experience
(iii) Formal interaction with teacher related to tasks at hand
(iv) Preferring to compete rather than cooperate
(v) Preferring to cooperate rather than compete
(vi) Perceiving global aspects of concepts and materials
1. (i). (ii) and (iii)
2. (ii). (iii) and (v)
3. (ii). (v) and (vi)
4. (iv). (v) and (vi)
Q209. Which of the following potential factors affecting teaching are related to instructional
facilities and learning environment?
(i) Praise and encouragement by teachers
(ii) Non availability of textbooks/reading materials for use
(iii) Proactive moves in the interactive processes
(iv) Shortage of highly qualified teachers
(v) Availability of smart. classes
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
2. (ii). (iii) and (v)
3. (i). (iv) and (v)
4. (iii). (iv) and (v)

Q210. When the ‘test data’ tell us about a student's level of proficiency in a defined area the
procedure of evaluation is called
1. Formative evaluation
2. Summative evaluation
3. Norm-referenced testing
4. Criterion-referenced testing
Q211. Which of the following is indicative of innovations in evaluation system at present

1. Semesterization system
2. Project based evaluation system
3. Choice based credit system
4. Objective based evaluation system
2020 June || Electronic Science | Labour Welfare | Population Studies | Visual Arts |
Q212. What is the focus of concern in understanding level teaching?

(1) Promotion of scope for seeking of relationship among facts and ideas.
(2) Encouraging recall and recognition of facts and information.
(3) Raising of problems and seeing solutions to problems so presented.
(4) Developing a sense of happiness and ownership in learning.
Q213. Which of the following emotional characteristics are of crucial significance in

adolescent learning?
(1) Feeling of group belongingness
(2) Hero-worship and sentiments
(3) Expanding emotional ties with those in the neighbourhood
(4) Dependence processes and making friends

Q214. During teaching when a teacher uses process questions which of the following types
will have dominance?
(A) Direct questions
(B) Higher order questions
(C) Convergent. questions
(D) Indirect questions
(E) Concept based questions
4. (B). (D) and (E) only

Statement I: Tutorials. group discussions and question-answer sessions are dialogic and are
part of direct teaching methods.
Statement II : Project work. Laboratory work. simulation and role playing are action based
and are part of indirect teaching methods.
given below :

examinees knowledge and abilities.
Statement II: Typical response tests are designed to measure the
behaviour and characteristics of examinees.
In the light of the above statements. choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement His correct
2020 June || English (1)
Q217. Identify those teaching strategies which are learner-centred

A. Cooperative learning
B. Team teaching
C. Laboratory based projects
D. Pair-share discussions
E. Lecturing with Power Point presentations
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, C and D only
4. C. D and E only
Q218. Reflective level teaching is different from memory level teaching because the pattern
of communication that is involved in reflective level teaching is basically
1. Linear
2. Bottom-up
3. Interactional
4. Transactional
Q219. From the following, identify those features which are associated with ‘Indirect
Instructional Strategies‘
A. Guided student practice
B. Focus on concept acquisition through question-answer
sessions

C. Presenting the stimulus material in small, easy to take steps
D. Problem based presentation
E. Participatory and collaborative moves stressed
1. B, D and E only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. C. D and E only
Q220. Which one of the following assessment procedures is conducted during an in-
progress teaching-learning session?
1. Summative
2. Formative
3. Norm-referenced
4. Criterion-referenced

Statement I: The use of ICT in organizing teaching-learning programmes in the universities
has the potential to optimise learning outcomes
Statement II: Formative assessment provides support to enhancing the quality of teaching-
learning sessions
given below
1. Both Statement l and Statement II are correct

Q222. The view that teaching-learning situations may be characterized to fall on a

continuum ranging from memory level to reflective level was advanced by
1. Kurt Lewin
2. Stephen M. Corey
3. Morris L. Bigge
4. B. F, Skinner
Q223. Which committee/commission recommended the choice based credit system in

higher education?
1. Administrative and Academic Reform Committee of the UGC
2. Justice Verma Commission on Teacher Education
3. Ramamurti Committee on Higher Education
4. Chattopadhyay Committee on Teacher Education
Q224. A teacher in a particular college assigns percentile ranks to indicate his/her students’
performance in the unit tests conducted‘ What type of assessment procedure will it be
called?
2. Norm-referenced
3. Formative
4. Summative
Q225. Which of the following support materials in learning use the procedures of
programmed Instructional Technology based on Skinner and Crowders principles?
A. Modular instructional material
B. Branching programmes based material
C. Linear programmes based materials
D. Specially prepared supplement programme materials
E. Lecture outlines with components of ‘to reflect‘ and ‘to do‘

1. B and C only
2. A and C only
3. C and D only
4. D and E only
Q226. Identify the features of understanding level teaching from the following
A. The teacher takes the initiative in organizing subject matter, in structuring the various
units and in controlling the practice taken up by students
B. it is basically devoted to helping students in seeing of relationships and tool use of a fact.
C. It is directed at problem raising and problem-solving in a collaborative manner
D. It is aimed at the conceptualization of ideas and facts
E. The purpose is to promote autonomy in the learning process through self regulation
1. A and B only
2. B and D only
3. C and D only
4. D and E only
2020 June || Environmental Sciences | Performing Art Dance Drama Theatre | Sanskrit
Traditional Subjects | Santali | Women Studies |
Q227. If your students are identified as ‘Unable but willing’ in terms of their performance
readiness level, which of the following methods of teaching will be considered appropriate
to deal with them?
1. Giving challenging tasks during teaching
2. Providing scope for sharing responsibility and recognition
3. Mentoring and guiding with close supervision
4, Small step presentations with error free tasks and frequent
reinforcement

Q228. Identify from the following list of competencies of teaching, those which are related
to personality and attitude
A. Managing
B. Monitoring
C. Locus of control
D. Planning
E. Self-efficacy
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. C and E only

List I Assessment and Test
List II Description
interpretation methods
A. Formative assessment I. The test data help us to determine a student's rank
II. The test data tell us about a student's level of
B. Summative assessment
proficiency
C. Norm referenced III. The intention in the evaluation is to identify scope for
testing improvement
D. Criterion-referencing IV. Evaluation is in the form of judgment to be used for at
testing least immediate future
1. A—I, B-II, C—III, D-IV
2. A—III, B-IV, C—I, D-II
3. A—IV, B-II, C—II, D- I
4. A—II, B-I, C—IV, D—III

Statement I: ICT based ‘teaching support system‘ has the potential to optimize learning
outcomes
Statement II: Recent research have reported that factors relating to social competence
contribute more to learning than mere cognitive intelligence does
given below
Q231. A university teacher proposes a research project on ‘why parents are apathetic to the
university programmes‘. Which of the following research methods will be most appropriate
for the project?
1. Experimental method
2. Historical method
3. Participant-observation method
4, Ex post facto method
Q232. In which level of teaching there is optimum scope for cognitive interchange requiring
analysis and synthesis?
1, Memory level teaching
2, Understanding level teaching
3. Reflective level teaching
4. Autonomous development level teaching

2020 June || Geography |
Q233. In the following statements identify those which are related to characteristics and
basic requirements of teaching at the understanding level
(a) Teaching stresses recitations of facts and information
(b) Teaching becomes an activity to promote seeing of relationships among facts and
information
(c) The teacher expects that students will be able to translate and interpret the meanings in
their own words
(d) The teacher insists on recall and recognition of facts presented
(e) The teacher gives a large number of examples to being home the main ideas
Select the correct answer from the following options
1. (a). (b) and (c) only
2. (c). (d) and (e) only
3. (a). (d) and (e) only
4. (b). (c) and (e) only
Q234. There are two sets given below in which Set I offers types of learner's characteristics
and Set II gives their description. Match the two sets:
Set I (Learner's Set II (Description)
Characteristics)
(a) Academic Characteristics (i) Learner encodes and decodes relevant messages
correctly
(b) Social Characteristics (ii) Learner selects different themes in his/her course
when needed
(c) Emotional Characteristics (iii) Learner Works as a team member of the peers
(d) Cognitive Characteristics (iv) Learner starts respecting the individual differences
evident in likes and dislikes of members of his class
1. (a) – (ii). (b) – (iv). (c) – (i). (d) – (iii)
2. (a) – (i): (b) - ii): (c) – (iii): (d) – (iv)
3. (a) – (ii): (b) – (iii): (c) – (iv): (d) - (i)
4. (a) – (iii): (b) – (i): (c) – (ii): (d) – (iv)

Q235. Which of the following are the learner related factors in determining effectiveness of
teaching?
a) Task relevant competencies of learners
b) Content mastery of the teacher
c) Choice of teaching methods
d) Composition of the class room
d) Readiness level of student
Choose the correct answer from the options below
1. (b) and (c) only
2. (a) and (e) only
3. (d) and (e) only
4. (b) and (e) only
Q236. For organizing effective teaching - learning systems in colleges which of the following
instructional strategies may be considered appropriate?
(a) Replacing lecture work by computer-aided instruction
(b) Attuning teaching in terms of can do/ will do analysis in respect of students‘ readiness
levels
(c) Introduction of bio-metric based attendance in the class
(c) Diversifying teaching methods in terms of learners’ needs
(d) Involving students. giving responsibility and recognizing the accomplishments
1. (b), (d) and (e) only
2. (a), (b) and (c) only
3. (b), (c) and (d) only
4. (c), (d) and (e) only

Q237. The research form which will be an appropriate fit for improving efficacy of formative
assessment would be:
1. Fundamental research
2. Applied research
3. Action research
4. Ethnographic research
2020 June || Hindi (1) |
Q238. Identify the characteristics and basic requirements of reflective level teaching in the
following list of statements:
(a) Teacher presents the information and ideas systematically to help recall them when
needed
(b) Teacher conducts drills and exercises to fix up the ideas in the minds of students.
(c) Issues are raised and discussed with a view to sift the potential rational solution of
problems.
(d) Teacher asks students to give examples and parallel ideas.
(e) Academic sessions are conducted in a dialogic mode to explore and explain the basis of
arguments.
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (c) and (d) only
3. (c) and (e) only
4. (d) and (e) only
Q239. For effective teaching which of the following is a key behavior?

1. Encouraging students to elaborate their own answer or that of other students
2. Summarizing what was told by a student.
3. Teacher gives comments for the purpose of organizing what is to come.
4. Making ideas clear to learners who may be at different level of understanding

Q240. Which of the following strategies of teaching are learner-centered?
(a) Cybernetics
(b) Lecture with audio visual aids
(c) Question-answer session
(d) Practical tasks based project

(e) Group discussion
1. Only (a) and (d)
2. Only (a) and (b)
3. Only (c) and (d)
4. Only (d) and (e)
Q241. Which of the following sequences correctly reflects the development of teaching
support systems in Indian higher education?
1. Audio visual. Aural-oral. Visual and ICT based.
2. Aural-oral. Visual. Audio-visual and ICT based
3. ICT based. Audio-visual. Aural-oral and Visual
4. Visual. Aural oral. ICT based and Audio visual
Q242. In which of the following evaluation systems. evaluation occurs informally during
instructions?
1. Evaluation in choice-based credit system
2. Evaluation through computer based testing
3. Summative evaluation
4. Formative evaluation
2020 June || Hindi (2) |
Q243. Which of the following statements describe the most critical features of effectiveness
of teaching?

(a) To be effective in teaching requires the orchestration and integration of key and helping
behaviour.
(b) Teaching means training the mind of students.
(c) Effective teachers function as able facilitators and guides
for students knowledge building process.
(d) Teaching is basically informing the students.

(e) Through effective teaching students can be taught to become agents of their own
learning.
1. Only (a). (b) and (c)
2. Only (a). (c) and (e)
3. Only (b). (c) and (d)
4. Only (c). (d) and (e)
Q244. What are the basic requirements for organizing teaching at understanding level‘?
(a) Giving large number of positive and negative examples of facts and concepts being
presented.
(b) Presenting facts with focus on remembering the basic features underlying them.
(c) Giving opportunity to promptly supply the needed information.
(d) Conducting discussions to examine the pros and cons of an issue.
(e) Providing opportunity to students to give their own interpretation of facts presented.
Choose correct answer from the options given below
1. Only (a) (d) and (e)
2. Only (a) (b) and (c)
3. Only (b) (c) and (d)
4. Only (c) (d) and (e)
Q245. A student finds it difficult to understand. analyse and interpret the concepts and
principles relating to a subject of study formally prescribed. Which learner characteristics
would be most relevant in such a situation to be probed?
1. Academic characteristics
2. Social characteristics

3. Emotional characteristics
4. Cognitive characteristics
Q246. What are the characteristics of field-dependent learners?

a. Personalizes curriculum
b. Rarely seeks physical contact with the teacher

c. Seeks guidance and demonstrations from teachers
d. Likes to cooperate
e. Prefers to work alone
1. Only (a). (b) and (c)
2. Only (b). (c) and (d)
3. Only (a). (c) and (d)
Q247. In which of the methods of teaching ICT support is implied‘?

1. Lecture method
2. Buzz session
3. Interactive presentation
4. MOOCs
2020 June || History |
Q248. An open classroom environment marked by sharing and caring by teachers and
students in their interchanges will be most helpful for which level of teaching?
(1) Memory level

Q249. Which will be the correct hierarchical sequencing for the following types of learning?
(A) Discrimination learning
(B) Sign learning
(C) Concept learning
(D) Problem solving learning
(E) Rule learning

1. (B). (A). (C). (E) and (D)
2. (A). (B). (E). (D) and (C)
3. (D)- (C)- (B)- (A) and (E)
4. (C). (D)- (E)- (A) and (B)
Q250. Which of the following research forms aims primarily at putting to use the theoretical
advances with an eye on exploring the potential for generalizability?
(1) Fundamental research
(2) Evaluative research
(3) Action research
(4) Applied research
Q251. Which of the following intellectual characteristics in a teacher need nurturing in order
to accomplish subjective well-being leading to effectiveness in motivating and inspiring
students of college level education?
(1) Cognitive intelligence related
(2) Emotional intelligence related
(3) Social intelligence related
(4) Spiritual intelligence related

Statement I: Instructional technology is a network of techniques pressed into service for
realizing instructional objectives.
Statement II : Computer-aided instruction can replace the teacher if the goal of education is
personality development.
below
Q253. Which of the characteristics in classroom teaching behavior as given below will be
classified as a part of formative assessment?
(A) The teacher asks question to elicit classification from students.
(B) The teacher specifies the level of mastery attained by students.
(C) The teacher prompts and probes the students While making presentation.
(D) The teacher pauses for a few seconds. looks at students and asks questions.
(E) The teacher indicates performance criteria and given judgemental values.
2020 June || Law | Physical Education |
Q254. A teacher uses a question-answer session to ensure desired learning outcomes in

his/her classroom. ln this process, he/she offers the following type of comment to a few
answers given by a student:
"Yes, you are right. good"
This will be considered as an example of
1. Positive feedback

2, Negative feedback
3. Confirmatory feedback
4, Corrective feedback
Q255. In the cognitive domain of teaching-learning objectives. which will be categorized as a

higher type of learning outcomes?
A. Knowledge and comprehension
B. Analysis of conceptual elements
C. Application of acquired knowledge and skills
D. Synthesis involving the creative organization of ideas
E. Evaluation involving judgment using internal or external standards
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C. D and E only
4. B. D and E only

examinees‘ knowledge and ability
Statement II: Typical response tests are designed to measure specific behaviours and
characteristics of examinees
ln light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below
2. Both Statement l and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

List I Behavioural teaching List ll Description
competencies
A. Instructing I. Optimizing ‘on task’ and minimizing ‘off task‘ activities
B. Communicating II. Watching groups, behaviours and pace etc. and
reacting quickly
C. Managing III. Using methods and activities by the teacher to
promote learning
D. Monitoring IV. Transmitting thoughts and ideas verbally and non-
verbally
1 A—I. B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A—IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3, A—III, B-IV. C-I, D-II
4. A—II , B-I, C-IV, D-III
Q258. Given below are two statements. one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
Assertion A: Evaluation is said to be formative when the intention is to identify scope and
potential for improvement of teaching-learning system
Reason R: The form of such evaluation is informal and has to take place during
instruction/teaching
2020 June || Management |
Q259. Which learning theory provides support for active participation of learner in the
learning process in an interactional setting with intrinsic motivation as the basis?
1. S—R Theory of Watson
2. Reinforcement Theory of Skinner
3. Contructivist Theory of Vygotsy

4. Insight Theory of Kohler
Q260. While reporting the result of assessment a college teacher makes use of percentile
ranks in place of scores obtained by his/her students. What kind of evaluation will it be
called?
2. Norm—referenced
3. Formative
4. Summative

Statement I: Programmed Instructional material uses active responding and immediate
feedback as important principles for learning
Statement II: Skinner's reinforcement principle is the basis for the preparation of linear
types of programmed instructional material
2. Both Statement l and Statement II are false
Q262. Which of the following educational objectives are considered to be of higher level in
the affective domain of taxonomic scheme?
A. Synthesis
B. Characterization
C. Analysis
D. Organization
E. Precision
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. B and D only

4. D and E only
Q263. Which of the following describe understanding level teaching?

A. Systematic, step by step presentation to promote retention of facts presented
B. Giving a large number of positive and negative examples to explain concepts
C. insisting on effective storage of information
D. Helping to promote seeing of relationships among facts
E. Critical sifting of facts and information
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. B and D only
2020 June || Sociology |
Q264. The goal of teaching as compared to training is to provide opportunity of :

(1) Promotion of organized ideas as a result of disciplined drill
(2) Sharing and caring leading to critical and creative reflection
(3) Establishing beliefs and values leading to change in attitude
(4) Associating ideas which are similar and dissimilar
Q265. In Gagne‘s ‘Learning hierarchy’ which of the learning types immediately precedes’
Concept learning?
(1) Signal learning
(2) S-R learning
(3) Chain learning
(4) Discrimination learning

Q266. There is abundant scope for promoting concept learning under which stage of
development of learner?
(1) During infancy
(2) During childhood
(3) During adolescence
(4) During pre adolescence

Statement I: Use of programmed instructional material as supplement has the potential to
optimise learning outcomes.
Statement II: ICT if used judiciously will render teaching-learning systems effective and
efficient.
given below:
Assertion (A): For ensuring successful teaching-learning systems both Norm - Reference
Testing (NRT) and Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) procedures for interpretation of scores
have to be synthesized.

Reason (R) : Parents and educational administrators along with the students themselves
need to know the status of accomplishment in terms of laid down criteria and relative
positions of the participants vis-a-vis that of others.
below :

ANSWER KEY teaching aptitude 2018DEC -2020JUNE
1.3 41.1 81.4 121.1 161.1 201.2 241.2
2.2 42.4 82.2 122.1 162.2 202.4 242.4
3.4 43.3 83.3 123.2 163.3 203.1 243.2
4.4 44.1 84.1 124.1 164.1 204.2 244.1
5.2 45.4 85.2 125.3 165.4 205.2 245.4
6.2 46.2 86.3 126.4 166.3 206.1 246.3
7.4 47.2 87.4 127.2 167. 207.2 247.4
8.1 48.3 88.4 128.2 168.3 208.3 248.3
9.3 49.4 89.3 129.4 169.1 209.2 249.1
10.3 50.1 90.2 130.3 170.1 210.4 250.4
11.2 51.1 91.1 131.2 171.3 211.3 251.2
12.2 52.2 92.2 132.4 172.4 212.1 252.3
13.4 53.2 93.4 133.2 173.4 213.2 253.2
14.1 54.4 94.3 134.4 174.2 214.4 254.1
15.3 55.1 95.4 135.1 175.2 215.1 255.4
16.2 56.4 96.3 136.4 176.1 216.1 256.1
17.1 57.2 97.1 137.4 177.3 217.3 257.3
18.3 58.2 98.4 138.2 178.2 218.4 258.1
19.3 59.3 99.3 139.4 179.1 219.1 259.3
20.3 60.4 100.4 140.2 180.1 220.2 260.2
21.4 61.3 101.3 141.1 181.1 221.1 261.1
22.2 62.4 102.4 142.2 182.1 222.3 262.3
23.1 63.1 103.2 143.3 183.4 223.1 263.4
24.1 64.4 104.2 144.2 184.1 224.2 264.2
25.2 65.3 105.3 145.1 185.3 225.1 265.4
26.4 66.4 106.3 146.3 186.4 226.2 266.3
27.1 67.4 107.1 147.1 187.3 227.4 267.1
28.4 68.4 108.3 148.4 188.1 228.4 268.1
29.2 69.2 109.4 149.4 189.3 229.2
30.4 70.4 110.1 150.3 190.3 230.1
31.1 71.1 111.2 151.3 191.4 231.3
32.3 72.4 112.3 152.2 192.2 232.3
33.4 73.1 113.2 153.4 193.1 233.4
34.1 74.4 114.1 154.1 194.3 234.3
35.3 75.1 115.2 155.2 195.1 235.2
36.4 76.4 116.4 156.1 196.4 236.1
37.1 77.2 117.3 157.3 197.1 237.3
38.2 78.2 118.3 158.2 198.4 238.3
39.1 79.2 119.2 159.1 199.1 239.4
40.2 80.1 120.4 160.1 200.2 240.1

RESEARCH APTITUDE
RESEARCH APTITUDE- 2018 DECEMBER
2018 December || Adult Education| Anthropology| Chinese| Comparative Literature|
1. The four approaches to knowing answers to research questions, according to Kerlinger,

are :
(i) Method of tenacity
(ii) Method of intuition
(iii) Method of authority
(iv) Method of science
(v) Method of creativity
(vi) Method of non-functionality
Code:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (d)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(d) (iii),(iv), (v) and (vi)
2. One way to measure the extent to which a measure is free of random error is to compute
its:
(a)Content validity
(b)Experimenter's bias
(c)Test-retest reliability
(d) Demand characteristics

3. Qualitative researchers criticise quantitative research for its tendency towards
Options :
(a) Emphasis on evidence

(b) Focus on empiricism
(c) Reductionism
(d) Obsession with creativity
4. Which method is appropriate to reduce random error?
(a) Select large sample size

(b) Administer the test after a gap of one week
(c) Administer the treatment in the same way every time
(d) Administer manipulation checks
5. In relation to code of conduct in research, what does APA stand for ?
(a) Advanced Psychological Authority

(b) American Psychological Association
(c) Australian Psychological Association
(d) Association of Psychological Assessments
2018 December|| Arab Culture| Bengali| Bodo| Environmental Sciences| Hindi
6. The identification of a research problem involves

(i) Selection of the academic area
(ii) Demarcation of the study area
(iii) Rejection of personal and collective choices
(iv) Specific topics within the area
(v) Management of financial sources
Code :

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii), (iv) and (v)
7. Participatory research is also described as :

(a) lndividual-based
(b) Group-based
(c) Community-based
(d) Government—based
8. Which of the following is an in-correct statement?

(a) Ex post facto research uses data that you collected before you came up with your
hypothesis.
(b) Archival research uses data collected and sometimes coded by someone else.
(c) Observational methods are used in both correlational and experimental research.
(d) Using a scatterplot to graph your correlational data will not tell you the direction of the
relationship (positive or negative).
9. The advantages of secondary analysis in research are

(i) lt is inexpensive.
(ii) There is no need to construct a measuring instrument
(iii) Data archives are a valuable source
(iv) Useful opportunity is provided to produce valuable knowledge
(v) Provides less time to understand data
Code :
(a) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(d) (iv) and (v) only

10. match the following
(a) Construct (i) Faulty or poor measure, resulting in mislabelling|
validity misinterpreting behaviour
(b) External (ii) Treatment and no-treatment groups were unequal before the
validility study began
(c) lnternal (iii) Sample of participants was not representative
validity
A B C
(a) I II III
(b) I III II
(c) III I II
(d) II I III
2018 December|| Arabic| Geography| Gujarati| Library and Information Science| Nepali|
11. The paradigm of research which focuses on the development of professional expertise
of the researcher-practitioner is called :
(a) Pure research
(b) Applied research
(c) Action research
(d) Qualitative research
12. Which of the following statements best reflect the meaning and characteristics of
research?
Select from the code to give your answer
(i) Research means challenging the status quo
(ii) Research is an endeavour to collect facts and information
(iii) Research is a synthesis of deductive and inductive processes
(iv) Research means proving one s assertions and beliefs
(v) Research is a careful review of reported studies

(vi) Research is a critical and passionate search for knowledge
Code :
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i), (v) and (vi)
(d) (i), (iii) and (vi)
13. ln the two sets given below, Set - I specifies the methods of research while Set - II
describes the critical feature associated with a method of research. Match the two and
select from the code to indicate your answer.
Set - I (Research Set - II (Critical features associated)

methods)
(a) Experimental (i) Generalizing to the population from a large sample
method
(b) Ex post facto (ii) Establishing the patterns of events which have happened, through
method primary and secondary sources
(c) Historical method (iii) Studying shared behaviour patterns
(d) Ethnographic (iv) Establishing cause and effect through control
method
(v) Probing into the causal factors from the observed effects
A B C D
(a) IV V II III
(b) I II III IV
(c) II III IV V
(d) II I IV III

14. ldentify those stages| steps of research in which ethical considerations become
relevant
Choose from the code to give your answer.
(i) ldentifying and defining research question.
(ii) Postulating relationships among variables to advance a solution.
(iii) Collecting data through use of research tools.
(iv) Defining the population and sampling procedure.
(v) Data analysis and procedure employed.
(vi) Reporting procedure of findings| results.
Code :
(b) (iii) (v) and (vi )
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (vi)
15. ln the two sets given below, Set - I provides the format of presentation and Set - II gives
the distinct features to go with them. Match the two sets and select from the code to
indicate
your answer.
Set - I (Format of Set - II (Distinctive features)
presentation)
(a) Thesis| dissertation (i) Based on free-wheeling of ideas
(b) Research paper (ii) Target oriented group based reflection
(c) Workshop (iii) Reflective deliberations based on specific
themes
(d) Seminar (iv) Presentation on a summary of research done
(v) Systematic prescribed format

A B C D
I II III V
(a)
II III IV V
(b)
III I II V
(c)
V IV II III
(d)
2018 December|| Archaeology| Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies| Dance| Folk Literature|
Forensic Science| French| Hindustani Music| History| Karnatik Music| Kashmiri| Konkani| Linguistics| Mass
Communication and Journalism| Museology and Conservation| Pali| Persian| Prakrit| Rabindra Sangeet|
Russian| Santali| Spanish|
16. ln which of the following methods of research the independent variable has to be
selected rather than manipulated ?
(a) Descriptive survey method
(b) Experimental method
(c) Ex post facto method
(d) Exegetic research
17. ln the list of statements given below which of them offer a suitable definition of
research?
Give your answer by selecting from the code.
(i) Research means a repeated search.
(ii) Research is basically an answer to a question.
(iii) Research provides an authentic solution to a problem.
(iv) Research is an endeavour to prove one's hypothesis.
(v) Research is a meaning - giving process.
(vi) Research means drawing a sample from a defined
population

Code
(b) (ii), (iii) and (vi)
(c) (i), (iv) and (vi)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (v)
18. Ability to see and size up the situation creatively is most relevant at which stage of
research ?
(a) At the stage of identifying and defining a research problem.
(b) ln determining the research design and its execution.
(c) In formulating research hypotheses and procedures for testing them.
(d) In deciding and identifying the sampling procedures to ensure their representative
character.
19. ‘Research ethics’ is of critical importance in which of the following areas? Select your
answer from the code given below :
(i) Data collecting
(ii) Preparing a seminar paper
(iii) Data analysis
(iv) Participation in a conference
(v) Writing a thesis| dissertation
(vi) Selecting a research problem
Options
(b) (i), (iii) and (v)
(c) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(d) (i), (ii) and (vi)

20. While presenting the research outcomes and sharing the same with others, in which of
the following research type, the style has to be impersonal ?
(a) Ethnographic studies
(b) Action research based studies
(c) Causal comparative based Ex post facto studies
(d) Narrative studies

21. The characteristics of scientific method of research are

(i) Empiricism
(ii) Objectivity
(iii) Systematic
(iv) Secretive
(v) Security related
(vi) Predictive
Code:
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(b) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(c) (iv), (v), (vi) and (i)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi)
22. ln a research setting, participants may act differently because they think they are
getting special attention. This reaction of treatment group to the special attention rather
than the treatment itself is called as :
Options:
(a) Hawthorne effect
(b) Attention deficit
(c) Jung effect
(d) Marlov effect

23. When a reviewer reviews a research article without knowing the author s name, it is
referred to as :
(a) Anonymous review
(b) Behind - the-curtain review
(c) Blind review
(d) Uncategorised review
24. Poster sessions in research conferences provide better opportunities for :

(a) Normal speeches
(b) Display of common interest
(c) Focus group discussions
(d) lnter-personal interactions
2018 December|| COMMERCE

25. In the two sets given below, Set-I embodies the list of research types while Set-II
provides their nature and characteristics. Match the two sets and give your answer from the
code which follows :
Set-I (Research Set-II (Nature and characteristics)
types)
(a) Experimental (i) Generalizations follow rather than precede the observations
research in due course
(b) Exports facts (ii) Emphasizing the access to reality by sharing the perspectives
research of people
(c) Participant (iii) Getting at causal facts by retrospective based research
observation analysis
(d) Grounded (iv) Describing the status and conditions as based research
theory approach obtainable
(v) Controlling the extraneous variables and observing the
effect of independent variable manipulated by the researcher
on dependent variable

A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) II III IV V
(c) III I IV II
(d) V III II I
26. Which of the following implies the correct sequence in an action research paradigm ?
(a) Act, reflect, plan and observe
(b) Observe, reflect, plan and act
(c) Plan, act, observe and reflect
(d) Reflect, act, observe and plan
27. The issue of research ethics is pertinent at which of the following stages of research?
(a) Identification, definition and delimitation of research problem
(b) Defining the population, sampling procedures and techniques
(c) Data collection, data analysis and reporting of research findings| results
(d) Deciding the quantitative or qualitative tracks or both for pursuing the research problem
28. ln which of the following, target related specifications will be considered necessary ?
(a) Seminars
(b) Conferences
(c) Symposium
(d) Workshops
29. In which of the following research methods the emphasis is laid on naturalistic settings
and meaning-giving processes ?
(a) Experimental method
(b) Ex post facto method
(c) Case study method

(d) Descriptive survey method
2018 December|| Defence and Strategic Studies| Dogri| Economics| Electronic Science|
Social Medicine and Community Health| Tribal and Regional Language Literature| Women
Studies|
30. A researcher while writing his|her thesis does not give the rationale underlying use of
statistical techniques. This will be best described as a case of
(a) Ethical misconduct
(b) An error of omission
(c) An error of commission
(d) Technical lapse
31. In which type of research, the steps of research have to be cyclic

(a) Grounded theory research
(b) Action research
(c) Experimental research
(d) Case study research
32. A researcher plans to study the effect of socio-economic status of parents on the school
drop-out rate in a district. What type of research will it be?
(a) Hypothesis formulating research
(b) Experimental hypothesis testing research
(c) Non Experiniental hypothesis testing research
(d) Ethnographic research
33. Below are given a few key terms. Identify these which denote qualitative research
paradigm
(i) Ex post facto method
(ii) Ethnography
(iii) Symbolic interaction

(iv) Descriptive survey
(v) Narrative
(vi) Experimental method
Codes:
(b) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(c) (i), (ii) and (vi)
34. For which type of research, the action words - 'Control, manipulate and observe are
most relevant ?
(a) Action research
(b) Historical Research
(c) Experimental research
(d) Grounded theory approach based research
2018 December|| Education| Kannada| Law| Population Studies| Public Administration|

Sindhi| Telugu|
35. Empirical research in social sciences is associated with

(a) Fictional narratives
(b) Positivist philosophy
(c) Historical artifacts
(d) Religious practices
36. Reasoning from a specific case to a general conclusion is known as ?

(a) Scientific logic
(b) lnductive logic
(c) Deductive logic
(d) Theoretical logic

37. The purpose of review of literature includes :
(i) To understand the subject background
(ii) To formulate research questions
(iii) To find out relevant methodology
(iv) To debate the ethical aspects of research
(v) To carry out meta analysis of bibliography
(vi) To identify the data sources
Code :
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi)
(d) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
38. lf you are to calculate Spearman's rho, what kind of data you would enter ?
(a) Actual scores
(b) Ranks
(c) Dichotomous data
(d) Nominal data
39. A variable that measures the effect of a manipulated variable, is known as

(a) lndependent variable
(b) Dependent variable
(c) Confounding varlable
(d) Controlled variable

2018 December|| English| Sanskrit Traditional Subjects| Social Work| Visual Art| Yoga
40. The four major operations in scientific research are

(i) Demonstration of co variance
(ii) Elimination of spurious relations
(iii) Sequencing in terms of time-order
(iv) Self-education
(v) Operationalisation of personal choice
(vi) Theorisation
Code :
41. Formulation of a research problem depends upon :

(i) What is the object behind the researcher's choice ?
(ii) What are the specific questions ?
(iii) What is the conceptual model ?
(iv) What negative factors to research upon?
(v) Reasons for unlimiting the study.
(vi) Construction of hypotheses.
Codes:
(a) (i), (iii), (v) and (vi)
42. A variable that is manipulated is known as :

(a) Control variable

(c) Independent variable
(d) Confounding variable
43. The components of a research design are :

(i) Comparison
(ii) Control
(iii) Reactivity
(iv) Manipulation
(v) Non-representativeness
(vi) Generalisation
Codes:
(a) i, iii, v, vi
(b) ii, iii, iv, v
(c) i, ii, iv, vi
(d) iii, iv, v, vi
44. Artifacts that arise and affect the internal validity in research are :
(i) History
(ii) Randomisation
(iii) Maturity
(iv) lnstrumentation
(v) Experimental mortality
(vi) Matching
Codes:
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(d) (iv), (v), (vi) and (ii)

2018 December|| Malayalam| Political Science| Sociology| Tamil|
45. The originality of a research topic will depend upon factors of

(i) Uniqueness of the topic
(ii) Utilitarian dimensions
(iii) Support system
(iv) Non—requirement of supervision
(v) Feasibility of the study
Codes :
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
46. Which among the following provides the strongest evidence of cause-and-effect
relationship between independent and dependent variables ?
(a) Correlational approach
(b) Non-experimental approach
(c) Experimental approach
(d) Descriptive statistics
47. With what name an attribute like height, weight or happiness that is measurable and
that is assigned with changing values be called?
(a) Heuristic
(b) Statistics
(c) Variable
(d) Sample

48. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched between the proponent and the
theory of education advocated by him ?
(a) Plato - Naturalism
(b) Rossean - Naturalism
(c) Plato - idealism
(d) Dewey - Pragmatism
49. A research report will contain :

(i) Financial accounts
(ii) Prefatory parts
(iii) Utilisation certificates
(iv) Title page
(v) Table of contents
(vi) Terminal chapters
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(b) (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(c) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
2019 JUNE – RESEARCH APTITUDE

1. A hypothesis should be conceptually

(a) convoluted, complex and generic
(b) complex, tough and general
(c) simple, clear and specific

(d) obscure, complicated and simple
2. During research, while recording observations if an observer rates an individual based on

the rating given in another aspect of the interaction, this is termed as the
(a) Evaluation effect
(b) Error of central tendency
(c) Halo effect
(d) Categorical effect
3. The study of ‘why does stressful living result in heart attack’? Can be classified as
(a) Descriptive research
(b) Explanatory research
(c) Correlational research
(d) Feasibility research
4. The formulation of a research problem can be compared to

(a) Laying the foundation of a building
(b) Building the walls of a home
(c) Polishing the doors of a building
(d) Constructing the ceiling of a house
5. Mailed questionnaire, observation, interview and collective questionnaire are instances

of
(a) Secondary sources
(b) Personal sources
(c) Primary sources
(d) Tertiary sources

2019 June || Arab Culture and Islamic Studies| Bengali| Bodo| Environmental Sciences|
Hindi|
6. When the researcher does not know the identity of the experimental and placebo
groups, the study is termed as
(a) Blind
(b) Double-blind
(c) Panel
(d) Cohort
7. Research that focuses on social inequality between men and women is called
(a) Comparative research
(b) Longitudinal research
(c) Action research
(d) Feminist research
8. The easiest attitudinal scale which is a summated rating scale is the

(a) Guttman Scale
(b) Likert scale
(c) Thurstone scale
(d) MLA scale
9. Quantitative research is also called the

(a) Ethnographic approach
(b) Unstructured approach
(c) Descriptive approach
(d) Structured approach

10. In the research method, generalisations may be made that will be applicable to other
situations of the same type. What is this called?
(a) Cohort study
(b) Case study
(c) Panel study
(d) Blind study
2019 June || Arabic| Geography| Gujarati| Nepali| Psychology| Punjabi|
11. Position papers are

(a) Compiling of academic articles
(b) Providing review articles
(c) Offering a synopsis of an extended research
(d) Highlighting of issues and depiction of status
12. Case studies are

(a) Studies conducted in areas of genetics and microbiology
(b) In-depth examination of a subject and its related conditions
(c) A report on the existing socio-political condition
(d) Specialized research in the areas of health and sanitation
13. A hypothesis is
(a) A certain and established finding
(b) A part of the research question
(c) A strategy of evaluating data
(d) A tentative statement providing an explanatio
14. Tertiary source of data is

(a) Films, hoardings and posters
(b) Government gazette, newspapers and magazines

(c) lnformation derived from both primary and secondary sources
(d) Data collected from policy papers
15. From the following list identify the qualitative research characteristics and select your
answer from the codes given below:
(i) Creating purpose statements and research questions
(ii) Stating the purpose and research questions in a broad way
(iii) Collecting data based on words from a small number of individuals
(iv) Collecting numeric data and statistical analysis
(v) Using text analysis and interpreting larger meanings of the findings
Code:
(a) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(b) (i). (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i). (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i). (iii) and (v)
2019 June || Archaeology| Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies| Forensic Science|
French| History| Kashmiri| Konkani| Linguistics| Mass Communication and Journalism|
Museology and Conservation| Music Rabindra Sangeet| Pali| Performing Art (Dance
Drama Theatre)| Persian| Prakrit| Russian| Santali| Spanish
16. Which of the following research formats focusses on hypothesis testing and
generalisations?
(a) Experimental and ex-post facto research
(b) Intervention based action research
(c) Phenomenalogical and narrative research
(d) Case study research
17. Which of the following action sets best represent an action research cycle?
(a) Reflect, act, plan and observe
(b) Plan, act, observe and reflect
(c) Observe, plan, reflect and act

(d) Act, plan, observe and reflect
18. Which one of the following is the main feature of qualitative research?
(a) Avoids positivist assumptions and data analysis
(b) Subscribes to pre-existing categories
(c) Collects data in numerical form
(d) Uses empirical method of data analysis
19. A good review of research literature aims at

(a) Subjective analysis of the content
(b) Provides information about the authors and their affiliations
(c) Generates research questions and validating those questions
(d) Conducts multiple task based screening
20. A researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis (Ho) in his|her research. What
implications will it carry for his|her principal research hypothesis?
(a) Accepting the research hypothesis
(b) Rejecting the research hypothesis
(c) Not taking any decision on the research hypothesis
(d) Improving the research hypothesis
2019 June || Assamese| Computer Science and Applications| Criminology| Human Rights
And Duties| Odia| Social Work| Urdu
21. Bibliography given in a research report

(a) Helps those interested in further research
(b) Shows the vast knowledge of the researcher
(c) Makes the report authentic
(d) Is an optional part of the report

22. The research design is specifically related to which of the following features in research?
(i) Sample selection
(ii) Formulation of a plan
(m) Deciding about the tool for data collection
(iv) Hypothesis making
(v) Choice of a field of inquiry
Select your answer from the options given below.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(d) (iii), (iv) and (v)
23. Through which research method, the manipulation of an independent variable and its
effect on dependent variable is examined with reference to a hypothesis under controlled
conditions?
(a) Ex-post facto research
(b) Descriptive research
(c) Case study research
(d) Experimental research
24. In which of the following research studies interpretation and meaning get more
attention than formulation of generalisations?
(i) Historical studies
(ii) Survey studies
(m) Philosophical studies
(iv) Ethnographic studies
(v) Hypothetico — deductive studies
(vi) Ex-post facto studies
Choose your answer from the options given below.
(b) (iv), (v) and (vi)

(c) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
25. Which of the following is a plagiarism checking website?

(a) http:||go.turnitin.com
(b) http:||www.researchgate.com
(c) http:||www.editorial.elsevier.com
(d) http:|| www.gammarly.com

26. Research design that needs to collect factual information on a continuing basis is
classified as
(a) Longitudinal Study Design
(b) Pre and Post Study Design
(c) Cross-Sectional Study Design
(d) Double-Control Study Design
27. Snowball sampling is the process of selecting a sample using

(a) Networks
(b) Groups
(c) Snowballs
(d) Computer Programs
28. In which of the following research paradigms the focus of concern is on interpreting
reality in terms of participants perspective?
(a) Experimental Research
(b) Ex-post facto Research
(c) Ethnographic Research
(d) Survey Research

29. ERIC, MEDLINE and ABI|INFORM are instances of
(a) Citation services
(b) Electronic databases
(c) Printed databases
(d) Libraries
30. A tentative proposition with unknown validity that specifies a relationship between two
or more variables is called
(a) research problem
(b) research proposal
(c) research design
(d) research hypothesis
2019 June || Defence and Strategic Studies| Dogri| Economics| Electronic Science|
Marathi| Percussion Instruments| Politics (including International Relations and Studies)|
Rajasthani| Sanskrit| Social Medicine and Community Health| Tribal and Regional
Language Literature| Women Studies
31. Think-aloud procedure is

(a) a part of secondary source of data
(b) a technique used to investigate learner strategies and performance
(c) a strategy of testing learners‘ aptitude by providing primary sources
(d) a necessary method in scientific research
32. Participant observation is a part of

(a) Philosophical research
(b) Mentalist Theory of language
(c)Mathematical research
(d)thnographic research

33. Plagiarism in research is
(a) Creative use of previous data
(b) Copying unscrupulously a.nd making use of it
(c) Quoting someone and citing himl her
(d) Referring to previous data and working over it with new objectives
34. A university teacher plans to study the effect of level of aspiration of students in terms
of their socio-economic background on their scholastic performance at the term end
evaluation conducted by an external testing agency. What is the dependent variable in this
study?
(a) Level of aspiration of students
(b) Socio-economic background of students
(c) Scholastic performance of students
(d) Term end evaluation
35. Critical language testing in a research report is
(a) Testing language from an ethical point of view, revealing its misuses
(b) Evaluating the stylistic characteristics of language
(c) Critiquing the ideology of the author
(d) Observing the gender role played by language
2019 June || Education| Kannada| Law| Population Studies| Public Administration|

Sindhi| Telugu
36. Supervisor’s certification on the thesis

(a) Gives name and fame to the supervisor
(b) Clears different bottlenecks in the system
(c) Gives weightage to the scholar’s work
(d) Ensures originality of the work

37. After identifying the different variables and establishing the logical reasoning in
theoretical framework, the next step in the research process is to
(a) Conduct survey
(b) Generate hypothesis
(c) Focus on group discussion
(d) Use experiment in an investigation
38. Which stage in research creates a working thesis for the research paper by specifying
and organizing the category of information?
(a) Research design
(b) Developing a hypothesis
(c) Review of literature
(d) Analysis of data
39. Participation in which type of research has the great potential for ensuring the
improvement of the professional as well as work situation?
(a) Fundamental research
(c) Evaluative research
(d) Action research
40. Reference serves the purpose of

(a) Lending authenticity to the given content
(b) Insightful decision making
(c) Giving ornamental value to the research
(d) Exhibiting the great achievement

2019 June || English| Sanskrit Traditional Subjects| Visual Art| Yoga
41. The conceptual framework in which a research is conducted is called a

(a) Synopsis of research
(b) Research design
(c) Research hypothesis
(d) Research paradigm
42. A shift in attitude in respondents between two points during data collection is called
(a) Reactive effect
(b) Maturation effect
(c) Regression effect
(d) Conditioning effect
43. From the list given below identify those which are called ‘Non-probability sampling
procedures’ :
(i) Simple random sampling
(ii) Dimensional sampling
(iii) Snowball sampling
(iv) Cluster sampling
(v) Quota sampling
(vi) Stratified sampling
Choose the correct option
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)

44. The major characteristic of correlation analysis is to seek out
(a) Differences among variables
(b) Variations among variables
(c) Association among variables
(d) Regression among variables
45. The time-frame in which a study explores a situation or problem is also called the
(a) reference period
(b) age
(c) longitudinal
(d) retrospective time
2019 June || Malayalam| Political Science| Sociology| Tamil
46. Which of the following research types has a potential for enhancing teaching
competencies?
(a) Fundamental research
(c) Impact assessment research
(d) Action research
47. A pilot study is also called a

(a) descriptive study
(b) feasibility study
(c) correlational study
(d) explanatory study

48. In research, reliability is that quality of a measurement procedure which provides
(a) repeatability and accuracy
(b) punctuality and accuracy
(c) accuracy and speed
(d) speed and repeatability
49. The fish bowl draw is a method of drawing a|an

(a) independent sample
(b) structured sample
(c) non-random sample
(d) random sample
50. A questionnaire that offers no scope for any respondent’s own view is called
(1) closed-ended
(2) schedule
(3) open-ended
(4) unstructured
51. In experimental research based studies the observations derived from which of the
following variables are considered for statistical analysis?
(a) Independent variable
(c) Moderator variable
(d) Control variable

2019 December Research Aptitude
[ Adult Education|Anthropology|Chinese|Comparative Literature| Comparative Study of

Religions|German|Home Science| Japanese| Labour Welfare| Maithili| Management|
Manipuri|Philosophy| Physical Education|Tourism Administration and Management]
1. Which among the following is NOT related to qualitative research?

A. Thematic analysis B. Case study C. Discourse analysis D. Survey method
2. In Social Sciences, a central issue is the question of whether the social world can be
studied using the methods of natural sciences. This statement refers to the issue of I
A. Ontology B. Axiology C. Epistemology D. Etymology
3. Which among the following is not the outcome of grounded theory research?
A. Concepts B. Narrative C. Categories D. Hypotheses
4. Arrange the steps of research in the sequence in which they are presented in the
thesis
A. Discussion, Review of Literature, Results. Conceptual Framework, Problem
B. Review of Literature, Problem, Conceptual Framework, Result, Discussion
C. Problem, Review of Literature, Conceptual Framework, Results, Discussion
D. Problem, Review of Literature, Conceptual Framework, Results, Discussion
[Arab culture and Islamic Studies|Bengali|Bodo|Environmental Sciences|Hindi|Indian

Culture]
5. In grounded theory, researchers collect data using theoretical sampling until theoretical
saturation is achieved. This process can be summarized in the following sequence.
A. Sample theoretically decided —> Collect data —> Analyse data —> Theoretical
Saturation
B. General research quest-ion —> Collect data —> Sample theoretically decided —>
Analyse data —> Theoretical Saturation
C. Sample theoretically decided —> General research question —> Collect data —>
Theoretical Saturation
D. General research question —> Sample theoretically decided —> Collect data —>
Analyse data —> Theoretical Saturation

6. Which two among the following factors are responsible for transgression of ethical
principle in research?
a) Harm to the participants
b) Lack of informed consent
c) Not greeting the participants after the experiment is over
d) (d) Asking difficult questions

A. (a) and (c) only B. (b) and (c) only C. (a) and (d) only D. (a) and (b) only
7. Which of the following activities are performed by the researcher in an ethnographic

research?
a) Conducts structured interview with the members of the community
b) Gets immersed in a social setting for an extended period of time
c) Listens to and engages in conversation
d) Tries to educate people about the harms of some evil practices
Choose the correct answer :

A. (a) and (b) only B. (a) and (c) only C.(b) and (d) only D. (b) and (c) only
[Arabic|Geography|Gujarati|Nepali|Psychology|Punjabi]
8. Identify the tests from the list given below. which are maximum performance tests in the
context of research :
( a) Personality tests (b) Projective personality tests (c) Achievement tests

(d) Attitude tests (e) Intelligence tests (f) Aptitude tests
Choose correct answer from the options given below :
A. (a). (b) and (c) B. (b). (c) and (e) C. (c). (e) and (f) D. (a). (d) and (f)
9. Which of the following research is cyclic in nature‘?

A. Fundamental research B. Applied research
B. C. Action research D. Evaluative research

10. The issue of research ethics becomes relevant in which of the following stages of
research?
(a) Problem selection (b) Hypothesis formulation (c) Hypothesis testing
(d) Data analysis and interpretation (e) Defining of research population
Select correct answer from the following options :

A. (a) and (b) B. (c) and (d) C. (b) and (e) D. (c) and (e)
11. In which type of qualitative research designs. individual stories to describe the lives of
people are explored?
A. Ethnography B. Grounded theory research C. Symbolic interaction D. Narrative

research
[Archaeology|Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies|Folk Literature|Forensic

Science| French| History| Kashmiri |Konkani| Linguistics|Mass Communication and
Journalism| Museology and Conservation| Music|Pali|Performing Art (Dance Drama
Theatre)| Persian|Prakrit|Russian|Santali|Spanish]
12.Which of the following sequences correctly reflects scientific investigation?

A. Conceptualization. theorizing. deduced consequences. observation and testing
B. Testing. observation. conceptualizing. theorizing and deduced consequences
C. Theorizing. deducing consequences. testing. observing and conceptualizing
D. Observation. conceptualization. theorizing. deduced consequences and method to
verify them
E.
13. In a research problem ‘studying the effect of Teaching Methods on the Scholastic
Achievement of boys and girls in terms of their socio-economic background. which can be
designated as independent variable’?
A. Scholastic achievement B. Teaching methods C. Gender
D. Socio-economic background

14. When results obtained in a research study can be extended to a group larger than the
sample (outside the context. of the study) it is called
A. Internal validity B. Functional relationship C. External validity D. Hypothetical
construct
15. In a thesis ‘Format and styles of referencing' have been inappropriately followed. this is
an example of
A. Technical lapse on the part of researcher
B. Unethical practice of the researcher
C. Inability of the researcher to write a thesis
D. Lack of commitment on the part of researcher to write a thesis
16. A university department plans to undertake a study wherein attitudes. values and biases
of teachers and students are to be probed with an eye on disclosing their patterns of
adjustment. Which types of research methods will be considered appropriate in this
context?
(i) Experimental method (ii) Case study method (iii) Descriptive method
(iv) Ethnographic method (v) Historical method

A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (iii) and (v) D. (ii) and (iv)
[Assamese|Computer Science and Applications|Criminology|Human Rights And

Duties|Odia|Social Work|Urdu]
17. A university teacher plans to improve the study habits of students in his|her class.
Which type of research paradigm will be helpful in this regard?
A. Evaluative research paradigm B. Fundamental research paradigm
C. Applied research paradigm D. Action research paradigm
18. A researcher intends to make use of ICT in his|her research. What considerations should
weigh most in such a decision?
(a) Appropriateness of the tool used
(b) Cost involved in procuring it

(c) Availability of tools in the department where research is to be undertaken
(d) Willingness of his|her supervisor to offer help
(e) The company from which the ICT equipment has been procured

A. (a), (b) and (c) B. (c), (d) and (e) C. (a), (c) and (d) D. (b), (c) and (e)
19. Which of the following sampling procedures will be appropriate for conducting
researches with empirico-inductive research paradigm?
A. Simple random sampling procedure
B. Systematic sampling procedure
C. Stratified sampling procedure
D. Any of the non-probability sampling procedures
20.In which of the following formats ‘Chapter Scheme’ of the document has to be formally
approved by a research degree committee in the university?
A. Thesis|dissertation B. Seminar papers C. Research articles D. Research
monographs
21. A research scholar While submitting his|her thesis. did not acknowledge in the preface
the help and support of the respondents of questionnaires used. This will be called an
instance of
A. Technical lapse B. Willful negligence C. Unethical act D. Lack of respect
[Commerce]
22. ln an intervention based action research process, which of the following is the usually
recommended sequence?
A. Plan, Act, Observe and Reflect B. Observe, Plan, Act and Reflect
C. Reflect, Plan, Act and Observe D. Observe, Act, Reflect and Plan

23. Match Set I with Set II
Set I (Research Tools) Set II (Measurement Scale)
(a) Questionnaire and Interview (i) Ratio scale of measurement
(b) Intelligence and Aptitude Tests (ii) Ordinal Scale of measurement
(c) Attitude and Value Tests (iii) Interval Scale of measurement
(d) Speed and Frequency Tests (iv) Nominal Scale of measurement

A. (A) - (I); (B) - (II); (C) - (III); (D) - (IV)
B. (A) - (III); (B) - (I); (C) - (IV); (D) - (II)
C. (A) - (IV); (B) - (III); (C) - (II); (D) - (I)
D. (A) - (II); (B) - (III); (C) - (I); (D) - (IV)
24 A college teacher presents a research paper in a seminar. The research paper cites
references which are pretty old. This situation will be described as the case of
A. Technical lapse B. Ethical lapse C. Academic ignorance D. Inability of updating
research source
25. At the stage of data analysis, in which quantitative techniques have been used by a
researcher, the evidence warrants the rejection of Null Hypothesis (H0). Which of the
following decisions of the researcher will be deemed appropriate?
A. Rejecting the (H0) and also the substantive research hypothesis
B. Rejecting the (H0) and accepting the substantive research hypothesis
C. Rejecting the (H0) without taking any decision on the substantive research
hypothesis
D. Accepting the (H0) and rejecting the substantive research hypothesis
26. If data has been recorded using technical media, which among the following is a
necessary step on the way to its interpretation?
A. Transcription B. Structural Equation Modelling C. Sequential Analysis
D. Sampling

[Defence and Strategic Studies|Dogri|Economics|Electronic Science| International and
Area Studies| Marathi| Sanskrit| Social Medicine and Community Health|Tribal and
Regional Language Literature| Women Studies]
27. In the post positivistic approach to research which of the following types of researches
got emphasized?
(a) Experimental research
(b) Phenomenological research
(c) Ethnographic research
(d) Ex Post Facto research
(e) Action research
Give the correct answer from the options given below :

A. (a) (b) and (c) B. (b) (c) and (d) C. (b) (c)and(e) D. (c) (d) and (e)
28. In which of the following formats. ‘Research Abstract‘ is a must?

(a) Research article (b) Seminar paper presented (c) Thesis (d) Research synopsis
Choose the most appropriate option from those given below :

A. (a) (c) and (d) B. (a) (b) and (d) C. (a) (b) and (c) D. (b) (c) and (d)
29. Which of the following sequences represents the most logical sequence in doing
research?
A. Identifying and defining a research problem. formulating a hypothesis. testing of
hypothesis and reporting the results
B. Identify a research problem. defining the population and sample. collecting data and
analysis of data
C. Survey of research. defining the research problem. collecting data and presenting the
outcomes
D. Defining research variables. hypothesizing. testing of research
and reporting of research outcomes

30. A university teacher intends to study the relationship between level of aspiration and
achievement of rural children. Which design of research will be most appropriate in the
context?
A. Experimental research design B. Ex Post Facto research design
D. Historical research design D.Survey research design
31.. Hypothesis testing is the main concept of which type of research?

A. Experimental research B. Historical research
C. Survey research C. Exegetic research
[Education|Kannada|Law|Population Studies|Public Administration| Sindhi|Telugu]
32. In which of the following research methods, an empirico - inductive paradigm is

employed?
(a) Ethnographic probe (b) Case study method (c) Ex post facto method
(d) Narrative method (e) Experimental method

A. (a), (b) and (c) B. (b), (c) and (d)
C. (a), (b) and (d) D. (c), (d) and (e)
33.The probability sampling procedures are mostly used in which of the following
researches?
(a) Survey researches (b) Experimental researches
(c) Phenomenology based researches (d) Action researches
(e) Correlational design based researches
Select your answer from the following options :

A. (a), (b) and (e) B. (a), (b) and (c)
C. (b), (c) and (d) D. (c), (d) and (e)

34.The style of writing a thesis and research article has to be
A. Creative in so far as diction is concerned
B. Scientific in respect of language used
C. Mechanical in so far as placement of figures and tables is concerned
D. Variable in respect of referencing
35.A researcher while reporting his |her research findings gives weightage to stake holders
perspective in a qualitative research theme. This will involve
A. Violation of ethical norms B. Bias and prejudices
C.Disclosure of reality situation D. Inappropriate interference of others in research
English|Sanskrit Traditional Subjects|Visual Art|Yoga
36.A college teacher does research with a view to depict the reality situations relating to
home conditions of students and hostels provided for. Which of the following research
format will be helpful to do so?
A. Experimental research B. Descriptive research
C. Participant observation based research D. Ethnographic research
37. In which of the following steps of research. the scope for creativity and imagination is
utmost‘?
A. Identifying the research problem and defining it

B. Figuring out the related studies and the techniques used by other researchers
C. Identifying Variables and hypothesizing
D. Data analysis and presentation of results
38. A research scholar while finally reporting the research results in the form of a thesis
acknowledges the support of his|her supervisor in the preface. This will be treated as a
A. Sheer formality B. Needed formality C. Superfluous act D. Part of ethicality

39.In case the population of research is heterogeneous in nature which of the following
sampling techniques will ensure optimum representativeness of sample units?
A. Simple random sampling B. Stratified random sampling
C. Cluster sampling D. Systematic sampling
40.Which of the following statistical technique will be appropriate for data analysis when
the observations are available in the form of frequencies?
A. Parametric 't' test B. Non-parametric 'u' test
C. Non-parametric ‘chi-square‘ test D. Parametric correlated ‘t‘ test
41.Which one of the following represents the correct order of sequence for reading skills in
the context of research?
A. Read. question. recall. review. survey
B. Questions. survey. read. recall. review
C. Recall. review. survey. question. read
D. Survey. question. read. recall. review
[Malayalam| Political Science|Sociology|Tamil]
42. According to one paradigm of research. following sequence is followed by the

researchers :
Theory —> Generation of hypotheses —> Data collection —> Data analysis and results —>
Hypotheses confirmed or rejected —> Revision of theory
This way of conceptualizing research is based on which of the following :
A. Inductive approach B. Deductive approach C. Qualitative approach D. Interpretative
approach

43..Which of the following statements fails to indicate the intent of purposive sampling?
A. Purposive sampling is not the fundamental principle for selecting cases and individuals in
qualitative research
B. Purposive sampling places the investigator's research questions at the forefront of
sampling considerations
C. Theoretical saturation is a useful principle for making decision about sample size
D. There is considerable disagreement about what is an acceptable minimum sample size in
qualitative research
44.Spotting gaps in the research literature is the chief way of identifying research questions.
In this context. ‘spotting gaps' in the research literature refers to :
(a) Identifying under-researched areas

(b) Recognizing the gap between two researchers background
(c) Identifying inconsistent findings in an area of research
(d) Recognizing gap in the characteristics of sample and population
Select correct option :
A. (a) and (c) only
B. (b) and (d) only
C. (a) and (b) only
D. (c) and (d) only
2020 June || Adult Education | Chinese| Comparative Study of Religions| Dogri |
Gujarati| Indian Culture | Japanese| Kannada | Konkani | Maithili| Manipuri| Persian |
Prakrit | Rajasthani | Sanskrit | Sindhi | Spanish | Tribal and Regional Language Literature
1. In using the hypothetico-deductive research paradigm which of the following sequences is

considered appropriate?
A. Hypothesis making, Hypothesis testing, Arriving at generalization and Conclusion
B. Establishing a research problem, Hypothesis making, Hypothesis testing, Arriving at
generalization and Conclusion

C. Hypothesis making, Establishing a research problem, Hypothesis testing, Arriving at
D. Hypothesis testing, Hypothesis making, Finalizing the research problem, Arriving at
2. Which one of the following research procedures will figure under post positivistic approach?
A. Normative survey
B. Experimental study
C. Ethnographic study
D. Ex post facto study
3. A college teacher plans a research programme in which he/she intends to improve the
socio-emotional aspect of his/her classroom climate during teaching. Which one of the
following research methods will be considered appropriate in this context?
A. Experimental method
B. Descriptive method
C. Historical method
D. Action research method
4. Which of the following steps in research are least vulnerable to research ethics?
A. Identifying the research variables
B. Defining the research variables
C. Data collection procedure
D. Data analysis procedure
E. Reporting research outcomes
A. A and B only
B. B and C only
C. C and D only
D. D and E only
5. The personalistic styles of writing a research report are permissible in which of the following
research?
A. Grounded theory research
B. Experimental research
C. Participant-observation based research
D. Historical research
E. Case study research

A. A, B and C only
B. B, C and D only
C. C, D and E only
D. A, C and E only
6. Identify the non-probability sampling procedures from the following :

(A) Simple random sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Cluster sampling
(D) Snowball sampling
(E) Dimensional sampling
A. (A). (B) and (C) only
B. (B), (C) and (D) only
C. (B), (D) and (E) only
D. (C). (D) and (E) only
7. A college principal conducts an ethnographic probe into the problems faced by tribal
students. Which method of sampling will be most appropriate?
A. Random sampling
B. Stratified sampling
C. Cluster sampling
D. Systematic sampling
8. Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Fundamental research is directed at exploring the applicability of truths and
principles already established.
Statement II: Action research aims at ameliorating the ongoing conditions and practices.
given below :
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
9. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Research ethics and its observance is necessary in the interest of credibility
and quality of research.
Reason (R) : The policy making bodies have to be accountable for pursuing research with an
eye on promoting excellence.
below :
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true
10. A researcher intends to find out the differences in motivational outlook of first degree level
students in terms of their belongingness to rural/urban areas and the educational status of
parents. What will be the dependent variable in this study?
A. Belongingness to rural/urban areas
B. First degree level
C. Educational status of parents
D. Motivational outlook
11. A teacher proposes to find out the effect of praise and encouragement during a teaching
learning session based on Skinner's theory of reinforcement, What type of research will it
belong to?
A. Fundamental research
B. Evaluative research
C. Action research
D. Applied research

12. Given below are two statements
Statement I: All research adds to the corpus of knowledge by advancing a theory
Statement II: The focus of action research is basically on the amelioration of prevalent
practices
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
13. Match List I with List II

List 1 Key research terms List II Description
A. Research problems I. Devices using which data are gathered
B. Research hypothesis II. A subset drawn from a defined set or universe
C. Sample of study III. A tentative solution or answer to a research
question
D. Research tools IV. The research question which has to be answered
A. A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
B. A - III, B - II, C- I, D- IV
C. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
D. A - III, B - IV, C - I. D - II
14. Arrange the steps in a hypothetico-deductive research in the correct sequence

A. Identifying and defining a research problem
B. Defining the population and drawing a sub-set therefrom
C. Data collection using appropriate research tasks followed by data analyses
D. Hypothesis formulation and developing a design of research
E. Taking a decision on the substantive research hypothesis via testing of the Null hypothesis
(H0)
A. A, D, B, C, E
B. A, B, C, D, E
C. A, C, B, D, E
D. B, A, Q D, E

15. Which of the following sampling techniques in research imply randomization and equal
probability of drawing the units?
A. Quota sampling
B. Snowball sampling
C. Stratified sampling
D. Dimensional sampling
E. Cluster sampling
A. A and B only
B. B and C only
C. C and E only
D. D and E only
16. Which of the following methods of acquiring knowledge save time and effort on the part of
the researcher?
A. Method of experience
B. Inductive method
C. Deductive method
D. Method of consulting an authority
17. Which of the following are features of the qualitative research paradigm?
A. The research is concerned with understanding the social phenomena from the
participant's perspective
B. It seeks to establish relationships, among variables and explains the causes of
changes in measured social facts
C. It is conducted in actual settings as the direct source of data and the researcher is
the key instrument
D. It is concerned with the process rather than simply with outcomes or products
E. It attempts to establish universal context-free generalization
A. A, B and C only
B. B, C and D only
C. A, C and D only
D. C, D and E only

18. A researcher administers an achievement test to assess and indicate the possible effect of
an independent variable in his/her study. The distribution of scores on the test is found to
be negatively skewed. On the basis of this, what can be stated with regard to the difficulty
level of the test?
A. The test is. very easy
B. The test is very difficult
C. The test is neither easy nor difficult
D. The test is easy and needs normalization
19. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion (A): A researcher has to observe codal formalities at all stages without scope and
leeway for offending moral and ethical norms
Reason (R): In respect of data collection, data analysis and interpretation there is, however,
a considerable scope of being ethically vulnerable
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
E.
20. The scope for employing ICT support is relatively more in which of the following stages of
research?
A. Problem formulation
B. Hypothesis making
C. Data collection
D. Data analysis
E. Data interpretation
A. A and B only
B. B and D only
C. C and D only
D. D and E only

as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): Research ethics mandates use of appropriate and authentic procedures to
arrive at truth and advancing solutions to problem.
Reason (R): Credibility of research is not only a prized goal but a prerequisite for excellence
in human pursuit.
given below:
A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
D. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
22. Match List I with List II. List I gives qualitative research perspectives while List II provides the
central questions addressed by them.
List I List II
What common set of symbols and understandings have
(A) Ethnography (I)
emerged to give meaning to people's interactions?
(B) Heuristics (II) What is the culture of this group of people?
(C) Phenomenology (III) What is my experience of this phenomenon?
Symbolic What is the structure and essence of experience of this
(D) (IV)
interactionism phenomenon for those people?

A. (A) (I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III). (D)-(II)
B. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C) (IV), (D)-(I)
C. (A)-(III), (B) (II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
D. (A) (IV), (B) (I); (C)-(II), (E)-(III)

23. A college teacher intends to study the problems of latecomers in the classroom. Which
type of sampling method will be appropriate in this context?
A. Stratified sampling
B. Random sampling
C. Purposive sampling
D. Cluster sampling
24. What are the activities which take place during the stage of reconnaissance in action
research?
(A) Identifying and classifying general idea
(B) Describing the facts of the situation
(C) Explaining the facts of the situation
(D) Constructing a general plan
(E) Developing the next action steps
A. (B) and (C) only
B. (A) and (B) only
C. (C) and (D) only
D. (D) and (E) only
25. A teacher intends to establish the relationship between educational status of parents and
the scholastic achievement of pupils. Which of the following method of research will be
considered appropriate for this study?
A. Philosophical method
B. Historical method
C. Ex-post facto method
D. Experimental method
26. Which of the following research focuses on enhancing the corpus of knowledge in a given
field?
A. Action Research
B. Applied Research
C. Evaluative Research
D. Fundamental Research

27. Which of the following research method employs internal and external criticism for sifting
as evidences and data?
A. Ex post facto method
B. Experimental method
D. Descriptive survey method
28. Identify the key features of qualitative research :

(A) Actual settings as the source of data
(B) Control, observe and measure as main operations
(C) Data take the forms of words or pictures
(D) Concerned with participant perspective
(E) Hypothesis making and hypothesis testing
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. (A), (C) and (D) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (B), (C) and (D) only
D. (C), (D) and (E) only

Statement I : The population in research means a defined aggregate of something which is
the focus of study.
Statement II : A sample is a sub-aggregate drawn from a defined aggregate to represent it.
given below

as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): Research ethics is a must in order to lend credibility to the research findings
and their use in authentic situations.
Reasons (R) : Application of ICT in research vouches for credibility of research results.
below :
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2020 June || Commerce (1)
31. List I mentions various methods of research while List II offers their description.
Match List I with List II:
List I List II
(A) Experimental (I) A detailed description of the way people believe
method and act in a particular society.
(B) Ex-post facto method (II) Studies designed to obtain information
concerning the current status of phenomena
(C) Descriptive survey (III) Studying the effect of manipulating independent
method variable on dependent variable under
appropriate control imposed.
(D) Ethnographic (IV) Conducting a probe into causal factors on the
method basis of evidences manifest now
A. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III). (D)-(IV)
B. (A)-(IV). (B)-(III). (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
C. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV). (D)-(III)
D. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

32. Which of the following features best describe an independent variable in research?
(A) It is the cause in the cause-effect relationship.
(B) It is the effect in the cause-effect relationship.
(C) It is the condition or characteristic which is manipulated in an experimental study.
(D) It is the variable which is placed under control.
(E) It is a kind of response variable.
A. (A) and (B) only
B. (B) and (C) only
C. (A) and (C) only
D. (D) and (E) only
33. When a particular 'statistics' in a research situation is evidently declared to be significant,

which of the following decisions will be considered tenable?
(A) Null hypothesis is rejected
(B) Alternative hypothesis is accepted
(C) Null hypothesis is accepted
(D) Alternative hypothesis is rejected
(E) Null hypothesis along with the alternate hypothesis are accepted.
A. (B) and (C) only
B. (C) and (D) only
C. (D) and (E) only
D. (A) and (B) only

34. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Data must be authentic before it can be of any value in a historical research,
yet proof of authenticity does not establish' its value, it must also be accurate.
Reason (R): External criticism is. therefore, referred to as lower criticism of the data.
given below:
35. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Chance or accidental errors in research will cause obtained results to depart
from the true value as often in one direction or in another.
Statement II: Systematic error causes obtained results in research to vary in a particular
direction and is far more likely to catch the researcher by surprise than is chance error.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given
below:
2020 June || Commerce (2)

36. Which argument may be advanced in support of action research in education?
A. The researcher breaks fresh ground in the field of enquiry.
B. The knowledge is applied to extend further generalization.
C. Some new principles are formulated for explaining the events.
D. The educational situation as well as the practitioner of education undergo a change
for the better.
37. The critical difference between experimental and ex post facto research lies in terms of:
A. Selection of sample
B. Causal connection between two variables
C. Use of research tools
D. Control and manipulation of independent variable
38. In establishing a research problem for a Ph.D level course, in the initial stage which of the
following stages are crucial?
(A) Hypothesis making
(B) Locating a problem area from a field through survey of related literature
(C) Defining the population of research and its characteristics
(D) Selecting a pointed issue called a problem by a process of logical analysis
(E) Defining and delimiting the problem
A. (B). (D) and (E) only
B. (B). (C) and (D) only
C. (A). (B) and (C) only
39. From the following, identify those which are called non-probability sampling procedures :
(A) Systematic sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Stratified sampling
(D) Purposive sampling

(E) Snowball sampling
C. (B). (D) and (E) only

Statement I: The goal of inquiry in fundamental research is directed at bringing an
increment in the fund of knowledge.
Statement II: Action research is a research by the practitioner, for the practitioner and of
the practitioner.
below:
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Management |
41. Which of the following research is intervention-based, cyclic in nature and improvement
focused?
A. Case study research
B. Survey research
C. Experimental research
D. Action research

42. Using an appropriate parametric test in a research project the researcher finds evidence to
reject the Null hypothesis. In doing so, which type of error is likely
A. Alpha error
B. Beta error
C. Both Alpha and Beta errors
D. Neither Alpha nor Beta error
43. A college/university teacher plans to test his/her substantive research hypothesis in a major
project, Which of the following statements are considered relevant in this regard?
A. Substantive research hypothesis has to clearly specify the relationship among
variables
B. Research hypothesis may be directed at finding out differential effects or
relationships
C. Null hypothesis should be formulated beforehand
D. There is direct support available for testing the substantive research hypothesis
E. The final decision on the research hypothesis may be reached indirectly by deciding
the fate of the Null hypothesis
A. A, B and C only
B. B, C and D only
C. A, D and E only
D. A, B and E only

List I Sampling techniques List II Description
used in research
A. Simple random sampling I. The units are identified in terms of various specific
features identified before drawing a sample structure
B. Systematic sampling II. Each unit is given an equal independent chance of
being picked up
C. Dimensional sampling III. The k-interval is obtained by N/n and the units are
drawn using the same, where N is population size and n
is desired sample size.
D. Snowball sampling IV. First member unit is used to identify the second unit
and so on
A. A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
B. A – II, B – III, C – l, D - IV
C. A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
D. A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
45. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: Emipirco-inductive paradigm in research focuses on meaning-giving subjective
perspectives to depict reality
Reason R: The purpose of research in this paradigm is not to arrive at generalizations but to
discover the reality as lived
given below
A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R is not correct
D. A is not correct but R is correct

46. In which of the following, there is a greater flexibility in both the methods and process of
research?
A. Ethnography and phenomenology
B. Descriptive survey and impact studies
C. Experimental and observation based studies
D. Ex-post facto and historical studies
47. In conducting an empirical study", a researcher employs a non parametric test for data
analysis and finds that the ‘statistics' arrived at is ’significant' at .05 level. What decisions
will be warranted thereafter?
(A) Rejecting the Null hypothesis (Ho)
(B) Accepting the Null hypothesis (Ho)
(C) Accepting the alternate hypothesis (Hi)
(D) Keeping the decision in abeyance
(E) Rejecting the alternate hypothesis (Hi)
A. (A) and (B) only
B. (B) and (C) only
C. (D) only
D. (A) and (C) only
48. Which of the following are non-probability sampling methods?

(A) Cluster sampling
(B) Judgemental sampling
(C) Systematic sampling
(D) Snowball sampling
(E) Quota sampling

B. (B). (D) and (E) only
C. (B). (C) and (D) only
as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : In order to bridge the gap between theory and practice both fundamental
and applied research formats have to be promoted.
Reason (R) : Fundamental research focuses on theory making and applied research is
directed at exploring the applicability of theory in varied practical situations.
given below :

Statement I: Qualitative research is an umbrella term to refer to various research strategies
that share certain characteristics. The data collected have been termed ’soft' i.e. rich in
description.
Statement II: Quantitative research is mainly hypothetico deductive and employs mostly
statistical techniques for data analysis.
below :

51. "A university teacher plans to study the performance of students in implementing specific
projects in terms of their creativity level'.
Which method of research will be appropriate to use in this context?
A. Historical method
B. Descriptive survey method
C. Experimental method
D. Ex post facto method
52. Which of the following features of research are associated with qualitative-inquiring?
A. Actual settings as the direct source of data
B. Data collection under controlled conditions
C. Concern with process rather than simply with outcomes
D. Establishing relationships and explaining the causes of changes
E. Concerned with what are called participant perspectives
A. A, C and D only
B. A, C and E only
C. B, C and D only
D. C, D and E only
53. Identify the characteristics of a good research hypothesis from the following
A. Amenable to empirical verification
B. Conceptual clarity in defining the variables
C. Plausibility of relationships postulated
D. Accessibility in terms of researcher's resources
E. Extent of its non-refutability

A. B, C and D only
B. A, B and D only
C. C, D and E only
D. A, B and C only
54. A research scholar while writing his/her thesis uses ICT at various stages of research
conducted. He/she justifies the conceptual errors in interpreting results attributing the
same to the specific ICT devices,. This will be labelled as
A. Technical incompetence
B. Research designs inadequacy
C. Moral and ethical lapse
D. Human error

Statement I: Action research is cyclic in so far as it involves 1 Plan-Act-Observe-Reflect' cycle
Statement II: The purpose of Action research is to develop a theory to explain causal
relationship among variables
given below
56. Identify the qualitative research designs from the list given below:
(i) Exploring common experiences of individuals to develop a theory
(ii) Controlling, manipulating, observing and measuring the effect
(iii) Exploring the shared culture of a group of people
(iv) Exploring individual stories to describe the lives of
People

(v) Extending generalizations from sample to population
Select the correct answer from the following options:
A. (i). (iii) and (iv)
B. (i). (ii) and (iii)
C. (ii). (iii) and (v)
D. (ii). (iv) and (v)
57. Which of the following shows the correct sequence in undertaking Action Research based
studies?
A. Planning. Acting on the plan. Observing and Reflecting
B. Acting on the plan. Observing. Planning and Reflecting
C. Reflecting. Planning. Acting on the plan and Observing
D. Acting on the plan. Reflecting. Planning and Observing
58. Application of ICT in research is relevant in which of the following stages?

(i) Survey of related studies
(ii) Data collection in the field
(iii) Data Analysis
(iv) Writing the thesis
(v) Indexing the references
Choose the most appropriate option from those given below:
A. (ii), (iv) and (v)
B. (i). (iii) and (v)
C. (i). (ii) and (iv)
D. (ii). (iii) and (iv)

List I (Key Terms used in List II (Description of Terms)
Research)
a) Hypothesis i) Techniques used for collection of facts and
information
b) Sample ii) Devices for arriving at conclusions
c) Research Design iii) A tentative statement indicating potential
solution of the problem of study
d) Research Tool iv) A subset drawn from a defined set
v) Conceptual framework for conducting
research
A. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
B. (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (V)
C. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
D. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (V), (D) – (I)
60. A researcher reports his/her research finding to the research audience in such a way
that his/her personal views are necessarily getting supported. This would involves issues
relating to
A. Technical aberration
B. Research ethics
C. Scientific rigour
D. Personal predilection
2020 June | Electronic Science | Labour Welfare | Population Studies | Visual Arts |
61. Which of the following methods is used in empirical researches?

