Iit Jee Adv Test
Iit Jee Adv Test
TESTS PACKAGE
PCM CHAPTER TEST (75) INDEX AND
SAMPLE WITH SOLUTIONS.
PART TEST (8 WITH 2 PAPER EACH)
SYLLABUS AND SAMPLE WITH
SOLUTIONS.
FULL TEST (4 WITH 2 PAPER EACH)
SAMPLE WITH SOLUTIONS.
INDEX- IIT JEE ADVANCED
CHEMISTRY-CHAPTER TEST
Have patience all things are difficult before they become easy.
Marking Scheme:
(i) For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
(ii) For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
(iii) For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
(iv) For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative
marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
(v) For each question in Section V, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer
and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
(vi) For each question in Section VI, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
SECTION - I
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.
Q.1 Calculate f G° for (NH4Cl, s) at 310 K.
Given f H° (NH4Cl, s) = – 314.5 kJ/mol, rCp = 0
S N2 (g) 192 JK 1mol1 , SH2 (g) 130.5 JK 1mol1 , SCl2 (g) 233 JK 1mol1 , S NH4Cl(s) 99.5 JK 1mol1
All given data at 300 K.
(A) – 198.56 kJ/mol (B) – 426.7 kJ/mol (C) – 202.3 kJ/mol (D) None of these
3
Q.2 A gas C v,m R behaving ideally was allowed to expand reversible and adiabatically from 1 litre to 32 litre. It’s initial
2
temperature was 327°C. The molar enthalpy change (in J/mol) for the process is –
(A) – 1125 R (B) – 675 R (C) – 1575 R (D) None of these
Q.3 Calculate S for 3 mole of a diatomic ideal gas which is heated and compressed from 298 K and 1 bar to 596 K and 4 bar :
5
[Given : C v,m (gas) R , ln (2) = 0.70, R = 2 cal K–1 mol–1]
2
(A) – 14.7 cal K–1 (B) + 14.7 cal K–1 (C) – 4.9 cal K–1 (D) 6.3 cal K–1
Q.4 The enthalpy of neutralization of a weak monoprotic acid (HA) in 1M solution with a strong base is – 55.95 kJ/mol. If the
unionized acid is required 1.4 kJ/mol heat for it’s complete ionization and enthalpy of neutralization of the strong monobasic acid
with a strong monoacidic base is – 57.3 kJ/mol. What is the % ionization of the weak acid in molar solution ?
(A) 1% (B) 3.57% (C) 35.7% (D) 10%
Q.5 A rigid and insulated tank of 3m3 volume is divided into two compartments. One compartment of volume of 2m3 contains an
ideal gas at 0.8314 MP and 400 K and while the second compartment of volume 1m3 contains the gas at 8.314 Mpa and 500K..
If the partition between the two compartments is ruptured, the final temperature of the gas is –
(A) 420 K (B) 450 K (C) 480 K (D) None of these
Q.6 Calculate the entropy change (S) per mole for the following reactions:
(a) Combusiton of hydrogen in a fuel cell at 298 K
H2(g) + ½ O2(g) H2O (g) ; H = – 241.6 kJ, G = – 228.4 kJ
(b) Vaporisation of methanol at its normal boiling point.
CH3OH () CH3OH (g); Hvap = 23.9 kJ , boiling point = 338 K
(c)Fusion of ice at its normal melting point, Ice Water ; Hfusion = 6.025 kJ, melting point = 0ºC
(A) – 44.3 JK–1, 70 JK-1 , 22 JK–1 (B) – 24.3 JK–1, 60 JK-1 , 11 JK–1
(C) – 14.3 JK , 50 JK , 32 JK
–1 -1 –1 (D) – 54.3 JK–1, 40 JK-1 , 21 JK–1
Q.7 How much heat is produced when 4.50g methane gas is burnt in a constant pressure system.
Given : CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O ; H = – 802 KJ
(A) 225.6 KJ (B) 125.6 KJ (C) 175.6 KJ (D) 325.6 KJ
Q.8 The specific heats of iodine vapours and solid are 0.031 and 0.055 Cal/g respectively. If heat of sublimation of iodine is 24Cal/
g at 200º, What is its value at 250ºC.
(A) 22.8 Cal/g (B) 11.2 Cal/g (C) 12.8 Cal/g (D) 24.4 Cal/g
SECTION - II
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions . Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which one or more
answers are correct.
Q.9 Assume ideal gas behaviour for all the gases considered and neglect vibrational degrees of freedom. Separate equimolar
samples of Ne, O2, CO2 and SO2 were subjected to a two process as mentioned. Initially all are at same state of temperature and
pressure.
Step I : All undergo reversible adiabatic expansion to attain same final volume, which is double the original volume thereby
causing the decreases in their temperature.
Step II : After step I all are given appropriate amount of heat isochorically to restore the original temperature.
Mark the correct option(s) :
(A) Due to step I only, the decrease in temperature will be maximum for Ne
(B) During step II, heat given will be minimum for SO2
(C) There will be no change in internal energy for any of the gas after both the steps of process are completed
(D) The P-V graph of O2 and CO2 will be same
Q.10 One mole of an ideal gas is subjected to a two step reversible process (A–B and B–C). The pressure at A and C is same. Mark
the correct statement(s) –
C(1, 300)
T(K)
Passage (Q.15-Q.17)
The contribution of both heat (enthalpy and randomness (entropy) shall be considered to the overall spontaneity of a process.
When deciding about the spontaneity of a chemical reaction or other process, we define a quantity called the Gibb's energy
change (G).
G = H – T S
where, H = Enthalpy change, S = Entropy change, T = Temperature in kelvin.
If G < 0, process in spontaneous ; G = 0, process in at equilibrium ; G > 0, process is non-spontaneous.
Q.15 For the change H2O (s, 273K, 2 atm) H2O (, 273K, 2atm), choose the correct option –
(A) G = 0 (B) G < 0 (C) G > 0 (D) None
Q.16 5 mol of liquid water is compressed from 1 bar to 10 bar at constant temperature. Change in Gibb's energy (G) in joule is –
[Density of water = 1000 kg/m3]
(A) 18 (B) 225 (C) 450 (D) 900
Q.17 Quick lime, CaO is produced by heating limestone, CaCO3 to drive off CO2 gas.
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g), (H°) = 180KJ, S° = 150 J/K
Assuming variation of enthalpy change and entropy change with temperature to be negligible, choose the correct option –
(A) Decomposition of CaCO3(s) is never spontaneous.
(B) Decomposition of CaCO3(s) becomes spontaneous when temperature is less than 900°C.
(C) Decomposition of CaCO3(s) becomes non-spontaneous when temperature is greater than 1000°C.
(D) Decomposition of CaCO3(s) becomes spontaneous when temperature is greater than 927°C.
SECTION - IV
This section contains match the column question . Four statements (A, B, C and D) are given in column I and four/five
statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in column I can have correct matching with one or more
statement(s) given in column II.