A. Inductive method
B. Deductive method
C. Initiative method
D. Scientific method

62. When the independent variable is explored rather than manipulated, to observe the
effect on dependent variable, the method of research is called.
A. Ex-post facto method
C. Case study method
63. Identify" the qualitative research characteristics from the following :

(A) Exploring a problem and developing a detailed understanding of a central
phenomenon.
(B) Having the literature review play7 a minor role but justifying the problem.
(C) Describing a research problem through a description of trends.
(D) Collecting numeric data from a large number of people using instruments with
present questions.
(E) Collecting data based on words from a small number of individuals.
A. (A), (B) and (C) only
B. (A). (B) and (E) only
C. (B), (C) and (D) only
64. Identify the probability sampling procedures from the following :

(A) Quota sampling
(B) Stratified sampling
(C) Dimensional sampling
(D) Cluster sampling
(E) Systematic sampling
B. (B), (C) and (D.) only
C. (B), (D) and (E) only

D. (C). (D) and {E) only

Statement I: In research. ‘Null hypothesis' when rejected, offers the scope for accepting the
alternative or substantive research hypothesis.
Statement II : When the Null hypothesis is rejected, there will be chances for committing
Beta' rather than “Alpha" error.
given below :
66. Identify sampling procedures in which units are chosen giving an equal and independent
chance
A. Quota sampling procedure
B. Stratified sampling procedure
C. Dimensional sampling procedure
D. Random sampling procedure
E. Systematic sampling procedure
Choose the correct answer from the options given below;
A. A, E and C only
B. B, C and D only
C. C, D and E only
D. B, D and E only

Statement I: Qualitative research paradigm emphasizes participant perspectives and uses an
empirico-inductive approach
Statement II: In the same research project it is neither possible nor desirable to use both
Qualitative and Quantitative research paradigms
In light of the above statements,, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below
68. The research method which focuses on establishing causal relationships with controls
among variables - independent, moderator and dependent, is called
A. Ex post facto method
B. Survey method
D. Experimental method
69. What are the characteristic features of the Quantitative Research paradigm?
A. It is hypothetico-deductive
B. It is focused on natural settings
C. It fays stress on generalizations to the population characteristics
D. It emphasizes numeric data from a large number of people
E. It says that the literature review plays a minor role but justify the problem:
A. A, C and D only
B. A, B and C only
C. B, C and D only
D. C, D and E only

70. What is the usual sequence of steps in the scientific method?
A. Hypothesis making by identifying the variables
B. Felt need which is creating the problem
C. Identifying the difficulty and problem statement formulation
D. Data analysis and interpretation
E. Collection of data using appropriate research tools
A. A, C, B, D, E
B. B, C, A, E, D
C. C, D, E. B, A
D. B, A, C, E, D
71. A university teacher administers a self-made test for summative evaluation of his/her
students. The distribution of scores of students is found to be positively skewed.
What inference he/she should make about the difficulty level of this test?
A. The test is much too easy for students
B. The test is difficult for students
C. The test is quite interesting to students
D. The test is favouring those students who are low rankers
72. A college teacher intends to find out as to what extent student involvement in learning
of boys and girls from rural/urban areas is attributable to the socio-economic status of the
family from which they hail. What will be designated as an independent variable in this
research project?
A. Student involvement in learning
B. Socio-economic status of the family
C. Rural/urban areas
D. Gender {Boys and Girls)

73. A research scholar finds through statistical analysis that the value of T is significant.
What decision is warranted on the basis of this hypothesis?
A. The Null hypothesis should be rejected
B. The research hypothesis should be accepted
C. The null hypothesis should be accepted
D. The research hypothesis should be rejected
E. No decision is warranted in respect of research hypothesis Choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
A. A and B only
B B and C only
C. C and D only
D. D and E only
74. Which of the following are the characteristics of a good sample' in research?
A. Readily accessible
B. Representative of population characteristics
C. Serving the personal considerations of the researcher
D. Precision and accuracy in approximating the parameters
E. Freedom from bias
A. A, B and C only
B. B, D and E only
C. B, C and D only
D. C, D and E only

Statement I; In research, formulation of policies for admission tests/screening cannot
neglect the constitutional provisions
Statement II: While awarding research degrees the minorities
quota have to be protected in the interest of equity

given below
Traditional Subjects | Santali | Women Studies
76. A university teacher proposes a research project on 'why parents are apathetic to the
university programmes'. Which of the following research methods will be most appropriate
for the project?
C. Participant-observation method
77. In which level of teaching there is optimum scope for cognitive interchange requiring
analysis and synthesis?
A. Memory level teaching
B. Understanding level teaching
C. Reflective level teaching
D. Autonomous development level teaching

Statement I: Reliability is a necessary but insufficient condition for validity aspect of a
research tool
Statement II: Validity is threatened when a test measures only the construct it is designed to
measure in a research

given below
79. Identify the features of scientific method from the following list
A. Clearly defined variables and procedures
B. Empirically verifiable hypotheses
C. Little or no scope for self correction
D. Linguistic justification of conclusions
E. Ability to rule out rival hypotheses
A. A, B and E only
B. B, C and D only
C. C, D and E only
D. B, D and E only
80. From the point of view of research ethics which of the following is least vulnerable in
research?
A. Problem-formulation and identifying the variables involved
B. Data analysis and interpretation
C. Reporting of research result and their implications
D. Citing a theory in support of one's thesis
81. Which of the following sampling methods in research are non-probability based?
A. Cluster sampling method
B. Dimensional sampling method
C. Random sampling method
D. judgement sampling method

82. Snowball sampling method
A. B, C and D only
B. A, B and C only
C. B, D and E only
D. C, D and E only
83. In the two sets which follow. Set I gives certain terms used in research while Set II offers
their description. Match the two sets
Set I (Terms used in Set II (Description)
research)
(a) A postulate (i) It causes obtained results to vary in a particular
direction
(b) A construct (ii) It is something which can change either
quantitatively or qualitatively
(c) Variable (iii) It is the statement of the principle assumed, in
the absence of direct evidence
(d) Systematic error (iv) Though not directly observable, is considered to
exist
Select the correct answer from the following options:
A. (A) – (I): (B) – (II): (C) – (III); (D) – (IV)

B. (A) – (III): (B) – (IV): (C) – (II): (D) – (I)
C. (A) – (II): (B) – (I): (C) – (III): (D) – (IV)
D. (A) – (IV): (B) – (III): (C) – (I): (D) – (II)

84. A university teacher conducts research study where lecture-cum demonstration method
is used to assess the effect on students' level of participation in terms of the socio-economic
status (SES) of their family and its habitat. Which variable in this study will be called an
independent variable?
A. Lecture-cum demonstration method
B. Students level of participation
C. SES of their family
D. Habitat of the family
85. When a researcher rejects the 'Null Hypothesis' (Ho)in his/her study and accepts an
alternate Hypothesis (Hi) what type of error is likely?
A. Type I error
B. Type II error
C. Both Type I and Type II error
D. Neither Type I not Type II error
86. In which research design, the independent variable is 'selected' rather than
'manipulated'?
A. Experimental research design
B. Historical research design
C. Ex post-facto research design
D. Descriptive survey research design
87. Inappropriate application of ICT in research is an example of:

A. Technical lapse on the part of the researcher
B. Inadequate provision of ICT resources
C. Violation of research ethics
D. Absence of technical expertise of ICT resources

2020 June || Hindi (1) |
88. There are two sets given below in which Set I offers Types of Research and Set II gives
their description. Match the two sets:
SET I (Types of Research) SET II (Description)
(a) Fundamental Research (i) In-depth study with focus on typicalities
(b)Applied Research (ii) Intervention based ameliorative moves
(c)Action Research (iii) Exploring applicability of truths/principles to new
situations
(d)Case Study Research (iv) Impact studies to watch effects
(v) Adding to corpus of knowledge by formulating
theory
A. (A) - (V), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
B. (A) - (I). (B) - (II), (C) - (III). (D) - (V)
C. (A) - (III). (B) - (IV); (C) - (I), (D) - (V)
D. (A) - (II). (B) - (IV); (C) - (V), (D) - (I)
89. In which of the following research methods, manipulation and control of variables, and
randomization of sample are two of the basic requirements?
A. Ex-post facto research
B. Descriptive research
C. Case study research
D. Experimental research
90. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the steps of research using a
quantitative paradigm*?
A. Hypothesis framing. Hypothesis testing. Conclusions and Reporting.
B. Establishing a research problem. Hypothesis framing. Hypothesis testing.
Generalization and conclusions and Implications of results
C. Problem identification. Sample selection. Developing a research design and Field
work.
D. Defining a problem. Survey of related studies.
Sampling. Data collection and Data analysis

91. In terms of research ethics, which of the following may be considered as the most
vulnerable stage?
A. Defining the purpose and scope of study
B. Defining the population and sampling method
C. Data analysis, interpretation and reporting of results
D. Selection of research tools whether qualitative or quantitative
92. ICT application in research is most useful for which of the following reasons?
A. For reducing the cost of research
B. For academic establishment
C. For enhancing scope of accessibility of research data
D. For promoting dialogic interactions
2020 June || Hindi (2)
93. The research wherein the focus of concern is the exploration of applicability of theories
to newly emerging practices and domains of knowledge is called
A. Practitioner's research
B. Theoretical research
C. Situational research
D. Second level research
94. A university teacher wants to study the relationship between socioeconomic status (SES)
and achievement motivation of graduates enrolled for computer science. Which research
method will be appropriate to use in this context?
A. Experimental research method
B. Ex-post facto research method
C. Descriptive research method
D. Participant observation based method

95. In choosing a research tool which of the following are important considerations?
a. The validity of the research tool
b. The reliability of the research tool
c. Cost involved in terms of time and resources for use of research tool.
d. Face validity of the research tool
e. Opinion of the research supervisor
Select correct answer from the following options:
A. Only (c). (d) and (e)
B. Only (a), (c) and (e)
C. Only (a), (b) and (c)
D. Only (b). (d) and (e)
96. The personalized and contextualized references are permissible in which type of
reporting of researches?
A. Experimental researches
B. Historical researches
C. Ethnographic researches
D. Survey based researches
97. The scope and potential for controversy is relatively more in terms of application of ICT
and research ethics in which of the following research steps?
A. In defining research questions and variables
B. In deciding research designs and sampling procedure
C. In making use of parametric and non-parametric statistics
D. In data analysis and reporting research results

98. In a research project using 'triangulation’ approach which of the following can form part
of the investigation on studying "parental participation, attitude and problems"?
(A) Interview
(B) Observation
(C) Tests
(D) Sociometry
(E) Focused group discussion
B. (C). (B) and (D) only
C. (C). (D) and (E) only
D. (A). (B) and (E) only
99. In which method of research the independent variable is manipulated to observe and
measure its effect on dependent variable?
A. Ex-post facto method
D. Historical method
100. In which of the following there is considerable scope for violation of research ethics?
(A) Problem formulation
(B) Data interpretation
(C) Hypothesis making
(D) Reporting of research results
(E) Using research tools prepared by others

C. (B). (D) and (E) only

Statement I : A research hypothesis is a conjectural statement postulating the relationship
among variables with a view to advance solution to the problem of study.
Statement II: The Non-probabilitv sampling procedures provide the best estimate for the
population parameter.
below :
102. In which research method manipulation of 'independent variable' and control of

'extraneous variables' are neither possible nor desirable?
B. Ex post facto method
103. Identify those statements which describe the characteristic features of qualitative
research paradigm
A. Researchers tend to analyze their data inductively
B. The substantive research hypothesis is tested via Null hypothesis
C. Data take the form of words or pictures
D. Actual settings are the direct source of data

E. It assumes that there are social facts with a single objective reality
A. A, B and C only
B. A, B and E only
C. B, C and E only
D. A, C and D only
104. In quantitative research paradigm which of the following sampling methods are given
preference?
A. Simple random sampling
B. Stratified sampling
C. Quota sampling
D. Snowball sampling
E. Systematic sampling
A. A, B and C only
B. A, B and E only
C. B, C and D only
D. C, D and E only

List I Research List II Description
concepts
A. Hypothesis I. It is statistical test that does not make assumptions about the
parameters
B. Sample II. Device using which data are collected in research
C. Research tool III. A subset drawn from a larger set to represent it
D. Non-parametric IV. A tentative statement indicating relationship between two
tests or more than two variables
A. A - IV, B - III, C - II, D-l
B. A -1, B - II, C - III, D - IV

C. A - II, B -1, C - IV, D - III
D. A - III, B - IV, C -1, D - II
106. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R
Assertion A: A cross break is a numerical tabular presentation of data usually in frequency or
percentage form in which variables are cross-partitioned to study relations between them
Reason R: The categories are set up according to the research hypothesis
given below
A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Statement I: A research hypothesis is a tentative statement postulating a relationship
between factual and conceptual elements of the variables
Statement II: A researcher sets up a ’Null hypothesis' so that the deduced consequences of a
research hypothesis may be directly tested

108. For the following research problem, which of the listed research methods will be most
appropriate?
"School principal's influence on trust: Perspectives of mother's children with disabilities"
B. Focused group discussion (FGD) based method
C. Descriptive survey method
109. In which one of the sampling methods, units comprising its constituents are groups
taken Intact rather than individually?
A. Cluster sampling method
B. Simple random sampling method
C. Systematic sampling method
D. Dimensional sampling method

Statement I: Qualitative research is an umbrella term to refer to various research strategies
that share certain characteristics
Statement II :. The research-data collected in qualitative research has been termed soft i,e,
rich in description of people, places and conversation etc.
D. Statement I is Incorrect but Statement II is true
111. The scope for violating research ethics is considered to be relevant in respect of which
of the following stages in a research study?
A. Formulating research hypothesis and setting up a Null
hypothesis for testing it
B. Defining and delimiting the scope of the research study

C. Analysing and interpreting research data
D. In defining a research population and method of sampling
E. Reporting the research findings and using the same as a basis for policy formulation
A. C and E only
B. A and B only
C. B and C only
4. D and E only
112. In which of the following methods of research, hypotheses are usually implied rather
than being explicit?
A. Descriptive survey method
C. Experimental method
D. Ex-post facto method
113. Identify' the features of qualitative research from the following :

(A) Researcher becomes immersed in the situation present or past
(B) Researcher is detached from the study' to avoid bias
(C) It develops context-bound generalizations
(D) It is based on logical positivist philosophy'
(E) It uses an emergent research design
B. (B), (C) and (D) only'
C. (A), (C) and (E) only
D. (C). (D) and (E) only'

114. Match List I with List II :
List I gives sampling methods while List II provides their description.
List I (Sampling method) List II (Description)
(A) Stratified sampling ( I ) The units/members are chosen to represent various
areas of characteristics so defined
(B) Cluster sampling (II) Every' unit has independent and equal chance of being
picked up
(C) Systematic sampling (III) The units are groups and are chosen intact
(D) Dimensional (IV) The members are selected using the interval obtained
sampling by N/n – the N — Aggregate, n = desired sub-aggregate
A. (A)-(I). (B)-(II). (C)-(III). (D)-(IV)
B. (A)-(III). (B)-(IV). (C)-(I). (D)-(II)
D. (A)-(IV). (B)-(I), (C)-(II). (D)-(III)
D. (A)-(II). (B)-(III). (C)-(IV). (D)-(I)

Statement I: Every research institute has to enforce research ethics in order to ensure
credibility and meaningfulness of human inquiry
Statement II: ICT and its use in research has abetted ethical lapses in the conduct of
research wherever it has been put in place.
given below*:

116. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Assertion (A) : The purpose of research is also to revisit the situations in a bid to ensure
needed amelioration and improvement.
Reason (R) : Action research is a format of research which is basically directed at bettering
the situations.
below :
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

ANSWER KEY 2018 DEC - RESEARCH APTITUDE
1 A 11 C 21 D 31 B 41 C
2 C 12 D 22 A 32 C 42 C
3 C 13 A 23 C 33 D 43 C
4 C 14 B 24 D 34 C 44 B
5 B 15 D 25 D 35 B 45 A
6 C 16 C 26 C 36 B 46 C
7 C 17 D 27 C 37 C
8 D 18 C 28 D 38 B
9 B 19 B 29 C 39 B
10 B 20 C 30 C 40 C
ANSWER KEY 2019JUNE - RESEARCH APTITUDE

1 C 11 D 21 A 31 B 41 B
2 C 12 B 22 B 32 D 42 C
3 B 13 D 23 D 33 B 43 D
4 A 14 C 24 D 34 C 44 C
5 C 15 A 25 A,D 35 A 45 A
6 B 16 A 26 A 36 D 46 D
7 D 17 B 27 A 37 B 47 B
8 B 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A
9 D 19 C 29 B 39 D 49 D
10 B 20 B 30 D 40 A 50 A
51 B
ANSWER KEY 2019DEC - RESEARCH APTITUDE

1 D 11 D 21 C 31 A 41 D
2 C 12 D 22 A 32 C 42 B
3 B 13 B 23 C 33 A 43 A
4 C,D 14 C 24 D 34 B 44 A
5 D 15 A 25 B 35 C
6 D 16 D 26 A 36 C
7 D 17 D 27 C 37 C
8 C 18 A 28 C 38 D
9 C 19 D 29 A 39 B
10 B 20 A 30 B 40 C

ANSWER KEY 2020 RESEARCH APTITUDE
1.B 16.D 31.D 46.A 61.D 76.C 91.C 106.A
2.C 17.C 32.C 47.D 62.A 77.C 92.C 107.C
3.D 18.A 33.D 48.B 63.B 78.C 93.D 108.B
4.A 19.A 34.A 49.A 64.C 79.A 94.B 109.A
5.D 20.C 35.A 50.A 65.C 80.A 95.C 110.A
6.C 21.A 36.D 51.D 66.D 81.D 96.C 111.A
7.C 22.B 37.D 52.B 67.C 82.C 97.D 112.B
8.D 23.C 38.D 53.D 68.D 83.B 98.D 113.C
9.A 24.A 39.C 54.A 69.A 84.A 99.B 114.D
10.D 25.C 40.A 55.C 70.B 85.A 100.C 115.C
11.D 26.D 41.D 56.A 71.B 86.C 101.C 116.A
12.D 27.C 42.A 57.A 72.B 87.D 102.B
13.A 28.A 43.D 58.B 73.A 88.A 103.D
14.A 29.A 44.B 59.D 74.B 89.D 104.B
15.C 30.C 45.A 60.B 75.C 90.B 105.A

Reading Comprehension
Reading Comprehension 2018
2018 December || Adult Education | Anthropology| Chinese| Comparative Literature|
Comparative Study of Religions| German| Home Science| Japanese| Labour Welfare|
Maithili| Management| Manipuri| Philosophy| Physical Education| Tourism Administration
and Management
For all the disagreement in the industry about the future of aviation, there is perfect accord
on one point: There is going to be a lot more of it. The world's air passengers flew a
combined 7.64 trillion kilometres in 2017. By 2037, that will rise to 18.97 trillion kilometres,
with about 40% of the increase happening within five intra-regional markets: China, India,
North-America, Europe and South-east Asia. That is sparking a battle over die biggest
bottleneck holding back diis growth: airports, the governments that still own many of them
should be more open to privatisation to cover a $ 78 billion funding gap in needed capital
investments. Airlines, airports' biggest customers, see things differently. Costs at privatised
terminals are higher and governments should be cautious about such actions in the interests
of expanding the aviation sector as a whole. Privatising an airport does not necessarily make
it more efficient. A study has found there was little difference between the performance of
airports 100% owned by commercially-oriented government corporations and those
majority controlled by private businesses. The key is instead to avoid structures where the
incentives for managers are confused or misaligned, such as where private companies are
brought in as minority investors or where managers are essentially bureaucrats swayed by
political imperatives. There is a better solution out there, but it is not likely to be very
attractive to incumbent airlines, airports, or passengers enamoured of the current
generation of gleaming terminals: build more, cheaper airports.
Sub questions
1.What is the growth rate in aviation apart from the five intra-regional markets?
1. 10 percent
2. 20 percent
3. 30 percent
4. 40 percent
2.Why should the governments be open to privatisation of airports

1. Because they own many airports
2. Because there is a battle for growth
3. For necessary capital

4. To limit the government control of aviation industry
3.How do airlines see the move for privatisation of airports ?

(a) feel that costs are high
(b) Governments should be cautious
(c) Interest of the aviation sector is important
(d) It decentralises the authority to control
1. (a), (b)and (c)
2. (b), (c) and (d)
3. (c), (d) and (a)
4. (d), (a) and (b)
4.What is the key for making airports function efficiently ?

1. Make private companies as minority shareholders.
2. Provide misaligned incentives to managers.
3. Recognise political imperatives of bureaucrats appointed as managers.
4. Avoid structures of confused incentives to managers.
5.Which of the following is the focal inference of the author in the passage ?
1. Private ownership of airports does not mean efficient management.
2. Growth of the aviation industry is distorted.
3. Airports are not an obstacle to the growth of aviation industry.
4. Government-owned airports are known for high performance.

2018 December||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies | Bengali| Bodo| Environmental
Sciences| Hindi| Indian Culture
The phrase 'public diplomacy' reflects multiple viewpoints and ideas and hence, does not
possess a unique, well-established conceptualisation. Yet, in simple words public diplomacy
is the influence of nation on foreign audiences. Public diplomacy may also be defined as
'direct communication with foreign peoples, with the aim of affecting their thinking and
ultimately, that of their governments'. Hence, public diplomacy can be thought of as a
process of a nation listening and understanding the needs of other countries and
communicating its viewpoint to eventually build relationships. Public diplomacy is based on
the identity and reputation of a nation drat is dictated by many factors : political, social,
economic and cultural. Trust has been highlighted as tire most important factor necessary to
initiate a conversation, sustain a dialogue and build relationships. The focus on developing
relationships is also indicated in tire definition of public diplomacy as the process by which
direct relations are pursued with a country's people to advance the interests and extend the
values of those being represented'. It is also highlighted that engagement and dialogue as
key indicators of developing relationships in public diplomacy, "Effective public diplomacy is
a two-way street with reciprocal influence on both the source and receiver involved in the
ongoing communication process". The ongoing communication process leads to developing
lasting relationships with a foreign audience drat bestows nations with soft power. Soft
power is an advantage in world affairs and incites admiration and respect in other parts of
the world. The soft power of a country is defined by three factors : its culture, political
values and foreign policies. All these factors primarily rest on its ability to shape preference
of others by using strategic communication skills. We must remember drat public diplomacy
is not a public relations campaign, but to create on enabling environment for government
policies.
Sub questions
6.Identify the objective of public diplomacy.
1. Influence the nation
2. Communicate directly with people
3. Affect the thinking of foreign governments
4. Conceptualise national listening
7.What factors impact the identity of a nation ?

1. Political, social, economic and cultural
2. National reputation
3. Foreign audience
4. Different ideas

8.Direct relations are necessary with a country to :
1. Pursue vested interest
2. Influence the communication source
3. Advance the representative values
4. Highlight the key indicators
9.The ongoing communication process will provide :

1. Development of foreign audience
2. Advantageous soft power
3. Admiration for other countries
4. Imposition of cultural values on others
10.What does the passage declare?

(a) Public diplomacy is not for indirect relations with other countries.
(b) Public diplomacy builds relations with other countries.
(c) Trust is needed to sustain a dialogue.
(d) Strategic communication skills will help shape others' preference.
(e) Public diplomacy is not public relations.
(f) Soft power is not used to have a role in world affairs.
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
2. (b), (d), (e) and (f)
3. (a), (d), (e) and (f)
4. (b) (c), (d) and €

2018 December ||Arabic | Geography| Gujarati| Nepali| Psychology| Punjabi
One of the findings of the research into successful leadership is the fact that respect is
always a two-way street. No matter how powerful you are, no matter what your experience,
skills, and accomplishments, you will not be respected by others if you consistently treat
them disrespectfully. Friendliness - that is, treating others politely and showing interest in
them - is a way of showing your respect for other people, and in return they respect you. If
as a manager you are respected, your preventive maintenance strategy will be accepted as a
sincere attempt to resolve problems rather than a mean-spirited attempt to cause
problems.
As important as friendliness is, I want to make sure you are not mislead into believing that
friendliness will replace or correct poor management. I have seen effective managers who
didn't use this friendliness element but could have been more effective if they did use it. I
have seen very friendly managers who were ineffective because they were not doing
effective management things, In other words, managers who intervene effectively in a
friendly way are always more effective than managers who intervene effectively in a non-
friendly way. Maintaining a friendly relationship is another part of maintaining work
performance. It also helps you avoid having people try to hurt you because they don't like
you. It might save your life.
Sub questions
11.What is reported in respect of successful leadership ?
1. Respect depends on experience of the leadership
2. Respect depends on the skills of the leadership.
3. Respect depends on the accomplishments of the leader.
4. Respect comes out of respect.
12.The passage highlights which of the following feature of a successful leadership ?

1. Independence of the leader
2. Dependence of the leader
3. Reciprocity of the leader
4. Least concern for relationship by the leader
13.The preventive maintenance strategy used by a respected manager will mean to the
subordinates :
1. An attempt to cause problems
2. An attempt to resolve problems
3. An attempt to become mean-spirited

4. An attempt to become sincere
14.According to the passage friendliness in management terms implies :

1. Replacing poor management
2.Correcting ineffective management
. 3. Making management ineffective
4. Making management effective
15.The central idea of the passage is :

1. Friendliness is necessary for management.
2. Friendliness avoids chances of feeling hurt.
4. Friendliness is a negative factor for management
2018 December ||Archaeology | Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies| Folk
Literature| Forensic Science| French| History| Kashmiri |Konkani| Linguistics| Mass
Communication and Journalism| Museology and Conservation| Music| Pali| Performing
Art (Dance Drama Theatre)|
In noting the nature of human lives, we have reason to be interested not only in the various
things we succeed in doing, but also in the freedoms that we actually have to choose
between different kinds of lives. The freedom to choose our lives can make a significant
contribution to our well-being, but going beyond the perspective of well-being, the freedom
itself may be seen as important. Being able to reason and choose is a significant aspect of
human life. In fact, we are under no obligation to seek only our own well-being. It is for us to
decide what we have good reason to pursue. We need not have to be a great leader to
recognise that we can have aims or priorities that differ from the single-minded pursuit of
our own well-being only. The freedoms and capabilities we enjoy can also be valuable to us.
It is ultimately for us to decide how to use the freedom we have. It is important to
emphasise that if social realisations are assessed in terms of capabilities that people actually
have, rather than in terms of their utilities or happiness. First, human lives are then seen
inclusively, taking note of the substantive freedoms that people enjoy, rather than ignoring
everything other than pleasures or utilities they end up having. There is also a second

significant aspect of freedom : it makes us accountable for what we do. Freedom to choose
gives us the opportunity to decide what we should do, but with that opportunity comes the
responsibility for what we do - to the extent that they are chosen actions. Since a capability
is the power to do something, the accountability that emanates from that ability - that
power - is a part of the capability perspective, and this can make room for demands of duty
- what can be broadly called deontological demands. There is an overlap here between
agency-centred concerns and the implications of a capability based approach. The
perspective of social realisations will take us to further issues central to the analysis of
justice in the world.
Sub questions
16.Why freedom is seen as important ?
1. To succeed in doing things.
2. To have different life styles.
3. To understand the perspective of one's well-being.
4. To go beyond the perspective of one's own well-being.
17.Why should we go beyond considerations of our own well-being ?

1. To follow in the footsteps of great leaders.
2. To think of freedoms of others.
3. To appreciate that our aims can differ from self-interest.
4. To be able to enjoy our freedoms.
18.What is of no value for assessing social realisations ?

1. Capabilities of people
2. Utilities
3. Inability to use the freedom given
4. Ignoring the values of freedom
19.What is the inherent aspect of freedom ?

1. Pleasures of freedom
2. Absence of actions
3. Accountability

4. Well-being of the self
20.The central idea of the passage is :
1. Emphasis on variety of personal issues
2. Use of power for freedom
3. Responsibility for individual happiness
4. Need for securing justice to all
2018 December || Assamese | Computer Science and Applications| Criminology| Human

Rights And Duties| Odia| Social Work| Urdu
Today, in the digital age, who owns information owns the future. In this digital world, we
face a fundamental choice between open and closed. In an open world information is
shared by all freely available to everyone. In a closed world information is exclusively owned
and controlled by a few. Today, we live in a closed world a world of extraordinary and
growing concentrations in power and wealth. A world where innovation is held back and
distorted by the dead hand of monopoly; where essential medicines are affordable only to
the rich, where freedom is threatened by manipulation, exclusion and exploitation; and
each click you make, every step you take, they will be watching you. By contrast, in an open
world all of us would be enriched by the freedom to use, enjoy and build on everything from
statistics and research to newspaper stories and books, from software and films to music
and medical formulae. In an open world, we would pay innovators and creators more and
more fairly, using market-driven remuneration rights in place of intellectual property
monopoly rights. As they have improved, digital technologies have taken on ever more of
the tasks that humans used to do, from manufacturing cars to scheduling appointments.
And in the next few' decades, artificial intelligence may well be not only driving our cars for
us but drafting legal contracts and performing surgery'. On the face of it, we have much to
gain if machines can spare us tedious or routine tasks and perform them with greater
accuracy. The danger, though, is that robots run on information-software, data algorithms
and at present lire ownership of this sort of information is unequal. And because it is
protected by our closed system of intellectual property rights.
Sub questions
21.How will an open world function ?
1. With limited choices
2. Information is available to everyone
3. Information is exclusive
4. Information is controlled

22.Which of these characteristics of a closed world ?
(a) Concentration in power and wealth increases.
(b) Innovation is controlled.
(c) Only the rich have access to medicines.
(d) Freedom is manipulated.
(e) Information is shared by all.
(f) Creativity is recognised.
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
2. (b), (c), (d) and (e)
3. (c), (d), (e) and (f)
4. (d), (e), (f) and (a)
23.What is the status of intellectual property rights in an open world ?

1. They are monopoly rights
2. Medical formulae are restricted
3. Replaced by remuneration rights
4. Protected proprietorial rights
24.What is the impact of digital technologies on the present day world ?
1. Creativity is side lined.
2. Mechanical accuracy is distorted.
3. Tedious tasks see an upward trend.
4. Human tasks are performed by machines.
25.The crux of the passage contains the following statements :

(a) Digital technology is dangerous.
(b) Those who own information will own the future.
(c) Artificial intelligence will do the human tasks.

(d) Monopoly of digital technology has led to unequal ownership of information.
(e) Intellectual property rights should be protected in an open world.
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (b), (c) and (d)
3. (c), (d) and (e)
4. (d), (e) and (a)

It is easy to see that there is nothing particularly unusual, or especially contrary to reason,
for a person to choose to pursue a goal that is not exclusively confined to his or her own
self-interest. As Adam Smith noted, we do have many different motivations, taking us well
beyond the single-minded pursuit of our interest. There is nothing contrary to reason in our
willingness to do things that are not entirely self-serving. Some of these motivations, like
'humanity, justice, generosity and public spirit', may even be very productive for society, as
Smith noted. There tends to be, however, more resistance to accepting the possibility that
people may have good reasons even to go beyond the pursuit of their own goals. The
argument runs : if you are consciously not pursuing what you think are your goals, then
clearly those cannot be your goals. Indeed, many authors have taken the view that the claim
that one can have reason not to be confined to the pursuit of one's goals is 'nonsensical'
since even strongly heterogeneous or altruistic agents cannot pursue other people's goals
without making their own. The point here is that in denying that rationality demands that
you must act single-mindedlv according to your own goals. You do not necessarily dedicate
yourself to the promotion of others. We can reason our way towards following decent rules
of behaviour that we see being fair to others as well. This can restrain the unique
dominance of singleminded pursuit of our own goals. There is nothing particularly
mysterious about our respect for sensible rules of conduct. This can qualify the pursuit of
what we rightly - and reasonably-see as goals that we would in general like to advance.
What we can say about your choice ? There is no difficulty in understanding that you are not
averse to helping your neighbour- or anyone else- pursue his or her well-being. But it so
happens that you do not diink that your neighbour's well-being is, in fact, best advanced by
his wasting time on playing a silly game. Your action is not corollary of any general pursuit of
well-being.
Sub questions
26.The observation of Adam Smith in going beyond self-serving interest is :
1. Having one's own goals
2. Motivations like justice and public spirit
3. Issues contrary to reasons.
4. Willingness to do different things

27.In the view of many authors, not pursuing one's own goal is:
1. Nonsensical
2. Natural
3. Altruistic
4. Rational
28.According to the passage, decent rules of behaviour are needed:

1. Because of self-imposed restraints
2. To be rational
3. For being fair to others
4. Due to dominance of our own goals
29.What can stand in the way of single-minded pursuit of one's goals ?

1. Giving priority to our own goals
2. Compulsion to consider the goals of others
3. Respect for sensible rules of conduct
4. Pursuit of paradoxical parameters
30.The moral derived from the passage is:

1. Pro-active move to support others
2. Not to think of our neighbour
3. Force people to take on the other people's goals as their own
4. Assist your neighbours to engage in any activity of their choice

2018 December || Defence and Strategic Studies| Dogri | Economics |Electronic Science|
Smart phones have grown in popularity over the last few' years, and applications, or
content, rest at the heart of this growth. Content has become more important than
hardware and the quality of content is determined by creativity. Creativity emerges as
seemingly disparate areas, such as education, industry, and culture. As a result, convergence
of virtually all areas is receiving the spotlight today.
Convergence must also take place in the area of policy-making. Breaking down the walls
between education and science and technology (S &: T) universities and businesses and
research and education, and convergence of these areas will bring about synergy and
perhaps yield unexpected creative results. When education and S & T merge, one plus one
can result in something greater than two. Convergence can take many forms : providing an
education that develops divergent thinking and encourages creativity in students at an early
age; developing human talents required by business by breaking down the barriers between
universities and businesses, and sharing the assets of government funded research
institutes with university students. These merges form the platforms for human creativity. A
nation can only become a world leader in S & T when its scientists are cultivated and
allowed to research to their heart's content.
Sub questions
31.According to the passage use of the smart phones has grown because of developments in
:
1. Technologies
2. Researches
3. Need for applications
4. Interest of People
32.In the view of the author of this passage, what determines the quality of content ?
1. Prevailing traditions
2. Areas of application
3. Creativity and convergence factors
4. Areas of concern
33.Unique results will flow owing to :

1. Policy-making

2. Creative results of synergy
3. An interactive process centered on various elements
4. Synergy
34.On the basis of this passage, it can be stated that convergence is :

1. A linear process developing in a sequential fashion
2. A simple additive process to enhance power
3. An interactive process centred on various elements
4. A multifaceted interactive process
35.Quality of research in a nation gets enhanced as a result of :

1. Dedicated spirit of the researchers
2. Hardwork of the researchers
3. Expert power of the researchers
4. Variety in researches
2018 December || Education | Kannada |Law | Population Studies | Public

Administration | Sindhi | Telugu
It has to be noted that, although certain overall results had been obtained in the matter of
economic growth in the developing countries regarded as a group, little progress had been
made towards the establishment of the new international economic order within the
framework of negotiations among nations for the purpose of applying the principles
adopted in 1974 by the United Nations General Assembly. The situation appeared to be
marked by a slowing down at world level in the effort to find a solution to most of the major
problems, due to certain inability to control the evolution of societies and economies, and a
fairly widespread feeling of uncertainty as to the future. The changes which have occurred
between 1978 and 1980 have only magnified the difficulties, so that today there is much
talk of a deterioration in the international situation. This is immediately apparent in regard
to inequalities between human beings, whether considered as individuals or groups or
nations. Overall economic disparities have not been attenuated. In many countries, per
capita gross national product remains less than $ 300, while in others it is situated at levels

ten, twenty or even thirty times higher than this amount. In some rich countries, the
average income is a hundred times higher than in the poorest countries. Particularly drastic
is the state of penury, destitution and, all too often, homelessness of those populations that
may be regarded as history's most recent rejects: the disinherited masses of the poorest
countries. In these countries, whose economic situation is particularly critical, the problems
of hunger, disease and ignorance experienced by a large part of the population seem to all
but paralyse efforts made to cope with them.
Sub questions
36.What was the purpose of principles adopted by the United Nations General Assembly ?
1. Considering developing countries as a group
2. Obtaining results in the economic growth of developing countries
3. Establishing a new international economic order
4. Permitting negotiations among nations
37.What is the consequence due to the little progress made by nations during negotiations ?
1. Evolution of societies
2. Control of Economies
3.. UN intervention
4. Uncertain future
38.What is apparent due to the changes occurred between 1978 and 1980 ?
1. Plan adjustment
2.Support of rich countries
3. Reduction in poverty
4. Inequality between human beings
39.How economic disparities are reflected ?

1.$300 per capita GNP as benchmark
2.Collectivising individuals into groups or nations
3.Higher average income for poor countries
4. Average income of some countries is a hundred times
higher than in the poor countries

40.Whom do you call as history's recent rejects ?
1. Homeless population
2. Ignorant population
3. Large part of population
4. Rich countries

Singapore has long advocated for India to take up its role as an integral part of the region. It
is gratifying to see how Asean - India relations have grown during the past 25 years. In 1991,
when the Cold War ended and India began its economic liberalisation, Singapore saw an
opportunity to deepen ties and build on its historical and cultural links with the Asian region.
Singapore pushed for India to become a full Asean dialogue partner in 1995 and join the EAS
in 1995 and since then, Asean - India ties have strengthened. All in all, around 30 platforms
for co-operation exist, including seven ministerial dialogues and the Annual Leader Summit.
However, there is scope for more and it is a must. For instance, there are tremendous
opportunities in enhancing physical and digital connectivity between India and Asean. Asean
is committed to strengthening land, air and sea linkages with India. These linkages will
enhance people-to-people flow's, as well as boost business, investment and tourism. The
India-Myanmar-Thailand trilateral highway will connect India's Northeast to mainland
Southeast Asia. While one can fly directly between India and several Asean countries, there
is still much room to expand air links to support growing business and tourism. Beyond
physical linkages, digital connectivity is the new frontier in the Fourth Industrial Revolution.
India has made great progress in innovation, Start-ups and digital inclusion. There are
opportunities to apply initiatives such as Aadhaar in our region. E-commerce and FinTech
are two other areas of potential collaboration. As an economic hub, Singapore can serve as
a springboard to launch these ideas to Southeast Asia and beyond. India's role in Asean
should be anchored by growing economic ties with Singapore. The economic integration
involving 16 countries with one-third of global GDP and trade will create an integrated Asian
market.
Sub questions
41.What prompted Singapore to opt for stronger Lies with India ?
1. End of cold war
2 Economic liberalisation in India
3. Historical past
4. Geo-political equations

42.The commitment of Asean with India is :
1. More and more dialogues
2. Offer political platforms
3. Improving transport links
4. Hold leadership summits
43.What is needed to encourage tourism between India and Asean?

1. Air links
2. Innovation
3. Start-ups
4. Waterways
44.The areas of collaboration between India and Asean are:

(a) FinTech
(b) Aadhaar
(c) E-commerce
(d) Digital backwardness
(e) Trilateral highways
(f) Fourth Industrial Revolution
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
2. (b), (c), (d) and (e)
3. (c), (d), (e) and (f)
4. (a), (c), (e) and (f)
45.Who can be India's launchpad for an integrated Asian market as per the passage?
1. Thailand
2. Myanmar
3. Southeast Asia
4. Singapore

We live iii a world characterised by greater universal aspirations to full participation in the
life of societies. What is more, in every society there is a constantly growing need to take
full advantage of its reserves of intelligence, talent and energy. Here the need to improve
the quality of education is emphasised. Clearly, any assessment of quality involves a value
judgement that is coloured by what one expects of education. A good-quality education
should meet three essential criteria : it should be democratic, it should be socially effective
and it should be motivated by a humanism that does not allow it to be subordinated
exclusively to the criterion of productivity. This calls for a critical appraisal of die highly
debatable tendency to give priority to allegedly "practical" knowledge as opposed to mind-
broadening subjects, topics for thought, artistic expression or the philosophical approach.
The link between education and work formed another theme which was frequently brought
up. There is a grave concern regarding the wide discrepancies between education and
employment. UNESCO, for a long time now, has made a point of studying the interactions
between education, work and employment as part til its action in the field of planning. It has
to be said that it is very difficult to plan education strictly in accordance with employment
forecasts, in view of the growing diversity of modern economies and the extremely rapid
changes to which they are subject. It has been shown that greater flexibility in the structures
and functioning of education provides the best guarantee against the danger that it will be
ill-adapted to rapid change.
Sub questions
46.Why is there a need in every society to take advantage of intelligence, talent and energy
?
1. To preserve the reserves of these factors cited
2 To participate in the life of societies
3. To characterise the world with universal aspirations
4. To assess the educational needs
47.What is coloured by the expectation of education ?

1. Value judgement
2. Assessment of expected outcome
3. Identification of motivation
4. A critical appraisal of debatable tendencies
48.The characteristic of humanism should be :

1. Priority to practical knowledge
2. Opposition to philosophical approach

3. Non-sub-ordination to productivity notion
4. Planning education for employment
49.What is the action of UNESCO in the field of planning ?

1. Focussing on artistic expression
2. Expressing grave concern on discrepancies between education and life
3. Not to plan education for work
4. To study the linkage between education and work
50.The passage emphasises the factors of :

(a) Need for quality education
(b) Link between education and work
(c) Balance between mind-broadening subjects with practical knowledge
(d) Not planning education for meeting the needs of modern economies
(e) Flexibility in the structures of education
(f) Subjecting education to rapid changes
1. (a), (d), (e), (f)
2. (b) (d), (e), (f)
3. (a, (c), (d), (f)
4. (a), (b), (c), (e)

A business will usually go through a clear set of stages that will make up its organisational
life cycle. These stages include introduction, early growth, continuous growth, maturity and
decline. The first stage, the introduction stage, is the start-up phase where a business
decides what its core strengths and capabilities are and starts selling its product or service.

At this early stage, the founder or founders will be a part of every aspect of the daily process
of the business. The main goal at this stage is to take off to a good start and make a place in
the market.
The next stage, the early growth phase, aims at increased sales and more development. The
focus at this stage remains on the original product or service but the effort is to increase the
market share and venture into related products or services. The main goal is to move the
founder to a more managerial role so more time is spent on managing and building the
business. At this stage, documents and policies need to be developed so any member of the
organisation can see the business any time.
The third stage, the continuous growth stage, requires a systematic structure and more
formal relationships among its participants. At this stage, the resource requirements of the
business need careful handling. The focus is on the expansion of the business, keeping in
mind its core strength and capability. A formal organisational structure and a clear
delegation plan are important at this stage.
At the fourth stage of maturity, a business often slows down as the level of innovative
energy may have become weak and the formal structures may have become obstacles. A lot
of care is required to prevent decline.
Sub questions
51.When will a business create its place in the market?
(1) At maturity
(2) At introduction
(3) At early growth
(4) At late growth
52.The founder of a business does not move to a more managerial role at which stage?
(1) Early growth stage
(2) Maturity stage
(3) Decline stage
(4) Start up stage
53.Venturing into related products and services does not mean that a business will
(1) ignore the original product
(2) move the founder to a more managerial role
(3) delegate more responsibilities

(4) ignore the related products and services
54.The resource requirements of a business need careful handling; at which stage?

(1) Fourth
(2) First
(3) Third
(4) Second
55.The slowing down of a business can happen if,

(1) there is a decline in the market share
(2) the level of innovative energy weakens
(3) the managerial roles are not clear
(4) the level of investment declines
2019 June||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies| Bengali | Bodo| Environmental Sciences|
Hindi
Read the passage carefully and answer question
Intelligence is associated with academic achievement by most people. The various theories
of intelligence created by psychologists hold that there are two kinds of academic
intelligence-verbal and mathematical or logical. Intelligence is an inherited trait that impacts
individual behaviour' and performance according to most experts. But, many research
studies have revealed that the environment greatly impacts the development of
intelligence. Since, one property of intelligence is analytical and reasoning skills, people with
high intelligence quotient will understand the problem at hand better than people with a
low IQ.
Many organizations consider intelligence as an important criterion while recruiting. For

instance in many management schools, a lot of weightage is given to high IQ while admitting
students or recruiting faculty members. The qualities of intelligent people are high energy
drive, achievement and competitiveness. Very intelligent employees learn job - related skills
and other organisational practices quickly and organisations have to spend less time training
them. People with high intelligence have good decision making ability due to their good

analytical and reasoning skills, with a high achivement drive, they are mostly by very
productive. As the saying goes, ‘A wise enemy is better than a foolish ‘ friend ;
Even with such a high IQ very intelligent people may not always be very happy. The high IQ
makes them dysfunctional leading to anxiety and depression. Generally speaking, people
with at high intelligence quotient are often dissatisfied people.
Sub questions
56.When a student stands first in the class, the general credit is given to :
(1) Contacts
(2) Intelligence
(3) Hard work
(4) Attractive features
57.Those who understand a problem in a short span of time will be people ’with
(1) High IQ
(2) Low IQ
(3) Average IQ
(4) Good IQ
58.High energy drive, achievements and competitiveness are valued during

(1) Admission
(2) Recruitment
(3) Promotion
(4) Admission and recruitment
59.Dissatisfaction is often witnessed in people with

(1) Creative skills
(2) High expectations
(3) Good decision - making ability
(4) High education qualifications

60.Another word for ‘Weightage' is
(1) Credit
(2) Mass
(3) Weight
(4) Freedom

Read the following passage and answer questions
Perhaps what bothered the media in 1970s was the shift in liberty being suggested. For
centuries, journalists had operated on the basis of negative liberty, or freedom from
external restraints. Suddenly, however, the thrust was positive freedom, a freedom for
pursuit of some predetermined goals. This new social responsibility seems grounded on a
school of thought that sees negative liberty as insufficient and ineffective, somewhat like
telling people they are free to walk without first making sure they are not crippled. Who
better than government is able to piovide humanity With appropriate means'' Government,
even a democratic government, is seen by social responsibility adherents as the only force
strong enough to guarantee effective operation of freedom This doe snot mollify observers
who find social responsibility to be only slightly disguised version of authoritarianism. Media
philosopher John Merrill has been one of the most outspoken critics of the theory. To him,
the proposition that pluralism of ideas should be governmentally mandated is ludicrous.
Journalists, he says, must retain their freedom to make their own news and editorial
judgements. Even well intentioned attempts by outside groups seeking media improvement
are self serving, and inevitably lessen the autonomy of journalists, Merrill maintains. This
leads us to the issue of media autonomy.
Sub questions
61.What was the basis of the operation of journalists earlier?
(1) Freedom of limited choices
(2) Social responsibility
(3) Free from outside pressure
(4) Government control
62.Positive freedom means

(1) Grounded thought
(2) Pursuing certain set goals
(3) Freedom with conditions

(4) Providing identified means
63.Some scholars consider social responsibility aspect of media as

(1) Negative freedom
(2) Pluralism
(3) Democratisation of media
(4) Authoritarianism
64.According to, John Merrill, seeking improvement m media, is

(1) Appropriate
(2) Well-intentioned
(3) Inevitable
(4) Self-serving
65.The passage critically analytes

(1) Operation of journalists
(2) Mandate for government
(3) Social responsibility theory of media
(4) Regimented autonomy of journalists
2019 June|| Archaeology| Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies| Forensic Science|
Museology and Conservation| Music Rabindra Sangeet| Pali| Performing Art (Dance Drama
Theatre)| Persian| Prakrit |Russian| Santali| Spanish
Read the following passage and answer questions:
There is a common thread running through the unravelling of India's statistical system. A
modern economy with sound institutions is characterised by timely dissemination of

credible data. A long term policy needs an empirical basis and issues of veracity of data will
influence investment decisions. In a country with a large population of youth, data on
national development, especially in core sectors like agriculture, industry, health, education
and employment, will be critical. Here comes the role of National Statistical Commission, a
body created to establish standards. Questioning the data veracity' is a global phenomenon.
The official narrative is always questioned by the people on the other side of the fence.
Dissemination of economic data is essential to reach out to the public who lived their
reality. Lack of data will adversely impact the quality of national policies. India must start
strengthening institutions such as the central statistical commission. These institutions must
be granted autonomy and insulated from external interferences. Enhanced operational
autonomy will make their work credible. An indicator of operational autonomy is their
ability to stick to a dissemination calendar regardless of what the data indicates.
Sub questions
66.What is important for a modern economy?
(1) A common thread
(2) Dissemination of credible data
(3) Unravelling of statistical system
(4) Selective distribution of data
67.Investment decisions are impacted by

(1) Youth population
(2) National development
(3) Issues of data veracity
(4) Establishment of national institutions
68.What is the work of National Statistical Commission?

(1) Establishing standards
(2) Questioning data veracity
(3) Questioning official narrative
(4) Supporting the public perception
69.How can the quality of national policies be improved?

(1) By living reality
(2) By supporting external interferences

(3) By controlling autonomous institutions
(4) By enhanced operational freedom
70.What does the passage ultimately suggest to National Statistical Commission?

(1) Restricting policy decisions
(2) Critically examining data veracity
(3) Stick to a calendar of data dissemination
(4) Support development in core sectors
2019 June|| Assamese| Computer Science and Applications| Criminology| Human Rights
and Duties| Odia| Social Work| Urdu
Michelangelo is famous for having successfully interpreted the human body. His great
achievement is that of the painting of David whose hands reach out as a sign of human
capability and potential. It is assumed that the time he lived was ripe for exchange of
knowledge, development in science and matured enough to advance the horizon of
investigation in all fields. Renaissance humanism stressed on a serious rethink on the nature
of art that focussed on accurate details. In painting and sculpture, artists focussed on not so
casual but verifiable and minute details. Michelangelo’s paintings are no exception to it. In a
study published in the journal of the Royal Society of medicine, a group of surgeons are of
the opinion that the great master was “afflicted by an illness involving his joints”. They have
used his portraits as evidence to argue their view. During his life, he complained of what he
felt to be 'gout’. Later he complained of his sore and stiff hands which the doctors would
find to be natural for someone who was engaged in handmade art. The doctors found
corroboration of those claims in portraits of the artist that show a hanging left hand with
both degenerative and non-degenerative changes. They attribute the pain not just to
arthritis, but to the stress of hammering and chiselling and note that though the master was
seen hammering days before his death at an old age, he did not write or sign his own letters
before his death. In recent times there have been attempts to diagnose famous artists with
diseases that were not known during their time. This practice has raised many questions,
especially on the issue of ethics in research. It is also inferred from authentic analysis that
Michelangelo persisted in his work until his last days. This theory would emphasize that his
artistic subject defied his physical infirmities.
Sub questions
71.Michelangelo lived during a time that lets us know that
(1) Human aspirations are limitless and open to new vistas
of knowledge

(2) Cross cultural exchange in ideas is the only way for human progress
(3) It is progress of science and anatomy that contributes to civilizations exclusively
(4) Human beings possess language which is the only key to knowledge
72.Renaissance painting in Europe was sceptical of

(1) The obsessive medieval method of accuracy
(2) The classical simplicity and lack of control
(3) The case and decorative excess of earlier art
(4) Expressionist technique
73.The controversy that the passage above refers to is whether

(1) Michaelangelo worked under duress
(2) Michaelangelo could contain his physical infirmity by artistic excellence
(3) Michaelangelo submitted to disease
(4) Michaelangelo survived different diseases before pursuing art
74.What generalisations do people subscribe to?

(1) Establishing facts by DNA tests
(2) Inferring the essence of character from famous people’s handwriting
(3) Carbon dating of the hair of celebrities to draw conclusion on their physical structure
(4) To retroactively diagnose famous artists and public figures of conditions that were
not prevalent during their time
75.What actually may be concluded from the above passage?

(1) Physical infirmities do dissuade people with capabilities from excelling
(2) Excellence in any form triumphs over extraneous factors including physical ailments
(3) Michaelangelo’s gout and other ailments lessened his efficiency
(4) The diseases Michaelangelo faced were due to constant hammering

An important difference between human beings and animals is the property of lanugage.
Animals have a rudimentary information process but this process does not have the
sophistication and complexity of human language. If two dogs communicate, they pass on
information but they can’t discuss details the way humans can. While humans are blessed to
possess the language faculty, most of the time they don’t utilize it to its greatest potential.
Perhaps this is because human beings tend to react rather than respond. And a lot of the
message of languages is lost in this reaction.
In the daily use of language, people forget the complex process involved in order to put
even one word in place. The wonder of this process lies in the fact that it is involuntary in
nature, the whole set of chain processes right from the command in the brain to the
forming of words from the message required to the movement of the vocal chords and
corresponding movements in the lungs and mouth takes place within seconds. Perhaps the
whole suggestion of ‘think before you speak may lead to a silent world!
In the world of daily interaction, language becomes a marker and a means of projecting
identity. The people around us identify us with a certain style of using language and
unknowingly, each language user follows this style by habit. It is not a bad idea to record
one’s spoken communication from time to time, as this will assist in removing any unwanted
elements that the speech may be expressing. Similarly, it is a good idea to step back once in
a while and read one’s written communication objectively.
Sub questions
76.Animals do not possess language because
(1) the power of speech is missing
(2) the life breath is missing
(3) the level of complexity is missing
(4) the information-sharing is missing
77.The process of language is a wonder because it is

(1) a reaction
(2) a response
(3) smooth
(4) involuntary
78.When human beings react rather than respond

(1) They lose the message
(2) They lose control

(3) They become emotional
(4) They can't speak
79.The world will become a silent place if people will think

(1) too much
(2) before listening
(3) before responding
(4) before speaking
80.Which of the following forms is assumed by the language style of a person?

(1) a reaction
(2) a habit
(3) a response
(4) a thought
2019 June ||Defence and Strategic Studies| Dogri| Economics| Electronic Science|
Marathi| Percussion Instruments| Politics (including International Relations and Studies) |
Rajasthani| Sanskrit| Social Medi-cine and Community Health| Tribal and Regional
Unquestionably a literary life is for the most part an unhappy life, because if you have
genius, you must suffer the penalty of genius; and if you have only talent, there are so many
cares and worries incidental to the circumstances of men of letters, as to make life
exceedingly miserable. Besides the pangs of composition, and the continuous
disappointment which a true artist feels at his inability to reveal himself, there is the ever-
recurring difficulty of gaining the public ear. Young writers are buoyed up by the hope and
the belief that they have only to throw that poem at the world’s feet to get back in return
the laurel-crown; that they have only to push as a new light in literature. You can never
convince a young author that the editors of magazines and the publishers of books are a
practical body of men, who are by no means frantically anxious about placing the best
literature before the pubic. Nay, that for the most part they are mere brokers, who conduct
their business on the hardest lines of a profit and loss account. But supposing your book
fairly launches, its perils are only beginning. You have to run the gauntlet of the critics.

When you are a little older, you will find that criticism is not much more serious than the
bye-play of clowns in a circus, when they beat around the ring, the victim with bladders
stung at the end of long poles. A time comes in the life of every author when he regards
critics as comical rather than formidable, and goes his way unheeding. But there are
sensitive souls that yield under the chastisement and, perhaps after suffering much silent
torture, abandon the profession of the pen forever.
Sub questions
81.Literary life is unhappy because
(1) One has to carry the load of being a genius while not being one
(2) The genius can still remain a genius and be amidst misery in the face of adversity
(3) Talent brings pseudo happiness
(4) There is a constant desire to outshine others
82.Young authors aspire to

(1) Equate themselves to the established authors
(2) Remain content in their work only
(3) Achieve glory by their merit yet always in a hurry
(4) Become critics subsequently
83.The perception towards the publishers and critics in the above passage is
(1) That of a scathing attack
(2) That of sympathy
(3) That of generosity
(4) That of cynicism
84.Experience and age of an author

(1) Makes the author stoic to criticism
(2) Makes the author angry and lovely
(3) Turns the author to a buffoon
(4) Drives the author to cyncism

85.The effective way of tackling criticism is
(1) To defend oneself through print media
(2) To be vocal about one's craft
(3) To become a critic of one's own art and start analysing its merit
(4) To be gracefully glued to the artistic exercise

Sindhi| Telugu
All great thinkers live and move on a high plane of thought. It is only there they can breathe
freely. It is only in contact with spirits like themselves they can live harmoniously and attain
that serenity which comes from ideal companionship. The studies of all great thinkers must
range along the highest altitudes of human thought. I have always thought that the
strongest argument in favour of the Baconian theory was, that no man, however indubitable
his genius, could have written the plays and sonnets that have come down to us under
Shakespeare’s own name who had not the liberal education of Bacon. The magnificent
ideals that have ever haunted the human mind and given us our highest proofs of a future
immortality by reason of the impossibility of their fulfilment here, are splintered into atoms
by contact with life’s realities. Hence comes our sublime discontent. A habitual mediation
on the vast problems that underline human life and are knit into human destinies - thoughts
of immortality, of the littleness of mere man, of the greatness of man’s soul, of the
splendours of the universe that are invisible to the ordinary traffickers in the street, as the
vastness of St. Peter’s is to the spider that weaves her web in a corner of the dome-these
things do not fit men to understand the average human being, or tolerate with patience the
sordid wretchedness of the unregenerated masses. It is easy to understand, therefore, why
such thinkers fly to the solitude of their own thoughts, or the silent companionship of the
immortals and if they care to present their views in prose or verse to the world, that these
views take a sombre and melancholy setting from “the pale caste of thought” in which they
were engendered.
Sub questions
86.Great thinkers are content to live
(1) Amidst crises of civilizations
(2) In lofty thoughts with an exceptional calm
(3) At high altitudes in order to be away from society
(4) With complexities of life and find solutions to them

87.According to the passage, our sublime discontent is due to
(1) Realization of our lack of contact with Go
(2) Acute sense of loneliness in a hostile world
(3) Possibility of immortality through some channels to god and the inability to get hold
of it
(4) The contrast between the ideals in great literature and their opposite in the real life
88.Baconian liberal education is

(1) A lofty and ideal fantasy
(2) Instrumental in making human beings rue over their destiny
(3) An engagement with the intricacies of the day to day life
(4) Equivalent to ancient ideas of sublimity
89.Immortality is the crucial idea constantly being explored by

(1) Ordinary traffickers
(2) Great thinkers
(3) Gods who appear to the thinkers
(4) Scientists
90.Why do great thinkers love solitude?

(1) To be in pursuit of the ideal in the company of immortals
(2) To spend time in peace
(3) Because they are misanthropists
(4) Because the world is unhealthy for them

Geography seeks to understand the physical and human organization of the surface of the
Earth. In the field of geography, inter-related themes are frequently seen. These are scale,
pattern and process. Scale is defined as the level of structure on organisation at which a
phenomenon is studied. Pattern is defined as the variation observed in a phenomenon
studied at a particular scale. The third theme, process, further connects the first two.
Process is defined as the description of how the factors that affect a phenomenon act to
product a pattern at a particular scale. For instance, when a passenger on an aircraft looks
out of the window, the view changes according to the scale. At the global scale when the
aircraft maintains its height, he can see the chunks of clouds in all their pattern, the sun or
the moon, as per the time. When the aircraft loses a little height, passengers can see the
land and water masses in their different colours and the shape of land masses. At the
continental scale, the passengers can see the shapes of the land features and how they are
distributed. The pattern emerges as the variation of land and water and the proportion of
each. Looking carefully, passengers can note how each land mass aligns with the others and
how each mountain bears the signs of the process through which it emerged.
The processes in a geography change in a regular and repetitive manner. One instance of
this is the annual solar cycle of the sun and the earth. Most systems in nature display time
cycles that are organised in a rhythm of their own. As these time cycles and natural
processes are always active, the environment of the earth is always in a state of dynamism.
This environmental change is not only the result of natural process but also the result of
human activity. Physical geography works towards understanding the interaction between
man and nature and also the results of this interaction in order to manage global climate
change better.
Sub questions
91.In geography, pattern studies the variation observed in a phenomenon at
(1) a particular scale
(2) any scale
(3) every scale
(4) most scales
92.The view seen by a passenger looking out of the window of an aircraft will be affected by
the
(1) Process
(2) Pattern
(3) Scale
(4) Rhythm

93.The time cycles of the system of nature follow their own
(1) Path
(2) Rhythm
(3) Process
(4) Cycle
94.Physical geography studies the results of the interaction between man and nature in
order to
(1) understand global climate change
(2) study the impact of man’s activities on nature
(3) address the issue of global climate change
(4) reduce man-animal conflict
95.The alignment of landmass with other elements can be seen by a passenger on a flight on
a
(1) Global scale
(2) Continental scale
(3) Local scale
(4) Time scale

Question Label: Comprehension
Indian organisations have traditionally not considered their human resource as a means of
distinct competitive advantage. Rather, people management has been a big challenge for
the Indian business head. This situation is undergoing a rapid change today; because as
Indian organisations are recognising the need for professional human resource
management, simultaneously there is a growing demand for trained human resource
professionals. At most universities, business schools have begun to offer specialised,
customised courses to train the human resource professional. Increasingly, organisations
are encouraging line managers to handle human resource responsibilities.

Ancient India was known for its occupation based hierarchy. The ancient Indian text, the
Arthashastra refers to the job description of a supervisor and performance linked pay for
artisans.
It was only after the year 1850 that formal industrial organisations emerged in India. But it
was only after India became an independent country in 1947 that significant improvement
was witnessed in the personnel management policy of business organisations.
After independence, when a mixed economy was encouraged as the Indian growth model,
industrial organisations were broadly classified into public sector and private sector. Since
the public sector units were the recipients of large investments and became the biggest
employers, their approach towards personnel management received a lot of attention. The
goal of a socialistic society enshrined within the constitution of India implied that the
protection of human resource became a significant objective. Many constitutional
provisions were created in order to protect workers. Organisations had to appoint welfare
officers to take care of all personnel.
The next phase of development saw the rise of the trade unions, and manager unions in the
Indian business organization. This further boosted the growth of personnel offices in most
organisations.
Sub questions
96.More and more organisations are encouraging their line managers to handle
(1) the whole organisation
(2) the responsibilities of human resource
(3) the offices of juniors
(4) the public relations
97.The competitive advantages of human resource has NOT been

(1) understood in the past
(2) realised in the present
(3) ignored in the past
(4) planned for the future
98.The hierarchy system in ancient India was based on

(1) the job you did
(2) the family you belonged to
(3) the place you lived in
(4) the year of your birth

99.Significant improvement was seen in the personnel management policy of business
organisations after
(1) 1850
(2) 1857
(3) 1940
(4) 1947
100.Personnel offices in many organisations witnessed an increase because of

(1) independence of India
(2) industrial development
(3) the rise of unions
(4) worker-friendly policies
2019 December || Adult Education| Chinese| Comparative Literature| Comparative Study

of Religions| German| Home Science| Japanese| Labour Welfare| Maithili|
Management| Manipuri| Philosophy| Physical Education| Tourism Administration and
Management|
Read the following passage and answer questions which follow.
Even though globalisation is one of the most discussed topics in the contemporary world, it
is not altogether a well defined concept. A multitude of global interactions are put under
the broad heading of globalisation, varying from the expansion of cultural and scientific
influences across borders to the enlargement of economic and business relations
throughout the world. A wholesale rejection of globalisation would not only go against
global business, it would also cut out movements of ideas, understanding, and knowledge
that can help all the people of the world, including the most disadvantaged members of the
world population. A comprehensive rejection of globalisation can thus be powerfully
counterproductive. There is a strong need to separate out the different questions that
appear merged together in the rhetoric of the anti-globalisation protests. The globalisation
of knowledge deserves a particularly high profile recognition, despite all the good things
that can be rightly said about the importance of "Local knowledge".

Globalisation is often seen, both in journalistic discussions and in remarkably many
academic "writings, as a process of westernization. Indeed, some who take an upbeat dew
of the phenomenon even sees it as a contribution of Western civilization to the world.
Sub questions
101.According to the passage, which one of the following is not a well defined concept?
(1) Multiculturalism
(2) Identity
(3) Globalisation
(4) Local Knowledge
102.According to the passage, which one of the following is counterproductive?

(1) Comprehensive support to globalisation
(2) Wholesale rejection of globalisation
(3) Comprehensive rejection of anti — globalisation protests
(4) Recognition of local knowledge systems
103.According to the passage, globalisation is perceived often by media and academia as

(1) Supporting local knowledge systems
(2) Detrimental to local knowledge systems
(3) A process of Westernisation
(4) A process of facilitating global business
104.The attempt of the author in the passage is :

(1) Unconditioned advocacy of globalisation
(2) Unconditioned rejection of globalisation
(3) Unconditioned rejection of local knowledge systems
(4) Unbiased evaluation of globalisation

105.As per the passage, a wholesale rejection of globalisation would result in affecting
(a) Global businesses
(b) Movement of Ideas
(c) Local knowledge systems
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (b) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Sciences| Hindi
I do not wish to suggest that the humanistic elements in education are less important than
the utilitarian elements. To know something of great literature, something of world history
something of music and painting and architecture, is essential if the life of imagination is to
be fully developed. And it is only through imagination that men become aware of what the
world might be: without it. ’progress' would become mechanical and trivial. But science,
also can stimulate the imagination.
Psychology was until fairly lately, a merely academic study, with very little application to
practical affairs. This is all changed now. We have, for instance, industrial psychology,
clinical psychology, educational psychology: all of which are of the great practical
importance. We may hope and expect that the influence of psychology upon our institutions
tv ill rapidly increase in the near future. In education, at any rate, its effect has already been
great and beneficent.
106.As per the passage, people become aware of “What the world might be?” only through
(1) Literatue
(2) History
(3) Imagination
(4) Music

107.As per the passage, without imagination the progress' would become
(1) Humanistic
(2) Mechanical
(3) Creative
(4) Eealistic
61547540288. 4
108.According to the passage psychology until recently was of very little

(1) Academic orientation.
(2) Application in academics
(3) Application to practical affairs
(4) Application to imagination
109.In the passage, the author is optimistic about

(1) The utilitarian elements in education
(2) Decrease in the role of imagination m education
(3) The role of psychology in laboratories
(4) Increase in the influence of psychology upon institutions.
110.As per the passage, if the life of imagination is to be fully developed, some exposure to
the following is required :
(a) Literature
(b) World history
(c) Music
(d) Politics.
Choose the correct options from these given below :
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (a) and (c)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (d)
(4) Only (a), (b) and (c)

2019 December || Arabic| Geography| Gujarati| Nepali| Psychology| Punjabi
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 46-50.
Intra-industry trade arises in order to take advantage of important economies of scale in
production. That is. international competition forces each firm or plant in industrial
countries to produce only one. or at most a few. varieties and styles of the same product
rather than many different varieties and styles. This is crucial in keeping unit costs low. With
few varieties and styles, more specialised and faster machinery can be developed for a
continuous operation and a longer production run. The nation then imports other varieties
and styles from other nations. Intra-industry trade benefits consumers because of the wider
range of choices, i.e.. the greater variety of differentiated products, available at the lower
prices made possible by economies of scale in production. Because of this, large welfare
gains arise from the ability of consumers to greatly increase the variety of goods that they
can purchase through trade. The importance of intra-industry trade became apparent when
tariffs and other obstructions to the flow of trade among members of the European Union,
or common market were removed in 1958. It was found that volume of trade surged but
most of the increase involved the exchange of differentiated products within each broad
industrial classification.
Sub questions
111.The impact of international competition on intra-industry trade can be seen in
(1) the availability of wide varieties of products
(2) the limited varieties of the same product
(3) adverse effect on industrial production
(4) restrictive advantages of production
112.Mass production of a few varieties of products will result in

(1) low cost of unit
(2) advantage to industrial economies of scale
(3) benefits to the customers of important economies
(4) increased cost of production
113.Development and use of specialised machinery will lead to

(1) more varieties of products
(2) decreased consumer welfare
(3) import of varieties of product
(4) hindered intra-industry trade

114.Lower product price means
(1) continued production run
(2) absence of choice
(3) increase in trade information exchange
(4) increased consumer purchasing power
115.What was the consequence of removal of barriers to the flow of trade in European
Union?
(1) Sluggish intra-industry trade
(2) Flow of uniform products
(3) Spurt in trade volume among member states
(4) Emphasis on differentiated products
2019 December || Archaeology| Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies| Folk
Literature| Forensic Science| French| History| Kashmiri| Konkani| Linguistics| Mass
Art (Dance Drama Theatre)| Persian| Prakrit| Russian| Santali| Spanish
Read the passage carefully and answer questions that follow :
Political 'representation nonetheless is the vehicle that enabled the re-introduction of
"democracy" into the modern, practical political vernacular. The resulting liberal democracy
does not directly descend from the ancient Athenian democracy. Between the eras virtually
nothing existed that approached "democracy'” as an actual or named political form and
when it again became a focus of politics and theory, it was wedded to representation - so
that what we call a democracy is, in fact, a distinctive kind of democracy, a representative
democracy .
While elections and popular pressure surely' have political impact, the actions of
representatives are the primary, official mechanism for translating democratic citizenship
into political power. We rely on the representative process to promote political goodness in
democratic society. But when one imagines the idea of 'representation these day's, its
association with ethics or goodness does not spring to mind. It is an impersonal process,
after all — a mechanical method by" which one entity stands for or re-presents another,
politically’ required by the need to channel the judgements of millions of citizens into the
legally' authoritative hands of a small number of public representatives, or even the
sentiments of thousands into the leadership of single person.
Sub questions

116.Which of the folio wing implies the characteristic of modern political vernacular?
(1) Populist politics
(2) Absence of structure
(3) Ethical discourse
(4) Representiveness
117.The political representation enabled the emergence of

(1) Athenian democracy
(2) Liberal democracy
(3) Actual democracy
(4) Theoretical democracy
118.According to the passage actions of political representatives manifest

(1) Political will
(2) Popular pressure
(3) Political power
(4) Self-effacing behaviour
119.According to the author, the idea of democracy is viewed as

(1) Ethical politics
(2) Goodness of representation
(3) A representative process
(4) Channelising views of a few people
120.What is the perception of the author with regard to representational democracy?

(1) Legal as well as ethical
(2) Universal participation
(3) Arbitrarily authoritative
(4) Centralisation of power in a few individuals

2019 December || Assamese| Computer Science and Applications| Criminology| Human
Read the passage carefully and answer questions that- follow :
There is no doubt that the market as a reality and political economy as a theory played an
important role in the liberal critique. But liberalism is neither the consequence nor the
development of these: rather, the market played, in the liberal critique, the role of a “test” a
locus of privileged experience where one can identify the effects of excessive
governmentality and even weigh their significance: the analysis of the mechanisms of
"dearth" or more generally, of the grain trade in the middle of the eighteenth century, was
meant to show the point at which governing was always governing too much. Therefore, an
anlaysis to make visible, in the form of evidence, the formation of the value and circulation
of wealth—or. on the contrary, an analysis pre-supposing the intrinsic invisibility of the
connection between individual profit-seeking and the growth of collective wealth-
economics, in any case, shows a basic incompatibility between the optimal development of
the economic process and maximisation of government procedures. It is by this, more than
the play of ideas, the French or English economists broke away from mercantilism and
commercialism: they freed reflection on economic practice from the hegemony of the
"reason of state" and from the saturation of governmental intervention. By using it as a
measure of "governing too much", they placed it at the limit of governmental action,
Liberalism does not derive from juridical thought any more than it does from an economic
analysis. It is not the idea of a political society, but the result of search for a liberal
technology of government.
Sub questions
121.Which of the following played a role in the liberal critique?
(1) Liberalism as a consequence of market forces
(2) Liberalism as an offshoot of political economy
(3) Reality of market
(4) Political economy as a practice
122.The liberal critique examined the implications of

(1) market expansion
(2) too much governance
(3) growth of political economy
(4) politics of marketisation
123.What kind of evidence was needed to make the liberal critique visible?
(1) Circulation of wealth

(2) Pre-supposing individual profit
(3) Dearth in supply of grain
(4) Incompatibility of growth
124.What is incompatible with optimal economic development?

(1) Play of ideas
(2) Absence of commercialism
(3) Political society
(4) Excessive government procedures
125.The passage is indicative of the authors preference to

(1) economic hegemony of individuals
(2) limit government control of economics
(3) seek liberalism from juridical thought
(4) promote individual profits

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow
The motives for direct investments abroad are generally the same as earning higher returns,
possibly resulting from higher growth rates abroad, more favorable tax treatment or greater
availability of infrastructure and diversifying risks. Indeed, it has been found that firms with
a strong international orientation, either through exports or through foreign production
and/or sales facilities, are more profitable, and have a much smaller variability in profits
than purely domestic firms. Although these reasons are sufficient to explain Internationa!
investments they leave one basic question unanswered with regard to direct foreign
investments. That is, they cannot explain why the residents of a nation do not borrow from
other nations and themselves make real investments in their own nation rather than accept
direct investments from abroad. After all, the residents of a nation can be expected to be
more familiar with local conditions, and thus to be at a competitive advantage with respect

to foreign investors. There are several explanations for this. The most important is that
many large corporations, usually in monopolistic and oligopolistic markets, often have some
unique production knowledge or managerial skill that coufd easily and profitably be utilized
abroad and over which the corporation wants to retain direct control. In such a situation,
the firm will make direct investments abroad. This involves horizontal integration or the
production abroad of a differentiated product that is also produced at home. This helps
serve the foreign market better by adapting to local conditions than through exports,
Sub questions
126.The possible reasons for direct foreign investment can be
a) Higher returns
b) Better tax regimes
c) Availability of infrastructure
d) Risk mitigation
e) Financial support from local investors
1. a), d) and e) only
2. b), c) and d) only
3. a), b) and c) only
4. d), e) and f) only
127.Purely domestic firms are affected by

1. Low interest rates
2. Small variability of profits
3. Larger variability of profits
4. Export controls
128.In the case of direct foreign investments, what factor remains unaddressed?
1. Acceptance of foreign investment
2. Non-acceptance of foreign investment
3. Absence of competitive edge
4. Role of monopolistic corporations

129.What advantage do large corporations have in oligopolistic markets?
1. Direct control over profitability
2. Large production of undifferentiated products
3. Localization of managerial skills
4. Eliminating barriers to higher profits
130.The passage focuses on the aspects mainly related to

1. Indirect control over investments
2. international orientation of investment
3. Sales facilities
4. Risks involved in integration of production
2019 December || Defence and Strategic Studies| Dogri| Economics| Electronic Science|
Read the passage carefully and answer questions from 46-50,

The pre-first world war era is really in a way well suited for an in-depth evaluation of
popular movements, as they were spontaneous and no more than, marginally affected
intelligentsia ideologies, objectives or techniques. The limitations of such spontaneity are
fairly clear, Popular movements were directed usually against the immediate Indian
oppressor rather than the distant white superior. and so were often not consciously or
subjectively anti-imperialist. They tended to be fairly widely scattered in both space and
time, and were extremely volatile with different social forms of articulation interpenetrating
and passing over each other with bewildering ease. All this makes it rather difficult to accept
without some qualification the concept of 'Peasant Nationalism' as a coherent alternative to
elite patriotic ideologies and movements, popular initiative and autonomy were undoubted,
even remarkable at times, but. unlike middle class nationalism which does have certain
continuity, at the level of ideology at least, from the formulation of the drain of wealth
theory in the 1870s onwards, the movement that have been considered were clearly
fragmented. Yet despite such limitations and crudities, popular unrest did anticipate much
of middle class nationalism in terms of issues and forms of struggle, while its specific gains

were at times not inconsiderable. Forest rights, the burdens of rent, usury and land revenue,
planter exploitation and labour grievances were all themes taken over by middle class
nationalism later.
Sub questions
131.What does the analysis of pre-first world war popular movements reveal?
(1) Intelligentsia's influence on popular movement was less

(2) The movements were ideological
(3) The movements had clear objectives
(4) Limited spontaneity
132.The popular movements were

(1) against imperialists
(2) against their masters
(3) consciously violent
(4) time bound
133.According to the passage, the issue with peasant nationalism was

(1) a viable alternative to elite nationalism
(2) coherence and control
(3) lack of continuity
(4) quite timely
134.The pre-war popular movements were of

(1) uniform social form
(2) insignificant value
(3) middle class nationalism
(4) specific gain at times

135.What is the author's assessment of the popular movements?
(1) Some of the popular issues were taken over by middle class nationalism
(2) It was bewildering and amusing
(3) It was remarkable and time-tested
(4) Pre war popular unrest was anti-imperialist

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follows:
Under the labour theory of value, the value or price of a commodity depends exclusively on
the amount of labour going into the production of the commodity. This implies that either
labour is the only factor of production or labour is used in the same fixed proportion in the
production of all commodities and that labour is homogeneous, i.e. of only one type. Since
neither of these assumptions is true, we cannot base the explanation of comparative
advantage on the labour theory of values specifically, labour is not the only factor of
production, nor is it used in the same fixed proportion in the production of all commodities.
For example, much more capital equipment per worker is required to produce some
products, such as steel, than to produce other products such as textile. In addition, there is
usually some possibility of substitution between labour, capital and other factors in the
production of most commodities. Further more, labour is obviously homogeneous but varies
greatly in training, productivity and wages. At the very least, we should allow for different
productivities of labour. Indeed, this is how the Ricardian theory of comparative advantage
has been tested empirically. In any event, the theory of comparative advantage need not be
based on the labour theory of value but can be explained on the basis of the opportunity
cost theory which is acceptable. To be noted is that Ricardo himself did not belive in the
labour theory of value and used it only as a simple way to explain the law of comparative
advantage. The law of comparative advantage is sometimes referred to as the law of
comparative cost.
Sub questions
136.What does the Labour Theory of Value imply?
(1) Labour is an extra factor in production
(2) Labour has a limited role in production
(3) Labour has the highest value in production
(4) Commodity price and labour value are directly related

137.In the Labour Theory of Value, when it comes to production of commodities,
engagement of labour is
(1) heterogeneous
(2) in fixed proportion
(3) in varied proportion
(4) capital intensive
138.Products like steel need

(1) less workers
(2) more workers
(3) more machines
(4) less machines
139.The Ricardian Theory is examined on the basis of

(1) labour value
(2) homogeneity of labour
(3) different levels of labour productivity
(4) law of possibility
140.According to the author of the passage

(a) labour is the basis of commodity pricing
(b) labour can be substituted with capital
(c) less capital equipment per worker is required for products like textile
(d) opportunity cost can help explain comparative advantage
(e) Ricardo used the labour theory of value only to explain comparative cost
(f) Ricardo was not sure of his own theory
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (d). (e) and (f)

(2) (c), (d) and €
(3)
Read the passage and answer questions from 46 to 50.

Anyone who has ever been in a classroom where the teacher's presentation was lifeless,
static, and without vocal variety can appreciate the common-sense value of the affective
side of teaching. However, unlike the other behaviours, affect cannot be captured in
transcripts of teaching or by classroom interaction instruments. Narrowly focussed research
instruments often miss a teacher's affective nature, which emerges from a more holistic
view of the classroom. This affective nature is the foundation on which one can build a
warm and nurturing relationship with his or her leanness. What the instruments miss, the
students see clearly. Students are good perceivers of the emotions and intentions
underlying a teacher's actions, and they often respond accordingly. A teacher who is excited
about the subject being taught and shows it by facial expressions, voice inflection, gesture
and movement-thus communicating respect and caring for the learner - is more likely to
hold the attention of students and motivate them to higher levels of achievement than one
who does not exhibit these behaviours. Students take their cues from these affective signs
and lower or heighten their engagement with the lesson accordingly. Enthusiasm is an
important aspect of a teacher's affect. Enthusiasm is the teacher's vigour, power,
involvement, excitement, and interest during a classroom presentation and willingness to
share this emotion with learners, who will want to respond in kind.
Sub questions
141.When does one feel the need for the value of affective aspects of teaching?
(1) When a teacher has a vocal variety
(2) When a teacher makes a dynamic presentation
(3) When a teacher's presentation is monotonous
(4) When a teacher's lecture is beyond expectation
142.The affective nature of teaching is reflected in

(1) Deeper understanding of the classroom environment
(2) Other behaviours of the teacher
(3) The recording of classroom interaction
(4) The limited reliance on research instruments

143.Students respect a teacher who
(1) is emotional
(2) displays concern for students
(3) has a powerful voice
(4) has narcissistic attitude
144.The affective signs will provide students

(1) The basis for understanding contents
(2) Exhibitional behaviours
(3) Cues to hold attention
(4) A basis which triggers further enthusiasm
145.The passage focusses attention on

(1) Lifeless classroom presentation
(2) Affective factors of teaching
(3) Students as emotional learners
(4) Measuring teacher's affective nature

Read the following passage and answer questions numbered 46 to 50 :
All art is a blend of form and content; and it is through certain excellences characterising
either, that the artist succeeds in inducing in us the artistic attitude. In the case of poetry,
for example, the content is constituted by the figurative ideas, and sentiments it expresses ;
and the form, by the musical language through which they find expression. Of these, the
form varies much from one art to another; and it is also technical. We shall not refer to it
here at any length, and shall confine our attention mainly to the content. We shall only
observe, in passing, that the legitimate function of form is to subserve the content; and if it
assumes greater importance, the work in which it does so marks a lapse from the best type

of art, The content of art may be defined generally as the meaning which it expresses. The
excellences that may characterize it are many, and they have been classified in various
"ways.
Sub questions
146.What constitutes the content of poetry according to the passage?
(a) Figurative ideas
(b) Musical language
(c) Sentiments it expresses
Choose the correct code from below :
(2) Only (a) and (c)
(3) Only (b) and (c)
(4) Only (b)
147.Which of the following is correct with respect- to the form of poetry as per the passage?
(a) Form doesn't vary from one art to another
(b) Form is technical
(c) Form is figurative
(d) Form constitutes musical language
Choose the correct option from below :
(2) Only (b) and (d)
(3) Only (b) (c) and (d)
(4) Only (a), (c) and (d)
148.What is legitimate function of form?

(1) To obverse the content
(2) To reject the content
(3) To subserve the content
(4) To subsume the content

149.Content of the art is defined in the passage as
(1) the form it exhibits
(2) the language it uses
(3) the meaning it subsumes
(4) the meaning it expresses
150.What kind of art is the best type as per the passage?

(a) The one which lends greater importance to content
(b) The one which lends greater importance to form
(c) The one in which form subserves the content
(d) The one in which content subserves the form
2020 READING COMPREHENSION

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
More generally, today's business-to-business marketers are using a wide range of digital and
social marketing approaches from websites, blogs, and smartphone apps to mainstream
social networks such as Facebook, LinkedIn, YouTube, and Twitter to reach business
customers and manage customer relationships anywhere, anytime, Digital and social
marketing has rapidly become the new space for engaging business customers. Business-to-
business e-procurement yields many benefits, First, it shaves transaction costs and results in
more efficient purchasing for both buyers and suppliers. E-procurement reduces the time
between order and delivery.
And a Web-powered purchasing program eliminates the paperwork associated with
traditional requisition and ordering procedures and helps an organization keep better track
of all purchases, Finally, beyond the cost and time savings, e-procurement frees purchasing
people from a lot of drudgery and paperwork. In turn, it frees them to focus on more
strategic issues, such as finding better supply sources and working with suppliers to reduce
costs and develop new products,
The rapidly expanding use of e-procurement, however, also presents some problems, For
example, at the same time that the Internet makes it possible for suppliers and customers
to share business data and even collaborate on product design, it can also erode decades-
old customer-supplier relationships, Many buyers now use the power of the Internet to pit

suppliers against one another and search out better deals, products, and turnaround times
on a purchase-by-purchase basis.
E-procurement can also create potential security concerns. Although home shopping
transactions can be protected through basic encryption, the secure environment that
businesses need to carry out confidential interactions is sometimes still lacking.
Sub questions
1. What is the current strategy of business to business managers?
1. Searching for new business space
2. Exploring new customer relations
3. Less dependence on social marketing
4. More and more use of digital business
2. The benefits of e-procurement are

A. Cost reduction
B. Quick delivery
C. Longer time for strategic procurement
D. Empathetic purchase
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. A and D only
3. What can be a strategic issue as a result of less paperwork?

1. Transaction analysis
2. More investment for supply
3. Development of new products
4. Importance to traditional customer relation

4. What can be the main issue with e-procurement vis-a-vis power of Internet?
1. Different purchases for both buyers and suppliers
2. Sharing business data with customers
3. Competitive supply of products
4. Better purchase deals
5. The focus of the passage is on

1. The power of suppliers
2, Basic business data encryption
3. The supply side of business
4, The critical features of e-procurement
Read the passage and answer questions

’Power' has been differentiated by numerous authors and practitioners. Amitai Etzioni was
among the first to describe individuals who are able to induce other individuals to comply
and take action because of their position in the organization as haring position power: those
who derive their power from their followers are considered to have personal power. Some
are skilled enough to have both. Position power is the extent to which those people to
whom managers report are willing to delegate authority and responsibility to them. So
position power tends to flow down in an organization. This is not to say that leaders do not
have any impact on how much position power they accrue. They certainly do. The
confidence and trust they develop with the people around them will often determine the
willingness of upper management to delegate to them. Remember, though, that whatever
power is delegated downward can also be taken back. Personal power is the extent to which
followers respect, feel good about, and are committed to the leader. They believe that their
own needs and goals will be recognized, supported, and facilitated by their leader. As such
personal power in an organisational setting comes from below - from the followers — and
so flows up in an organisation. Personal power is not inherent in the leader. If it wore,
managers with personal power could take over any department and have the same
commitment and rapport they had in their last department. Personal power is a day-to-day
phenomenon. Personal power is a critical part of haring and demonstrating emotional
intelligence.
Sub questions

6. When individuals in an organisation ask others to comply with their instructions, it is
identified as
(1) organisational power
(2) positional power
(3) authoritarian power
(4) delegated powder
7. Personal powder emanates from

(1) the group of managers
(2) the delegation of responsibility
(3) the followers
(4) the top-level executives in an organisation
8. Delegation of power to managers depends upon

(1) downward flow of authority
(2) the whimsicality of top managers
(3) the people around the management
(4) the trust reposed by the top managers
9. Position power, when delegated is

(1) volatile
(2) permanent
(3) absolute
(4) inherent
10. The passage recognizes the critical role of

(1) faith of the leader in his followers
(2) emotional intelligence to have personal power
(3) needs and goals of managers for personal power

(4) power flowing upwards so that managers can gain personal power
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
In the narrowest sense, price is the amount of money charged for a product or a service,
more broadly, price is the sum of all the values that customers give up to gain the benefits
of having or using a product or service, Historically, price has been the major factor affecting
buyer choice, In recent decades, however, nonprice factors have gained increasing
importance. Even so, price remains one of the most important elements that determines a
firm's market share and profitability.
Price is the only element in the marketing mix that produces revenue; all other elements
present costs. Price is also one of the most flexible marketing mix elements, Unlike product
features and channel commitments, prices can be changed quickly, At the same time,
pricing is the number one problem facing many marketing executives, and many companies
do not handle pricing well. Some managers view pricing as a big headache, preferring
instead to focus on other marketing mix elements, However, smart managers treat pricing
as a key strategic tool for creating and capturing costumer value, Prices have a direct impact
on a firm's bottom line. A small percentage improvement in price can generate a large
percentage increase in profitability. More important, as part of a company's overall value
proposition, price plays a key role in creating customer value and building customer
relationships. "Instead of running away from pricing," says an expert, "sawy marketers are
embracing it",
The price the company charges will fall somewhere between one that is too low to produce
a profit and one that is too high to produce any demand, It summarizes the major
considerations in setting price. Customer perceptions of the product's value set the ceiling
for prices. If customers perceive that the product's price is greater that its value, they will
not buy the product, Likewise, product costs set the floor for prices, If the company prices
the product below its costs, the company's profits will suffer. In setting its price between
those two extremes, the company must consider several external and internal factors,
including competitors' strategies and prices, the overall marketing strategy and mix, and
nature of the market and demand,
Sub questions
11. Historically price was considered important because
1. Sellers were always benefitted
2. Money was charged for product or service
3. It provided options for buyers
4. It promoted non-price factors

12. Why is price different from other elements in the marketing mix?
1. It offsets cost
2. It generates revenue
3. It is rigid in character
4. It ensures channel commitment
13. What is the perception of smart managers regarding pricing?

1. It is a strategic tool for consumer value
2. It invites issues
3. It is better to focus on other elements in the marketing mix
4. It is of indirect value to the firm
14. Which of the following is the major determinant of pricing for product or service?
1. High demand
2, Low demand
3. Customer's value perception
4, Company's quest for high profitability
15. What are the other factors influencing or setting the price for products or services?
A. Competitors' strategies
B. Over-all marketing mix
C. Type of market
D. Pricing from one extreme to the other
E. Predators pricing strategies
1. A, D and E only
2. A, B and C only
3. C, D and E only
4. B, C and D only

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
According to Richard Beckhard a transformation represents a vital organizational change.
Transformation is characterized by certain features that clearly differentiate it from other
types of change. First, according to Beckhard, it involves substantial and discontinuous
change to the shape, structure, and nature of the organization, rather than incremental
adjustments and fine-tuning of the current situation. One example of a discontinuous
change would be when a firm changes from being production-driven to being customer-
driven, Another would be a merger of two organizations, In both instances, the shape of the
organization can be expected to change radically, An organization transforming from a
production orientation to a customer orientation will need to drastically decentralize and
delegate authority. In a merger, entirely new roles and working relationships will be
created.
A second characteristic of transformation is that the need for change is caused by forces
external to the organization rather than forces inside the organization. A typical example
would be when an organization changes from a functional to a divisional structure in
response to market forces or industry pressures in the form of competitor actions or
regulatory changes.
Currently, globalization is one of the most powerful external forces for organizational
transformation.
A third distinguishing feature of transformation is that the change is deep and pervasive,
rather than shallow and contained. The change affects all parts of the organization and
involves many levels, Decentralization, downsizing and the geographic relocation of
functions and activities exemplify changes that transform structural relationships deeply
and pervasively.
Finally, transformation requires significantly different; and even entirely new, sets of actions
by the members of the organization, rather than more or less of existing behavior patterns,
Examples are changes to the norms and core values of an organization that are brought
about through acquisition, deregulation, and privatization or through a drastic strategic
repositioning such as shifting from a production-efficiency focus to a customer-service
strategy.
Sub questions
16. According to Richard Beckhard, transformation is what kind of change in the
organisational structure?
1. Incremental
2. Discontinuous
3. Finetuning
4. One-time

17. What happens when two organisations merge?
A. Shape of the organisation will change
B. Product orientation remains the same
C. Drastic decentralisation of authority
D. Discontinuous change does not take place
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. A and C only
18. The pressure of market force can result in

1. Distortion of role perceptions
2. Changing to a functional structure
3. Changing to a divisional structure
4. Deregulation of competitive factors
19. What are the main levels of organizational transformation?

A. Downsizing
B. Geographical relocation
C. Contained changes
D. Power to external forces
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. A and D only

20. What does organizational transformation require?
1. Strengthening existing behaviours of members
2. Changes in norms and core values
3. Production-efficiency strategy
4. All pervasive structural relationships
'Being value-centred is important to the experience of fulfilment in my life’: Here the
thought has the stamp of the core concept of Value-centred’ and ’fulfilment'. This is good.
However, it has yet not moved into creative imagination of how this can be made possible in
reality.
Thus, it runs the risk of becoming an opinion or simply, a nice thought. ‘A value-centred life
is tough in today’s world". This thought formation could arise from a past experience where
life was made difficult by being value-centred. Also, there could be stories and imagined
scenarios being created in the mind, 'what if...’, ‘what if not...’, etc. This could be related to
the comfort-seeking nature of the senses and a part of the vital life-force that wants to take
the easy way out. If one’s core essential concept is fulfilment, these imaginary formations
can be halted and the thought can be frozen. Now one can note that without the clarity that
the core principle is "fulfilment', this imagination will often be allowed to fashion and
complete its formation. This in turn, will affect the quality of our life and the choices made
then may not serve the ’fulfilment' value of the individual. The idea force can use its
sanctioning power to move those thought formations that are aligned to the core concept
of ‘value-centred living" and fulfilment and make still or reject those thought formations
that-fed by Tear’, 'anxiety, ‘desire for compromised quicker success’, etc. And if a value or
ideal is not clear, it can reach back to the pure mind for further clarity.
Sub questions
21. What is needed for self - fulfilment?
(1) Focus on values
(2) Stamping of the core concept
(3) good thoughts
(4) Experience in life
22. The thought of value-based life as tough can be attributed to

(A) being value-centred
(B) past experiences of difficulty
(C) wild imaginations
(D) the inclination to be in a comfort zone

(1) (A) and (B)
(2) (B) and (D)
(3) (B) and (C)
(4) (C) and (D)
23. How can an individual move away from imaginary formations about value -
centrelines at
(1) By freezing one’s own thoughts of good life
(2) By having nice thoughts about values in life
(3) By being clear about fulfilment of life
(4) By being fashionable about the core concept of life
24. The vague ideas of value-centred life for self-fulfilment will

(1) disturb the comforts of life
(2) lead to creative imaginations
(3) promote good quality of life
(4) reject the very values sought after
25. What is the assertion of the author of the passage?

(1) value-centred life is an unclear thought
(2) The principle of value-centredness is a difficult proposition to achieve
(3) Many factors aligned with value-centredness are negative in character
(4) Todays world is not for any value system

People seldom continue to do things that do not provide positive reinforcement, either
through external reward or internal satisfaction. In addition to its effect on the continuation
of a particular behaviour, extinction can also have an emotional impact. We could predict,
for example, with an excellent- chance of being correct, that an employee will become
surely, will complain more than before, or will have problems getting along with his co-
workers.
Emotional behaviour usually accompanies extinction when reinforcement or punishment is
withheld. Parents often extinguish behaviours unintentionally when they pay attention only
when their children are behaving poorly. If parents pay little or no attention when the
children are behaving appropriately, they in a sense, put the behaviour on extinction. A child
who wants attention — a reward — from the parents may be willing to endure what the
parents think is punishment to get it. So in the long run. the parents might he reinforcing
inappropriate behaviour; yet it happens all the time. This phenomenon is also very common
in the world of work. For example, a managers work group had responded well to a high
task-low relationship, dealing firmly with inappropriate behaviour. Now suddenly this style
is not achieving results, and followers are being disruptive and making unreasonable
demands. Positively reinforcing inappropriate behaviour generally results in more unwanted
behaviour.
Sub questions
26. What do people need to continue working for internal satisfaction?
(1) Some threat
(2) Some emotional reaction
(3) Some pleasant experience after the behaviour occurs
(4) Threat mixed with something pleasant
27. When a reinforcement is withheld from a worker, it may lead, inter alia, to
(1) expectation of getting something pleasant
(2) decrease in complaining behaviour
(3) expectation of threats
(4) evocation of negative emotions
28. When the unintended neglect of appropriate behaviour results in

(1) extinction of that behaviour
(2) seeking reward for appropriate behaviour
(3) positive reinforce meat
(4) further occurrence of the original behaviour

29. Positively reinforcing inappropriate behaviour is an error because it results in
(1) continuation of inappropriate behaviour
(2) dropping of inappropriate behaviour
(3) misbehaviour
(4) negative emotions
30. The focus of the passage is on

(1) reward and punishment policies in an organisation
(2) high risk relationship between managers and workers
(3) the managerial attitude towards workers
(4) the negative consequences of positive reinforcement
The true role of our energy is to gain personal power and operate from it at all times. Today,
in many situations, people loose their personal power in relationships between boss-
subordinate. client-customer, colleague-colleague, teacher-student, husband-wife, parent-
child. Friend-Friend, etc. Often in these relationships someone plays the role of the
oppressor while the other plays the role of the oppressed. But this is a great weakness in the
relationship and it undermines people's capacity to be their authentic sieves and accomplish
what they want in their lives. We need personal power to hold our self-esteem and go
forward to succeed in our pursuits. Human relationships often deteriorate through these
power struggles and ultimately both, whether they are playing the role of an oppressor or
the oppressed, lose their personal power. Personal power can be seen as the result of an
interplay between masculine and feminine forms of power. Both these forms of power can
co-exist in both men and women. Both feminine and the masculine forms of power need to
be honoured and expressed for a beautiful presence and creation in the world. We have to
gain a deeper understanding the characteristics of masculine and feminine forms of power.
Sub questions
31. Relationships of different types of power among people will lead to
(1) Social diversity
(2) Hierarchical structure
(3) Balance of power in society
(4) Subjugation of the weak and meek

32. The power relations in a society tend to
(1) Hurt self accomplishments by people
(2) Improve the people's abilities
(3) Increase self-esteem
(4) Have more oppressors than the oppressed
33. Loss of personal power in the society is attributed to

(1) Rigid human relations
(2) Aggressiveness of the opressors
(3) Weakness of the oppressed
(4) Power struggle in society
34. Interplay of forms of power is

(1) The essence of success in our pursuits
(2) Distinctly gender-based
(3) Nothing but assertion of power
(4) Needed for the creation of world
35. The passage focuses on the idea of

(1) Importance of power struggle
(2) Different forms and structures of power
(3) The need for power division in the society
(4) Harnessing personal power in the interest of co-existence

Our life exists by constant interchange and replenishment. Every day. food is needed for the
body to survive. For our vital energies to thrive every day. vital nourishment is needed. For
our minds to be sharp and intelligent every day. an increase in knowledge is needed. But a
human does not live by nourishment of the mind, life energy and body alone, but also by
the nourishment that comes by the connection with our Divine source. This deeper
nourishment is needed each day for our inmost well-being. To connect to our deeper self
and receive its nourishment, our awareness needs to touch deeper than our mind, vital
energy and body. A mere mental awareness cannot touch this inner-most space. Our efforts
too can take us only up to a certain point. The true question is. how much do we really want
to connect with the divinity within us. If it is a sincere inner urge, then at some point, we
realize that there is a Presence that lives within us and carries us forward. To recognize this
Presence when it reveals itself to us. we can begin to know its nature. It exists quietly in the
background, often unnoticed by our surface self. When we are lost in the whirls of our mind,
vital life-energy and body, we lose our connection with this 'presence'. When we remember
and sincerely seek to connect, sooner or later, the ’Presence' makes itself felt.
Sub questions
36. What is needed for the mind to be active?
(1) Life energy
(2) Nourishment for body
(3) More knowledge
(4) Constant replenishment of energy
37. Our inmost well-being depends upon(wrong question)

(1) Sharper intellect
(2) Nourishment of body and mind
(3) Acceptance of life energies
(4) Connect with supreme power
38. How can we realize the Divine Presence?

(1) By searching for the divine
(2) By recognising its presence within us
(3) By reaching the innermost space
(4) By making sincere efforts within one’s own self

39. The Divine Presence in each individual can be found through(wrong question)
(1) One's own realization of divinity
(2) The whirls of our mind
(3) The surface self
(4) Knowing the nature of agitated mind
40. The passage focusses on the

(1) Need for body replenishment
(2) Intellectual thoughts
(3) Importance of connect with the Divine Presence
(4) Vital life energies
Marketers are re - examining their relationships with social values and responsibilities and
with the very Earth that sustains us. As the worldwide consumerism and environmentalism
movement mature, today's marketers are being called on to develop sustainable marketing
practices. Corporate ethics and social responsibility have become hot topics for almost
every business. And few companies can ignore the renewed and very demanding
environmental movement. Every company action can affect customer relationships. Today's
customers expect companies to deliver value in a socially and environmentally responsible
way.
The social-responsibility and environmental movements will place even stricter demands on
companies in the future. Some companies resist these movements, budging only when
forced by legislation or organized customer outcries. Forward-looking companies, however,
readily accept their responsibilities to the world around them, They, view sustainable
marketing as an opportunity to do well by doing good. They seek ways to profit by serving
immediate needs and the best long-run interest of their customers and communities.
Some companies, such as Patagonia, Ben & Jerry's, Timberland, Method, and others,
practice caring capitalism, setting themselves apart by being civic-minded and responsible,
They, build social linkages.
Sub questions
41. The present-day marketers have focused on
1. Consumerism
2. Social obligations
3. Sustaining their business practices
4. Competitive business

42. The concern for today's society centres on
1. Marketing strategies
2. Customer relations
3. Corporate ethics
4. Delivery of value for money
43. What do farsighted companies prefer?

1. Sustainable marketing
2. Legislative compulsion
3. Organised consumer pressure
4. Status quo in the market
44. According to the passage, sustainable marketing is perceived as

1. Immediately profitable
2. Community fallacy
3. Doing good to community as an opportunity
4. Long-term burden to society as a difficult issue
45. Caring capitalism is inclusive of

A. Make profit by ignoring social demands
B. Being civic-minded
C. Forcing social linkages
D. Budge when there is a legislative nudge
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. A and D only

Through their work and the efforts of others, managers in all kinds of organisational
settings, whether industrial, educational, governmental, or military are attempting to run
their organizations with the management by objectives process as a basic underlying
management concept. Management by objectives is basically a process where by the
seniors and the junior managers of an enterprise jointly identify its common goals, define
each individual’s major areas of responsibility in terms of the results expected... use these
measures as guides for operating the unit and assessing the contribution of each of its
members. In some cases, this process has been successfully carria beyond the managerial
level to include hourly employees. The concept rests on a philosophy of management that
emphasizes an integration between external control by managers and self-control by
employees. It can apply to any manager or individual no matter what level or function, and
to any organisation, regardless of size. The effective functioning of this system is an
agreement between a manager and an employee about that employee’s groups
performance goals during a stated time period. These goals can emphasise either output
variables of intervening variables or some combination of both. The important thing is that
goals are jointly established and agreed upon in advance. At the end of the time period,
performance is reviewed in relation to accepted goals. Both the employee and the manager
participate in this review.
Sub questions
46. In an MBO organisation is managed through the identification of
(1) competing goals
(2) common objectives
(3) its specific characteristics
(4) senior and junior managers
47. The requisite for management by objectives is centred on

(1) the control by seniors
(2) the guidance of juniors
(3) the participatory process
(4) the organisational settings
48. The critical feature of the concept in this type of management is related to
(1) the assignment of responsibility to the workers
(2) distinguishing the operational role between managers
and workers

(3) promoting of uniformity of work environment among all types of organisation
(4) sharing of responsibility with an eye on results
49. In this frame of reference, how does an organisation function effectively?

(1) By including the hourly employees in the managerial positions
(2) By identifying and executing performance targets in a collaborative mode
(3) By imposing a rigid philosophy of management
(4) By providing separate work environment for both managers and workers
50. The philosophy behind management by objectives is to

(1) effect improvement through a joint review of achievement of performance goals
within a given timeframe
(2) integrate external and internal controls by managers
(3) provide managers scope to review the accepted output variables
(4) agree upon different performance goals for managers and employees
The ceremonial use of slogans and catchwords in educational discussions raises the
suspicion of a tenuous linkage between thought and action. As stock phrases multiply and
the talk begins to take on an idealistic ring, the wary listener might well begin to wonder
whether the lip service paid to these concepts is connected with what actually goes on in
classrooms. It is difficult in this day and age to be opposed to democracy, creativity, and
innovation in education, but how are these attractive words related to the more mundane
business of teaching practice? The answer, of course, is that the two are often not related -
a fact that accounts for one of the most frequently recurring complaints among today's
educators: the all-too-obvious gap between theory (i.e., educational talk) on the one hand
and practice on the other.
The dissonance between what teachers say, or at least what their leaders say, and what
they do takes many forms and has several important consequences. For some, it lays the
groundwork for the development of a cynical outlook towards the admonitions of idealists
and the advocates of new and supposedly revolutionary practices. This cynicism, which

grows out of a prior sense of disillusionment strikes many young teachers as they begin to
appreciate the unrealistic quality of several of the expectations aroused during the period of
their professional training. Teaching as actually experienced and as described in textbooks
and college courses often turns out to be to quite different states of affairs. The result is
that college instructors of education and other outsiders begin to be looked upon with
suspicion by many practitioners. Even the testimony of fellow teachers may be viewed
suspiciously when it conflicts with the listener's own experience in the classroom.
Sub questions
51. The use of stock phrases in educational discussions has tended to reveal
1. The linkage between thought and action
2. The difference between saying and doing in classroom contexts
3. The ceremonial importance of slogans
4. The idealistic ring of talks
52. How are the idealistic concepts related to the routine practices in education?
1. They intertwine theory and practice
2. They make classroom teaching innovative
3. They make the business of education highly profitable
4. They lead to the identification of gap between theory and practice
53. What is the sequel of lack of congruence between saying and doing as evident in
teacher behavior?
1. Opposition to revolutionary practices
2. Lays ground for frequent complaints
3. Emergence of disillusionment among teachers
4. Support to the admonition of idealists
54. Why do young teachers appreciate the unrealistic quality of expectations?

1. Because of the cynical attitude among teachers
2. Because of the testimonial given by fellow teachers
3. Because of their professional training
4. Because of their own experience in teaching

55. The passage analyses
1. The linkage between language and discussions
2. The schism between theory and actual practice of leaching
3. The need to the use of high brow language in educational discussions
4. The importance of idealism in education
Two paradoxes inform and problematize every discursive and practical employment of
"human rights". The first is substantive and directly political; it concerns the relation
between "the human" and "the political", and belongs to the domain of political ethics in
general. The other is more nearly epistemological and moral: it addresses the issue of how
one understands and practices the relationship between idea and actuality, or moral
universality and cultural relativity. Each stems from the fact that human rights would cobble
together two kinds of concepts and practical relations that are not innately friendly and
treats them as one. ignoring the inherent absence of complementarity in their relationship.
Thus, the discourse of human rights synthesizes and occludes paradoxical features of the
origins, history and character of human rights as an idea and a practice, making it far from
self-evident as a conceptual "thing" or guide to moral and political practice. Paradox has
always marked the invocation of human rights. Since their discursive inception, the initial
paradoxes have not been solved so much as layered by new iterations of them - namely,
that initiated in the LTD HR (Universal Declaration of Human Rights), which identifies
governments as the promissories for enforcement of human rights. Joining the paradoxes is
an overarching feature that articulates human rights as a trans-political phenomenon
besides being a political phenomenon designed to uplift all human societies.
Sub questions
56. The first important area of human rights paradox is concerned with
1. Problematization
2. Discursive employment
3. Human practice
4. Political ethics
57. The epistemological paradox of human rights refers to the understanding of

1. Human aspects of rights
2. Moral degradation
3. Cultural dimension of human rights
4. Political relations

58. What is ignored in comprehending two paradoxes of human rights?
1. Innate friendliness of paradoxes
2. Absence of complimentarity
3. Relationship between idea and actuality
4. Morality issues
59. What is missing in the discourse of human rights?

1. Self evidence as a concept
2. Paradoxical features
3. Exclusion of human rights features
4. Synthesis of concept and practice
60. What is added to the existing paradoxes of human rights?

1. Iteration of UDHR
2. Universality of human rights
3. Invocation of human rights
4. Political phenomenon across borders
If so much of present day cultural learning depends on situation and context how do the
resulting assemblages acquire an organised coherence? One way this issue is being raised in
recent anthropology is through the concern with identity, whether defined as identity of the
person of an ethnic group or of an entire nation. But identities do not swim above in the
stream of social life like amoebas in fermenting banana soup. If definitions of identity
involve a characterisation of attributes and a drawing of boundaries around the units so
defined, in contrast with other units, this must have a causal context. Moreover, we know'
that the search for identity varies historically, intensifying or slackening over periods of
time. Thus, a major rise occurred in the demand for identity with the advent of the nation-
state and the collateral development of nationalism, which hoped to create a unified and
identifiable 'people', out of diverse populations with distinctive identities of their own.

Recently, the demand for identities has risen once again, precisely at a time when cultural
repertoires are becoming again more heterogeneous, as people have responded to changes
in the social division of labour, in their relation to governments, in reaction to new' modes
of communication. These repertoires of cultural understandings and practices do not easily
fit any traditional notion of culture as an integral and integrated set of forms and meanings.
Sub questions
61. What is the focal issue in the present day cultural learning?
(1) Unending discussions on it
(2) Contextual clarity
(3) Anthropological concern
(4) The need to organise the issue properly
62. The identity has a tendency to have

(1) Different attributes from others
(2) Coherence with other units
(3) Undistinguishable boundaries
(4) The movement above the stream of social life
63. Historically the search for identity has been of

(1) Uniform continuity
(2) Slackening of culture
(3) Intermittent intensity
(4) Illogical motives
64. The advent of nationalism led to

(1) Competing identities
(2) Single identity across the nation
(3) The emergence of a unified cultural repertoire
(4) Unity within diverse identities

65. The new cultural understanding does not fit into the traditional notion of culture due
to
(1) New modes of communication
(2) Traditional social divisions of labour
(3) Integrated sets of meanings
(4) The creation of a strong nation-state
In Skinner's system, reinforcement is automatic, almost by definition. Perhaps the most
convincing demonstration of the automatic effect of a reinforcer is what Skinner (1948) has
called "superstitious behaviour', In this situation, an event known to be reinforcing is
presented intermittently without respect to what the subject is doing, But if it is doing
anything (and this can be made likely through deprivation, etc,), the response just prior to
the delivery of the reinforcer is strengthened, as evidenced by an increase in its rate of
emission. The subject comes to "act as if" the response that has been fortuitously
strengthened somehow produces the reinforcement. This occurs even though the reinforcer
is actually delivered by a mechanical device that is in no way responsive to the subject's
behaviour,
The automatic effect of reinforcement is also illustrated in Skinner's effective techniques of
shaping behaviour. These procedures could hardly have sprung from a point of view that
regarded all behaviour as elicited, But with the organism viewed as "emitting" the varied
responses already in his repertoire, it was an easy step to conceive of shaping, If the
observer simply controlled the quick presentation of a reinforcer, then he could strengthen
any behaviour the organism happened to emit Responses not in the subject's repertoire
could then be built into it by appropriate arrangements of environmental conditions and the
successive approximation technique,
Sub questions
66. According to Skinner, the superstitious behaviour of individuals is the outcome of
1, Constant exposure to an event
2 Exposure to an event without regularity
3, Occasional exposure to an event
4, Natural exposure to an event
67. The delivery of the reinforcer gets strengthened due to

1. The subjects involvement in the event
2. Increase in the rate of reinforcement
3, Factors such as deprivation
4, The use of a mechanical device

68. The example of a mechanical device reinforcing the subject's behaviour
demonstrates
1. The automatic effect of reinforcement
2. The illusion of reinforcement
3, The discrepancy in subject's behaviour
4, The belief that even/ reaction is an act of reinforcement
69. The procedure of shaping a subject's behaviour is related to his

A, Susceptibility
B, Desire for reinforcement
C, Responses already in his repertoire
D, Responses reinforced by approximation techniques
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. A and D only
70. The responses that are not in the emission list of a subject, can be observed by
1. Coercive measures
2. Creating suitable environmental conditions
3. Inhibiting his natural emission behavior
4. Using mechanical devices for reinforcement
To be swayed by emotions can surely be a problem, but otherwise., emotions are such a
wealth within us that they are rightly called a source of human energy, information and
influence.

When we understand them well and handle them wisely, they can help us mend fences or
move mountains. They touch our hearts and a rich life is necessarily one that is centred in
the heart. To love and be loved is the greatest privilege of life, said Chinmaya, the popular
teacher of the Vedanta.
To put in efforts towards understanding our own and others' emotions leads to an
enhancement of our Emotional Quotient (EQ). By broadening our outlook, we can discard
false judgments and this leads to the rise of healthy emotions within us. Just to be aware of
the factors that activate particular emotions that arise in us, paves the way to a better
handling of these forces at work. We need to train ourselves to be rightly assertive in the
face of injustice or some unfair treatment meted out to us. This means that we rise above all
passivity that is inaction and at the same time avoid aggressive behaviour that could be
harsh or violent. Even skills that we develop to handle stress fall under emotional maturity
for a lot of stress is the result of certain negative emotions making situations look darker
than what they actually are.
Developing empathy is another aspect of emotional growth, where we "emotionally read"
others and thus relate with them very accurately rather than in some imagined way.
Sub questions
71. Human emotions are

A. Neither good nor bad
B. Source of human energy
C. Passive in nature
D. Beneficial when handled wisely
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. B and D only
72. Used properly, emotions lead us to

1. Accumulate wealth
2. A rich and joyous life
3. Being judgemental
4. Relate with others in some imagined way

73. By a clear assessment of emotional factors, we can become
1. Highly aggressive
2. Rigidly judicious
3. Passively righteous
4. Better handlers of negativity
74. Emotional maturity

1. Handles negative emotions effectively
2. Makes a person passive
3. Makes life look darker than what it is
4. May give rise to aggressive behavior against injustice
75. Developing empathy makes a person

1. Understand himself
2. Relate with others emotionally
3. Cope with stress
4. Relate to others in some imagined way
At the turn of the century, a dominant conception of the child as learner was that he was
cognitively an "empty organism" responding more or less randomly to stimulation, and
characteristically learning when specific responses were connected with specific stimuli
through the meditation of pleasure or pain. The organism itself, it was believed, would do
nothing to learn or think if it were not impelled to such activity by primary drives like hunger
or thirst or by externally applied motives like reward and punishment. Experimenters in the
laboratory were connecting correct responses of animals to puzzle boxes by giving or
withholding food and teachers in the classroom were connecting correct responses of
children to problem cards by giving or withholding approval.
In pointing to this aspect of the turn-of-the-century view of the learner, I do not mean to
derogate the historic achievement of the connectionist formulation of learning. But the
essential point remains, a conception of the learner as an ideationally empty organism

associating discrete stimuli and responses through the operation of rewards and
punishments under the control of the teacher. Both the stimulus - what was supposed to be
learned - and the response - what was actually learned - were believed to be determined by
the teacher.
It was no accident that the materials and methods of instruction and the form of the
classroom were teacher-centred. The teacher was necessarily placed in front of the
classroom -sometimes on a dais or platform - and the pupils in chairs rigidly fastened to the
floor in straight rows facing forward so they would not turn away from the only source of
the learning experience: the teacher. Given this contemporary vision of the learner, what
could be a more eminently practical and sensible image of the ideal learning environment?
Indeed, there is a letter by John Dewey dating from this period in which he complains that
when he was trying to equip his new school according to his different conception of child as
learner, he was unable to find any other kind of classroom furniture.
Sub questions
76. The early child was thought of as
1. Intelligent enough to know both pain and pleasure
2. Having no power of cognition
3. Not amenable to specific stimuli
4. Having motivational effect in a random way
77. The basic idea behind laboratory experiment was related to

1. Motivating the child with reward and punishment
2. Considering hunger and thirst as negligible in impact
3. Animals and children having the same drive
4. Teachers controlling children
78. The connectionist formula placed importance on

1. Withholding negative stimuli
2. Teacher-centric motivation
3. Search for specific responses
4. Doing experiments in laboratories

79. What was expected of pupils during those early days?
1. To create an ideal learning environment
2. To be in the forefront of the classroom
3, Be attentive towards classroom teaching
4, To place the teacher on the higher pedestal
80. What did John Dewey say of child learning?

1. Teacher as the only source of knowledge
2. The learner should be given incentives for learning
3. The existing educational environment was ideal
4. The focus should be on child as a learner
The representative dimension of the new liberal political orders designed to protect
individual rights, appeared as the best mechanism for actualizing popular rule or sovereignty
- indeed democracy. As a result, it is more beneficial to assess the meaning and value of
'rights' as historical and political practices, rather than conceptual forms (especially as
counterparts to 'virtue'). In this respect, the discourse of rights reflected a new official mode
of combining ethics and power for political conduct. But the formally equal treatment of
citizens belied a relatively arbitrary element, for the involvement of the citizenry in shaping
the conduct of their representatives was left to elite influenced election procedures,
qualifications and voluntary participation. Still, representation became the mythical means
of transposing the authorizing power of the people to the new authorities in government.
After all. representatives had more time and money to perfect their virtue and skill in
conducting their work and were not supposed to be corrupted by the power that attended
their offices. They were supposed to be better guardians and agents of public virtue than
ordinary citizens as representation became institutionalized in the new states. The state
wielded power over the people, diversifying rather than restricting the problems of
demagoguery in ancient democracy that modern republics were supposed to correct
Sub questions
81. The aim of liberal democracy is to
1. Provide a mechanism to ignore popular voice
2. Safeguard individual rights
3. Understand the political order
4. Defocus representativeness

82. What will be the more beneficial assessment of democracy?
1. Considering rights as a political practice
2. Avoiding historical meanings of the concept
3. Emphasizing on virtues
4. Examining the conceptual forms of democracy
83. What does the discourse of rights focus on?

1. Election procedures
2. Arbitrary freedom
3. Reasonable political conduct
4. New priests of power
84. What was expected of public representatives?

1. Use power for personal gains
2. Behave like ordinary citizens
3. Become skilled in power politics
4. Safeguard representation of virtue
85. According to the author of the passage, the modern republics should
1. Exercise power over people
2. Institutionalize power and corruption
3. Free themselves from the defects of ancient democracy
4. Imitate the institutions of new state
Under a freely flexible exchange rate system and a stable foreign exchange market, the
nation's currency will depreciate until the monetary deficit is entirely eliminated. Under a
managed float, the nation's monetary authorities usually do not allow the full depreciation
required to eliminate the deficit completely. Under a fixed exchange rate system, the
exchange rate can depreciate only within the narrow limits allowed so that, most of the

balance of payments adjustment must come from elsewhere. A depreciation to the extent
that it is allowed, stimulates production and income in the deficit nation and induces
imports to rise, thus reducing part of the original improvement in the trade balance
resulting from the depreciation under a freely flexible exchange rate system. This simply
means that the depreciation needed to eliminate a balance-of-payment deficit is larger than
if these automatic income changes were not present. Except under a freely flexible
exchange rate system, a balance-of-payment tends to reduce the nation's money supply,
thus increasing its interest rates. This, in turn, reduces domestic investment and income in
the deficit nation, which induces its imports to fall and thereby reduces the deficit. The
increase in interest rates also attracts foreign capital, which helps the nation finance the
deficit. The reduction in income and in the money supply also causes prices in the deficit
nation to fall relative to prices in the surplus nation, thus further improving the balance of
trade of the deficit nation.
Sub questions
86. What is needed to completely eliminate the monetary deficit?
1. Conditioned exchange rate
2. Complete currency depreciation
3. Volatile foreign exchange market
4. Free exchange rate system
87. Why full depreciation is not allowed?

1. BoP adjustment should come from elsewhere
2, Because of foreign exchange shortage
3. For improving trade balance
4, Full depreciation does not eliminate deficit,
88. Limited depreciation of currency is allowed to

1. Nullify trade balance under free exchange rate system
2. Restrict foreign investment
3. Increase domestic production
4. Curtail higher income

89. What happens under a free exchange system?
1. Reduction in money supply
2. Larger depreciation in the absence of automatic income changes
3. Increase in interest rates
4. Less domestic investment
90. According to the passage, deficit in balance of payments leads to

1. Price increase in the deficit nation
2. Automatic adjustments in income
3. Fall in import by surplus nations
4. Improvements in the trade balance of the deficit nation
The logic of preponderance of one state over the other as a pacifying condition is challenged
in balance-of-power theory, which is based on the premise that two states or coalitions of
states are unlikely to go to war if there is an approximate parity or equilibrium in their
capabilities. According to this theory, it is usually the stronger state that goes to war in order
to dominate its weaker opponents. Hegemony of a single actor is the most dangerous
condition, because the hegemonic state will be encouraged to impose its will on others.
When a hegemonic state emerges, weaker states, fearing domination or extinction, will
therefore flock together in order to prevent conquest or domination by the stronger side.
This balance-of-power logic has fundamental problems when confronted with situations in
which a stronger state is content with the status quo but a wreaker state becomes an
aggressor due to dissatisfaction with a territorial or political order. For the weaker party to
go on the offensive, however. it requires some advantage that enables it to sustain the
conflict for an extended period. Although equality of capability is often difficult to measure .
it is fairly accurate to argue that challengers in a rivalry dyad must have some capacity to
maintain an enduring rivalry. If the power differential is too high, then logically the weaker
party should eventually give up the conflict. Although there are exceptions to this general
principle, they are few in number.
Sub questions
91. Two states cannot go to war if their capabilities are
1. Unequal
2. Almost equal
3. Pacifying
4. Fluctuating

92. According to the balance-of-power theory, weaker states come together to
1. Emerge as a hegemonic coalition
2. Encourage conflicts
3. Prevent hegemony
4. Follow the stronger nation
93. When does a weaker state go to war against the stronger state?
1. To show that it is also equally strong
2. To become hegemonic in its own way
3. To impress upon other weak states
4. To settle a territorial dispute
94. What is needed to maintain an enduring rivalry by a weaker state?

1. Rivalry dyad
2. Stronger state preferring status quo
3. Advantage to sustain conflict
4. Issue of political equilibrium
95. The balance-of-power theory posits that

1. Stronger nations are in pacifying condition
2. Weaker states become aggressive in the long run
3. Power differentials are of no use in the present day "world
4. Power parity between states maintains balance and peace

Initially, most children want to do well in school. But the student who has experienced
consistent failure in the classroom tends to lower his own expectations concerning school
success. He may direct his energy outside the classroom to athletics or youth gangs or to
other areas where he can experience the satisfaction of success. The student who has been
negatively evaluated in the classroom rationalizes that school is not important to him
because he believes it is impossible for him to succeed there.
If a student is to continue to expect to do well in school, he needs to receive some positive
evaluations for his academic performance. If an individual is to develop a positive concept of
himself as a student, he needs to perform competently and to receive evaluations that he
interprets to be positive within his own frame of reference. When the student is perceived
as a less competent learner, forces are set in motion that reduce the chances that his
potential will be developed to its fullest extent in school. The other students and his
teachers may come to view him as having less potential than he really has. The academic
goals he sets for himself and those that are set for him by his well-intentioned teachers may
not sufficiently challenge his true abilities. A student may divert his own personal resources
to non academic areas because he believes that success in academic subjects is not open to
him. If he does not apply his maximum efforts to learning school subjects, he may fail to
acquire some of the skills and knowledge he needs as a basis for further learning.
Sub questions
96. A student, who is consistently poor performer in the class room, will
(1) Strive hard to achieve his goals later.
(2) Lower the image of the school in his eyes.
(3) Aggressively complete with classmates outside the school
(4) Not expect much success in the school.
97. What is the likely impact of negative evaluation of the student in the classroom?
(1) He will be jealous of his classmates.
(2) He will divert his attention to other fields for success.
(3) He will perform well in athletics.
(4) He gets into a state of depression.
98. Positive evaluation of a student's academic performance will help him to

(1) perform well in future also
(2) take up athletics
(3) make friends

(4) be considered as a role model by other students
99. When a student is considered as less than competent what can be the outcome?
(1) He may feel that his potential is not properly assessed.
(2) He may think that others do not want him to succeed in academics.
(3) Others in the school may rate his potential less than what he actually possesses.
(4) He may divert his personal resources to non-academic areas.
100. The gist of the passage is that

(1) A less competent student should seek his future in areas other than academics.
(2) He should put maximum efforts to have a successful academic performance.
(3) Teachers should motivate him to use his personal resources properly.
(4) He should evaluate his own skills and knowledge as against teacher’s expectations.
Much is still unknown about human behavior, Unanswered questions remain and further
research is necessary. Knowledge about motivation, leader behavior, and change will
continue to be of great concern to practitioners of management for several reasons: It can
help improve the effective leadership of human resources; it can help in preventing
resistance to change, restriction to output, and personnel disputes; and often it can lead to
a more productive organization. Our intention has been to provide a conceptual framework
that may be useful to you in applying the conclusions of the behavior sciences. The value
that a framework of this kind has is not in changing one's knowledge, but in changing one's
behavior in working with people.
We have discussed three basic competencies in influencing: diagnosing - being able to
understand and interpret the situation you are attempting to influence; adapting - being
able to adapt your behavior and the resources you control to the contingencies of the
situation; and communicating - being able to put the message in such a way that people can
easily understand and accept it. Each of these competencies is different and requires a
different developmental approach. For example, diagnosing is cognitive or of the mind in
nature and requires thinking skills; adapting is behavioral in nature and requires behavioral
practice; and communicating is process-oriented and requires learning and interrelating the

key steps in the process. Because these three competencies require different knowledge
and skills, how do we continue the process that we started with.
The key to starting the process of changing behavior is sharing what you have learned with
other people in your own organization. Two things occur when people who work together
all have a common language, First, they are able to give each other feedback and help in a
very rational, unemotional way that effects behavior.
Second, when followers start to realize that if their manager is using situational leadership,
it is not the manager, but their behavior, that determines the leadership style to be used
with them.
Sub questions
101. Which of the; following prohibits resistance to change?
1. Knowledge of leader behaviour
2. Removing restriction on output
3. Personnel disputes
4. Non-productive organisation
102. What is the value outcome of applying a theoretical framework of

behavioural science?
1. Changes in one's own knowledge
2. Change in one's behavior while working with others
3. Not understandable human behaviour
4. Emergence of value-loaded framewok
103. Each of the basic competencies needs

1. Exclusivity
2. Situational contingency
3., Inter-relation with others
4. A different approach in acquiring it
104. What prompts a change in a person's behaviour?

1, Leadership style
2. Situational support to the managers
3.

3, Sharing of learning outcomes with others in the organization
4, Segregation of competencies
105. The inferences that can be drawn from the passage are
A. Common language among people in an organization will ensure unbiased feedback
B. People are known for fluctuating behaviour
C. People's behaviour influences the leader
D. Emotions and human behaviour are separate and easily explicable
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. A and C only
If the vision of the learner in the initial period was predominantly as an empty organism and
in the next as an active organism, in the period that followed it was as a social organism, The
beliefs regarding the nature of the learner in the first period drew heavily from the
associationist view of the human being in the second from the Gestalt and personalistic
views; later they also drew from the emerging social psychological and group dynamic
views.
The child as learner as envisioned as a social organism, and learning was perceived as
occurring through interpersonal actions and reactions, each person in the classroom serving
as a stimulus for every other person, It is hard to overemphasize the impact on the
classroom of the "group climate" concepts and studies by Lewin and his associates
beginning in the late 1930sr which were given added cogency by the ideological issues of
World War II. Innumerable treatises, textbooks, and programs applied these ideas and
findings to the classroom, and such terms as "authoritarian", 'democratic", and "laissez-
faire' became, for good or ill, integral parts of the educational vocabulary, Experimenters in
the learning laboratory became concerned with such previously unheard-of matters as
"interpersonal cohesion' and 'small group processes", and teachers in the classroom with
"sociometric structure" and 'group dynamics',
Concomitant changes in the image of the ideal classroom could again be observed. If the
child is primarily a social organism, then the objectives of his education should be primarily
social in character, And if learning is a social or group process, then a circular or group-
centred classroom where everyone faces everyone else (as once they had been forced to

face only the teacher) is the most sensible and practical, even necessary, learning
environment. And this indeed became a favourite image of the classroom.
Sub questions
106. The first vision of the child as a learner was
1. Personalistic
2. Social
3. Humanistic
4. Associatianistic
107. In the social organistic view, learning occurred through

1, Each individual acting as a stimulus
2, Reactionary measures
3, A non-competitive environment
4, Each person holding fort for others
108. The group climate of the classroom got reinforced by

1. Social issues
2. Ideological issues
3. Inter-personal issues
4. Individual issues
109. In the learning laboratory, the focus shifted to

1, Production of textbooks
2, Creation of educational vocabulary
3, Democratisation of the process
4, Understanding group dynamics
110. The author of the passage is in favour of the idea of

1. Vertical learning
2. Laboratory learning

3. Circular learning
4. Teacher-focussed learning
Birds are under severe stress and strain because of human activities and many of them are
facing a threat to their survival. The threats come in various ways, such as habitat loss and
damage to ecosystems, agricultural and industrial activities and issues like pesticide
poisoning and effluent discharges, urbanization and to some extent, hunting and pet trade.
A study has noted both long-term and recently recorded annual losses. Some species which
were categorised as being of "least concern" by the International Union for Conservation of
Nature (IUCN) were found to be seriously endangered. There are reasons for "high concern"
over 52% of the species which figured in the study. Some geographical areas present greater
threats to them than others. Some species which are found in the Western and the Eastern
Ghats are fast dwindling. The Western Ghats, a great home for many birds, have seen the
numbers of some of them dwindle as much as 75% in the last two decades. The ecological
changes in the Terai grasslands in Northern India have adversely affected birds endemic to
them and many migratory species.
Amidst the bleak news, one bright sport is about the sparrows which had disappeared from
cities but are now found to be stable in numbers in other areas. That shows some resilience
but the conditions that helped them to survive may not be available to other birds.
Protection of habitats and other steps to save the birds should get high priority. We are yet
to realise that the disappearance of birds from nature or the diminution of their numbers
will make life difficult for us. Nature and life-forms that it supports are crucially dependent
on each other and the link should not be snapped.
Sub questions
111. The survival of birds in the ecosystem is under threat because of

(1) conflict with nature
(2) increased population
(3) growing international concerns
(4) fast rate of developmental activities
112. Most of species have fallen into the category of being

(1) highly endangered
(2) of least concern
(3) of moderate concern

(4) useful for survival of man
113. The fast paced dwindling of certain unique species of birds can be seen
(1) all over the country
(2) in some sensitive biological hotspots in the country
(3) in specific geographical areas
(4) in the grasslands of the Terai region
114. What is one of the positive signs in view of these concerns?

(1) migration of birds to grasslands
(2) climate change for better
(3) increase in protective habitats
(4) stability of survival in areas other than urban
115. The message flowing from the passage is that

(1) man is manipulating nature
(2) it is time to take international reports on bird extinction seriously
(3) all life forms on the planet are inter-dependent
(4) resilient conditions have not improved the future of birds.
ANSWER KEY 2018 Dec-2019Dec: READING COMPREHENSION

1 4 31 3 61 3 91 1 121 3
2 3 32 3 62 2 92 3 122 2
3 1 33 2 63 4 83 2 123 1
4 4 34 4 64 4 94 3 124 4
5 1 35 1 65 3 95 2 125 2
6 3 36 3 66 2 96 2 126 2,3
7 1 37 4 67 3 97 1 127 3
8 3 38 4 68 1 98 1 128 2
9 2 39 4 69 4 99 4 129 3
10 4 40 1 70 3 100 3 130 2

11 4 41 2 71 1 101 3 131 1
12 3 42 3 72 3 102 2 132 2
13 2 43 1 73 2 103 3 133 3
14 4 44 1 74 4 104 4 134 4
15 4 45 4 75 2 105 1 135 1
16 4 46 2 76 3 106 3 136 4
17 3 47 1 77 4 107 2 137 2
18 2 48 3 78 1 108 3 138 3
19 3 49 4 79 4 109 4 139 3
20 4 50 4 80 2 110 4 140 4
21 2 51 2 81 2 111 2 141 3
22 1 52 4 82 3 112 1 142 1
23 3 53 1 83 4 113 3 143 2
24 4 54 3 84 1 114 4 144 4
25 2 55 2 85 4 115 3 145 2
26 2 56 2 86 2 116 4 146 2
27 1 57 1 87 4 117 2 147 2
28 3 58 4 88 3 118 3 148 3
29 3 59 3 89 2 119 3 149 4
30 1 60 1 90 1 120 4 150 3
Answer Key 2020 June

1.4 21.1 41.2 61.2 81.2 101.1
2.1 22.2 42.3 62.1 82.1 102.2
3.3 23.3 43.1 63.3 83.3 103.4
4.3 24.4 44.3 64.4 84.4 104.3
5.4 25.2 45.2 65.1 85.3 105.4
6.2 26.3 46.2 66.2 86.4 106.4
7.3 27.4 47.3 67.3 87.1 107.1
8.4 28.1 48.4 68.1 88.3 108.2
9.1 29.1 49.2 69.3 89.2 109.4
10.2 30.4 50.1 70.2 90.4 110.3

11.3 31.2 51.2 71.4 91.2 111.4
12.2 32.1 52.4 72.2 92.2 112.1
13.1 33.4 53.3 73.4 93.4 113.2,3
14.3 34.2 54.1 74.1 94.3 114.4
15.2 35.4 55.2 75.2 95.4 115.3
16.2 36.3 56.4 76.2 96.4
17.4 37.? 57.3 77.1 97.2
18.3 38.4 58.2 78.2 98.1
19.1 39.? 59.1 79.3 99.3
20.2 40.3 60.4 80.4 100.2
COMMUNICATION
COMMUNICATION 2018 DEC – 2019 DEC
2018 December||Adult Education| Anthropology| Chinese| Comparative Literature|
1.Signs are considered as secondary products of :
1. Message
2. Channelisation
3. Semantic accuracy

4. Infotainment
2.The relational approach in classroom communication comes from :

1. intra-personal communication
2. Inter-personal communication
3. Organisational communication
4. Mass communication
3.Classroom speech is considered as a :

1. Technical medium
2. Non-technical medium
3. Mass medium
4. Unorganised medium
4.In a classroom, communication becomes effective when participants are

(a) Active
(b) Empathetic
(c) Heterophilous
(d) Homophilous
(e) Silent
(f) Uncritical
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
2. (b), (c) (d) and (e)
3. (a), (b), and (d)
4. (c), (e) and (f)
5.The information seeking strategies of students are :

(a) Entropy-oriented (b) Overt
(c) Non-functional (d) Indirect

(e) Third party
1. (a), (b), (d) and (e)

2. (b), (c), (e) and (f)
3. (b), (d), (e) and (f)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (f)
2018 December|| Arab Culture and Islamic Studies| Bengali | Bodo | Environmental
Sciences | Hindi
6. Persuasive communication in a classroom intends to make people accept a particular
Options
1. Verbal noise
2. Verbal jugglery
3. Position
4. Disorientation
7. Effective communication inside the classroom leads to :

(a) Problem - solving strategies (b) lntensive — knowledge
(c) Extensive – knowledge (d) Uncontrolled discourses
(e) Vertical communication
1. (a) (b) and (c)

2. (b) (c) and (d)
3. (c) (d) and (e)
4, (d) (e) and (a)
8.Educational broadcasting suffers from the factor of

1.Extended interactivity
2. Automated communication
3. Attention span

4. Internal-external monopoly
9.Assertion (A) : Questioning is a primary tool of classroom communication for teachers

when they lead discussions.
Reason (R) : Student learning is the major motive of teachers, made possible by questions
and answers.
1. Both (A) and (R) are true.
2..Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
4 (A) is false, but (R) is true.
10.When students and teachers involve in communication the purposes are

(a) To develop professional working relationship
(b) To create a participatory environment in the classroom
(c) To engage in out-of-classroom interaction
(d) To seek teachers’ intervention Ln personal matters
(e) To control teachers’ attitude towards students
1. (a) (b) and (c)
2. (a) (d) and (e)
3. (b) (c) and (d
4. (c) (d) and (e)
11.In communicating in a classroom situation which one of the following approaches will be
considered most appropriate
1 . Assertive and conformist

2. Technical and domineering
3. Personal and emulative
4. Empathetic and pragmatic

12.Which of the following constitute the paralanguage in communication ? Select from the
code to indicate your answer.
(a) Pitch of the voice
(b) lnternal noise
(c) External noise
(d) Use of pauses
(e) Rate and volume of speech
1. (a) (b) and (c)
2. (b) (c) and (d)
3. (a) (c) and (e)
4. (a) (d) and (e)
13.Which of the following would influence the effectiveness of communication in classroom

instruction in a critical way ?
1. Subject knowledge of the teacher
2. Academic intelligence and personality characteristics of the teacher
3.Teaching style preferred by the teacher while transacting
4. leaching aids used by the teacher while making presentations
14.A teacher decides to form six groups of students and assigns a sub-theme to each group
for discussion and reporting. Which kind of communication model will best describe his |
her strategy in this regard ?
1. Linear model
2. Horizontal model
3. lnteractional model
4. Transactional model
15.Which of the following is a powerful determinant for effective assertive communication

whether written or spoken
1. ‘You’ messages

2. ‘We’ messages
3. 'They' messages
4. 'I' message
2018 December|| Archaeology| Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies| Dance| Folk
Literature| Forensic Science| French| Hindustani Music| History| Karnatik Music|
16.When students place themselves close to certain communication sources, it will lead to
1.Source domination
2. Selective exposure
3. Negative choices
4. Impersonal behaviour
17.Assertion (A) : Classroom communication involves the clear decoding of messages by the
students.
Reason (R) : By increasing redundancy, we can improve the fidelity of communication.
2. (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
18.Fleeting changes that occur in facial expressions of teachers in a classroom are described
as
1. Significant - momentary movements
2. Informational - momentary movements
3. Macro - momentary movements
4. Micro - momentary movements
19.Identify the correct sequence of decoding process of communication in the classroom.

1. Evaluation, Interpretation, Sensory involvement, Feedback
2. Feedback, Sensory involvement, Interpretation, Evaluation
3. Sensory involvement, Interpretation, Evaluation, Feedback

4.Interpretation, Evaluation, Feedback, Sensory involvement
20.Match the following :

Given below are two sets. Set -1 embodies the types of communication while Set - II
provides their exemplification. Select your answer from the code given :
Set – I (Types of Communication) Set – II (Exemplification)

(i) Members are given themes tin which they
(a) Linear communication
are required to hold discussion.
(ii) A teacher in the classroom presents a
(b) Interactive communication
structured content
(iii) The principal of a college holds the staff
(c) Transactional communication
meeting for understanding their problems.
(iv) The teacher and students in a college go
on rampage
options a b c
1. iii i ii
2. iv ii iii
3. ii iii i
4 i iv iii

21.In verbal communication words act as :
1. Tillers
2. Decora Lives
3. Symbols
4 Passive barriers
22.Modern educational communication is described as :

1. Teleologic
2. Non-distributive
3. Un-approximate

4. Telescopic
23.Effective classroom communication would help students internalise :

(a) Knowledge (b) Subject matter
(c) Articulation (d) Language felicity
(e) Non-responsiveness (f) Modalities of resistance
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
2. (b), (c), (d) and (e)
3. (c), (d), (e) and (f)
4. (a), (d), (e) and (f)
24.The challe nging behaviours of students as related to communication are :

(a) purposive challenges (b) critical challenges
(c) procedural challenges (d) evaluation challenges
(e) practicality challenges (f) power challenges
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
2. (b), (c), (d) and (f)
3. (c), (d), (e) and (f)
4. (d), (e), (f) and (a)
25.Classroom communication has a basis in :

1. Audience fragmentation
2. Non-informative cues
3. Attention diversion
4. Intensive listener focus
26.To communicate effectively with students, teachers should use :
(a) Affinity-seeking strategies
(b) Immediacy behaviours

(c) Humour
(d) Collaborative filters
Choose most appropriate code :
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (c) and (d)
3. (a) and (d) only
4. (a), (b) and (c)
27.Internal cues of non-verbal behaviour in the classroom help diagnose :

1. Inter-personal dynamics
2. Spatial proximation
3.. Mass beliefs
4. Student movement
28.Assertion (A) : Classroom communication behaviours imply making the contents

relevant.
Reason (R) : lt is none of the functions of teachers to make students organise information
for effective interaction.
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
29.Communication variables involved in 21 model of performance are :

(a) Encoding
(b) Decoding

(c) Passive resistance
(d) Channelisation
(e) lndifference
Select the correct option from the code given below :

1. (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
2. (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
3. (a), (c) and (d) only
4. (a), (b) and (d) only
30.In pre-learning preparation, an important stage of communication is :

1. information acquisition and its processing
2.iconisation of encoder
3.ignoring semantic noise
4.Conditioned feedback

Studies|
31.Which of the following sequence correctly depicts the linear communication model
between teacher and students.
1. Encode —> Symbols —> Message —> Channel
2. Channel —> Message —> Symbols —> Encode
3. Message —> Channel —> Symbols —> Encode
4. Symbols —> Message —> Encode —> Channel
32.A university teacher makes a very effective expository presentation in his|her class
without

1. Linear Communication Model
2. Interactive Communication Model
3. Transactional Communication Model
4. Authoritarian Communication Model
33.Below are given two sets. Set - I specifies the sensory modes while Set - II offer
illustration of speech communication to go with them. Match the two sets and indicate your
answer by selecting the appropriate code.
Set – I (Sensory modes) Set- II (Illustrative speech)
(a) Sight mode (i) It leaves a bad taste in my mouth.
(b) Hearing mode (ii) I can't put my finger on the problem.
(c) Touch mode (iii) Something is fishy.
(d) Smell mode (iv) That looks good to me.
(e) Taste mode (v) That sounds line to me.
Options :
a b c d
1. (iv) (v) (iii) (i)
2. (i) (ii) (iv) (v)
3. (ii) (iii) (v) (i)
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
34.Which of the following is a powerful indicator of mis-communication in a classroom

transaction ?
1. Volley of questions relevant to the subject.
2. 'Yawninef by most of the students.
3. Purposely non-participative moves of students.

4. Volley of questions irrelevant to the subject.
35.In which model of communication 'noises' are introduced as an important variable ?

1. Linear Model of Communication
2. Participative Model of Communication
3. Transactional Model of Communication
4. Assertive Model of Communication

Sindhi| Telugu|
36.in classroom communication, analogies are considered :
1. Supporting evidence
2. Unwanted information
3. Control devices
4. Attention-breakers
37.Assertion (A) : Empathy is essential for effective communication between the

communicator and die communicatee.
Reason (R) : Empathy links the teacher and students.
1. Both (A) and (R) are true

2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. (A) is false but (R) is true
38.Computer - assisted language learning is called :

1. Aided learning
2. Communicative call

3. Language logic
4. Electronic mediation
39. The word haptics denotes :

1. Spatial communication
2. Timely communication
3. Staggered communication
4. Tactile communication
40.Social media platforms have created a :

1.Society of reactionary opinions
2.. Society of consumables
3. Society of negativity
4. Society of networking
2018 December || English| Sanskrit Traditional Subjects| Social Work| Visual Art| Yoga
41.In the digital era, there is a fear that classroom communication may result in
1. Stimulation
2. Over-stimulation
3. Quick adaptation
4. Passive adaptation
42.Non- verbal communication

1. Precise
2. Informal
3. Formal
4. Culture-free

43.Negative criticism as an element of classroom communication will lead to
(a) External sympathy (b) Justification
(c) Defensiveness (d) De- motivation
(e) Supportive listening (f) Confrontational empathy
1. (b), (c) and (d)

2. (c), (d) and (e)
3. (d) (e) and (f)
4. (a), (b) and (c)
44.Assertion (A) : Teacher communication is central to classroom management.
Reason (R) : Teacher communication behaviours should not be used to regulate the
classroom behaviour of students.
1. Both (A) and (R) are true
45.The rhetorical approach in classroom communication considers teachers as agents of

students.
1. Influencing
2. Academic
3. Official
4. Non-official

46.Feedback makes the classroom communication process :
(a) Linear (b) Circular
(c) Complete (d) Interactive
(e) Disorganised
1. (b), (c) and (d)

2. (c), (d) and (e)
3. (d), (e) and (a)
4. (e), (a) and (b)
47.Iconic production of classroom communication includes :

1. Telephone
2. E-mail
3. Graphics
4. Scripting
48.The primary bases of inter-personal power in relation to classroom communication are

(a) Coercive power (b) Reward power
(c) Referent power (d) Legitimate power
(e) Recreational power
1. (a) and (e)
2. (a), (c) and (e)
3. (b), (d) and (e)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
49.Assertion (A) : Making good predictions in classroom communication may become

difficult.
Reason (R) : It happens when interactions with students takes place at superficial level.
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true
50.It is estimated that the meaning derived by the students from non-verbal communication
in relation to verbal communication is more.
1. 1/3

2. 2/3
3. 1/6
4. 2/7
2019 June || Adult Education | Anthropology| Chinese| Comparative Literature|

51.Semantic barrier of communication is implied when the

(1) signal is lost before reaching the receiver
(2) message transmitted by the source is unclear
(3) receiver’s attention is diverted
(4) receiver does not understand the meaning of the message
52.Which of the following signifies non-verbal communication in

an essential way?
(1) Instructions written on a question paper
(2) Learner attending an online class
(3) The dress code followed by an individual
(4) Yoga instructor teaching yoga poses to the pupils
53.Assertion (A) : Communication presupposes a shared, symbolic environment, a social

relationship even among non-participants
Reason (R): It leads to social interaction, which in combination with other factors
contributes to a sense of community.
Choose the correct option given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

54.Which of the following is a stage of intrapersonal communication?
(1) Phatic stage
(2) Intimate stage
(3) Personal stage
(4) Transcendental communication
55.Which of the following is a characteristic of modern mass media?

(1) Capital intensive
(2) Labour intensive
(3) Sustainable
(4) Developmental
2019 June||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies | Bengali| Bodo| Environmental Sciences|
Hindi|
56.The cognitive domain of communication involves matters
related to
(1) Emotions
(2) Knowledge
(3) Fantasy
(4) Escapism
57.In a classroom, a student to be an effective listener, has to take note of

(a) The teacher appearance
(b) The peer group
(c) The academic content
(d) Communication distractions
(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (d) and (c)
58.Since most interactions with other people take place at a highly superficial level, making
good____ becomes difficult.
(1) Course corrections
(2) Predictions
(3) Deeds
(4) Announcements
59.In both mass communication and classroom communication, filtering of information and
contents is referred to as
(1) Rationalisation
(2) Gate keeping
(3) Content correction
(4) One — way flow
60.Assertion (A) : No enculturation takes place with resistance

Reason (R) : People have their own values and self — interest that filter communicated
messages
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
2019 June|| Arabic | Geography| Gujarati| Nepali| Psychology| Punjabi|

61.Assertion (A): Media entertainment does not enhance the cultural level of society.
Reason (R): Most media entertainment encourages escapism, not content quality

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true. and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
62.Communication through colours can result in

(a) Aesthetic codes (b) Cultural codes
(c) Semantic codes (d) Binary codes
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (a) and (b)
63.In the communication process, signs derive meanings through

(1) The subjectivity of various components
(2) The objectivity of the decoder
(3) The network of inter-relations

(4) The neutrality of the channel
64.Language of communication also constitutes

(1) The random world
(2) The social world
(3) The divine world
(4) The unsanctified world
65.Connotative communication inside the classroom is

(1) Direct
(2) Critical
(3) Implicit

(4) Explicit
2019 June || Archaeology | Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies| Forensic
Science| French| History| Kashmiri| Konkani| Linguistics| Mass Communication and
Journalism| Museology and Conservation| Music Rabindra Sangeet| Pali| Performing Art
(Dance Drama Theatre)| Persian| Prakrit| Russian| Santali| Spanish
66.Assertion (A) : The correlation function of mass media is vital for any society.
Reasons (R) : The interpretational aspects that include advertising and public relations shape
and influence public opinion.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
67.Some of the barriers to effective communication are

(a) Polysemy
(b) Simple language
(c) Use of Cliche’s

(d) Easy construction of sentences

(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)
68.In a classroom, use of communication technology pre-supposes

(1) Inattentive audience
(2) Luxurious ambience
(3) Extrapolation of contents

(4) New forms of expression and applications
69.In a classroom, content produced for a specific user will lead to

(1) personality development
(2) content filtering
(3) personalisation
(4) general academic integration
70.The sequential order of elements in classroom communication is

(1) knowledge, interest, evaluation, awareness
(2) awareness, interest, evaluation, knowledge
(3) evaluation, awareness, knowledge, interest
(4) interest, knowledge, evaluation, awareness
2019 June ||Assamese | Computer Science and Applications| Criminology| Human Rights
71.The dance of the honeybee conveying to other bees where nector will be found is an
example of
(1) Mass communication
(2) Group communication
(3) Interpersonal communication
(4) Intrapersonal communication
72.Choose the correct sequence of communication from the options given below :
(1) Information -> exposure -> persuasion –>behavioural change
(2) Persuasion -> information -> behavioural change -> exposure
(3) Exposure —> information -> persuasion -> behavioural change
(4) Behavioural change -> information -> persuasion -> exposure

73.Which of the following is a function of mass media?
(1) To transmit culture
(2) To formulate national policies
(3) To help the judiciary take its decisions
(4) To stabilise the share market
74.In a classroom situation, a teacher organises group discussion to help arrive at a solution
of a problem. In terms of a model of communication used, it will be called
(1) A transactional model
(2) An interaction model
(3) A horizontal model
(4) A linear model
75.Today’s media-society equation is largely

(1) Mystical
(2) Morally bound
(3) Consumer conscious

(4) Tradition centric
2019 June ||Commerce

76.In the context of a classroom teaching ‘Smiles or Frowns' when used as non-verbal cues,
tend to perform which of the following basic functions?
(1) contradicting the verbal cue function
(2) regulating the verbal cue function
(3) substitute function
(4) supplement function

77.Below are given two sets in which Set I describes the types of listener involved in
communication, while Set II indicates their characteristics :
Set-I (Types of listener Set-11 (Characteristics)
involved in
communication)
(a) Non Listener (i) is engaged in information other than the one needed
(b) Marginal Listener (ii) receives information without processing the significance in
the context of communication
(c) Evaluative Listener (iii) looks into the relevance of the information for
understanding its implication
(d) Active Listener (iv) pays heed to the communicated information occasionally
Match the two sets and give your answer by choosing from the option
(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
2 (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
3 (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
4 (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
78.Non-verbal communication is mostly

(1) Mechanical
(2) Organic
(3) Unstructured
(4) Structured
79.Which of the following principles a good communicator should follow?

(a) He should stay organized
(b) He should avoid the use of visuals
(c) He should be authoritarian
(d) He must adjust to the medium
(e) He should prefer the method of story-telling
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (e)

(3) (b), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (d) and (e)
80.Which of the following elements a good classroom communication should adopt?

(a) Concreteness
(b) Courtesy
(c) Filibustering
(d) Fictionalisation
(e) Coherence
Choose the answer from the options given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (b), (d) and (e)
(3) (a), (b) and (e)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
2019 June ||Defence and Strategic Studies | Dogri| Economics| Electronic Science
|Marathi| Percussion Instruments| Politics (including International Relations and
Studies)| Rajasthani| Sanskrit| Social Medi-cine and Community Health| Tribal and
Regional Language Literature| Women Studies
81.Which of the following are barriers to effective communication?
(a) Physical noise
(b) Semantic noise
(c) Psychological noise
(d) Non semantic noise

(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)

82. “Non-content behaviours such as rate of speaking, loudness, tendency to interrupt and
pronunciation peculiarities' are referred to as behaviour.
(1) Extra-personal
(2) Animated
(3) Extra linguistic
(4) Involuntary
83.In a classroom, delayed feedback can happen due to

(1) Use of technology
(2) Expanded communication
(3) Semantic noise
(4) Participatory environment
84.In analog communication, contents are considered to be

(1) Convergent
(2) Static
(3) Physical
(4) Ethereal
85.Match the following
Set-II (Description of process
Set-I (Communication elements)
part)
(a) Sender (i) Brain
(b) Receiver (ii) Electro-magnetic impulses
(e) Message (iii) The central nervous system
(d) Medium (iv) Sensory organs

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

2019 June || Education | Kannada| Law| Population Studies| Public Administration|
Sindhi| Telugu
86.Assertion (A) : Communication has the power to inform, persuade and misinform.
Reason (R) : Propaganda blurs the thin line between truth and falsehood to be persuasive
87.A basic principle of effective class room communication is that one should adapt his or
her own to the audience.
Which of the following would replace the gap?
(1) Accent
(2) Exterior
(3) Message
(4) Mannerism
88.A key element for effective classroom communication is

(1) Passivity
(2) Negativity
(3) Deflection
(4) Advocacy
89.In communication process, body language is associated with

(1) A culture
(2) A movie audience
(3) A classroom situation

(4) A subject taught
90.Local and face-to face communication is referred to as

(1) Clinical integration
(2) Demonstrative integration
(3) Social integration
(4) Spatial integration
2019 June ||English | Sanskrit Traditional Subjects|Visual Art|Yoga

91.Mass media do not have pre-determined functions for everyone and people use them
the way they like. This is suggestive of the fact that,
(1) Audiences are active
(2) Content is of little significance
(3) Content lacks plurality
(4) Audiences are homogeneous
92.In the context of communication, usual sequence is

(1) Language —> Communication —> Society —> Civilization
(2) Communication —> Society —> Language —> Civilization
(3) Communication —> Language —> Society —> Civilization
(4) Language —> Society —> Communication —> Civilization
93.Match Set A with Set B

A (Media) B (Transmission|Communication)
(a) Audio (i) Bandwidth
(b) Advertising (ii) Linear communication
(c) Internet (iii) Non personal Communication
(d) Newspaper (iv) Frequency modulation
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
94.A communication process can be considered complete when

(1) The sender transmits the message
(2) The message enters the channel
(3) The message leaves the channel
(4) The receiver understands the message
95.A customer writes to a bank, ‘Kindly send me a statement of my transactions in my

savings bank account ‘A’ during the last three months”. In terms of communication it will be
called
(1) Input
(2) Message
(3) Output
(4) Feedback
2019 June ||Malayalam | Political Science|Sociology|Tamil

96.We listen attentively to and favourably interpret messages which boost our self image,
and reject or misinterpret messages which threaten that image. This is called:
(1) communication selectivity
(2) change resistance
(3) image rationalisation
(4) communication distortion
97.Gate keeping by media to ensure what audiences consume is indicative of

(1) The audiences’ voice in media programming
(2) Media's control on society
(3) Feedback received by the media
(4) Media’s role in creating culture

98.Assertion (A) : The 'arts' have grown out of the fundamental desire and need to
communicate
Reason (R): Language is inseparable from culture which is its very source of sustenance and
fundamental to communication
Choose the correct option:
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
99.Which of the following is a characteristic of interpersonal communication?

(1) It is both focused and unfocused
(2) It is not participation friendly
(3) It is philosophical
(4) It is metaphorical
100.A teacher while offering feedback in a classroom transaction utters ‘No, you are
incorrect'. This will be called which type of feedback?
(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Confirmatory
(4) Corrective

101.Choose the person Who has control over self, mode of communication and method of
delivery in class room from the following :
(1) Student

(2) Teacher
(3) Audience
(4) Visitor
102.Which of the following groups has the components of paralanguage communication"

(1) Voice, Emphasis and Impression
(2) Social Space, Voice and Impression
(3) Voice, Social Space and Expression
(4) Emphasis, Social Space and Voice
103.Select the advantage of feedback in the process of communication. from the following :
(1) It is beneficial in understanding of the subject matter
(2) It diagnoses the defects in receiver
(3) It clarifies the communication
(4) It explores the defects in receiver

104.Given below are two statements - one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Assertion (A) : A blog is a form of social media.
Reason (R) : A blog allows anyone to communicate to a public audience.
In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option :

105.Identify the communication which is valid as documentary evidence from the following
(1) Written Communication
(2) Verbal Communication
(3) Gestural Communication
(4) Non - verbal Communication
106.Identify the Ways that would be followed by a public sector organization to

communicate with public by organizing an open house :
(a) Publicity
(b) Lobbying
(c) Public relations
(d) Image building
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

107.Match the following communication channels with their distinguishing type :
(Communication Channel) (Distinguishing
Type)
(a) Blogging (i) Electronic Media
(b) Television (ii) Print Media
(c) Periodicals (iii) Social Media
(d) Collection sites (iv) World wide web
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
108.Match the following types of communication with their distinguishing examples

(Types of Communication) (Distinguishing Example)
(a) Formal Communication (i) Government agencies
(b) Informal Communication (ii) Circular
(c) Outward Communication (iii) Memos
(d) Inward Communication (iv) Group chain
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
2019 December ||Arabic | Geography|Gujarati|Nepali|Psychology|Punjabi

109.Micro expressions. as part of classroom communication. are
(1) negative
(2) positive
(3) manipulative
(4) fleeting

110.Which of the following are essential for good classroom communication?
(a) Over-emphasis on certain Words (d) Immediacy of feedback
(b) Use of gobbledygook (e) Non-verbal cues
(c) Proper employment of redundancy (f) Side lining student criticism
Choose the correct option from the following :
(1) (a),(b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (f)
(3) (c), (d) and (e)
(4) (d), (e) and (f)
111.Pitch of the teacher's voice in the classroom is described as

(1) Linguistic
(2) Paralinguistic
(3) Non-linguistic
(4) Macro-linguistic
112.Given below are two statements — One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : If a teacher wants to improve his or her abilities as an effective classroom
communicator he or she should first understand the students.
Reasons (R) : The ability to understand students and intended listening are disjointed
propositions.
In the light of the above two statements. choose the correct option from the following :

113.Dynamics of good classroom communication involves :
(a) Indifference (d) Exclusivity
(b) Motivation (e) Participation
(c) Being organised (f) Gendered views
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (e)
(4) (c), (e) and (f)
114.Instructional communication in the distance education mode is

(1) unstructured
(2) self-regulatory
(3) informal
(4) structured and interactive
115.A teacher tells his students — ‘When you learn this. you will be able to carry out your
project What does this communication suggest‘?
(1) Continued interest
(2) Ambiguous advice
(3) Potential threat
(4) Positive reinforcement

116.The principles of effective Writing useful for both students and teachers are
(a) Stress on hyperboles (b) Liberal use of adjectives
(c) Clarity (d) Conciseness
(e) Correctness (f) Use of complex sentences
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c), (d) and (e)
(4) (d), (e) and (f)
117.Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Assertion (A) : Communication does not include all human behaviour for exchange of
information
Reasons (R) : Communication involves the use of all five senses
2019 December ||Assamese | Computer Science and Applications|Criminology|Human

Rights And Duties|Odia|Social Work|Urdu
118.When there is an animated discussion between a teacher and his or her students in the
classroom, it can be classified as :
(1) Horizontal communication
(2) Mechanical communication
(3) Linear communication
(4) Categorical communication

119.Information overload in a classroom environment by a teacher mil lead to
(1) High level participation
(2) Semantic precision
(3) Effective impression
(4) Delayed feedback
120.A verbal communication technique used in teaching is

(1) Slow expression of words
(2) Varying the speed of voice and tone
(3) Presentation without pause
(4) Resorting to semantic jugglery
121.Which of the following inodes of communication can he employed in a classroom for

effective teaching?
(a) Top-down (b) Iconic
(c) Associational (d) Dissociational
(e) Symbolic (f) Abstract
Choose the most appropriate option from the following :
(1) (a), (b) and (f)
(2) (c), (e) and (f)
(3) (b), (c) and (e)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
122.Given below are two Statements - One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Use of slang in formal teaching makes communication lively and interesting.
Reasons (R) : Academic decency demands the avoidance of slang in the classroom
environment.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct option :

(2) Both ( A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

123.If data has been recorded using technical media, which among the following is a
necessary step on the way to its interpretation?
1 Transcription
2 Structural Equation Modelling
3 Sequential Analysis
4 Sampling
124.Successful educational communication is dependent upon the skills of

(a) Understanding the negative characteristics of the audience
(b) Verbal communication and body language
(c) Estimating time for audience impact
(d) Analyzing the audience needs
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (c) and (d) only
4. (b) and (d) only
125.Which of the following will help overcome communication barriers?

1. Focused listening
2. Neglecting semantic noise
3. Top-down command structure
4. Use of cliched idioms

126.Effective educational communication is
1. Non-reciprocal
2. Repetitive
3. Continuous
4. Coercive
127.Which of the following theories can be applied to classroom communication?

1. Theory of Social Constructivism
2. Audience Marginalization Theory
3. Ritualistic Theory
4. Theory of Hegemony
128.Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Pedagogy and social interaction are two major result-oriented activities of a
teacher
Reason (R): Communication has a limited role in both these activities
In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option from those given below
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
2019 December || Defence and Strategic Studies|Dogri|Economics|Electronic Science|

Health|Tribal and Regional Language Literature| Women Studies
129.Communication in the classroom takes place in which of the following levels?
(1) Opportunistic meaning
(2) Surfacial meaning
(3) Noise level meaning
(4) Non-coded meaning

130.Effective classroom communication can transform
(1). academic administration
(2). academic marketing
(3). teaching—learning process
(4). management strategies
131.Learner communication has relatively high potential of challenging

(1). Teaching as profession
(2). Innovative and creative ideas
(3). Methods of evaluation
(4). Long-held attitudes
132.Which of the following are rhetorical techniques for structuring classroom

communication?
(a). Relating the day's topic to students' interests
(b). Providing scattered information to the target audience
(c). Smooth transition from one idea to another
(d). Avoiding the use of artifacts
(e). Using media to improve the quality aspect of reception of messages
(f). Opting for one-way communication
Choose the correct option from the choices given below :
(1). (a), (b) and (c)
(2). (b), (c) and (f)
(3). (a), (c) and (e)
(4). (d), (e) and (f)

133.Given below are two statements — one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Assertion (A) : Defining the objectives of the topic of discussion is not necessarily the first
step in classroom communication
Reasons (R) : Clear definitions of objectives make students understand the topic well.
In the light of the above stated two statements, choose the correct option from the choices
given below :
(1). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

| Sindhi | Telugu
134.In the linear model of communication, the expected result is
(1). Psychological disruption
(2). Removal of physical noise
(3). High level of obstruction
(4). Semantic accuracy
135.An important element in classroom communication is

(1). Physical infrastructure
(2). Fields of experience
(3). Conditioned feedback
(4). Linearity of Message
136.The concept of proximal development, related to educational communication, was

developed by
(1). Sigmund Freud
(2). Kurt Lewin
(3). Lev Vygotsky
(4). Albert Bandura

137.Effective oral communication demands
(a). Self-confidence
(b). Long pauses
(c). Consistent practice
(d). Business like approach
(e). Knowing the audience
(f). Aggressive questioning

Choose the correct answer from the following option :
(1). (b), (c) and (d)
(2). (c). (d) and (f)
(3). (d), (e) and (f)
(4). (a), (c) and (e)
138.Given below are two statements - one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (E):
Assertion (A) : The spoken and written words are two media of many available for
communication in the classroom
Reason (E) : Communication through any medium does not happen through attitudes of
encoders
In the light of the above two statements choose the correct option from the choices given
below:
(1). Both (A) and (R) are true and (E) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2). Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explantion of (A)

139.Classroom communication is
(a) Like a computer – program (b) Dictatorial
(c) Purposeful (d) Pragmatic
Choose the correct option from those given below
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)
140.Swapping of encoder -decoder roles in communication
happens due to
(1) Cognitive disruptions

(2) Semantic noise
(3) Feedback analysis
(4) Weak channelisation
141.Classroom Interactions are influenced largely by

(1) Students‘ commitment
(2) Teacher centric environment
(3) Organisational oversight
(4) Unsolicited interventions
142.When a large number of students with different performance levels are there in the
class. for uniform imparting of educative interactions. a teacher should opt for a
communication which is :
(1) Top-down and linear
(2) Technology – enabled
(3) Individual – centric
(4) Self - projected
143.Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Classroom communication is pre-decided by social and institutional demands.
Reasons (R) : Positive educative actions should guide learners to acquire knowledge of social
significance
In the light of the above two statements. choose the correct option :
(4) (A) is false. but (R) is true

2019 December || Malayalam | Political Science|Sociology|Tamil
144.Which one of the following factors is a deterrent for the students to do well in higher
education? (mistake)
(1) Political orientation
(2) Academic strategies
(3) Comprehension ability
(4) Academic discourse
145.Identify the technical term used to describe body language from the following
(1) Proxemics
(2) Chronemics
(3) Kinesics
(4) Haptics
146.Identify the correct sequence of one way process of communication. from the following
sequences
(1) Sender. Decoding. Message. Channel. Encoding. Receiver
(2) Sender. Encoding. Message. Channel. Decoding. Receiver
(3) Receiver. Encoding. Message. Channel. Decoding. Sender
(4) Sender. Message. Decoding. Encoding. Channel. Receiver
Assertion (A) : No social activity is possible without communication,
Reasons (R) : Communication plays vital role in our daily life.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct option :

Assertion (A) : Motivational aspects of learning and communication efficacy are not inter-
related.
Reasons (R) : Communication as a social product has its own variables in a learning
environment.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct option :
(3) (A) is true, hut (R) is false
COMMUNICATION 2020 JUNE

1. In communication process, when the sender and the receiver interchange their roles in
respect of sending and receiving the message, it is called
1. Universal model
2. Transactional model
3. Singular-flow model
4. Pluralistic model
2. A teacher who encourages students' participation in communication will ensure

A. Opposite views
B. Self-esteem
C. Class performance
D. Professional development
E. Binary distractions
1. A, B and C only

2. A, C and E only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, D and E only
as Reason R
Assertion A: In group discussions, some participants enter the fray with big chips on their
shoulders
Reason R: These are antagonistic people who are calm and listed
given below

List I Communication Barrier List II Description
A. Physical I. Different understanding
B. Psychological II. Stereotypes
C. Language III. Pre-disposed notions
D. Cultural IV. Inaudible voice
1. A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
2. A - III B - II, C - IV, D - I
3. A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
4. A -I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

5. When communication for educational purpose takes place, the sequence of elements is
A. Source
B. Encoder
C. Message
D. Decoder
E. Feedback
1. A, B, C, D, E
2. B, C, D, E, A
3. C, D, E, A, B
4. D, E, B, A, C
6. Distance in Inter-personal communication is indicative of one's
(1) Showmanship
(2) Social Strategy
(3) Culture
(4) Business-like approach
7. Identify the correct sequence of the following elements in the latter part of the
communication process after decoding :
(A) Environment
(B) Feedback
(C) Context
(D) Interference
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(3) (C), (D), (A), (B)
(4) (B), (A), (C). (D)

List I (Type of media) List II (Example)
(A) Synchronous media (I) Application of multi-media
(B) Asynchronous media (II) Interactive multi-media
(C) Rich media (III) E-mail
(D) Hyper media (IV) Telephone
1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Effective communicators align appearance with body language and tone.
Reason (R) : Such an alignment forms part of the art of persuasion.
In the light of the above statements, choose most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
10. Which of the following are contributive to positive influence on teacher-student

communication?
(A) Making assumptions
(B) Limited interaction
(C) Fostering a sense of belongingness
(D) Acknowledging participation
(E) Persuative attitude
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C) only
(2) (B), (C), (D) only

(3) (C), (D), (E) only
(4) (A), (D), (E) only
11. When communication enhances the interaction of learners, it is
1. Physiologies
2. Psychological
3. Artistic
4. Transient
12. Classroom communication is

A. Goal-oriented
B. Style-centric
C. Collaborative
D. Vertical
E. Non-rhetorical
1. A and B only
2. B and D only
3. A and C only
4. D and E only
as Reason R
Assertion A: Allowing an issue to fester will contribute to effective communication
Reason R: A good communicator will address an issue 'n the classroom before it becomes
precarious

1. Both A and IR are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and IR are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
List I Communication barriers List II Description

A. Semantic I. Lack of physical clarity in channel
B. Psychological II. Faulty message
C. Personal III. Poor retention
D. Physical IV. Lack of time
1. A -I, B - II, C – III, D - IV
2. A - II, B - III, C - IV, D – I
3. A – III, B - IV, C - I, D – II
4. A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Statement I: Signs and symbols have internal relations to produce meanings
Statement II: This is possible because of a network of signs through such relations
given below

16. The domain of media appeal addresses the issues related to
1. Knowledge
2. Learning
3. Legality
4. Emotions
17. Which of the following will make a student a good listener in the classroom?
A. Ability to deflect attention
B. Concentration
C. Desire to understand
D. Emotional outbursts
E. Humility to know
F. Ignoring the other side
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. D, E and F only
4. B, C and E only
as Reason R
Assertion A: Pedagogy and social interaction are two major areas of activity'' of teachers
Reason R: It is communication that is crucial for making both the activities important

List I Types of listeners List II Characteristics
A. Poor listeners I. Scare others
B. Aggressive listeners II. Easily agree with the speaker
C. Passive listeners III. Listen to ideas, but no emotions behind
D. Pseudo-intellectual IV. Fidget repeatedly
1. A - I, B - II, C – III, D - IV
2. A - II, B - III, C - IV D – I
3. A - III, B - IV, C - I, D – II
4. A - IV B – I, C - II, D - III
20. Find out the correct chronological order of the following educational communication
ventures in India
A. Krishi Darshan
B. Gyan Darshan
C. Vyas
D. Gyan Vani
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, C, D, A
3. D, A, B, C
4. A, D, B, C

21. Which, of the following is essential in classroom communication?
(1) Frequent repetition of the message in different ways
(2) Avoiding repetition of the message
(3) Interrupting the speaker frequently
(4) Avoiding eve contact with students

22. Classroom communication involves
(A) Listening by learning
(B) Formal lecturing
(C) Informal discussions
(D) Less importance to feedback
(E) Explaining
(1) (A). (B), (C) only
(2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (B), (C), (E) only
(4) (C), (D), (E) only
Assertion (A): To be effective in the classroom, a teachers should minimise the
communication barriers.
Reason (R) : Since communication is a complex process, regular feedback analysis is
essential for this purpose.
given below :
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (E) is not correct
24. Identify the correct chronological sequence of the developers of communicative systems
:
(A) Germans
(B) Romans
(C) Sumerians
(D) Chinese

(E) British
1. (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
2. (C), (B). (D, (A), (B)
3. (B), (C), (E), (D), (A)
4. (D), (E). (C), (A), (B)
25. Match List I with List II. List I gives Modes of Communication, while List II provides their
description
List I (Modes of Communication) List II (Description)

(A) Publicity (I) Reputation management
(B) Propaganda (II)Paid message
(C) Advertising (III) Non-commercial promotion
(D) Public relations (IV) Communication with motives
1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
26. Immediacy of cues in communication is dependent upon one’s own
(1) Economic preferences
(2) Cultural background
(3) Physical fitness
(4) Social expectations
27. Which of the following methods help improve academic communication?

(A) Preference to vertical communication
(B) Training individual students in communication skills
(C) Restricting too much generation of information
(D) Recognising cultural and linguistic differences
among students

(E) Opting for uniformity in using cultural symbols
(1) (A), (B), (C) only
(2) (C), (D), (E) only
(3) (B), (C), (D) only
(4) (B), (D), (E) only
Assertion (A) : Verbal Communication takes place in real time.
Reason (R) : Written communication is synchronous in character as it appears at different
intervals.
below :
29. Identify the correct sequence of the emergence of the following publications :
(A) Standard newspapers
(B) News book
(C) News sheets
(D) Tabloids
(E) Broad sheets
(1) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
(2) (D), (E), (C), (B), (A)
(3) (A), (B), (C), (E), (D)
(4) (B), (C), (D), (E), (A)

List I (Systems of List II (Focused elements)
communication)
(A) Western (I) Non-competitive and co-operative
(B) Indian (II) Co-existence of binary oppositions
(C) Buddhist (III) Emotional variants
(D) Chinese (IV) Rhetorical devices
1. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV). (D)-(II)
2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III) (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(IV). (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

31. Cognitive dissonance in classroom communication is the result of
(1) Filtering of message
(2) Student interest-
(3) Student-based interaction
(4) Chaotic conditions
32. Which of the following can be the major communication barriers to online teaching?
(A) Technology
(B) Legalities
(C) Student community
(D) Culture
(E) Gender
(1) (A). (B). (C) only
(2) (A). (D). (E) only
(3) (B), (C). (D) only
(4) (C). (D). (E) only

Statement I: Aggressive and inflammatory statements by the teacher make the classroom
communication academically effective.
Statement II: Choice of appropriate words lends credence to classroom communication
processes.
below:
34. Identify the correct sequence of the media production process.