Q.18 Match the column –
Column I Column II
(A) Isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas (p) Ssys = 0
(B) Vapourisation of a liquid at its boiling point at 1 atm. (q) U = 0
(C) Adiabatic reversible compression involving an ideal gas (r) G = 0
(D) Combustion of CH4 in sealed rigid adiabatic container (s) w = 0
(t) q = 0
SECTION - V
This section contains 5 questions . The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
Q.19 A cooking gas cylinder is assumed to contain 112kg isobutane. The combustion of isobutane is given by-
13
C4H10 (g) + O2 (g) 4CO2 (g) + 5H2O() ; H = – 2658 KJ
2
If a family needs 15000 KJ of energy per day for cooking, the cylinder would last for (17 × x) days. Find the value of x.
Q.20 From the following data of H of the following reacts as,
C (s) + ½ O2 (g) CO (g) ; H = –110 kJ
and C (s) + H2O (g) CO (g) + H2 (g) ; H = 132 kJ.
The mole ratio of the mixture of oxygen and steam on being passed over coke at 1273K, keeping the reaction temperature
constant is 0.6 : x. Find the value of x.
Q.21 In an exothermic reaction X Y, the activation energy of reverse reaction is twice that of forward reaction. If enthalpy of the
reaction is –80 kJmol–1, the activation energy of the reverse reaction is (80 × A) kJ mol–1 Find the value of A.
Q.22 8.21dm3 of NH3 at 500K and 1 atm expands adiabatically upto 0.5atm against a constant external pressure of 0.5atm. The
magnitude of change in internal energy (in calories) is 25 × x. Find the value of x.
(Assume that NH3 behaves as an ideal gas and vibration degrees of freedom are inactive.)
(R = 2 cal mol–1 K–1 = 0.0821 atm-lit K–1mol–1)
Q.23 The net work done through a series of changes represented in figure for an ideal gas is –7 × 10x J. Find the value of x.
B C
3
P
(in Pa) E F
1 A D
G H
1 3 5 7
V (in m3)
SECTION - VI
This section contains 2 questions. Each questions contain STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement- 1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement -1
(B) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True, Statement- 2 is False
(D) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is True
Q.24 Statement 1 : The enthalpies of neutralisation of strong acids and strong bases are always same.
Statement 2 : Neutralisation is heat of formation of water.
Q.25 Statement 1 : Entropy of ice is less than water.
Statement 2 : Ice have cage like structure.
Subject : Chemistry Topic : Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry [SOLUTIONS]
(1) (A).
f S° for (NH4Cl, s) at 300 K.
1 1
= SNH 4Cl(s) SN 2 2SH 2 SCl2 = – 374 JK–1 mol–1
2 2
r Cp = 0
f S310
f S300
= – 374 JK–1 mol–1
f H310
f H300
= – 314.5
310 (374)
f G 310
f H 310S = –314.5 – = – 198.56 kJ/mol
1000
1 7 2
T2 V1 1 5
1
1 5
; T2 T1 600 5 = 600 (0.5)2 = 150 K
T1 V2
(2) (A).
32 2
5
Hm = R (150 600) 1125 R
2
T P 7 596 1
(3) (D). S = nCp,m ln 2 + nR ln 1 = 3 R ln 3R ln = 6.3 cal K–1
T1 P2 2 298 4
(4) (B). HA –––– H+ + A– ; r H = 1.4 kJ/mol
H neutralization Hionization r H (H+ + OH– –– H2O)
–55.95 = Hionization – 57.3
Hionization for 1M HA = 1.35 kJ/mol
1.35
% heat utilized by 1M acid for ionization = 100 = 96.43%
1.4
so, acid is 100 – 96.43 = 3.57% ionized.
(5) (C). Mole of the gas in the first compartment
PV 0.8314 106 2
n1 1 1 500
RT1 8.314 400
Similarly, n2 = 2000
The tank is rigid and insulated hence w = 0 and q = 0 therefore U = 0
Let Tf and Pf denote the final temperature and pressure respectively.
U = n1CV,m [Tf – T1] + n2CV,m [Tf – T2] = 0
500 (Tf – 400) + 2000 (Tf – 500) = 0
Tf = 480 K
(6) (A). (a) According to the reaction .
H G
G = H – TS of S =
T
Given that G = – 228.4 kJ, H = – 241.6 kJ and T = 298 K
Substituting the values, we get
(241.6kJ) ( 228.4kJ)
S = 298 K = – 0.0443 kJ K–1 = – 44.3 JK–1
(b) Vaporisation represents a state of equilibrium between the liquid and the vapour state of the substance. At this state G =
H
0 so that H = TS or S =
T
Here H = 23.9 kJ . T = 338 K
23.9kJ
S = = 0.070 kJ K-1 = 70 JK-1
338K
(c) Fusion represent a state of equilibrium between ice and water. At this state.
H
G = 0 so that H = TS or S =
T
Here H = 6.025 kJ and T = 273 K
6.025kJ
S = = 0.0220 kJ K–1 = 22 JK–1
273K
(7) (A). Given CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O ; H = – 802 KJ
16g CH4 on burning produces heat = – 802KJ
802 4.5
4.5 g CH4 on burning produces heat = = 225.6 KJ
16
(8) (A). I2 (solid) I2 (vapour) ;H = 24 Cal/g at 200ºC
Cp = Cp of product – Cp of reactant
Cp = 0.031 – 0.055 = – 0.024 Cal/g
H2 – H1 = Cp(T2 – T1)
H2 – 24 = – 0.024 (523 – 473)
H2 = 22.8 Cal/g
(9) (ACD). First step is adiabatic (q = 0) so U1 = w1
Second step is isochoric (w = 0)
So, U2 = q2
initial and final temp. are same
Utotal = U1 + U2 = 0 or w1 + q2 = 0
Max. work done by the gas, SO2 is (area) under the curve so, SO2 absorbed
SO2 CO2 O2 Ne
So, max. decrease in temp. of Ne due to step 1.
1 R 100
(10) (ACD). At VA = 100R
1
1 R 600
VB 200R
3
VB > VA so expansion of gas takes place
VB = 200 × 0.0821 = 16.42 L
(11) (ABC). Option (D) is the statement of third law of thermodynamics.
(12) (B), (13) (C), (14) (B).
(i) PV = nRT 2 × 8 = 2 × 0.080 × T
T = 100 K
P 1
wrev = – 2.303 × n × R × T log 1 = – 2.303 × 2 × 0.08 × 100 × log 10 = 36.848 bar-L
P2
nRT nRT
(ii) wirr = – Pext (V2 – V1) = – 20 P P = 144 bar-L
2 1
nRT nRT 20 nRT nRT
(iii) wirr (total) = w1 + w2 = 10 20 10
= = 5 × nRT = 80 bar-L
-L
10 2
(15) (B), (16) (D), (17) (D).
(i) H2O H2O ()
As P , more H2O () is formed.