(A) Content Preparation
(B) Planning
(C) Production
(D) Transmission
(E) Feedback analysis

(1) (A). (B). (C), (D): (E)
(2) (B), (C), (D). (A), (E)
(3) (D), (C), (B), (E), (A)
(4) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)

List I (Examples of Communication) List II (Types of
Communication)
(A) Sending e-mail (I) Semiotics
(B) Verbal instruction (II) Transactional
(C) Exchange of information between (III) Formal groups of people
two
(D) Traffic signals (IV) Informal
1. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

36. Announcement of arrival and departure of trains at railway stations is :
(1) Spatial communication
(2) Organisational communication
(3) Public communication
(4) Sectional communication
37. Factors that contribute for effective classroom communication are :

(A) Information overload
(B) Use of unfamiliar words
(C) Balanced flow of words
(D) Circular flow’ of messages
(E) Mechanism to assess the feedback
(1) (A), (B), (C) only
(2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (A), (D). (E) only
(4) (C), (D), (E) only

Statement I: The content and style of communication are the predictor variables of effective
teaching.
Statement II: A good and communicative teacher evokes relatively less questions from the
students.
below:
39. Find out the correct sequence of the following transmissions :

(A) Narrowcasting
(B) Telegraph
(C) Broadcasting
(D) Telephone
(E) Podcasting
(1) (A), (C). (B), (E), (D)
(2) (B), (D), (C), (A), (E)
(3) (C), (D), (E), (A), (B)
(4) (D), (E), (A), (B), (C)

List I (Examples of Communication) List II (Type of

Communication)
(A) A company boss telephones his/her secretary (I) Marketing communication
for some help from outside.
(B) A company issues a circular of guidelines for (II)Horizontal communication
its employees.
(C) Employees discuss certain issues among (III) Vertical communication
themselves.
(D) A company sends a formal letter to its (IV) Informal communication
retailers and wholesalers.
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Management |
41. The concept 'fraction of selection' in classroom communication is determined by the
expectation of reward related to
1. Efforts needed
2. Reviews needed
3. Peer pressure needed
4. Time-lag needed
42. Efficacy of written communication depends upon

A. Lengthy presentation
B. Complex sentence structure
C. Editing after writing
D. Brevity in sentences
E. Use of strong words
F. Effective use of words

1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and F only
4. D, E and F only
as Reason R
Assertion A: It is the responsibility of the teacher to make students active listeners with the
help of different interactive techniques
Reason R: In teacher-centric communication, students tend to become passive listeners
in light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Goth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Goth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

List I Type of communication List II Characteristics
A. Intra-personal I. Between persons
B. Inter-personal II. within a small organisation
C. Group III. Large number of unknown audience
D. Mass IV. Within oneself
1. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
2. A - II, B - III, C - IV, DI
3. A - III B - IV, C - I, D - II
4. A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Statement I: Personality conflicts in a classroom situation are a barrier to effective
interaction
Statement II: Impersonal communication is invariably considered the best solution in a
classroom environment

46. Which of the following is considered as an effective form of verbal communication?
(1) Story-telling
(2) Sloganeering
(3) Use of high pitch of voice
(4) Monologues
47. Which of the following are useful in positive components of classroom communication?
(A) Restrictive actions
(B) Empathy
(C) Punctuality
(D) Follow-up
(E) Scattered reflections
(1) (A), (B). (C) only
(2) (B). (C), (D) only
(3) (C). (D). (E) only
(4) (A). (D). (E) only

Statement I: Interactive and multimedia systems provide for a new culture of teaching and
learning.
Statement II: Virtual classrooms convert students into senseless humanoids.
below :
49. Identifying the sequence of stages of message processing

(A) Action
(B) Internalisation
(C) Selection
(D) Understanding
(E) Perception
(1) (A), (B). (D). (E). (C)
(2) (B). (C). (A). (D). (E)
(3) (D). (E). (B). (A), (C)
(4) (E). (D), (C). (B). (A)

50. Match List I with List II:
List I (Medium) List II (Example for description)

(A) Newspaper (I) Networking
(B) Radio and television (II) Audio. Video and graphics
(C) Social Media (III) Broadsheet
(D) Multi-media (IV) Broadcasting
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

51. Shifting technologies and communication institutions contribute to
1. System integration
2. Temporal disintegration
3. Psychological disintegration
4. Spatial integration
52. The positive impact of communication depends upon

A. Acceptance of barriers
B. Planning
C. Sudden expression
D. Media selection
E. Use of language
1. A, B and D only
2. B, D and E only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, D and E only

as Reason R
Assertion A: Universality of communication makes education vital and vibrant
Reason R: Semiotic narration does not lend itself credence to make it an efficient mode of
teaching
given below
54. The chronological sequence in the development of communication system is

A. Emergence of language
B. Cave paintings
C. Interpersonal communication (verbal)
D. Appearance of printing technology
E. Telecommunication system
1. A, B, C, E, D
2. B, E, D, C, A
3. C, D, E, A, B
4. B, A, C, D, E

List I Example List II Type of communication
A. Addressing the nation over national TV I. Horizontal communication
network
B. Conducting a workshop for a select II. Intra-personal communication
number of teachers
C. Internal conversation with fellow III. Mass communication
workers
D. Recollection of past events IV. Group communication
1. A -I, B - II, C - III, D – IV
2. A - II, B - III, C - IV, D – I
3. A - III, B - IV, C - I, D – II
4. A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
56. Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Depending upon the classroom situation, some media of communication are
more effective than others.
Reason (R): Selection of a medium is directly related to the nature of the message for
students
In the light of the above, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
57. Communication skills of students can be improved by

(a) Asking general questions
(b) Exposure to new technology
(c) Fostering critical thinking
(d) Discriminant use of vocabulary
(e) Limited listening

1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (b). (c) and (d)
3. (c). (d) and (e)
4. (a), (d) and (e)
58. Structured classroom communication can be categorized as

1. Inter-personal communication
2. Vertical communication
3. Group communication
4. Cross-purpose communication
59. For effective communication inside a classroom, a teacher should embark upon
1. Ideological leanings
2. Innuendos
3. Issuing attention commands
4. Listener analysis
60. The concept of entropy as used in communication is related to

1. Virtual reality
2. Marketplace
3. Order
4. Communicative language
61. The entry of new media has made online learning :
(1) Secondary source based
(2) Dependent on personal sources
(3) Institution-centric
(4) Independent

62. Removal of communication barriers in a classroom will result in
(A) Clear enunciation of specific instructional behaviours
(B) A climate of purposeful student interaction.
(C) Promotion of personality cult.
(D) The irrelevance of illustrative examples.
(1) (A) and (B) only
(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (C) and (D) only
(4) (A) and (D) only
Assertion (A) : Repeating more and more the same message will make it important.
Reasons (R) : 'Don't use two words when one will do' is the guiding principle that works.
given below :
64. Identify the correct sequence of phases in communication development :

(A) Acta Diurna
(B) Cave paintings
(C) Wooden blocks for printing
(D) Development of languages
(E) Metal printing
(1) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
(2) (B), (D), (C), (A), (E)

(3) (C), (D), (E), (A), (B)
(4) (D), (E), (A), (B), (C)

List I (Mode of
List II (Type of communication)
Communication)
(A) One - to — one (I) Network (transactional)
(B) One - to — many (II) Intra-personal
(C) Many— to —many (III) Inter-personal
(IV) Mass Communication especially
(D) One - to — none
print
1. (A)-(I). (B)-(II). (C)-(III). (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(II). (B)-(III), (C)-(IV). (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(III). (B)-(IV), (C)-(I). (D)-(II)
4. (A)-(IV). (B)-(I). (C)-(II). (D)-(III)

66. In communication, interpretation of the message depends upon
1. The context
2. Transmission speed
3. Associated noise
4. Channel efficiency
67. Which of the following factors are important in communication?

A. Slang
B. Cynical attitude
C. Framing
D. Priming
E. Immediacy
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only

3. A, D and E only
4. C, D and E only
68. The sequence of cultural institutions in communication is

A. Family
B. School
C. Religion
D. Mass media
1. A, B, C, D
2. B, C, D, A
3. C, D, A, B
4. D, A, B, C
as Reason R
Assertion A: Giving orders to students in the classroom is a specific form of communication
Reason R: The manner of orders depends upon the cultural background of the students
involved

List I Examples List II Type of communication
A. Meaningless sound and words I. Polysemy
B. Traffic light signals II. Dyadic communication
C. Words that have different meanings III. Paralinguistic
D. Two persons exchanging greetings IV. Non-verbal communication
1. A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
2. A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
3. A - III, B – IV, C – I, D - II
4. A - IV, B - I, C – II, D - III
2020 June ||English (2)

71. Reframing in communication means
1. Employment of new metaphors
2. Rejecting the conventional expressions
3. Opting for hyperbole
4. Preferring oppositional binaries
72. Which of the following contribute for effective cross-cultural communication?

A. Quick flow or words
B. Use of foreign words
C. Selection of simple words
D. Taking turns to speak
E. Maintenance of etiquette
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, D and E only
4. C, D and E only

Statement I; Cross communication promotes teamwork in the classroom
Statement II: Exactness of communication in a cross-cultural setting is flexible and
responsive
given below
74. The emergence of media of communication, in chronological sequence, is

A. Radio
B. Newspaper
C. Film
D. Television
E. Internet
1. A, C, D, E, B
2. B, C, A, D, E
3. C, D, E, A, B
4. D, E, C, B, A

List I List II
A. Prayer in silence I. Vertical communication
B. Teacher talking to students outside the II. Grapevine
classroom
C. The CEO of a company issues a circular to his III. Inter-personal
subordinates communication
D. Rumour mongering among employees of an IV. Group communication
organisation
1. A - II, B - IV, C - I, D – III
2. A - III, B - IV, C - I, D – II
3. A - IV, B - III., C - II, D – I
4. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
76. Communication stimuli used to convey the message are known as
1. Process
2. Power
3. Channel
4. Codes
77. Communication activities of learners fall into domains consisting of

A. Perception
B. Groupism
C. Inter-personal skills
D. Regressive behavior
E. Inter-personal relations
1. A, B and C only
2. A, C and E only
3. A, C and D only
4. A, D and E only

as Reason R
Assertion A: New media enhance the opportunities to expand the learning environment
unheard of before
Reason R: Learners can design their own learning process
given below
79. The sequence of elements in linear model of communication is

A. Message
B. Decoder
C. Encoder
D. Medium
E. Noise
1. A, C, B, E, D
2. B, D, C, A, E
3. C, A, D, E, B
4. D, E, C, A, B
List I List II
A. Poor listeners I. Scold others
B. Aggressive listeners II. Easily agree with the speaker
III. Listen to ideas not understanding
C. Positive listener
emotions
D. Pseudo-intellectual listeners IV. Fidget compulsively

1. A -I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
2. A - II, B - III, C - IV, D -I
3. A - III, B - IV, C -I, D - II
4. A - IV, B -I, C - II, D - III
5.
81. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A): While communicating with students, a teacher should go beyond what is
prescribed.
Reason (R): Non-verbal cues definitely convey what is intended by the teacher.
1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
82. Successful communication inside the classroom depends upon

(a) Detailed and long description of the topic
(b) Describing the theme
(c) Use of persuasive words and phrases
(d) Clarity in explanations offered
(e) Repetitive anecdotes
(f) Unstructured deliver}’ of message
Choose the correct option from those below:

2. (b). (c) and (d) only
3. (c). (d) and (e) only
4. (d). (e) and (f) only

83. If a teacher considers his or her students ill-informed, teacher's behaviour is described
as:
1. Single mindedness
2. Having liberal view
3. Pluralistic ignorance
4. Conventional coding
84. When the classroom communication is circular, the teacher-encoder will be a/an
1. Active decoder
2. Passive observer
3. Negative receiver
4, Restive coder
85. Communication begins usually with

1. Confused ideas
2. Semantic noise
3. Apprehension
4. Pictures in the mind
2020 June || Hindi (1) |

86. The key to effective listening by students in a classroom is
1. Sympathy towards the teacher
2. Interest in informal education
3. Empathetic learning
4. Desire to memorize

87. Communicated message is considered as a/an
1. Social product
2. Unnatural product
3. Spin-off product
4. Techno product
88. Semantic noise in classroom communication can be limited by avoiding the use of
1. Dialogues
2. Cliched jargon
3. Non verbal cues
4. Multi-media
89. Which of the following are useful in overcoming the communication barriers in a
classroom?
(a) Identifying the level of redundancy
(b) Use of unfamiliar words
(c) Ignoring the students' vocabulary
(d) Fragmented sentences
(e) Voice inflexion
(f) Contextualizing the speech
1. Only (a), (b) and (c)
2. Only (h), (c) and (d)
3. Only (c). (d) and (f)
4. Only (a), (e) and (f)

90. Given below are two statements - one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Skills of oration coupled with vat and humour make classroom communication
compelling
Reason(R): Rhetorical interventions do not make classroom communication purposeful In
the light of the above two statements choose the correct option
2020 June || Hindi (2) |
91. It is preferable to start the classroom communication with
1. Listening commands
2. Anecdotes
3. Unrelated questions
4. Casual comments
92. A good classroom talk should help develop

1. Jargonised language
2. Macro criticism
3. Summary sentences
4. Technology orientation
93. A good written communication will have

1. An intended purpose
2. A complex beginning
3. Long sentences
4. An assumption that others know more than what they really know

94. Dynamics of efficient communication in a classroom includes
a. Teacher centric listening
b. Promotion of one-way action
c. Ignoring students' inhibitions
d. Balancing interactive and static elements
e. Brainstorming procedure
f. Understanding learners' sociometry
1. Only (a), (c) and (d)
2. Only (b), (d) and (f)
3. Only (a), (c) and (f)
4. Only (d), (e) and (f)
95. Given below are two statements - one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): For impact of communication, the individual students must be considered as a
product of common cause.
Reason (R): Effective teachers normally attempt to identify the general characteristics of
learners to communicate with them.
In the light of the above two statements choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

96. Poor listening by the audience leads to
(1) Appreciating the speaker
(2) Wild imaginations
(3) Inaccurate inferences

(4) Disrespecting the speaker
List I (Authors) List II (Communication concepts)

(I) SMCR — Sender. Message, Channel - receiver —
(A) Aristotle
Model
(B) Shannon and
(II) Circular Communication
Weaver
(C) Wilbur Schramm (III) Speaker - Centred Communication
(D) David Berio (IV) Top-down. Linear communication
1. (A)-(I). (B)-(II). (C)-(III). (D) (IV)
2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III). (C)-(IV). (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(III). (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(IV). (B)-(I). (C)-(III). (D)-(II)
98. Identify the chronological sequence of the following countries opting for educational
broadcasting channels
(A) Great Britain
(B) The United States
(C) Australia
(D) India
(E) Canada
(1) (B), (A), (E), (C), (D)
(2) (C), (D), (E), (A), (B)
(3) (D), (E), (B), (C), (A)
(4) (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)

Statement I : Free and unlimited use of non-verbal cues enhance the communicative aspects
of classroom teaching.
Statement II: A pleasant persona of the teacher enlivens the classroom eco-system.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct, answer from the options given
below
(4) Statement I is incorrect but. Statement. II is true
100. The consequences of effective classroom communication are

(A) Enhanced expectations of teacher from students
(B) Learning as satisfying pursuit
(C) Increased promotional prospects for teachers
(D) Enabling students to achieve goals
(E) Positive learning outcomes
(1) (A), (B). (C) only
(2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (C), (D), (E) only
(4) (B), (D), (E) only
2020 June ||Law | Physical Education |

101. When communication meets the aims and objectives of classroom teaching, it becomes
1. Extra-ordinary
2. Personal
3. Functional
4, Obligatory

102. Which of the following can be considered as psychological barriers to effective
communication?
A. Descriptive message
B. Inattentiveness
C. Too much reliance on the written word
D. Limited retention
E. Logical organization
F. Flow of thought
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. D, E and F only
as Reason R
Assertion A: Human touch in communication enables students to become participatory
Reason R: In a technology-driven classroom environment, the communicative role of a
teacher is secondary

List I Type of communication List II Characteristics

A. Vertical I. Feedback oriented
B. Horizontal II. Inter-personal
C. Circular III. Top-down
D. Transactional IV. Rumour-oriented
1. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
2. A - II, G - III, C - IV, D - I
3. A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
4. A - IV, B - l, C - II, D - III
Statement I: Persuasive communication by a teacher in the classroom is intended to make
his/her version of information acceptable to students
Statement II: If it happens at the institutional level, the purpose behind it is image building
given below

106. Because of new media, learning is no longer an assembly of
1. Liberal views
2. Technology-based efforts
3. Facts
4. Knowledge

107. What are the most prominent elements in the management of communication in an
educational institution?
A. Side tracking oppositional views
B. Structuring work roles
C. Commanding over colleagues and students
D. Keep others informed
E. Guiding others wherever possible
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. B, D and E only

Statement I: In a classroom, every teacher has to perform the gatekeeping function
Statement II: Every teacher in any higher educational institution should act as the moral
custodian of students, both inside and outside it
109. The chronological sequence of institutions of educational communication is

A. AIR
B. CEC
C. UGC - Countrywide classroom
D. Gyan Vani
1. A, C, B, D
2. A, B, C, D

3. B, C, A, D
4. D, A, B, C
List I Type of communication List II Description

I. Messages flow through a network of
A. Dyadic communication
interdependent relationships
II. Uses a medium to reach a large
B. Public communication
anonymous audience
III. Provides equal opportunity to
C. Organisational communication
communicate
IV. Occurs within a formal and structured
D. Mass communication
setting

1. A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
2. A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
3. A - IV, B - l, C - II, D - III
4. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

111. The impact of classroom communication should be so regulated that it should result in
(1) Exchange of ideas and information
(2) Top-down designer communication
(3) Back room learning
(4) Minimum opportunity for feedback
112. In a classroom, due to which of the following limitations it is easy to talk about
something we do not want to?
(A) Infrastructure
(B) Working memory
(C) Conscious awareness
(D) Yes tags
(E) Mental disagreements

(1) (A). (B). (C) only
(2) (B). (C). (D) only
(3) (C). (D). (E) only
(4) (A). (D). (E) only

Statement I: A straight forward admission of one’s own limitations is acceptable in an
academic eco system.
Statement II: Sweet corporate talk tends to enmask the weakness of a teacher and makes
him/her popular in the long run.
below :
114. Find out the correct sequence of selectivity stages in mass communication?
(A) Exposure
(B) Retention
(C) Altitudinal change
(D) Perception
(E) Attention
Choose the correct, answer from the options given below :
(1) (A). (B). (C). (E). (D)
(2) (B). (C). (D). (E). (A)
(3) (C). (E). (D). (A). (B)
(4) (A). (E). (D). (B). (C)

List I (Activity) List II (Function)
(A) Non-verbal communication (I) Reflects confidence in one's own self
(B) Listening (II) Occupies more space of personal
communication
(C) Empathetic conversation (III) Helps internalise messages
(D) Stress management through (IV) Seeing things from other's
communication viewpoint
1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV). (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

ANSWER KEY - Communication Dec 2018 – Dec 2019)
1.2 21.3 41.2 61.1 81.2 101.2 121.3 141.1
2.2 22.1 42.2 62.4 82.3 102.1 122.4 142.2
3.2 23.1 43.1 63.3 83.3 103.3 123.1 143.1
4.3 24.3 44.3 64.2 84.2 104.1 124.4 144.4
5.3 25.4 45.1 65.3 85.3 105.1 125.1 145.3
6.3 26.4 46.1 66.1 86.1 106.1 126.3 146.2
7.1 27.1 47.3 67.4 87.3 107.4 127.1 147.1
8.3 28.3 48.4 68.4 88.4 108.1 128.3 148.4
9.1 29.4 49.1 69.3 89.1 109.4 129.2
10.1 30.1 50.2 70.2 90.3 110.3 130.3
11.4 31.1 51.4 71.2 91.1 111.2 131.4
12.4 32.1 52.3 72.3 92.3 112.1 132.3
13.3 33.1 53.4 73.1 93.3 113.3 133.4
14.4 34.4 54.4 74.1 94.4 114.4 134.4
15.4 35.3 55.1 75.3 95.2 115.4 135.2
16.2 36.1 56.2 76.3 96.1 116.3 136.3
17.1 37.1 57.4 77.4 97.2 117.4 137.4
18.4 38.2 58.2 78.3 98.2 118.1 138.3
19.3 39.4 59.2 79.4 99.1 119.4 139.4
20.3 40.4 60.4 80.3 100.2 120.2 140.3
ANSWER KEY Communication June 2020
1.2 16.4 31.4 46.1 61. 76.4 91.2 106.3
2.3 17.4 32.2 47.2 62.1 77.2 92.3 107.4
3.3 18.1 33.4 48.3 63.4 78.1 93.1 108.3
4.1 19.4 34.4 49.4 64.2 79.3 94.4 109.1
5.1 20.4 35.1 50.4 65.3 80.4 95.1 110.2
6.3 21.1 36.3 51.1 66.1 81.2 96.3 111.1
7.4 22.3 37.4 52.2 67.4 82.2 97.3 112.2
8.2 23.1 38.3 53.3 68.1 83.3 98.1 113.3
9.1 24.2 39.2 54.4 69.1 84.1 99.4 114.4
10.3 25.4 40.1 55.3 70.3 85.4 100.4 115.2
11.2 26.2 41.1 56.1 71.1 86.3 101.3
12.3 27.3 42.3 57.2 72.4 87.1 102.2

13.4 28.3 43.1 58.3 73.4 88.2 103.3
14.2 29.1 44.4 59.4 74.2 89.4 104.3
15.1 30.2 45.3 60.3 75.2 90.3 105.1
MATHEMATICAL APTITUDE
MATHEMATICAL APTITUDE 2018DEC – 2019DEC
Maithili| Management| Manipuri| Philosophy| Physical Education| Tourism
1. If DIVE is coded as 1MYG, then the code for TAKE will be :

a) XFMG
b) YENG
c) TFMG
d) XENG
2. The next term in the series is : 56, 40, 27, 17, 10,___
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 5
3. The next term in the letter series is : ME, KH, IK, GN ___ is :
a) EQ
b) CK
c) BD
d) DF
4. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

a) Eyes
b) Nose
c) Legs
d) Hands

5. Ram said, "I am the only child of my mother". Next he pointed to a boy and
continued, "This boy is the husband of the grandchild of my mother". How is Ram
related to tire boy ?
a) Father
b) Grandfather
c) Brother-in-law
d) Father-in-law

6. If HYDERABAD is coded as DABAREDYH, then BENGALURU will be coded as :
a) XYPQRSTUB
b) UXURULCAB
c) URULAGNEB
d) BDEFGHIJK
7. The next term in die number series 10,13, 22, 49, ?

a) 89
b) 126
c) 97
d) 130
8. The next term in the letter series EE, GG, IJ, KN, MS, ? .
a) OO
b) OY
c) YO
d) XY
9. Choose the word which is different from the rest :

a) Write
b) Knowledge
c) Read
d) Learn
10. Pointing to a woman, a man said, "Her father is the only son of my father". How is
the man related to the woman?
a) Father-in-law of the woman
b) Father of the Woman

c) Brother of the woman
d) Brother-in-law of the woman

11. 9000 were divided among a certain number of persons. Had there been 20 more
persons, each would have got 160 less. The original number of persons was :
a) 30
b) 45
c) 25
d) 55
12. The number of marble slabs of size 20 cm x 30 cm required to pave the floor of a
square room of side 3 meters is :
a) 100
b) 150
c) 225
d) 25
13. In the sequence of numbers 2, 8, 26, 62, 122, 212, x, , the term x is :
a) 301
b) 338
c) 248
d) 332
14. in a certain code, LIFE is written as KMHJEGDF. How is WORD written in that code ?
a) VXNPQSEC
b) XVPNSQEC
c) VXNPQSCE
d) XVPNSQCE
15. In conveying the same meanings, which of the following is incongruous 7

a) Excite
b) Flourish
c) Prosper
d) Thrive
2018 December || Archaeology | Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies| Folk
16. In the sequence of numbers 5, 19, 49, 101, 181, 295, x,, the term x is :
a) 401
b) 351
c) 449

d) 501
17. If NTA14 and NTA15 are 5-digit numbers such that their sum is 157229, then N + T +
A would be :
a) 15
b) 21
c) 25
d) 72
18. A's mother is sister of B and daughter of C. D is daughter of B and sister of E. How is
C related to E ?
a) Sister-in-law
b) Aunt
c) Grandmother
d) Mother
19. You have recently joined a new office. Walking at 5 km/hour, you reach the office
from your house 15 minutes early and walking at 3 km/hour, you are late by 9
minutes. The distance between your house and office is :
a) 5 km
b) 8 km
c) 3 km
d) 2 km
20. Choose the correct alternative to replace the question mark (?).
42 → 26
71 → 78
33 → 16
62 → ?
a) 68
b) 54
c) 38
d) 39

21. If FACE is coded as HCEG, then the code for HIGH will be :
a) BEFB
b) ZXYZ
c) KHIK

d) JKIJ
22. The next number in the series 12, 15, 21, 33, 57,is :
a) 95
b) 107
c) 97
d) 105
23. The next term in the letter series DY, JX, OW, SV, VU, ___ is :
a) WV
b) XT
c) XS
d) YT
24. Which of these words is different from the rest ?

a) Tall
b) Huge
c) Thin
d) Sharp
25. Ram said to Shyam, "That girl playing with the doll, is the younger of the two
daughters of my father's wife". How is the girl playing with the doll is related to Ram
?
a) Sister
b) Aunty
c) Sister-in-law
d) Cousin

26. In the sequence of numbers 1, 2, 6, 33, 49, 174, 210, x, the term x is :
a) 444
b) 553
c) 510
d) 259
1 1
27. If R + S = 1 and S + T = 1 , then R x S x T =
a) -1
b) 2
c) – 2

d) 1
28. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man
related to the woman ?
a) Uncle
b) Grandson
c) Son
d) Cousin
1
29. Before death a man left the following instructions for his fortune : half to his wife; 7
2
of what was left to his son; 3 of what was left to his daughter; the man's pet dog got
the remaining 20000. How much money did the man leave behind altogether ?
a) 140000
b) 100000
c) 40000
d) 70000
30. If 7, 13, 2, 14, 6 is to flame, then 3, 13, 16, 2, 21 is to :

a) Voice
b) Blade
c) Bloat
d) Blown
31. Aman travelled 301 km by train and 200 km by taxi, and he completed this journey in
5 hours and 30 minutes. However, if he travels 260 km by train and 240 km by taxi, it
will take 6 minutes more to complete the journey. The speed of the train is :
a) 100 km/hour
b) 120 km/hour
c) 80 km/hour
d) 110 km/hour
32. The present age of the father is twice that of the elder son. Ten years hence the age
of the father will be three times that of the younger son. If the difference in ages of
the two sons is as 15 years, the present age of the father is :
a) 110 years
b) 70 years
c) 60 years

d) 50 years
33. In the sequence of numbers 2, 8, 24, 64, 160, x, , the term x is :

a) 320
b) 384
c) 192
d) 224
34. In a certain code, PLEADING is written as FMHCQMFB. How is SHOULDER written in

that code ?
a) KCDQTIPV
b) QDCKVPIT
c) QDCKTIPV
d) TIPVQDCK
35. In conveying the same meanings, which of the following is incongruous ?

a) Unique
b) Beautiful
c) Rare
d) Exceptional

36. If DICE is coded as FLGJ, then the code for BITE will be :
a) DLXJ
b) DKYH
c) DKVY
d) DICL
37. The next term in the series 7, 11, 19, 35, 67, __ is.
a) 121
b) 133
c) 131
d) 99
38. The next term in the letter series KB, JH, IM, HQ, GT, is.
a) EY
b) FV

c) FU
d) EU
39. Choose the word which is different from the rest ?

a) Paper
b) Wool
c) Plastic
d) Jute
40. Pointing to a man, Abhijit said "His grand daughter is the only daughter of my
brother". How is the man related to Abhijit ?
a) Father
b) Grandfather
c) Uncle
d) Brother-in-law

41. If ABODE is coded as ADRHJ, then the code for AGRO will Be :
a) AVCD
b) AIUS
c) AIST
d) AIVX
42. The next term in the series 0, 1, 9, 36, 100 ___ is :

a) 225
b) 164
c) 196
d) 126
43. The next term in the letter series DEF, HIJ, LMN, PQR, TUV___ is :
a) WYZ
b) YZA
c) XYZ
d) WXY
44. Choose the word which is different from the rest :

a) Aravali Hills
b) Shivalik Hills
c) Nilgiri Hills
d) Mount Kilimanjaro

45. Jenifer's father-in-law is my brother. Helen is a grand-daughter of my mother. How is
Helen related to Jenifer ?
a) Daughter in law
b) Sister
c) Sister-in-law
d) Mother

46. If FIST is coded as JMWX, then the code for BOAT will be :
a) ESFX
b) BCFX
c) CDEX
d) FSEX
47. The next term in the number series 41, 27, 16, 8, ___ is :
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
48. The next term in the letter series IN, HL, GJ, FH, EE, is :
a) DD
b) BD
c) BC
d) DE
49. Which one of the following is known as fourth estate ?

a) Media
b) Judiciary
c) Office of the President of India
d) Parliament
50. Pointing to the photograph of a girl, Sukanya said, " She is the daughter of the only
daughter of my mother". How is Sukanya related to the girl in the photograph ?
a) Sister
b) Aunt
c) Mother

d) information incomplete

51. If RED is coded as 6720, then how would GREEN be coded?
A. 16717209
B. 1677209
C. 9207716
D. 1677199
𝑦+𝑥
52. If 0.75x = 0.02y, then the value of (𝑦−𝑥) is
73
A.
75
73
B. 75
73
C. 77
730
D. 75
53. If the average of five numbers is -20 and the sum of three of the numbers is 32, then
what is the average of the other two numbers?
A. -66
B. -33
C. -34
D. -132
54. A man travelled from the village to the railway station at the rate of 20 Kmph and
walked back at the rate of 5 kmph. If the whole journey took 5 hours, find the
distance of the railway station from the village.
A. 10 km
B. 15 km
C. 20 km
D. 40 km
55. A trader mixes three varieties of refined oil costing Rs. 100, Rs. 40 and Rs. 60 per litre
in the ratio 2 : 4 : 3 in terms of litre, and sells the mixture at Rs. 66 per litre. What
percentage of profit does he make?
A. 12%
B. 10%
C. 9%
D. 8%

2019 June||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies| Bengali| Bodo| Environmental Sciences|
Hindi|
56. If in a certain code, BAT = 23 and GAT = 24, then how you will code BALL?
A. 27
B. 28
C. 32
D. 39
57. The product of two numbers a and b is twice the sum of the numbers. What is the
sum of the reciprocals of a and b ?
A. 1/8
B. 1/2
C. 2
D. 4
58. A group of 40 employees of Cadre A has a mean age of 31. A different group of 60
employees of Cadre B has a mean age of 28. What is the mean age of two employees
of the two groups together?
A. 29.8
B. 29.5
C. 29.2
D. 29
59. An aeroplane flies along the four sides of a square field at the speed of 400, 600, 800
and 200 km/hr. Find the average speed of the plane around the field.
A. 324 km/hr
B. 360 km/hr
C. 384 km/hr
D. 396 km/hr
60. A retailer marks all his goods at 40% above the cost price and thinking that he will
still make 20% profit, offers a discount of 20% on the marked price. What is his
actual profit percentage on the sales?
A. 20%
B. 18%
C. 16%
D. 12%

61. Bangalore is bigger than Jhansi, Satpura is bigger than Chittor, Rajgarh is not as big as
Jhansi but is bigger than Satpura. Winch is the smallest?
a. Banaglore
b. Jhansi
c. Satpura
d. Chittor
62. Choose the missing term out of the given Alternatives : QPO. XML, KJI,
.
A. HGF
B. CAB
C. JKL
D. GHI
63. The sum of all even natural numbers between 1 and 81 is

A. 3280
B. 3321
C. 1646
D. 1640
64. In a bag, there are coins of 5 ps. 10 ps and 25 ps in the ratio of 3:2:1. If there are Rs.
60 in all, how many 5 ps coins are there?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
65. Manoj's commission is 10% oil all sales upto Rs. 10,000 and 5 % on all sales
exceeding' this. He remits Rs. 75,500 to his company after deducting his commission.
The total sales will come out to be
A. Rs. 78,000
B. Rs. 80,000
C. Rs. 85,000
D. Rs. 90,000

66. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 4% is per annum is half
the compound interest on Rs. 2,000 for 2years at 10% per annum, The sum in rested
on simple interest is
A. Rs. 8,750
B. Rs. 1,750
C. Es. 3,500
D. Rs. 3,500
Drama Theatre)| Persian| Prakrit |Russian| Santali| Spanish
67. Choose the missing term out of the following : JAK KBL, LCM, MDN, .
A. OEP
B. NEO
C. MEN
D. PFQ
68. If the number 345xy is divisible by 90, then (x + y) = ?

a. 9
b. 8
c. 7
d. 6
69. On a map, 1 inch represents 250 miles. What is the actual distance between two
1
cities if they are 4 2 inches apart on the map?
A. 1100 miles
B. 1125 miles
C. 1150 miles
D. 1200 miles
70. If 60% of (a-b: = 40% of (a + b), then what percent of a is b ?

A. 20%
B. 25 %
C. 40%
D. 50%
71. What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain amount at the same rate
of interest for 9 years and that for 12 years?
A. 3:4
B. 2:3
C. 4:3
D. Data inadequate

72. Six friends A, Br C: D, E and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre. E is to the
left of D. C is between A and B. F is between E and A. Who is to the right of C?
A. A
B. B
C. D
D. E
73. A, B, C, D, E and F are sis members in a family in which there are two married
couples. E, a teacher is married to the doctor who is the mother of C and F. B7 the
layer is married to A. A has one son and one grandson. Of the two married ladies one
is a housewife. There is also one student and one male engineer in the family. How is
A related to C?
A. Grandfather
B. Mother
C. Sister
D. Grandmother
74. Oar is to rowboat as foot is to
a. running
b. sneaker
c. skateboard
d. jumping
75. For all integers y > 1, (y) = 2y+(2y - 1) + (2y - 2) + ... + 1.

What is the value of (3) x (2)? Where x is a multiplication operator?
A. 116
B. 210
C. 263
D. 478
76. If 152 is divided into four parts proportional to 3, 4f 5 and 7, then the smallest part is
a. 29
b. 26
c. 25
d. 24

77. In a new budget, the price of petrol rose by 25%. By how much percent must a
person reduce his consumption so that his expenditure on it does not increase?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
78. A sum of money doubles at compound interest in 6 years. In how many years will it
become 16 times?
a. 16 years
b. 24 years
c. 48 years
d. 96 years
79. If DRIVER = 12, GOVERNMENT = 20, BELIEVED = 16, then BAT = ?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
80. The price of item A increases by 50 paise every year while the price of item B
increases by 25 paise every year. If in 2008, the price of item A was Rs. 3.20 and that
of B was Rs. 5.30, in which year item A will cost 40 paise more than the item B?
a. 2016
b. 2017
c. 2018
d. 2019
e.
81. The average age of a class of 59 students is 18 years. If the age of the teacher is
included, then the average increases by 3 months. The age of the teacher is
A. 28 years
B. 30 years
C. 33 years
D. 35 years
82. Two cyclists start from the same place in opposite directions. One goes towards
north at 9 kmph and the other goes towards south at 10 kmph. What time will they
take to be 47.5 km apart?
1
A. (1) 2 2 hrs
1
B. (2) 4 hrs
2
1
C. (3) 4 hrs
4
1
D. (4) 2 4
hrs

83. A person incurs 10% loss by selling a watch for Rs. 1,800. At what price should the
watch be sold to earn 10% profit?
A. Rs 1980
B. Rs. 2,160
C. Rs. 2,200
D. Rs. 2,360
84. Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives TEF, UGH. , WKL
A. CMN
B. UJI
C. VIJ
D. IJT
85. The sum of deviation taken from which of the descriptive statistical measure is
always equal to aero?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Percentile
86. If x and y are two positive numbers and x is 25% greater than y, what is the value of
y
the ratio x
A. 0.75
B. 0.80
C. 1.20
D. 1.25
87. 5% of the inhabitants of a village having died of malaria, a panic set in. During this,
20% of the remaining inhabitants left the village. The population is then reduced to
4750. Find the number of original inhabitants
A. 5000
B. 5250
C. 6250
D. 7500

1
88. If the simple interest on a certain sum for 1 year 3 months at 8 % per
2
1
annum exceeds the simple interest on the same sum for 8 months at 7 2 % per
annum by Rs.45, then the sum is
A. Rs. 600
B. Rs. 800
C. Rs. 6,000
D. Rs. 8,000

Sindhi| Telugu
89. 89.Choose the correct alternative Cup is to coffee as bowl is to.
A. Dish
B. Soup
C. Spoon
D. Food
90. The sixth number in a sequence of numbers is 32 and each number after the first
number in the sequence is 4 less than the number immediately proceeding it. What
is the third number in the sequence?
a. 36
b. 40
c. 44
d. 48
91. In a class, 20% of the boys have blue eyes and 10% of the girls have blue eyes. If the
ratio of boys to girls in the class is 4 : 3, then what is the portion of the students in
the class having blue eyes?
A. 12/83
B. 14/45
C. 11/45
D. 11/70
92. During one year, the population of a town increased by 5% and during the next year,
the population decreased by 5%. If the total population is 29925 at the end of the
second year, then what was the population size in the beginning of the first year?
A. 25000
B. 30000
C. 33000
D. 36000

93. The simple interest on a certain sum of money at the rate of 5% p.a. for four years is
Rs. 420. At what rate of interest, the same amount of interest can be received on the
same sum after two and half years?
a. 4%
b. 6%
c. 8%
d. 10%
94. In a school, there are five teachers. A and B both are teaching Hindi and English. C
and B both are teaching English and Geography. D and A both are teaching Punjabi
and Hindi. E and B both are teaching History and French
Who among the teachers is teaching maximum number of subjects?
A. A
B. B
C. D
D. C and E
95. If REASON is coded as 5 and GOVERNMENT as 9, than what is the code for ACCIDENT?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
96. Which of the following fractions is the result of the sum of an integer and its reciprocal?\
15
A. 8
26
B. 5
36
C. 7
37
D. 5
97. The average of 35 raw scores is 18. The average of first seventeen of them is 14 and
that of last seventeen is 20. Find the eighteenth raw score.
A. 42
B. 46
C. 52
D. 56

98. A train leaves Agra at 5 a.m and reaches Delhi at 9 a m. Another train leaves Delhi at
7 a.m and reaches Agra at 10:30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each
other?
A. 6:36 a.m
B. 6:56 am
C. 7 a.m
D. 7:56 a.m
99. Sanjay sold an article at a loss of 25%. If the selling price had been increased by Rs.
175, there would have been a gain of 10%. What was the cost price of the article?
A. Rs. 350
B. Rs. 400
C. Rs. 500
D. Rs. 750
100. If E = 5 and HOTEL = 1.2, how will you code BALM?
A. 28
B. 26
C. 16
D. 7
101. Rohan gave three-fifth of the amount he had, to Sahil. Rohan now has 2000 rupees.
How much did he give to Sahil?
A. 1200 rupees
B. 2000 rupees
C. 3000 rupees
D. 5000 rupees
102. 40% of the employees in a factory are workers. All the remaining employees are
executives. The annual income of each worker is Rs. 39,000. The annual income of
each executive is Rs. 42,000. What is the average annual income of all employees in
the factory together?
a. Rs. 40,500
b. Rs. 40,800
c. Rs. 41,000
d. Rs. 41,500

103. Sameer walks a certain distance and rides back taking a total time of 40 minutes. He
could walk both ways in 60 minutes. How long would it take for him to ride both
ways?
a. 15 min
b. 20 min
c. 28 min
d. 30 min
104. At what percentage above the cost price must an article be marked so as to gain 8%
after allowing a customer a discount of 10%?
a. 18%
b. 20%
c. 28%
d. 10.8%
Management|
105. By selling 70 pencils for Rs.90|- a person makes a loss of 25%. How many pencils
should be sold for Rs.234 to have a profit of 30%?
a. 95
b. 100
c. 105
d. 110
106. In what ratio must a vendor mix two varieties of sugar worth Rs.60 per kg and Rs.78
per kg so that by selling the mixture at Rs.76.8 per kg, the vendor gains 20%?
a. 7:4
b. 7 : 2
c. 5 : 3
d. 5 : 2
107. Which given of the following sets of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the
letter series below shall complete it?
Bb ______ b ______ ab _____ cbba ____ bcbb
A. aebac
B. acbbb
C. cbbba
D. abbbc

108. Out of a total of 10 students, the average weight of 9 students is 60 kg. If the weight of
the 10th student is 9 kg more than the average weight of all the 10 students, then the
weight of the 10th student would be :
A. 61 kg.
B. 69 kg..
C. 70 kg.
D. 71 kg
109. Which of the following was not a Millennium Development Goal (MDG)?
a. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
b. Improve maternal health
c. Ensure healthy lives and promote well being for all at all ages
d. Ensure environmental sustainability
110. Given below is a question followed by three statements. Identify the statements that
are necessary to answer the question.
Question : What is the percentage profit gained by a vendor when he sells an article?
Statements : (a)He gives a 10% discount on the marked price.
(b) He would have earned 25% profit if he did not give any discount.
(c) The cost price of the article is Rs.8000.
A. (a) and (b) only
B. (b) and (c) only
C. (a) and (c) only
D. (a), (b) and (c)
111. Match correctly the items of Column I with the items of column II
Column I Column II
(a) Ontology (i) Ideographic
(b) Epistemology (ii) Realism
(c) Methodolgv (iii) Survey
(d) Method (iv) Positivism
A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Sciences| Hindi
112. Which of the following numbers would occur next in the series 2, 6, 30, 60, 130,
210 ?
A. 330
B. 350
C. 370
D. 378
113. The compound interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at the rate of 10% per
annum is Rs.993.00. The simple interest on the same sum at the rate of 8% per annum
for 4 years would be equal to which of the following?
A. Rs. 900.00
B. Rs. 930.00
C. Rs. 960.00
D. Rs. 990.00
114. Pointing towards a man. a woman said, "His wife's father is the husband of my
mother's only daughter”. How is the woman related to the man?
(1) Daughter
(2) Sister - in – law
(3) Sister
(4) Mother - in – law
115. If the word TEACHER is coded as TCJACCV and the word SURGEON is coded as
PMGETSU in a certain code language, then which of the following will represent the
word CONCORD in that language?
A. FTQEPQE
B. EQPEQTF
C. FPQAPME
D. EMPAQPF
116. A solid is in the form of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. The diameter of the
cylinder is 1|3 of its height (excluding the hemispherical ends). The total length of the
solid including the hemispherical ends is 56 cm. What is the surface area of the solid?
(1) 3080 cm2
(2) 2464 cm2
(3) 2772 cm2
(4) 2156 cm2
117. Spread of forest fires is influenced by

a) Slope
b) Soil Moisture
c) Wind

A. (a) and (b) only
B. (b) and (c) only
C. (a) and (c) only
D. (a), (b) and (c)
118. Given below is question (Q) followed by three statements. Identify the statements
(a. b. c) that are necessary to answer the question.
Question : What is the average age of 30 students studying in a class?
a) Boys and girls in the class are in the ratio 7:S
b) The average age of boys and gilds is 12.2 years and 11.4 years, respectively,
c) The number of boys in the class is two less than the number of the girls in the class.
a. (a) and (b) only
b. (b) and (c) only
c. (a) and (c) only
d. (b) and either (a) or (c)
119. In a group setting which of the following factors hinder creativity of its members?
a) Norm to maintain consensus at any cost
b) To think without any fear of being ridiculed
c) To respect one another’s ideas
d) To criticize if somebody’s idea is not correct
a. (a) and (c) only
b. (b) and (d) only
c. (c) and (b) only
d. (d) and (a) only
120. Noise levels at a traffic site are recorded for one hour at a sampling interval of 1
second and percentile indices of noise L1, L10, L50, L90 are computed from the data. The
indices are then arranged in increasing order in terms of their values starting from
minimum to maximum. Which of the following options represents their correct order?
A. L1, L10, L50, L90

B. (2) L10, L50, L90, L1
C. (3) L50, L90, L10, L1
D. (4) L90, L50, L10, L1

121. Given below are two statements — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
Assertion (A) : In the afternoon of a hot sunny day during the summer season, the
tropospheric ozone levels in a city like Delhi are expected to be lower as compared to
morning and evening.
Reasons (R) : In the afternoon period, atmosphere is unstable and its dilution potential is
higher as compared to mornings and evenings.
(1) (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but(R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
122. Given below are two statements - one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
Assertion (A) : The Governor has the power to ask for any information from the Chief
Minister regarding the administration of the State.
Reasons (R) : The Governor is the real Head of the State administration. In the context of
the above two statements, choose the correct option :
(1) (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true But(R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
123. In which of the following sampling methods employed in research, the units
comprising the sample are given equal and independent chance?
A. Stage sampling
B. Cluster sampling
C. Dimensional sampling
D. Snowball sampling
124. What is the missing term in the series given below?

2. 4. 6. 12. 10. 36. 14, ?. 18. 324
A. 50
B. 72
C. 108
D. 18

125. Apoorav is son of Madhu. Vinod is brother of Madhu's husband. How is Apoorav
related to Vinod?
a. Uncle
b. Brother
c. Nephew
d. Cousin
126. In a certain code "ENGLAND" is written as "ULSNYLV". Using the same code,
"IEELAND" will be written as
A. (1)HQUNYLV
B. QHUNYLV
C. QUHNYLV
D. HUQNYLV
127. The ratio of two numbers a and b is 3 : 7. After adding 9 to each number, the ratio
becomes 9 : 17, The numbers a and b are :
A. (6,14)
B. (9,21)
C. (15, 35)
D. (18, 42)
128. The next term in the series AT. EQ. IN. OK. ……. is
A. UH
B. UP
C. US
D. UU
2019 December ||Archaeology| Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies|Folk
129. Two numbers are in the ratio 3:7. If 8 is added to both the numbers, their ratio
becomes 5:9 The numbers are
A. 12, 28
B. 6 , 14
C. 15, 35
D. 24, 56

130. The number X in the following series :
3. 8. 18. 38. X. ... is
A. (1)75
B. (2)80
C. (3)76
D. (4)74
131. If -SOLUTION' is R5KTSH5M' then CROME’ will be written as

A. BQ5HL
B. B5QLH
C. BQ5LD
D. BS5LH
132. If ‘a’ is inversely proportional to ‘b' and ‘b’ is inversely proportional to ‘c’. then
A. 'A' is inversely proportional to c'
B. 'a is directly proportional to c
C. 'a' is constant
D. 'a' is directly proportional to ‘bc
133. A sum of Rs. 2.000 yields Rs. 180 with simple interest in nine (9) months. The annual
rate of interest is
A. 9%
B. 10%
C. 11%
D. 12%

134. In a certain coding language. AEIOU' is written as 'TNHDZ'. Using the same coding
language. ’BFJPV' will be written as
A. UOIEA
B. AEIOU
C. CGKQW
D. WQKGC
135. If 3% of (a + b) = 7% of (ab)
and 5% of (a - b) = 4% of (ab),
then what percentage of b is a?

47
A. %
23
23
B. %
47
4700
C. %
23
2300
D. %
47
136. The sum of a number and its inverse is -4, The sum of their cubes is :
A. -52
B. 52
C. 64
D. -64
137. A certain principal invested at compound interest payable yearly amounts to Rs.
10816.00 in 3 years and Rs. 11248.64 in 4 years. What is the rate of interest?
A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 4.5%
D. 5.5%
138. What is the exact equivalent discount of three successive discounts of 10%. 15% and
20% by sale of an article?
A. 35.8%
B. 38.5%
C. 35.5%
D. 38,8%

139. A circle has the same area as that of a square of diagonal of length 11,0 cm. What is
the diameter of the circle?
A. ~ 8.7 cm
B. ~ 17.4 cm
C. ~ 7.8 cm
D. ~ 15.6 cm
140. Determine the term 'X' in the following series

2 9, 20, 35, 54, 77, 'X'
A. 104
B. 102
C. 89
D. 110

141. A student obtains overall 73% marks in his examination consisting of Physics,.
Chemistry, Mathematics, Computer Science and General English. Marks obtained in each
subject and the maximum marks are indicated in the following table
Mathematics Computer
Physics (200 Chemistry (100 General English
Subject (200 max Science (200
max marks) max marks) (100 Max marks)
marks} max marks)
Marks
155 80 165 140 X
Obtained
The marks (X) obtained by the student in Genera! English would be
A. 68
B. 74
C. 84
D. 90
142. A shopkeeper sells a refrigerators for Rs 22,000,00 and makes a profit of 10%. if he
desires to make a profit of 18%, what should be his selling price?
A. Rs 23, 600
B. Rs 39,600
C. Rs 36,000
D. Rs 24,600
143. The two cities P and Q are 360 km apart from each other, A car goes from P to Q
with a speed of 40 km/hr and returns to P with a speed of 60 km/hr. What is the average
speed of the car?
A. 45km/hr
B. 48 km/hr
C. 50 km/hr
D. 55 km/hr
144. A is father of B and C is sister of A D is grandson of C. How is D related to R?

A. Uncle
B. Nephew
C. Cousin
D. Grandson
145. If x : y = 7 : 9 then 3x - 5y : 4x + y = ?
−24
A. 37

−22
B.
37
15
C. 22
42
D. 37
146. If HPU = 9. JNU = 9, then DU = ?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
147. Which one is the wrong number in the given series?

3, 13, 43, 53, 63, 83
A. 13
B. 53
C. 63
D. 83
148. A sum of money with compound interest becomes Rs, 2.400 in one year and Rs.
3.000 in two years. Find out the principal amount.
A. Rs. 1900
B. Rs. 1910
C. Rs. 1915
D. Rs. 1920
149. If A is directly proportional to B: B is inversely proportional to C and G is directly
proportional to D. then
(a) A is inversely proportional to D
(b) A is directly proportional to D
(c) A is directly proportional to C
(d) A is inversely proportional to C
A. (a) and (d)
B. (b) only
C. (a) only
D. (e) and (d)

150. Average of two numbers a and b is 22 and 60% of a = 50% of b. What is the product
of a and b ?
A. 160
B. 384
C. 480
D. 484
151. B is the only daughter of maternal grandmother of A. How is A related to B?

A. Sister
B. Daughter
C. Cousin
D. Mother
152. In a certain code "CREDIT" is written as "EPGBKR" and in the same code. "DEBIT" will
be written as
A. FDCGV
B. FGCDV
C. FCDGV
D. FCDVG
153. The next term of the series is

1D3. 3H5. 5L7, ___
A. 7P9
B. 7R9
C. 7N9
D. 7L9
154. The length of the side of a square (5.0 cm x 5.0 cm) is increased by 1%, By what
percentage (%). the area of the square increases?
A. 1 %
B. 2 %
C. 2.5%
D. 4%
155. Identify the term ‘X’ in the following series

3 2,11 14. 27. 34. 51. X
A. 62
B. 69
C. 60
D. 71

156. A person buys 3 items of Rs. 1500 each and 2 items of Rs. 1800 each from a
shopping- mall. On the total bill a discount of 10% is given. What is the average cost of
the items?
A. 1650
B. 1458
C. 1658
D. 1550
157. A 50 year old man has a son whose age is 2/5 of his age, After how many years, the
ratio of the age of the man to his son wall be 5/3?
a. 10 years
b. 15 years
c. 20 years
d. 25 years
158. The smallest integer greater than 1 which is simultaneously a square and a cube of
certain integers is
A. 8
B. 9
C. 36
D. 64
159. If income of X is 20% more than that of Y and income of Y is 25% less than that of Z,
then the total income of X. Y and Z are in which of the following ratios?
A. 18 : 15 : 20
B. 18 : 15 : 10
C. 18 : 10 : 15
D. 18 : 12 : 15
160. In a class, there are 60% female students and the remaining are male. 40% of the
female students and 70% of the male students have opted for the research methodology
course. If in all, 60 students have not opted for the research methdology course, which
of the following is the total number of students in the class?
a. 120
b. 125
c. 130
d. 140

161. Three taps A. B and C can fill a tank in 8, 10 and 12 hours respectively. The tap A is
open all the time continuously. But taps B and C are open for one hour each alternately.
How long will it take the tank to be full?
A. 4 hours
16
B. 4 27 hours
2
C. 4 hours
3
1
D. 4 3 hours
162. Given below is a question followed by three statements. Identify the statements,
which is/are necessary to answer the question.
‘What is the speed of the train'?
(a) The train crosses another train running in opposite direction in 20 seconds
(b) The train crosses a platform of length 300 m in 30 seconds
(c) The train crosses a pole in 10 seconds
Choose the most appropriate option :
A. and (b) only
B. (a) and (c) only
C. (b) and (c) only
D. (a), (b) and (c)
MATHEMATICAL REASONING 2020

2020 June || Adult Education | Chinese| Comparative Study of Religions| Dogri | Gujarati|
Indian Culture | Japanese| Kannada | Konkani | Maithili| Manipuri| Persian | Prakrit |
Rajasthani | Sanskrit | Sindhi | Spanish | Tribal and Regional Language Literature
1. A man walks at a speed of 3 km/hour from location A towards east for 1 hour and then
turning eft walks at a speed of 1.5 km/hour for 6 hours towards north to a location B. The
shortest distance between locations A and B is
1. 10 km
2. 12 km
3. ~8.54 km
4. ~9.48 km

2. The volume of a cube of side 10.0 cm is changed by increasing its sides by 1,0%, The
percentage increase in the volume of the cube is
1. -1%
2. -6%
3. -3%
4. -10%
3. Consider the following number series 2, 10, 30, 68, X

What is the term X?
1. 130
2. 92
3. 83
4. 76
4. A household Incurs a certain expenditure on the consumption of a commodity in a given

month. If the price of the commodity is decreased by 20% and its consumption is increased
by 20%, what will be the net percent increase or decrease in the expenditure of the
household?
1. 2%
2. 4%
3. 8%
4. 10%
5. Consider the following letter series. What is next of acf, egj, ikn, oqt,
1. suy
2. uvy
3. rwz
4. uwz

6. A pipe normally fills a tank in 12 hours, but. due to a leak, it takes 8 hours more. If the
tank is full, how many hours will the leak take to empty it?
(1) 12
(2) 22
(3) 30
(4) 33
7. What is the remainder when 64 divides 1671?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

Statement I: Two triangles are said to be congruent if their corresponding angles are equal
and corresponding sides are proportional.
Statement II : Two triangles are said to be similar if their corresponding angles and
corresponding sides are equal.
below :
9. Find the wrong number in the series :

7, 8, 18. 57. 228. 1165. 6996
(1) 1165
(2) 228
(3) 57

(4) 18

Statement I: When we perform an experiment, then the set S of all possible outcomes is
called the sample space.
Statement II: Any superset of a sample space is called an event.
below:
11. A man covers a distance of 22 km in 4 hours by initially walking and then jogging at
speed of 4 km/hour and 10 km/hour, respectively, The distance covered by him during
walking is
1. 10 km
2. 12 km
3. 15 km
4, 18 km
12. A rational number has its denominator greater than its numerator by 6. If the numerator
5
is increased by 4 and the denominator is decreased by 8r the number become 3 . What is
the original rational number?
𝟏𝟏
1. 𝟕
5
2. 11
7
3. 13

13
4.
19
13. Consider the following number series

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, X. What is the value of term X?
1. 180'
2. 210
3. 240
4. 156
14. Two water pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 15 minutes, respectively, if each of
them is used separately. If both the pipes are used to fill the tank simultaneously, how long
will it take to fill the tank?
1. 6 minutes
2. 8 minutes
3. 7.5 minutes
4. 9 minutes
15. What is the next term in the following letter series?

aceg, cegi, egik, gikm
1. jlor
2. hjlo
3. ikmo
4. ikmq

16. The difference of the square of two consecutive even numbers is 84. What is the sum of
these two consecutive even numbers?
1. 34
2. 38
3. 36
4. 42
17. Identify the next term in the series 0, 8, 24, 48, _

1. 72
2. 96
3. 120
4. 80
18. Mr X is 40 years old and Mr Y is 60 years old, How many years ago was the ratio of their
ages 3:5?
1. 15 years
2. 10 years
3. 20 years
4. 30 years
19. In a river from a fixed location, two identical boats start moving up-stream and down-
stream, respectively. The speed of the water current in the river is 3km/hour. If the speed of
each of the boats in still water is 1 5km/hour, the separation between the boats after 12
minutes will be
1. 3.6 km
2. 5.6 km
3. 6.0 km
4. 7.2 km

20. Consider the following letter series and identify the next term ace, fhj, kmo, __
1. npr
2. rtv
3. prt
4. uwy

Given below are two statements :
21. Statement I : It is possible that there are 53 Tuesdays in a non-leap year.
Statement II : In a non-leap year, there are 54 of each day plus one extra day.
below :
22. Kavitha collected S spiders (with 8 legs each) and beetles {with 6 legs each). When she
counted the legs, she found that there were altogether 54. Which of the following is/are
true?
(A) She collected 5 spiders
(B) She collected 3 spiders
(C) She collected 5 beetles
(D) She collected 3 beetles
(1) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (D) only

23. Complete the series : 2, 5, 9, 19, 37,___
(1) 75
(2) 76
(3) 77
(4) 78
24. At what time between 2 and 3 o'clock wall the hour hand and minute hand of a clock
together?
11
(1) 10 10 min. past 2
10
(2) 10 11 min. past 2
10
(3) 11 11 min. past 2
(4) 11 min. past 2
25. The average of seven consecutive numbers is 33. The largest of these numbers is
(1) 39
(2) 34
(3) 36
(4) 38
26. Three persons are walking around a ground. They take 20, 30 and 40 minutes to
complete one round. If they start from a single point together, they will meet again at that
point after..
(1) 1 hour
1
(2) 1 2 hour
(3) 2 hour
1
(4) 2 2 hour

27. In a class of 65 students, 27 speak Hindi, 21 speak English and 17 speak Bangla. 7 speak
only English and Hindi, (3 speak only Hindi and Bangla and 5 speak only English and Bangla,
If 12 speak only Hindi then how many speak all the three languages.
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2
28. The sum of four consecutive odd integers is 2160. The greatest of them is
(1) 327
(2) 420
(3) 537
(4) 641
29. A two digit number is 4 times the sum of its two digits. The number that is formed by
reversing its digits is 27 more than the original number. What is the number?
(1) 27
(2) 36
(3) 42
(4) 54
30. The sum of the squares of three numbers is 83. while sum of their products taken two at
a time is 71. Their sum will be
(1) 15
(2) 49
(3) 142
(4) 225

31. The average of 70 numbers is 32. If each number is increased by 3. then the new average
will become
(1) 31
(2) 33
(3) 35
(4) 37
32. A person in a car drives along a straight road from point A to point B at a speed of 60
km/hour for 15 minutes and then from point B to point C at a speed of 90 km/hour for 10
minutes. The average speed of his travel from point A to C is
(1) 75 km/hr
(2) 72 km/hr
(3) 68 km/hr
(4) 78 km/hr
33. A student scores 55, 60, 65 and 70 respectively in English, Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics. If the credits assigned to English, Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics are 2,
3, 3 and 4 respectively then what would be the average mark of the student?
(1) 62.50
(2) 63.75
(3) 64.25
(4) 64.75
34. A clock takes 5 seconds to strike 5 times at 5 O'clock. How long will it take to strike 9
times at 9 O'clock?
(1) 9 seconds
(2) 10 seconds
(3) 12 seconds
(4) 8 seconds

35. A shopkeeper sells an item at a discount of 40% on the item's listed price of Rs. 1500.00.
He still makes a profit of 20% on the original cost of the item. What is the original cost of the
item?
(1) Rs. 500
(2) Rs. 750
(3) Rs. 600
(4) Rs. 1080

Statement I: If an article is sold at a gain of 19%, then selling price is 109% of cost price.
Statement II: If an article is sold at a loss of 9%, then selling price is 109% of cost price.
given below:
37. Find odd one out in from the following :

5, 7, 12, 17, 19, 23
(1) 7
(2) 12
(3) 17
(4) 19

38. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?
1
(1) 58 2 °
1
(2) 67 2 °
1
(3) 68 2 °
1
(4) 72 2 °

Statement I: A number is divisible by 3, if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.
Statement II: A number is divisible by 9. if the sum of its digits is not divisible by 9.
given below:
40. The difference between the squares of two consecutive numbers is 35. The smaller
number is
(1) 14
(2) 15
(3) 16
(4) 17
Management |
41. Given three numbers, first is twice the second and is half of the third. If the average of
three numbers is 56, then the difference of first and third number is
1. 12
2. 24
3. 36
4. 48
42. Identify the next term in the series 2, 10, 26,50,__

1. 78
2. 94
3. 82
4. 104
43. A man in a train notices that he can count 31 telephone poles in one minute. If the poles
are at equal intervals of 50m, what is the speed of the train?
1. 50 km/hour
2. 60 km/hour
3. 80 km/hour
4. 90 km/hour
44. A sum of Rs.50,000.00 is invested in a bank deposit for 1 year at an interest rate of 10%
per annum, compounded on a half-yearly basis. What is the amount of interest at the end of
1 year?
1. 5125
2. 5250
3. 5500
4. 5150
45. In the following letter series, what is the next term?

abcf, bcdg, cdeh, defi,__
1. efij
2. efgi
3. efgj
4. defj

46. In a park A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting. C is the brother of D's husband and son of A F is
the daughter of D and sister of E.
(A) E is the grandson of A
(B) F is the daughter of C
(C) B is the father of F
(D) There are one son and one daughter in the group
(E) C is the uncle of E
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only
(2) (A), (C) and (E) only
(3) (B). (D) and (E) only
(4) (B). (C) and (D)only
47. The ratio of ages of two persons A and B is 3 : 4 and that of ages of B and C is 4 : 5. If the
average of all three is 40 year’s, what is B's age?
(1) 20 years
(2) 30 years
(3) 40 years
(4) 50 years
48. If some pens are pencils but no pencil is sharpener then

(A) All pencils are pens
(B) Some sharpeners are pencils
(C) Some pens are not sharpener
(D) Some pencils are not pens
(4) (B) and (D) only

49. In a 100 meters race. A beat B by 10 meter or 2 second. What is the speed of A?
(1) 5 Km/h
(2) 10 Km/h
(3) 15 Km/h
(4) 20 Km/h
50. Three pipes fill a tank in 4 hours. If two of them take 8 and 12 hours each to fill the tank,
how many hours will the third pipe take to fill the tank?
(1) 6 hours
(2) 15 hours
(3) 18 hours
(4) 24 hours

Statement I: If the ratio of the speeds of A and B is a:b, then the ratio of the times taken by
them to cover the same distance is b:a
Statement II: Suppose two men are moving in the same direction at u m/s and v m/s
respectively, where u > v, then their relative speed is (u+v) m/s
given below
52. Consider the following three expressions

A. 35 ÷ 0.07
B. 2.5 ÷ 0.0005
C. 136.09 ÷ 43.9

What is the correct descending order for the simplified values of A, B and C? Choose the
correct answer from the options given below
1. B>A>C
2. C>A>B
3. C>B>A
4. B>C>A
53. Which of the following numbers are non-prime?

A. 11
B. 13
C. 19
D. 21
E. 15
1. A and E only
2. B and C only
3. C and E only
4. D and E only
54. Find the odd number in the following series

644, 328, 164, 84, 44, 24, 14
1. 44
2. 34
3. 164
4. 328
55. Kavita sold a mobile phone at the price of 1950 and made a loss of 25%. At what price
will she have to sell it to get a profit of 30%?
1. 2600/-
2. 2780/-
3. 3000/-
4. 3380/-

56. The next number in the given series is 196, 384, 736, __
1. 1344
2. 1244
3. 1434
4. 1644
57. Find the missing letters in the series:

BCA, YZX, EFD, __ , HIG
1. UVW
2. VWU
3. WVU
4. VUW
58. Vinod's mother-in-law is the mother of Amit's mother-in-law. How is Vinod related to
Amit?
1. Vinod is brother of Amit
2. Vinod is father of Amit
3. Vinod is uncle of Amit
4. Vinod is father-in-law of Amit
59. In a certain code. FISH is written as EHRG. The code for JUNGLE will be
1. ITNFKD
2. KVOHMF
3. ITMFKD
4. TIMFKD
60. 63% of employees in a company are female. If the number of male employees is 111.
then the total number of employees is

1. 270
2. 290
3. 300
4. 310
61. What is the actual profit when the profit on selling price is 25%?
(1) 33.33%
(2) 30.33%
(3) 25%
(4) 20%
62. What is the remainder when 45 is divided by 15?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 11
63. What is the missing number? 4, -8, 16, (?), 64, -128
(1) -24
(2) -32
(3) 24
(4) 30

Statement I: Sometimes. Ratio has units.
Statement II : When two ratios are equal, a proportion is formed.

below :

Statement I: Co-primes are the numbers which have only 1 as their common factor.
Statement II : Factorisation is the decomposition of a number into the other numbers which
when added together will give the original number.
below :
66. The product of the ages of Sagun and Srishti is 240. If twice the age of Srishti is more
than Sagun's age by 4 years, then what is Srishti's age?
1. 15
2. 12
3. 10
4. 20
67. Complete the following series 9,11, 15, 23, 39, ?

1. 71
2. 65
3. 44
4. 63

Statement I: Sum of the angles of a triangle is 180°
Statement II: The sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side
69. Consider the following three sets of numbers

A. 2, 5, 9
B. 1, 6, 10
C. 3, 4, 8
Which of the following represents correct ascending order of the averages of three sets A, B
and C. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1 C<A<B
2. B<C<A
3. B<A<C
4. C<B<A
70. If 30% of A= 0.25 of B = 1/5 of C, then which of the following is true about A:B:C?
1. 10:11:12
2. 10:15:12
3. 10:12:15
4. 10:11:15

71. The salary' of Hamid was reduced by 10%. By what per cent should his salary be raised
to bring it back to his original salary?
1. 10%
2. 11%
1
3. 11 7 %
1
4. 11 9 %
72. Consider the following fractions

6
A. 11
4
B. 9
3
C. 8
2
D. 5
5
E. 13
For the above fractions, which one of the following is in the correct descending order?
choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. A>B>D>E>C
2. A>D>B>E>C
3. A>B>D>C>E
4. A>D>B>C>E
73. The time is 2:15 pm. What is the angle between the hour and the minute hand?
1. 20 1/2°
2. 30°
3. 22 1/2°
4. 25°
Given below are two statements
Statement I: The mean is the numerical average and is found by
adding up all the values and dividing the sum by the number
of values
Statement II: The mean of the following wages is 16000

(i). 12000
(ii). 10000
(iii). 23000
(iv). 15000
74. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true Options:
75. If January 1, 2007, was a Monday, then January 1, 2008, is a

1. Sunday
2. Monday
3. Tuesday
4. Wednesday
76. A train is travelling at a speed of 96 kilometres per hour. It takes 3 seconds to enter a
tunnel and 30 seconds more to pass through it completely. Which of the following
statements are correct?
A. Length of the tunnel is 100 meters
B. Tunnel is longer than train
C. Train is longer than tunnel
D. Length of the train is 80 meters
E. Length of the tunnel in 800 meters
1. A, C and D only
2. A and B only
3. C and D only
4. B, D and E only
77. The difference between the ages of two men is 10 years. 15 years ago, the elder one was
twice as old as the younger one. The present age of the elder man is

1. 25 years
2. 35 years
3. 45 years
4. 40 years

List I For two numbers 84 and
List II Result
96
A. HCF I. 672
B. LCM II. 8064
C. Product III. 180
D. Sum IV. 12
1. A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II
2. A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
3. A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
4. A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Statement I: A number is divisible by 25, if the number formed by its last two digits is either
(00) or divisible by (25)
Statement II: A number is divisible by 16, if the number formed by its last 4 digits is divisible
by 16
given below

List I List II

A. Triangle Area I. Base x Hight
B. Square Area II. 1/2 x (Product of diagonals)
C. Rhombus Area III. 1/2 x Base x Height
D. Parallelogram Area IV. (Side)2
1. A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
2. A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
3. A – III, B - IV, C- I, D - II
4. A - II, B - III, C - l, D - IV
81. MOTION is to RUN as EMOTION is to:

1. FURIOUS
2. FEELING
3. HEART
4. ENJOY
82. The missing letters in the given letter series are:

BCE, CDG, DEL, … , FGM
1. EFK
2. EGJ
3. EFH
4. EGH
83. If UGCNET = 35. then CSIRNET =

1. 42
2 43
3. 44
4. 45
84. A sum of money with compound interest becomes Rs. 400 in 2 years and Rs.500 in 3
years. Find the sum

1. Rs 290
2. Rs 256
3. Rs 302
4. Rs 308
85. Twenty times a positive integer is less than its square by 96. What is the integer
1. 24
2. 20
3. 30
4. 14
2020 June ||Hindi (1) |
86. The missing two numbers in the following series are 1, 4, 3, 16, 5, 36, ?, ?, 9, 100.
1. 7, 50
2. 7, 64
3. 8, 72
4. 8, 81
87. Average of three numbers is 22. Sum of two of the numbers is 24 and these two
numbers are in the ratio 7:5. Find the three numbers.
1. -6, 30, 42
2. 6, 25, 35
3. 14, 10, 42
4. 4, 20, 42
88. In a certain coding language 'CHEMISTRY is written as D G F L J R U Q Z'. then in the same
code 'GEOMETRY will be written as:

1. HDPLFSSZ
2. HDLPFSXS
3. HLDPFSSX
4. HDPLFSSX
89. If 20% of (a+b) = 50% of (ab) and 40% of (a-b) = 70% of ab. then what fraction of a is b?
3
1. 17
−3
2. 17
4
3.
17
17
4. 3
90. The next term in the following series is ABB. BCF, CDL, ?
1. DEU
2. DET
3. DES
4. DER
2020 June ||Hindi (2) |
91. In a certain code. ‘UNIVERSAL’ is written as ' L A S R E V I N U'. In the same coding
language. 'COMMERCIALS' will be written as:
1. SLIACREMOMC
2. SLIACREMOCM
3. SLAICREMMOC
4. SLAIRCEMOMC
92. A certain principal is invested at the annual rate of interest of 5% for 2 years. The
difference between compound interest and simple interest is Rs. 1 (Rupee one). What is the
principal?

1. Rs. 150
2. Rs. 250
3. Rs. 300
4. Rs. 400
93. 'A' is the only sister of a man 'B' and 'C' is the maternal grandson of B's father. How is ‘A’
related to ’C’?
1. Sister
2. Niece
3. Grandmother
4. Mother
94. The Least Common Multiple (L.C.M) of two numbers is 144 and their Greatest Common
Divisor (G.C.D) is 2. What are the numbers, given their sum is 34.
1. 20, 14
2. 22, 12
3. 24, 10
4. 18, 16
95. What is the actual (equivalent) discount of three successive discounts of 8%. 10% and
12% by sale of an article?
1. 28.316%
2. 27.136%
3. 28.136%
4. 27.631%
2020 June ||History |
1 3
96. What part, of 12 is 8
3
(1) 7
4
(2) 3

1
(3)
12
9
(4) 2
97. Rajiv. Sanjiv and Vijay join a running race. The distance is 1500 meters. Rajiv beats Sanjiv
by 30 meters and Vijay by 100 meters. By how much could Sanjiv beat Vijay over the full
distance if they both ran as before?
(1) 72.3 meters
(2) 71.5 meters
(3) 71.4 meters
(4) 70.2 meters

Statement I: If you know the length of two sides of a right angled triangle then the length of
the third side can not be found.
Statement II: The internal angles of a triangle add upto 180°.
below:
99. The given equation becomes correct, after interchanging two signs. One of the four
alternatives under it specifies the interchange of signs in the equation which when made
will make the equation correct, Find the correct alternative?
9 + 5 ÷ 4 x 3 – 6 = 12
(1) + and -
(2) ÷ and -
(3) + and x
(4) ÷ and x
100. Find the odd one out in following sequence : 1, 5, 14, 30, 50, 55, 91
(1) 14

(2) 30
(3) 50
(4) 55
2020 June ||Law | Physical Education |
101. A man is 30 years older than his son. Five years ago, his age was 6 times the age of his
son. The age of the son is
1. 10 years
2. 11 years
3. 12 years
4. 15 years
102. What is the next term in the following series? 4, 12, 28, 52
1. 76
2. 84
3. 93
4. 104
103. A motorist travels to a place 150km away at an average speed of 50km/hour and
returns at a speed of 30km/hour. His average speed for the whole journey is
1. 35 km/hour
2. 37.5 km/hour
3. 40 km/hour
4. 42.5 km/hour
104. A sum of money earning compound interest annually doubles itself after 4 years. What
is the rate of interest?
1. -14 %

2. -19%
3. -18%
4. -15%
105. In the following letter series, the next term is bdf, egi, hji, __
1. kmo
2. jmp
3, ilo
4, kno
2020 June ||Management |

List I Numbers List II Square roots
A. 41209 I. 9
B. 841 II. 29
C. 81 III. 232
D. 53824 IV. 203
1. A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
2. A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
3. A - II, G - III, C - I, D - IV
4. A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

List I Types of numbers List II Examples
A. Natural numbers I. { -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, ...}

B. Whole numbers II. (1,2, 3, 4,...}
C. Integers III. (0, 1, 2, 3..}
D. Prime numbers IV. {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13,...}
1. A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
2. A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
3. A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
4. A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV

Statement I: Compound interest involves the reinvestment df the earned interest, which in
future years also earns interest
Statement II: Simple interest is the amount earned or paid on a sum of compound interest
and principal amount
given below
109. Find the odd pair/group

A. 66 - 70
B. 30 - 43
C. 30 - 93
D. 40 - 53
E. 72 - 90
1. A only
2. C and E only
3. B and D only
4. E only

Statement I: A percentile divides the distribution into 100 equal parts
Statement li: Range is the distribution between zero and highest value
given be tow
2020 June ||Sociology |
111. Six girls A. B. C. D. E and F are standing in a row. Only B is standing between D and F. A
does not stand next to either F or D. C does not stand next to D. Only E stands between A
and C,
(A) Only F stands between B and C
(B) Only C stans between A and F
(C) D and A occupy extreme ends
(D) Only E stands between F and A
(E) Only B stands between D and F
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
(4) (B). (D) and (E) only
112. If √(4)𝑛 = 256 , then √𝑛 is equal to :
(1) √2
(2) 2√2
(3) 2
(4) 4

113. A trader marks up the price of goods he sells by 50% and gives a discount of 20%.
Besides this, he also weighs the goods by 20% less. What is the net profit he gets?
(1) 20%
(2) 25%
(3) 40%
(4) 50%
114. A man walks 400 meters in north direction, took a left turn and walks 600 meters. He
again takes left turn and walks for 400 meters. How far and in which direction he is from his
original position?
(1) 400 meters, East
(2) 400 meters. West
(3) 600 meters. West
(4) 600 meters. South
2
115. A man reaches his office 30 minutes late if he walks by 3 rd of his routine speed. What
is the time he usually takes to reach office?
(1) 30 minutes
(2) 60 minutes
(3) 90 minutes
(4) 45 minutes

ANSWER KEY2018 DEC- 2019DEC MATHEMATICAL APTITUDE
1.B 21.D 41.B 61.D 81.C 101.C 121.D 141.C 161.B
2.A 22.D 42.A 62.A 82.A 102.B 122.C 142.A 162.C
3.A 23.B 43.C 63.D 83.C 103.B 123.B 143.B
4.B 24.D 44.D 64.C 84.C 104.B 124.C 144.B
5.D 25.A 45.C 65.B 85.A 105.C 125.C 145.A
6.C 26.B 46.D 66.B 86.B 106.B 126.B 146.A
7.D 27.A 47.B 67.B 87.C 107.C 127.D 147.C
8.B 28.D 48.A 68.D 88.B 108.C 128.A 148.D
9.B 29.A 49.A 69.B 89.B 109.C 129.A 149.A
10.B 30.C 50.C 70.A 90.C 110.A 130.A 150.C
11.C 31.A 51.B 71.A 91.D 111.D 131.C 151.B
12.B 32.D 52.C 72.A 92.B 112.B 132.B 152.C
13.B 33.B 53.A 73.D 93.C 113.C 133.D 153.A
14.C 34.C 54.C 74.C 94.B 114.D 134.A 154.B
15.A 35.B 55.B 75.B 95.B 115.C 135.C 155.A
16.C 36.A 56.A 76.D 96.B 116.B 136.A 156.B
17.B 37.C 57.B 77.C 97.C 117.D 137.B 157.D
18.C 38.B 58.C 78.B 98.D 118.D 138.D 158.D
19.C 39.C 59.C 79.A 99.C 119.D 139.A 159.A
20.C 40.A 60.D 80.C 100.D 120.D 140.A 160.B
ANSWER KEY 2020JUNE- MATHEMATICAL APTITUDE

1.4 11.2 21.3 31.3 41.4 51.3 61.1 71.4 81.2 91.3 101.2 111.2
2.3 12. 22.4 32.2 42.3 52.1 62.1 72.1 82.1 92.4 102.2 112.2
3.1 13.2 23.1 33.2 43.4 53.4 63.2 73. 83.3 93.4 103.2 113.4
4.2 14.1 24.2 34.2 44.1 54.4 64.4 74.3 84.2 94.4 104.2 114.3
5.4 15.3 25.3 35.2 45.3 55.4 65.3 75.3 85.1 95.2 105.1 115.2
6.3 16.4 26.3 36.2 46.2 56.1 66.2 76.4 86.2 96.4 106.4
7.4 17.4 27.4 37.2 47.3 57.2 67.1 77.2 87.3 97.3 107.2
8.2 18.2 28. 38.2 48.1 58.4 68.1 78.4 88.4 98.4 108.3
9.2 19.3 29.2 39.3 49.4 59.3 69.1 79.1 89.1 99.2 109.1
10.3 20.3 30.1 40.4 50.4 60.3 70.3 80.2 90.2 100.3 110.3

LOGICAL REASONING
LOGICAL REASONING 2018 DEC – DEC 2019

1.Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select
the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s) [taking the premises individually or jointly].
Premises : (a) Some women are teachers.
(b) All teachers are hard-working.
Conclusions : (i) All hard-working people are teachers.
(ii) All teachers are not women.
(iii) Some hard-working teachers are women.
(iv) Some women are hard-working.
(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv)
2.In which of the following arguments the conclusion can be no more than probable ?
Options :
1.Implicative
2.Analogical
3.Deductive
4.Demonstrative
3."To slow a beast, you break its limbs. To slow a nation, you break its people” - Identify the
argument involved in the above :

Options :
1. Inductive
2. Deductive
3. Analogical
4. Demonstrative
4."The relation that exists between Premises and Conclusion is that of logical necessity" - is
the case with which of the following arguments ?
1. Inductive
2. Deductive
3. Demonstrative
4. Analogical
5.Among the following statements, two are contradictory to each other. Select the code
that represents them.
Statements : (a) All surgeons are doctors.
(b) Some surgeons are doctors.
(c) Some surgeons are not doctors.
(d) No surgeons are doctors.
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (d)
3. (b) and (d)
4. (b) and (c)


the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s) [taking the premises individually or jointly].
Premises : (a) All diamonds are precious stones.
(b) Some carbon compounds are diamonds.
Conclusions : (i) All precious stones are diamonds.
(ii) Some non-carbon compounds are precious stones.
(iii) All precious stones are carbon compounds.
(iv) Some carbon compounds are precious stones.
1. (i) and (iv)

2. (ii) and (iv)
3. (iii) only
4 (iv) only
7.Validity in logical reasoning refers to :

(a) Any simple single proposition
(b) Relation between premises and conclusions
(c) The conclusion alone
(d) Truth of the premises
Select the correct code from below :
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (b) alone
4. (d) alone
8.In a valid deductive argument, if the premises are true, then :

1. Conclusion must be false.
2. Conclusion can be probably true.
3. Conclusion must be true.
4. Conclusion may some times be true.

9.Identify the reasoning in the following argument:
"A person without a goal is like a computer without a program".
1. Hypothetical
2. Deductive
3. Inductive
4. Analogical
10. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the code
that represents them :
Statements :
(a) All judges are lawyers.
(b) Some judges are lawyers.
(c) Some judges are not lawyers.
(d) No judges are lawyers.
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (a) and (d)
4. (b) and (d)

11. ____: play : : sing : song
1. Act
2. Scene
3. Theatre
4 Field
12. Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them (taken singly or
together). Which conclusions are validly drawn ? Select the correct answer from the code
given below.
Premises : (i) All politicians are honest persons.

(ii) All honest persons are lair.
Conclusions : (a) Some honest persons are politicians.
(b) No honest person is politician.
(c) Some fair persons are politicians.
(d) All fair persons are politicians.
1. (a), (b) and (d) only
2. (b) and (d) Only
3. (a) and (c) only
4 (b) and (c) only
13. Given below is a statement followed by three assumptions made from it. Which
assumptions are implicit in the context of the given statement ? Select the correct answer
from the code given below.
Statement : 'Smoking is injurious to health'. - A warning printed on the cigarette packets.
Assumptions : (a) People read printed matter on a cigarette packet.
(b) People make careful note of a warning.
(c) Non-smoking promotes health.
1. Only (a)
2. Only (a) and (b)
3. Only (b)
4. Only (b) and (c)
14. Mr. Rajesh, his sister, his son, and his daughter are fond of golf and often play together.
The following statements are true for all the four :
(a) The best player's twin and worst player are of the opposite sex.
(b) The best player and the worst player are of the same age.

Assuming that both twins are members of the group of four, who is the best player ?
1. Son of Mr. Rajesh
2. Daughter of Mr. Rajesh
3. Sister of Mr. Rajesh
4. Mr. Rajesh
15.Five persons Amit, Anil, Ajay, Atul and Anand live in a five storey building on different
floors. Amit lives above Ajay but below Anand. Atul lives above Ajay but below Amit. Anil
lives below Anand but above Atul. In which floor does Anil live ?
1. Second Floor
2. Third floor
3. Fourth floor
4. Either third floor or fourth floor
16.A cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called :
1. An implication
2. An argument
3. An explanation
4. A description
17.Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or
together). Select the code that states the validly drawn conclusions.
Premises : (i) Some flowers are red.
(ii) All roses are flowers.
Conclusions : (a) Some roses are red.

(b) Some red things are flowers.
(c) Some flowers are roses.
(d) All roses are red.
2. (a) and (b) only
3. (b) and (c) only
4. (c) and (d) only
18.Consider the statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Which one of the codes
contains the correct statements only ?
(a) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
(b) To diagram a standard form of a categorical proposition, three overlapping circles
are drawn.
(c) To test a categorical syllogism, two overlapping circles are drawn.

(d) Venn diagram is a method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
Options:
1. (a) and (b) only
3. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a) and (d) only
19. If the proposition 'No dog is quadruped' is false which one among the following
propositions can be claimed certainly to be true ?
1. All does are quadruped.
2. Some does are quadruped.
3. Some dogs are not quadruped.

4. All does are biped.
20.A deductive argument is invalid if :

1. Its premises and conclusions are all true.

2. Its premises and conclusions are all false.
3. its premises are all true but its conclusion is false.
4. Its premises are all false but its conclusion is true.

21.In which of the following instances, deductive argument is invalid ?
1. When its premises and conclusion are all false.
2. When its premises and conclusion are all true.
3. When its premises are true but conclusion is false.
4. When its premises are false and conclusion is true.
22.The reasoning which would be helpful in seeking new knowledge of facts about the world
is :
1. Demonstrative
2. Deductive
3. Inductive
4. Speculative
23.Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them (taking singly or
together). Which of the following conclusions could be validly drawn from the premises ?
Premises : (i) All cats are animals.
(ii) Birds are not cats.
Conclusions : (a) Birds are not animals.
(b) Cats are not Birds.
(c) All animals are cats.

(d) Some animals are cats.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
1 (a), (b) and (d)
2. (b) and (d)

3. (a) and (c)
4. (b), (c) and (d)
24.Inductive argument proceeds from :

1. Particulars to Particulars
2. Particulars to Universals
3. Universal to Particulars
4. Universals to Universals
25.Among the following statements, two are contradictory to each other.

Statements :
(a) All men are humans.
(b) Some men are humans.
(c) Some men are not humans.

(d) No men are humans.
Select the code that represents them :
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (d)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (b) and (c)

26.'Every law is an evil, for every law is an infraction of liberty'.
The above is :
1. An argument
2. An explanation of facts

3. A justification of beliefs
4. A proposition of facts
27.Among the following propositions (a, b, c and d) two are related in such a way that both
of them together cannot be false although they may both be true. Select the code that
states those two propositions.
(a) All students are intelligent.
(b) Some students are intelligent.
(c) No students are intelligent.
(d) Some students are not intelligent.
Options :
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (b) and (d)
28.Given below are an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R). Consider them and select the correct
code given below :
Assertion (A) : Honesty is a great virtue.
Reason (R) : Honesty does not harm anybody.
Options :
3. (A) is true and (R) is false.
4. (R) is true and (A) is false.
29.When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premises necessarily, the argument
is called :
1. Circular argument
2. Analogical argument
3. Inductive argument
4. Deductive argument

30.Given below are two premises (i) and (ii). Four conclusions are drawn from them (taking
singly or together).
Premises : (i) Some prisoners are dacoits.
(ii) Some dacoits are murderers.
Conclusions :
(a) Some prisoners are murderers.
(b) All prisoners are murderers.
(c) Some dacoits are prisoners.
(d) Some murderers are dacoits.
Select the code that states the validly drawn conclusions :
1. Only (a) and (d)
2. Only (b) and (c)
3. Only (c) and (d)
4. Only (b) and (d)
31.In terms of the relationship indicated below, which word will correctly pair to replace the
question mark (?) ?
Scrub : wash : : Sob : ?
1. Cry
2. Water
3. Sad
4. Tease
32.Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them (taking singly or
together). Which conclusions are validly drawn ? Select the correct answer from the code
given below.
Premises : (i) All lawyers are extroverts.
(ii) Some wisemen are extroverts.
Conclusions : (a) All lawyers are wisemen.
(b) All wisemen are lawyers.

(c) Some extroverts are wisemen.
(d) All extroverts are lawyers.
1. (a) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a) and (c) only
4. (c) only
33.Which is an example of a correct deductive argument ?

1. There are 24 CDs on the top shelf of my bookcase and 14 on the lower shelf.
There are no other CDs in my bookcase. Therefore, there are 38 CDs in my
bookcase.
2. No one got an 'A' grade on yesterday's test. Jatin wasn't in school yesterday.
Jatin will make up the test today and get an 'A' grade.
3. All human beings are in favor of world peace. Terrorists don't care about
world peace. Terrorists bring about destruction.
4. You have to be 16 years old to get a driver's license. Abhi will be 16 years old
tomorrow. Therefore, Abhi can now buy a car.
34.In a certain flight crew, the positions of the pilot, copilot and flight engineer are held by
Mr. Ajit, Mr. Bhavesh and Mr. Chirag, though not necessarily in that order. The following
statements are true for all the three :
(i) The copilot is the only child and earns the least.
(ii) Chirag is married to Bhavesh's sister and earns more than the pilot.
Who is the copilot ?
1. Ajit
2. Bhavesh
3. Chirag
4. Either Ajit or Chirag
35. Ravi and Kunal are good in Hockey and Volleyball. Sachin and Ravi are good in Hockey
and Baseball. Gaurav and Kunal are good in Cricket and Volleyball. Sachin, Gaurav and
Mandeep are good in Football and Baseball. Who is good in Hockey, Cricket and Volleyball ?
1. Sachin

2. Kunal
3. Ravi
4. Gaurav

36.Two propositions are contradictory when,
1. Truth of one proposition implies falsity of the other and vice versa.
2 Truth of one proposition supposes the falsity of the other and vice versa.
3. Truth of one proposition doesn't guarantee the falsity of the other.
4. Truth of one proposition rejects the falsity' of the other and vice versa.
37.Among the following identify two statements which are in such a relation that the truth
of one implies the truth of the other, but not conversely.
Statements :
(a) All plastics are synthetic.
(b) Some plastics are synthetic.
(c) Some plastics are not synthetic.
(d) No plastics are synthetic.
Options :
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (a) and (d)
4. (b) and (d)
38.Identify the argument which involves a leap from the known to the unknown.
2. Reductive argument

39.Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select
the code that states validly drawn Conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).
Premises : (A) No non-literates are graduates.
(B) All non-graduates are non-teachers.
Conclusions : (a) All teachers are non-literates.
(b) All teachers are graduates.
(c) All non-teachers are non-graduates.
(d) No non-literate is a teacher.
Options :
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b), (c) and (d)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (b) and (d)
40. The argument which claims that its conclusion is supported by its premises conclusively
is :
3. Demonstrative argument

41. Among die following, there are two statements which can't be true together, but can be
false together. Select the code that represents them.
Statements:
(a) All poets are dreamers.
(b) No poets are dreamers.
(c) Some poets are dreamers.

(d) Some poets are not dreamers
Options:
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (d)
3. (b) and (d)
4. (c) and(d)
the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s). [Taking the premises individually or jointly]
Premises : (a) All judges are lawyers.
(b) No doctors are lawyers.
Conclusions : (i) Net lawyers are doctors.
(ii) Net doctors are judges.
(iii) All lawyers are judges.
(iv) Some doctors are judges.
Options :
1. (i) and (iii)
2. (i) and (ii)
3. (i) and (iv)
4. (ii) and (iii)
43.Under which of the conditions an argument may he valid ? Select the correct answer
from the code given below :
Statements : (a) When its conclusion and premises are true.
(b) liven when its conclusion and one or more of its premises are false.
(c) Only when its conclusion is true.
Options :
1. (a) and (c)

2. (a) alone
3. (a) and (b)
4. (c) alone
44.Truth and falsity are attributes of :

1. Propositions
2. Arguments
3. Opinions
4. Debates
45.Which one of the following can be validly inferred from the proposition - "All animals are
wild" ?
Options :
1. No animals are wild
2. Some animate are Wild.
3. Some animals are not wild
4. No non-animals are wild.

46.Given below are two premises (a and b). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select
the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s) [ taking the premises individually or jointly].
Premises : (a) All mammals are warm-blooded animals.
(b) No lizards are warm-blooded animals.
Conclusions : (i) No lizards are mammals.
(ii) Some lizards are not mammals.

(iii) No warm-blooded animals are lizards.
(iv) All warm-blooded animals are mammals.
Options :
1. (i) and (ii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (i) and (iii)
4. (iii) and (iv)
47. Among the following, there are two statements which can't be true together, but can be
false together. Select the code that represents them :
Statements : (a) All bats are mammals.
(b) Some bats are mammals.
(c) Some bats are not mammals.
(d) No bats are mammals.
Options :
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (d)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (b) and (c)
48.Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the 'truth and validity' in
logical reasoning. Select the correct code from the below :
(a) Truth and falsity are attributes of individual propositions.

(b) Validity and invalidity are attributes of individual propositions.
(c) Truth and falsity are attributes of arguments.
(d) Validity and invalidity are attributes of arguments.

Options :
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (d)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (a) and (d)
49.Among the following which one of the arguments is rooted in empirical investigation ?
1. Hypothetical
2. Deductive
3. Inductive
4. Implicative
50.Identify the correct reasoning in the following argument :

" An English woman lecturing Americans on semicolons is a little like an American lecturing
the French on sauces".
1. Analogical
2. Deductive
3. Inductive
4. Hypothetical

51.No Musicians are Japenese
All Barbers are Mucians
No Barbers are Japeneee
Identify the Middle Term in the above syllogism

(1) Subject in the first premise and predicate in the second premise
(2) Predicate in the first premise and subject in the second premise
(3) Predicate in the both premises
(4) Subject in both the premises
52.Inductive argument proceeds from

(1) Universal to Particular
(2) Particular to Universal
(3) Universal to Universal
(4) Particular to Particular
53.Consider the example given below :

Devadatta is growing fat. He does not eat food during the day. Therefore, He must be eating
food during the night, other things being equal.
Identify the logic involved in the example provided above by choosing the correct answer
from options given below :
(1) Arthapatti
(2) Anupalabdi
(3) Anumana
(4) Sabda
54."Sound is permanent because it is a product like the jar”.

Identify the fallacy involved in the above argument on the basis of Indian logic from the
options given below.
(1) Fallacy of contradictory reason
(2) Fallacy of wrong assertion
(3) Fallacy of irrelevant reason
(4) Fallacy of trivial reason

Hindi|
55.All gentlemen are polite

No criminals are polite
No criminals are gentlemen.
Identify the major term in above syllogism.
(1) Predicate in the premises
(2) Subject in the premises
(3) Subject of the first premise and predicate of the conclusion
(4) Subject of the second premise and subject of the conclusion
56.Identify the argument under which instantial propositions are inferrable from Universal
Proposition.
(1) Deductive argument
(2) Inductive argument
(3) Reductive argument
(4) Analogical argument
57.A perception where we do not have the knowledge of an object characterized by any
predicate but an apprehension of some unrelated elements is called as?
(1) Determinate perception
(2) Indeterminate perception
(3) Verbal testimony
(4) Implication
58.Consider the argument provided below :

“Sound is impermanent because it is audible”
Identify the fallacy involved in the above argument on the basis of Indian Logic from the
options given below :
(1) Fallacy of Trivial reason
(3) Fallacy of Wrong assertion
59.If proposition ‘some milk is curd’ is taken to be true then which of the following
propositions can be false?
(1) No milk is curd
(2) All milk is curd
(3) Some curd is milk
(4) Some milk is not curd
60.Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them Which of the
following conclusions could be validly drawn from the premises?
Premises: (i) All cats are dogs
Conclusions: (ii) All dogs are cows
(a) All cats are cows
(b) Some cows are cats
(c) All dogs are cats

(d) No cow is dog
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (d) only
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (d)

61.In which method of arriving at knowledge the emphasis is on both proceeding from
particular to general and from general to particular in a combined way?
(1) Inductive method
(2) Deductive method
(3) Scientific method
(4) Analogical method
62.Identify the reasoning in the following arguments

A pilot without flight plans is like an artist without paints’.
(1) analogical
(2) Deductive
(3) Inductive
(4) Hypothetical
63.The proposition ‘some trees are green‘ is equivalent to which of the following
propositions?
(a) Many trees are green
(b) Some green things are trees
(c) Some green things are not non-trees
(d) Trees are usually green
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a) only
(4) (c) and (d)
64. ‘All Judges are fair minded‘ is an example of proposition.

(1) Universal affirmative

(2) Universal negative
(3) Particular affirmative
(4) Particular negative
65.In which of the following arguments ‘the relation that exists between premises and
conclusion is that of logical necessity’?
(1) Inductive
(2) Deductive
(3) Demonstrative
(4) Analogical
66.Inference (anumana) in Indian Logic is rooted in

(1) variable relation between minor term and major term
(2) invariable relation between middle term and minor term
(3) variable concomitance between middle term and major term
(4) invariable concomitance between middle term and major term
67.If the proposition 'Houses are not bricks' is taken to be False then which of the following
propositions can be True?
(a) All houses are bricks
(b) No house is brick
(c) Some houses are bricks
(d) Some houses are not bricks

(1) (b) and (c)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (b) only
(4) (c) only
68.Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them. Which of the
Premises :
(i) No paper is pen
(ii) Some paper are handmade.
Conclusions :
(1) All paper are handmade
(2) Some handmade are pen
(3) Some handmade are not pen
(4) All handmade are paper
69. ‘All republics are grateful’ and ‘Some republics are not grateful’ cannot both be true, and
they cannot both be false. This is called as
(1) contraries
(2) contradictories
(3) subaltern
(4) super altern
70. “Use of teaching aids in the classroom to enhance learning is important in a similar way
as that of the use of ICT for production of knowledge’.
(1) Hypothetical
(2) Analogical
(3) Inductive
(4) Deductive
71.The proposition No historians are non-mathematician’ is equivalent to which of the

following proposition?

(1) All historians are mathematicians
(2) No historians are mathematicians
(3) Some historians are mathematicians
(4) Some historians are not mathematicians
72.Identify the minor term in the following syllogism :

“Some books are not edifying All books are interesting
Therefore, some interesting things are not edifying''
(1) Subject of the conclusion and predicate of the second premises
(2) Predicate of the conclusion and predicate of the first premises
(3) Subject of the both premises
(4) Predicate of the both premises
73.The reasoning which would be helpful in finding new knowledge of facts about the world
is
(1) Speculative
(2) Inductive
(3) Deductive
(4) Analogical
74.In a class of 35 students, Rajan is placed seventh from the bottom where as Karan is
placed ninth from the top. Divya is placed exactly in between the two. What is the
differences in the positions of Rajan and Divya?
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 13
75.Consider the example provided below :

"This gavaya is like my cow”

This is an example of which means of knowledge (pramana)
(1) comparison
(2) implication
(3) perception
(4) inference
76.Consider the argument provided below :

"Sound is impermanent because it is invisible'
Identify the fallacy involved in the above argument on the basis of Indian logic
Marathi| Percussion Instruments|Politics (including International Relations and Studies)|
77.If proposition ‘All pens are not pencils' is taken to be True then which of the following
propositions can be False?
(1) All pens are pencils
(2) Some pencils are pens
(3) No pen is pencil
(4) Some pens are pencils

Premises :
(i) All fans are tubes
(ii) Bulbs are not tubes
Conclusions :
(a) Fans are not bulbs
(b) All tubes are fans
(c) Fans are bulbs
(d) No tube is bulb
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (a) and(d)
(3) (a) only
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
79.When subject and predicate of both the premises is same but they differ only in quantity,
it is known as
(1) Subaltern
(2) Contraries
(3) Sub contraries

(4) Contradictories
80.Identify the reasoning in the following argument: “Writing on paper is similar to writing
on the board'
(1) Deductive
(2) Hypothetical
(3) Analogical
(4) Inductive

81.The proposition 'All leaves are green’ is equivalent to which of the following
propositions?
(a) No leaves are green
(b) No leaves are non-green
(c) No leaves are in other color than green
(d) No green is leaf
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b)only
(4) (b) and (c)

Sindhi| Telugu
82. ‘All children are not greedy" is an example of which proposition?

(1) Universal Affirmative
(2) Universal Negative
(3) Particular affirmative
(4) Particular Negative
83.The argument which claims that its conclusion is conclusively supported by its premises is
called
(1) Analogical Argument
(2) Inductive Argument
(3) Demonstrative Argument
(4) Deductive Argument
84.Consider the example provided below :

"There is no jar now on the ground *

Identify the means of knowledge (Pramana) involved in the example from the options given
below :
(1) Anupalabdhi
(2) Arthapatti
(3) Pratyaksha
(4) Anumana
85.Consider the argument given below :

"Sound is permanent because it is audible”
Identify the fallacy involved in the above argument on the basis of Indian logic from the
86.If proposition ‘All republics are grateful’ is taken to be true then which of the following
propositions can be false?
(i) Republics are not grateful
(ii) Some republics are not grateful
(iii) No republics are grateful
(iv) Some republics are grateful
(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)
87.Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn Horn them. Which of the

Premises:
(l) Some bags are tables
(ii) All bags are chairs.
Conclusions :
(a) Some tables are chairs
(b) No chair is table
(c) Some chairs are bags
(d) Some bags are not tables
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (b) only
88.When subject and predicate of both the premises are the same but they differ in quality
only, it is known as
(1) Contradictories
(2) Contraries
(3) Subaltern
(4) Super altern

Pre-active stage of classroom teaching is important just as pre-learning preparation stage of
communication’
(1)Hypothetical
(2) Deductive
(3) Inductive
(4) Analogical
90.The proposition 'No red is black1 is equivalent to which of the following propositions?
(i) No black is red

(ii) All red are black
(iii) Some red are not black (iv) Red is not black
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (iii) only
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (iv) only
91. If proposition 'Students are serious’ is taken to be false then which of the following
propositions can be true?
(a) All students are serious
(b) All students are not serious
(c) Some students are not serious
(d) Some serious ones are not students
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (d) only
(4) (b) and (c)
Premises:
(a) Some rings are bells
(b) No ring is ornament
Conclusions:
(1) All bells are ornaments
(2) Some ornaments are not bells
(3) No ring is bell
(4) All bells are not ornaments

93.When subject and predicate of both the premises is same but they differ in quality as
well as quantity, it is known as
(1) Super altern
(2) Contraries
(3) Contradictories
(4) Subaltern

Method of teaching in the classroom can be compared to architectural plan of a building'
(1) Analogical
(2) Hypothetical
(3) Inductive
(4) Deductive
95.The proposition ‘All birds are cows' is equivalent to which of the following propositions?
(a) Some cows are birds
(b) Some cows are not non-birds
(c) Some birds are cows
(d.) Many birds are cows

(1) (a) only
(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) (c) and (d)
(4) (d) only
2019 December||Adult Education | Anthropology| Chinese| Comparative Literature|


96.Which one of the following is signified by Udaharana of Anumana (Inference) in Indian
Logie?
(1) Statement of reason
(2) Proposition to be proved
(3) Conclusion proved
(4) Universal proposition along with an instance
97.Devdatta is fat and he does not eat during the day. Therefore, Devadatta is eating during
the night, The above example, in classical Indian School of Logic, is a case of
(1) Comparison
(2) Implication
(3) Perception
(4) Verbal Testimony
98.As per the classical square of opposition, if ‘A’ proposition is given as true, then which
one of the following is correct?
(1) “E” proposition is false, “I” proposition is true and “O” proposition is false
(2) “E” proposition is true, “I” proposition is true and “O ' proposition is true
(3) “E” proposition is false, “I” proposition is false and “O" proposition is true
(4) “E”proposition is true, “I” proposition is false and “O” proposition is false
99.Which one of the following propositions is a contrary to “All poets are dreamers”?
(1) Some poets are dreamers
(2) Some poets are not dreamers
(3) No poets are dreamers
(4) No dreamers are poets

100.Consider the following statements with reference to the proposition "Some girls are not
students”
(a) Subject term students is distributed
(b) Predicate term girls is undistributed
(c) Predicate term students is distributed
(d) Subject term girls is undistributed
Choose the correct option from those given below:
(1) Only(a) and (c) are correct
(2) Only(b) and (c) are correct
(3) Only(a) and (d) arecorrect
(4) Only (c) and (d) are correct
2019 December ||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies | Bengali| Bodo| Environmental
101.Which one of the following is signified by the term 'hetu' in the process of anumana
(inference) in classical Indian School of Logic?
(1) Example Provided
(2) Statement of reason
(3) Proposition to be proved
(4) Conclusion Proved
102.Assumption of an unperceived fact in order to reconcile two apparently inconsistent

perceived facts is known in Indian Logic as :
(1) Anumana (Inference)
(2) Upamana (Comparison)
(3) Arthapatti (Implication)
(4) Anupalabdhi (Non-apprehension)
103.Which one of the following combination of propositions is considered to be contraries

in the classical square of opposition?
(1) Universal affirmative and universal negative
(2) Universal affirmative and particular affirmative

(3) Particular affirmative and universal negative
(4) Particular affirmative and particular negative
104.Which one of the following is not a part of immediate deductive inference?

(1) Conversion
(2) Obversion
(3) Syllogism
(4) Contraposition
105.Consider the following statements with reference to categorical propositions :

(a) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes
subject term alone.
(b) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes
predicate term alone.
(c) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes both
subject and predicate terms.
(d) “Some birds are mammals” is a particular affirmative proposition and it distributes
neither subject term nor predicate term.
Choose the correct option from below :
(1) Only (a) and (d) are correct
(2) Only (c) and (d) are correct
(3) Only (b) is correct

(4) Only (d) is correct

106.’‘Everyone is going to the part;-. You should go too." This inference commits which
kind of fallacy?
(1) Ad Populum
(2) Equivocation
(3) Ad Verecundiam
(4) Ad Ignorantiam

107.'‘All students cleared their examination' and "Few students did not clear their
examination’'. This is an instance of .
(1) Contradictories
(2) Superaltern
(3) Subaltern
(4) Contraries
108.Product of two consecutive integers is divisible by 2. Therefore 4 X b (=20) is divisible by

2. This is an example of which type of Reasoning?
(1) Abductive
(2) Informal
(3) Inductive
(4) Deductive
109.The distinction between laukika and a laukika is made with reference to which one of
the following pramanas?
(1) Anumana (Inference)
(2) Upamana (Comparison)
(3) Pratyaksa (Perception)
(4) S'abda (Verbal testimony)
110.'Some students are sincere' is an example of which preposition?

(2) Universal Negation
(3) Particular Affirm a five
(4) Particular Negation

111.A fallacy in which an opponent's position is depicted as being more extreme or
unreasonable than is justified by what was actually asserted is called
(1) Argumentum ad Baculum
(2) The Red Herring
(3) Argumentum ad Hominem

(4) Straw Man
112. The distinction between Savikalpaka (determinate) and Nirvikalpaka (indeterminate) is

made with respect to which of the following pram anas?
(1) Anumana (inference)
(2) Pratyaksa (perception)
(3) Arthapatti (postulation)
(4) Upamana (comparison)
113.The term 'Paksa' according to classical Indian school of logic refers to which of the
following terms in the process of inference?
(1) Major term
(2) Undefined term
(3) Minor term
(4) Middle term
114.Which of the following refers to an attribute of every categorical proposition which is

determined by whether the proposition affirms or denies class inclusion?
(1) Quality
(2) Quantity
(3) Distribution
(4) Comparison
115.The product of any three consecutive integers is divisible by 6. Therefore, 3x4x5 (=60), is
divisible by 6? Which type of reasoning is embodied here?
(1) Deductive Reasoning
(2) Inductive Reasoning

(3) Non-verbal Reasoning
(4) Abductive Reasoning
2019 December ||Assamese | Computer Science and Applications| Criminology| Human

116.Which one of the following hetwabhasa (fallacy) is involved in the argument. “'Sound is
element because it is caused"?
(1) Viruddha or contradictory middle
(2) Satpratipaksa or inferentially contradicted middle
(3) Sadhyasama or the unproved middle
(4) Badhita or non-inferentially contradicted middle
117.Consider the following argument:

Statements : Some chairs are curtains.
All curtains are bedsheets..
Conclusion : Some chairs are bedsheets. What is the Mood of the above proposition?
(1) IAI
(2) IAA
(3) IIA
(4) AII
118.Which of the following is converse of ‘Some S is P’?

(1)Some S is not P
(2)Some P is not
3)Some P is S
(4)No P is S
119.Which one of the following fallacious hetu (middle term) is not uniformly concomitant
with the major term?
(1) Asatpratipaksa
(2) Auyatireki

(3) Anyonva-Asiddha
(4) Suyabhicara
120.According: to classical Indian school of logic, what is the correct sequence of steps
involved in Anumana (influence)?
(1) Upanaya. Pratijna . Hetu. Udaharana . Nigmana
(2) Pratijna. Hetu. Upanaya. Udaharana . Nigmana
(3) Pratijna . Upanaya. Hetu. Udaharana . Nigmana
(4) Pratijna . Hetu. Udaharana . Upanaya. Nigmana
121."Mr X lives in a slum and is unemployed, Therefore, Mr X deserves to be a minister."

Which kind of fallacy is committed in this argument?
1.Fallacy of Composition
2.Ad misericordium
3.Fallacy of Division
4.Fallacy of Accident
122.Which of the following is not a necessary step when you present an argument based on
inference before the others according to the Classical Indian School of Logic?
1.Nigamana
2.Upamana
3.Upanaya
4.Udiiharana
123.Consider the following with reference to the Indian School of Logic

(a) It is related to form of the argument only
(b) it is related to the content of the argument only
(c) It is related to perceptual knowledge alone

(d) It is related to presenting analogies alone
1. (a) only
2. (b) only
3. Both (a) and (b)

4. Both (c) and (d)
124.The converse of "All cats are mammals" is

1.Some mammals are not cats
2.No mammals are cats
3.Some mammals are cats
4.All mammals are cats
125.In the statement "No dogs are reptiles", which terms are distributed?
1.Only subject term
2.Only predicate term
3.Both subject and predicate terms
4.Neither subject nor predicate term
126.The term 'Yogaja' (intuitive) pertains to which of the following pramanas?

(1) Perception
(2) Inference
(3) Verbal testimony
(4) Comparison

127.In which of the following propositions, both can be true simultaneously but cannot be
false simultaneously?
(1) Contrary
(2) Contradiction
(3) Sub contrary
(4) Subaltern
128.Which of the following pramanas is used by classical Indian school of logic to prove the
existence of God?
(1) Arthapatti (postulation)
(2) Upamana (comparison)
(3) Perception (Pratyaksa)
(4) Inference (anumana)
129.All tigers are animals'*. This is an example of which type of proposition?

(1) Particular Negative
(2) Particular Affirmative
(3) Universal Negative
130.The inference “A mouse is an animal. Therefore, a large mouse is a large animal”

commits which one of the fallowing fallacies?
(1) Straw man
(2) Slipper slope
(3) Equivocation
(4) Fallacy of composition

131.The attributes shared by all and only those objects to which a term refers is known as

(a) The intention of a term
(b) Connotation
(g) Denotation
(d) The extension of a term
Choose the correct code from below:
(1) (d) only
(2) Both (a) and (b)
(3) Both (c) and (d)
(4) (c) only
132.According to traditional square of opposition if two propositions are so related that

they cannot both be false, although they may both be true is called:
(1) Subaltern
(2) Sub contraries
(3) Contradictory
(4) Contrary
133.An informed fallacy in which the conclusion of an argument is stated or assumed in any
one of the premises is known as:
(a)Begging the question
(b)Circular argument
(c)Ignoratio elenchi
(d)Petitio principii
Choose the correct option from the following*
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (a) and .(c)
(3) (c) only
(4) (b) (c) and (d)

134.Which of the following is not correct with reference to anumana according to classical
Indian school of logic?
(1) Linga/Sadhana is the middle term
(2) Paksa is the minor term
(3) Sadhya is the major term
(4) Hetu is the minor term
following is valid conclusion, drawn from the premises?
Premises :
(i) All diaries are copies
(ii) No copy is book
Conclusions :
(a) Some diaries are books
(b) Some books are copies
(c) No book is copy
(d) No diary is book
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (d)
136.Consider the following statements and. choose the right option

(a) Middle term should be distributed in at least one premise
(b) Middle term should be present in the conclusion
(c) Both premises can be particular in a valid argument
(d) Both premises can be negative in a valid argument

(1) (c)and(d)
(2) Only (c)
(3) Only (a)
(4) (b) and (c)
137.Which of the following is true with reference to anupalabdhi as a means of knowledge?

(1) 1 do not cognize the pot on the table, therefore it is absent there
(2) 1 directly perceive the absence of pot on the table
(3) 1 infer the absence of pot on the table since 1 do not find it to be there
(4) 1 know the absence of the pot on the table because 1 know its similarity with other
absences
138."If it rains, then the drought will end. The drought has ended. Therefore, it rained".
Which kind of fallacy does this commit?
(1) Deductive fallacy
(2) Inductive fallacy
(3) Abductive fallacy
(4) Informal fallacy
139.Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of an argument?

(1) it is either valid or invalid
(2) It is neither valid nor invalid
(3) It is either true or false
(4) It is neither true nor false
140."In this hospital, some nurses don't wear white dress, some doctors have private
practice and medicines prescribed are of high cost. Therefore, treatment in this hospital is of
poor quality". What fallacy does this argument make?
(1) Fallacy of composition
(2) Slippery slope

(3) Fallacy of accident
(4) Fallacy of division
141.Consider the example of anumana given below :

(a) The mountain is fiery
(b) Because it has smoke
(c) Wherever there is smoke, there is fire.
Which one of the following expresses Vyapti (relation of invariable concomitance?

(1) The relation of invariable concomitance between mountain and fire
(2) The relation of invariable concomitance between mountain and smoke
(3) The relation of invariable concomitance between fire and smoke
(4) The relation of invariable concomitance between perceiver and the smoke
142."Fire is cold, because it is a substance'' — is an instance of which one of the

hetuabhasas (fallacy of inference)
(1) A siddha (unproved middle term)
(2) Badhita (non-inferential contradicted middle)
(3) Virudha (contradictory middle)

(4) Saryabhicara (irregular middle)
143.Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to a deductive

argument?
(1) The relation between premises and conclusion is one of matter of fact
(2) The relation between premises and conclusion is one of logical necessity
(3) The relation between premises and conclusion is that of empirical necessity
(4) The relation between premises and conclusion is a matter of ascertainment of
probability

144.If two propositions are related in such a way that they cannot both be true together,
although both may be false together, then such a relation is considered to be
(1) Contrary
(2) Contradictory
(3) Subaltern
(4) Sub-contrary
145.Which one of the following is true with respect to the first figure of categorical
syllogism?
(1) The middle term is the subject of the major premise and the predicate of the minor
premise
(2) The middle term is the predicate of the major premise and subject of the minor premise
(3) The middle term is the subject of the major premise and the predicate of the conclusion
(4) The middle term is the subject of the minor premise and the predicate of the conclusion
LOGICAL REASONING 2020 JUNE

1. Given below are two propositions:
All philosophers are fallible
Socrates is not fallible
In the classical square of opposition, which one of the following is the correct answer?
1. Contrary
2. Contradictory

3. Subalteration
4. Subcontrary
2. Given below is a proposition:

'Mahatma Gandhi is called father of Nation',
What kind of classical categorical proposition is it?
1. Universal affirmative
2. Particular affirmative
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
3. Which of the following pramanas are accepted by Vaisheshika philosophy?

A. Pratyasha
B. Anurmana
C. Sabda
D. Upamana
E. Arthapatti
F. Anupalabdhi

1. A and B only
2. C and D only
3. E and F only
4. C and E only
4. Which of the following are accepted in Buddhism?

A. Adhyasa
B. Apoha

C. Abhava
D. Arthapatti
E. Pratyaksha
F. Sabda
1. A and B only
2. C and D only
3. B and E only
4. E and F only
5. What is the nature of a logical argument? Choose the correct answer from the following:
1. Justified or unjustified
2. True or false
3. Valid or invalid
4. Verifiable or not verifiable
2020 June || Anthropology | Home Science | Public Administration | Social Work |

Yoga |
6. In terms of the relationship indicated below, which word will correctly pair to replace
the question mark?
Frown : Pain :: Smile :
(1) Joy
(2) Sorrow
(3) Failure
(4) Discomfiture

Assertion (A) : Since the perception of hardness is not necessarily connected with its
colour, it can be said that all the perceptions seen conjoined but never connected.
Reason (R) : Causal relationship is always contingent and probable because it is derived
from experience.
below7:
8. Given below are two propositions :

ALL philosophers are fallible.
Hegel is not fallible.
In the classical square of opposition, which one of the following is the correct option for
this?
(1) Contrary
(2) Sub contrary
(3) Contradictory
(4) Subaltern
9. Given below are two propositions :

Some animals are fierce.
Some animals are not fierce.
In the classical square of opposition which one of the following is the correct option?
(1) Subaltern
(2) Contradictory
(3) Contrary

(4) Sub-contrary
List I (Concept) List II (Philosopher)

(A) Causality is apriori (I) Aristotle
(B) Causality is synthetic (II) Hegel
(C) Causality is dialectical (III) Hume
(D) Causality is material (IV) Kant

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
as Reason R
Assertion A: Substance is self-caused, self-conceived and self-existent
Reason R: Substance is not caused by other causal sources but is conceived by
something else and is also existent on that
given below

as Reason R
Assertion A: All perceptions seem entirely loose and separate. They are conjoined but
not necessarily connected
Reason R: Since the perception of hardness is not necessarily connected with its colour,
it can be said that perceptions are loosely connected
given below
2. Both A and R are correct but R s NOT the correct explanation of A
as Reason R
Assertion A: If there is a contestation between Sruti and Smriti, Sruti prevails over Smriti
Reason R: Sruti represents the philosophical aspect of the Vedas and Upanishads, while
Smriti is an application of the philosophical ideas.
given below

14. Quantity and quality of a categorical proposition decide

1. Validity
2. Invalidity
3. Mood
4. Figure
15. Which one of the following decides the figure of a categorical proposition?
1. Major term
2. Minor term
3. Middle term
4. Copula
List I Theories List II Philosophers

A. Episteme and Doxa I. Aristotle
B. Potential and Actual being II. Hegel
C. Vyavaharika and Parmarthik III. Sankara
D. Rational and Actual IV. Plato

1. A -I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
2. A - II, B - III, C - IV D – I
3. A - III B - IV, C - II, D – I
4. A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
17. What type of cognition is beyond the ambit of perception?

1. Anumiti
2. Upamiti
3. Nirvikalpaka pratyaksha
4. Savikarpaka pratyaksha
18. ‘Golden mountain is fiery because it is smoky'

Which type of fallacy is committed by the above inference?
1. Asraya siddhi
2. Svarupa siddhi
3. Vyapyatva siddhi
4. Savyabhichara
19. In a proposition which is particular affirmative,

1. Subject term is distributed but the predicate is not distributed
2. Neither the subject nor the predicate is distributed
3, Both subject and predicate are distributed
4, Subject is undistributed but predicate is distributed

List I Concepts List II Schools
A. Abhava I. Jainism

B. Anupalabdhi II. Buddhism
C. Apoha III. Vedanta
D. Syadavada IV. Nyaya
1. A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
2. A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
3. A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
4. A - I, B – II, C - IV, D - III
2020 June ||Assamese | Malayalam | Punjabi | Russian | Telugu |

21. The second member of the Nyaya syllogism which states the reason for the
establishment of the proposition is called.
(1) Pratijna
(2) Hetu
(3) Udaharana
(4) Upnaya
22. In the argument, ‘sky flower is fragrant because it is a lotus’ e.g. which ever is lotus, is
fragrant e.g. lotus growing in that pond'
Mention the type of fallacy from the following :
(1) Swaroopasidha
(2) Ashryasidha
(3) Vyaptytvasidha
(4) Virudha
23. Match List I with List II. List I gives the four types of fallacies while List II explains their
description
List I List II
(I) Here the middle term is contradicted by another
(A) Asidha
middle term.
(II) Here the middle term is contradicted by some other
(B)Savyabhichara
pramana and not by inference
(C)Satpratipaksha (III) It is the fallacy of the irregular middle
(D) Badhita (IV) It is the fallacy of the unproved middle
1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Assertion (A) : Indian Philosophy has been intensely spiritual and has always emphasized
the need of practical realization of truth.
Reason (R) : The wood 'darshana' means 'vision' and also the instrument of vision which
stands for the direct immediate and intuitive vision of Reality and also includes the
means which lead to this realization.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the

Statement I: In Indian Philosophy, Nvaya advocates the theory of extrinsic validity of
knowledge called ' Paratah Pramanvad".
Statement II : The Mimansa advocates the self-validity of knowledge both in respect of
its origin and ascertainment.

2020 June || Bengali | Bodo | Kashmiri | Social Medicine and Community Health |
Urdu |
26. Which one of the following Pramanas is accepted in Vaisheshika philosophy?
(A) Pratyaksha
(B) Anuman
(C) Upamana
(D) Sabda
(E) Arthapatti

List I (Concept /
List II (School)
Doctrine)
(A) Pratityasamudpada (I) Vedant
(B) Abhava (II) Sankhya
(C) Samyavastha (III) Nyaya
(D) Adhyasa (IV) Buddhism
1. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV). (D)-(II)
2. (A)-(II). (B)-(IV), (C)-(III). (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II). (D)-(I)

4. (A)-(IV). (B)-(I). (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
28. In the figure of categorical syllogism. Quantity and Quality of a proposition determine :
(1) Validity of Syllogism
(2) Mood of the Syllogism
(3) Figure of the Syllogism
(4) Fallacy of the Syllogism
List I (Concept) List II (Philosopher)

(A) Phenomenon and Noumenon (I) Aristotle
(B) Potential and actual being (II) Descartes
(C) Mind and Body Dualism (III) Locke
(D) Primary and Secondary qualities (IV) Kant
(1) (A)-(I): (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(III)- (B)-(II), (C)-(I). (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(IV). (B)-(I). (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
30. According to the law of excluded middle :

(1) A proposition could be true and false simultaneously
(2) A proposition is either true or false
(3) A proposition is true if it is true
(4) A proposition is neither true nor false
2020 June ||Commerce (1) |

31. In terms of Indian logic. "This hill has smoke which is invariably associated with fire”, is
called:
(1) Pratigya or proposition
(2) Universal concomitance together with an example
(3) Upanaya - the application of the universal concomitance to the present case
(4) Conclusion or Nigamana drawn from the preceding proposition

32. Identify the features of Aristotelian syllogism from the following :
(A) It is deductive — inductive and formal material
(B) It is only deductive and formal
(C) The major and minor terms stand apart in the premises
(D) It is verbalistic
(E) Verbal form is not the essence of inference
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only
(4) (A), (D) and (E) only
33. When the middle term is both positively and negatively related to the major term, the
inference is called.
(1) Based on uniformity of co-existence
(2) Kevalanavayi
(3) Kevala vyatireki
(4) Anavaya vyatireki
34. From the following identify those which illustrate the fallacy of the unproved middle?
(A) Ashrayasidha
(B) Swarupasidha
(C) Vyapvatvasidha
(D) Virudha
(E) Badhita
(3) (A). (D) and (E) only
(4) (A). (C) and (D) only

Statement I: Upamiti is defined as knowledge of the relation between a word and its
denotation.
Statement II: Verbal testimony is the statement of a trustworthy person and consists in
understanding its meaning.
options given below:

36. Identify the characteristics of the "middle term' from the following:
(A) It must be present in the minor term
(B) It must be present in all positive instances in which the major term is present
(C) It is the logical statement which is to be proved
(D) It must be absent in all negative instances in which major term is absent
(E) It is drawn from the preceding propositions

37. ‘Upanaya' in Indian ‘Nyaya Syllogism' corresponds to which of the following in

Aristotelian Syllogism?
(1) Major premise
(2) Minor premise
(3) Conclusion

(4) Both major and minor premises
38. "Fire is not warm because it is produced such as water", is an example of which type of
fallacy?
(1) Satpratipraksha
(2) Badhit-vishaya
(3) Virudha
(4) Swaroopasidha

Statement I: Keval vyatireki form of inference is that when the middle term is the
differentium of the minor term.
Statement II: Kevalanvayi form of inference is that when the middle term is both
positively and negatively related to the major term.
below:
40. The knowledge of the relation between name and an object

denoted by that name is called:
(1) verbal testimony
(2) implication
(3) inference
(4) comparison
2020 June || Comparative Literature | Criminology | Folk Literature | Forensic Science

| French | Museology and Conservation | Psychology | Tourism Administration and
Management |
41. The sequential order of syllogism in Nyaya philosophy is (mistake)
A. Nigman

B. Udaharana
C. Hetu
D. Upanaya
E. Pratigya
1. A, E, C, D, B
2. E, C, B, A, D
3. E, B, C, D, A
4. D, A, B, C, E
42. What is the sequential order of a comprehensible sentence in Nyaya philosophy

A. Akanksha
B. Yogyata
C. Tatparya
D. Sanniddhi
1. D, C, B, A
2. A, B, D, C
3. C, D, B, A
4. D, C, A, B
43. To infer rain in the past by perceiving muddy water in the pond', is
1. Purvovat anumana
2. Sesvatanuman
3. Both Purvovat anumana and Sesvatanuman
4. Comparison

44. The fallacy (hetvabhasha) produced in the conclusion due to the replication of Sadhya by
Hetu is known as
1. Savyabhichara
2. Viruddha
3. Satpratipaksha
4. Asiddha
45. Given below are four propositions. Two of them are related in such a way that they
cannot be true, although they can be false. Select the code that states those two
propositions
A. All men are honest
B. No men are honest
C. Some men are honest
D. Some men are not honest
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. A and D only

46. Which one of the following schools has not accepted anumana (inference) as a valid
source of knowledge?
(1) Advaita Vedanta
(2) Visistadvaita
(3) Charvaka
(4) Sankhya

Assertion (A) : Substance is always the subject of all predicates.
Reason (R): Substance is self-existent and self-conceived.
below :
48. Given below are two Statements :
'The water of the pond is muddy. It must have rained last night.
What kind of Anumana (inference) has been used in the above statements. Choose the
correct option from the following :
(A) S’esavat anumana
(B) Comparison
(C) Purvovat anumana
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(1) (A) only
(2) (B) only
(3) (C) only
(4) (D) only
List I (Philosophical doctrines) List II (Philosophical schools)

(A) Syadavada (I) Nyaya
(B) Anupalabdhi (II) Buddhism
(C) Apoha (III) Vedanta

(D) Abhava (IV) Jainism
1. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
50. Which one of the following pramanas has been accepted in Buddhism?
(1) Arthapatti
(2) Anupalabdhi
(3) Sabda
(4) Pratyaksha

51. In the statement the hill has smoke because it has fire', which type of fallacy may be
identified?
1. Asidha
2. Sadharana
3. Asadharana
4. Vyapyatvasidha
52. All knowable objects are nameable;

The pot is a knowable object;
Therefore, the pot is nameable
The above is an example of which type of inference?
1. Kevalanvayi
2. Kevalavyatireki

3. Anvaya Vyatireki
4. Shesavat

List I Pairs List II Pairs of analogies
A. Newspaper - Press I. Thirst - Water
B. Dog - Kennel II. Cow - Calf
C. Hen – Chick III. Cloth - Mill
D. Darkness – Lamp IV. Mouse - Hole
1. A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
2. A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
3. A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
4. A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

54. "Everyone believes that there is a soul. Therefore, you should also believe it." This
inference commits which kind of fallacy?
1. Ad hominem
2. Ad populmn
3. Fallacy of Accident
4. Fallacy'of Ambiguity
55. "God is great because He does great things". This inference commits which kind of
fallacy?
1. Ad populum
2. Fallacy of Composition
3. Fallacy of Division
4. Petitio Principii
56. Anil's participation in classroom is indifferent. His parents do not find him to be
active either.But his performance in examinations, ranges from being good to
outstanding. Therefore, he must be studying privately, in a clandestine way. This is
an example of which kind of Pramana?
1. Upamana (Comparison)

2. Anumana (Inference)
3. Anupalabdhi (Non-apprehension)
4. Arthapatti (Implication)
57. The distinction between purvavat and sesavat is made with reference to which of the
following pramanas?
1. Anumana (Inference)
2. Pratvaksa (Perception)
3. Comparison (Upamana)
4. Abhava (Absence)
58. Which sentence cannot fit into the AEIO framework?

1. No salt has iodine
2. The salt on the table has iodine
3. All salt has iodine
4. Some salt has iodine
59. In terms of the relationship indicated below, which word will correctly pair to replace
the questions mark?
Worse : Bad :: Doting :
(1) Reverence
(2) Fond
(3) Hate
(4) Dislike
60. Given below is a proposition :

“The weather is very cold today'.
Which one of the following, according to Nyaya. is the correct option?
(A) Samanya lakshana
(B) Yogaja
(C) Jnanalakshana

(D) Sannikarsha
(1) (A) only
(2) (B) only
(3) (C) only
(4) (D) only
61. Arrange in sequence the following theory of causality in Aristotle’s philosophy :

(A) Material cause
(B) Efficient cause
(C) Formal cause
(D) Final cause
(1) (A), (C). (B). (D)
(2) (A). (D). (B). (C)
(3) (C). (B), (A), (D)

(4) (A). (B). (C). (D)

Statement I: Some examinations are too long.
Some examinations are too difficult.
Therefore, some examinations are too long and too difficult.
Statement II : Some dogs chase cats.
All dogs have fleas.

Therefore, some cat-chasing dogs have fleas.
below:

Statement I: Human reason has this peculiar fate that it reaches at a stage when it can
neither answer certain questions nor can it ignore such questions.
Statement II : Human reason, by its own nature, is not competent to resolve certain
questions concerning the ultimate reality.

64. A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle and looking at the centre. Only D is between A
and B. Only F Is between A and C. E is just left of B. Who is the only one standing
between E and F ?
1. A
2. B
3. D

4. C
65. All things which have smoke have fire;

This hill has smoke;
Therefore, The hill has smoke: and
No non-fiery things have smoke;
This hill has smoke;
Therefore, this hill is not non-fiery'
The above is an example of which type of inference in Indian logic?
1. Purvavat
2. Anvayavyatireki
3. Kevalanvayi
4. Kevalavyatireki
66. Asidha is a fallacy when the middle term is

1. Unproved
2. Too wide
3. Too narrow
4. Non-exclusive

A. Assign : Allot I. Code : Password
B. Length : Meter II. Clerk : Office
C. Doctor: Hospital III. Mend : Repair
D. Lock : Key IV. Mass: Kilogram

1. A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
2. A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
3. A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
4. A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
68. A man is facing south-west. If he turns 90° in the anticlockwise direction and then 135°
in the clockwise direction, which direction is he facing now?
1. West
2. North-West
3. North-East
4. East


A. Owl: Flight I. Dairy farmer: Milk
B. Bell: Chime II. Snake : Crawl
C. Knife : Cut III. Thunder: roar
D. Farmer: Crop IV. Sword : Slaughter

1. A – II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
2. A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
3. A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
4. A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
70. Today is what day if, day before yesterday it was 13th of the present month and 3rd day
of the last month, with 31 days, was a Tuesday ?
1. Sunday
2. Tuesday
3. Wednesday
4. Friday

Statement I: If A, B and C are standing in a circle looking at the centre and B is just left of
A, then C is just right of B
Statement II: If X, Y and Z are standing in a circle looking at the centre and X is just right
of Y, then Z is just right of X
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
3. Statement I is true but Statement il is false
72. All flowers are toys. Some toys are trees. Some butterflies are trees, then
A. No butterfly is flower
B. Some butterflies are toys
C. Some toys are flowers
D. Some trees are flowers
E. Some trees are butterflies
1. A and B only
2. C and E only
3. B and E only
4. B and D only
73. "Wherever there is smoke, there is fire,

There is smoke in Mr. Verma's chamber,
There must be fire in Mr. Verma's chamber."
In accordance with Indian logic, this is an example of
1. Pratyaksha pramana (Perception)

2. Upmana (Comparison)
3. Hetvabhasa (Fallacy)
4. Vyapti (Invariable relations)
74. In order to authenticate the environmental values as advocated by our ancestors, a

scholar cites examples from Vedas. The means of knowledge used by him/her in terms
of Indian logic will be called
1. Anumana (inference)
2. Arthapatti (Implication)
3. Shabda (Verbal testimony)
4. Upamana (Comparison)

75. "Planets are big. Therefore, the atoms from which they are made are big". This inference
commits which kind of fallacy?
1. Fallacy of Division
2. Fallacy of Ambiguity
3. Fallacy of Equivocation
4. Ad populum
76. "Some teachers are not sincere" is an example of which category' of proposition?
1. Universal negative
2. Universal affirmative
3. Particular affirmative
4. Particular negative
77. Which of the following is correct about the sentence. "Some men are not married"?
1. The subject is distributed
2. The predicate is distributed
3. Both subject and predicate are distributed
4. Neither subject or predicate is distributed

78. Which one of the following is not a sense-organ according to classical Indian school of
logic?
1. Manas
2. Savikalpaka
3. Caksuh
4. Srotra
79. "Have you stopped telling lies?"

This type of question commits which kind of fallacy?
1. Fallacy of Complex Question
2. Fallacy of Ambiguity"
3. Fallacy of Equivocation
4. Fallacy’ of Accident
2020 June || Hindi (1) |

80. Out of the given four options which one does not belong to the class of other three?
Neurologist. Cardiologist. Alchemist. Gynecologist
1. Gynecologist
2. Cardiologist
3. Alchemist
4. Neurologist
81. The proportions "All Indians eat rice" and “Some Indians eat rice" are an example of
1. Subalternation
2. Contraries
3. Contradictions
4. Sub contraries
82. In Indian logic, which means of knowledge is drawn from the similarity between two
objects?

1. Comparison
2. Inference
3. Perception
4. Implication
83. "Mr. X is penniless. Therefore, he should be preferred for admission to college”. This
reasoning represents which kind of fallacy?
1. Ad hominem
2. Ad misericordiam
3. Ad baculum
4. Ignoratio elenchi
2020 June ||Hindi (2) |

84. Which of the following conditions are necessary for Anumana (inference) according to
Classical Indian Logic?
a) Cognition of the hetu (middle term) in the pak.sa or minor term
b) The relation of invariable concomitance between the middle and the major term
c) Cognition of the major term in the minor term
d) Cognition of minor term only
1. a) and b) only
2. b) and c) only
3. a), b) and c) only
4. a) and c) only
85. Consider the following argument:

Major Premise: No squares are rectangles
Minor Premise: All rectangles are circles
Conclusion: Some circles are not squares
What is the Mood of the above proposition?
1. A I E

2. A E O
3. E A O
4. E A I
86. 'Some animals are not harmful’ is an example of which of the following types of
propositions?
1. Particular Affirmative
2. Particular Negative
3. Universal Negative
4. Universal Affirmative
87. What fallacy is committed in the following argument?

"Mr. X is wrong in what he said because he is undisciplined by nature"
1. Ad hominem.
2. Ad populum.
3. Ad hoc
4. Ad misericordiam

88. Consider the following propositions.
No television is a computer.
Some televisions are not computer.
According to the square of opposition: the above opposition is called as
1. Subalternation
2. Subcontrary
3. Contradiction
4. Contrary

89. “Fat Ki’ishnadatta eats either during day or night, Fat Krishnadatta does not eat during
day, therefore fat Ki’ishnadatta eats during night”.
The above is an example of which type of inference?
(1) Comparison (upmana)
(2) Verbal testimony (Shabda)
(3) Negation (Anupalabdhi)
(4) Implication (Arthapatti)
90. Match the pairs in List I with the pairs of analogies in List II
List I List II
(A) Lizard : Reptile (I) Skating : Rink
(B) Tennis : Court (II) Haematology : Blood
(C) Bull : Cow (III) Eagle : Bird
(D) Botany : Plant (IV) Wizard : Witch

(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(IV). (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Statement I: All knowledge is a recollection. It is true on a certain account
Statement II: All men by nature, desire understanding
given below

Statement I: When I look deep into myself, I always stumble with one perception or
another. I can never catch myself
Statement II: Self is the logical presupposition of all knowledge. Therefore, the concepts
like substance and person can not be applied to it.
given below

Statement I: Different communities exist independent of one another but jointly
somehow they give an idea of communitarian life of a society
Statement II: Earth exists either through a blind chance or through an inner necessity or
through an external cause
given below


List I (Concepts) List II (Schools)
A. Nirvana I. Sankhya
B, Nihshreyasa II. Jainism
C. Apavarga III. Upanishads
D. Moksha IV. Buddhism

1. A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
2. A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
3. A - II, B - I, C - II, D - IV
4. A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
95. Deduction proceeds from

1. Particular to universal
2. Universal to particular
3. Particular to particular
4. Universal to universal

List I Typical Aristotelian syllogism List II Technical names in Nyaya
philosophy
A. Socrates is mortal I. Nigamana
B. Because he is a man II. Upanaya
C. Whoever is a man. is a mortal e.g. III. Udaharan
Pythagoras
D. Socrates is a man who is invariably a IV. Hetu
mortal
E. Therefore Socrates is mortal V. Pratijna

1. A - V, B - IV, C - III, D - II, E - I
2. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV, E - V
3. A - III, B - I, C - II, D - V, E - IV
4. A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV, E - V

97. What type of fallacy is implied in the following 'Fire is cold, because it is a substance"
1. Badhita
2. Virudha
3. Asadharna
4. Anupsamhan

98. Arrange the sequential order of syllogism in Nyaya philosophy :
(A) Pratigya
(B) Hetu
(C) Udaharana
(D) Nigman
(E) Upanaya
(1) (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)
(2) (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
(3) (A), (D), (B), (E), (C)
(4) (A). (C). (D), (B). (E)
99. Hetvabhasa (fallacy) produced in the conclusion due to refutation of Sadhya by Hetu is
known as :
(1) Asiddha
(2) Savyabhicara
(3) Viruddha
(4) Satpratipaksha

List I List II
(A) Knowledge is recollection (I) Berkeley
(B) Knowledge is either analytic or synthetic (II) Kant
(C) Knowledge is synthetic apriori. (III) Hume
(IV) Knowledge is perception and perception is (IV) Plato
knowledge

1. (A)-(I). (B)-(IV). (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
2. (A)-(II). (B)-(III). (C)-(I). (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(III). (B)-(I). (C)-(II). (D)-(IV)
4. (A)-(IV). (B)-(III). (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
101. In Universal Negative Proposition, how are the terms distributed? Choose the
correct option from the following :
(1) Subject is distributed, predicate is undistributed
(2) Subject is undistributed, predicate is distributed
(3) Both the terms are distributed
(4) Neither the subject is distributed nor the predicate
List I (Concepts) List II (Philosophers)

(A) Antinomies of pure reason (I) Leibniz
(B) Law of contradiction (II) Kant
(C) Clearness and distinctness (III) Aristotle
(D) Pre-established harmony (IV) Descartes
1. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

ANSWER KEY - LOGICAL REASONING (2018DEC-2019DEC)
1.4 21.3 41.1 61.3 81.4 101.2 121.2 141.3
2.2 22.3 42.2 62.1 82.4 102.3 122.2 142.2
3.3 23.1 43.3 63.1 83.4 103.1 123.3 143.2
4.2 24.2 44.3 64.1 84.1 104.3 124.3 144.1
5.3 25.3 45.2 65.2 85.1 105.4 125.3 145.1
6.4 26.1 46.3 66.4 86.3 106.1 126.1
7.3 27.4 47.4 67.4 87.1 107.1 127.3
8.3 28.2 48.4 68.3 88.2 108.4 128.4
9.4 29.4 49.3 69.2 89.4 109.3 129.4
10.2 30.3 50.1 70.2 90.3 110.3 130.3
11.1 31.1 51.1 71.1 91.4 111.4 131.2
12.3 32.4 52.2 72.1 92.4 112.2 132.2
13.3 33.1 53.1 73.2 93.3 113.3 133.1
14.2 34.1 54.1 74.2 94.1 114.1 134.4
15.4 35.2 55.3 75.1 95.3 115.1 135.2
16.2 36.1 56.1 76.1 96.4 116.1 136.3
17.3 37.1 57.2 77.1 97.2 117.1 137.1
18.4 38.3 58.1 78.2 98.1 118.3 138.1
19.2 39.4 59.1 79.1 99.3 119.4 139.1
20.3 40.4 60.3 80.3 100.4 120.4 140.2

ANSWER KEY – LOGICAL REASONING (2020 JUNE)
1 2 21 2 41 ? 61 1 81 1 101 3
2 1 22 2 42 2 62 4 82 1 102 2
3 1 23 4 43 2 63 1 83 2
4 3 24 1 44 2 64 4 84 1
5 3 25 1 45 1 65 2 85 3
6 1 26 1 46 3 66 1 86 2
7 1 27 3 47 2 67 1 87 1
8 3 28 2 48 1 68 1 88 1
9 4 29 3 49 2 69 4 89 4
10 2 30 2 50 4 70 3 90 3
11 3 31 3 51 4 71 4 91 1
12 1 32 3 52 1 72 2 92 1
13 1 33 4 53 2 73 4 93 1
14 3 34 1 54 2 74 3 94 1
15 3 35 1 55 4 75 1 95 2
16 4 36 4 56 4 76 4 96 1
17 3 37 2 57 1 77 2 97 1
18 1 38 2 58 2 78 2 98 2
19 2 39 3 59 2 79 1 99 3
20 3 40 4 60 3 80 3 100 4

DATA INTERPRETAION
2018DEC-2019DEC DATA INTERPRETAION`
2018 December|| Adult Education|Anthropology/ Chinese| Comparative Literature|
Comparative Study of Religions| German| Home Science| Indian Culture| Japanese|Labour
Welfare| Maithili| Management| Manipuri| Phi-losophy| Physical Education| Tourism
Administration and Management|
Monday Tuesday Wednesday

Time Distance Time Distance Time Distance
Cab
(Hours) (kms) (Hours) (kms) (Hours) (kms)
A 16 656 12 480 10 410
B 10 700 14 490 18 720
C 11 770 13 650 16 640
D 12 744 15 825 14 840
E 14 826 14 728 12 840
The table given above gives the number of kilo meters travelled and the number of hours
taken by five cabs A, B, C, D, and E. Data on three days is given - Monday, Tuesday and
Wednesday. Use the above data to answer the questions given below.
Sub questions
1.The average speed of cab A for the three days taken together is approximately :
1. 10 km/hr
2. 20 km/hr
3. 30 km/hr
4. 40 km/hr
2.The difference between the average speed of cab C and cab E on Monday is
1. 11 kms/hr
2. 21 kms/ hr
3. 31 kms/hr
4. 41 kms/hr

3.Which cab travelled the most in the three days taken together ?
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. E
2018 December||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies| Bengali| Bodo| Environmental

Sciences| Hindi
Name of Number of classes taken by the teacher daily Remuneration
the On Monday, Tuesday and On Thursday and per class
Teacher Wednesday Friday
A 2 0 5000
B 3 - 8000
C 1 3 6000
D 2 2 4000
E 3 1 3000
The above table shows the number of classes taken by each teacher in different days of the
week and the remuneration per class per teacher. Saturdays and Sundays are holidays.
Based on the above data, answer the questions given below. One cell is empty and you may
need to calculate it depending upon the information available in the question.
Sub questions
4.What is the total remuneration earned by teacher E in one week ?
1. 12000
2. 9000
3. 23000
4. 33000
5.In one week, teacher B earned 72,000. How many hours of classes did he take on
Thursday and Friday ?
1. 0
2. 1 hr. daily
3. 2 hrs. daily
4. 3 hrs. daily

6.The ratio of Lhe total weekly earning of teacher A to the total weekly earning of teacher D
is :
1. 5 : 6
2. 5 : 4
3. 3 : 4
4. 5 : 8
7.The total amount spent by the teaching institute for paying remuneration to all the
teachers for taking classes on Monday only is
1. 57000
2. 58000
3. 47000
4. 52000
8.Assume that 4 weeks constitute a month. What will be teacher D's earnings in a month ?
1. 160000
2. 40000
3. 120000
4. 16000
2018 December|| Arabic|Geography| Gujarati| Library and Information Science| Nepali|

Consider the following two tables (1 and II) in which table 1 shows the percentage (if
students who joined and successfully completed the Ph.D. programme from the Universities
A to G and table II shows the number of foreign Ph.D. students enrolled in the University C.
These percentages have been rounded to the nearest whole number. There are a total of
855 Ph.D. students in the University C and a total of 5700 students successfully completed
lire Ph.D. programme from all the seven Universities together. In accordance with the tables
1 and 11, answer the questions that follow:

1: Students University - wise
Name of % of students who % of students who successfully
University joined Ph.D. completed Ph.D (out of 5700)
A 22 18
B 15 17
C 10 13
D 17 16
E 08 09
F 12 15
G 16 12
II: Foreign Ph.D. Students in University C

Foreign Students Number of Ph.D. students in University C
American 65
Australian 46
African 25
European 35
9.What percentage of students in University C is that of foreign students ?

1.15%
2. 20%
3. 25%
4. 30%
10.In case, there are 21 African students in University E, then approximately, what is their
percentage in that University ?
1. 4%
2. 2%
3. 5%
4.3%
11.Which University has the highest percentage of students who successfully completed the
Ph.D. programme out of the students who joined that University ?
1. C
2. B

3. F
4. E
12.What is the ratio of students who successfully completed the Ph.D. programme to the
students who joined in the University G ?
1. 3 : 4
2. 1 : 2
3. 6 : 11
4. 9 : 17
13.The number of students who completed the Ph.D. programme from Universities A and D
together exceeds the number of students who joined the Universities C and E together, by :
1. 304
2. 278
3. 399
4. 369
2018 December||Archaeology|Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies| Dance| Folk

Literature| Forensic Sci-ence| French| Hindustani Music| History| Karnatik Music|
The following table shows the percentage of marks (%) obtained by five students A-E in six
subjects S1-S6. Maximum marks in all the six subjects S1-S6 are 80, 75, 100, 120, 125 and
150 respectively. In accordance with the table given below, answer the questions that
follow

Percentage of marks (%) obtained by five students in six subjects
Subject S1 S2 S3 S4 S5 S6
(Out of 80 (Out of 75 (Out of (Out of (Out of (Out of
marks) marks) 100 120 125 l50 marks)
Students marks) marks) marks)
A 80 72 76 80 50 65
B 60 70 88 90 65 72
C 45 65 44 72 72 82
D 50 75 72 84 64 70
E 65 45 68 60 80 66
Sub questions
14.The approximate average percentage of marks obtained by student A comes out to be :
Options :
1. 65%
2. 74%
3. 75%
4. 70%
15..The difference in the total marks obtained by student A in the subjects S3 and S4 taken
together and student E in the subjects S3 and S4 taken together, is :
1. 30
2. 36
3. 28
4. 32
16..The average percentage of marks obtained by all the five students together in subject
S6, is
1. 71%
2. 69%
3. 64%
4. 75%

17.The average of marks obtained by all the five students together in subject SI, is
1. 48
2. 50
3. 49
4. 51
18.The difference in the marks obtained by all the five students together in the subjects S3
and S1, is :
1. 48
2. 98
3. 108
4. 110
2018 December|| Assamese|Computer Science and Applications| Criminology| Drama or
Number of Number of Maximum | Full

Total number of
Subject students who students who marks in the
students appeared
passed failed subject
English 600 36 600
Mathematics 240 60
Science 300 216 400
Social Studies 360 48 400
Computer 168 32 400
Study the table given above carefully. It shows the number of students appeared, passed
and failed in five subjects. The full marks in each subject is also given. Some of the cells have
missing data. You might need to determine some of the missing data to answer the
questions below.
Sub questions

19.Which of die following could be the full marks in Mathematics if die pass marks in
Mathematics was 35% and the person who just passed scored 70 ?
1. 400
2. 500
3. 600
4. 200
20.What is the maximum marks that a student can score in all the five subjects together ?
(You may use the answer of the previous question.)
1. 500
2. 1000
3. 1500
4. 2000
21.What is the difference between the number of failed students in Science and the number
of passed in Social Studies ?
1. 229
2. 238
3. 312
4. 218
22.What is the approximate difference in percentage between the pass % in Social Studies
and the pass % in Mathematics ?
1. 2.5%
2. 6.5%
3. 16.5%
4. 26.5%
23.hi which subject was the failure percent the least ?

1. English
2. Mathematics

3. Science
4. Social Studies
The following table indicates the percentage of students enrolled in various faculties of a
University. The total number of students in the University is 12000, out of which 52% are
males and remaining are females. Based on the table, answer the questions that follow
(Questions 31-35) :
Percentage of students faculty wise
Name of the Faculty Percentage (%) of Students Science
Science 17%
Education 30%
Engineering 8%
Performing Arts 26%
Social Sciences 19%
Sub questions
24.The number of male students exceeding female students is :
1. 1400
2. 480
3. 1680
4. 800
25.Approximately, how many female students are there in the faculty of Performing Arts if
the proportion of males and females is the same for this faculty as for the whole University ?
1. 2560
2. 1610
3. 1498
4. 2678
26.if half of the students from the faculty of Education and all of the students from the
faculty of Social Sciences are females, then the number of female students in the three
remaining faculties altogether will be :
1. 1240
2. 1680
3. 960

4. 840
27.Supposing, the number available in the faculty of Engineering doubles keeping the total
number in the University to be the same by reducing the student numbers in faculty of
Performing Arts and faculty of Education equally, the number of students available in the
faculty of Education will be :
1. 3125
2. 3120
3. 2680
4. 2960
28.The difference in the number of students enrolled in the faculty of Science as compared
to the number of students enrolled in the faculty of Engineering, is :
1. 1180
2. 2040
3 960
4. 1080

Studies|
Consider the following two tables (I and 11) that show the production (in Tonnes) of four
products P, Q, R and S during the years 2010-2015 and the selling price per Tonne (in ?
thousands) respectively, hi accordance with the tables 1 and 11, answer the questions that
follow (Questions 31 - 35) :

I. Production year wise in tonnes
Product II. Selling Price in
P Q R S thousands
Year
2010 45 99 75 115 Price Per
Product
2011 25 41 93 158 Tonne
2012 40 108 107 166 P 9
2013 38 60 63 139 Q 4
2014 76 41 132 88 R 13
2015 56 70 120 97 S 3
Where, Stability of production of a given product during 2010 – 2015 =
Average Production
and Revenue (in thousands) from selling a product =
Maximum Production-Minimum Production
Production of a Product x Selling Price

Sub questions
29.In which year, the annual growth rate of production (of all the products together) is
highest ?
1. 2011
2. 2012
3. 2014
4. 2015
30.What is the stability of the production of P during 2010 - 2015 ?
1. 0.92
2. 1.04
3. 1.43
4. 1.63
31. in which year, (he total revenue of all the four products is lowest ?
1. 2011
2. 2012
3. 2013
4. 2010
32.Which of the products P, Q, R and S fetches the lowest revenue ?
1. P
2. Q

3. R
4. S
33. Which of the following statements is true ?
1. Product R fetches second highest revenue across products in the year 2011.
2. Sum of revenue of P, Q and S is more than the revenue of R in the year 2014.
3. Cumulative revenue of P and Q is more than the revenue of S in the year 2013.
4. Sum of revenue of P, O. and S is more than the revenue of R in the year 2012.

Sindhi| Telugu|
Items of Expenditure in crores)
Year
Salary Fuel etc Bonus Interest on Loans Taxes
2008 57.6 19.6 0.6 4.68 16.6
2009 68.4 22.4 0.5 6.50 21.6
2010 64.8 20.2 0.76 8.32 14.8
2011 67.2 26.6 0.74 7.28 17.6
2012 84.0 28.4 0.80 9.88 19.6
The above table shows details of expenditure incurred by a tea garden during the years
2008 to 2012. Note that all expenditure reported is in crores. Answer the following
questions based on the data given in the above table.
Sub questions
34. The average yearly expenditure on "Interest on Loans" during the period 2008-2012 was
ap proximately.
1. Rs. 6.33 crores
2. Rs. 6.88 crores
3. Rs. 8.32 crores
4. Rs. 7.33 crores

35. Bonus as a percentage (%) of salary was highest in the year ?
1. 2008
2. 2009
3. 2010
4. 2011
36. In which year, was the total expenditure (over the five heads of expenditure listed in the
table above) the least ?
1. 2008
2. 2009
3. 2010
4. 2011
37. In which years, the percentage (%) growth of expenditure on salary (as compared to the
previous year), was more than 10% ?
1. 2009 and 2010
2. 2010and 2012
3. 2011 and 2012
4. 2009 and 2012
38. In which year, the expenditure of taxes and Interest on loans', was less than the
expenditure on fuel etc. ?
1. 2009
2. 2010
3. 2011
4. 2012

Question Id : 91394324174 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling
Allowed : Yes Group Comprehension Questions : No Question Numbers : (31 to 33)
Data on % of villages not electrified in 6 States is given below (in the year 2000)
State % of villages not electrified

A 25%
B 45%
c 20%
D 60%
E 55%
F 30%
Answer the following three questions
Sub questions
39. How many States have at least 50% or more electrified villages ?
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
40. Which State has twice the percentage of electrified villages in comparison to State D ?
1. State A
2. Stale B
3. State C
4. State D
41. In the year 2000, the total number of villages in State D was 15,000. In the year 2010,
the total number of villages had increased to 20,000 out of which 10,000 villages were yet
to be electrified.
The % of villages not electrified in 2010 in State D has thus ___
1. Gone up
2. Come down

3. Not enough data
4. Cannot be computed
Data on education index in a few Stales is given below :
% of population below education

State Name
index
A 20%
B 25%
C 23%
D 17%
E 16%
F 21 %
G 15%
Answer the following two questions
Sub questions
44.If the population for State F is 2.6 lakhs, what is the population below education index ?
1. 0.39 lakhs
2. 3900 lakhs
3. 49000 lakhs
4. 51000 lakhs
No answer
42.If the total population of State A w as 5 lakhs while the population in State B was 2 lakhs,
the number of people below education index will be :
1. Higher in State A
2. Higher in State B
3. Equal in State A and B
4. Cannot be calculated

2018 December|| Malayalam|Political Science| Sociology| Tamil|
The number of candidates Appeared (A), Passed (P) and Selected (S) in a
competitive examination in two states
Year
State X State Y
A P S A P S
2010 990 195 48 1120 240 60
2011 650 150 44 960 180 52
2012 840 180 50 885 177 64
2013 780 160 64 1040 220 60
2014 1020 220 72 980 280 68
2015 950 215 70 900 228 48
43. In the year 2012, the % of candidates who failed in State X was nearly :
1. 80%
2. 90%
3. 95%
4. 50%
44. .In the year 2015, the % of candidates who passed in State X and Y taken together was
nearly :
1. 10 %
2. 25%
3. 50%
4. 66 %
45. In Stale X, the overall pass % during the period 2010 - 2015 was nearly :
1. 5%
2. 40%
3. 20 %
4. 50%

Look at the following diagram :
Number of students
in a class
Suppose you are given the following :

(a) Number of students in the class = 1,000
(b) Number of students in the class from Slate X =200
(c) Number of students in the class from State Y =300
With the above information, answer the following two questions :
Sub questions
46. What is the percentage (%) of students from States other than X and Y in the class ?
1. 10 %
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 50%
47. Suppose that 40% of the students in the class are female students. The number of
female Students from State X is 50 while the number of female students from State Y is 180.
What is the number of female students from other states in the class ?
1. 170
2. 150
3. 130
4. 100

2019 June || Adult Education|Anthropology|Chinese|Comparative
Literature|Comparative Study of Religions|German|Home Science|Indian
Culture|Japanese|Labour Welfare|Maithili|Management|Manipuri|Philosophy|Physical
Education|Tourism Administration and Management|
Consider the following table that shows the production of fertilizers by a company (in 10000
tonnes) during the year 2011 to 2018. Answer the questions based on the data contained in
the table :
Year ; 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018
Production of Fertilizers : 35 50 70 55 75 60 85 90
Sub questions
48. In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers more than the average
production of the given years?
(1). 2
(2). 3
(3). 4
(4). 5
49. What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 2013 to 2014?
(1). 20.4%
(2). 21.4%
(3). 22.6%
(4). 24.2%
50. What was the approximate percentage increase in production of fertilizers in 2018
compared to that in 2011?
(1). 157%
(2). 165%
(3). 177%
(4). 182%

51.In which year, the percentage increase in production as compared to the previous year
was maximum?
(1). 2012
(2). 2013
(3). 2015
(4). 2018
52.The average production of 2012 and 2013 was exactly equal to the average production of
which of the following pairs of years?
(1). 2011 and 2012
(2). 2011 and 2017
(3). 2012 and 2014
(4). 2015 and 2016
2019 June||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies | Bengali|Bodo|Environmental

Sciences|Hindi|
Consider the following table that shows the total number of students and percentage of
females and males in five different departments. Answer the questions based on the data
contained in the table.
Department Percentage of Percentage of males Total No. of students
Females
Physics 45 55 450
Chemistry 35 65 550
English 55 45 300
Hindi 60 40 250
Mathematics 40 60 500
Sub questions
53.What is the total number of females in English and Hindi departments together?
(1). 315
(2). 325
(3). 335
(4). 345

54.What is the respective ratio of the number of male students in English Department to the
number of male students in Mathematics department?
(1). 9: 12
(2). 9: 20
(3). 3:5
(4). 45 : 60
55.Which of the departments has maximum number of female students?
(1). Physics
(2). Chemistry
(3). English
(4). Mathematics
56.The total number of students in the Chemistry department forms approximately what
percent of the total number of students in the mathematics department?
(1). 90%
(2). 95%
(3). 105%
(4). 110%
57.Which of the department has minimum number of male students?

(1). Physics
(2). English
(3). Hindi
(4) Mathematics

2019 June|| Arabic | Geography| Gujarati| Nepali| Psychology| Punjabi|
Consider the following two tables (I and II) that show the percentage wise distribution (%) of
the number of laptops sold by a shopkeeper during' a period of sis months from April to
September 2018 and the ratio between the number of laptops sold of brand HF (H) and
brand DELL (D) during the same six months. A total of 45000 laptops have been sold during
these sis months Study these tables I and II and answer the questions that follow
I. Sale of laptops Month wise II. Laptops Brand Ratio
Name of Month % of Laptops Ratio
Name of Month
April 17 H D
May 22 April 8 7
June 25 May 4 5
July 8 June 3 2
August 12 July 7 5
September 16 August 7 s
September 7 9
Sub questions
58.What is the ratio of the number of laptops sold of brand D during April to those sold
during September of the same brand?
(1). 119 : 145
(2). 116 : 135
(3). 119 : 135
(4). 119:130
59.If 35% of the laptops sold of brand H during August were sold at a discount, hone many
laptops of brand H during that mouth were sold without a discount?
(1). 882
(2). 1635
(3). 1638
(4). 885

60. If the shop keeps team* da profit of t 434 on each laptop sold of brand D during July,
what was his total profit earned on the laptops of that brand during the same month?
(1). 6,51.900
(2). 6,46,500
(3). 6,49, 500
(4). 6.51,000
61. The number of laptops sold of brand H during April is approximately what percent of the
number of laptops sold of brand K during September?
(1). 110
(2). 140
(3). 130
(4). 150
62. If 35% of the laptops sold of brand H during August were sold at a discount, hone many
laptops of brand H during that mouth were sold without a discount?
(1). 882
(2). 1635
(3). 1638
(4). 885
63. If the shop keeps team* da profit of t 434 on each laptop sold of brand D during July,
what was his total profit earned on the laptops of that brand during the same month?
(1). 6,51.900
(2). 6,46,500
(3). 6,49, 500
(4). 6.51,000

64.The number of laptops sold of brand H during April is approximately what percent of the
number of laptops sold of brand K during September?
(1). 110
(2). 140
(3). 130
(4). 150
65.What is the total number of laptops sold of brand D during May and June together?
(1). 9500
(2). 10000
(3). 10500
(4). 15000
2019 June || Archaeology | Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies|Forensic Science|
French| History| Kashmiri|Konkani|Linguistics|Mass Communication and
Journalism|Museology and Conservation| Music Rabindra Sangeet|Pali|Performing Art
(Dance Drama Theatre)| Persian| Prakrit|Russian|Santali|Spanish
Consider the following Table that shows the distribution of students in. two sections A and B
in a school according to the marks obtained by them. There is a total of 45 students in each
of the sections A and B. Answer the questions based on the data contained in the table :
Marks obtained by students
Marks in Number of students in
class interval Section - A Section - B
[0-9] 2 4
[10 - 19] 5 5
[20 - 29] 10 9
[30 - 39] 4 4
[40 - 49] 8 7
[50 - 59] 4 5
[60 - 69] 7 5
[70 - 79] 5 6
Sub questions

66.If the pass mark is 30, what is the number of failures in both the sections together?
(1). 43
(2). 35
(3). 16
(4). 26
67.If the pass mark is 40, approximately what is the percentage of successful students in
Section - B?
(1). 48%
(2). 51%
(3). 50%
(4). 47%
68.How many students in Section - A and Section - B together have obtained marks less than
10?
(1). 10
(2). 11
(3). 12
(4). 6
69.How many students in Section - A have obtained 30 or more marks but less than 50?
(1). 12
(2). 14
(3). 10
(4). 13

70.How many students in Section - A and Section - B have obtained 50 or more than 50
marks?
(1). 23
(2). 43
(3). 32
(4). 34
2019 June ||Assamese | Computer Science and Applications|Criminology|Human Rights

And Duties|Odia|Social Work|Urdu
Consider the following table that shows the number (in lakhs) of different sizes of LED
television sets sold by a company over the last seven years from 2012 to 201S. Answer the
questions based on the data contained in the table :
Sale of LED Television sets (in lakhs) of different sizes (in inches)
Size of LED Television sets (in inches)
Year
22” 24” 32" 40” 49"
2012 85 154 124 112 118
2013 100 136 112 94 136
2014 106 124 85 115 145
2015 115 100 160 100 85
2016 100 S5 145 85 100
2017 115 70 175 55 130
2018 125 95 170 110 155
Sub questions
71.What was the approximate percentage increase|decrease in the sales of 32-inch LED
Television sets in 2017 compared to that in 2013?
(1). 36%
(2). 56%
(3). 57%
(4). 64%
72.For which size LED Television sets is the total sales of all the seven years the maximum?
(1). 22-inch Television

73.What is the difference in the number of 40-inch Television sets sold in 2013 and 2018?
(1). 1,600,000
(2). 1,500 000
(3). 15,000,000
(4). 16,000,000
74.What is the total sale of Television sets of size 49-inches (in lakhs) over all the seven
years?
(1). 912
(2). 896
(3). 879
(4). 869
75.For which LED Television set is the total sales of all the seven year s the minimum?
(2) 24-inch Television
(4) 40-inch Television
2019 June|| Commerce

The year-wise student strength in a university from different zones of the country in
addition to those students who are from foreign countries is shown in table given below :
Student Strength (in hundreds)
North South Central West Foreign
Year East Zone
Zone Zone Zone Zone countries
2014 15.1 10.2 6.2 4.0 8.2 1.2
2015 16.2 11.5 5.8 4.1 7.8 1.6
2016 17.2 11.8 6.0 4.5 8.5 1.7
2017 17.4 10.3 6.5 4.8 7.6 1.8
2018 18.0 10.6 6.4 5.4 3.6 2.5
Sub questions

76.Which category of students have registered overall maximum growth rate (%) from 2014
to 2018?
(1). Foreign countries.
(2). West Zone
(3). North Zone
(4). East Zone
77.During the period 2014-2018, which zone exhibits cyclic variation?