At P = 1 atm, G = 0
(ii) G = V (P2 – P1) = 5 × 18 × 10–6 (101 – 1) × 105 Joule
= 5 × 18 × 10–1 × 102 = 900 Joule
H 180 103
(iii) T 1200K
S 150
Temperature = 1200 – 273 = 927°C
For G < 0m T > 927°C
(18) (A) – q, (B) – r, (C) pt, (D) – qst
(A) For isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas change in internal energy is zero
(B) For vapourisation of a liquid at its boiling point at 1 atm G = 0
(C) For adiabatic reversible comperssion involving an ideal gas Ssys = 0 and q = 0
(D) For combustion of CH4 in sealed rigid adiabatic container U = 0, w = 0 and q = 0
(19) 2. 58 g isobutane provides energy = 2658 KJ
11.2 × 103 g isobutane provides energy
T2 T1
nCv (T2 – T1) = –Pext (V2 – V1) = – 0.5 × nR P P
2 1
T2 T1
Cv (T2 – T1) = – 0.5 × R P P
2 1
T2 500
Cv (T2 – T1) = – 0.5 R
0.5 1
6
3 (T2 – 500) = – T2 + 500 (Cv = R = 3R
2
4T2 = 1750
1750
T2 437.5
4
U = nCvT = 0.2 × 3R (437.5 – 500) = – 75 cal
(23) 5. 1Pa = 1 × 105 N/M2
Net work done = Area covered by PV curve
= Area of ABE + Area of square BCFE + Area of CDF
1 1
= 2 (3 10 1 10 ) (3 1) + {3 × 105 – 1 × 105) (5 – 3} + 2 (3 10 1 10 ) (6 5)
5 5 5 5
1 5 1 5
= 4 10 {4 10 } 2 10 = –7 × 105 J
5
2 2
(24) (A). The enthalpies of neutralisation of strong acids and strong bases are same they are 13.7 Kcal. The reason is that it is heat
of formation of water from H+ and OH– ions.
H OH H 2 O, H 13.7 Kcal
Thus, both S-1 and S-2 are true.
(25) (B). Entropy of ice is less than water because water molecules in solid state lose kinetic energy and hence their tendency of
movement minimise. Hence entropy decrease in solid state. The reason that ice have cage like structure is also correct but
reason is not or correct explanation for assertion.
CHAPTER TEST
Subject : Maths Topic : Integrals M.M. : 80
Have patience all things are difficult before they become easy.
Marking Scheme:
(i) For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
(ii) For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
(iii) For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
(iv) For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative
marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
(v) For each question in Section V, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer
and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
(vi) For each question in Section VI, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
SECTION - I
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.
/4
Q.1 cos ec 2x dx =
/6
1
(A) log 3 (B) log 3 (C) log 9 (D) log 3
2
2
|x|
Q.2 x dx equals
1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
x .e
1
x4
Q.3 Find
3
dx
1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
10
3
(sin x cos x) dx
Q.4 Evaluate .
10
6
(x sin x cos x ) 2 dx
x2
Q.7 Evaluate:
x sec x x sec x
(A) tan x c (B) tan x c
x sin x cos x x sin x cos x
x sec x
(C) tan x c (D) None of these
x sin x cos x
SECTION - II
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions . Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which one or more
answers are correct.
Q.9 If I n e x (sin x) n dx (n N 1) then –
0
n (n 1) n (n 1) I I
(A) In In 2 (B) In In 1 (C) 101 10 90 (D) 82 10 90
n 1
2 (n 1) 1
2
I8 I9
1 x
Q.10 dx is equal to
1 x
(x tx
1
2
Q.11 Let f (x) = x + ) f (t) dt . Then which of the following alternative (s) is/are correct –
1
f (x) 2 1
(A) xlim (B) f 1
0 3
(C) f is continuous and derivable on R (D) maximum value of f (x) does not exist
SECTION - III
This section contains paragraph. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct.
Passage (Q.12-Q.14)
x 1 dx
1
ex
Let A = then answer the following questions in terms of A.
0
x 1 dx
1
x 2 ex
Q.12 equals –
0
(A) A – e (B) e – 2 + A (C) 2 + A (D) 2 – e + A
x 1 e dx equals –
1 2
Q.13 x x
0
e e e e
(A) A (B) 1 A (C) A (D) A 1
2 2 2 2
(x 1)3 e
1
x3 x
Q.14 dx equals –
0
e 3e A 9e
(A) 2 A (B) 3A (C) 3 (D) None of these
2 2 2 8
Passage (Q.15-Q.17)
Consider the integral
10
cos 6x.cos 7x.cos 8x.cos 9x
I= dx
2sin3 4x
0 1 e
/2
Q.15 If I = k cos 6x.cos 7x.cos8x.cos 9x dx then k is equal to –
0
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 20
/4
Q.16 If I c cos 6x.cos8x.cos 2x dx then c equals –
0
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 5/2
Q.17 The value of I equals –
5 5 5 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 16 32 8
SECTION - IV
This section contains match the column question . Four statements (A, B, C and D) are given in column I and four/five
statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in column I can have correct matching with one or more
statement(s) given in column II.
Q.18 Match the column –
Column I Column II
1 cos x dx
x sin x
(A) If F (x) = and F (0) = 0, then values equal to and greater than F (/2) = (p) –/2
k 3e /6
(B) Let F (x) = esin
1 x x
1 dx and F (0) = 1, if F (1/2) = then values equal to (q) /3
1 x2
(x 2 1) (x 2 9)
dx 5
(C) Let F (x) = and F (0) = 0, if F( 3) k , then values equal to and greater (r) /4
36
than k =
100
Q.20 If the value of ([cot 1 x] [tan 1 x]) dx is 100 + p cot p, then the value of p is (where [ . ] denotes greatest integer
0
function).
/2
Q.21 lim n
n
(1 n sin x ) dx equals
2
ln A . Find the value of A.
0
1 | cos x | dx is equal to
x | sin x | ln 2 Find the value of A.
Q.22 The value of definite integral
A
0
Q.23 If the value of the definite integral
1 1
2 ( a b)
1
x
cot 1
. cot dx where a, b, c N in their lowest form, then find the value of (a + b + c).
1 1 x 2 1 (x 2 )|x| c
SECTION - VI
This section contains 2 questions. Each questions contain STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement- 1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement -1
(B) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True, Statement- 2 is False
(D) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is True
/2
sin x
Q.24 Statement 1 : 1
x 2
0
Statement 2 : If f (x) is continuous in [a, b] and m and are greatest and least value of f (x) in [a, b], then
(b a) f (x) dx m (b a)
b
x
Q.25 Statement 1 : esin
1 x 1
1 dx esin x 1 x 2 c
1 x
2
1 1 1
(1) (D). cos ec 2x dx [log tan x] /4
/6 = log tan log tan log 3
/6
2 2 4 6 2
| x | 1 when 1 x 0
(2) (B).
x 1 when 0 x 2
x dx x dx (1) dx 1dx = x
0 2 0 2
|x| |x|
l
1
0
x 02 = – 1 + 2 = 1
1 0 1 0
4 4 4
(3) (A). Let f (x) = x3 e x , then f (–x) = (–x)3. e( x) x 3e x = –f(x)
Hence f(x) is an odd function.
x
1 1
3 x4
f (x) dx = 0 ; or e dx 0
1 1
(4) (B). f(x) = sin x + cos x is periodic with period 2
10
/3
3 1 1 3
3
/3
(sin x cos x) dx (sin x cos x) dx = (sin x cos x) |
LetI = = = = 3 1
10
/6 /6 2 2 2 2
6
1 x
(5) (B). f (x) tan 1 x n
1 x
(1 x 4 ) d(x
1 1 1 1 1
f (x) f (x) 4
) log(1 x 4 ) C
1 x 2
1 x 2 2 1 x4
sec2 x 7
dx ; sec x sin x 7
cos x tan x tan x
(6) (A).