(1). East zone
(2) West zone
(3). Central zone
(4) South zone
78.What is the mean of annual growth rates (%) of the student strength of north zone?
(1). 6,24
(2). 4.51
(3). 3.86
(4). 4.82
79.Which was the year when the students from east zone had maximum representation (%)
in the total student strength of the university?
(1). 2016
(2). 2018
(3). 2014
(4). 2015
80.What was the percentage (%) of students from foreign countries in the year1 2018?
(1)~4.21%
(2)-3.52%
(3)~5.24%
(4)-4.85%

2019 June ||Defence and Strategic Studies | Dogri|Economics|Electronic Science
|Marathi| Percussion Instruments|Politics (including International Relations and Studies)|
Rajasthani| Sanskrit| Social Medi-cine and Community Health|Tribal and Regional
Consider the following table that shows the total number of tickets sold of five movies P, Q,
R, S and T, across two cinema houses A and B on a particular day. In accordance with the
table, answer the questions that follow' (Question 31-35) :
Sale of Movie Tickets Cinema house wise

Cinema
Movies
A B
P 200 300
Q 350 400
R 250 350
S 300 350
T 400 250
Sub questions
81.The number of tickets sold of movie T at Cinema house A is what percent of the number
of tickets of movie P sold at Cinema A?
(1). 220%
(2). 200%
(3). 210%
(4). 190%
82.What is the total number of tickets sold of movies Q and R together at both the Cinemas
A and B together?
(1). 1050
(2). 1200
(3). 1250
(4). 1350
83.What is the ratio of the number of tickets sold of movie P at Cinema B to the number of
tickets sold of movie Q at Cinema B?
(1). 2 : 3
(2). 3 : 4
(3). 1 : 2
(4). 3 : 5

84.What is the difference between the total number of tickets sold of all movies together at
Cinema A and the total number of tickets sold of all movies together at Cinema B?
(1)180
(2). 170
(3). 150
(4). 160
85.What is the average number of tickets sold at Cinema B for movies T and S together?
(1). 360
(2). 320
(3). 300
(4). 340
2019 June || Education | Kannada| Law| Population Studies| Public Administration|

Sindhi| Telugu
Consider the following table that shows the percentage (%) distribution of population of six
cities A-F, ratio of males to females and the percentage (%) of adult population in these
cities. Total population of these six cities is 24 lakhs. In accordance with the table, answer
the questions that follow (Questions 31 - 35) :
Population city wise

City % of population Male : Female % Adult
A 21 4; 3 60
B 18 5: 4 64
C 16 5:3 72
D 20 2: 3 70
E 10 1: 1 75
F 15 3:2 65
Sub questions
86.What is the total number of male population in City D?
(1). 1.88 lakh
(2). 1.92 lakh
(3). 1.96 lakh
(4). 2.04 lakh

87.What is the number of persons in City C who are not adult?
(1). 107520
(2). 108410
(3). 109560
(4). 110800
88.What is the difference between the number of males and the number of females in City
B?
(1). 42000
(2). 44000
(3). 45000
(4). 48000
89The number of adults in City E is what percent of the number of males in City D?
(1). 82.5%
(2). 87.75%
(3). 92.5%
(4). 93.75%
90What is the number of per sons of City F who are adult?
(1). 232000
(2). 230000
(3). 234000
(4). 242000

2019 June ||English | Sanskrit Traditional Subjects| Visual Art| Yoga
Consider the following table that shows expenditures of a company (in lakh rupees) per
annum over the given years. Answer the questions based on the data contained in the table
:
Item of expenditure
Year Salary Transport Bonus Interest on Loans Taxes
2008 150 90 2.00 20.0 80
2009 180 100 2.50 305 95
2010 200 110 2.75 35.5 105
2011 240 115 3.00 40.0 85
2012 250 125 3.25 42.5 100
Sub questions
91.What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay (in
Rupees) during this period?
(1). 30.5 Lakh
(2). 32.7 Lakh
(3). 33.7 Lakh
(4). 35,5 Lakh
92.The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately
what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?
(1). 0.9%
(2). 1.3%
(3). 1.6%
(4). 2.0%
93.Total expenditure of all the items in 2008 was approximately what percent of the total
expenditure in 2012?
(1). 66%
(2). 69%
(3). 72%
(4). 75%

94.The approximate ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the years and the
total expenditure on transport for all the years is
(1). 31:40
(2). 25:36
(3). 27:30
(4). 31 : 36
95.The approximate ratio between the total expenditure of the company in the year 2008
and the total expenditure of the company in the year 2009 is
(1). 57 : 75
(2).52 : 68
(3). 57:68
(4). 68: 57
2019 June ||Malayalam | Political Science| Sociology| Tamil

Consider the following table that shows percent profit earned by company ABC and
company XYZ during the year 2011-2016. Answer the questions based on the data contained
in the table:
Year Percent profit earned Percent profit earned
by company ABC by company XYZ
2011 50 55
2012 70 60
2013 50 45
2014 40 50
2015 60 50
2016 80 75
Sub questions
96.If the profit earned by company ABC in the year 2015 was Rs. 6,60,000, what was the
total income of the company in that year?
(1). 11,000,00
(2). 14,300,00
(3). 17,600,00
(4). 20,900,00

97.If the income of company ABC in 2013 and that in 2015 were equal and the amount
invested in 2013 was Rs. 8,00,000 what was the amount invested in 2015?
(1). 7,50,000
(2). 9,00,000
(3). 10,50,000
(4). 12,00,000
98.If the amount of profit earned by company XYZ in 2012 was Rs. 9 lakh, what was the total
investment?
(1). 12,00,000
(2).15,00,000
(3). 16,00,000
(4). 18,00,000
99.If each of the companies ABC and XYZ invested Rs. 20 lakh in 2014, what was the average
profit earned by the two companies?
(1). Rs. 8 lakh
(2). Rs. 10 lakh
(3). Rs. 9 lakh
(4). Rs. 12 lakh
100.If the amounts invested by the two companies in 2015 were equal, what was the ratio
of the total income of company ABC to that of company XYZ in 2015
(1). 5:6
(2). 6:5
(3). 15 : 16
(4). 16: 15

The following table presents the data on the number of vehicles of three different types (A,
B and C) produced by a company during seven different years from 2012 to 2018. Based on
the data in the table, answer the questions 1- 5 :
Year - wise production of three types of vehicles
A - Type B - Type C - Type
Vehicle
Year
2012 5000 20000 15000
2013 15,000 10000 22500
2014 10,000 15000 30000
2015 17,500 15000 23000
2016 25,000 20,000 15000
2017 13,000 25,000 20000
2018 30,000 35,000 25000
101.What the percentage of growth in the production of type B vehicles from 2016 to 2017
(1). 10%
(2). 5%
(3). 20 %
(4). 25 %
Options :
61547531101. 1
61547531102. 2
61547531103. 3
61547531104. 4
102.The number of A — type vehicles produced in the year 2014 was what percent (%) of
the number of C-type vehicles produced in the year 2016?
(1). ~ 33.33 %
(2). ~ 66.67 %

(3). 50 %
(4). 15 %
103.In how many years was the production of A — type vehicles less than its average
production over the given years?
(1). 2
(2). 4
(3). 3
(4). 1
104.What was the average number of B — type vehicles produced by the company over the
years?
(1). 20000
(2). 25000
(3). 15000
(4). 30000
105.In which of the following years was the total production of all the three types of
vehicles 60000?
(1). 2013
(2). 2014
(3). 2015
(4). 2016

The table below embodies data on the number of students admitted in three different
colleges (A, B and C) during six different years from 2014 to 2019. Based on the data
contained in the table, answer the questions 1-5 :
Year - Wise Number of Admitted students in different colleges :

Colleges A B c
Year
2014 8000 14000 11000
2015 15000 17000 13000
2016 17000 23000 19000
2017 13000 27000 23000
2018 22000 26000 24000
2019 27000 18000 16000
Sub questions
106.In which college w as the number of students admitted in the year 2016 second lowest
and the number of students admitted in the year 2018 minimum respectively?
(1). College C and College B
(2). College B and College A
(3) College C and College A
(4) College A and College B
107.What is the approximate percent {%) increase in the number of students admitted in
college A in the year 2016 as compared to previous year?
(1). 23%
(2). 123%
(3). 113 %
(4). 13 %
108.What is the difference between the total number of students admitted in college A
overall the years together and the total number of students admitted in college C in the year
2018 and 2019 together?
(1). 6400
(2).62000
(3). 64000
(4). 61000

109.Total number of students admitted in college C over all the years was approximately
what percent (%) of total number of students admitted in all the three colleges together in
the year 2017?
(1). 168% (2). 162%
(3). 158% (4). 175%
110.What is the average number of students admitted in college A in the year 2015. in
college B in the year 2016. and in college C in the year 2019 together?
(1). 18000
(2). 24000
(3). 17000
(4). 28000
2019 December ||Arabic |Geography|Gujarati|Nepali|Psychology|Punjabi
The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by five students in five subjects
Maximum marks in each subject are given in the parenthesis below the subject name.
Percentage (%) Marks obtained
Physical
Student Maths Chemistry Physics English
Education
(100) (150) {150) (100)
(100)
A 90 80 95 80 90
B 80 75 90 70 80
G 100 95 95 85 95
D 75 70 60 65 60
E 60 50 65 50 70
Sub questions
111.The aggregate of marks obtained by E is :
(1). 252.5
(2). 251.5
(3). 353.5
(4). 352.5
112.What is the difference between aggregate marks obtained by A and C?
(1). 40.5 (2). 41.5
(3). 42.5 (4). 43.5

113.In which subject, the students have obtained lowest average (%) percentage of marks?
(1). Chemistry
(2). Physics
(3). English
(4). Physical Education
114.The aggregate percentage of marks obtained by C are :
(1). 92.20%
(2). 94.17%
(3). 95.21%
(4). 91.17%
115.What is the average percentage of marks obtained by the students in Chemistry?

(1). 74%
(2). 79%
(3). 80%
(4). 31%
The following table gives the percentage (%) of people having knowledge of different-
programming languages. Assuming that the total number of people having knowledge about
programming language is 12.00,000, answer the questions that follow the table :
Programming Language % of People having knowledge

C++ 15%
C 25%
COBOL 12%
FORTRAN 13%
Java 15%
LISP 10%
Python 10%
Sub questions

116.The ratio of the number of people having knowledge about C to that of knowledge
about Java is
(1). 3 : 5
(2). 5:3
(3). 1 : 1
(4). 5 : 2
117.How many people have knowledge about C language?

(1). 180000
(2). 300000
(3). 1.66.000
(4). 1,44.000
118.The total number of people having knowledge about C, Java and COBOL is
(1). 480000
(2). 504000
(3). 516000
(4). 624000
119.What is the average percentage (%} of people having knowledge of programming

language Python. LISP and Java?
(1). 1.04%
(2). 11.7%
(3). 26.6%
(4). 11.0%
120.Difference in the number of people having knowledge of C and COBOL programming

languages is
(1). 120000
(2). 180000
(3). 144000
(4). 156000

2019 December ||Assamese | Computer Science and Applications| Criminology| Human
The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by 6 students in 5 different
subjects in an examination, The numbers in the parenthesis give the maximum marks in
each subject. Answer the given questions based on the table :
Subject (Max. Marks) Percentage (%) of marks obtained

Maths Chemistry Physics Biology English
Name of student
(150) (130) (120) (100) (100)
Ankit 90 50 80 60 70
Amar 100 60 70 40 80
Sanya 90 60 85 SO 60
Rahul 80 75 65 90 90
Puneet 80 80 70 85 50
Pooja 70 75 50 80 40
Sub questions
121.What is the percentage of marks obtained by Amar
(1) 70%
(2) 72%
(3) 60%
(4) 58.33%
122.What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sanya in all the five subjects°
(1) 375
(2) 395
(3) 455
(4) 475
123.What is the average marks obtained by all the six students in Chemistry‘?
(1) 86.66
(2) 76.66
(3) 66.66
(4) 60.00

124.How many students obtained 60% and above marks in all the subjects?
(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Zero
125.In which subject the performance of the students is worst in terms of percentage of
marks?
(1) Chemistry
(2) Physics
(3) Biology
(4) English

Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follows. The table shows the
percentage (%) profit earned by the Company A, income of Company B and expenditure of
Company B during the years, 2013 - 18 as well as formula to compute percentage (%) profit
Year wise Financial Details (in Rs Lakhs]
Income of B (in Rs.
Year % Profit of A Expenditure of B (in Rs Lakhs)
Lakhs)
2013 40% 48.6 36
2014 25% 35 25
2015 60% 62.4 43
2016 40% 77 44
2017 10% 30 50
2013 20% 72 45
𝐼𝑛𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒 − 𝐸𝑥𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒
Where profit is = × 100
𝐸𝑥𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒
Sub questions

126.What is the difference between percent (%) profit of Company A and Company B in the
year 2013?
1. 5%
2. 7%
3. 12%
4. 15%
127.If the income of the Company A in the year 2014 happened to be Rs 32.5 Lakhs, then
what was the sum of the net profit (in Rs Lakhs) of Company A and Company B in 2014?
1.Rs 12.8 Lakhs
2.Rs 13.2 Lakhs
3.Rs 15 Lakhs
4.Rs 16.5 Lakhs
128.The percent profit of Company B was maximum in the year?

1. 2014
2. 2015
3. 2016
4. 2017
129.If the expenditure of Company A in year 2017 was Rs 45 Lakhs, then the net profit (in Rs
Lakhs) of Company A is what percent of net profit (in Rs Lakhs} of Company B in the same
year?
1. 15%
2. 25%
3. 40%
4. 75%

130.If the income of Company A in the year 2018 was Rs 90 Lakhs, then the net profit (in Rs
Lakhs) of Company B in 2018 is what percent more than the net profit (in Rs Lakhs) of
Company A?
1. 30%
2. 60%
3. 75%
4. 80%
2019 December ||Defence and Strategic Studies/Dogri/Economics/Electronic Science/

International and Area Studies/ Marathi/ Sanskrit/ Social Medicine and Community
Health/Tribal and Regional Language Literature/ Women Studies
The following table gives the sales of computers of different types or brands over the years
2001 to 2007. Based on data, answer the questions (26 — 30). Number of different types of
computers sold (in thousands).
Types of Computers
Years
Lenovo Acer IBM HCL
2001 20 40 50 80
2002 30 25 60 70
2003 50 50 50 55
2004 60 70 40 35
2005 70 85 70 25
2006 80 45 80 20
2007 90 60 100 10
Sub questions
131.The difference in the number of Acer computers sold in 2002 and 2005 is
(1). 15.000
(2). 20,000
(3). 45.000
(4). 60,000
132.The percentage increase in the sales of Lenovo computers in 2007 compared to sales in
2001 is
(1). 200%
(2). 250%
(3). 300%

(4). 350%
133.Name the type of computer for which the total sale in all the seven years is maximum?
(1). IBM
(2). Lenovo
(3). Acer
(4) HCL
134.In which year, the percentage of Acer computers sold as to the total number of
computers sold, was maximum?
(1). 2003
(2). 2004
(3). 2005
(4). 2007
135.Name the type / brand of computer whose sale has decreased continuously over the
years 2001 to 2007.
(1) Lenovo
(2) Acer
(3) IBM
(4) HCL

| Sindhi | Telugu
Consider the table given, below for total exports of six countries over five years (in crores of
rupees) and answer the questions 26-30

Year
2008 2009 2010 2011 2012
Country
A 20 40 60 45 90
B 30 25 15 50 100
C 50 55 70 90 65
D 45 60 20 15 25
E 60 50 55 100 110
F 24 40 60 75 120
Assume : profit = Export - Import.
Sub questions
136.What was the profit of all the countries together in the year 2012 if the total imports of
all the countries together was rupees 38a crore?
(1) Rupees 510 crore
137.If the ratio of export to import in country F and country D are 4 : 1 and 1 : 2 respectively
in the year 2008. then what is the total import of country F and D together in that particular
year? (in crores of rupees)
(1). 44
(2). 65
(3). 92
(4). 96
138.If the export of country A in the year 2013 is 20% more than the total export of country
B in 2011 and the export of country E in 2010 together, then what was the profit of A in the
year 2013 if its import was Rupees 92 crore for that year? (In crores of rupees)
(1). 10
(2). 22
(3). 34
(4). 46

139.By what precent is the average export of country E over all the given years more than
the average export of country C over all the years?
7
(1). 13 %
11
7
(2). 14 %
11
5
(3). 13 %
7
5
(4). 14 %
7
140.What is the percentage increase in the export of all the countries together from the
year 2009 to 2011?
8
(1). 35 %
9
8
(2). 38 %
9
8
(3). 40 %
9
7
(4). 38 %
8
2019 December || English |Sanskrit Traditional Subjects | Visual Art | Yoga

Consider the following table that shows the amount of exports (in orore from three
different companies A, B. and C over the years 2012-2013. Based on the data in the table,
answer the questions 26-30:
Year-wise amount of Exports from companies
Amount of exports (In cror. Rs.)

Year
A B C
2012 40 90 70
2013 70 50 100
2014 50 70 130
2015 80 70 100
2016 110 90 70
2017 60 110 90
2018 130 150 110

Sub questions
141.Average annual amount of exports during the given period for company B is
approximately what percent (%) of the average annual amount of exports for company G?
(1) 89.64%
(2) 91.21%
(3) 94.03%
(4) 93.33%
142.In how many of the given years, were the exports from company A more than its
average annual exports over the given years?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
143.What was the differene between the average exports of three companies in 2017 and
the average exports of three companies in 2012?
(1)15.33 crores
(2)18.67 crores
(3) 25 crores
(4) 20 crores
144.In which yean the absolute difference between the exports from companies A and B
was the minimum?
(1). 2013
(2). 2014
(3). 2015
(4). 2016
145.For which of the following pairs of years, the total exports from the three companies
put together are equal?
(1) 2014 and 2017
(2) 2015 and 2017

(3) 2016 and 2017
(4) 2014 and 2015
2019 December || Malayalam |Political Science |Sociology |Tamil

The table below presents the percentage profit earned by two companies A and B during
the period 2013 to 20IS. Based on the data given in the table. Answer five questions that
follow
Year wise percentage (%) profit
% Profit Earned
Year
A B
2013 20 % 35%
2014 32 % 30%
2015 40% 50%
2016 25% 40%
2017 30% 30%
2018 15% 40%
𝐼𝑛𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑒 − 𝐸𝑥𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒
Where profit % = × 100
𝐸𝑥𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒
Sub questions
146.If the expenditure of company B in the year 2013 was ^ 17 lakhs, then what was its
income in that year?
(1) 22.95 lakhs
(2) 23.15 lakhs
(3) 24.50 lakhs
(4) 25.65 lakhs
147.If the income of company A in the year 2017 is Z 26 lakhs, then what is the expenditure
company A in that year?
(1) 33.8 lakhs
(2) 22.5 lakhs
(3) 21.6 lakhs
(4) 20.0 lakhs

148.If the sum of expenditure of company B in the years 2014 and 201.7 together is Z 48
lakhs, then what is the total income of company B in these twro years together?
(1). 62.4 lakhs
(2). 36.2 lakhs
(3). 64.0 lakhs
(4). 65.5 lakhs
149.In which year is the ratio of income to expenditure of company A the maximum?
(1) 2013
(2) 2017
(3) 2015
(4) 2018
150.If the expenditure of company A in the year 2013 and company B in the year 2018 are
the same, and the income of company B in the year 2013 is % 77 lakhs, then what is the
income of company A in the year 2013?
(1)55 lakhs
(2) 66 lakhs
(3)56 lakhs
(4) 64 lakhs

DATA INTERPRETATON 2020 JUNE
Answer the question based on the data contained in the table. The following table
embodies the data on vegetable produced year wise in tonne for a particular district.
Year\Vegetable Potato Tomato Onion

2014 200 50 300
2015 500 70 200
2016 300 40 100
2017 100 80 400
2018 700 70 500
2019 800 90 600
Sub questions
1. In which year(s) the production of potato is less than that of average production?
A. 2016
B. 2014
C. 2015
D. 2017
1. A and B only
2. A, B and D only
3. C only
4. C and D only
2. In which year(s) is the production of tomato the least?

1. 2014
2. 2017
3. 2019
4. 2016
3. What is the gross production of vegetables in the year 2018?

1. 1270

2. 1275
3. 1260
4. 1280
4. What is the increase [in percentage) of the total production of vegetable from the year
2018 to 2019?
1. 15.7%
2. 16.1%
3. 19.4%
4. 17.2%
5. In which year the productivity of vegetable is maximum?

1. 2018
2. 2016
3. 2019
4. 2017
The following table shows the number of newspapers printed as shown inside the brackets
and the number of newspapers distributed at different cities on a particular date. Answer
the questions 1 to 5 :
City wise Distribution of Newspaper
Newspaper Newspaper Newspaper Newspaper Newspaper
A B C D
City (2000) (2000) (1000) (1000)
Delhi 1000 750 320 250
Lucknow 500 250 250 175
Varanasi 200 150 165 155
Jaipur 200 350 135 160
Sub questions
6. In which city the distribution of paper is minimum?
(1) Jaipur
(2) Luckncw

(3) Delhi
(4) Varanasi
7. What is the percentage of distributed newspapers compared to printed newspapers?

(1) 83.5%
(2) 84.0%
(3) 82.0%
(4) 82.5%
8. What is the percentage of distribution of newspaper C in all the cities as compared to

total number of newspapers distributed?
(1) 16.46%
(2) 17.36%
(3) 18.42%
(4) 16.36%
9. What is the ratio of distribution of Newspaper A to newspaper B?

(1) 16 : 15
(2) 7:5
(3) 19 : 15
(4) 17 : 15
10. What is the ratio of total distributed paper to total newspaper printed?
(1) 5:6
(2) 51 : 60
(3) 167 : 200
(4) 52 : 61
Options :
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3

(4) 4
Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow
Consider the following table which contains year-wise data of instaled Renewable Energy
capacity for four countries (X, Y, Z, T) over a period of 5 years from 2015 to 2019.
Country
X Y Z T
Year
2015 10 15 08 12
2016 13 18 10 13
2017 15 20 12 15
2018 20 20 15 18
2019 22 24 20 20
Sub questions
11. Between 2016 to 2017 which country registered maximum growth (%) in installed
capacity of Renewable Energy?
1. X
2. Z
3. Y
4. T
12. Which country registered maximum growth (%) by 2019 with reference to year 2015?
1. Z
2. T
3. X
4. Y
13. For the country 'Y' what is the average annual growth (%) of Renewable Energy
capacity?
1. ~10.35 %
2. ~12.77 %
3. ~13.25 %
4. ~11.65 %

14. In any given year, compared to the previous year which country(s) registered maximum
growth (%)?
1. T
2. Z and Y
3. Y
4. X and Z
15. Taking all four countries together, what is the over-all increase (%) in installed capacity
of Reneable Energy in the year 2019, with reference to 2015?
1. 52.32 %
2. 91.11 %
3. 117.32 %
4. 121.81 %
Study the data table and answer the questions that follow
The following table shows the maximum marks of each subject inside the bracket and
percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in the exam
Computer
Student / Chemistry Physics Geography History Math
science
Subject (130) (120) (100) (50) (40)
(150)
Piyush 90 50 90 60 70 80
Gaurav 100 80 80 40 80 70
Mayank 90 60 70 70 90 70
Vimal 80 65 80 80 60 60
Vikas 80 65 85 95 50 90
Varun 70 75 65 85 40 60
Ashfsh 65 35 50 77 30 80
Sub questions
16. What are the average percentage of marks (%) obtained by all the seven students in
Physics?
1. ~ 82.42
2. ~ 74.28
3. ~ 86.24

4. ~ 95.14
17. The number of students who obtained 60% and above marks in all subject is:
1. 4
2. 5
3. 2
4. 1
18. What are the aggregate of marks obtained by Mayank in all the six subjects?
1. 432
2. 456
3. 460
4. 440
19. In which subject is the overall percentage the best?

1. Computer Science
2. Chemistry
3. Math
4. Physics
20. What is the overall percentage of Ashish?

1. 54%
2. 58%
3. 59.66%
4. 63%

Consider the following table that shows the number of girls enrolled in three different
Universities A, B and C over the years £015 to 2019. Based on the data in the table, answer
the questions 1 - 5 :
Year-wise Number of Girls in Different Universities

Number of girls in a University
Year
A B C
2015 15000 10000 5000
2016 10000 17500 20000
2017 22500 12000 15000
2018 20000 25000 15000
2019 25000 20000 22500

Sub questions
21. What is the ratio between the total number of girls enrolled in University C in the year
2018 and the total number of girls enrolled in University A and University B together in
the same year?
(1) 4: 3
(2) 3:4
(3) 2:3
(4) 1:3
22. The difference between the number of girls enrolled in the year 2019 and 2015 is
minimum for .
(1) University A only
(2) University B only
(3) Both University A and University B
(4) Both University A and University C
23. What is the average number of girls enrolled in the year 2017 in all the three Universities
together?
(1) 20000
(2) 16500
(3) 10000

(4) 18500
24. Total number of girls enrolled in all the three Universities together in the year 2015 is
what percentage (%) of the total number of girls enrolled in University C in the year
2018?
(1) 200%
(2) 225%
(3) 165%
(4) 45.4%
25. The total number of girls enrolled in all the three Universities together is second highest
for the year
(1) 2019
(2) 2018
(3) 2017
(4) 2016
The following: table embodies the details about the enrolment of students in five different
streams namely IT. Management. Commerce. Science and Arts in a college during the
session 2019-20. A total number of 3500 students including 1500 girls have been enrolled in
the college. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions 1-5
Stream-wise enrolment of students

Percentage (%) of students Percentage (%) of Girls
Stream
enrolled (out of 3500) enrolled (out of 1500)
IT 20% 18%
Management 16% 12%
Commerce 12% 21%
Science 22% 11%
Arts 30% 38%
Sub questions
26. What is the total number of boys enrolled in Management stream and IT stream
together?
(1) 1050
(2) 810
(3) 1120

(4) 980
27. What is the ratio of the number of girls enrolled in Arts to the number of boys enrolled
in science?
(1) 14: 23
(2) 2:3
(3) 114:121
(4) 53:65
28. What is the total number of girls enrolled in Science and Commerce streams together?
(1) 450
(2) 495
(3) 345
(4) 480
29. If 20% of the girls enrolled in Science change their stream to management, then what
will be the new number of students belonging to management stream altogether?
(1) 593
(2) 733
(3) 453
(4) 1003
30. The number of girls enrolled in Arts, Science and Commerce streams together forms
what percent (%) of total number of students in the college?
(1) 25%
(2) 30%
(3) 40%
(4) 60%

The table below embodies data on the number of candidates who appeared for an interview
(I) and got admission (A) in five engineering disciplines during the year 2014 to 2019. In
accordance with the table, answer the questions 1- 5:
Year wise Number of Candidates in Different Engineering Disciplines

Engineering Chemical Civil Aerospace Petroleum Electrical
Discipline
Year I A I A I A I A I A
127 109 210 206 118 114 121 119

2014 960 935
4 0 8 8 0 0 6 4
116 106 205 198 126 118 100 113 112
2015 985
5 5 0 0 0 0 4 2 0
110 102 186 181 113 104 126 124
2016 870 855
8 4 0 5 2 0 0 6
123 118 199 194 106 109 107 119 117
2017 980
0 0 6 8 0 4 0 1 0
149 137 253 250 146 142 116 104 124 122
2018
2 2 0 0 5 5 0 0 2 2
348 344 164 159 102 101 136 134
2019 982 930
8 8 0 0 0 0 2 2
31. What is the difference between the total number of candidates who appeared for an
interview over the six years in Aerospace and Electrical Engineering disciplines?
(1) 334
(2) 61
(3) 66
(4) 344
32. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the number of candidates admitted in Civil
Engineering discipline from the year 2015 to 2016?
(1) 9.09%
(2) 8.43%
(3) 8.33%
(4) 9.19%

33. What is the percentage of the total number of candidates admitted to the total number
of candidates interviewed for all the years in Chemical Engineering discipline?
(1) 8.1%
(2) 91.68%
(3) 8.8%
(4) 91.86%
Options :
5362281209. 1
5362281210. 2
5362281211. 3
5362281212. 4
34. What is the average number of candidates who appeared for an interview in the year
2016 for admission to all the five engineering disciplines?
(1) 1216
(2) 1314
(3) 1316
(4) 1246
35. The ratio of number of candidates who appeared in an interview for admission to
Petroleum Engineering discipline in the year 2014 compared to the number of
candidates who got admission in Electrical Engineering discipline in the year 2015. is:
(1) 3:5
(2) 6:7
(3) 7:6
(4) 5:3

Consider the following table that show's the percentage (%) distribution of runs scored by
an Indian batsman against different countries in one-day internationals (ODI) and T 20 world
cup matches. Total runs scored by the Indian batsman in ODI and T20 are 2800 and 2000
respectively. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions 1- 5:
Country wise Distribution of Runs:
Country Percent (%) of Runs Scored
ODI T20
Pakistan 10.50% 09.50%
England 11.00% 09.00%
Australia 17.50% 11.50%
South Africa 12.50% 16.50%
Sri Lanka 09.00% 12.50%
New Zealand 12.00% 10.00%
West Indies 14.00% 18.00%
Others 13.50% 13.00%
Sub questions
36. If the batsman played 14 innings against Sri Lanka in ODI and remained not out in 5
innings, then the average runs scored by the batsman against Sri Lanka are:
(1) 28
(2) 24
(3) 26
(4) 22
37. Total runs scored by the batsman against New Zealand in T20 matches are
approximately what percent (%) of the total runs scored against Pakistan in ODI
matches?
(1) 64%
(2) 66%
(3) 62%
(4) 68%
38. In the case of which of the following countries, the difference between the runs scored
by the batsman in ODI and T20 is the second lowest?
(1) Sri Lanka
(2) Pakistan
(3) South Africa

(4) West Indies
39. The runs scored by the batsman against West Indies in T20 are approximately what
percent (%) of the runs scored against Australia in ODI?
(1) 71%
(2) 75%
(3) 73%
(4) 69%
40. If the batsman had scored 280 runs against Pakistan in T20 matches, then what would
have been the percentage of runs scored by the batsman in the T20 matches against all
other countries (Assuming that the total runs scored by the batsman in T20 remains the
same (that is 2000)?
(1) 88%
(2) 84%
(3) 86%
(4) 90%
Consider the data in the given table and answer the questions that follow
The following table is on the Expenditures of Institution (in lakh Rupees) per annum over the
given years
Heads of Expenditure (in lakhs)
Year Salary of Staff Transport Bonuses Interest on Taxes
Loan
2015 288 98 8 23.4 83
2016 842 112 2.52 32.5 108
2017 824 101 3.84 41.6 74
2018 836 183 3.68 36.4 88
2019 420 14 3.96 49.4 98
Sub questions
41. What is the average amount of interest per year that the institution had to pay?
1. 30.50
2. 36.66
3. 39.66

4. 41.02
42. The total amount of bonus paid by the institution during the given period is
approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?
1. ~3 %
2. ~4 %
3. ~7 %
4. ~1 %
43. Total expenditure on all these items in 2015 was approximately what per cent of the
total expenditure in 2019?
1. 84.63 %
2. 58 %
3. 91 %
4. 73 %
44. The total expenditure of the institution on these items during the year 2017 is
1. 624.6
2. 524.44
3. 544.44
4. 591.41
45. The ratio between the expenditure on taxes for the years 2016 and 2018, is
approximately
1. 17:11
2. 27:22
3. 31:27
4. 19:17

The Following table shows total number of students in the Department of the Institute
along with percentage of Females and Male students. Answer questions 1 to 5 based on the
data given below :
Department Total No. of Students Percentage of female Percentage of Male

Computer 840 45 55
Civil 220 35 65
Mech. 900 23 77
Electrical 360 65 35
Electronics 450 44 56
Mining 540 40 60
Sub questions
46. What is the respective ratio of the number of females in Mechanical Department to the
number of females in Electronics Department?
(1) 4:3
(2) 23 : 22
(3) 24 : 21
(4) 23 : 21
47. What is the total number of students in all the Departments?

(1) 2210
(2) 3210
(3) 3400
(4) 3310
48. What is the total number of male students in Computer and Mining Department
together?
(1) 266
(2) 886
(3) 786
(4) 686

49. What is the ratio of the number of females in Civil and Electrical departments together
to the number of males in the same Departments together?
(1) 311 : 270
(2) 329 : 261
(3) 411 : 469
(4) 311 : 269
Options :
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
50. What is the average percentage of female students in the whole Institute?
(1) 42.0%
(2) 41.0%
(3) 43.0%
(4) 41.5%
Study the data in the given table and answer the questions that follow
The table below provides data on the percentage (%) distribution of job vacancies in IT
companies situated in various Indian cities in the year 2009 and 2019. In the year 2009, the
total number of vacancies was 5.4 lakhs and in the year 2019, it was 8.6 lakhs.
Percentage (%) of Job Vacancies

City
2009 2019
Bangalore 15 22
Hyderabad 10 8
Pune 12 6
Mumbai 10 18
Chennai 8 10
NCR 21 20
Other cities 24 16
Sub questions

51. What is the difference between the number of vacancies available in the city of
Bangalore in the year 2019 and 2009?
1. 108200
2. 113120
3. 118400
4. 96400
52. What is the average number of vacancies available in the city of Hyderabad in the year
2009 and 2019?
1. 41080
2. 42740
3. 58610
4. 61400
53. What is the total number of vacancies available in the city of Chennai in 2009 and in that
of Mumbai in the year 2019?
1. 2.16 lakhs
2. 2.04 lakhs
3. 1.98 lakhs
4. 1.92 lakhs
54. If the number of vacancies in the city of Pune is 43000 in the year 2019 and the
percentage distribution is the same as given in the table, then what is the number of
vacancies available in NCR in 2019?
1. 1.2 lakhs
2. 1.32 lakhs
3. 1.48 lakhs
4. 1.5 lakhs

55. What is the approximate percentage rise seen in vacancies available in the city of
Hyderabad from 2009 to 2019?
1. 21.8%
2. 23.23 %
3. 25.23 %
4. 27.41 %
Data in respect of Demand and Production of Computers of five companies. A - E are shown
in the figure. Based on the data, answer questions that follow
56. The ratio of the number of companies having more production than demand to that of
companies having more demand than production is
1. 3:2
2. 1:4
3. 4:1
4. 2:3
57. Which company has minimum demand to production ratio?

1. B
2. C
3. D

4. E
58. The difference between average demand and average production of computers of all
companies combined together is
1. 950
2. 190
3. 180
4. 850
59. The demand for computers is less than the production of computers in how many
companies?
1. 4
2. 3
3. 1
4. 2
60. The demand of computers of Company D is more than that of the demand of the
computers of Company B by
1. 1.5 times
2, 2 times
3, 2.5 times
4. 3 times

The following table shows the total number of beds in each hospital in bracket and the
number of patient admitted at different hospitals for a disease on a particular day. Based on
the data in the table, answer the questions 1-5 :
Hospital Hospital Hospital Hospital Hospital
A B C D
Disease (100) (50) (100) (50)
Viral disease 30 15 35 10
Heart disease 35 10 30 10
Kidney disease 15 5 15 5
Liver disease 10 5 5 15
Sub questions
61. Which disease occupies highest number of beds in all the hospitals?
(1) Heart Disease
(2) Viral Disease
(3) Kidney Disease
(4) Liver Disease
62. What is the total percentage of unutilized beds?

(1) 19.44%
(2) 17.66%
(3) 16.66%
(4) 15.44%
63. What is the percentage of Liver disease patient admitted in all the hospitals from the
total patients admitted.?
(1) 15%
(2) 16%
(3) 13%
(4) 14%
64. What is the ratio of patient admitted for viral disease to kidney disease?
(1) 9:4
(2) 7: 4

(3) 8:3
(4) 10 : 4
65. What is the ratio of total patients admitted to Hospital A to Hospital B?

(1) 19 : 7
(2) 17 : 7
(3) 18 : 7
(4) 7 : 17
Study the data in the given table and answer the questions that follow
The table below embodies data on the number of students who appeared (A) and passed (P)
in a competitive examination from four different zones (K, L, M and N) during the year 2014
to 2019
Zone K L M N
Year A P A P A P A P
2014 782 360 612 310 720 410 1020 802
2015 804 472 608 324 728 480 1135 840
2016 720 448 636 298 680 390 1084 864
2017 750 360 655 305 695 396 1096 766
2013 824 504 640 346 712 424 1180 752
2019 850 496 600 315 740 464 1165 780
Sub questions
66. What is the difference between the total number of students who appeared in the exam
and the total number of students who passed in the exam from Zone-K in all the six
years taken together?
1, 2060
2, 2070
3, 2080
4, 2090

67. What is the average number of students who passed in the exam from all the four Zones
in the year 2015?
1. 528
2. 529
3. 530
4. 531
68. For which of the following Zones, the percentage of students who passed out to the
total of those who appeared in the examination is minimum in the year 2019?
1. K
2. L
3. M
4. N
69. What is the ratio of the number of students who passed from Zone-K in the year 2017
compared to that in 20I8?
1. 7:5
2. 3:5
3. 5:7
4. 5:3
70. The total number of students who passed from Zone-fvl in all the six years taken
together is approximately what percentage of the total number of students who
appeared from Zone-M in all the six years taken together?
1. 56%
2. 58%
3. 60%
4. 64%

Study the given data in the table and answer the questions that follow
Consider the following table that presents the results of a competitive MCQ examination,
where candidates were tested in their knowledge of Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and
Computer Science. The table contains the data on the number of candidates securing marks
within the specified range of marks. For example, [81-100] specifies the range of marks as
≥81 and ≤100.
Marks-wise Distribution of Candidates
Total
[81- [71- [61- [51- [41- [31- [21- [11- [0-
Subject Mark
100] 80] 70] 60] 50] 40] 30] 20] 10]
s
1088
Physics 100 0 1 4 85 730 4205 9170 1920
5
Chemistry 100 2 5 875 3350 6775 7778 5065 1800 1350
Mathemat 1504
100 0 0 0 6 199 3400 6975 1375
ics 5
Computer 1014 1185
50 0 0 0 0 220 2145 2637
science 0 8
Sub questions
71. Assuming that there are no absentees, what is the total number of candidates who
appeared for the examination?
1. More than 50000
2. 25635
3. 26973
4. 27000
72. What is the ratio of the total number of candidates who scored more than 50 marks in
Physics to those who scored more than 40 marks in Mathematics?
1. 17 : 49
2. 18 : 41
3. 43 : 61
4. 85 : 199
73. If securing over 40% marks is the qualifying criteria for each subject, then the ratio of the
number of candidates who qualify in Mathematics compared to those who qualify in
Computer science is
1. 15 : 42

2. 1:2
3. 56 : 1
4. 1 : 61
74. If securing over 60% marks is the qualifying criteria for the subject of Computer science,
then what is the approximate percentage of qualified candidates in the subject of
computer science (Assume no absentees)?
1. 12.65%
2. 8.76%
3. 8.65%
4. 0%
75. If securing over 60% marks is the qualifying criteria for each of the three subjects of
Physics, Chemistry' and Mathematics, then the number of candidates who have qualified
in all three subjects is
1. 0
2. 90
3. 6
4. 5
Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow
The following table embodies the details about the students of the different departments'
A, B and C in a University for participating in the blood donation camp.
Participation in Blood Donation Camp Data

Percentage of Percentage of blood donating Number of blood donating
Department
Girls Girls* Boys*
A 25% 40% 48
B 40% 50% 75
C 30% 70% 39
* - out of total blood donors
Sub questions

76. In case all the girls in the department 'A' donated blood, then the number of boys in the
department 'A' who did not participate in the blood donation camp is
1. 32
2. 48
3. 60
4. 56
77. The number of students who donated blood in the department 'C is
1. 39
2. 91
3. 130
4. 169
78. The number of girls in the department 'A' who donated blood is
1. 32
2. 130
3. 55
4. 48
79. If 45 boys from the department 'B' did not donate blood, then the total number of
students in the department 'B' is
1. 120
2. 150
3. 80
4. 200
80. What is the ratio of the number of blood donors in the department 'A' compared to the
number of blood donors in B'?
1. 1:5
2. 2:5
3. 9 : 16

4. 8 : 15
The following’ table gives the percentage of total students and also girl students enrolled in
five schools (A-E). The total number of students is 4500, while the total number of girl
students is 2000. Based on the data of table, answer the questions that follow.
Percentage of total number of student and girl students in five
schools
School % of Total % of Girl Students
Students
Name Enrolled Enrolled
A 20% 15%
B 30% 35%
C 25% 12%
D 15% 25%
E 10% 13%
Sub questions
81. The total number of girls enrolled in schools A and B together is
1. 740
2. 760
3. 940
4. 1000
82. The total number of boys enrolled in schools C. D and E is

1. 965
2. 1250
3. 1021
4. 1325
83. The number of girls enrolled in B. C and D constitutes what percentage (%) of total
number of students in schools?
1. 30%
2. 31%
3. 32%
4. 33%

84. The ratio of number of girls enrolled in school B to that of the number of boys enrolled
in D is
1. 1:4
2. 4:1
3. 1:3
4. 3:1
Options :
(1) .1
(2) .2
(3) .3
(4) .4
85. If 10% of the girls enrolled in C. change their school to E. then what will be the aggregate
number of girls then in E?
1. 214
2. 234
3. 274
4. 284
Consider the table given below and answer the questions that follow:-
Publishin Number of Ratio of Academic Percentage of No of
g Books and Non Academic Books Distributors in
House Published Books Distributed Publishing House
A 28200 7:3 81 17
B 32200 5:9 74 23
C 29700 6:5 92 18
D 31200 8:5 86 24
E 33800 7:6 78 26
F 35700 11:6 82 21
G 37800 5:13 89 24
Sub questions

86. What is the difference between the number of academic books published by publishing
houses A and D?
1. 450
2. 504
3. 540
4. 604
87. How many books were given to each distributor by publisher E. if each distributor gets
equal number of books?
1. 1024
2. 1014
3. 986
4. 962
88. What is the average number of non-academic books published by publishers F and G?
1. 18850
2. 18950
3. 19850
4. 19950
89. If the total number of books published by publishers D. E and F is increased by 20% and
the total number of books published by the remaining publishers be decreased by 20%,
what will be the new average of books published by all the publishers?
1. 31880
2. 32518
3. 33318
4. 33610
90. What is the total number of books distributed by publishers C and E?

1, 53688
2. 54026

3, 27513
4. 27324
Based on the data given, answer the five questions that follow.
Consider that five stores (A. B. C. D and E) have sold 2400 laptops. Let the percentages of
laptops sold by A. B. C. D and E be 15%. 25%. 30%, 9% and 21% respectively.
Sub questions
91. What is the average number of laptops sold by the stores A. C and D together?
1. 1296
2. 1104
3. 368
4. 432
92. If the data given above were to be represented in the form of a pie chart, then what
would be the central angle corresponding to the number of laptops sold by E?
1. 37.8
2. 75.6
3. 38.6
4. 77.2
93. What is the ratio of the laptops sold by store A to that of the laptops sold by store D?
1. 3:5
2. 5:3
3. 2:5
4. 5:2
94. What is the difference between the number of laptops sold by store C and the total
number of laptops sold by stores A and D together?
1. 36
2. 144
3. 72
4. 180

95. The difference between the number of laptops sold by stores A and E when expressed as
percentage with reference to the number of laptops sold by store A. would be
1. 30%
2. 40%
3. 45%
4. 50%
The table below provides data on the number of candidates who appeared (A) and qualified
(Q) in a test during the years from 2014 to 2019 from five different zones J. K. L. M and N. In
accordance with the table, answer the questions 1 - 5:
Year - wise Number of Candidates from Different Zones
Zone J K L M N
A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q
Year
2014 "320 250 350 140 330 220 420 240 620 260
2015 460 340 690 420 690 440 740 330 620 480
2016 650 490 770 450 590 430 830 560 640 420
2017 740 570 540 340 720 320 930 640 780 620
201S 8S0 4S0 660 520 S60 6S0 1140 520 990 690
2019 920 560 1060 640 1030 740 1420 1140 1130 940
Sub questions
96. The difference between the number of candidates who appeared and qualified in the
test from Zone-M in the given period was the second lowest in the year :
(1) 2014
(2) 2016
(3) 2017
(4) 2019
97. The number of candidates who appeared in the test from Zone — K in the year 2017 was
approximately what percentage of the number of candidates who qualified the test from
the Zone — L in the year 2019:
(1) 88%
(2) 83%
(3) 73%
(4) 68%

98. What was the average number of candidates who appeared in the test from Zone — N
over all the years together?
(1) 810
(2) 815
(3) 825
(4) 805
99. The ratio of the number of candidates who appeared in the test from the Zone — J in
the year 2014 to the number of candidates who qualified the test from the Zone — M in
the year 2016 was :
(1) 4:7
(2) 4:9
(3) 9:4
(4) 8 : 13
100. The total number of candidates who qualified the test in the year 2018 and 2019
together was the second highest in the zone :
(1) J
(2) N
(3) K
(4) L
Study the data given in the table and answer the questions that follow
The following table shows the monthly reporting of patients for different diseases to three
hospitals in a city
Disease/Hospital Hospital A Hospital B Hospital C

Heart Attack 320 240 360
Blood Sugar 650 1350 1950
Blood Pressure 700 1400 2100
Kidney Problems 210 420 630
Sub questions

101. What is the percentage of number of patients reporting for blood sugar compared to
the total patients in all three hospitals?
1. ~ 25.90 %
2. ~ 38.24 %
3. ~ 39.42 %
4. ~ 35.12%
102. What is the average number of patients for the least reported disease?
1. ~ 415.2
2. ~ 325.4
3. ~ 391.7
4. ~ 306.6
103. What is the percentage increase in the number of patients reporting heart attacks
from hospital A to hospital C?
1. 12.5%
2. 13.2%
3. 11.9%
4. 9.2 %
104. For patients reporting for kidney problems, what is the ratio of the number of
patients reporting at hospital A and those reporting at hospital C?
1. 2:3
2. 3:4
3. 1:3
4. 1:5
105. What is the percentage increase in the total number of patients from hospital A to
hospital C?
1. ~20 %
2. ~168%

3. ~ 141 %
4. ~ 145 %
Study the data in the table and answer the questions that follow
Consider the following table that shows the percentage {%) distribution of employees in five
different departments A - E in a company during the years 2018 and 2019. There is a total
number of 18000 and 20000 employees in the company during the years 2018 and 2019
respectively.
Department-wise Distribution of Employees
Percentage (%) of Employees

Department 2013 2019
A 22 24
B 23 26
C 18 20
D 29 20
E 8 10
Sub questions
106. If the average monthly salary of employees in the Department - A was f 24000 in
2013, then What was the approximate total salary expenses of the department - A in
2018?
1. 1.2 crores
2. 4.7 crores
3. 1.4 crores
4. 9.5 crores
107. What is the approximate percentage increase in the number of employees in the
Department -C in the year 2019 with reference to the year 2018?
1. 2%
2. 2.34 %
3. 23.45 %
4. 8.34 %

108. In which department the variation (represented by absolute numbers) in employee
strength is maximum in 2019 with reference to 2018?
1. Department - A
2. Department - B
3. Department - D
4. Department - E
109. If 300 employees had left the department - B at the end of 2018, then how many
new employees joined in 2019 in the department - B?
1. 430
2, 960
3, 1360
4, 1140
110. What is the ratio of the number of employees in the department - E in 2018
compared to those in the department - D in 2019?
1. 9:25
2. 9:15
3, 8:15
4, 8:25
The following table shows number of pages printed by five printers A to E during Monday to
Friday. Study the table and answer the following questions 1 — 5 :
Printers A B C D S
Days
Monday 25 20 35 15 25
Tuesday 40 15 30 20 20
Wednesday 22 11 33 40 20
Thursday 32 42 32 30 22
Friday 36 36 37 35 25
Sub questions

111. What is the average number of pages printed by printer C on Monday. Wednesday.
Thursday and Friday taken together?
(1) 33
(2) 33.25
(3) 34
(4) 34.25
112. Which printer has printed third lowest number of pages in all the five days taken
together?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
113. In all five days of printing, what percentage of pages printed by printer D has been
printed by printer E?
(1) 75%
(2) 80%
(3) 82%
(4) 85%
114. What is the ratio between pages printed by printer E on Monday and pages printed
by printer D on Wednesday?
(1) 5:6
(2) 6:5
(3) 15 : 6
(4) 5:8

115. Total number of pages printed by all printers in five days is
(1) 678
(2) 686
(3) 698
(4) 708
116. Total number of pages printed by all printers in five days is

(1) 678
(2) 686
(3) 698
(4) 708

ANSWER KEY 2018 DEC-2019DEC DATA INTERPRETAION
1.4 21.1 31.3 51.1 71.2 91.3 111.4 131.4
2.1 22.2 32.3 52.2 72.3 92.2 112.3 132.4
3.3 23.1 33.3 53.1 73.1 93.1 113.3 133.1
4.4 24.2 34.4 54.2 74.4 94.4 114.2 134.2
5.1 25.3 35.3 55.1 75.4 95.3 115.1 135.4
6.3 26.2 36.1 56.4 76.1 96.3 116.2 136.4
7.1 27.2 37.4 57.3 77.1 97.1 117.2 137.4
8.1 28.4 38.3 58.3 78.2 98.2 118.4 138.3
9.2 29.2 39.1 59.3 79.3 99.3 119.2 139.1
10.4 30.1 40.3 60.4 80.4 100.4 120.4 140.2
11.1 31.3 41.2 61.3 81.2 101 121.2 141.3
12.2 32.3 42.1 62.3 82.4 102.2 122.3 142.2
13.3 33.3 43.1 63.4 83.2 103.2 123.3 143.4
14.4 34.4 44.2 64.3 84.3 104.1 124.2 144.3
15.4 35.3 45.3 65.2 85.3 105.4 125.4 145.4
16.1 36.1 46.4 66.2 86.2 106.3 126.1 146.1
17.1 37.4 47.1 67.2 87.1 107.4 127.4 147.4
18.3 38.3 48.3 68.4 88.4 108.2 128.3 148.1
19.4 39.1 49.2 69.1 89.4 109.1 129.1 149.3
20.4 40.3 50.1 70.3 90.3 110.1 130.4 150.2
ANSWER KEY 2020 JUNE DATA INTERPRETATION

1.2 11.2 21.4 31.1 41.2 51.1 61.2 71.4 81.4 91.4 101.2 111.4
2.4 12.1 22.3 32.3 42.4 52.4 62.3 72.2 82.2 92.2 102.4 112.3
3.1 13.2 23.2 33.4 43.1 53.3 63.4 73.4 83.3 93.2 103.1 113.2
4.4 14.4 24.1 34.4 44.3 54.4 64.1 74.2 84.2 94.2 104.3 114.4
5.3 15.2 25.2 35.2 45.2 55.4 65.3 75.1 85.4 95.2 105.2 115.3
6.4 16.2 26.2 36.1 46.2 56.4 66.4 76.2 86.3 96.2 106.4 116.?
7.1 17.3 27.3 37.4 47.4 57.1 67.2 77.3 87.2 97.3 107.3
8.2 18.4 28.4 38.3 48.3 58.2 68.2 78.1 88.4 98.4 108.3
9.3 19.1 29.1 39.3 49.4 59.4 69.3 79.4 89.1 99.1 109.3
10.3 20.3 30.2 40.3 50.1 60.2 70.3 80.4 90.1 100.2 110.1

INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY (ICT)
ICT 2018 DEC – 2019 DEC
2018 December|| Adult Education| Anthropology| Chinese| Comparative Literature|
1.Which one of the following is not a Network Topology ?

1. Ring
2. Chain
3. Bus
4. Star
2.Match the following :
List - I List - II
(a) Browser (i) Outlook
(b) Programming Language (ii) DOS
(c) Operating System (iii) Internet Explorer
(d) E-mail (iv) Fortran
The correct code is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1. (I) (III) (II) (IV)
2. (III) (IV) (II) (I)
3. (II) (III) (IV) (I)
4. (IV) (III) (II) (I)

3.Which of the following denotes the Internet hardware requirements ?
(a) Hub
(b) Bridge
(c) Router
(d) Gateway
(e) Modem
1. (e) only
2. (a), (b) and (e)
3. (b), (c), (d) and (e)
4. (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
4. A set of rules used in communications in

1. Interface
2. Protocol
3. Address
4. Reference
5.Which of the following are pointing devices ?

(a) Trackball
(b) Touchscreen
(c) Graphic Tablet Code
(d) Joystick
1. (a) only
2. (a) and (d)
3. (a), (b) and (d)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

2018 December||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies| Bengali| Bodo| Environmental
Sciences| Hindi
6.Which of the following are Operating Systems ?

(a) UNIX
(b) Ubuntu
(c) Mac
(d) Ada
1. Only, (a) and (C)
2. Only (a), (c) and (d)
3. Only (a) (b) and (c)
4. only (b) and (d)
7.IRC is the acronym of :

1. International Relay Chat
2. Internet Related Commerce
3. internet Relay Chat
4. Information Relay Centre
8.MIME stands for :

1. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
2. Multipurpose Internet Mail Entity
3. Multiple Internet Mail Extensions
4. Multiple Internet Mail Entities
9.Which of the following is the short-cut to “Undo typing” ?

1. ctrl+P
2. ctrl+ Y
3. ctrl+ z
4. ctrl+ s
10.At which layer of OSI Model of Networking HTTP works

1. Physical Layer
2. Transport Layer
3. Network Layer
4. Application Layer

11. Mohan tells his friends, Sohan ([email protected]), Rohan ([email protected]) and
John ([email protected]), date of his birthday party through an email as shown below :
To : [email protected]
Cc : [email protected]
Bcc : [email protected]
Subject : My Birthday Party is on 15|01|2019
Hello all,
Call me if you can come.
Mohan
Which of the following cannot be derived from this email ?
1. Sohan knows that the birthday party will be held on 15|01|2019.
2. Sohan knows that Rohan receives the email.
3. Rohan knows that lohn receives the email.
4. John knows that both Sohan and Rohan receive the email.
12.There are two sets given below. Set - I specifies the IT related acronyms, while Set - II
indicates their functions. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate
code.
Set - I( Acronyms) Set - II (Functions)
(a) CPU (i) Type of technology used on a flat-screen monitor
(b) RAM (ii) Controls all the functions performed by the computer's other
components.
(c) ROM (iii) Temporary storage, also known as primary storage.
(d) LCD (iv) Permanent storage that is not erased when the computer's
power is turned off.
CODE (A) (B) (C) (D)
OPTIONS:1. II IV III I
2. I IV III II
3. I III IV II
4. II III IV I

13.The gap between those individuals in a society who are computer literate and have
access to information resources like the Internet and those who do not, is referred to as the
1. ICT divide
2. Digital divide
3. Information overload
4. Terabyte divide
14.In computer terminology, which of the following best describes a device driver ?
1. Software that allows the user to control the operating system.
2. Hardware that allows the user to control the operating system.
3. Software that allows interaction between peripheral devices and the operating
system.
4. Hardware that allows interaction between peripheral devices and the operating
system.
15.Using a word processing software, an image on page two of a document is to be

repeated on page four of the same document Which of the following would enable this to
happen ?
1. Cut and Paste
2. Copy and Paste
3. Find and Replace
4. Format and Replace
16.Which one of the following pairs least matches in respect of Computers ?
1. 1Gigabyte: (1024) x (1024) x (1024) Bytes
2. LCD : Light Crystal Display
3. USB : Universal Serial Bus
4. GUI : Graphical User Interface

17.Amit has decided to use either a DVD-RW or DVD-R Select statements that are TRUE for
these storage devices.
P : Both DVD - R and DVD - RW are read only.
Q : DVD - R can be written to only once.
R : DVD - RW can be written to many times.
S : Both DVD - R and DVD - RW can be written to only once.
1. P only
2. S only
3. P and R only
4. Q and R only
18.The following list indicates different types of computer networks. Arrange them in an
ascending order on the basis of geographical space implied
1. LAN, WAN, MAN
2. WAN, LAN, MAN
3. MAN, LAN, WAN
4. LAN, MAN, WAN
19. Computer peripherals are external devices connected to a computer. Which list contains
input peripheral devices only ?
1. Speakers, Scanners, Mouse, Modem
2. Keyboard, Projector, Mouse, Flash drive
3. Microphones, Track-ball mouse, Scanner, Touch screen
4. Laser printer, Graphic tablet, Barcode reader, Hard disk

20.
EXCEL Spreadsheet
A B C
1 10 16
2 20
3 8
4 12
5 0
The equation in cell B2 = A2 + B1
This equation is then copied and pasted to cell B3, B4 and B5, what should be value in B5
1. 36
2. 44
3. 24
4. 56

21. Full form of PDF is :
1. Portable Document Format
2. Portable Data Format
3. Portable Document Form
4. Portable Data Form
22. A Terabyte is equal to :

1. 1024 Megabytes
2. 1024 Gigabytes
3. 1024 X 1024 Kilobytes
4. 1024 Kilobites
23. The binary equivalent of (—23)10 is (2’s complement system for negative numbers is
used)
1. 10111
2. 01001
3. 01010
4. 01000

24. DNS stands for :
1. Domain Name Standard
2. Domain Name System
3. Distributed Name System
4. Dynamic Name Standard
25.Which of the given statements are true ?

(a) Modem is a Networking device.
(b) Modem is a Voltage stabilizer.
(c) Modem converts analogue signal to digital signal and vice-versa
1. and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (a), (b) and (c)
26. Which one of the following pairs least matches in respect of computers ?
1. 1Mega Byte (1024)*(1024) *(8) Bits
2. HTTTPS Hypertext Transfer Protocol Standard
3. WWW World Wide Web
4. PDF Portable Document Format
27.Which piece of the computer hardware is known as the “brain” of the computer and is
responsible for processing instructions ?
1. CPU
2. Motherboard
3. ROM
4. RAM
28.Which option would complete the following sentences about digital communication
system by using the words - short | long, low | high ?
Bluetooth is a _______ range wireless technology. It is used to connect devices together for
data transfer. Bluetooth is a ______ cost means of data transfer.
1. long, low
2. short, low
3. long high
4. short, high

29.Computer data files that are included with an email message are often referred to as
1. Carbon COPY
2. Attachments
3. Spam mails
4. Cookies
30. Read the following spreadsheet (MS-EXCEL) :
EXCEL Spreadsheet
A B C
1 10 16
2 20
3 8
4 12
5 0
The equation in cell B2 is = A2 + $ B $ 1.
The equation is then copied and pasted to cells B3, B4 and B5. What should be the value in
B3 ?
1. 36
2. 24
3. 44
4. 56
2018 December|| Defence and Strategic Studies| Dogri| Economics| Electronic Science|
Studies|
31. A virus hoax is an untrue virus warning email. When you receive a virus hoax such as the
one below, what is the appropriate action ?
Subject : Warning!
A new Virus has been detected in your computer. Format your hard disk and re-
install all software immediately.
1. Ignore this email
2. Reply to the sender
3. Forward this email to your friends
4. Format your hard disk and re-install all software
immediately

32. There are two sets given below. Set - I specifies the IT related acronyms, while Set - II
indicates their meanings. Match the two and give your answer by selecting the appropriate
code.
Set- I (Acronyms) Set-II (Meanings)
(a) DPI (i) Measures resolution of a laser printer
(b) CRT (ii) An example of read-only storage
(c) NIC (iii) A type of computer monitor
(d) CD-ROM (iv) Enables a computer to connect to other computers
A B C D
1. (II) (IV) (III) (I)
2. (I) (IV) (III) (II)
3. (I) (III) (IV) (II)
4. (II) (III) (IV) (I)
33. Which of the following statement(s) regarding the term ICT is \ are True ?
P : ICT is the abbreviation of Information and Collaboration Technology, meaning technology
related to information and collaboration, such as computers and the Internet.
Q : The gap between people with effective access to ICT and those with very limited or no
access at all, is termed as digital divide.
1. P only
2. Q only
3. P and Q
4. Neither P nor Q
34. The computer software that runs a computer, including scheduling and handling
communication with peripherals is called :
1. Device Driver
2. Application Suite
3. Operating System
4. Bluetooth Technology
35.The following list indicates different types of computer file formats. Which of them is
devoted exclusively to graphic file formats ?
1. GIF, JPEG, DOC
2. PNG, GIF, JPEG
3. JPEG, TIFF, HTML
4. TIFF, XIS, PNG

2018 December||Education| Kannada| Law| Population Studies| Public Administration|
Sindhi| Telugu|
36. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 53 is 110101, then the binary equivalent
of the decimal number 50 is given by :
1. 110011
2. 110010
3. 110001
4. 110100
37.Which one of the following is not part of suite of products of Microsoft Office ?
1. Microsoft Excel
2. Microsoft Power Point
3. Microsoft Publisher
4. Microsoft Windows
38. The Internet began with the development of

1. USENET
2. Extranet
3. ARPANET
4. Internet
39. RFID is an acronym for ?

1. Roaming Frequency Identification
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Runtime Frequency dentification
4. Remote Frequency dentification
40. Bluetooth is an example of :

1. PAN
2. LAN
3. MAN
4. WAN

41.A small text file stored on user's computer by some websites in order to recognize and
keep track of user's preferences is called :
1. History
2. Log
3. Cookie
4. Report
42.______________ denotes an error in computer program

1. Virus
2. Bit
3. Bug
4. Spam
43.The output quality of a printer is measured by

1. Digits per inch
2. Dots per inch
3. Dots per cm
4. Dots per mm
44. Which of the following are audio file formats ?

(a) .wav
(b) .aac
(c).wmv
(d) .flv
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (C) and (d)
4. (a) and (d)
45. In a computer, if 8 bits are used to specify address in memory the total number of
addresses will be :
1. 512
2. 216
3. 256

4. 8

46. SlM means :
1. Special identity Module
2. Subscriber identity Module
3. Subscriber information Module
4. System information Module
47. Which of the following printers use ink powder ?

1. Dot Matrix Printer
2. Thermal Printer
3. Laser Printer
4. lnk jet Printer
48.Firewalls are used to protect a computer on a network against :

1. Fire attacks
2. Authorized attacks
3. Unauthorized attacks
4. internal attacks
49.In comparison to secondary storage, the primary storage is :
1. Slower and lesser expensive
2. Faster and more expensive
3. Faster and lesser expensive
4. Slower and more expensive
50.Internet Explorer, Mozilla Firefox and Opera are referred to as :

1. Web Servers
2. System Software
3. Application Software
4. Browsers

51. Match the following :
Set I Set II
1) First Generation (I) Transistor
2) Second Generation (II) VLSI microprocessor
3) Third Generation (III) Vacuum tube
4) Fourth Generation (IV) Integrated circuit
Select the correct option from the following

1 2 3 4
(1) III IV I II
(2) III I IV II
(3) III I II IV
(4) I III IV II
52. One Tera Byte (TB) of memory is equal to

(1) 1024 KB
(2) 1024 X 1024 KB
(3) 1024 X 1024 X 1024 KB
(4) 1024 X 1024 X 1024 Bytes
53. A \ An ____ is a computer program that spreads by inserting copies of itself into other
executable code or documents.
(1) Operating System
(2) Computer Virus
(3) Firewall
(4) Anti-virus

54.In Audio and Video compression, the term RGB means
(1) Red, Grey, Blue
(2) Red, Green, Blue
(3) Red, Green, Black
(4) Red, Grey, Black
55.Which of the following is not a \ an web browser?

(1) Internet Explorer
(2) Mozilla Firefox
(3) Google chrome
(4) Yahoo
2019 June || Arab Culture And Islamic Studies| Bengali| Bodo| Environmental Sciences|
Hindi
56. The main two components of CPU are
(1) Control unit and ALU
(2) ALU and BUS
(3) Control unit and registers
(4) Registers and main memory
57.Which of the following is used to create web pages?

(1) HTTP
(2) URL
(3) FTP
(4) HTML
58.Which of the following is a search Engine?

(1) Flash
(2) Fire fox
(3) Internet explorer

(4) Google
59.Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) is used to compress

(1) Music
(2) Video
(3) Image
(4) Frame
60.The use of Information Technology (IT) to improve the ability of Government to address
the needs of society is known as .
(1) E — Business
(2) E - Administration
(3) E - Governance
(4) E – Marketin
2019 June || Arabic| Geography| Gujarati| Nepali| Psychology| Punjabi

61.Why would BCC: be used in an e-mail?
1. BCC: allows the recipient to identify all the other recipients in the list when a group
email address is used
2. BCC: allows the sender to indicate who the email is for if there is more than one
recipient
3. BCC: allows the sender of a message to conceal the recipient entered in the BCC:
field from the other recipients
4. BCC: allows recipients to be visible to all other recipients of the message
5.
62.With respect to computers, which one of the following best describes phishing?
1. A malicious program installed on a system that stays concealed to avoid detection
2. A method of bypassing normal authentication procedures over a connection to a
network
3. A type of unsolicited bulk email of identical messages sent to numerous recipients
4. An attempt to acquire sensitive information for malicious reasons, by masquerading
as a trustworthy entity

63.Which of the following is an example of proprietary system software?
(1) Linux
(2) Microsoft Internet explorer
(3) Microsoft office
(4) Microsoft windows
64. Jatin’s laptop has a LCD screen. The acronym LCD stands for :
(1) Light Crystal Display
(2) Liquid Compact Display
(3) Light Compact Display
(4) Liquid Crystal Display
65.A computer network which is used within a building is called a

(1) WAN
(2) MAN
(3) LAN
(4) SAN
2019 June || Archaeology| Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies| Forensic Science|
Museology and Conservation| Music Rabindra Sange| Pali| Performing Art (Dance Drama
Theatre)| Persian| Prakrit| Russian| Santali| Spanish
66. While sending an e-mail, to differentiate among To : , Cc : and Bcc : fields, which one of
the following statements is True?
(1) Recipients in the To: field can see the email addresses that are in the Bcc: and Cc: fields
(2) Recipients in the Cc: field can see the email addresses that are in the To: and Bcc: fields
(3) Recipients in the Bcc: field can see the email addresses that are in the To: and Cc: fields

(4) Only the recipients in the Cc: field can see the other email addresses in the Bcc : field
67. A group's access to digital technology and another group‘s lack of access to it, will cause
a disparity known as
(1) Internet inequality
(2) Web inequality
(3) Technological imbalance
(4) Digital divide
68.In internet terminology, what does the acronym WYSIWYG stand for?
(1) Why You Saw Is What You Got
(2) What You See Is What You Get
(3) Where You See Is Where You Got
(4) What You See Is What You Got
69.Software that you can download for free, but have to pay to continue its use after a trial
period is called
(1) public domain software
(2) freeware
(3) open-source software
(4) shareware
70.Which one of the following computer components is fastest in terms of speed of access?
(1) USB Drive
(2) Solid State Drive
(3) RAM
(4) Hard Disk Drive

2019 June || Assamese| Computer Science and Applications| Criminology| Human Rights
71.Which of the following is a type of malware intentionally inserted into a software system
that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met?
(1) Worm
(2) Trojan
(3) Spyware
(4) Logic bomb
72.Select the true statement about an Operating System (OS)?

(1) An OS controls peripherals, allocates memory and organises data into fields and records
(2) An OS provides protection against viruses and controls peripherals
(3) An OS controls peripheral, and allocates memory and processor time
(4) An OS controls the processor and peripherals and allows the user to connect to the
internet
73.Select the option that shows the storage devices in order of capacity from lowest to
highest
(1) CD-ROM, DVD-ROM, Blu-ray
(2) Blu-ray, CD-ROM, DVD-ROM
(3) DVD-ROM, Blu-ray, CD-ROM
(4) DVD-ROM, CD-ROM, Blu-ray
74. Which of the following statements (s) is | are True in respect of Wireless Technology?
P : Bluetooth is a wireless technology which can be used to connect a headset to a mobile
phone.
Q : Bluetooth is a long range wireless technology and is a low cost means of data transfer.
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) Both P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q

75.Which one of the following pairs LEAST matches in respect of computers?
(1) 1 Giga Byte : (1024) × (1024) × (1024) × 8 bits
(2) CRT : Cathode Ray Tube
(3) ROM : Rapid Online Memory
(4) CPU : Central Processing Unit

76.Which of the following is not considered as a form of secondary storage?
(1) RAM
(2) Floppy Disk
(3) Optical Disk
(4) Flash Drive
77.Which of the following devices enables a computer to transmit data over telephone
lines?
(1) CPU
(2) Hub
(3) Switch
(4) Modem
78.Identify the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platforms to conduct
a company’s business.
(1) E - Business
(2) E - Commerce
(3) E - Marketing
(4) E – Governance (wrong question)
79.Which of the following is generally associated with the
domain name of an educational institution?
(1) .org
(2) .edu

(3) .com
(4) .inst
80.NMEICT is an acronym for

(1) National Massive Education through Information and Communication Technology
(2) National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology
(3) National Multipurpose Education through Information and Communication Technology
(4) National Mode of Education through Information and Communication Technology
2019 June || Defence and Strategic Studies| Dogri| Economics| Electronic Science|
Marathi| Percussion Instruments| Politics (including International Relations and Studies|
Rajasthani| Sanskrit| Social Medicine and Community Health| Tribal and Regional
81.Which of the following statement(s) is \ are True in respect to ICT?
P : ICT is an acronym that stands for information and competitive technology.
Q : The effective use of ICI to support learning in the inclusive education exemplifies good
teaching for all learners.
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) Both P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
82.What is spyware in respect of computer software?

(1) Software that aims to gather information about a person without his | her knowledge,
and that may send such information to another entity
(2) Legitimate software that allows companies to monitor and supervise the computers of
their employees from a central location
(3) Software used to disrupt computer operation or gain access to private computer systems
(4) A computer program hidden within another seemingly harmless program that produces
copies of itself and inserts them into another programs or files

83.Which of the following best describes a wiki?
(1) A system that allows users to add information onto a website but does not change any
pre-existing information
(2) A system that allows collaborative modification of its content and structure directly from
the web browser
(3) A system that serves as a publically accessible personal journal for an individual
(4) A system that monitors the modification of content within a blog
84. Anjali‘s teacher uses VLE, a software tool designed to deliver courses online. The
acronym VLE stands for
(1) Video Learning Environment
(2) Visual Learning Environment
(3) Virtual Learning Environment
(4) Visual Local Environment
85.What is the decimal equivalent of binary number 1100110 ?

(1) 102
(2) 204
(3) 153
(4) 51

Sindhi| Telugu
86.You need to use automatic calculations in preparing a budget. Which software
application should be used?
(1) Spreadsheet
(2) Presentation
(3) Word processing
(4) Desktop publishing

87.In the context of IT | ICT, which one of the following statements about spamming is
true?
(1) Spamming is posting or e-mailing unsolicited advertising messages to a wide audience
(2) Spamming is sending lines of nonsensical garbage in a chat conversation
(3) Spamming is posting a message that contains graphic description of something offensive
(4) Spamming is an attempt to acquire sensitive information for malicious reasons by
masquerading as trustworthy entity
88.A virus type that is capable of transferring from one computer to another without any
‘user interaction’ is known as
(1) Worm
(2) Trojan
(3) Key logging
(4) Boot sector virus
89.Which statement is true about Random Access Memory (RAM) in a computer system?
(1) RAM is non-volatile and the amount of RAM in a computer system cannot affect its
performance
(2) RAM is non-volatile and the amount of RAM in a computer system can affect its
performance
(3) RAM is volatile and the amount of RAM in a computer cannot affect its performance
(4) RAM is volatile and the amount of RAM in a computer system can affect its performance
90.What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 75?

(1) 1101001
(2) 101001
(3) 100101
(4) 1001011

91. A computer has main memory of 960 Kbytes. What is the exact number of bytes
contained in this memory?
(1) 960 ×8
(2) 960 × 1000
(3) 960 × 1024
(4) 960 × 1024 × 1024
92.The convenient place to store contact information for quick retrieval in e-mail is
(1) Address box
(2) Message box
(3) Address book
(4) Message book
93.SMTP is an acronym for

(1) Simple Mail Transport Protocol
(2) Simple Mail Terminal Protocol
(3) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(4) Simple Mail Transition Protocol
94.Which of the following file format is not a video file format?

(1) .AVI
(2) iMOV
(3) .MP4
(4) .JPEG
95.Which of the following is an online store house of all academic awards like certificates,
diplomas, degrees, marksheets etc?
(1) SWAYAM
(2) National Digital Library

(3) National Academic Library
(4) National Academic Depository

96.Which of the following hardware was used by the first generation computers?
(1) Transistors
(2) Vacuum tubes
(3) VLSI
(4) Integrated circuits
97.Computer uses which number system to store data and perform calculations
(1) Binary
(2) Octal
(3) Decimal
(4) Hexadecimal
98.What is meant by the term RAM?

(1) Memory which can only be read
(2) Memory which can only be written to
(3) Memory which is used for permanent storage
(4) Memory which can be both read and written to
99.Which of the following is an address that specifies the location of a web page?
(1) URL
(2) DNS
(3) HTML
(4) HTTP
100.Which of the following mobile payment application is developed by the National

Payments Corporation of India based on UPI?
(1) MYGOV

(2) BHIM
(3) UMANG
(4) PhonePe

Management|
101.Which of the following statements is \ are correct‘?
(a) Software is loaded into secondary storage from RAM and is then executed by the CPU.
(b) A search engine is a software system that is designed to search for information on the
www.
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)
102.
List I (Digital Initiative) List II (Purpose)

(a) UMANG (i) GZB Services
(b) BHIM (ii) Learning platform
(c) eBiz (iii) Unified payment interface
(iv) Single point of access to all
(d) SWAYAM
government services.
(1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(1) (c)-(iii) (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iii) (b)-(ii) (c)-(iv) (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i) (b)-(iv) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii)

103.Select the option that lists components for a cyberspace address (URL) in the correct
order from beginning to end?
(1) Protocol, domain name of the host, path \ file
(2) Path \ file, protocol, domain name of the host.
(3) Protocol, path \ file. domain name of the host
(4) Domain name of the host, protocol, path \ file
104.Given below are two statements - one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Assertion (A) : A blog is a form of social media.
Reason (R) : A blog allows anyone to communicate to a public audience.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are ture and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2019 December || Arab Culture and Islamic Studies| Bengali| Bodo| Environmental
105.Which of the following statements is \ are correct in the context of ‘Digital India’
Initiative of Government of India?
(a) National Digital Library of India (NDL India) is a 24 × 7 online store house of all academic
awards duly digitized and lodged by academic institutions.
(b) National Academic Depository (NAD) is an all — digital library that stores information
(metadata) about different types of digital contents relevant to the citizens.
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only

106.Which of the following statements is | are correct?
(a) WWW is a network of networks that first started with four computer nodes
(b) WW'W is a service that runs on the Internet.
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
107.Match List — I with List — II

List I List II
(a) 50 in decimal (i) 0110010 in binary
(b) 102 in decimal (ii) 1100110 in binary
(c) Real - Time video conferencing (iii) Synchronous communication
(d) SMS texting (iv) Asynchronous communication
(1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iii) (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii) (b)-(1) (c)-(iv) (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i) (b)-(ii) (c)-(iii) (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(i) (b)-(ii) (c)-(iv) (d)-(iii)
108. Select the option that contains only optical storage media
(1) USB memory stick, Blu — Ray disk, CD — ROM, DVD
(2) DVD, CD — ROM, USB memory stick, CD — RW
(3) Hard disk, USB memory stick, CD — ROM, DVD
(4) DVD, CD — R, Blu — Ray Disk, CD — RW

109.Given below are two statements — one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Information Technology is fast becoming a very important field of activity in
India.
Reasons (R) : Software is one of the major exports of India and further India has a very
strong base in hardware.
In the light of the above two statements. choose the correct option :
(3) (A) is true. but (R) is false

110.Which of the following is a programming language?
(1) Deep learning
(2) Machine learning
(3) Artificial Intelligence
(4) Python
111.Match List I with List II.

List I List II
(a) WWW (i) Volatile memory
(b) JAVA (ii) Non-volatile memory
(c) RAM (iii) World Wide Web
(d) ROM (iv) Programming language

(1) (A)-(I). (B)-(II). (C)-(M). (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(II). (B)-(III). (C)-(IV). (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(III). (B)-(IV). (C)-(I). (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(IV). (B)-(I). (C)-(II). (D)-(III)

112.Which description is appropriate among the following for ‘E-Governance‘?
(1) To engage. enable and empower the citizens
(2) To provide fair and unbiased services to the citizens
(3) To provide technology driven governance
(4) To ensure peoples faith in E-Commerce applications
113.Which of the following is a search engine?

(1) Internet
(2) Bing
(3) Skype
(4) Acrobat Reader
114. Given below are two statements One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The internet is a collection of interconnected computer networks linked by
transmission medium such as copper wires, fiber-optic cables, Wireless connections etc.
Reasons (R) : World Wide Web is a collection of interconnected documents.
In the right of the above two statements. choose the correct answer :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true. and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true. but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true. but (R) is false
115.Consider the following storage devices :
(a) Hard disc
(b) CD-ROM

(c) DVD-ROM
Arrange these in ascending order of storage capacity and select the correct option :
(1) (b). (c). (a)
(2) (b). (a). (c)
(3) (c). (b). (a)
(4) (a). (c). (b)
116. Which of the following is a ‘Decision Support System‘ for assisting people in taking best
decisions for their children‘s future?
(1) E-Pathshala
(2) Saransh
(3) Shaala Sidhdhi
(4) SWAYAM PRABHA
117.Which of the following is NOT suitable in the context of E-mail?

(1) It is a letter sent over a computer network
(2) It can be used to send unsolicited messages
(3) E-mail is snail-mail
(4) E-mail address includes domain name
List I (E-initiatives) List II (Descriptions)

(a) Vidwan (i) Repository for full-text thesis. e-books and journals
(b) Digilocker (ii) Education portal to facilitate learning
(c) Sakshat (iii) Database of leading scientists / researchers
(iv) Platform for issuance and verification of documents and
(d) Shodh Ganga
certificates
(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iii). (b)-(iv). (c)-(ii). (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(iv). (b)-(ii). (c)-(i). (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(ii). (b)-(i). (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)
119. In computer related activities. What is the full form of 'WORM?

(1) Write On Random Memory
(2) Write On Real Memory
(3) Write Once Read Many
(4) Write Once Read Memory

120.Which one of the following tasks is associated with changing appearance of a document
in word processing?
(1) Editing
(2) Formatting
(3) Writing
(4) Printing
121.The term one gigabyte refers to ?

(1) 1024 petabytes
(2) 1024 megabytes
(3) 1024 kilobytes
(4) 1024 bytes
122.________is a wireless technology built in electronic gadgets for transferring data over
short distance
(1) WiFi
(2) Bluetooth
(3) Modem
(4) USB

123.PCI stands for
(1) Partial Component Interconnect
(2) Partial Component Interaction
(3) Peripheral Component Interconnect
(4) Peripheral Component Interaction
124.The national agency for responding to computer security incidents as and when they
occur is
(1) CAT
(2) CDAC
(3) CCA
(4) ICERT

125.The main purpose of using ICT for classroom teaching is to
1. Make the classroom instructions interesting
2. Divert students‘ attention in the class
3. Keep students engaged in the class
4. Optimize learning outcomes of teaching
126. Which of the following statements is \ are correct?

a) A Local Area Network (LAN) is usually located on one brand of computer
b) The acronym ‘ISP' stands for Internet Standard Provider
1. (a) only
2. (b) only
3. Both (a) and b)
4. Neither (a) nor b)

127.Which of the following statements is \ are correct?
a) The clock speed of a CPU is measured in hertz (Hz)
b) Bluetooth technology consumes more power than Wi-Fi technology
1. (a) only
2. (b) only
3. Both (a) and b)
4. Neither (a) nor b)
128.Match List l with List II
List I (Software) List ll (Description)

a) Web browser i) Prepare written documents
b) Word processor ii) Create and edit web pages
c) Spreadsheet iii) Connect to websites and display web pages
d) Web authoring iv) Analyze and summarize numerical data
1. (a) - ii); (b) -iv); (c) -i); (d) - iii)
2. (a) - iii); (b) - i); (c) - iv): (d) - ii)
3. (a) - iii); (b) - i); (c) -ii); (d) - iv)
4. (a) - ii); (b) - i); (c) - iv); (d) - iii)
129.Select the option that contains exclusively the text file formats
1. JPEG, MP3, RTF
2. CSV, RTF, TXT
3. GIF, JPEG, MP3
4. CSV, MP3, PDF

130.Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): The clock speed of CPUs has not increased significantly in recent years
Reason (R): Software now being used is faster and therefore processors do not have to be
faster
2019 December || Defense and Strategic Studies| Dogri| Economics| Electronic Science|
131.The purpose of ICT use in education is to

(1) Attract students
(2) Make teaching interesting
(3) Optimise learning outcomes
(4) Promote technology culture in teaching
132.In computer related activities. which of the following is inappropriate for describing a
language
translator?
(1) Assembler
(2) Compiler
(3) Interpreter
(4) Codec

133.Which of the following is most suitable for being designated as Fourth Generation
Language (4GL)?
(1) ALGOL
(2) Java
(3) C
(4) SQL
134.Given below are two statements — one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason
(R) :
Assertion (A) : Sniffing may be used to steal data or information over a network.
Reasons (R) : Sniffing is a process of monitoring and capturing all data packets passing
through given network.
In the light of the above stated two statements. choose the correct option from the choices
given below :
135.Which of the following terms is related to the digital learning environment for design?
(1) e-Vidwan
(2) e-Acharya
(3) e-Kalpa
(4) e-Yantra
136.Which of the following tools is a collaboration tool for providing virtual classroom
environment?
(1) A—Lab
(2) A—View
(3) A—Tutor
(4) A—Learner

2019 December || Education| Kannada| Law| Population Studies| Public Administration|
Sindhi| Telugu
137. The application of which of the following ICT in research will ensure wider coverage
and accessibility of needed information?
(1) LAN
(2) WAN
(3) Skype
(4) Intranet
138.________represents raw facts. whereas ________ is processed meaningful data.

(1) Information. Bits
(2) Records. Bytes
(3) Data. Information
(4) Information. Reporting
139.Which of the following storage devices stores maximum amount of data?
(1) Compact disc
(2) Floppy disc
(3) Hard disc
(4) Magnetic optic disc
140.Which of the following is a computer based system that stores and manipulates data
which are viewed from a geographical point or reference?
(1) Database System
(2) Geographical Information System
(3) Geographic System
(4) Software System
141. VDU stands for

(1) Virtual Display Unit
(2) Virtual Detection Unit
(3) Visual Display Unit

(4) Visual Detection Unit
142.International Computer Security Day is observed on

(1) 18th July
(2) 30th November
(3) 2nd December
(4) 23rd December
2019 December || English| Sanskrit Traditional Subjects| Visual Art| Yoga

143.Which of the following is \ are major issues arising out of the growing reliance on
information technology?
(a) Profitability
(b) Security threats
(c) Privacy concerns
(4) (a). (b) and (C)
144. Which of the following communication technologies employ only asynchronous

communication?
(a) Video conferencing
(b) Email
(c) Forms
(d) Instant messaging
(2) (b) and (d) only


(a) For the sequence of integers represented in binary as 00111, 01001, 01011, P...., the
next integer P would be represented as 01101
(b) A byte is a binary number consisting of exactly 8 bits
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
146.Match List I with List-H in the context of computer networking :
List-I List II
(a) VOIP (i) Makes use of light pulses to transmit data
(b) Fiber Optic
(ii) Use of internet to make phone calls
Cable
(iii) Most appropriate to connect computers in a small
(c) URL
building
(iv) Text used by Web browsers to locate a Web address on
(d) UTP cable
the Internet
(1) (a)-(iv). (b)-(i). (c)-(ii). (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(i). (c)-(iv). (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv). (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv). (b)-(iii). (c)-(ii). (d)-(i)
147.Select the option that includes file formats suitable for distributing sound files across
the Internet.
(1) wmv. mp4. wma. mp3
(2) avi. midi. wav. mp3

(3) avi. mov. wmv. mp3
(4) midi. wav. wma. mp3
2019 December || Malayalam| Political Science| Sociology| Tamil

148.With regard to “Digilocker“. which of the following statements are correct?
(a) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme
(b) It provides financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs
(c) It allows users to access their e-documents irrespective of physical location
(4) (a) (b) and (c)
149 .Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Google's web browser is called ‘Chrome
(b) Apple's web browser is called 'Safari'
(c) “Mozilla firefox" is an open source web browsing software
(4) (a). (b) and (c)

(a) It is usually faster to access data stored in RAM than that in hard drive
(b) The hexadecimal number 99 is the same as the decimal number 99
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only

151. Select the option that contains only computer input devices
(1) Keyboard. Mouse. Joystick. Printer
(2) Mouse. Monitor. Joystick. Keyboard
(3) Joystick. Keyboard. Digitiser. Monitor
(4) Joystick. Keyboard. Mouse. Digitiser
ICT 2020 JUNE

1. What is the full form of the abbreviation CD ROM?
1. Count Disk Random Only Memory
2. Compact Disk Run Only Memory
3. Compact Disk Read Only Memory
4. Count Disk Raw Only Memory
2. Multimedia comprises of
1. Text and Audio
2. Video and Audio
3. Video only
4. Text Audio and Video
3. Information and Communication Technology [IICT) comprises of

A. Online learning
B. Learning through Mobile Application
C. Web based learning
D. All the above

1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. D only
4. A only
as Reason R
Assertion A: E-commerce companies require personal data to serve the stakeholders better
Reason R: In this process, privacy may get compromised
given below
5. Python is a/an
A. Programming language
B. Operating system
C. Search engine
D. Snake
1. B only
2. A only
3. B and C only
4. C and D only

6. CDMA stands for
(1) Code Division Multiplexed Access
(2) Code Division Multiple Access
(3) Code Division Mobile Access
(4) Code Division Mobile Adapter
7. In display technology. CRT stands for

(1) Cathode Ray Transmission
(2) Computer Ray Transmission
(3) Cathode Ray Tube
(4) Cathode Ray Transducer

Statement I : External hard disk is a primary memory.
Statement II : In general, pen drives have more storage capacity than external hard disks.
below :
9. Match List I with List II: List II contains examples of the items Listed in List I.
List I List II
(A) Web 2.0 Applications (I) Windows 8. i-OS
(B) Search Engines (II) C++, Java
(C) System Softwares (III) Blogs. Twitter
(D) High level languages (IV) Google. Yahoo

Choose the correct answer from the options below :
1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III). (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
2. (A)-(III). (B)-(IV). (C)-(I). (D) (II)
3. (A)-(I). (B)-(III), (C)-(IV). (D)-(II)
4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III). (D)-(II)
10. Which of the following statements are true?