2 7
dx C
sin x
7
sin x
8
(sin x)7
(x sin x cos x)2 dx = x.sec x (x sin x cos x)2 dx
x2 x cos x x sec x
(7) (A). I = = tan x c
x sin x cos x
(8) (B). Put log x = z x = ez dx = ez dz.
[sin (log x) cos (log x)] dx = e z (sin z cos z) dz = ez sin z + C = x sin (logx) + C
(AC). I n (sin x) e 0 n (sin x) .cos xe dx
n x n 1 x
(9)
0
+ (n (n 1) (sin x) n 2 cos 2 x n(sin x) n 1 sin x) e x dx
n 1 x
= n (sin x) cos x e
0
0
I n n (n 1) ((sin x)n 2 sin n x) n sin n x)) e x dx ; In
n (n 1)
In 2
0 n2 1
n = 10
I10 10 9 90
I8 101 101
1
dx =
1- x x
(10) (AB). dx = sin–1x +
1- x 2 + C = – cos x + 1- x 2 + C
–1
1+x 1-x
2
1 x2
t f (t) dt
1 1
where A f (t) dt and B
1 1
((1 A) t Bt
1 1
Now, A f (t) dt 2
)dt
1 1
2B
1
A = – 2B t 2 dt A ........... (2)
3
0
t ((1 A) t Bt
1 1
Similarly, B t f (t) dt 2
)dt
1 1
1
2
B = 2 (A + 1) t 2 dt B = (A + 1) ........... (3)
3
0
4 6
On solving (2) and (3), we get A , B
13 13
9 6 9 12
From eq. (1), we get f (x) = x x 2 f ' (x) = x
13 13 13 13
1 9 12 1 9 4 13
f 1
3 13 13 3 13 13 13
x 1 dx dx = (x 1) e x dx
(x 2 1 1) e x
1 1 1 1
x 2ex ex
(i) dx
x 1 x 1
0 0 0 0
1
(x 1)2 (2x 1) x
(ii) (x 1)2 e dx
1 2
x x
e dx
x 1
0 0
I e x dx 2 dx
1 1 1
ex
e x dx ; I (e 1) 2A e 1 A e A
1
x 1 2 2
0 (x 1)
2
0 0
(iii)
x 11 x
1 1 3
x3
e dx = (x 1) 3x(x 1) 1 e x dx = 1 3 x 1 1 e x dx 1
1 3 1 1
e x
dx 1
e x dx
0 (x 1) 0 (x 1)
3 3
(x 1) 3
(x 1)
0
2
(x 1) 3
0 0
1
1
2 (x 1)2 2 (x 1) 2
1 1
= 1 3 dx 3
1 1
ex ex
dx – e x
e x
dx
x 1 (x 1)2
0 0 0 0
e e 1 1 e
= 1 3A 3 1 A 1 A
2 8 2 2 2
3e e 1 e 1 A A 9e
= 1 3A 3 3A = 3
2 8 2 4 2 2 2 8
(15) (C), (16) (B), (17) (D).
10
cos 6x.cos 7x.cos 8x.cos 9x
I= dx ........... (1)
3
0 1 e 2sin 4x
10
cos 6x.cos 7x.cos 8x.cos 9x
I= 3
dx
0 1 e 2 sin 4x
10 2sin3 4x
e (cos 6x.cos 7x.cos8x.cos 9x
I= 3
dx ........... (2)
0 1 e 2sin 4x
Add eq. (1) + eq. (2)
10
2I cos 6x.cos
7x.cos
8x.cos 9x
dx
0 f (x)
2I 10 f (x) dx , again f ( – x) = f (x)
0
/2 /2
2I 20 f (x) dx I 10 f (x) dx
0 0
/2
I 10 cos 6x.cos 7x.cos 8x.cos 9x dx ........... (3)
0
/2
7 9
I 10 cos (3 6x) cos 7x cos (4 8x) cos 9x dx
2 2
0
/2
I 10 cos 6x . cos 7x cos 8x .cos 9x dx ........... (4)
0
Eq. (3) + Eq. (4)
/2
2I 10 cos 6x . cos 8x [cos 7x .cos 9x sin 7x.sin 9x] dx
0
/2
2I 10 cos 6x . cos 8x .cos 2x dx
0
/2
I5 cos 6x . cos8x .cos 2x dx
0
/2 /2
cos 8x 5
I5 (cos8x cos 4x) dx cos 8x (cos 4x cos 2x) dx
2 2
0 0
/2 /2
5 5 4
4
cos 2 8x dx cos 4x cos 2x dx 1 5 5
2 2 = . cos 2 t dt (8x t) = cos 2 t dt
0 0 8 2 0
0
/2 /2
5 5
I cos 2 t dt sin 2 t dt
2 2
0 0
/2
5 5 5
2I dt I . I
2 4 2 8
0
(18) (A) – st, (B) – st, (C) – qrst, (D) – s.
1 cos x dx = x 2 sec
x sin x 1 x x x
(A) F (x) =
2
tan dx = x tan c
2 2 2
Since 0 = F (0) c = 0 and F (/2) = /2
e
x 1 x
(B) F (x) = e
1 x sin 1 x
sin
1 dx = 1 x2 dx
1 x2 1 x2 1 x2
1
F (x) = esin x 1 x 2 c
F (0) = 1 + c c = 0
3 k 3 /6
F (1/2) = e /6 . e k=
2 2
(x 2 1) (x 2 9) = 8 2
dx 1 1 1
(C) 2 dx
x 1 x 9
1 1 1 x
tan x tan 1 c
8 3 3
F (0) = c c = 0
1 1 5 5k
. k=
8 3 3 6 144 36 4
2k
F (0) = c c = 0 F (/4) = 2 = k = .
(19) 2.
2
ln (sec2 x) dx 2 ln (sec 2 x) dx
0 0
/2 /2 /2
=4 ln (sec2 x) dx 8 ln (sec x) dx = 8 ln (cos x) dx 8 ln 2
2
0 0 0
k
= 4 ln 2 = 2k2 sin–1 ln k
2
k=2
[k] = 2
(20) 2.
/2
/2
1
1 tan 1 100
0 cot 1 100
100
([cot 1 x] [tan 1 x]) dx cot1 (100 tan1) = 100 1 tan 1 100 2 cot 2
2
0 tan1
/2 1 (sin x) t
t dx ;
/2
(21) 2. L = lim n
n
(1 n sin x ) dx ; put n = 1/t lim
n 0 0
0
1 e tln(sin x)
/2
.ln (sin x) dx but lim 1 e
tln(sin x) /2
L lim
t0
0
t ln (sin x) t 0 t ln (sin x)
1 L ln (sin x) dx ln 2
2
0
1. I or I ( x) | sin x | dx .......... (2)
x | sin x |
(22) dx .......... (1)
1 | cos x | 1 | cos x |
0 0
Add eq. (1) and (2)
2I Using f (x) dx n f (x) dx
na a
| sin x |
dx
1 | cos x |
0 0 0
/2 /2 /2
sin x dx sin x dx cos x dx
I .2
2 1 cos x 1 cos x 1 sin x
0 0 0
= . ln (1 sin x)0
/2
ln 2
(23) 7.
1 1
1
1 x
Let I = cot . cot dx ...... (1)
1 1 x 2 1 (x 2 )|x|
1
cot
x
1
1 1
I . cot dx ...... (2)
1 1 x 2 1 (x 2 )|x|
On adding,
cot
1
1 1 1 x x
2I cot cot 1 dx
1 1 x 2 1 (x 2 )|x| 1 (x 2 )|x|
cot tan
1 1
1 1 1
2I dx 1 x 2 dx
1 1 x 2
1
= 2 tan
1
1
1 x 2 dx ...... (3) (As tan 1 1 x 2 is even function)
0
I 1 tan 1 ( 1 x 2 ) dx
1
...... (4)
0 II I
Intetrating by parts
I tan 1 ( 1 x 2 ).x
( x)
1 1
x
=
dx 1
0 x2
0 (1 1 x 2
) 1 x 2 dx
0 (2 x ) 1 x
2 2
Zero
Let x = sin dx = cos d.
/2 /2
sin 2 2 sin 2 2 /2 /2
2 tan 2 2
I d d I 2 d 2 sec2 d 2
2
0 (2 sin 2 ) 0 2 sin 2 2 sin 2 2
0 0
Put tan = t
2 t2
dt 2 1 t 2 2 2 2 ( 2 1) 2 ( a b)
I 2 2 tan 1 =
0
2 2 2 0 2 2 2 2 c
a = 2, b = 1 and c = 4 a + b + c = 2 + 1 + 4 = 7
(24) (A). ln 0 x
2
sin x sin x
f (x) is decreasing function f lim f (x)
x 2 x x 0
/2 /2 /2 /2
2 sin x 2 sin x 2 sin x
1 dx dx 1 dx dx
x x 2 x 2
0 0 0 0
Statement-1 is correct.
Statement-2 is also correct & explain statement-1.
(25) (A). Statement 2 : eg(x) (g (x) f (x) f (x)) dx f (x).eg(x) .g (x)dx eg(x) .f (x)dx
x
e
sin 1 x
1 dx 1
1 x2 esin x 1 x 2 c (By statement-2)
CHAPTER TEST
Subject :Physics Topic : Newton’s laws of motion and friction M.M. : 80
Have patience all things are difficult before they become easy.
Marking Scheme:
(i) For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
(ii) For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
(iii) For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
(iv) For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative
marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
(v) For each question in Section V, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer
and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
(vi) For each question in Section VI, you will be awarded 3 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (– 1) mark will be awarded.
SECTION - I
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.
Q.1 Two particles of masses m and 2m are placed on a smooth horizontal
table. A string, which joins them hangs over the edge supporting a
light pulley, which carries a mass 3m. The two parts of the string on
the table are parallel and perpendicular to the edge of the table. The
parts of the string outside the table are vertical. Find the acceleration
of the particle of mass 3m.
F µs = 0.4
µk = 0.3
10kg
///////////////////////////////////////////////////////
Q.4 The maximum force F that can be applied if the 10 kg block is not to slide on the bracket is –
(A) 32 N (B) 24 N (C) 18 N (D) 48 N
Q.5 If 10kg block does not slide on the bracket, the corresponding acceleration of the 5 kg bracket is –
(A) 1.6 m/s2 (B) 0.8 m/s2 (C) 1.2 m/s2 (D) 2.4 m/s2
Q.6 Choose the correct options –
(1) Kinetic friction is lesser than limiting friction.
(2) In rolling the surfaces at contact do not rub each other.
(3) If a body is at rest and no pulling force is acting on it, force of friction on it is zero.
(4) Kinetic friction is greater than limiting friction.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 1 and 2 are correct (C) 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1 and 3 are correct
Q.7 Choose the correct options –
(1) Force of friction is partically independent of microscopic area of surface in contact and relative velocity between them. (if it
is not high)
(2) Normally with increase in smoothness friction decreases. But if the surface area are made too smooth by polishing and
cleaning the bonding force of adhesion will increase and so the friction will increase resulting in 'Cold welding'
(3) Friction is a non conservative force, i.e. work done against friction is path dependent.
(4) Force of fricton depends on area
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 1 and 2 are correct (C) 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1 and 3 are correct
Q.8 Choose the correct options –
(1) Friction always opposes the motion (2) Friction may opposes the motion
(3) If the applied force is increased the force of static friction remain constant.
(4) If the applied force is increased the force of static friction also increases upto limiting friction.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 1 and 2 are correct (C) 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1 and 3 are correct
SECTION - II
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions . Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which one or more
answers are correct.
Q.9 A mass of 60 kg is on the floor of a lift moving down. The lift moves at first with an acceleration of 3 m/sec2, then with constant
velocity and finally with a retardation of 3m/sec2. Choose the correct options related to possible reactions exerted by the lift on
the body in each part of the motion –
(1) 408 N (2) 588 N (3) 768 N (4) 508 N
Q.10 In the figure, small block is kept on m then µ=0
F µ=0 m
(A) The acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is
m
(B) The acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is zero F
///////////////////////////////////////////////////////
2 m
(C) The time taken by m to separate from M is A B
F
2 M
(D) The time taken by m to separate from M is
F
Q.11 Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 are connected through a massless inextensible string. Block of mass m1 is placed at the fixed
rigid inclined surface while the block of mass m2 hanging at the other end of the string, which is passing through a fixed
massless frictionless pulley shown in figure. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the inclined plnae is 0.8.
The system of masses m1 and m2 is released from rest.
g=10m/s2
0.8
µ=
m1=4kg
m2=2kg
30° Fixed
(A) The tension in the string is 20N after releasing the system.
(B) The contact force by the inclined surface on the block is along normal to the inclined surface.
(C) The magnitude of contact force by the inclined surface on the block m1 is 20 3N .
(D) None of these
SECTION - III
This section contains paragraph. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question
has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct.
Passage (Q.12-Q.14)
Pseudo Force is a imaginary force which is recognised only by a non-Inertial observer to explain the physical situation
according to Newton’s Laws. Magnitude of pseudo force Fp is equal to the product of the mass m of the object and the
acceleration a of the frame of reference. The direction of the force is opposite to the direction of acceleration. Fp = –ma
Q.12 A spring weighing machine inside a stationary lifts reads 50 kg when a man stand on it. What would happen to the scale reading
if the lift is moving upward with (i) constant velocity (ii) constant acceleratioin -
50a 50g
(B) 50 kg wt, 50
a
(A) 50 kg wt, 50 kg wt kg wt
g
50a 50a
(C) 50 kg wt,
g
(D) 50 kg wt,
g
kg wt kg wt
Q.13 A 25 kg lift is supported by a cable. The acceleration of the lift when the tension in the cable is 175 N, will be -
(A) – 2.8 m/s2 (B) 16.8 m/s2 (C) – 9.8 m/s2 (D) 14 m/s2
Q.14 A body is suspended by a string from the celling of an elevator. It is observed that the tension in the string is doubled when the
elevator is accelerated. The acceleration will be -
(A) 4.9 m/s2 (B) 9.8 m/s2 (C) 19.6 m/s2 (D) 2.45 m/s2
Passage (Q.15-Q.17)
A block of mass 1 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface. A spring is attached to the block whose other end is joined to a rigid
wall, as shown in the figure. A horizontal force is applied on the block so that it remains at rest while the spring is elongated by
mg
x. x . Let Fmax and Fmin be the maximum and minimum values of force F for which the block remains a equilibrium. For
k
a particular x,
Fmax – Fmin = 2N.