(A) An algorithm may produce no output
(B) An algorithm expressed in a programming language is called a computer program.
(C) An algorithm is expressed in a graphical form known as flowchart
(D) An algorithm can have infinite sequence of instructions.
11. What is the full form of the abbreviation BIOS?
1. Big Information Online System
2. Binary Input Output Software
3. Basic Input Output System
4. Binary Inner Open Software
12. Computer hardware consists of

1. Computer table
2. Monitor and CPU
3. Software
4. Google

13. Which of the following is a data visualization method?
1. Line
2. Circle and Triangle
3. Pie chart and Bar chart
4. Pentagon
as Reason R
Assertion A: Nowadays many online courses are available and their popularity is increasing
Reason R: Selecting the right course from many such, is a big challenge
given below
15. A-F system is used in which of the following number systems?

1. Binary
2. Octal
3. Hexa - Decimal
4. Decimal
16. What is the full form of the abbreviation ISP?
1. International Service Provider
2. Internet Service Provider
3. Internet Software Provider
4. Internet Service Product

17. What is the name for a web page address?
1. Directory
2. Folder
3. Domain
4. URL
as Reason R
Assertion A: Privacy and security of user data is at stake on the Internet
Reason R: No steps are being taken by the user for the security and privacy of data
given below
19. Which of the following is NOT a system software?

1. Compiler
2. Operating System
3. Application Software
4. Editor
20. Which of the following is excluded from the domain of Artificial Intelligence?
1. Computer Vision
2. Machine Learning
3. Deep Learning
4. Text

21. Microsoft Access. Oracle and SQL are example of
(1) File Data Base
(2) Relational Data Base
(3) Template
(4) Attribute
22. Operating system is an interface between

(1) Software and hardware
(2) Compiler and hardware
(3) User and Computer
(4) Program and software
23. Which, technology is used for crypto currency?

(1) Java
(2) Block chain
(3) Block code
(4) Python

Statement I: Internet is the largest information base and has become a vital part- of our
lives.
Statement II: HTML is an incomplete code package that allows a user to create web pages.
below :

25. Full form of the abbreviation CPS is :
(1) Computer Program Software
(2) Control Process Software
(3) Cyber Physical Software
(4) Cyber Physical System
26. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipients at once is a
(1) Inbox
(2) Spam
(3) Virus
(4) Attack

Statement I : Operators are special symbols that are used to perform calculations, make
comparisons and check logical condition.
Statement II: Relational operators are used for arithmetic operations.
below :
Statement I : In peer-to-peer network, there is no central server instead each computer can
act as a server as well as a client.
Statement II : LAN is a computer network created for individual person.
below :

29. A computer network enables two or more computers to

(1) Increase the speed
(2) Share data and hardware resources
(3) Increase the work
(4) Monitor the software
30. Full form of the abbreviation OCR is :

(1) Optical Character Recognition
(2) Online Computer Reader
(3) Optical Computer Recognition
(4) Optical Control Reader

31. Which of the following statements is true in respect of computers?
(1) Software is loaded into secondary storage from RAM and is then executed by CPU.
(2) Software is loaded into RAM from secondary storage and is then executed by CPU.
(3) Software is loaded into RAM from secondary storage and is then executed by
motherboard.
(4) Software is loaded into secondary storage from RAM and is then executed by
motherboard.

Statement I: SWAYAM’ an initiative of the Government of India, aims at providing affordable
and quality education to the citizens.
Statement II: 'SWAYAM' aims at promoting the education and health of adolescent girls.
below :

33. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Random Access Memory (RAM) is volatile and stores data/programs currently
in use.
Reason (R): RAM is a storage medium that retains its contents even after the supply of
electricity has been turned off.
below:

List I (Computer Terms) List II (Description)
(A) Operating System (I) A service that runs on the internet.
(OS)
(B) WWW (II) Software that helps an OS to control a piece of
hardware.
(C) Device Driver (III) Software that controls peripherals and allocates
memory and processor time.
(D) IP (IV) Defines network addresses and is used for routing
packets.
1. (A)-(II). (B)-(IV). (C)-(III). (D)-(I)
2. (A)-(III). (B)-(I), (C)-(II). (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(IV). (B)-(I). (C)-(II). (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III). (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

35. Consider the following incomplete sentence:
Wi-Fi is short for Wireless Fidelity and it is a set of ____ for using short range ___ to allow
computing to ______ connect to a LAN or to the Internet.
Complete the above sentence by choosing the correct words in order from the following list:
(A) Standards
(B) Waves
(C) Devices
Choose the correct answer from the options given below’:
(1) (C), (B), (A)
(2) (C), (A), (B)
(3) (A), (C), (B)
(4) (A), (B), (C)

36. Ankur receives an email informing him that his credit card is going to be cancelled. The
email advises him to click on the provided link and sign into his online banking account
to prevent this from happening, which he does. A week later. Ankur notices that
Rs.10000 has been withdrawn from his bank account. What has Ankur fallen victim to?
(1) A phishing scam
(2) A Trojan horse
(3) Online blackmail
(4) A virus

Statement I: A company-wide network, closed to public access, which uses internet-type
technology, is called World Wide Web.
Statement II: MODEM is a device that enables a computer to communicate over telephone
lines.
below:


Statement I: The value of hexadecimal number 21 is 33 in decimal number system.
Statement II: The value of binary number 1110 is 14 in decimal number system.
below:
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is time

List I (Digital Initiative) List II (Objective)
(A) NAD (I) Utilization of satellite communication technologies for
transmission of education e-contents through National
channels
(B) SWAYAMFRABHA (II) All-digital library that stores information (metadata)
about different types of digital contents.
(C) NDL (III) 24x7 online store house of all academic awards viz.
certificates, degrees etc.
(D) SWAYAM (IV) Offers various online courses for school education and
higher education.
1. (A)-(II). (B)-(I), (C)-(III). (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(III). (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(III). (B)-(IV), (C)-(II). (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
40. Identify the correct order of following different types of storage/memory components in
a computer on the basis of price per bytes of storage from most
expensive to least expensive:
(A) DDR4 RAM
(B) HDD

(C) SSD
(D) CPU Cache
(1) (A), (D), (C), (B)
(2) (D), (A), (C), (B)
(3) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(4) (D), (A), (B), (C)

Management |
41. What is the full form of the abbreviation IoT?
1. International Office of Tourism
2. Internet of Things
3. Internet of Think
4. Instrument of Telecommunication
42. Which type of memory holds the computer startup routine?

1. RAM
2. WAN
3. ROM
4. Cache
as Reason R
Assertion A: Total number of mobile users in India is increasing rapidly
Reason R: The cost of the mobile is decreasing
given below

3, A is correct but R is not correct
4, A is not correct but R is correct
44. The file extension of Microsoft (MS) Word document in office 2007 is
1. .docx
2. .png
3. .doc
4. .jpg
45. What is the binary number for decimal number 9?

1. 1100
2. 1001
3. 0111
4. 1011
46. A type of memory' that holds the computer startup routine is
(1) Cache
(2) RAM
(3) DRAM
(4) ROM
47. Cloud computing has the following distinct characteristics :

(A) The service is hosted on the internet.
(B) It is made available by a service provider.
(C) It computes and predicts rain when the weather is cloudy.
(D) The service is fully managed by the provider
48. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) only

(2) (A), (B),(C) only
(3) (A), (D) only
(4) (A), (B),(D) only
49. A firewall is a software tool that protects

(1) Server
(2) Network
(3) Fire
(4) Individual Computer
(1) (A), (C) only
(2) (B). (C) only
(3) (A). (B). (C) only
(4) (A). (B). (D) only
51. The word blog is derived from the word

(1) My log
(2) We blog
(3) E blog
(4) Blogger
List I list II
(A) Input (I) Mouse
(B) Output (II) Monitor
(C) Memory (III) Cache
(D) Software (IV) Python
1. (A)-(I). (B)-(II), (C)-(IV). (D)-(III)
2. (A) (I). (B)-(III) (C)-(II). (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(III). (B)-(II). (C)-(I). (D)-(IV)

4. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III). (D)-(IV)

List I List II
A. Web browser I. Hard Disk
G. Operating system II. Chrome
C. Secondary memory III. MS-Word
D. Application software IV. DOS
1. A – III, B – II, C- I, D- IV
2. A – II, B - IV, C - I, D – III
3. A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
4. A – III, B – I, C - IV, D - II

List I List II
A. Software I. Step by step procedure to solve a problem
G. Hardware II. Raw facts and figures
C. Algorithm III. Hard Disk
D. Data IV. Linux
1. A - III, B – I, C - II, D – IV
2. A - III, B - II, C - I, D – IV
3. A - IV, B - I, C - II, D – III
4. A - IV, B – III, C - I, D - II
55. What type of device is, a joystick?

1. Input
2. Output
3. Memory
4. Processor
56. Which of the following is an application software?

1. Android

2. iOS
3. Linux
4. MS Word
57. Information is
1. Raw data
2. Processed data
3. Redundant data
4. Always ordinal data

58. The term Plotter is best described as:
1. An input device to produce good quality graphics
2. An output device to produce drawings and graphics
3. A fast storage device for storing good quality graphics
4. A multipurpose device for taking inputs as well as outputs
59. Which of the following is correct with respect to the size of the storage units?
1. Terabyte < Petabyte < Exabyte < Zettabyte
2. Petabyte < Exabyte < Zettabyte < Terabyte
3. Exabyte < Zettabyte < Terabyte < Petabyte
4. Zettabyte < Exabyte < Petabyte < Terabyte
60. E-commerce involves buying and selling of:

1. International goods
2. Electronic goods
3. Products related to computers
4. Products and services over the Internet

61. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason
(R):
Assertion (A): An Intranet is a private network for sharing computing resources and
information within an organization
Reason (R): Intranet is private version of the Internet
In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
62. Which of the following devices allows a user to copy an external document and save it in
electronic form onto a computer?
1. Spammer
2. Scanner
3. Printer
4. Plotter
63. MOODLE is abbreviation of
(1) Modular Object-Oriented Distance Learning Environment
(2) Modular Object-Oriented Dynamic Learning Environment
(3) Modular Object-Oriented Distance Legislative Environment
(4) Modular Object-Oriented Distance Legal Environment
64. Extra browser window of commercials that open automatically on browsing web pages
is called
(1) Spam
(2) Virus
(3) Phishing
(4) Pop-up

Statement I: World Wide Web is not. an example of client-server technology.
Statement II: FTP is a service available on the internet.
below:
66. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(A) Fibre optic cables are wooden fibres to provide high quality transmission.
(B) Wireless communication provides anytime, anywhere connection to both computers
and telephones.
(C) Mobile phones are capable of providing voice communication and also digital
messaging service.
(4) (C) only
67. Consider the following technologies :

(A) Microprocessor
(B) Transistor
(C) Vaccum Tube
(D) Artificial Intelligence
Arrange the above technologies of different computer generations in the order they have
been used. Start from the technology that was used in first generation.
(1) (C). (A). (B), (D)

(2) (C). (B), (A), (D)
(3) (B), (C). (A), (D)
(4) (C). (B). (D). (A)

68. RAM is placed on
1. Hard Disk
2. Extension board
3. Motherboard
4. USB
69. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. NKN stands for New Knowledge Network
B. MOOCs are offline courses
C. National Supercomputing Mission is a Government of India initiative
D. Clock rate of CPU is measured in Gigabytes
E. Param Shivay is a supercomputer
1. C and E only
2. B and C only
3, C and D only
4, A and E only
Statement I: Cache memory Is faster than random access memory
Statement IE: Random access memory is closer to the processor than cache memory
In light of the above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below

4. Statement I is Incorrect but Statement II is correct
71. Which one of the following is NOT a web browser?
1. Firefox
2. Facebook
3, Chrome
4, Safari
72. URL stands for

1. Universal Resource Location
2. Universal Response Locator
3. Unified Response Location
4. Uniform Resource Locator

73. Question Number: 31 Question Id; 2105299255 Question Type: MCQ Option Shuffling:
No Is Question Mandatory; No Correct Marks: 2 Wrong Marks: 0
Consider the following sizes of computer memory. Choose the correct ascending order
A. MB
B. GB
C. KB
D. TB
1. B, D, A, C
2. D, B, A, C
3. A, B, C, D
4. C, A. B. D

Statement I: Printed output from a computer system is called soft copy
Statement II: RAM is a read/write memory

3. Statement I Is correct but Statement II is false
75. Which one of the following is NOT used to avail internet connectivity?
1. Wi-Fi
2. 3G
3. Scanner
4. 4G

List I List II
A. Input device I. Chrome
B. Output device II. MS-office
C. Software ill. Mouse
D. Web browser IV. Monitor
1. A - II, B - III, C- I, D – IV
2. A - III, B - IV, C - II, D – I
3. A - I, B - II, C - IV, D – III
4. A - IV, B - III. C - II, D - I
77. Radha receives an email claiming that her credit card account is about to be suspended
unless she emails her credit card details and personal identification number (PIN)
immediately. What is this an example of?
1. Spamming
2. Phishing
3. Virus Signing
4. Scanning

78. GUI stands for
1. Graphical Usage Interaction
2. Gaming User Interface
3. Graphical User Interface
4. Graphical User Interaction
79. Given below are two statements Statement I: Operating systems are hardware
Statement II: Algorithm is a step by step procedure to solve a problem

Statement I: Compilers are software
Statement II: Touch screen monitors are input/output devices
given below

List I List II
A. Image I. .doc
B. Video II. .mp3
C. Audio III, .jpeg
D. Word processing IV. .mpeg
1. A - I, B - II, C - III, D – IV
2. A - III, B - IV, C – II, D – I
3. A - II, B - III, C - IV, D – I
4. A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

List I List II
A. Search engine I. www.gmal.com
B. Job openings II. www.amazon.in
C. E-mail III. www.google.com
D. E-commerce IV. www.naukri.com
1. A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
2. A - IV, B - III, C - l, D – II
3. A - I, B - II, C - III, D – IV
4. A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

83. How many unique combinations of 0's and l's can be made with 5-binary-digit code?
1. 16
2. 32
3. 64
4. 128
84. The process through which an illegitimate website pretends to be a specific legitimate
website is known as:
1. Sniffing
2. Spoofing
3. Back Doors

4. War Dialing
85. Which of the following keys of keyboard are called modifier keys?
(a) Ctrl
(b) Shift
(c) End
(d) Alt
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. (a), (c) and (d)
4. (b) (c) and (d)
86. One aspect of E-govemance deals with flow of information between the Government
and citizens. Which of the following are Government to Citizens (G2C) initiatives?
(a) e - Help
(b) e - Health
(c) e - Tendering
(d) e - Feedback
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (c) and (d) only
3. (b) and (d) only
4. (b) and (c) only
87. Which of the following portals include the list of 'on-line courses'?
(a) ariia.gov in
(b) swayani.gov. in
(c) mic.ac.in
(d) nptel.ac.in

1. (a) and (c) only
2. (a) and (d) only
3. (b) and (c) only
4. (b) and (d) only
2020 June || Hindi (1) |
88. Identify the correct pair from the following;

1, AVI - File Transfer Protocol
2, Excel - Word Processing Software
3, HDD - Cloud Storage Facility
4, Ubuntu - Operating System
89. BCD stands for

1. Binary Coded Decimal
2. Binary Coded Digit
3. Bit Coded Decimal
4. Bit Coded Digit
90. Which one of the following allows a phone call to be routed over network wires?
1. Video Conferencing
2. Teleconferencing
3. Optical Fibre
4. VOIP
91. Which one of the following represents one billion characters?

1, 1 Kilobyte
2, 1 Megabyte
3, 1 Gigabyte

4, 1 Terabyte
92. Scrambling of data before transmission across a network to avoid manipulation by a

third party is known as
1. Protection
2. Permutation
3. Detection
4. Encryption
2020 June || Hindi (2) |

93. Which of the following number systems uses two numbers to represent data in
computer?
1. Bicentennial
2. Biometric
3. Binary
4. Byte
94. Satellite communication works through

1. Radar
2. Receptor
3. Transmitter
4. Transponder
95. Which of the following is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 35?
1. 100001
2. 100101
3. 100011
4. 101001

96. In banking system. ATM means
1. Automatic Transfer Money
2. Automatic Time Money
3. Automatic Teller Machine
4. Automatic Tele Money
97. In IT Act 2000. which section deals with punishment for cyber terrorism?
1. 45(F)
2. 66(B)
3. 66(F)
4. 67(B)

98. In computers, a DVD-ROM is :
(1) an optical storage media and it can be written many times.
(2) a magnetic storage media and it can be written only once.
(3) an optical storage media and it can be written only once.
(4) a magnetic storage media and it can be written many times.
99. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
(A) Cache memory is volatile’ memory.
(B) Magnetic memory is ’volatile’ memory.
(C) Flash memory is ‘volatile’ memory.
(D) RAM is 'volatile’ memory.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below’:
(2) (D) only

100. The Recycle Bin is an area in Windows OS that contains files deleted from the :
(A) hard drive
(B) Pen drive
(C) CD-ROM
(1) (A) only
101. Identify the correct order of the following computer memories on the basis of
increasing memory access time (from low to high).
(A) Registers
(B) Main Memory
(C) Secondary Memory
(D) Cache Memory
(1) (A) (C). (D). (B)
(2) (A). (D). (B). (C)
(3) (C). (B). (D), (A)
(4) (B). (D). (A). (C)

Statement I: Minimum number of bits required to store any 3-digit decimal number is 10.
Statement II: The data in a digital computer is stored in terms of bits/ bytes where one
PetaByte is equal to 250 bits.
below:


103. What is the full form of the abbreviation GIF?
1, Graphics Interchange Format
2, Graphics Interchange File
3, Global Interchange Format
4, Graphics Input Fermat
104. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from lowest to highest
speed?
1. Main Memory, Cache Memory, Secondary Storage
2. Cache Memory, Secondary Storage, Main Memory
3. Secondary Storage, Main Memory, Cache Memory
4. Secondary Stage, Cache Memory, Main Memory
105. Speed of Internet is measured in

1. GHz
2. Gbps
3. GB
4. dpi
106. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
Assertion A: Machine Learning requires good quality and sufficient data to train and test the
algorithm
Reason R: For correct classification, good quality data which is free from noise, and
sufficient data is required for training and testing of the algorithm.

given below
107. Using a websites to pour out one's grievances is called
1. Cyber venting
2. Web hate
3. Web anger
4. Cyber abuse

Statement I: ALU stands for Arithmetic Logic Unit
Statement II: UPS stands for Uniform Power Source
2, Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is correct but Statement I is false
109. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Internet is larger than intranet
B. Intranet is larger than internet
C. Internet and intranet are same
D. Internet is a network of networks
E. World Wide Web is an example of intranet

1. B and E only
2. A and D only
3. C and E only
4. B and C only

List I List II
A. Programming Language I. Wide Area Network
B. Operating System II. MS Powerpoint
C. Internet III. Windows XP
D. Application Software IV. C + +
1. A - I, B - II, C - III, D – IV
2. A - IV, B - III, C - I, D – II
3. A - IV, B – II, C - III, D – I
4. A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

Statement I: Example of primary memory is RAM
Statement II: Example of secondary memory is Pen drive
3. Statement I is correct but Statement I is false
112. Which of the following is related to National Super Computing Mission of

Government of India?
1. Pa ram 8000
2. Pa ram 10000
3. Param Dhavak
4. Param Shivay

113. What is the full form of the abbreviation ISP?
(1) International Software Product
(2) Internet Service Provider
(3) Internet Server Product
(4) Internet Software Provider
114. What is bit rate?
(1) Number of bits stored in computer
(2) Number of bits per second that can be transmitted over a network
(3) Number of bits per hour stored in a computer over a network
(4) Binary digit converted to hexa decimal number
115. Methodology for the delivery' of voice and multimedia sessions over the internet is
called :
(1) TCP/IP
(2) UDP
(3) VoIP
(4) Chat
116. Which of the following is true about the wireless networking?

(1) It is easier to expand the network
(2) Data is less secured than wired system
(3) Reliability is more than wired
(4) Faster than wired network
(1) (A), (B), (D) only
(2) (A), (B) only
(3) (B), (C) only
(4) (A). (B),(C) only

118. Match List I with List II : List I consists components of computer system and List II is
their examples.
List I List II
(A) Output Device (I) Operating system
(B) System Software (II) Printer
(C) Storage Device (III) MS-office
(D) Application software (IV) RAM
(1). (A)-(I). (B)-(II). (C)-(IV). (D)-(III)
(2). (A)-(IV). (B)-(III), (C)-(II). (D)-(I)
(3). (A)-(II), (B)-(I). (C)-(IV). (D)-(III)
(4). (A)-(III). (B)-(I). (C)-(II). (D)-(IV)

ANSWER KEY (2018DEC – 2019DEC) ICT
1.2 21.1 41.3 61.3 81.2 101.3 121.2 141.3
2.2 22.2 42.3 62.4 82.1 102.3 122.2 142.2
3.4 23.2 43.2 63.4 83.2 103.1 123.3 143.3
4.2 24.2 44.1 64.4 84.3 104.1 124.4 144.3
5.2 25.3 45.3 65.3 85.1 105.4 125.4 145.3
6.3 26.2 46.2 66.3 86.1 106.2 126.4 146.2
7.3 27.1 47.3 67.4 87.1 107.3 127.1 147.4
8.1 28.2 48.3 68.2 88.1 108.4 128.2 148.2
9.3 29.2 49.2 69.4 89.4 109.3 129.2 149.4
10.4 30.2 50.4 70.3 90.4 110.4 130.3 150.1
11.3 31.1 51.2 71.4 91.3 111.3 131.3 151.4
12.4 32.3 52.3 72.3 92.3 112.3 132.4
13.2 33.2 53.2 73.1 93.3 113.2 133.4
14.3 34.1 54.2 74.1 94.4 114.2 134.1
15.2 35.2 55.4 75.3 95.4 115.1 135.3
16.2 36.2 56.1 76.1 96.2 116.3 136.2
17.4 37.4 57.4 77.4 97.1 117.3 137.2
18.4 38.3 58.4 78.? 98.4 118.2 138.3
19.3 39.2 59.3 79.2 99.1 119.3 139.3
20.4 40.1 60.3 80.2 100.2 120.2 140.2

ANSWER KEY (2020) ICT
1.3 11.3 21.2 31.2 41.2 51.2 61.2 71.2 81.2 91.3 101.2 111.1
2.4 12.2 22.3 32.3 42.3 52.4 62.2 72.4 82.1 92.4 102.3 112.4
3.3 13.3 23.2 33.3 43.1 53.2 63.2 73.4 83.2 93.3 103.1 113.2
4.1 14.2 24.3 34.2 44.1 54.4 64.4 74.4 84.2 94.4 104.3 114.2
5.2 15.3 25.4 35.4 45.2 55.1 65.4 75.3 85.2 95.3 105.2 115.3
6.2 16.2 26.2 36.1 46.4 56.4 66.2 76.2 86.1 96.3 106.1 116.3
7.3 17.4 27.3 37.4 47.4 57.2 67.2 77.2 87.4 97.3 107.1 117.2
8.2 18.1 28.3 38.1 48.4 58.2 68.3 78.3 88.4 98.3 108.3 118.3
9.2 19.1 29.2 39.2 49.2 59.1 69.1 79.4 89.1 99.3 109.2
10.4 20.4 30.1 40.2 50.4 60.4 70.3 80.1 90.4 100.1 110.2

PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT
PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT 2018 DEC – 2019DEC
1.A study was carried out on the drought resilience in India. Which of the following States
show highest level of handling drought?
1.Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
2. Odisha, Karnataka, Kerala
3. Sikkim, Punjab, Arunachal Pradesh
4. Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Jammu and Kashmir
2.The most harmful types of environmental pollutants are:

1. Human organic wastes
2, Wastes from faecal matter
3. Non-biodegradable chemicals
4. Natural nutrients present in excess
3.Assertion (A): Natural gas is a very attractive eco-friendly fuel.

Reason (R): It produces few pollutants and less carbon dioxide per unit energy than any
other fossil fuel on combustion.
2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4.What percentage of energy coming from the Sun is re-radiated towards the space ?
1. 15 %
2. 25 %
3. 30 %

4, 50 %
5.As per Central Forestry Commission (CFC) how many forest types are found in our country
?
1. 15
2. 20
3. 28
4. 16
6.Consider the following agricultural practices:
(a) Contour bunding
(b) Relay cropping
(c) Zero tillage
In the context of global climatic change, which of them help / helps in carbon sequestration
/ storage in the soil?
1, (a) and (b) only
2. (c) only
3. (a) and (C) only
4. (a), (b) and (c)
7.Find the odd one from below:

1. Perceiving
2. Listening
3. Inferring
4. Comprehending
8.Largest amount of freshwater is present in

1. Lakes
2, Rivers
2. Glaciers

4. Polar ice
9.Least polluting energy generating technique among the following

1. Magneto-hydrodynamic
2. Thermal power
3. Fission based nuclear energy
4. Photovoltaic
10.Assertion (A): Hails damage the standing crops.

Reason (R): In India, hails occur only during the winter season.
Options:
2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2018 December||Arabic | Geography| Gujarati| Nepali| Psychology| Punjabi
11.Which of the following statements are indicative of the vision of Blue-Revolution ? For
your answer select from the code :
(a) Promoting development of Botanical Gardens.

(b) Creating an enabling environment for the full potential of fisheries in the country.
(c) Improving the income status of fish farmers keeping in view the sustainability concerns.
(d) Encouraging scientific research in forestry to increase the vegetative cover.
(e) Promoting integrated development of fisheries of the country.
(f) Undertaking research in new areas like marine finfish.
1. (b)' (c) and (e)

2. (a)' (d) and (f)
3. (b)' (c) and (a)
3, (c)' (d) and (e)
12.Below are given two sets. Set - I mentions the types of pollution, while Set - II indicates
their source. Match the two sets and select your answer from the code.
Set – I (Pollution Set – II (Source)
Type)
(a) Air (i) Point and non-point sources such as discharges from
industries etc.
(b) Land (ii) Industries, thermal power plants and motor vehicles
emissions.
(c) Water (iii) Roadway, aircraft, industrial as well as high intensity sonar.
(d) Noise (iv) Over use of chemical fertilizers.
Options:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
3. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
13.Which of the following provisions are directly covered in the Environment Protection Act,
1986?
1. Protection and conservation of forests and matters connected therewith

2. Prevention and control of water pollution
3. Protection and safety of wild animals, birds and plants and for matters connected
there with
4. Protection and improvement of quality of environment and preventing, controlling
and abating environmental pollution

14.In the context of a School / University which of the following aspects of environment
determine the academic ethos?
1, Attractive physical campus
2. Latest lab equipment’s
3. Patters of human relations as evident in workplace
4. Well-equipped lecture halls
15.In the two sets given below, Set - I specifies H2S level in a water sample, while Set - II
provides observations. Match the two sets and indicate your answer from the code given
below :
Set – I (H2S level in Water Sample) Set – II (Observation)
(a) No H2S is produced (i) Dark black - high water pollution
(b) H2S is produced and is small in quantity (ii) No colour - clean water
(c) H2S Ls produced and is medium in quantity (iii) Light black - low water pollution
(d) H2S is produced and is high in quantity (iv) Black - moderate water pollution
Options :
(a) (b) (C) (d)
1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
16.The tsunami that occurred in south and south-east Asia in December, 2004 was caused
due to
1. An earthquake
2. A volcanic eruption
3. A hurricane
4, A tropical cyclone

17.Which of the following gases initiates a chain reaction that breaks-down ozone in the
upper atmosphere ?
1. Nitrogen dioxide
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Hydrogen sulphide
4. Chlorine
18.High level lead (Pb) exposures in humans through inhalations or food consumption may
cause:
(a) Mental retardation
(b) High blood pressure
(c) Disorder of central nervous system
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (c) and (a) only
4. (a), (b) and (c)
19.In a human population, which is undergoing the demographic transition, which of the
following generally decreases first?
1. Life expectancy
2. Level of education
3, Death rate
4. Birth rate
20.Assertion (A): The ecosystem surrounding a river gets damaged due to construction of a
dam.
Reason (R): The area gets inundated with large volume of water.
Choose the correct code:

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4, (A) is false and (R) is true.
Rights and Duties| Odia| Social Work| Urdu
21.Which among the following industries, consumes maximum water in India ?
1, Engineering
2. Textiles
3. Thermal power plants
4. Paper and Pulp
22.Plants suitable for biomonitoring of Sulphur Dioxide pollution are:

1. White pine, moss and lichens
2. Tomato and lettuce
3. Tobacco, grapes and garden bean
4, Apricot, peach and gladiolus
23.An earthquake is rated as ‘major’ if its magnitude in Richter Scale is in the range of
Options:
1, 4.0 - 4.9
2. 5.0 - 5.9
3. 6.0 - 6.9
4. 7.0 - 7.9
24.The biggest hindrance in using biomass as a major energy source is:

1, Technology not well developed for commercialisation.
2. Energy yield of low level.
3. Large amount of land required to grow energy crops
4. All pollution due to combustion.

25.Assertion (A): Climate change is going to increase social tension in India.
Reason (R): The frequency and intensity of the extreme weather events will have serious
consequences for food security.
2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

26.The two major processes involved in the carbon cycle are :
1. Deposition and erosion
2. Evaporation and transpiration
3. Photosynthesis and respiration
4 Fixation and denitrification
27.Human populations have historically sell led in flood plains due to which of the following
reasons?
(a) Flood plains are close to rivers for transportation.
(b) The soils in the flood plains are usually fertile.
(c) The terrain in flood plains is found as flat.
1. (a) only
2. (a) and (b) only
3. (b) and (c) only
4. (a), (b) and (c)
28.Which of the following methods would be most appropriate in reducing acid rain and
acid deposition problems
1. Adding lime to the acidic lakes
2. Reducing the use of fossil fuels
3. Promotion of acid-resistant crops

4. Increasing the height of smokestacks
29.Assertion (A): Mapping of landslide prone areas and construction of houses, felling of
trees and grazing in landslide prone areas should be prohibited.
Reason (R): Afforestation in the vulnerable areas is an effective way of durable landslides
control.
Choose the correct code :
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is false and (R) is true.
30.Which of the following best describes the mechanism of the greenhouse effect in earth's
atmosphere?
1. Cosmic radiation from the space is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere.
2. Ultraviolet radiation from the sun is absorbed by Ozone layer in the stratosphere.
3. Infrared radiation from earth's surface is absorbed by eases in the atmosphere.
4 Gamma radiation from the sun is absorbed at ground level by dust particles in the
atmosphere.
31.Which of the following statements are correct about Indira Gandhi National Open
University (IGNOU)? To indicate your answer, select from the code given below :
(a) It is an autonomous organisation.
(b) It is devoted to promotion of open and distance education system.
(c) It conducts assessment and accredits the State Open Universities.
(d) It has jurisdiction in respect of Open and Distance learning system in India and to the
study centres outside India.
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (d)
3. (c) and (d)

4. (d) and (a)
32.The leadership and executive role in higher education system in respect of state
universities of India is assigned to:
1. Chancellor of the University
2. Vice-Chancellor of the University
3. Deans of Faculties
4. Dean of Studies
33.The formal authority for approving the University level courses vests in
1. The Academic Council
2. The University Court
3. The Executive Council
4. The Research Degree Committee
34.For promoting human values through College/ University programmes which one of the
following leadership styles would be the most appropriate?
Options:
1. Directive Leadership Style
2. Participative Leadership Style
3. Consultative Leadership Style
4. Delegating Leadership Style
35.A post-graduate degree holder student with 55% marks intends to pursue research for
the award of Ph.D. degree. What will be the formal requirements in this regard? To indicate
your correct answer, choose from the code given below:
(a) Appearing in an admission test of a university
(b) Attending a coaching institute
(c) Consulting an expert teacher
(d) Submitting an application for enrolment
(e) Submitting a proposal for the research

(f) Discussing the research proposal with a peer group
(g) Getting the opinion of the experts on the research theme
(h) Getting the proposal approved by the relevant body of the university
(i) Attending mandatory course work
Codes:
1. (a), (d), (e), (h), and (i)
2. (b), (c), (f), and (i)
3. (c), (e), (g), and (h)
4. (d), (f), (h), and (i)

36.Recently in Brazil, a bacterium showed the antibiotic resistance, which was not reported
previously.
1. Pseudomonas specie
2. Salmonella species
3. KlebsielIa species
4. Streptococcus species
37.One of the following has a positive human influence on the environment:

1. deforestation
2. Over population
3. Pollution
4. Conservation
38.Assertion (A): The environmental impact of soil erosion can best be mitigated by
removing vegetative cover only from the specific site on which construction is
to take place.

Reason (R): The environmental impact of soil erosion can also be mitigated by disturbing the
vegetation in adjacent areas as little as possibl
1.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3.(A) is true (R) is false
39.Assertion (A): Hydropower is an exhaustible energy resource.

Reason (R): The power of falling water would neither diminish nor get exhausted.
Options
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not, the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true (R) is false
4. Both (A) and (R) are false
40.In the scheme of life, soil is an essential resource of life, as it plays the following roles.
(a) It is a reservoir of carbon.
(b) It is the medium for growth of food and energy' for the animal world.
(c) It provides oxygen to the biotic community.
(d) It is a natural reservoir for the huge amount of water
Select the correct answer from the above:
Codes:
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (c) and (d)

English | Sanskrit Traditional Subjects | Visual Art | Yoga
41.The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high compared to
coastal areas. What is/ are the reason(s)?
(a) Thermal difference between land and water.
(b) Variations in altitude between continents and oceans.
(c) Presence of strong winds in the interior.
(d) Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coastal region.
Codes:
1. (a) only
2. (a) and (b) only
3. (b) and (c) only
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
42.How much carbon is being added to the atmosphere by burning of fossil fuels?
1. 6 - 9 billon tons
3.. 4 - 6 billon tons
43.in which part of India, the tropical Western Ghats aresituated? (mistake question)
1. Punjab
2.Rajasthan
3.Gujarat
4. Kerala
44.A source of renewable power which can be developed with minimum cost is
1. Wind mills
2. Tidal power
3. Geothermal energy
4. Biomass power

45.Natural vegetation of an area needs to be preserved for the future, mainly for the
purpose of
1. Renting soil erosion
2. Priding habitat for birds
3. Study by scientists
4. Providing material for breeding new species
46.Recent study showed that, River Ganga will not flow cleaner in the near future. Which of
the following reasons is false:
1. Thinning of flow rate of the river
2. Failure of treatment plants
3. Climatic change
4. Increased sewage
47.What is the long-term effect of cutting down larger areas of rain forests?
1. Decreased carbon dioxide content in the air
2. Decreased flooding of low-lying land
3. Increased rainfall in these areas
4. Increased rate of soil erosion
48.Assertion (A): Environmental and social impact assessments never overlap with each
other.
Reason (R): Environmental and social impact assessments are effectively opposite ends of
the same spectrum.
2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

49.Consider the following statements:
(a) The radiation reflected back to the atmosphere is called albedo.
(b) The atmosphere is essential in maintaining the heat balance of the body.
(c) The heat and sunlight both pass through the atmosphere.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Codes
1. only (a)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (a) and (b)
4. (a), (b) and (c)
50.International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade (IDWSSD) was observed
between :
1. 1991-2000
2. 1981-1990
3. 1971-1980
4. 1965-1975
PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT -2019

2019 June || Adult Education| Chinese| Comparative Literature| Comparative Study of
Religions| German| Home Science| Japanese| Labour Welfare| Maithili| Management|
Manipuri| Philosophy| Physical Education| Tourism Administration and Management|
51.The target set by Indian government for generating power from wind energy by the year
2022 is
(1) 60 GW
(2) 50 GW
(3) 40 GW
(4) 15 GW

52.Which pollutant is the major source of marine pollution?(MISTAKE QUESTION)
(1) Agricultural run-off
(2) Oil spill
(3) Industrial waste water
(4) Sewage
53.Permafrost is defining characteristic of which biome?

(1) Taiga
(2) Tundra
(3) Grassland
(4) Desert
54.The mangroves exist in

(1) Fresh water system
(2) Temperate areas
(3) Semi-arid areas
(4) Saline waters
55.Chemical oxygen demand in eutrophic water is

(1) Low
(2) High
(3) Medium
(4) Extremely low

Hindi|
56.Which of the following pollutants is included in the Air Quality Index in India?
(1) Carbon Dioxide
(2) Chlorofluoro carbons
(3) Sulphur dioxide
(4) Methane
57.The initiative to establish International Solar Alliance was jointly taken by

(1) USA and India
(2) France and India
(3) Sweden and India
(4) China and India
58.Which of the following is / are missions under the national action plan on climate
change?
(a) Sustaining the Himalayan ecosystem
(b) Sustainable forest management
(c) Strategic: knowledge for climate change
Select the correct answer :
(2) (b) only
59.Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of Municipal Solid Waste?

(1) Landfilling
(2) Pulverization
(3) Composting
(4) Shredding

60.Blue — baby syndrome can happen due to excess of which component in water?
(1) Calcium
(2) Magnesium
(3) Nitrates
(4) Pesticides

61.Which of the following disasters belongs to the category of nuclear disasters?
(a) Fukushima disaster
(b) Chernobyl disaster
(c) Three mile Island incident
(d) The love canal disaster
Choose your answer from the options given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a) (c) and (d)
(4) (b) (c) and (d)
62.Statement I - Most of the member countries in the International solar Alliance are
located between the tropic of canter and tropic of Capricorn
Statement II - Japan is a member country of the International solar alliance,
Which of the above statement is \ are correct?
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I nor II

63.Consider the following statements in the content of Millennium Development Goals
(.MDGs) adopted by die United Nations
(a) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(b) Improve maternal health
(c) Responsible consumption and production
(d) Reduce child mortality
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b). (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
64.Assertion (A) — Night time temperatures in the centred parts of a city are generally higher
than those ever the surrounding rural areas
Reason (R) - Radiation losses ever the urban areas are less than that over the rural areas
(1) Both (A) and (R.) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
65.The Paris Agreement aims to limit the temperature rise in this century by how many
degrees Celsius above the pre-industrial levels?
(1) 1°C
(2) 2°C
(3) 0.5°C
(4) 3°C

66.One of the main outcomes of the Rio +20 conference was to develop a set of
(1) Sustainable Development Goals
(2) Millennium Development Goals
(3) National Development Strategy
(4) National Land Restoration Strategy
67.The Time frame for the implementation of Millennium Development Goals was,
(1) 2000 - 2005
(2) 2000 - 2015
(3) 2005 - 2010
(4) 2000 - 2012
68.The duration for which of the usable compost generation is 3-6 months?
(1) Vermi composting
(2) Semi-Automatic waste converter
(3) Pit composting
(4) Automatic waste converter
69.Oligotrophic lakes are Characterized by

(1) High level of nutrients
(2) Low level of nutrients
(3) Absence of nutrients
(4) High level of organic matter

70.With increase in temperature, the dissolved oxygen content in a water body
(1) decreases
(2) increases
(3) remain constant
(4) may increase or decrease depending on the temperature range
71.In the last few years, India has been affected by which of the following tropical cyclones?
(1) Gaja, Hudhud, Bhima
(2) Hudhud, Bhima, Ockhi
(3) Gaja, Hudhud, Ockhi
(4) Gaja, Bhima, Ockhi
72.Which of the following are priority areas in relation to the Sustainable Development
Goals?
(a) No poverty
(b) Zero hunger
(c) Reducing urbanization
(d) Peace, justice and strong institutions
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (a), (c), (d)
(3) (b), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (d)

73.Assertion (A) : Methemoglobinemia is a condition in which blood is not able to carry and
deliver enough oxygen to the body.
Reason (R) : Consuming drinking water with high nitrate levels may cause
methemoglobinemia.
74.Assertion (A) : High concentration of ozone in the lower troposphere is desirable.

Reasons (R) : Ozone present in the atmosphere protects the living organisms on the surface
of earth from the harmful ultra-violet radiation of the sun.
75.Algal blooms in oligotrophic lakes are

(1) very frequent
(2) frequent
(3) very rare
(4) widespread

76.One of the parameters used to characterise the air quality at a location is PM 2.5. Here,
the suffix ‘2.5' refers to
(1) average number of suspected particles in 1.0 cm3 of air
(2) size of suspended particles in certain units
(3) concentration of oxides of sulphur and nitrogen

(4) concentration of suspended particles in 2.5 m3 of air
77.Choose the set of non-renewable resources(mistake question)

(1) Uranium, natural gas, soil
(2) Natural gas, uranium, phosphates
(3) Petroleum, uranium, geothermal energy
(4) Shale gas, uranium, soil
78.Which of the following diseases are due to polluted water?

(a) Giardia
(b) Dengue
(c) Amoebiasis
(d) Typhoid
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
79.Which of the following is the largest sink of CO2 gas?

(1) Forests
(2) Oceans
(3) Ice sheets
(4) Grasslands
80.Which of the following is non-vehicular pollutant?

(1) chlorofluorocarbon
(2) carbon-monoxide
(3) hydrocarbon
(4) particulate matter

81.Which are the examples of potential kinetic energy? Select your answer from the options
given below :
(i) Water that is behind a dam
(ii) Radio signals
(iii) An airplane idling on the runway
(iv) A satellite before it is launched
(v) A coiled spring
(vi) Heat harnessed from the oceans
Options :
(1) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
82.Statement I : The Millennium Development Goals were adopted in the United Nations in
the year 2010
Statement II : Developing a global partnership for development was one of the Millennium
Development Goals.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I nor II
83.Which one of the following conferences/summit is also known as UN Conference on

Sustainable Development (UNCSD)?
(1) The Stockholm Conference, 1972
(2) The Rio de Janerio Conference, 1992

(3) The Johannesburg Summit, 2002
(4) The Rio + 20 Conference, 2012
84.In the formation of surface Ozone, which of the following’ do play an important role?
(a) Oxides of nitrogen
(b) Oxides of sulphur
(c) Sunlight
(d) Carbon monoxide
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (d)
85.Which of the following belongs to the category of geophysical hazards?

(1) Infestation
(2) Avalanches
(3) Invasive species
(4) Diseases

Sindhi| Telugu
86.The target set by Indian government for power from roof-top solar installations by the
year 2022 is
(1) 40.0 GW
(2) 50.0 GW
(3) 60.0 GW
(4) 100.0 GW

87.How many National Missions of Indian Government are there to address the problem of
climate change?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 17
88.Which of the following types of energy sources employ direct energy conversion process
to produce electricity?
(1) Biomass
(2) Wind
(3) Geothermal
(4) Nuclear
89.A geothermal reserve has the stored heat of 5 x 1019J. If the over all efficiency of a
geothermal power plant based on this reserve is 0.04, how much power can be produced by
the plant in 1 year?
(1) ~ 0.32 GW
(2) ~ 0.64 GW
(3) ~ 2.62 GW
(4) -63.41 GW
90.Which of the following materials is widely used in solar cell fabrication?

(1) Nubidinm
(2) Silicon
(3) Nickel
(4) Chromium

91.Which of the following is an online store house of all academic awards like certificates,
diplomas, degrees, marksheets etc?
(1) SWAY AM
(2) National Digital Library
(3) National Academic Library
(4) National Academic Depository
92.Montreal protocol aims at

(1) Reduction in emissions of green house gases
(2) Phasing out ozone depleting substances
(3) Prohibiting transboundary movement of hazardous waste
(4) Enhancing cooperation among UN member states for peaceful uses of nuclear
energy
93.Efficiency of electrical power generation is least amongst the following sources of energy
in case of
(1) Solar
(2) Wind
(3) Geothermal
(4) Nuclear
94.Taj Mahal is mainly threatened by the deleterious effects of

(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Chlorine
(3) Oxygen
(4) Hydrogen

95.Statement I : Earthquake ‘A' is 5 on Richter scale and Earthquake (B' is 8 on the
samescale. Earthquake B has 1000 times the wave amplitude compared to ‘A’.
Statement II : The energy released in B is three times that of ‘A'
(1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I and II are correct
(3) Statement II is correct and I is incorrect
(4) Statement I and II are incorrect
96.In large parts of Eastern India, the ground water is contaminated by

(1) Arsenic
(2) Lead
(3) Mercury
(4) Nickel

97.Which of the following are features of Paris Agreement?
(a) The agreement focuses on mitigation measures for environmental pollution
(b) The agreement recognizes the principles of equity and common but differentiated
responsibilities
(c) Paris agreement pertains to 2020 climate actions
Select the correct answer:
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
98.Which of the following is considered as a secondary air pollutant?

(1) Nitric oxide
(2) Ozone
(3) Sulphur dioxide

(4) Carbon monoxide
99.Indian government’s target for share of renewable energy in the total installed capacity
of electric power in India by the year 2030 is
(1) 20%
(2) 30%
(3) 40%
(4) 50%
100.Amongst the following, which is better suited for dumping of nuclear waste?
(1) Salt mines
(2) Deserts
(3) Forests
(4) Oceans
101.The long term effect of cutting down of trees in large areas of ram forests is
(1) Increased ram fall in those areas
(2) Decreased rain fall in those areas
(3) Increase in wind speeds in those areas
(4) Increased rate of soil erosion in those areas

Management|
102.How many National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries were there in India till March 2011?
(1) 8 and 421 only
(2) 10 and 75 only
(3) 75 and 421 only
(4) 102 and 515 only

103.Regarding E-governance, which of the following statements is \ are correct?
(a) Decreasing transparency is an ICT enabled advantage of E-Governance.
(b) E-governance is related to the implementation of ICT in the government processes and
functions.
(c) Common Service Centres (CSCs) help in providing and using E-Governance related
services.
(1) (a) (b) and (c)
104.Which of the following statements are true about a fuel cell?

(a) It is a device that uses electrochemical reactions to produce electric current
(b) It consists of a positive electrode and a negative electrode separated by an electrolyte
(c) Just like batteries it needs to be recharged with an electric current
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
105.Match the following soil orders with their descriptions
(a) Histosols (i) Soil order that includes soils formed on volcanic ash
(b) Andisols (ii) Soil order of cold regions including soils underlain by permafrost
(c) Gelisols (iii) Soil order consisting of soils of dry climates
Soil order consisting of soils with a thick upper layer of organic
(d) Aridsols (iv)
matter.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
106.Which of the following sequence represents the correct order of soil particles arranged
in terms of particle size from the smallest to the largest?
(1) Gravel, Silt, Clay, Sand
(2) Silt, Clay, Gravel, Sand
(3) Clay, Silt, Sand, Gravel
(4) Silt, Clay, Sand, Gravel

Sciences| Hindi
107.Which of the following groups of electronic scientists has been given in an order
chronologically?
(1) Gugliehno (G.) Marconi, Lumiere Brothers, Lee forest, John Fleming and John Logie Baird
(2) John Logie Baird, Lumiere Brothers, Guglielmo (G.) Marconi, Lee forest and John Fleming
(3) Lee forest, John Fleming, Lumiere Brothers, Guglielmo (G.) Marconi and John Logie Baird
(4) Lumiere Brothers, Guglielmo (G.) Marconi, Lee forest, John Fleming and John Logie Baird
108.Match the following classes of chemicals with their descriptions :

(Chemical Class) (Description)
(a) Allergens (i) Chemicals that alter or damage the genetic material (DNA)
cells
(b) Mutagens (ii) Substances that activate the immune system
(c) Carcinogens (iii) Chemicals that specifically cause abnormalities during
embryonics growth and development.
(d) Teratogens (iv) Substances that cause invasive out of control cell growth
resulting in malignant tumors.
Choose the most appropriate option from those given below :
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

109.Identify the Sustainable Development Goals from the list given below :
(i) Zero Hunger
(ii) Quality Education
(iii) Universal Primary Education
(iv) Clean Water and Sanitation
(v) Green Agriculture
(vi) Climate Action
(1) (i). (ii). (iii) and (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii). (iv) and (v)
(3) (iii). (iv). (v) and (i)
(4) (i) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
110.Match the following two sets, Set I lists the names of states, while Set II indicates state
specific missions.
Set I Set II
(A) Andhra Pradesh (I) Mukhya Mantri -Jal Swavlamban Abhiyan
(B) Gujarat (II) Jalyukt Shivar Abhiyan
(C) Maharashtra (III) Neeti Samrakshana Udyamam
(D) Rajasthan (IV) Sujalam Sufalam Jal Abhiyan
(1) (A)-(I). (B)-(II). (C)-(III). (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(IV). (B)-(II). (C)-(II). (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(II) (B)-(I). (C)-(IV). (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(III). (B)-(IV). (C)-(II). (D)-(I)

111.Average noise levels in heavy traffic zones in major cities in India are generally in which
of the following ranges of noise levels?
(1) 31-40 dBA
(2) 41-50 dBA
(3) 70-95 dBA
(4) 110-120 dBA
112.The Montreal Protocol refers to

(1) Cooperation among UN member countries to combat climate change
(2) Phasing out the consumption and production of ozone depleting substances
(3) Ensuring environmental sustainability
(4) Safeguarding societal quality of life worldwide
113.In which category Cochin International Airport has been conferred, the UN's Champion
of the Earth Award?
(1) Policy Leadership
(2) Entrepreneurial Vision
(3) Science and Innovation
(4) Inspiration and Action
2019 December ||Archaeology| Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies|Folk

114.The Government of India has set up the Ministry of Jal Shakti by merging \ renaming
which of the following :
(1) Ministry of Water Resources and Ministry of Earth Sciences
(2) Ministry of Water Resources: Ministry of River Development and Ganga
Rejuvenation: and Ministry of Rural Development
(3) Ministry of Water Resources: Ministry of River Development and Ganga
Rejuvenation: and Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation
(4) Ministry of Water Resources

115.Identify environmental issues which are local in nature :
(i) Depletion of ozone layer
(ii) Lake pollution
(iii) Soil erosion
(iv) Climate change
(v) Water logging
(vi) Solid Waste Management
Select the answer from the options given below :
(1) (ii). (iii). (v) and (vi)
(2) (iii). (iv). (v) and (vi)
(3) (ii). (iii). (iv) and (v)
(4) (i). (ii). (iii) and (iv)
116.Which of the following UN Conferences | Summit adopted the programme of Action for
Sustainable Development?
(1) Stockholm Conference
(2) Rio de Janeiro Conference
(3) Johannesburg Summit
(4) Ahmedabad Conference
117.Which of the following indicates the objective of the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change (UNFOCQ?
(1) To stabilize greenhouse gases concentration in the atmosphere
(2) To prescribe limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries
(3) To lay down enforcement mechanisms
(4) To prepare guidelines for formulation of Climate Action Plan by member countries

118.For encouraging worldwide awareness and action for the protection of our
environment UNEP focused on the World Environment Day (2019) on which of the following
themes?
(1) Conserve energy
(2) Tackle climate change
(3) Beat air pollution
(4) Save water

119.Identify from the options given below, the co-benefit of Montreal Protocol
(1) Impetus to development of energy efficient systems
(2) Reduction in carbon dioxide (equivalent) emissions
(3) Convergence of efforts of international community in addressing air pollution
(4) Control of transboundary movement of hazardous waste
120.Under Green India Mission how many hectares of degraded forest land is to be brought
under afforestation?
(1) 02 million hectares
121. The themes of some Sustainable Development Goals are

(a) Climate action
(b) Sustainable cities and communities
(c) Peace, justice and strong institutions
(d) Skill development and decent employment
(e) Green agriculture
(f) Responsible consumption and production

Choose the most appropriate from those given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) (e) and (f)
(2) (b). (c). (e) and (f)
(3) (b). (c) (d). (e) and (f)
(4) (a), (b). (c) and (f)
122.The most- dominant source of Benzene emissions in ambient air is

(1) Cement industry
(2) Cigarettes
(3) Car exhausts
(4) Paints and varnish
123.The most important pollutants that cause degradation of water quality in rivers and
streams are
(a) Bacteria
(b) Nutrients
(c) Metals
(d) Total dissolved solids
(e) Algae
(1). (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (b) (c), (d) and (e)
124.Database WOS stands for

(1) Web of Science
(2) Web of Sources
(3) World of Science
(4) Web of Service

125.identify the correct sequence of biomass fuels in terms of their energy content per unit
mass
1. Dung (dry) > Coconut Shells > Unsorted domestic refuse
2. Unsorted domestic refuse > Coconut Shells > Dung (dry)
3. Wood (dry) > Coconut Shells > Unsorted domestic refuse
4. Coconut Shells > Dung (dry) > Unsorted domestic refuse
126.As per provisions of Paris Agreement the Intended Nationally Determined Contributions
(IN DCs) are to be reviewed every
1. 15 years
2. 10 years
3. 5 years
4. 3 years
127.Which of the following sequences of disposal options for low hazardous solid waste
from industrial and urban sources is in order of increasing desirability?
1. Indiscriminate dumping < Landfill < Incineration < Reuse
2. Composting < Landfill < Reuse < Incineration
3. Landfill < Composting < Reuse < Incineration
4. Incineration < Composting < Reuse < Landfill
128.Identify the correct group of diseases caused by polluted water

1. Cholera, Acute Diarrhoea, Typhoid and Polio
2. Cholera, Typhoid, Enteritis and Tuberculosis
3. Typhoid, Enteritis and Tuberculosis
4. Cholera, Acute Diarrhoea, Typhoid and Tuberculosis

129.Suppose the concentration of Carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas responsible for climate
change, is 400 ppm. What is its concentration in air in percentage terms?
1. 0.04%
2. 0.4%
3. 0.004%
4. 4,0%
130.Methane, a greenhouse gas. is emitted from

(a) landfills
(b) construction debris
(c) wet lands
(d) e-waste
Choose the correct statements from the options given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
131.The share of which of the following sources of energy in electricity generation in India
at present is the least?
(1) Thermal
(2) Solar and Wind
(3) Hydro
(4) Nuclear

132.Biosphere reserves are :
(i) area comprising terrestrial, marine and coastal ecosystems
(ii) monitored by national governments
(iii) areas where threatened animals and plants are kept in their habitat
(iv) midlife sanctuaries
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)
133.A green building

(i) uses minimum amount of energy
(ii) generates waste
(iii) consumes a lot of water
(iv) conserves natural resources
(v) creates space for healthy living
(1) (i) (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (iv) and (v)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iv) and (v)
134.National Disaster Management Authority is an agency of the Ministry of

(1) Jal Shakti
(2) Home Affairs
(3) Earth Science
(4) Housing and Urban Affairs

135.Identify values specially related to organizational ethos from the list given below :
(i) Team work in the approach
(ii) Productivity of the tasks
(iii) Changes in the global contents
(iv) Financial security
(v) Humility in dealing with others' concerns
(vi) Technological resources
(1) (i), (iii) and (vi)
(2) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (ii). (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i). (ii) and (v)

136.Given below are two statements - one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R),
Assertion (A) : The impact of natural disasters does not depend on socio-economic factors.
Reason (R) : Natural disasters do not discriminate between people of a society and other
communities.

137.Under Kyoto Protocol, the first- commitment period for reduction of greenhouse gas
emissions by 37 industrialized and European community countries was :
(1) 1997-2005
(2) 2000-2012
(3) 200S-2012
(4) 2005-2015
138.Exposure to noise pollution can cause

(a) Weakening of immune system
(b) Sleeplessness
(c) Speech interference
(d) Increase in blood pressure
(e) Shift in threshold of hearing
(f) Respiratory problems
(1) (a) (b), (c), (e) and (f)
(2) (b); (c), (d) and (e)
(3) (b). (c). (d), (e) and (f)
(4) (a), (b); (c). (d). (e) and (f)
139.The potential of geothermal power in India is approximately

(1) 10 GW
(2) 5 GW
(3) 20 GW
(4) 25 GW
140.Which of the following air pollutants are produced from room deodorizers?
(1) Inhalable particulate matter
(2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Ozone

(4) Volatile organic compounds
141.Biomass fuels have the potential to form a sustainable carbon-neutral energy source
because they
(1) Produce carbon dioxide on combustion as much as they consume when they grow
(2) Produce less amount of carbon dioxide on combustion compared to the amount
they use during their growth
(3) Have carbon content same as fossil fuels
(4) Do not produce hazardous emissions on combustion
142.Major sources of oxygen demanding waste in fresh water systems are

(a) Agricultural run-off
(b) Food processing
(c) Ore raining
(d) Sewage effluent
(e) Landfill sites
(1) (a), (d) and (e)
(2) (b), (d) and (e)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b). (c) and (d)
143.Which of the following is a renewable natural resource?

(1) Biological diversity
(2) Tin
(3) Natural gas
(4) Salt

144.Which among the following natural hazards has relatively slow onset?
(1) Volcanic eruptions
(2) Droughts
(3) Wild fires
(4) Land and slides
145.Under Kyoto protocol., the parties, in the second, commitment period, have to reduce
their greenhouse gas emissions with reference to 1990 levels by atleast
(1) 10%
(2) 12%
(3) 15%
(4) 18%
146.Montreal protocol was signed in order to address which of the following environmental
issues?
(1) Tropospheric ozone pollution
(2) Depletion of ozone in the stratosphere
(3) Global warming
(4) Acid rain
147.Schistosomiasis, a common water contact disease, is spread by which of the following?

(1) Giardia
(2) E.Coli
(3) Cercaria
(4) Amoeba

148.Consider the following statements :
(a) The Millennium Development Goals were to be achieved by 2015
(b) The Sustainable Development Goals will guide United Nations Development
Programme Policy until 2035
(c) The Sustainable Development Goals came into effect in January 2016
Which of the above statements are correct?
(4) (a) (b) and (c)
149.Consider the following statements regarding noise pollution :

(a) Noise levels decrease as we move away from the source of noise1
(b) Materials with high surface/mass density act as good noise barriers
(c) Sound pressure of 2µ Pa corresponds to a noise of zero decibel
Choose the correct option from those given below’:
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
150.Consider the following statements :

(a) Earth would be safer without greenhouse effect
(b) Major contribution to the greenhouse effect comes from carbon dioxide
(c) Earth's climate was changing even before man appeared on earth
Which of the above statements are correct?
(3) (a) and (e) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

151.Match the following environmental disasters with the words or phrases associated with
them.
List I List II
Bhopal gas
(a) (i) Dumping of Hazardous substances
tragedy
Chernobyl
(b) (ii) Peroxyacetyi Nitrates (PAN)
disaster
Love Canal
(c) (iii) Nuclear accident
tragedy
(d) Los Angeles smog (iv) Methyl Isocyanide
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii). (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i). (c)-(iv). (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv). (b)-(i), (c)-(iii). (d)-(ii)
152.Which of the two following is the correct sequence of greenhouse gases according to
their relative global warming potential in increasing order?
(1) Nitrous oxide, Methane. Carbon dioxide. Chlorofluorocarbons
(2) Carbon dioxide. Methane. Nitrous oxide. Chlorofluorocarbons
(3) Methane. Nitrous oxide. Carbon dioxide, Chlorofluorocarbons
(4) Carbon dioxide. Nitrous oxide. Methane, Chlorofluorocarbons
Assertion (A) : Forests help in improving the air quality of a place.
Reasons (R) : Some tree species emit volatile organic compounds (VOCs) such as isoprene
which may contribute to formation of tropospheric ozone.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct option ;
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)is the correct explanation of (A)

2020 JUNE PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT
1. Identify the correct sequence of continents in decreasing order of their yearly carbon
dioxide emissions, at present (mistake question)
A. Africa
B. Asia
C. Europe
D. North America
1. B, D, A, C
2. B, D, C, A
3. D, B, C, A
4. D, Q B, A
2. Millennium Development Goals of Global Partnership for Development envisaged

making available the benefits of new technologies - especially which of the following?
1. Information and Communication
2. Artificial Intelligence
3. Nuclear technology
4. Solid waste treatment technology
3. The global emissions (by weight] of following primary pollutants from natural sources
are maximum in the case of
1. Nitric oxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Methane
4. Carbon dioxide

4. Match List I with List II which contain water pollutants and their sources respectively
List I Water pollutants List II Sources
A. Oxygen demanding wastes I. Mine drainage
B. Plant nutrients II. Modern washing powders and agriculture run-
off
C. Acids III. Waste incineration and toxic dumps
D. Polychlorinated biphenyls IV. Paper mills and food processing units
(PCBs)
1. A - IV, B - III, C - II, D – I
2. A - IV, B – l, C - III, D – II
3. A - IV, B - II, C - I, D – III
4. A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
as Reason R
Assertion A: Despite increasing vulnerability to natural disasters many communities resist
adopting mitigation programmes and measures
Reason R: Mitigation is often perceived by communities as being incompatible with their
cultural practices
given below
6. Exposure to excessive noise pollution can cause
(A) Hearing: impairment
(B) Insomnia
(C) Rise in blood pressure
(D) Respiratory disease
(E) Reduced work efficiency

(1) (A), (C). (E) only
(2) (A), (C). (D) only
(3) (B). (C) and (E) only
(4) (A). (B). (C) and (E) only
7. In Photo Voltaic system (PV-system) arrange the following from smallest to the largest
unit
(A) Module
(B) Array
(C) Solar cell
(D) Array field
(1) (B), (D). (A). (C)
(2) (B), (D), (C). (A)
(3) (C), (B). (D). (A)
(4) (C). (A), (B). (D)
8. Which of the following types of particulate matter pollutants are used in calculation of
Air Quality Index (AQI)?
(A) TSP (Total Suspended Particles)
(B) PM 10 (Particulate matters of size 10 micron or less)
(C) PM 2.5 (Particulate matter of size 2.5 micron or less)
(D) PM 1 (Particulate matter of size 1 micron or less)

List I (International Agreements) List II (Provisions)

(A) Montreal Protocol (I) Clean affordable energy
(II) Controlling consumption and production of
(B) Kyoto Protocol
Halons
(C) Convention on Biodiversity (III) Emissions trading
(D) International Solar Alliance (IV) Clearing House Mechanism
1. (A)-(IV). (B)-(II). (C) (III). (D)-(I)
2. (A)-(II). (B)-(I). (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II). (B)-(I), (C)-(IV). (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(II). (B)-(III). (C)-(IV). (D)-(I)

List I (Toxic and Hazardous substances) List II (Major sources)
(A) Vinyl chloride (I) Electric Insulations
(B) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) (II) Fuel combustion
(C) Benzol (a) pyrene (III) Plastics Industrial uses
(D) Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons (IV) Waste Incineration
1. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
11. Under Goal 4 of Millenium Development Goals, the reduction sought to be achieved in
under-five child mortality rate between 1990-2015 was to the extent of
1. Half
2. Two-third
3. Three-fourth
4. One-third

List I Emitted Pollutants List II Environmental Impact

A. Carbon dioxide I. Formation of acid rain
B. Carbon monoxide II. Toxic and are carcinogenic
C. Nitrogen oxides III. Toxic and can cause respiratory diseases
IV. Contribution to global warming as a greenhouse
D. Benzene and hydrocarbons
gas
1. A - IV, B - III, C - I, D – II
2. A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
3. A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
4. A - I, B - III, C – II, D - IV
13. Identify the correct sequence of countries in decreasing order of their contribution to
global carbon dioxide emissions
A. USA
B. China
C. Russia
D. India
E. Japan
1. A, B, D, C, E
2. B, A, D, C, E
3. B, A, D, E, C
4. A, B, D, E, C
as Reason R
Assertion A: A windmill with proper design considerations can be made to operate at
efficiencies in the range 60% to 65%

Reason R: The efficiency of the windmill depends on its design parameters
given below
1. Both A and R are correct and R s the correct explanation of A
15. From disaster mitigation measures given below, identify the measures which can be
characterized as non - structural
A. Flood dykes
B. Land-use zoning
C. Rasing of homes in flood-prone areas
D. Insurance programmes
E. Reinforce tornado safe rooms
1. B and D only
2. A, B and D only
3. B, D and E only
4. A, B, D and E only
16. Which of the following are Millennium Development Goals?
A. Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger
B. Improving maternal health
C. Addressing climate change
D. Promoting gender equity and empowerment of women
E. Ensuring energy security for all
1. A, B, C and D only

2. A, C, D and E only
3. A, B, C, D and E
4. A, B and D only
17. Identify the correct sequence of energy sources in terms of their heat of combustion in
'increasing order
A. Methane
B. Natural fats and oils
C. Dry wood
D. Green wood
1. A, C, B, D
2. D, C, B, A
3. D, B, C, A
4. D, C, A, B
as Reason R
Assertion A: Polluted rivers with very high values of Biological Oxygen Demand (GOD) may
produce a foul smell
Reason R: Anaerobic bacteria produce sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen
given below
19. High hazard wastes may contain

A. Pathogens
B. Radioactive wastes

C. Nor-reactive substances
D. Corrosive substances
1. A, B and D only
2. A, B, C and D
3. B and D only
4. A, B and C only
20. In case of which of the following primary pollutants, the man-made contributions to
global emissions (million tonnes per year) is more compared to that from natural
sources?
1. Sulphur dioxide
2. Nitric oxide
3. Methane
4. Carbon dioxide

21. Which of the following: conventions protocol originated from Rio Earth Summit?
(A) UN Framework convention on climate change
(B) Ramsar convention on wetlands
(C) UN convention to combat desertification
(D) Kyoto Protocol
(E) Convention on Biological Diversity
(1) (A), (B) and (E) only
(2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only
(4) (B), (C), (D) and (E) only

22. Which of the following goals are part of Sustainable Development Goals?
(A) Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure
(B) Universal higher education
(C) Deduced Inequality
(D) Partnerships to achieve goals
(E) Clean air
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
(2) (A). (C)and (D) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only
(4) (B), (C),(D) and(E) only
23. Arrange the following countries in increasing order of their installed capacities of wind
energy (as on 2018) :
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) France
(E) Germany
(1) (D) < (E) < (C) < (B) < (A)
(2) (D) < (E) < (B) < (C) < (A)
(3) (D) < (B) < (E) < (C) < (A)
(4) (E) < (D) < (B) < (C) < (A)

Statement I: Sunlight is a pre-requisite for the formation of photochemical smog in urban
areas.

Statement II: Photochemical smog is a recurring phenomenon in winter and summer
seasons in urban areas of India.
Tn the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from, the options
given below:
Assertion (A): Global warming potential of a molecule of a greenhouse gas over different
time spans of decades to 100 years may vary significantly.
Reason (R): Some greenhouse gases have shorter life times compared to carbon dioxide.
in the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
26. Which of the following: countries has not- signed / ratified the International Solar
Alliance Framework Agreement?
(1) Australia
(2) United Kingdom
(3) Japan
(4) China

Assertion (A): Energy production from biomass has traditionally been considered carbon
neutral.
Reason (R) : Carbon dioxide emissions from combustion of biomass are sequestered by
growing biomass
below :
28. For wind power electricity generation which among the following type of rotors is most
commonly used?
(1) Multiblade rotor
(2) Propeller rotor
(3) Savonius rotor
(4) Darrieus rotor

Statement I: Chronic toxic effects result from single dose of very high toxic substance or
continuous exposure of sub lethal dose.
Statement II: Acute toxic effects are long lasting and irreversible mainly caused due to
prolonged exposure to toxins and survival rate is very low,
below :

30. Which of the following goals are related to millennium Development Goals?
(A) Improving maternal health
(B) Controlling depletion of ozone layer
(C) Improving the life of slum dwellers
(D) Creating smart city infrastructure
(E) Promoting gender equality and empowerment of women
(2) (A), (C). (D) and (E) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only
(4) (A). (B). (D) and (E) only

31. Contamination of aquatic environment by Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) can originate
from
(A) Sewage effluent
(B) Waste incinerators
(C) Toxic dumps
(D) Thermal power plants
(E) Transport sector
(1) (A). (B) (C) (E) only
(2) (A), (B), (D). (E) only
(3) (B), (A), (C), (D) only
(4) (A), (B). (C) only

Statement I: Emissions of hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide are inherently very low from
diesel vehicles.
Statement II: Diesel driven vehicles are inherently more fuel efficient compared to petrol
driven vehicles.
given below:
33. If the intensity of a given noise increases two-fold, the noise level in decibels (dB)
increases by
(1) ~2dB
(2) ~3dB
(3) ~6dB
(4) ~ 10 dB
34. Which of the following sources of energy on combustion produces maximum carbon
dioxide per unit of energy output or heat content?
(1) Coal (sub-bituminous)
(2) Natural gas
(3) Diesel fuel and heating oil
(4) Gasoline (without ethanol)
35. Formulation of long term - low emission development strategies by each country was
suggested under
(1) Paris Agreement
(2) Montreal Protocol
(3) International solar alliance
(4) Kyoto Protocol

36. Given below are some metals which are released into environment from a variety of
anthropogenic sources. Identify the metals which have been of serious concern from the
point of view of pollution of water bodies
(A) Aluminium
(B) Copper
(C) Mercury
(D) Cadmium
(E) Lead
(1) (B). (C). (E) only
(2) (A). (B), (C). (E) only
(3) (C), (D). (E) only
(4) (A). (B). (E) only

Statement I: Two sounds of same intensity but different frequency characteristics may
appear to be of different loudness.
Statement II: The response of human ear to noise of different frequencies is not uniform.
given below:

38. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Assertion (A): Long term low emission development strategies by each country are crucial to
realizing the goals of Paris Agreement.
Reason (R): Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) declared by each country are not
sufficient to keep the rise in global temperature upto 2°C above the pre-industrial level.
given below:
39. Identify the correct sequence (decreasing order) of lifetimes of the following greenhouse
gases in atmosphere:
(A) Methane
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Surface ozone
(D) CFC-11
(1) (D) > (B) > (A) > (C)
(2) (B) > (D) > (A) > (C)
(3) (B) > (D) > (C) > (A)
(4) (D) > (B) > (C) > (A)

Statement I: Hurricanes and typhoons are essentially the same as tropical cyclones.
Statement II: Warm tropical oceans and moist air mass are pre-requisites for the
development of tropical cyclones
given below:


Management |
41. The phenomenon of ozone depletion is caused by

A. Volatile chlorinated hydrocarbons
B. Emissions from thermal power plants
C. Combustion of urban waste
D. Excessive use of nitrogen-containing fertilizers
1. A, B and D only
2. A and D only
3. A, B and C only
4. A, C and D only
42. Which of the following was NOT an issue to be addressed under Millennium
Development Goals?
1. Child mortality
2. Environmental sustainability
3. Human rights
4. Primary education
43. Identify the correct sequence of countries in decreasing order of their contributions to
per capita emissions of carbon dioxide emissions at present
A. India
B. China
C. USA
D. Japan

1. C, D, B, A
2. B, C, A, D
3. D, B, C, A
4. C, B, D, A
as Reason R
Assertion A: In the contemporary environmental discourse, small hydropower plants are
preferred over large hydropower plants
Reason R: Installation of a small hydropower plant is less capital intensive compared to a
large hydropower plant
given below
45. Day time noise standard prescribed for residential areas in India is
1. 75 dB
2. 55 dB
3. 55 dB
4. 50 dB

46. Which of the International Agreements/Convention/Protocols are legally binding on the
member countries (parties)?
(A) Convention on Biological Diversity
(B) Kyoto Protocol
(C) Montreal Protocol
(D) Paris Agreement

(1) (C) only
Assertion (A) : Carbon dioxide emissions from bioenergy. Production have traditionally been
excluded from most emission inventories and climate impact studies.
Reason (R) : Carbon dioxide emissions associated with production of bioenergy are
significantly less compared to those from combustion of fossil fuels.
below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct, explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is time but (R) is false
48. Wind energy is very sensitive to the wind velocity because wind power is directly
proportional to the
(1) wind velocity
(2) square of the wind velocity
(3) square root of the wind velocity
(4) cube of the wind velocity
49. During physical treatment process of waste water, what is the correct order of following
operations to be followed?
(A) Flocculation
(B) Filtration
(C) Screening
(D) Sedimentation

(1) (C), (D), (B). (A)
(2) (C). (D), (A), (B)
(3) (B). (D), (A), (C)
(4) (B), (C), (D), (A)
Assertion (A): Carbon monoxide (CO) is a serious asphyxiant: even a short exposure may
have fatal health issues.
Reason (R): Haemoglobin present in the blood has greater affinity towards carbon monoxide
than oxygen.
given below:

51. Identify the correct sequence in increasing order of the carbon content per unit mass of
the following reservoirs of carbon in terrestrial environment
A. Plants
B. Peat
C. Soil organic matter
D. Fossil fuels
1. B, A, C, D
2. A, C, B, D
3. B, C, D, A
4. B, A, D, C

as Reason R
Assertion A: Lakes are less prone to getting polluted than rivers
Reason R: Water in lakes gets replaced through natural processes
given below
53. Under Millennium Development Goal 5, maternal mortality ratio between 1990 and
2015 was to be reduced by
1. 50 %
2. 75 %
3. 65 %
4. 40 %
54. According to the classification of Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and Central
Electricity Authority of India, small hydro power plants have capacity in the range
1. 1-25 MW
2. 100-1000 kW
3. 1-50 MW
4. 1-100 kW

as Reason R
Assertion A: Global emissions of carbon dioxide stagnated during the years 2014-2016
Reason R: Strong energy efficiency improvement measures and low carbon technologies
were deployed during 2014-2016
given below

56. From the following list, identify the sources of solid waste:
(i) Residential areas
(ii) Oceans
(iii) Institutional areas
(iv) Agriculture
(v) Dust storms
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
4. (i). (iii) and (iv)
57. Identify the sources of soil pollution from the following list:
(i) Industrial effluents
(ii) Eutrophication
(iii) Unscientific disposal of nuclear waste
(iv) Off-shore oil drilling
(v) Improper management of septic systems

2. (ii). (iii) and (iv)
3. (i). (iii) and (v)
4. (ii). (iv) and (v)
58. Which of the following statements represents mangrove characteristics as a safety

hedge?
1. The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies
2. The mangrove trees provide both food and medicines
3. The mangrove swamps separate the human settlement from the sea
4. The mangrove trees protect vulnerable coastlines as they hold soil together
59. Which of the following statements about the Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are
correct?
(i) They cause acid rain
(ii) They may cause cancer
(iii) They play an important role in the formation of photochemical smog
1. (i) and (ii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (i) and (iii)
4. (i). (ii), and (iii)
60. Which of the following was the central aim of the Paris Agreement?
1. To reduce the CFCs emissions
2. To strengthen the global response to the threat of climate change
3. To address biological diversity issues
4. To address the problem of ozone layer depletion

2020 June ||Electronic Science | Labour Welfare | Population Studies | Visual Arts |
61. The only UN treaty related to environmental issues which has been ratified by all 197 UN
member states is
(1) Montreal Protocol
(2) Paris Agreement
(3) Kyoto Protocol
(4) Basel Convention
62. As of now, which of the following is a leading country in wand energy based electricity
generation?
(1) India
(2) China
(3) France
(4) Denmark
63. ‘Solar Water Still" is a device to

(1) Produce potable water by using solar energy
(2) Pump water by using solar energy
(3) Generate electricity by using solar energy
(4) Produce heat using solar energy
64. Identify the primary air pollutant among the following :

(1) Ozone
(2) Black carbon aerosols
(3) Sulphate aerosols
(4) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate (PAN)

Statement I: Long stretches of major rivers of India have very low Biochemical Oxygen
Demand (BOD) values.
Statement II: In rivers oxygen is added into water by diffusion from air due to its turbulent
and rapid flow.
given below:
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
2020 June || English (1)(wrong question)

66. identify' the correct sequence of the following States Union of India in terms of
increasing wind energy potential
A. Gujarat
B. Rajasthan
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
1. D, C, B, A
2. B, D, C, A
3. B, C, A, D
4. B, C, D, A
67. Dissolved oxygen (DO), an important parameter of water quality, is essential for survival
of
1. Humans
2. Animals
3. Fish
4. Crops and vegetables.

68. Among the following elements which is typically the most abundant in dried sewage
sludge?
1. Total nitrogen
2. Total sulphur
3. Calcium
4. Total phosphorous
69. Identify the correct sequence of sectoral global CO? emissions in increasing order as per
IPCC (2014) report
A. Electricity and heat production
B. Buildings
C. Transportation
D. Industry
1. B, C, D, A
2. B, C, A, D
3. B, D, C, A
4. B, D, A, C
70. Under Goal 2 of Millennium Development Goals, UN member countries were to ensure
that by 2015, children everywhere, boys and girls would be able to complete a full
course of (wrong question)
1. Primary education
2. Secondary education
3. Tertiary education
4. Skill based education

2020 June ||English (2)
71. To put the world on a least cost pathway to limiting global warming to 2°C above the
preindustrial level, global greenhouse gas emissions by 2030 with reference to 2017,
require reduction to the extent of
1. 25%
2. 15%
3. 10%
4. 20%
72.Identify the correct sequence in decreasing order of the carbon content per unit mass of
the following carbon reservoirs in the aquatic environment of oceans
A. Sediments
B. Living organisms
C. Dissolved organic matter
D. Dissolved inorganic matter
1. D, A, B, C
2. A, D, C, B
3. B, C A, D
4. C, B, A. D
as Reason R
Assertion A: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) need to be phased out to protect the Ozone layer
Reason R: HFCs have a high global warming potential
given below

74. Match List 1 with List II
List I International
List II Provisions
Agreements
A. Kyoto Protocol I. Convention on Biodiversity
B. Paris Agreement II. Affordable, reliable clean energy
C. Rio Summit III. Nationally Determined Contributions
D. International Solar Alliance IV. Joint Implementation
1. A - III, B - IV, C- I, D -II
2. A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
3. A - IV, B - III. C - II, D- I
4. A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
75. Mitigation measures to cope with floods include

A. Elevating or protecting electrical service panels
B. Upsizing culverts to better handle flood surges
C. Protecting facilities with barriers and sandbags
D. Removing trees and debris from the flood plain
E. Relocating equipment outside the flood plain
2. A, B, C and E only
3. A, B, C. D and E
4. B, C, D, and E only
76. Identify the correct sequence of countries contributing to global CO2 emission in
decreasing order from fossil fuel burning, cement manufacturing and gas flaring in the
year 2014
A. USA
B. EU-28

C. China
D. Russia
1. C, A, B, D
2. A, C, B, D
3. A, B, C, D
4. A, C, D, B
77. Which among the following are used as semiconductor materials to fabricate solar cells
A. Silicon (Si)
B. Tin oxide (SnO)
C. Cadmium Sulphide (CdS)
D. Gallium Arsenide (GaAs)
1. A and C only
2. A and B only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B, C and D
78. Which of the following is not a Sustainable Development Goal?