Also shown is the variation of Fmax + Fmin versus x, the elongation of the spring.
Fmax+Fmin
5N
///////////////
K
1 kg
//////////////////////////////////////////
0.1M
x
Q.15 The coefficient of friction between the block and the horizontal surface is –
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.4
Q.16 The spring constant of the spring is –
(A) 25 N/m (B) 20 N/m (C) 2.5 N/m (D) 50 N/m
Q.17 The value of Fmin, if x = 3 cm. is –
(A) 0 (B) 0.2 N (C) 5N (D) 1N
SECTION - IV
This section contains match the column question . Four statements (A, B, C and D) are given in column I and four/five
statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in column I can have correct matching with one or more
statement(s) given in column II.
Q.18 For the situation shown in figure, in column I, the statements regarding friction forces are mentioned, while in column II some
information related to friction forces are given. Match the entries of column I with the entries of column II.
µ = 0.2 2 kg
µ = 0.1 3 kg F = 100 N
µ = 0.1 5 kg
//////////////////////////
Column I Column II
(A) Total friction force on 3 kg block is (p) towards right
(B) Total friction force on 5 kg block is (q) towards left
(C) Friction force on 2 kg block due to (r) zero
3 kg block is
(D) Friction force on 3 kg block due to (s) non-zero
5 kg block is
SECTION - V
This section contains 5 questions . The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
Q.19 The relation among acceleration of blocks 1, 2 and 3 is a1 + x a2 = a3. Find the value of x.
3 1
2
Q.20 Find the acceleration (in m/s2) of the two blocks of 4 kg and 5 kg mass if a force of 40N is applied on 4kg block. Friction
coefficients between the respective surfaces are shown in figure.
F=40N 4 kg µ2=0.5
5 kg µ1=0.3
Q.21 A mass of 15 kg and another of mass 6 kg are attached to a pulley system as shown. A is a fixed
pulley while B is a movable one. Both are considered light and frictionless. The acceleration of
6 kg mass is X g/13. Find the value of X
12m/s²
A
Q.23 The ratio of acceleration of blocks 1 and 2 is X/3. Find the value of X.
2 1 F
SECTION - VI
This section contains 2 questions. Each questions contain STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) Statement- 1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement -1
(B) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1
(C) Statement - 1 is True, Statement- 2 is False
(D) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is True
Q.24 Statement 1 : A man standing in a lift which is moving upward, will feel his weight to be greater than when the lift was at rest.
Statement 2 : If the acceleration of the lift is 'a' upward, then the man of mass m shall feel his weight to be equal to normal
reaction (N) exerted by the lift given by N = m (g + a) (where g is acceleration due to gravity).
Q.25 Statement 1 : According to the Newton's third law of motion, the magnitude of the action and reaction force in an action
reaction pair is same only in an inertial frame of reference.
Statement 2 : Newton's laws of motion are applicable in every inertial reference frame.
Subject : Physics Topic : Newton’s laws of motion and friction [SOLUTIONS]
(1) (A). Let T be the tension in the string; a be the acceleration of the mass 2m; 2a
be the acceleration of mass m.
T = m.2a
a 2a 3a
The mass 3m will come down with an acceleration
2 2
3a 9ma
3mg 2T 3m. or 3mg 4ma
2 2
17a 6
or 3g or a g
2 17
3 9
The acceleration of 3m mass a g
2 17
(2) (A). Let the magnitude of velocity of top of the rod be vR towards left and
the speed of block B be v.
1 + 2 = constant VR 2
3
d1 d 2
0 u – vR cos 60° = 0 ........ (1) 30° 60°
dt dt 1
3 + 4 = constant A u
4
B v
d 3 d 4
0 vR cos 30° – v = 0 ........ (2) /////////////////////////////////////
dt dt
F
Solving eq. (1) and (2), v 3u 6 m / s
= 3m/s2
F 10
f – F = ma = 10 ; f F 1 .......... (2)
15 15
If there is no sliding F µs N
5
F 0.4 10 10 F = 24N
3
F 24
From eq. (1), a = 1.6 m/s2
15 15
(6) (A).
(1) Kinetic friction is lesser than limiting friction.
(2) In rolling the surfaces at contact do not rub each other.
(3) If a body is at rest and no pulling force is acting on it, force of friction on it is zero.
(7) (A).
(1) Force of friction is partically independent of microscopic area of surface in contact and relative velocity between them. (if it
is not high)
(2) Normally with increase in smoothness friction decreases. But if the surface area are made too smooth by polishing and
cleaning the bonding force of adhesion will increase and so the friction will increase resulting in 'Cold welding'
(3) Friction is a non conservative force, i.e. work done against friction is path dependent.
(8) (C).
(a) Friction may opposes the motion.
(b) If the applied force is increased the force of static friction also increases upto limiting friction.
(9) (ABC). (i) Since the lift is moving down with an acceleration of 3 m/sec2, then the inertial force F = ma, acts upwards on the body
R a = 3m/s2
F=ma
mg
Now, R + F= mg
or R = mg – F = mg – ma = m (g – a) = 60 (9.8 – 3) = 408 N
(ii) When the lift is moving down with constant velocity a = 0 and hence, R = mg = 60 × 9.8 = 588 N
(iii) The lift is now moving down with a retardation of 3 m/sec2.
The retardation is 3 m/sec2 in the downward direction is equivalent to an acceleration of 3 m/sec2 upwards.
Hence the direction of fictitious force is downwards.
Now, R = mg + ma = m (g + a) = 60 (12.8) = 768 N
F
(10) (BD). Acceleration of M, a =
M
1 F 2 2M
t ; t
2M F
(11) (ABC). If the tendency of relative motion along the common tangent does not exist, then the component of contact force along
the common tangent will be zero.
(12) (A). (i) In the case of constant velocity of lift, there is no reaction, therefore the apparent weight = actual weight. Hence the
reading of machine is 50 kg wt.
(ii) In this case the acceleration is upward the reaction R = ma acts downward, therefore apparent weight is more than actual
weight i.e. W' = W + R = m (g + a)
50g
Hence, scale show a reading of m (g + a) Newton = 50
a
kg wt
(13) (A). Tension = m (g + a), when lift moving up, putting the values, we get
175 = 25 (9.8 + a) a = 2.8 m/s2 [negative sign shows that lift is moving downward]
(14) (B). Apparent tension, T = 2T0
a0 a0
So, T = 2T0 = T0 1 or 2 = 1 + a0 = g = 9.8 m/s2
g g
(15) (A), (16) (A), (17) (A).
Fmax = kx + µ mg
Fmin = kx – µ mg
Fmax + Fmin = 2µ mg
or 2 = 2 µ 10
µ = 0.1
Fmax + Fmin = 2kx ......... (1)
From graph, Fmax + Fmin = 5 and x = 0.1
Putting in eq. (1)
t = 2k (0.1) ; k = 25 N/m
When x = 0.03
kx = 25 × 0.03 = 0.75 N, which is less than µ mg
= 0.1 × 10 = 1N
The block will be at rest, without applying force F.
(18) (A) – qs, (B) – r, (C) – ps, (D) – qs
f1 f2
F=100N
2 kg 3 kg 2 kg
f1 f2 (b) f3 (c)
(a)
f 1 = 0.2 × 2g = 4 N
f 2 = 0.1 × 5g = 5 N
F=40N µ2=0.5
4 kg
f2 f2
5 kg µ 1=0.3
f1=27N
f1 (m1 m 2 )g 27N
On 4 kg friction f2 will be opposing but it must be static friction as 4 kg is not sliding on 5 kg block we assume initially. On 5 kg
block f2 is acting in opposite direction as shown in figure.
If the two are moving together again be careful, we are only assuming that two are moving together, f2 will be an internal force
40 27 13 2
of the system and the two blocks will move with an acceleration. a m/s
9 9
13 52
Now if we consider 4 kg block only we have 40 f 2 4 or f 2 40
34.22N
9 9
The maximum possible value of f2 can be µ2m1g = 20N and the above found value is more than this. It implies that the block 4
kg can never be at rest relative to 5 kg block.
If in above case if the value of f2 obtained could be less than 20 N, it would imply that this is the value of static friction and both
are moving together. Here we have checked and found that there is slipping between 4 kg and 5 kg block, thus the friction
between 4 kg and 5 kg block must be 20 N. But here if 20N is acting on 5 kg block it is insufficient to displace the 5 kg block as
the limiting friction at the bottom of 5 kg is 27N thus it will remain at rest and 4 kg block only will move with acceleration.
40 20 2
a 5m/s
4
(21) 2.
Tension is the same throughout the string. It is clear that M1 will descend downwards
while M2 rises up. If the acceleration ‘a’ of M1 is downwards, M2 will have an acceleration 2a upward.
Now, M1g – 2T = M1a
T – M2g = M2.2a
or M1g – 2M2g = a(M1 + 4M2)
M1 2M 2 15 12 3
a g g g
M1 4M 2 15 24 39
g 2g
a= acceleration of 6 kg mass = 2a =
13 13
(22) 2.
If block A moves x pulley nearest to it will move by x/2,
12
hence a p 6 m / sec 2
2
3Tx B Tx p 0 (From vertical work concept)
aP T
12m/s²
A
aB = 2 m/sec2 T
T T
aB
2T
B
(23) 2.
2T.dr2 3T.dr1 0
T
2 1 F
T
dr2 dr1
2T.dr2 cos 0 3T.dr1 cos 0
a1 2
2T.dr2 3T.dr1 0 3dr1 = 2dr2
a2 3
(24) (D). If the lift is retarding while it moves upward, the man shall feel lesser weight as compared to when lift was at rest. Hence
Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
(25) (D). Newton's third law of motion is valid in all reference frames. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
JEE ADVANCED
PART TEST-SYLLABUS
TEST-1 (PAPER1 & 2)
PHYSICS : UNITS AND DIMENSIONS, KINEMATICS, LAWS OF MOTION
CHEMISTRY : SOME BASIC CONCEPTS IN CHEMISTRY-STOICHIOMETRY, STATES OF MATTER - GASEOUS STATE,
LIQUID STATE, ATOMIC STRUCTURE, CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE
MATHEMATICS : LOGARITHM, COMPLEX NUMBERS AND QUADRATIC EQUATIONS, SEQUENCES AND SERIES.
TEST-2 (PAPER1 & 2)
PHYSICS : WORK, ENERGY , POWER AND CONSERVATION LAWS, CIRCULAR MOTION, ROTATIONAL MOTION,
GRAVITATION, PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS AND LIQUIDS.
CHEMISTRY : ENERGETICS, EQUILIBRIUM.
MATHEMATICS : PERMUTATIONS AND COMBINATIONS, BINOMIAL THEOREM.
TEST-3 (PAPER1 & 2)
PHYSICS : THERMAL PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY : CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES, HYDROGEN, s - BLOCK ELEMENTS,
p - BLOCK ELEMENTS - GROUP 13 AND GROUP 14.
MATHEMATICS : TRIGONOMETRY, STRAIGHT LINE, CIRCLE
TEST-4 (PAPER1 & 2)
PHYSICS : SHM AND WAVES
CHEMISTRY : GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY, HYDROCARBONS.
MATHEMATICS : CONIC SECTION (PARABOLA, ELLIPSE, HYPERBOLA)
TEST-5 (PAPER1 & 2)
PHYSICS : ELECTROSTATICS, CAPACITOR AND CURRENT ELECTRICITY
CHEMISTRY : SOLID STATE, SOLUTIONS, REDOX REACTIONS, ELECTROCHEMISTRY, CHEMICAL KINETICS, SURFACE
CHEMISTRY, NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY
MATHEMATICS : INVERSE TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTION, MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS
TEST-6 (PAPER1 & 2)
PHYSICS : MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT, ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENTS.
CHEMISTRY : METALLURGY, p- BLOCK ELEMENTS - GROUP 15, 16, 17 AND GROUP 18, d- AND f-BLOCK ELEMENTS,
CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS.
MATHEMATICS : FUNCTIONS, LIMITS, CONTINUITYAND DIFFERENTIABILITY, DIFFERENTIATION, APPLICATION OF
DERIVATIVES
TEST-7 (PAPER1 & 2)
PHYSICS : OPTICS.
CHEMISTRY : HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES, ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS, ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND
CARBOXYLIC ACIDS, AMINES.
MATHEMATICS : INTEGRAL CALCULUS, AREA UNDER CURVE, DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS.
TEST-8 (PAPER1 & 2)
PHYSICS : MODERN PHYSICS AND GENERAL PHYSICS.
CHEMISTRY : CARBOHYDRATES, AMINO ACIDS AND POLYMERS, PRACTICAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY, QUALITATIVE
INORGANIC ANALYSIS.
MATHEMATICS : THREE DIMENSIONAL GEOMETRY, VECTOR ALGEBRA AND PROBABILITY.
IIT-JEE (ADVANCED)
TEST-1 (Paper-1)
Time: 3 hours M. Marks: 183
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Question Paper Format
The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of three sections.
SECTION 1 : (Maximum Marks : 28)
* This section contains SEVEN questions.
* Each question has Four options [A], [B], [C] and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
* For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the all the correct option(s) in the ORS.
* For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
SECTION 2 : (Maximum Marks : 15)
* This section contains FIVE questions.
* The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
* For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS.