1. Gender equity
2. Climate action
3. Protection of Ozone layer
4. Life below water

79. Match List I wi List II
List I Pathogens in water List II Disease they cause
A. Virus I. Cholera
B. Bacteria II. Schistosomiasis
C. Protozoa III. Hepatitis
D. Helminths (Parasitic worm) IV. Dysentery
1. A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II
2. A - I, B - III, C – II, D - IV
3. A - III, B - l, C- II, D - IV
4. A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
80. Which among the following are emitted from a coal-based thermal power plant?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Ozone
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Methane
E. Particulate matter
2. A, C and E only
3. A, B and C only

81. Sustainable Development Goal - 'Life below water' aims at conserving and sustainably
using
1. Ground water resources
2. Rivers, streams, ponds and lake resources
3. Oceans, sea and marine resources
4. Wetland resources

82. From the following list, identify' the Greenhouse Gases adopted in the Kyoto Protocol
i) Carbon dioxide
ii) Methane
iii) Nitrous oxide
iv) Hydroflurocarbons
v) Perflurocarbons
vi) Sulphur hexafluoride
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. (i), (ii). (iv) and (v) only
2. (i). (iv). (v) and (vi) only
3. (ii). (iv), (v) and (vi) only
4. (i), (ii). (iii). (iv). (v) and (vi)
83. Climate pledges under Paris Agreement cover what fraction of greenhouse gas emissions
reduction needed to limit the global warming below 2° C?
1. 1/3
2. 2/3
3. 1/2
4. 3/4
84. The impact of noise pollution on human health is governed by:

(a) Intensity of noise
(b) Duration of noise
(c) Socio-economic status of an individual
(d) Sensitivity of human ear
(e) Frequency range of noise
1. (a), (b). (d) and (e) only
3. (a), (c). (d) and (e) only
4. (a), (b). (c). (d) and (e)

85. Polar Stratospheric Clouds are associated with which of the following environmental
issues?
1. Flash floods
2. Acid rain
3. Ozone layer depletion
4. Photo chemical smog
2020 June ||Hindi (1) |

86. A measure such as building a plinth wall for floods would be termed as
1. Preparedness
2. Prevention
3. Mitigation
4, Adaptation
87. At present, in India, the total installed renewable power capacity is accounted for by:
(a) Solar Power
(b) Wind Power
(c) Hydropower
(d) Urban and industrial waste to energy conversion
(e) Biomass power
(f) Geothermal power
Choose the correct answer from the options given below7
1. Only (a), (b), (c), (e) and (f)
2. Only (a), (b), (c), (d) and (f)
3. Only (a), (b), (c). (d) and (e)
4. (a), (b). (c), (d), (e) and (f)

88. The most relevant effect of particulate matter in air on human health is:
1. Impaired blood formation
2. Chest tightness
3. Aggravation of respiratory disease
4. Headache and rise in blood pressure level
89. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R):
Assertion(A): It is crucial to sustain Himalayan ecosystem
Reason (R): Himalayan ecosystem is home to a number of indigenous tribes.
In the light of the above two statements choose the correct answer from the options given
below
2. Both(A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
90. In developing countries, the fraction of food waste in the composition of municipal solid
waste is typically in the range
1. 10-15%
2. 20-30%
3. 25-35%
4. Greater than 40%
2020 June ||Hindi (2) |

91. Clean Development Mechanism was first introduced in which of the following
international agreements?
1. Montreal Protocol
2. Kyoto Protocol
3. Rio Summit
4. Paris Agreement

92. Climate change can have serious consequences for:
a. Water security
b. Food security
c. Erosion of coastal zones
d. Soil fertility
e. Respiratory health
2. Only (a), (b), (d) and (e)
3. Only (a), (b), (c) and (e)
4. (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
93. Photochemical smog in urban areas is known to cause

(a) Respiratory effects
(b) Eye irritation
(c) Nose and throat irritation
(d) Carcinogenic effect
(e) Reduction in visibility
Choose the correct answer from the options given below"
1. Only (a), (b) and (d)
2. Only (a), (b), (c) and (e)
3. Only (b), (d) and (e)
4. (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
94. Landslides are of

1. Chemical origin
2. Hydrological origin
3. Hydro-biological origin
4. Geo-physical origin

95. The contribution of renewable energy sources including large hydropower projects in
the total installed electric power capacity of India at present (June 2019) is
approximately
1. ~35%
2. ~23%
3. ~19%
4. ~41%

96. India has huge Thorium reserve, a potential source of nuclear energy. This thorium
reserve is mainly confined in the
(1) rocks of Chhota Nagpur plateau
(2) muds of Sunderban delta
(3) coastal sands of Kerala sea
(4) sands of Thar desert
97. Identify the objectives specific to sustainable Development Goals among the following :
(A) Responsible consumption and production
(B) Life on land
(C) Improving maternal health
(D) Ensuring environmental sustainability
(E) Reduced inequality
(1) (A). (B) and (E)
(2) (A). (C). (D) and (E)
(3) (B). (C). (D) and (E)
(4) (A). (B). (C), (D) and (E)

Assertion (A): Emissions from diesel vehicles are relatively less harmful to human health in
comparison to petrol vehicles.
Reason (R): Emissions of hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide are inherently very low from
diesel vehicles.
given below :
(4) (A) is not. correct but (R) is correct
Assertion (A): Solar ponds, store solar energy m the form of heat.
Reason (R): Solar ponds contain water with definite gradient of salt, concentration.
given below:
100. Which of the following sectors contributed least to the global carbon dioxide
emissions in the year 2014 as per IPCC report?
(1) Transportation
(2) Agriculture and forest land use
(3) Industry
(4) Utility (Electricity and Heat Production)

101. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
Assertion A: Lakes are considered to be more susceptible to pollution than rivers
Reason R: Water in lakes may take decade(s) to be replaced
given below
102. Thermal reactors produce energy by fission of the following nuclear fuels
A. Uranium-235 (235U)
B. Uranium-233 (233U)
C. Uranium-238 (238U)
D. Thorium-232 (232Th)
E. Plutonium-239 (239Pu)
2. A, B, C D and E
3. A, B, D and E only
4. A, B and E only
103. Noise pollution is measured in decibels (dB) with reference to a standard sound
intensity of the following magnitude
1. 1 pico watt per m2
2. 1 milliwatt per m2
3. 1 nanowatt per m2
4. 1 microwatt per m2

104. In a polluted urban area, which one of the following has the highest concentration
(ppv) in photochemical smog?
1. Ozone
2. PAN
3. Hydrocarbons (without methane)
4. Carbon monoxide

List I Environmental List II Provisions
Protocol/Agreement/Action Plan
A. Montreal Protocol I. Integrated water resource management
B. Paris Agreement II. Emissions trading
C. Climate Action Plan III. Phasing out ozone-depleting substances
D. Kyoto Protocol IV. Intended Nationally Determined
Contributions
1. A - III, B - II, C -I, D - IV
2. A - II, B - III, C -I, D - IV
3. A - II, B - IV, C - III, D -I
4. A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

106. Under which of the following objectives of Millenium Development Goals, the
progress in the world as a whole has been least satisfactory?
1. Halting by 2015 and beginning to reverse the spread of HIV/AIDS
2. Eliminating gender disparity in primary and secondary education by 2015
3. Reducing the proportion of population below national poverty line by 2015
4. Reducing by half proportion of people who suffer from hunger by 2015
107. identify the correct sequence of Carbon (Q to Nitrogen (N) ratio in decreasing order
in organic waste material
A. Food waste
B. Leaves and foliage
C. Paper

D. Cow manure
1. C, B, D, A
2. C A, D, B
3. B, C, D, A
4. B, D, C, A
108. According to Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, the night time
Noise standard prescribed for Educational Institutions is
1. 55 dB (A)
2. 50 dB (A)
3. 45 dB (A)
4. 40 dB (A)

Statement I: Volatile Organic Chemicals (VOCs) are contaminants more commonly found in
groundwater than in surface water
Statement II: VOCs are one of the criterion parameters to determine drinking water quality
3. Statement I is correct but Statement .1 is false
110. Which of the following is NOT one of the Missions under National Action Plan on
climate change?
1. National Water Mission
2. National Mission on Energy Efficiency Improvement
3. Green India Mission
4. National Mission on Solid Waste Management

111. A multilateral fund for implementation of Montreal Protocol was set up to provide
financial and technical assistance to developing countries, parties to Montreal protocol,
whose annual per capita consumption and production of ozone depleting substances
amounted to less than
(1) 0.3 kg
(2) 0.5 kg
(3) 1.0 kg
(4) 1.5 kg
112. Arrange the Global Warming Potential of a molecule of the following greenhouse
gases (relative to COs) in decreasing order :
(A) Methane
(B) Nitrous Oxide
(C) CFC - 12
(D) CFC - 11
(E) Sulphur hexafluoride (SFe)
(1) (E) > (D) > (C) > (B) > (A)
(2) (C) > (E) > (D) >(B) > (A)
(3) (D) > (E) > (C) > (B) > (A)
(4) (E) > (C)> (D) >(B) > (A)
113. Sick Building Syndrome (SBS) is a condition

(1) When buildings are very old and about to collapse
(2) Of human health due to indoor air pollution
(3) Of fear due to deserted building
(4) Of building devoid of any modern amenities

Statement I: Dioxins and furans are highly toxic substances produced mainly during
incineration of municipal solid waste, hazardous and medical wastes.
Statement II: Dioxins and furans play crucial role in photochemical smog formation.
below:
115. A dish solar cooker

(A) has reflecting material of anodized aluminium sheet.
(B) has a reflectivity of less than 50%
(C) needs to track the sun to deliver power of about 0.6 kW.
(D) uses a parabolic dish to concentrate the incident solar radiation
(E) can have the bottom vessel temperature over 1000°C.
(1) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only
(2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only

ANSWER KEY (2018-2019) PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT
1.3 21.3 41.1 61.1 81.1 101.4 121.4 141.1
2.3 22.1 42.1 62.3 82.2 102.4 122.3 142.3
3.1 23.4 43.? 63.3 83.4 103.2 123.1 143.1
4.3 24.3 44.4 64.1 84.3 104.1 124.1 144.2
5.4 25.1 45.4 65.2 85.2 105.1 125.4 145.4
6.4 26.3 46.3 66.1 86.1 106.3 126.3 146.2
7.4 27.4 47.4 67.2 87.2 107.4 127.1 147.3
8.4 28.2 48.4 67.3 88.2 108.3 128.1 148.3
9.4 29.1 49.3 67.2 89.4 109.4 129.1 149.1
10.3 30.3 50.2 70.1 90.2 110.4 130.3 150.2
11.1 31.2 51.1 71.3 91.4 111.3 131.4 151.2
12.2 32.2 52.1,4 72.4 92.2 112.2 132.1 152.2
13.4 33.1 53.2 73.1 93.3 113.2 133.2 153.2
14.3 34.2 54.4 74.4 94.1 114.3 134.2
15.4 35.1 55.2 75.3 95.1 115.1 135.4
16.1 36.2 56.3 76.2 96.1 116. 2 136.4
17.4 37.4 57.2 77.1,2 97.3 117.1 137.3
18.4 38.2 58.4 78.4 98.2 118.3 138.2
19.3 39.1 59.3 79.2 99.3 119.2 139.1
20.2 40.2 60.3 80.1 100.1 120.2 140.4

ANSWER KEY (2020) PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT
1.2 11.2 21.3 31.4 41.4 51.1 61.1 71.1 81.3 91.2 101.1 111.1
2.1 12.1 22.2 32.1 42.3 52.4 62.2 72.4 82.4 92.1 102.4 112.4
3.4 13.2 23.3 33.2 43.1 53.2 63.1 73.4 83.1 93.2 103.1 113.2
4.3 14.4 24.3 34.1 44.2 54.1 64.2 74.2 84.3 94.4 104.4 114.3
5.3 15.1 25.1 35.1 45.3 55.1 65.4 75.2 85.3 95.1 105.4 115.2
6.4 16.4 26.4 36.3 46.2 56.4 66.? 76.1 86.2 96.3 106.4
7.4 17.2 27.1 37.1 47.2 57.3 67.3 77.4 87.3 97.1 107.1
8.3 18.3 28.2 38.1 48.4 58.4 68.3 78.3 88.3 98.4 108.4
9.4 19.1 29.3 39.2 49.2 59.2 69.1 79.4 89.2 99.1 109.3
10.4 20.1 30.1 40.1 50.1 60.2 70.? 80.2 90.4 100.1 110.4

HIGHER EDUCATION
HIGHER EDUCATION-2018
2018 December || Adult Education | Anthropology| Chinese| Comparative
Literature| Comparative Study of Religions| German| Home Science|
Japanese| Labour Welfare| Maithili| Management| Manipuri| Philosophy|
Physical Education| Tourism Administration and Management
1. The number of open universities and directorates of distance education whose courses
are recognised by UGC as on August 9, 2018, is :
A. 49
B. 53
C. 58
D. 62
2. Match the following,
List - I List - II
(a) Open University (i) Odisha State Open University, Odisha
(b) Dual Mode University (ii) Amity University^
(c) Mixed Mode University (iii) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
(d) Deemed University (iv) University of Mumbai, Mumbai
(e) Specialized University (v) School of Planning and Architecture, New Delhi
Code (a) (b) (c) (d) (e
A. (iii) (ii) (v) (i) (iv)
B. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
C. (v) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
D. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)
3. Which private institutions in the following list have been granted the status of Institutes
of Eminence by the MHRD?
(i) BITS, Pilani
(ii) MAHE, Manipal
(iii) Symbiosis, Pune

(iv) Amity University, Noida
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Options:
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iii)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
4. One of the first states to establish a higher education council was
A. Sikkim
B. Goa
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Jammu and Kashmir
5. State higher education councils are established under the instruction of:
A. NITI Ayog
B. RUSA
C. CABE
D. PUSA
2018 December||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies | Bengali| Bodo|
Environmental Sciences| Hindi| Indian Culture
6. Who was the Chairman of Secondary Education Commission set up in 1952?
Options:
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B. Shri. K C Pant
C. Dr. A.L. Mudaliar
D. Dr. S. Radhakrislman

7. Match Set - I with Set - II :
Set – I (Regulatory body) Set - II (Field of regulation)

(a) NCTE (i) Law
(b) BCI (ii) Architecture
(c) COA (iii) Professional courses
(d) NBA (iv) Teacher Education

Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
B. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
C. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
D. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
8. The LEAP programme of MHRD is aimed to train University faculties in

A. Scientific research
B. Academic leadership
C. New Technology
D. Institutional economics
9. The National Education Day is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of

A. Dr- Zakir Hussain
B. Justice Hidayathulla
C. A P J Abdul Kalam
D. Maulana Abu l Kalam Azad

10. With reference to 'Right to Education' (RTE) which among the following is correct?
A. Making higher education up to 21 years of age a fundamental right
B. Providing free uniforms to students up to 18 years of age.
C. No examination of students up to 14 years of age.
D. Making elementary education up to 14 years of age a fundamental right.
2018 December||Arabic | Geography| Gujarati| Nepali| Psychology| Punjabi

11. Which organisation in India overseas the functioning and quality aspect of teacher
education programmes?
A. Association of Indian Universities (AIU)
B. University Grants Commission (UGC)
C. National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
D. National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
12. Which of the following bodies/units in a University has a statutory function to perform ?
A. Board of Studies
B. Finance Committee
C. Board of Management
D. Research Degree Committee
13. Which of the following activity/programme in a University aims at Value Education in a

holistic frame?
A. National Cadet Corps (NCC)
B. Fine Arts and Musical Concerts
C. Inter-University Competitions
D. Yoga Education and Wellness Centres

14. For promoting Human Values through programmes of the University System in India,
which of the following activities have great potential?
A. Lectures by experts
B. Association of NGOs
C. Mentoring by senior faculty members
D. Inviting dignitaries/heads from national level organisations
15. Which of the following statements correctly describe, the functions/status of the
National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration a deemed to be University?
(a) Capacity building and research in planning and management of education
(b) Educational Planning and Administration
(c) Fully maintained by the Government of India like any Central University
(d) A Statutory Institute of Educational Planning and Administration
A. (a) and (b)
B. (a) and (c)
C. (a) and (d)
D. (b) and (d)
2018 December || Archaeology | Buddhist Jaina G andhian and Peace Studies|

Folk Literature| Forensic Science| French| History| Kashmiri |Konkani|
Linguistics| Mass Communication and Journalism| Museology and
Conservation| Music| Pali| Performing Art (Dance Drama Theatre)| Persian|
Prakrit| Russian| Santali| Spanish
16. Which one of the following has larger scope for the possibility of hands-on experience
A. Seminar
B. Conference
C. Workshop
D. Symposium

17. Which one of the following is less oriented towards knowledge dissemination?
A. Seminar
B. Classroom
C. Field Work
D. Journal
18. Which of the following body is empowered with the role of appointment and approval
of teachers in a University System in India?
A. Board of Management/Executive Council/Syndicate
B. Academic Council
C. Board of Studies
D. University Court/ Senate
19. Which of the following is entrusted with the responsibility for coordination and quality
of higher education in India?
A. Bar Council of India
B. Association of Indian Universities
C. University Grants Commission
D. NITI Aayog
20. Who is the administrative and academic head of Indian University System?
A. Chancellor of a University
B. Vice-chancellor of a University
C. Registrar of a University
D. Dean of studies in a University

2018 December || Assamese | Computer Science and Applications|
Criminology| Human Rights and Duties| Odia| Social Work| Urdu
21. The first Open University established in India is .

A. Yashwantrao Chavan Maharashtra Open University, Nasik
B. Nalanda Open University, Patna
C. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad
D. Open University, Chennai
22. In 1948, under whose Chairmanship a University Education Commission was set up to
reconstruct University Education in India?
A. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
B. Prof. P C Joshi
C. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
D. Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
23. University and University-level institutions are categorised into:

(a) Central Universities
(b) State Universities
(c) Private Universities
(d) Deemed-to-be Universities
(e) Institutions of Higher Learning
(f) Civil Sector Institutions
Code :
A. (a) (c) (e) and (f)
B. (b), (d), (e) and (f)
C. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
D. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

24. "e-Pathshala" is an initiative by
A. UGC
B. CBSE
C. NCERT
D. NCTE
25. The Council of Rural Institutes Authority is situated at

A. Ludhiana
B. Ahmedabad
C. Pune
D. Hyderabad

26. For pursuing a Ph.D. programme through our University system, what has become a
mandatary provision now?
A. Enrolment for Ph.D.
B. Course work
C. Compulsory attendance for three years
D. Guidance from a supervisor outside the University

27. In the following two sets, Set-I mentions an apex level institution in India while Set-II
indicates their formal concerns. Match the two sets and give your answer from the code.
Set-I (Apex level Institution) Set-II (Formal concerns)
(a) University Grants

(i) Adjudication of legal matters in education
Commission
(b) All India Council of Technical (ii) Coordination, recognition and quality issues
Education related to teacher education institutions
(C)National Council of Teacher (iii) Coordination and quality maintenance in
Education institutions of higher education
(d) National Assessment and (iv) Recognition and quality issues in technical
Accreditation Council institutions
(v) Evaluation of quality and determining grade of
excellence
Code:
( a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (iv) (ii) (v)
B. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C. (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
D. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
28. Below are given two sets. Set-I provides stages of value development while Set-II
indicates their critical features from the point of view of value education. Match the two
sets and choose your answer from the code :
Set-I (Stages of value
Set-II (Critical features in terms of value education)
development)
(a) Value collection (i) Providing opportunity for imitation
(b) Value assessment (ii) Characterization through integration of values
(c) Value clarification (iii) Providing hints for inner evaluation
(d) Value consolidation (iv) Exposure to other values
(v) Discussions and debates
code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B. (ii) (iii) (i) (v)

C. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
D. (iii) (i) (ii) (v)
29. In the institutions of higher education in India which of the following has the formal
authority to approve the courses and programmes of studies?
A. The University Court /Senate
B. Departmental Council
C. Board of Studies
D. Academic Council
30. To improve access and quality in higher education, the Knowledge Commission
recommendations include which of the following?
(a) Use of ICT for production of knowledge
(b) Closure of non-performing Universities in the country
(c) Establishment of a network of institutions of higher learning
(d) Increase in the enrolment of students in the institutions of higher learning.
Options:
A. (a), (b), (c) only
B. (a), (b), (d) only
C. (a) (c) (d) only
D. (a), (b), (c), (d)

2018 December || Defence and Strategic Studies| Dogri | Economics
|Electronic Science| International and Area Studies| Mara thi| Sanskrit| Social
Medicine and Community Health| Tribal and Regional Language Literature|
Women Studies
31. Following are two sets of items. Set - I lists different types of wastes, while Set - II
indicates methods of their disposal. Match the two sets and give your answer from the code
given below:
Set – I (Types of Waste) Set – II (Methods of Disposal)

(a) Dry waste (i) By composting
(b) Wet waste (ii) By burying in landfills
(c) Toxic waste (iii) By dropping them in corporation bins
(d) Soiled waste (iv) By recycling
(a) (b) (c) (d)

A. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
C. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
32. For ensuring sustainability in the quality ethos of the university environment which of
the following would be considered high priority skill for a vice-chancellor?
A. Financial Management Skill

B. Administrative Skill
C. Technical Management Skill
D. Human Resource Management Skill
33. The purposes underlying the Renewable Energy Education programmes are:
A. Educative and investigative
B. Diagnostic and evaluative
C. Corrective and predictive
D. Preventive and ameliorative

34. For an effective organisational climate within a university system, which of the following
measures will be most appropriate?
A. Creating an equilibrium between driving forces and restraining forces.
B. Increasing the power of driving forces and decreasing the power of restraining
forces.
C. Decreasing the power of restraining forces without caring about the driving forces.
D. Increasing the power of driving forces without caring about the restraining forces
35. Below are given a number of roles and functions at the government/non-government
level indicating the specific responsibilities of the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
Identify those statements which indicate the areas of responsibility of this ministry. Select
from the code to give your answer:
(a) Overall policy and planning in respect of programmes of drinking water and
sanitation.
(b) Funding in respect of the programmes listed in (a).
(c) Coordination of programmes floated.
(d) Supply of food grains at reasonable price to the consumers.
(e) Achieving the goal of zero hunger.
(f) Implementation of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan in rural India.
(g) Monitoring of prices and availability of essential commodities.
Codes:
A. (a), (b), (c) and (g)
B. (a), (b), (d) and (e)
C. (a), (b), (c) and (f)
D. (a), (c), (d) and (e)

36. In terms of year of establishment, which open university is
the youngest among the following (established most recently)
A. Tamil Nadu Open University, Tamil Nadu
B. Odisha Slate Open University, Odisha

C. Krishna Kanta Handique State Open University, Assam
D. Pt. Sunderlal Sharma Open University, Chattisgarh37.
37. Match the following:
Set - I Set - II
(a) Sway am Prabha (i) FM education radio network
(b) GIAN (Global institute of
(ii) Internet audio counselling service
Academic Network)
(c) Gyan Vani (iii) Free DTH channel for education
(iv) Talent pool of scientists and entrepreneurs
(d) Gyan darshan for engagement with Indian higher education
institution
(e) Gyandhara (v) Educational Television Channel
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
A. (i) (ii) (v) (iv) (iii)
B. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (v)
C. (iii) (iv) (i) (v) (ii)
D. (v) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
38. The institutions of eminence tag granted by the union government in public sector are:
(a) IIT, Delhi
(b) IIT, Bombay
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru University, Delhi
(d) University of Hyderabad
(e) Pondicherry University
(f) Indian Institute of Science
Codes:
A. (a), (b), (d) and (e) only
B. (b), (c), (e) and (f) only
C. (a), (b) and (f) only
D. (c), (d), (e) and (f) only

39. Which among the following was launched on 2 October 1978 (the birthday of Mahatma
Gandhi)?
A. National Adult Education Programme
B. Edu SAT
C. First educational radio channel
D. 10 + 2 + 3 Scheme
40. On the recommendations of which commission, 10 + 2 + 3 structure was incorporated in

the statement of National Policy on Education, 1968?
A. Kothari Commission
B. Mudaliar Commission
C. Ramamurti Commission
D. Mandal Commission
2018 December| English | Sanskrit Traditional Subjects | Visual Art | Yoga
41. The National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was established in which year?
A. 1998
B. 2000
C. 2005
D. 2007
42. In which year Education Commission under the Chairmanship of Dr. D.S. Kothari was set
up?
A. 1952
B. 1955
C. 1960
D. 1964

43. Which of the following was launched in 2013 with the purpose to provide strategic
funding to eligible state higher educational institutions?
A. All India Council for Technical Education
B. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
C. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan
D. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan
44. The University Grants Commission (UGC) was formally inaugurated on 28 December
1953 by whom among the following?
A. Mrs. Indira Gandhi
B. Sh. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
C. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
45. The University Grants Commission has a scheme for "Human Rights and Values in
Education". Under this scheme, which statement is incorrect among the following for
'Human Rights and Duties Education' component ?
A. To encourage research activities.
B. develop interaction between society and educational institutions.
C. To establish value and wellness centres in schools.
D. To sensitize the citizens so that the norms and values of human rights are
realised.

46. The Washington Accord, an international agreement for engineering accreditation
bodies, has Indian representation through:
A. UGC
B. NAAC
C. Higher Education Council of India
D. NBA

47. In which year Secondary Education Commission was appointed under the chairmanship
of Dr. A.L. Mudaliar?
A. 1950
B. 1951
C. 1952
D. 1962
48. Which among the following envisaged a common educational structure like 10+2 + 3 as a
common core in the curricular programme?
A. Kothari Commission
B. Sinha Committee
C. National Policy on Edu. (NPE), 1986
D. All India Council of Technical Education
49. Which scheme of Govt, of India was launched tor the development of secondary
education m public schools?
A. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
B. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan
C. Global Initiative of Academic Network
D. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan
50. The National Education Day is celebrated every year on :

A. November 5
B. November 11
C. November 14
D. November 25

HIGHER EDUCATION-2019
2019 June || Adult Education| Chinese| Comparative Litera ture| Comparative
Study of Religions| German| Home Science| Japanese| Labour Welfare|
Administration and Management|
51. In which era given below, higher education in India got a set back?
(1) British Era
(2) Buddhist Era
(3) Mughal Era
(4) Post-Independence Era
52. In which year the modern Indian University got established?

(1) 1957
(2) 1857
(3) 1947
(4) 1904
53. The report of which of the following Education Commissions carries the sub-title
“Education for National Development’?
(1) Radhakrishnan Commission
(2) Mudaliar Commission
(3) Calcutta University Education Commission
(4) Kothari Commission
54. The expansion of SANKALP is,
(1) Sanskrit Awareness and Knowledge Acquisition of Language Programme
(2) Skills Acquisition and Karatae Awareness for Livelihood Promotion
(3) Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion
(4) Sanskrit Awareness and Knowledge Acquisition for Livelihood Promotion

55. Which of the following statements best explains the concept of sustainable
development?
(1) Use of natural resources minimally
(2) Use of natural resources for our benefit
(3) Use of natural resources judiciously so that they are available for future
generations
(4) Preserve our natural resources for our future generation
2019 June ||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies| Bengali | Bodo| Environmental
Sciences| Hindi
56. The medium of instruction in the Vedic system of education has been,
(1) Sanskrit
(2) Pali
(3) Hindi
(4) Urdu
57. The methods of learning in Higher Education in India in the past consisted of
(1) Memorization, Brain Storming procedure and Seminar
(2) Memorization, Critical Analysis and Story telling
(3) Critical Analysis, Assignment Writing and Oral reports
(4) Story Telling, Brain storming procedure and Seminar
58. Name the scheme which aims to create research ambience in the institutes by
promoting research in engineering sciences.
(1) E - Shooth Sindliu
(2) Entrepreneurship Development Cell
(3) Research Promotion Schemes (RPS)
(4) Institution Development Scheme

59. Inspire scholarship' is intended by the funding agency .
(1) Indian Council of Social Science and Research (ICSSR.)
(2) University Grants Commission (UGC)
(3) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
(4) National Council of Education, Research and Training (NCERT)
60. National Curriculum Framework was developed by which of the following?

(1) UGC
(2) NCERT
(3) NOTE
(4) CBSE
2019 June || Arabic| Geography| Gujarati| Nepali| Psychol ogy| Punjabi|
61. Which one of the following coordinates, promotes and funds research, activities of all
social sciences disciplines?
(1) ICPR, New Delhi
(2) IIAS, Shimla
(3) ICSSE, New Delhi
(4) NUEPA, New Delhi
62. "Gyanvani" Launched by IGNOU to cover the educational needs of India refers to
(1) Satellite based educational T.V. channel
(2) Educational F.M. Radio network
(3) Global imitative of academic networks
(4) MOOCs

63. A special focus on the problems of examination system of India formed apart of which
one of the following reports?
(1) Report of the Calcutta university commission
(2) Report of the University Education commission (1964-66)
(3.) Hartog committee report
(4) Report oil standards of University education UGC (1965)
64. Which one of the following universities is not among the first three that ware
established during 1857?
(1) Calcutta
(2) Bombay
(3) Delhi
(4) Madras
65. In which of the following Ancient Indian universities, the culture and civilization of Tibet
was built mainly through the writings of the scholars
(1) Nalanda
(2) Vikramsila
(3) Jagaddala
(4) Mithila
2019 June|| Archaeology| Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace Studies|

Forensic Science| French| History| Kashmiri| Konkani| Linguistics| Mass
Communication and Journalism| Museology and Conservation| Music Rabindra
Sangeet| Pali| Performing Art (Dance Drama Theatre)| Persian| Prakrit
|Russian| Santali| Spanish
66. The constitution of India provides right to establish educational institutions of then
choice by all minorities as per
(1) Article 30(1)
(2) Article 29
(3) Article 33
(4) Article 16(2)

67. SWAYAM refers to
(1) Study World of Action Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
(2) Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
(3) Student World of Action Learning for Young Ailing Minds
(4) Study Webs of Active Learning for Youth Awareness Models
68. Which one of the following is an educational FM radio network?

(1) Gyan Darshan
(2) Gyan Vani
(3) Gyan Dhara
(4) GIAN
69. Which one of the following reports addressed the academic, technical and
administrative problems of the examination system?
(1) Report on standards of the Educational System (1965)
(2) Report of University Education Commission (1948-49)
(3) Sargent Report (1944)
(4) Hartog Committee report (1929)
70. During which year the present system of affiliation of colleges to the Universities was
introduced in India?
(1) 1857
(2) 1948
(3) 1928
(4) 1966

2019 June|| Assamese| Computer Science and Applications| Criminology|
Human Rights and Duties| Odia| Social Work| Urdu
71. In post-independence India, which one of the following Committee/Commission’s report

deals with all levels of education in India?
(1) Sergeant Commission
(2) Hartog Committee
72. The Education Commission of India that first took serious note of the problem of Brain
Drain was
(1) Education Commission of India
(2) University Education Commission
(3) Calcutta University Commission
(4) Sargeant Commission
73. The present form of Inter University Board that was previously established for
promoting cooperation and coordination among Universities is
(1) UGC
(2) AIU
(3) NUEPA
(4) ICSSR
74. Which one of the following instructional designs is not a part of SWAYAM launched by
(1) E-tutorial
(2) E-Content
(3) Physical interaction
(4) Discussion Forum

75. Which of the following' NOT correctly matched?
(i) Gyan darshan - Satellite based educational T, V. Channel
(ii) Gyanvani - Educational FM Radio network
(iii) MOOCs - Massive Open Online Credits
(1) Only (i) and (ii)
(2) Only (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (iii)
(4) Only (i) and (iii)

76. The purpose of Gurukul system of education is to
1. promote equality and excellence
2. minimise stress in learning
3. empowering for future learning
4. encourage self help
77. Which of the following commission/committee in the post-independent India has paid
attention all the levels of education?
(2) Mudaliar Commission
(4) Acharya Ramamurthy Committee
78. The scheme “Unnat Bharat Abhiyah aims to

(1) Increase strength of students in colleges in India
(2) Link higher educational institution in the country with at least 5 villages
(3) Increase quality in Higher Education
(4) Increase number of colleges in India

79. Identify the scheme which aims to encourage Social Science Research in Policy relevant
areas so as to provide vital inputs in policy formulation, implementation and evaluation
(1) ICSSR Fellowship
(2) Cognitive Initiatives
(3) ICSSR- IMPRESS
(4) ICSSR Research Projects
80. What is SWAYAM?

(1) Non-Governmental Organisation
(2) Digital Programme to achieve the principles of education
(3) On-line platform
(4) Name of a web site
2019 June ||Defence and Strategic Studies| Dogri| Economics| Electronic

Science| Marathi| Percussion Instruments| Politics (including International
Relations and Studies)| Rajasthani| Sanskrit| Soc ial Medi-cine and Community
81. GIAN (Global Initiative of Academic Networks) has been launched by Government of
India in order to
(1) Encourage Indian Scholars to learn abroad
(2) Discourage Indian Scholars from researching in India
(3) Encourage global scholars engage with their counter parts in India
(4) Encourage global scholars to engage with Indian Scholars abroad
82. Which one of the following forms a necessary component of Conventional Education
System in India?
(1) Learning from books
(2) Learning from the teacher
(3) Learning from thinking
(4) Learning through instructional material

83. Which one of the following five-year plans of India has given special emphasis on
“Education and Manpower”?
(1) Third Five Year Plan
(2) Fourth Five Year Plan
(3) Second Five Year Plan
(4) Fifth Five Year Plan
84. Brain drain problem which was dominant in the middle of 20th Century in India is
indicative of which one of the following aspects?
(i) Lack of adequate facilities for advanced study and research in India
(ii) The capacity of the developed nations to buy the talent at a price beyond the means
of the developing nations
(iii) Increase of population and underutilization of human research
Choose the correct option from below:
(1) Only (i) and (iii)
(2) Only (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (iii)
(4) Only (i) and (ii)
85. The premier organisation established in India to deal with capacity building and research
in planning and management of education in India and South Asia is
(1) AIU
(2) SAARC University
(3) NUEPA
(4) Nalanda University

2019 June || Education| Kannada| Law| Population Studies| Public
Administration| Sindhi| Telugu
86. The introduction of MOOC in open and distance learning programmes is justified
because of its
(1) Low cost considerations
(2) Accessibility considerations
(3) Speed considerations
(4) Novelty considerations
87. “Gyan Darshan” launched by IGNOU refers to which one of the following?
(1) Satellite based educational T V. Channel
(2) Educational FM radio network
(3) Global initiative of Academic networks
(4) Online courses
88. Through which Act University Grants Commission came into existence?
(1) UGC Act – 1956
(2) UGC Act – 1949
(3) UGC Act – 1944
(4) UGC Act – 1968
89. Which one of the following institutions was established as a consequence to the closure
of Inter-University Board brought in for promotion of cooperation among the Universities in
the field of education and allied areas?
(1) Association of Central Universities
(2) University Grants Commission
(3) IIAS, Shimla
(4) Association of Indian Universities

90. Which of the following instructional designs is part of SWAY AM launched by
(i) E-Tutorial
(ii) E-Content
(iii) Assessment
(iv) Discussion Forum
(v) Classroom teaching
Choose the correct option from below
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(4) (iii) and (v) only
2019 June || English| Sanskrit Traditional Subjects| Visu al Art| Yoga

91. Which of the following is a non-conventional learning programme in higher education?
(1) Swayam
(2) Face-to-face teaching-learning
(3) Tutorial class
(4) Seminar
92. For the day to day administration of University, which of the following bodies is
responsible?
(1) Senate
(2) Syndicate/Executive council
(3) Student council
(4) Academic council
93. Which of the following statements represent the main functions of UGC?
(i) Recognition of institutions
(ii) Maintenance of quality and standards

(iii) Appointment of Vice Chancellor
(iv) Giving grants to institutions
(v) Making state governments responsible for educational development
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) and (v)
94. The main aim of the faculty recharge scheme of UGC was to
(1) Address the shortage of faculty in higher education institution
(2) Upgrade the teaching skills of the faculty
(3) Upgrade the research infrastructure for the faculty in colleges and
universities
(4) Strengthen the academia – industry linkage
95. Name the scheme which facilitates academic and research collaboration between Indian
Institution and the best institution in the world
(1) ICSSR - IMPRESS
(2) Staff Development Scheme
(3) SPARC
(4) Institutional Development Scheme
96. Generally who is the visitor of central universities of India?

(1) Prime Minister of India
(2) Minister, MHRD
(3) President of India
(4) UGC Chairman

97. Which discipline has the highest percentage of enrolment in the higher education of
India?
(1) Arts
(2) Science
(3) Commerce
(4) Technology and Engineering
98. Below are given two columns. Column - A presents the stream of courses and column - B
presents the name of courses. Match the two columns
Column- A (Stream) Column-B (Name of courses)

(a) Professional (i) Engineering Architecture
(b) Academic (ii) Carpentering, Sewing
(c) Technical (iii) Medicine, Law
(d) Skill based (IV) Arts, Commerce
(1) (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
99. Which of the following indicate the pillars of learning contained in the UNESCO Report,
1996, “Learning the Treasure Within”.
(a) Learning to know
(b) Learning to be
(c) Learning to learn
(d) Learning to understand
(e) Learning to live together
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (c), (d) and (e)
(3) (b), (c), (d) and (e)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (e)
100. Which of the following statements explains the concept of gross enrolment ratio?
(1) Total number of students divided by the total population
(2) Total number of enrolled students of a particular’ age group divided by total
population of that age group
(3) Total number of students divided by the total number of children not
admitted to the institution
(4) Total number of students not admitted to the institution divided by the total
number children of that age-group
2019 December || Adult Education| Chinese| Comparative Literature|

Comparative Study of Religions| German| Home Science| Japanese| Labour
Welfare| Maithili| Management| Manipuri| Philosophy| Physical Education|
101. Select the period in which India became a center of higher learning.
(1) Gupta Period
(2) Buddha Period
(3) Mughal Period
(4) British Period:
102. Select the alternative features from the following, which make open universities as
non-traditional universities:
(a) Innovative method of teaching and learning
(b) Innovative method of admission, curriculum and evaluation
(c) Modern communication techniques
(d) Teacher’s friendly approaches
Select the correct codes:
(1) (b), (c) and (d) only
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

103. Match the following historic places with their distinguishing discipline of learning
List I Historic places List II Discipline

(a) Takshila (i) Astronomy
(b) Ujjain (ii) Buddhism
(c) Sarnath (iii) Art. Architecture and Painting
(d) Ajanta (iv) Medicine
Choose the right option from below
(1) (a)-(i). (b)-(ii), (e)-(iii). (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(i). (c)-(iv). (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii). (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii). (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv). (b)-(i). (c)-(ii). (d)-(iii)
2019 December||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies| Bengali | Bodo|

Environmental Sciences| Hindi
104. Who among the following, first took the initiative for appointing a University Education
Commission during pre-independence period?
(1) Lord Curzon
(2) Lord Ripon
(3) Lord Wellesley
(4) Lord Bentick
105. Which one of the following groups of commission on education has been given
chronologically in an order of year in which they were constituted?
(1) Kothari Commission, Mudaliar Commission, Radhakrishnan Commission
(2) Radhakrishnan Commission, Mudaliar Commission. Kothari Commission
(3) Mudaliar Commission, Kothari Commission, Radhakrishnan Commission
(4) Radhakrishnan Commission, Kothari Commission, Mudaliar Commission

106. Choose the institutions which are not authorized to confer degree according to UGC
Act 1956:
(a) Institutions established under linguistic minority
(b) Deemed to be Universities
(c) Constituent Colleges
(d) Affiliated Colleges
Choose the correct codes:
107. Match correctly the contribution / concept of Column II with the names of the thinkers
given in Column I
Column I Column II
(a) Karl Popper (i) Inductive method
(b) T.S. Kuhn (ii) Against the method
(c) Paul Feyrabend (iii) Paradigm
(d) Francis Bacon (iv) Falsification
Select appropriate option:
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III). (C)-(I). (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(III). (B)-(I). (C)-(IV). (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(IV). (B)-(III). (C)-(II), (D) (I)
(4J (A)-(IV). (B)-(III). (C)-(I). (D)-(II)
108. Which of the following modes of admission was prevalent in Nalanda University in
ancient times?
(1) Entrance Examination
(2) Interview
(3) Good Academic Credentials

(4) Peer Discussion
109. What are the current challenges in the field of higher education in India?
(i) Expansion
(ii) Equity
(iii) Funds
(iv) Examination Reforms
(v) Excellence
(vi) Entrance Examinations
Select correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (i). (ii) and (vi)
(3) (iii). (iv) and (vi)
(4) (i). (ii) and (v)
110. Which of the following emphasized that education needs to be managed in an

atmosphere of utmost intellectual rigour, seriousness of purpose and of freedom essential
for innovation and creativity?
(1) National Policy on Education-1968
(2) National Policy on Education-1986
(3) NITI Aayog-Three Year Action Agenda (2017-18 to 2019-20)
(4) Draft National Education Policy—2019
111. From the following, identify the organization that provides a common platform to all
universities including institutions of national importance:
(1) University Grants Commission
(2) Association of Indian Universities
(3) Distance Education Council
(4) Indian Institute of Advanced Study

112. Creation of World-Class Universities requires:
(i) Autonomous governance
(ii) Focused funding
(iii) Control over evaluation mechanism
(iv) Independent outcomes
(v) Appointment of staff by the State Machinery
Select correct answer from the option given below:
(1) (i). (ii) and (v)
(2) (ii). (iii) and (v)
(3) (iii). (iv) and (v)
(4) (i). (ii) and {iv)
2019 December ||Archaeology| Buddhist Jaina Gandhian and Peace

Studies|Folk Literature| Forensic Science| French| History| Kashmiri|
Konkani| Linguistics| Mass Communication and Journali sm| Museology and
Conservation| Music| Pali| Performing Art (Dance Drama Theatre)| Persian|
Prakrit| Russian| Santali| Spanish
113. The Ancient Indian University known as the chief center for advanced and specialized
studies in Nyaya or Logic was
(1) Jagaddala University
(2) Mithila University
(3) Nadia University
(4) Valabhi University
114. Which items m the following constitute the non-conventional learning programs?
(i) Tea sommelier
(ii) Oriental languages
(iii) Spa management
(iv) Museology
(v) Comparative languages

(1) (i). (ii) and (iv)
(2) (ii). (iii) and (v)
(3) (i). (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii). (iv) and (v)
115. Which one of the following is a non-statutory body?

(1) National Council for Teacher Education (NOTE)
(2) Bar Council of India (BCI)
(3) Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI)
(4) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
116. Which one of the following has been the basis for introduction of yoga in teacher
training courses?
(1) National Policy of Education - 196S
(2) National Policy on Education - 1986
(3) Vision of Teacher Education in India: Quality and Regulatory Perspective - 2012
(4) Draft National Education Policy - 2019
2019 December || Assamese| Computer Science a nd Applications|

Criminology| Human Rights And Duties| Odia| Social Work| Urdu
117. The major barriers for access to higher education in India are :
(a) more opportunities of employment for less educated
(b) government policies
(c) language of instruction
(d) economic status
(e) competition from foreign universities
(f) gender discrimination in society
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b) (c) and (e)

(3) (c). (d) and (f)
(4) (d) (e) and (f)
118. According to GATS (General Agreement on Trade and Services), higher education
should be a commodity in the
(1) domestic public sector
(2) domestic private sector
(3) non-trading sector
(4) global marketplace
119. Which of the following statements is true in the Indian context?

(1) Autonomous colleges can grant degrees independent of universities
(2) Autonomous colleges can grant only bachelor’s degree independent of
universities
(3). Except doctoral degrees, all other degrees and diplomas can be granted by
autonomous colleges
(4) Whatever may be the degree or diploma, autonomous colleges can grant
them under their own name hut under the seal of an affiliated university.
120. Rastriya Uchhatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) aims to achieve the following in Higher
Education System:
(a) Equity
(b) Access
(c) 50% GER
(d) Excellence
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a). (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b) (c) and (d)

121. Which among the following recommended the establishment of State Council for
Higher Education in each state?
1. Report of the Estimates Committee (1965 - 66)
2. Review Committee on UGC (1977), Ministry of Education
3. National Policy on Education (1986)
4. Report of the UGC Committee (1990}
122. The National Skills Qualifications Framework is based on which of the following?
1. Competency
2. Technology
3. Economic development
4. Evaluation
123. Which among the following is the statutory function of the UGC
1. To appoint teaching faculty in universities
2. To control the conduct of examination in universities
3. To determine and maintain the standards of teaching and research in
(universities
4. To develop curriculum for university courses
124. Which among the following is a Massive Open Online Course platform created by the
Ministry of Human Resource Development Government of India?
1. PRATHAM
2. SWAYAM
3. FUTURELEARN
4. OPEN LEARN

125. Who among the following scholars carried back scriptures from Nalanda University and
wrote about architecture and learning of this university?
1. Kim Huang (Korea)
2. Jin Tan Yang (Korea)
3. Xuan Zang (China)
4. Junha Meng (China)
2019 December || Defence and Strategic Studies| Dogri| Economics|

Electronic Science| International and Area Studie s| Marathi| Sanskrit| Social
Medicine and Community Health| Tribal and Regional Language Literature|
Women Studies
126. Identify the distinctive feature of traditional method of Indian education from the
following list:
(1) ‘Direct perception of truth’ – both as means and end
(2) Making everything on ‘Trust’
(3) Evolving own way of learning
(4) Following Nyaya Philosophy with Deductive — Inductive Process
127. Which of the following provides the overarching vision that guides research into
socially relevant-areas?
(1) AREA
(2) IMPRINT
(3) NIRF
(4) SWAYAM PRABHA
128. In which of the following. ‘One Nation, One Standard' is mentioned as the ’mantra' to
ensure national standards and quality.
(1) National Policy on Education — 1968
(2) National Policy on Education - 1986
(3) National Policy for Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship - 20lo

(4) NITI Aayog - Three Year Action Agenda - 2017—18 to 2019—2020
129. Non-traditional teaching and. learning strategies lay emphasis on

(i) Students' need based resource materials and learning standards
(ii) Developing skills, attitude and values
(iii) Promoting In-Box thinking process
(iv) Lecture based model
(v) Acquiring knowledge necessary to respond creatively
Select your answer from the following options:
(1) (i). (ii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (i), (iv) and (v)

130. Given below are the statements – one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason(R):
Assertion (A): Considering higher education as a non-priority for the state is linked to the
withdrawal of public funding to it.
Reason(R): The pressure of free enterprise system in this regard is an attempt to expand
their educational market.
In the light of above two statements, choose the correction option:
(1) Both (A) and R are true and Ris the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but R is false
(4) (A) is false, but R is true
131. The community colleges have provisions for

(1) Single admission
(2) Concurrent admission

(3) Self-financing system
(4) Teaching at home
132. An institution desirous of applying for deemed to be university status must have been
in existence for at least
(1) 5 Years
(2) 10 Years
(3) 20 Years
(4) 25 Years
133. The WTO negotiation on higher education deals with issues like:
(a) education as a free service
(b) vigorous social affirmation in developed countries
(c) assigning important role for civil society
(d) education as a trade
(e) education as a commodity
(f) withdrawal of public sector from higher education
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b) (c) and (e)
(4) (d), (e) and (f)
134. The objective of Indian Government behind setting up of HEFA (Higher Education
Finance Agency) is to provide financial support for:
(1) Improvement of infra structure in premier institutions of the country
(2) Research projects of faculty
(3) Research collaboration between Indian and Foreign Universities

(5) Research collaboration between Indian Institutions and industry
135. In order to meet the demands of market economy and produce competent graduates,
who can compete with their counterparts in international markets, the first and foremost
change that needs to be introduced in the prevailing system of Indian higher education is
related to:
(1) Admission process
(2) Curriculum
(3) Educational technology
(4) Appointment of teachers
136. Which among the following is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development
and. Entrepreneurship implemented by National Skills Development Corporation?
(1) Robotics India
(2) Artificial Intelligence schools
(3) Make in India
(4) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
137. In the age of four Vedas, students were admitted to the Vedic schools after
performance of which ceremony, among the following:
(1) Upanayana ceremony
(2) Utsarjana ceremony
(3) Satapatha brahmana
(4) Dhanurvidya ceremony

138. Choose the oriental learning institutes in India from the following:
(a) Asiatic Society
(b) Madras Sanskrit College
(c) Tezpur University
(d) Mythic Society
139. In educational institutions, students usually have group journals/magazines and write
in them on regular basis. Which of the following statements are correct about journaling as
a method of informal assessment.
(a) As a tool that provides opportunity to the students to express their thoughts and
ideas
(b) As an opportunity to showcase what they have learned
(c) As a way to cope with the stress
(d) As a tool to settle scores with the authority
140. Spotting gaps in the research literature is the chief way of identifying research
questions. In this context, 'spotting gaps' in the research literature refers to :
(a) Identifying under-researched areas
(b) Recognizing the gap between two researchers'
Background

(c) Identifying inconsistent findings in an area of research
(d) Recognizing gap in the characteristics of sample and population
Select correct option:
(1.) (a) and (c) only
(2) (b) and (d) only
141. Match the List-I containing name of the Commissions with List-II containing the
recommendation of that commission
List I (Commissions) list II (Recommendation)

Radhakrishnan Introduction of 3 years of secondary and 4 years of
(a) (i)
Commission higher education system
Restructuring curriculum for multidisciplinary
(b) Mudaliar Commission (ii)
professionals
(c) Kothari Commission (iii) Integrating secondary and higher education
Sam Pitroda Three years of degree and 4 years of honors degree
(d) (iv)
Commission courses
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii) (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iv), (c)-(i). (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii). (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

142. Match List-I with List-II
List I (Digital
List II (Purpose)
Initiatives)
(a) SWAYAM (i) Integrated Library Management software
Spoken
(b) (ii) Robotics competition
Tutorial
(c) e-Granthalaya (iii) Promotes IT literacy through open source software
(d) e-Yantra (iv) Personalized and adaptive learning
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV); (C)-(II). (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(II). (B)-(I), {C)-(III)F (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(III). (B)-(II), (C)-(IV)F (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I). (D)-(II)
143. Match the items given under Column II providing: description with the items under
Column I indicating the basis,
Column I (Basis) Column II (Description)

(a) Cognitive (i) Ability to relate to other
(b) Emotional (ii) Ability to articulate the idea
(c) Social (iii) Ability to read others' facial expression
(d) Verbal (iv) Ability to solve abstract problem
(1) (A)-(I): (B)-(III). (C)-(IV). (D) (II)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D) (II)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II). (D)-(III)

144. Match the following national co-ordinators of SWA YAM (List I) with their distinguishing
programs (List II)
List I List II
(a) NPTEL (i) School education
(b) CEC (ii) Engineering programme
(c) NCERT and NIOS (iii) Teacher training programme
(d) NITTR (iv) Under-graduate education

(1) (a)-(iii). (b)-(ii). (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(ii). (b)-(iv). (c)-(i). (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i). (b)-(iii).. (c)-(ii)f (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii). (d)-(ii)
HIGHER EDUCATION 2020-JUNE
2020 June || Adult Education | Chinese| Comparative Study of Religions|

Dogri | Gujarati| Indian Culture | Japanese| Kannada | Konkani | Ma ithili|
Manipuri| Persian | Prakrit | Rajasthani | Sanskrit | Sindhi | Spanish | Tribal
and Regional Language Literature
1. The first open university in India was established in the year

1. 1980
2. 1982
3. 1985
4. 1986
2. Asynchronous communication takes place through which of the following technologies?

A. Teleconferencing
B. Virtual classroom
C. Video chat
D. Blogs

E. Discussion boards
F. Vlog
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. D, E and F only
4. C, D and E only
List I Stages of value
List II Exemplification of value formation
development
A. Stage 1 - Value collection I. Choosing and imbibing the values one cherishes
II. Observing and imitating the adult behaviors,
B. Stage II - Value assessment
particularly parents
C. Stage III - Value clarification III. Predictability of human behavior is assured
D. Stage IV - Value
IV. Finding out gaps in values preached and practice
consolidation
1. A – I, B – IV, C - III, D - II
2. A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
3. A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
4. A - III, B - II C- I, D- IV
4. Given below are two statements related to the Upanishadic tradition

Statement I: Paravidya means knowledge that transcends human experience
Statement II: Aparavidya means knowledge based on the human experience
given below

5. Which of the following Entries of the Indian Constitution deals with coordination and
determination of standards in institutions for higher education or research or scientific and
technical institutions?
1. Entry 63
2. Entry 64
3. Entry 65
4. Entry 65
2020 June || Anthropology | Home Science | Public Administration | Social

Work | Yoga |
6. In which year. All India Council for Technical Education was set up as a statutory body by
an Act of Parliament?
(1) 1986
(2) 1987
(3) 1988
(4) 1989
7. Which are the characteristics of an effective team in an institution of higher learning?

(A) The atmosphere tends to be informal in which members of team are involved.
(B) There is a lot of discussion in which everyone participates.
(C) The task of the group is well understood and accepted by the group members.
(D) The members of the group are not afraid of putting forth their ideas.
(E) The members of the group avoid disagreement and conflict among themselves.
(1) (A). (B). (C). (D) only
(2) (B), (C). (D). (E) only
(3) (C). (D). (E), (A) only
(4) (E). (A). (B). (C) only

8. Helping individuals and social groups acquire social values. contributes to development
of:
(1) Environmental awareness
(2) Environmental knowledge
(3) Environmental attitude
(4) Environmental skills
9. The principal responsibilities of Academic Council in a University include

(A) Maintenance of quality and standards of academic programmes
(B) Planning, coordination, development, oversight and review of academic programmes
of University
(C) Laying down the essential qualifications for recruitment of faculty in various
disciplines.
(D) Framing and revising/updating the contents of courses of various academic
programmes.
(E) Approval of fee structure for various academic programmes
(2) (A). (B). (D) and (E) only
(3) (A). (B). (C) and (D) only
(4) (A). (B). (C) and (E) only

10. Match List I with List II: List — I and List — II consist of types of procedures used for
continuous appraisal of teaching and non-teaching staff in higher education and
characteristics of these appraisal respectively:
List I (Types of
List II (Characteristics)
Appraisal)
(A) Developmental (I) Concerned with doing and achieving
Concerned with moral, ethical and professional
(B) Managerial (II)
values
(C) Laissez-faire (III) Concerned with maintenance of social control
Concerned with the importance of self-
(D) Judgmental (IV)
development.
(1) (A)-(III). (B)-(IV). (C)-(II). (D)-(I)
(2) (A) (II). (B) (I), (C) (IV). (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(I). (B)-(III). (C) (II). (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II). (C) (III). (D)-(I)
2020 June || Arab Culture and Islamic Studies | Arabic | Buddhist Jaina
Gandhian and Peace Studies | Defence and Strategic Studies | Linguistics |
Mass Communication and Journalism | Nepali | Odia | Pali | Tamil |
11. Which of the following areas of liberal education at the higher level in the feudal society
of Europe were classified under quadrivium?
A. Grammar
B. Logic
C. Arithmetic
D. Astronomy
E. Music
1. A, B and C only
2. E, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, D and E only

12. National Programme for Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL) was initiated by the
MHRD in 2003 to enhance the quality in
1. Medical education
2. Agriculture education
3. Engineering education
4. Legal education
13. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) set in 2015 by the United Nations are
intended to be achieved by
1. 2025
2. 2030
3. 2035
4. 2040

List I Modes of supply of education
List II Examples of these services in education
services under GATS
I. Professors, teachers and researchers working
A. Mode 1 - Cross border supply
abroad on a temporary basis
II. Language training companies, Local university
B. Mode 2- Consumption abroad
and Satellite campuses
III. Distance education, Virtual education,
C. Mode 3 - Commercial presence
Corporate training through ICT
D. Mode 4 - Movement of natural IV. A student travels to another country to enrol in
persons a course of study/degree programme
1. A - IV, B - l C - III, D - II
2. A - III, B - IV, C - II D - I
3. A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
4. A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
15. Ashtadhyayi was written by

1. Chanakya
2. Jivaka

3. Katyayana
4. Panini
2020 June || Archaeology | Human Rights And Duties | International and Area
Studies | Library and Information Science | Philosophy |
16. In which of the Universities named below, correspondence courses were initiated in
19527
1. University of Madras
2. University of Bombay
3. University of Calcutta
4. University of Delhi
17. Which of the following areas of liberal education at the higher level in feudal society of
Europe were classified under trivium?
A. Geometry
B. Astronomy
C. Grammar
D. Logic
E. Rhetoric
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, D and E only
18. Which of the following categories of colleges is primarily intended for creating work
ready manpower on a large scale?
1. Autonomous college
2. Community college
3. Agriculture college
4. Technical college

19. Synchronous communication takes place through which of the following technologies?A.
Video chat
B. Virtual classrooms
C. Audio conferencing
D. Wikis
E. Electronic mail
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, D and E only

List I Levels of academic
freedom in higher education List II Concerns at their levels
institutions
I. Democratic functioning in the higher education
A. Personal level system and believing each individual worthy of
attention
II. Standard of behaviour and ethics we adopt and
B. Professional level
develop for ourselves
III. Values which influence and cushion the operation of
C. Institutional level
higher education
IV. Exercising personal and professional values within
D. Societal level
the concept of the higher education institution
1. A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
2. A - II, B - I, C - IV, D – III
3. A - III, B - IV, C - II, D – I
4. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

21. Teacher-Education institutions belong to which of the following category?

(1) Non-conventional
(2) Technical
(3) Professional
(4) Skill based
22. Given below two statements

Statement I: Universities of Nalanda. Taxsila and Vikramshila of ancient India are now all
located in the Indian Territory.
Statement II: The entrance test of its own kind was prevalent in the ancient seats of
learning: of India.
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement If are correct
23. Atal Ranking of higher education institutes and universities is related to achievements in
(1) Basic sciences research
(2) Innovation and entrepreneurship development
(3) Distance mode education
(4) Promotion of environmentally sustainable practices.
24. Which of the basic values which can be characterized by the central motivational goal
are related to self-transcendence?
(A) Conformity
(B) Power
(C) Benevolence

(D) Universalism
(E) Hedonism
(4) (D) and (E) only
25. Given below two statements

Statement I: Holistic education in ancient India was not just acquisition of knowledge as
preparation for life in this world or life beyond schooling but for complete realisation and
liberation of the self.
Statement II: Values of pluralism, mutual understanding and peace constituted the
foundation of holistic education during ancient education.
below:
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement El is true.
2020 June || Bengali | Bodo | Kashmiri | Social Medicine and Community

Health | Urdu |
26. The Universities centered on the viharas during the Ancient India Period were situated
at
(A) Nava deep
(B) Nalanda
(C) Valabhi
(D) Jagaddala
(E) Kanchi

(1) (A). (B). (C) only
(2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (C), (D), (E) only
(4) (D), (E), (A) only
27. Arrange the steps followed in the process of value clarification:

(A) Students are presented with an issue
(B) Students suggest alternative solutions
(C) Students express their feelings about each alternative
(D) Students consider the consequences of each alternative
(E) Students express their preferences and make a choice
(1) (A), (B). (C), (D). (E)
(2) (A). (B), (D), (C), (E)
(3) (A). (C), (B), (D). (E)
(4) (A). (B), (E), (C). (D)
28. As per the recent All India Survey on Higher Education, the Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER)
in Higher education for the year 2018-19, in India is
(1) 24,6%
(2) 25,6%
(3) 26.3%
(4) 27.8%

29. UGC portal e SARTS is for
(1) Special Assistance for Research in Technology and Sciences
(2) Special Assistance for Research and Training in Sciences
(3) Support for Academic and Research Training in Social Sciences
(4) Scholarship-Fellowship Award Registration Tracking System
30. An institution in the field of higher education desirous of getting the status of ‘Deemed
to be University' has to full fill the following criteria :
(A) The institution must be at least 10 years old
(B) Its NAAC CGPA is at least 3.26
(C) It figures in top 100 ranks of NIKF in overall category of institutions and universities.
(D) Teacher student ratio in the institution is at least 1:20
(E) Number of teachers (faculty) is at least 50.
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (B). (C), (D) and (E) only
(4) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only

31. Ayurveda, which deals with indigenous system of medicine, could be traced to :
(1) Rigveda
(2) Yajurveda
(3) Samaveda
(4) Atharvaveda
32. Which of the following types of institutions come under the ambit of National Board of
Accreditation (NBA)?
(1) Teacher education institutions
(2) Technical institutions
(3) Agriculture institutions

(4) Medical institutions
33. Which of the following are indicators of external accountability for an institution of
higher learning?
(A) Provision for professional development of teachers.
(B) Utilization pattern of library and technical resources.
(C) Relevance of courses to the societal needs.
(D) Performance of students in public examinations.
(E) Employment pattern of pass-out students.
(1) (A). (B). (C) only
(2) (B). (C). (D) only
(3) (C). (D). (E) only
(4) (D). (E). (A) only
34. Which statutory body of a University has the power to accord formal approval to the
programmes and courses of studies?
(1) Senate
(2) Syndicate
(3) Academic Council
(4) Board of Studies
35. Which of the following are objectives of a performance appraisal system?

(A) To help an employee in finding out his/her own strengths and weaknesses.
(B) To help in creating desirable organizational ethos.
(C) To help in identifying people for the purpose of motivating and training them for
new roles.
(D) To help in distinguishing the non-performers from performers.
(E) To enable learners to understand the weakness in the system.
(1) (A), (B), (C) only

(2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (C). (D). (E) only
(4) (E). (D). (A) only

36. Which of the following modality of higher education is the example of evolution in the
post-independence India?
(1) Teacher Education
(2) Technical Education
(3) Legal Education
(4) Distance Education
37. The education imported through institutions of higher learning in India such as 'Sanskrit
Vidyapith' is an example of
(1) Non-conventional learning programmes
(2) Value Education Programmes
(3) Oriental learning Programmes
(4) Professional education programmes
38. List I gives stages of development of values while List II their outcomes Match List I with
List II:
List I (Stage of development of
List II (Outcomes)
values)
(A) Stage I (I) Value collection through invitation
(B) Stage II (II) Inner evaluation
(C) Stage III (III) Value consolidation
(D) Stage IV (IV) Value clarification
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

Statement I: The vice-chancellor of a University is an executive head who is vested with
administrative as well as academic responsibilities.
Statement II: For a charismatic leadership attribute in a vice chancellor both transactional as
well as transformational leadership competencies are needed.
below:
40. For ensuring effective administration which of the following is most difficult?
(1) Changing the knowledge of individuals and groups
(2) Changing the skill of individuals and groups
(3) Changing the attitude of individuals and groups
(4) Changing the behaviour of individuals and groups.
2020 June || Comparative Literature | Criminology | Folk Literature | Forensic

Science | French | Museology and Conservation | Psychology | Tou rism
Administration and Management |
41. Takshasbila, an ancient centre for higher learning in India, was declared as a heritage
site by the UNESCO in
1. 1980
2. 1982
3. 1984
4. 1986

42. Rastriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA), a Centrally Sponsored Scheme aiming at
providing strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions, was launched in
1. 2010
2. 2011
3. 2012
4. 2013
43. Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education is the total enrolment in higher
education, regardless of age expressed as a percentage to the eligible official population in a
given school year. Which of the following age groups explain the eligible official population
in this regard?
1. 15-21 years
2. 17-22 years
3. 13-23 years
4. 19-24 years
44. Which of the following statements best describe value education?

A. It is a course in moral science
B. It talks about rewards and punishments for one's own actions
C. Students observe and imitate adult behaviours, particularly that of their parents
D. Students investigate and explore their own inner self
E. It encourages students to fix their place in their life
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, D and E only

List I ICT Initiatives of Ministry ofList II Their benefits for students and
Human Resource Development researchers
I. To get hands-on experience in embedded
A. SWAYAM
system
II. To get free books and curriculum-based e-
B. SWAYAMPRABHA
content
III. To watch high-quality educational
C. e-PG Pathshala
programmes 24x7
D. e-Yantra IV. To earn credits through online courses
1. A – III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
2. A - IV, B - III C- II, D - I
3. A – II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
4. A - I, B - II, C – III, D - IV
46. Match List I with List II : List I consists of the Vedangas and List II contains subjects des in
them.
List I List II
(A) Nirukta (I) Phonetics
(B) Chhandas (II) Ritual
(C) Shiksha (III) Metrics
(D) Kalpa (TV) Etymology
(1) (A)-(II). (B)-(IV), (C)-(III). (D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(IV). (B)-(III). (C)-(I). (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(II). (B)-(I). (C)-(II). (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(I). (B)-(II). (C)-(IV). (D)-(III)

47. Which of the following explain the concept of values?
(A) Values are beliefs tied inextricably to human emotion and behaviour
(B) Values refer to desirable goals people strive to attain
(C) Values are conflict-free
(D) Values are ordered by importance relative to one another
(E) Values are utilized primarily to effect change in knowledge of a person
(1) (A). (B). (C) only
(2) (A). (B). (D) only
(3) (B). (C). (D) only
(4) (C). (D). (E) only
48. Which of the following come under the mandate of the University Grants Commission
(UGC)?
(A) Promotion and coordination of University education.
(B) Determining and monitoring standards of teaching, examination and research in
Universities.
(C) Organising continuous professional development programmes for college and
University teachers.
(D) Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
(E) Disbursing and regulating grants to the universities and colleges.
(1) (A). (B). (C). (D) only
(2) (B). (C). (D). (E) only
(3) (A). (C). (D). (E) only
(4) (A). (B). (D). (E) only

Statement I: Equality of educational opportunities is a pre-condition for achieving equity in
education.
Statement II: Equity in education can be achieved without equality of educational
opportunities.
below :
50. What are the advantages of Choice Based Credit System (CBCS) introduced by the UGC
for higher education institutions?
(A) Focuses on student-centric education
(B) Allows students to choose inter-disciplinary and intra-disciplinary courses.
(C) Makes education at par with global standards
(D) Makes it easy to estimate the performance levels of students in terms of marks.
(E) Offers flexibility for students to undertake studies at different times and at different
institutions.
(1) (A), (B). (C). (D) only
(2) (B). (C),(D). (E) only
(3) (A), (B), (C), (E) only
(4) (C). (D),(E),(A) only

51. India's first National Policy on Education was a sequel to the recommendations of which
of the following committee/commissions?
1. Kothari Commission
2. Mudaliyar Commission
3. Ramamurti Review Committee
4. Radhakrishnan Commission
52. 'NEAT' an MHRD scheme, aims at

1. Better learning outcomes in higher education
2. Facilitating medical entrance examination
3. Better financial resource management
4. Promoting 'SWATCHH' campuses under Swatchh Bharat Abhiyan
53. The first National Sports University (a Central Government University) is in the state of
1. Haryana
2. Manipur
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Punjab
54. Which of the following committees/commissions in their report recommended that

science Education and Research should receive high priority to accelerate national
economy?
1. Acharya Narendra Dev Committee
2. Mudaliyar Commission
3. Radhakrishnan Commission
4. Kothari Commission

as Reason R
Assertion A: Global emissions of carbon dioxide stagnated during the years 2014-2016
Reason R: Strong energy efficiency improvement measures and low carbon technologies
were deployed during 2014-2016
given below
1. Both A and R are correct and R s the correct explanation of A
4. A is not: correct but R is correct
56. A predatory journal is the one whose publishers

1. Publish for a fee with substandard or no peer reviewing
2. The publishers of journals have acquired the publishers of journals in similar
disciplinary domains
3. Publish without a fee but with proper reviewing
4. Insist on charging a fee for publishing after the manuscript has been accepted
for publication with proper reviewing and editing
57. The ancient Indian University famous for specialized study in 'Hinayana' was
1. Nadia University
2. Nalanda University
3. Vadlabhi University
4. Vikramsila University
58. Identify the non-conventional learning programmes:

i) Gerontology
ii) Psychology
iii) Ethical hacking

iv) Anthropology
v) Pet Groomers
1. i). ii) and iii)
2. ii). iii) and iv)
3. iii). iv) and v)
4. i). iii) and v)
59. Identify Key result areas of the Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood
Promotion (SANKALP) project:
(i). Institutional strengthening
(i). Promotion of handicraft and carpet sector skills
(ii). Quality Assurance
(iii). Inclusion
(iv). Overseas Employment through an agency
(v). Expanding skills through Public Private Partnership (PPPs)
1. (i). (ii). (iii) and (iv)
2. (i). (iii). (iv) and (v)
3. (ii). (iv). (v) and (vi)
4. (i). (iii). (iv) and (vi)
60. Identify reform related areas of governance listed by the NITI Aayog in the Three Year
Action Agenda (2017-18 to 2019 - 20) exclusively:
(i). Environmental
(ii). Civil Services
(iii). Electoral
(iv). Corruption related
(v). Information and Communication Technology
2. (ii). (iii) and (iv)
4. (i). (iv) and (v)

61. In the context of value education, which of the following stages will be considered a
relatively advanced stage?
1. Value collection through imitation
2. Value assessment through inner evaluation
3. Value clarification through exposure
4. Value consolidation through integration
2020 June || Electronic Science | Labour Welfare | Population Studies | Visual

Arts |
62. Paravidya, according to the Vedic tradition, implies:

(1) Knowledge based on human experience
(2) Knowledge that transcends human experience
(3) Knowledge acquired from teachers
(4) Knowledge acquired from texts.
63. The underlying purpose of environmental education is to :

(A) Adjust to environmental challenges
(B) Help face environmental hazards
(C) Promote individual's critical-thinking about emerging issues
(D) Increase public awareness and knowledge of environmental issues.
(E) Enhance problem-solving and decision-making skills in respect of handling
environmental issues.
(1) (A). (B). (C) only
(2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (C). (D). (E) only
(4) (D). (E). (A) only

64. MHRD. Govt, of India, scheme 'RUSA' supports the following components:
(A) Upgrading autonomous colleges to the status of a University
(B) Providing maintenance grants to state Universities
(C) Setting up of new professional colleges in un-served and under-served areas of the
country
(D) Providing infrastructure grants to colleges and universities to scale up capacity
(E) More scholarship programmes to supplement the cost of education
(1) (A). (B). (D) and (E) only
(2) (A). (B), (C) and (E) only
(3) (B). (C). (D) and (E) only
(4) (A). (C). (D) and (E) only
65. Which of the following ICT initiatives of MHRD deal with E-governance for
institutions/universities?
(1) SAMARTH
(2) VIDWAN
(3) IRINS
(4) SWAYAM
66. A ’De-novo' institution is characterized by

(1) ICT enabled pedagogy
(2) focus on teaching and research in unique and emerging areas of knowledge
(3) focus on teaching and research on foreign languages and their literature
(4) state of art infrastructure


Statement I: A deemed to be university is a non-affiliating university
Statement II: The teacher-student ratio in a deemed to be university must not be less than
1:10
Question Number: 42 Question Id : 2105299110 (mistake question)

68. When did the United Nations Environmental Program (UNEP) and the international
Program in Environmental Education (IEEP) come into existence?
1. 1972
2. 1975
3. 1932
4. 1992 .
69. According to the census of 2011, which state/union territory had the maximum number
of graduates in relation to its population?
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Daman and Diu
4. Chandigarh
70. The full form of 'MEAT' a recently launched scheme of MMRD. Government of India, is
1. National Engineering Aptitude Test
2. National Educational Alliance for Technology
3. National Education Alliance for Testing
4. National English Aptitude Test

71. An Inter-University Center for Yogic sciences has been set up by University Grants
Commission in the state of
1. Karnataka
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Uttrakhand
Himachal Pradesh

Statement E: An institution in the field of higher education seeking deemed to be university
status must have been in existence for at least 10 years
Statement M: A deemed to be university must have at least five post-graduate departments
73. According to National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF), the level 8 competency is
equivalent to
1. Post graduate degree
2. Under graduate degree
3. Under graduate (honors) degree
4. Doctoral degree
74. MHRD's scheme 'VIDWAN', is aimed at

1. Creating a database and national research network
2. Making available e-resources
3. Promoting entrepreneurship among faculty
4. Awarding national professorship to a faculty

75. In ancient India, the eligibility criterion in respect of age for students seeking admission
to Takshhshila University was set at
1. 22 years
2. 20 years
3. 18 years
4. 16 years
76. Kothari Commission had recommended a certain percentage of national income to be

invested in education, What was that percentage?
1. 10%
2. 8%
3. 6%
4. 5%
2020 June || Environmental Sciences | Performing Art Dance Drama Theatre |

Sanskrit Traditional Subjects | Santali | Women Studies |

Statement I: The three greatest challenges facing higher education in India, described by
FICCI (2012) are expansion, equity and excellence
Statement II: While all three issues indicated in Statement I are inter-linked, equity to a
large extent is dependent on expansion and access
given below

78. Which of the following are regulatory bodies within the Department of Higher Education
in the Ministry of Human Resource Development in the Central Government?
A. NUEPA
B. UGC
C. AICTE
D. DEC
E. ICSSR
1. B, C and D only
2. A, Bard C only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, D and E only
79. Identify from the following, features which describe most appropriately the Indian
values
A. Emphasis on individual ambition
B. Emphasis on collectivism
C. Emphasis on social progress
D. Emphasis on social stability
E. Emphasis on unity in diversity
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. B, D and E only

Statement I: The UGC in India has statutory responsibility for
maintenance of quality and coordination of institutions of higher education
Statement II: The NCTE being a regulatory body for teacher
education in India comes under the control of UGC

given below
81. In university governance, who is the executive head?

1. The Chancellor
2. The Vice-Chancellor
3. The Registrar
4. The Education Secretary
82. The teaching in the universities of ancient India was controlled by board of eminent
teachers. The affairs of which university were administered by the Board of Vikramsila
University?
1. Jagaddala University
2. Valabhi University
3. Nalanda University
4. Odantapuri University
83. For research in policy relevant areas, which of the following organizations is entrusted
with the initiative 'Impress'?
1. IIAS
2. ICSSR
3. ICPR
4. ICHR

84. Which of the following is a residential center for free and creative enquiry into the
fundamental themes and problems of life and thought?
1. Dr Zakir Hussain Memorial College Trust
2. Sri Lai Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth
3. Indian Institute of Advanced Study
4. National Assessment and Accreditation Council
85. Capturing the imagination and initiative of the student is of crucial importance in
1. Case method of teaching
2. Concept Mapping
3. Peer instruction
4. Quizzes
86. A vital role in human resource development of a country centered on skilled manpower,
productivity and the quality of life of its people is focused on which of the following
domains?
1. Professional education
2. Formal education
3. Lifelong education
4. Technical education
2020 June || Hindi (1) |
87. In order to be eligible for the status of 'Deemed to be University', an institution, among
other essential conditions, must have to its credit, which of the following?
1. At least 2 research publications in peer reviewed or SCOPUSAVOS journals
per year per faculty
2. At least 5 research publications in peer reviewed or SCOPUSAVOS journals
per year per faculty.

3. At least 1 research publication in peer reviewed or SCOPUSAVOS journals per
year per faculty.
4. At least 3 research publications in peer reviewed journals per year per faculty
88. Which of the following schemes of Government of India aims to support innovative
research projects that are socially relevant, locally need based, nationally important and
globally significant?
1. SPAEC
2. STRIDE
3. IMPRESS
4. STARS
89. Under GATS. higher education policies are to be framed by which of the following
Departments?
1. Education
2. External Affairs
3. Commerce and Trade
4. Urban Planning
90. Which of the following are the main recommendations of 'Knowledge Commission' with
regard to higher education in India?
(a) More regulatory institutions
(b) Closure of private universities
(c) Massive expansion of higher education.
(d) Focus on affirmative action
(e) Efforts to achieve excellence
(f) Nationalisation of higher education
Choose the correct answer from the options given below'
2. Only (b), (d) and (f)
4. Only (d). (e) and (f)

91. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).(mistake question)
Assertion (A): Central Universities are considered elite higher education institutions in India.
Reason (R): Despite their elitist image, these institutions do not find place in the top order of
international ranking.
In the fight of the above two statements choose the correct answer from the options given
below
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
92. In the fight of the above two statements choose the correct answer from the options
given below (mistake Question)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
2020 June || Hindi (2) |
93. The Tenth Five Year Plan approach paper on higher education focussed on
1. Internationalisation
2. Ruralisation
3. Universalisation
4. ICT orientation

94. The highest college density, i.e. the highest number of colleges per lakh eligible
population in the age group of 18-23 years is in which of the following states?
1. Bihar
2. Karnataka
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Gujarat
95. UGC-CARE has been set up for promoting

a) Quality research
b) Academic integrity
c) Publication ethics
d) Inclusion and access
e) International collaborative research
1. Only (a), (b), (c) and (e)
2. Only (b), (c) and (d)
3. Only (b), (c) and (e)
96. Abbreviation HEFA stands for

1. Higher Education Finance Academy
2. Higher Education Finance Agency
3. Higher Education Framework Association
4. Higher Education Funding Agency
97. The concept of community college ensures which of the following?

a) Life skill engagement
b) Lateral entry into higher education system
c) Educational opportunities for rural students

d) Providing employment to the educated unemployed
e) Expansion of local colleges
f) Preparing the youth for lower level employment market
2. Only (b), (c) and (d)
3. Only (c), (d) and (e)
4. Only (d), (e) and (f)
98. What is the correct decreasing order of research paper publications among the following
BEICS countries?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) South Africa
(D) Russia
99. MHRD. Government of India, initiative e-ShodhSindhu provides students and

researchers access to
(1) Indian Ph.D. thesis in electronic form
(2) e-journals
(3) Plagiarism software
(4) Open source software for training in analytical techniques
100. Which of the following ancient educational institutions was situated at the banks of
river Ganga?
(1) Nalanda University
(2) Pushpagiri University
(3) Vikramshila University
(4) Takshashila University

101. As per National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF). undergraduate B.Voc. degree
programme requires completion of how many credits of Course Work?
(1) 60 Credits
(2) 80 Credits
(3) 120 Credits
(4) 180 Credits
102. MHRD. Government of India. Scheme- 'ARIIA' stands for

(1) Atal Ranking of Institutions on Innovation Achievements
(2) Atal Research Initiative on Innovation and Academics
(3) Academic Ranking of Indian Institutions Achievements
(4) Atal Ranking of Indian Institutions Achievements
103. The Chinese scholars, l-Qing and Xuan Zang visited ancient Nalanda University during
1. 5Th century CE
2. 7th century CE
3, 10th century CE
4, 12th century CE
104. In which year, the Union Government decided that all cases pertaining to the allocation
of grants-in-aid from public funds to the Central Universities and other universities and
institutions of higher learning might be referred to the University Grants Commission?
1. 1952
2. 1953
3. 1954
4. 1956

Statement I: Universities are established by Central/State Act under 2(f) of the UGC Act,
1956
Statement II: Deemed to be University is declared by a Notification of the Central
Government, on the advice of the UGC, under section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956
given below
106. According to the International Commission on Education for the Twenty-first Century
headed by Jacques Delors, which of the following main tensions will be witnessed during the
21st century?
A. The tension between the global and the local
B. The tension between tradition and modernity
C. The tension between the spiritual and the material
D. The tension between the poor and the rich
E. The tension between the developed and the developing societies
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, D and E only

List I Categories of environmental
List II Examples of those objectives
education objectives
I. To help social groups and individuals identify and
A. Environmental Awareness
solve environmental problems
II. To help social groups and individuals acquire a
B. Environmental Knowledge
set of values for the environment
III. To help social groups and individuals acquire a
C. Environmental Attitude
sensitivity to the total environment
IV. To help social groups and individuals gain a
D. Environmental Skill variety of experience in environment and its
associated problems
1. A - II, B -1, C - III, D – IV
2. A -I, B - III, C - IV, D – II
3. A - IV, B - II, C -1, D – III
4. A - III, B - IV, C - II, D -1
108. Which one of the following ancient universities provided for the teaching of a special
subject ‘Vajarayana Buddhism' along with other subjects?
1. Mithila University
2. Jagaddala University
3. NaSanda University
4. Odantapuri University
109. In the university education system as prevalent now, which of the following
bodies/committees looks after formal approval of curriculum and courses of study?
1. University Executive Council/Board of Management
2. Academic council of the concerned university
3. Board of studies
4. University Court

110. The action plan arising from the Academic and Administrative Reforms Committee
appointed by the UGC with Prof A. Gnanam as its convener included which of the following?
A. Choice-based credit system:
B. Vocationalization of higher education
C. Curriculum development
D. Deciding on the number of student-faculty contact hours during a semester
E. Skill-based courses and programmes
1. A, B and C only
2. A, C and D only
3. B, C and D only
4. C D and E only
111. For the introduction of the concept of Total Quality Management (TQM) in universities,
which of the following will be considered helpful?
A. System’s thinking
B. Participatory management
C. Rigorous admission procedures
D. SWOC (Strength, Weakness, Opportunity and Challenge analysis)
E. Introduction of skill-development programmes
1. A, B and D only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. C, D and E only

Statement I: Yoga is the onion of body with the mind and of the mind with the soul
Statement II: Goth value education and environmental education can be integral to yoga
programmes being conducted at the school / college-level
given below
3. Statement I is correct but Statement .I is incorrect
113. The prominent women scholars reported during the Vedic period are:
(A) Gargi
(B) Maitreyi
(C) Sanghamitra
(D) Viswambhara
(E) Apala
(1) (A). (B). (C), (D) only
(2) (B), (C). (D). (E) only
(3) (A). (B). (D), (E) only
(4) (A). (C), (D). (E) only
114. Which is the highest body to advise central and state governments on education?
(1) UGC
(2) CABE
(3) NSDA
(4) NIEPA

115. Which of the following form part of criteria for assessment of higher education
institutions as laid down by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)?
(A) Curricular aspects
(B) Teaching-learning and Evaluation
(C) Continuous improvement in attainment, of outcomes
(D) Research, innovation and extension
(E) Facilities and Technical support
(1) (A), (B). (C) only
(2) (A), (B), (D) only
(3) (C). (D), (E) only
(4) (D). (E). (A) only
116. In the context of skill based/vocational education. NSQF competency level S is

equivalent to
(1) Undergraduate (Hons.) degree
(2) Masters (Post-graduate) degree
(3) Advanced Diploma
(4) Doctorate degree

Statement I: Board of studies is the basic unit of the academic system of the University.
Statement II: The responsibilities of the Board of studies include planning, coordination and
review of the academic programmes of university.
below:

ANSWER KEY 2018DDEC-2019DEC HIGHER EDUCATION.
1B 25D 49D 73B 97A 121C
2B 26B 50B 74C 98D 122A
3A 27A 51C 75C 99 123C
4C 28C 52B 76A 100B 124B
5B 29D 53D 77C 101A 125C
6C 30C 54C 78B 102B 126A
7B 31B 55C 79C 103D 127B
8B 32D 56A 80B 104A 128C
9D 33A 57B 81C 105B 129A
10D 34B 58C 82B 106D 130A
11C 35C 59C 83B 107C 131B
12C 36B 60B 84D 108A 132C
13D 37C 61C 85C 109D 133D
14C 38C 62B 86B 110B 134A
15B 39A 63D 87A 111B 135B
16C 40A 64C 88A 112D 136D
17C 41C 65B 89D 113B 137A
18A 42D 66A 90C 114C 138A
19C 43C 67B 91A 115D 139C
20B 44B 68B 92B 116B 140A
21C 45C 69A 93C 117C 141C
22C 46D 70A 94A 118D 142D
23C 47C 71C 95C 119D 143B
24C 48C 72A 96C 120C 144B

ANSWER KEY.JUNE: 2020.HIGHER EDUCATION
1.2 11.3 21.3 31.4 41.1 51.1 61.4 71.1 81.2 91.2 101.4 111.1
2.3 12.3 22.4 32.2 42.4 52.1 62.2 72.4 82.3 92.2 102.1 112.1
3.3 13.2 23.2 33.3 43.3 53.2 63.3 73.3 83.2 93.1 103.2 113.3
4.1 14.2 24.3 34.3 44.3 54.4 64.4 74.1 84.3 94.2 104.1 114.2
5.4 15.4 25.1 35.1 45.2 55.1 65.1 75.4 85.1 95.4 105.1 115.2
6.2 16.4 26.2 36.4 46.2 56.1 66.2 76.3 86.4 96.2 106.1 116.1
7.1 17.3 27.2 37.3 47.2 57.3 67.3 77.1 87.1 97.1 107.4 117.3
8.3 18.2 28.3 38.2 48.4 58.4 68 78.1 88.2 98 108.2
9.1 19.1 29.4 39.1 49.3 59.4 69.4 79.4 89.3 99.2 109.2
10.2 20.2 30.2 40.4 50.3 60.2 70.2 80.3 90.3 100.3 110.2


Apple B Question Bank Complete.

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Apple B Question Bank Complete.

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Apple B Question Bank Complete.

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching

BUY NOW  : Economics | Paper 1 | English | Commerce | Management

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching

2018 December||Adult Education| Anthropology| Chinese| Comparative Literature|

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 1

2018 December||Arab Culture and Islamic Studies| Bengali | Bodo| Environmental

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 2

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 3

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 4

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 5

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 6

Q20. Which among the following best describes emotional

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 7

Q22. The goal of formative assessment is to:

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 8

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 9

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 10

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 11

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 12

Q35. In the following characteristics of an evaluation procedure, identify those which

(e) The aim of evaluation is to improve the process of teaching.

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 13

2018 December||Education|Kannada| Law| Population Studies| Public Administration|

Q36. Which among the following is a cognitive characteristic of learner ?

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 14

Q43. Among the following which one is not instructional material ?

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 15

2018 December|| Malayalam|Political Science| Sociology| Tamil|

Q47. Assignment method of teaching is a combination of which of the following ?

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 16

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 17

Q51. Peer group interaction in a classroom helps in

Q53. Reﬂective Practice implies use of one’s

Q54. Inclusive education implies

Q55. Listening is important for a teacher to

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 18

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 19

2019 June|| Arabic | Geography|Gujarati|Nepali|Psychology|Punjabi|

(3) Using direct and indirect questioning

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 20

Q64. What are the elements of evaluation plan?

Q66. Which of the following is a social characteristic of a learner?

Q67. Which is the characteristic of formative evaluation?

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 21

Q70. Which among the following is a non-cognitive characteristic of learner?

2019 June ||Assamese | Computer Science and Applications|Criminology|Human Rights

Q71. To organize discussion method in teaching effectively, which of the following

Q72. Who developed the theory of ‘Multiple Intelligence’?

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 22

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 23

Q78. What is the main objective of formative evaluation?

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 24

2019 June ||Defence and Strategic Studies | Dogri|Economics|Electronic Science |Marathi

Options (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q82. Diagnostic Evaluation ascertains

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 25

2019 June || Education | Kannada|Law|Population Studies|Public

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 26

Classroom Coaching and Online Coaching Page 27