* For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened. Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
SECTION 3 : (Maximum Marks : 9) / SECTION 4 : (Maximum Marks : 9)
* This section contains questions of matching type
* For each question, marks will be awarded in one the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is darkened. Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : UNITS AND DIMENSIONS, KINEMATICS, LAWS OF MOTION
CHEMISTRY : SOME BASIC CONCEPTS IN CHEMISTRY-STOICHIOMETRY, STATES OF MATTER - GASEOUS STATE,
LIQUID STATE, ATOMIC STRUCTURE, CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE
MATHEMATICS : LOGARITHM, COMPLEX NUMBERS AND QUADRATIC EQUATIONS, SEQUENCES AND SERIES.
1
T1-P1
PART-I : PHYSICS
M m
SECTION - 1 (A) Acceleration of each block is g.
M m
Each question has Four options [A], [B], [C]
and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these 2Mmg
four options is(are) correct. (B) Tension in the string is .
Mm
Q.1 A man can swim with a velocity v relative to water. (C) Centre of mass M plus m system moves down
He has to cross a river of width d flowing with a
M m
velocity u (u > v). The distance through which he is 2
with acceleration g
M m
carried down stream by the river is x. Which of the .
following statements are correct?
(A) If he crosses the river in minimum time (D) Tension in the string by which the pulley is
x = du / v suspended to roof (M – m) g.
(B) x cannot be less than du / v Q.4 Two blocks A and B of the same mass are joined
(C) For x to be minimum he has to swim in a by a light string and placed on a horizontal surface.
An external horizontal force P acts on A. The tension
v in the string is T. The forces of friction acting on A
direction making an angle sin 1 with
2 u and B are F1 and F2 respectively. The limiting values
the direction of flow of water. of F1 and F2 is F0. As P is gradually increased,
(D) x will be maximum if he swims in a direction then –
v T
making an angle sin 1 . B A P
2 u
F2 F1
Q.2 A large block A is at rest on a smooth horizontal
surface. A small block B whose mass is half that of (A) For P < F0 ; T = 0
A is placed on A at one end and projected along A (B) For F0 < P < 2F0 ; T = P – F0
with same velocity u. The coefficient of friction (C) For P > 2F0 ; T = P/2
between the blocks is µ. Then – (D) For P > 2F0 ; T = P
u
Q.5 Two cars A and B, travel in straight line. The
B
distance of A from the starting point is given as a
A
///////////////////////// function of time by xA (t) = t + t2 with
(A) The blocks will have a final common velocity = 2.4 m/s and = 1.2 m/s2. The distance of B
u/3. from the starting point is xB(t) = t2 – t3 with
(B) The work done against friction is (2/3) of the = 2.8 m/s2 and = 0.2 m/s3. Then which of the
initial kinetic energy of B. following statement/s is/are correct?
(C) Before the blocks reach a common velocity (A) The car A is ahead just they leave the starting
the acceleration of A relative to B is (2/3) µg. point.
(D Before the blocks reach a common velocity (B) The cars are at the same point at time t = 2s.
the acceleration of A relative to B is (3/2) µg. (C) The distance from A to B is neither increasing
Q.3 Two masses M and m (M > m) nor decreasing nearly at time t = 0.9 s.
are joined by a light string passing (D) The cars A and B have the same acceleration
over a smooth pulley. at time t = (8/3) s.
M
m
2
T1-P1
Q.6 Read and examine the following statements boat perpendicular to the river flow from one bank
regarding constant acceleration for a moving of the river. When he reaches the middle of the
particle. Which of the following is /are correct/ true? river, he starts to row the boat at an angle with
(A) ax 0, ay = 0, az = 0 is necessarily a case of the direction perpendicular to river flow so as to
one dimensional motion. reach the point directly opposite to the starting point
(B) vx 0, vy = 0, vz = 0 is necessarily a case of on the opposite bank. The value of tan is (4/n).
one dimensional motion. Find value of n.
(C) If vx 0, ax 0; vy 0, ay 0 ; vz = 0, az=0 Q.9 A man starts walking on a circular track of radius
is necessarily a case of motion in one plane. R. First half of the distance he walks with speed
(D) If ax = ay = az = 0 is necessarily a case of one V1, half of the remaining distance with speed V2,
dimensional motion. then half of the remaining time with V1 and rest
Q.7 Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 are connected with V2 and completes the circle. If average speed
through a massless inextensible string. Block of mass of the man during entire motion in which he
m1 is placed at the fixed rigid inclined surface while
xV1V2 (V1 V2 )
the block of mass m2 hanging at the other end of completes the circle is .
the string, which is passing through a fixed massless V12 yV22 zV1V2
frictionless pulley shown in figure. The coefficient Then value of (y + z – x) is :
of static friction between the block and the inclined Q.10 Two particles A and B Starts from the same point
plnae is 0.8. The system of masses m1 and m2 is and move in the positive x-direction. Their velocity-
released from rest. time relationships are shown in the following figures.
if the maximum separation between them during
g=10m/s2 the time interval shown is n/4, then n is
0.8
µ=
m1=4kg Particle-A Particle-B
m2=2kg 2.00 2.00
m/s m/s
30° Fixed
1.00 1.00
m/s m/s
(A) The tension in the string is 20N after releasing
1.00 s 2.00 s 1.00 s 2.00 s
the system.
(B) The contact force by the inclined surface on Q.11 To a man moving due east with speed v in rain, the
the block is along normal to the inclined rain appears to fall vertically. When he changes his
surface. speed by 3 times, the rain appears to fall at an angle
(C) The magnitude of contact force by the inclined to the vertical. If the speed of the rain is
surface on the block m1 is 20 3N . v 1 k cot 2 , find k.
(D) None of these Q.12 A ball is projected upwards from the top of tower
with a velocity 50 m/s making an angle 30° with
SECTION - 2 the horizontal. The height of tower is 70 m. After
The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT how many seconds from the instant of throwing
INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive. will the ball reach the ground.
Q.8 A man in a boat wishes to cross a 400 m wide
river flowing at the rate of 2 m/s. Speed of boat in
still water is 4 m/s. The person starts to row the
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
3
T1-P1
SECTION - 3 SECTION - 4
Answer questions 13, 14 and 15 by Matching List Type
appropriately matching the information given This section contains 3 questions, each having
in the three columns of the following table. two matching lists.
A block of mass m = 15 kg is suspended in an Q.16 Column I shows the position-time graph of particles
elevator with the help of three identical light elastic moving along a straight line.
cords (spring constant k = 100 N/m each) attached Column I
vertically. One of them, cord 1 is tied to the ceiling x
of the elevator and the other two cords 2 and 3 are
tied to the elevator floor as shown in the figure. i ii
iii iv
Cord 1
Elevator t
15 kg Column II
(p) Acceleration a > 0
(q) Acceleration a < 0
Cord 2
Cord 3
(r) Speeding up
(s) Speeding down
When the elevator is stationary the tension force in
(A) (i) – qs, (ii) – qr, (iii) – pr, (iv) – ps
each of the lower cords is T = 7.5 N. Take
(B) (i) – qr, (ii) – qs, (iii) – ps, (iv) – pr
g = 10 m/s2. Now the elevator starts moving with
(C) (i) – qs, (ii) – qr, (iii) – ps, (iv) – pr
given four accelerations shown in column I. Column
(D) (i) – qr, (ii) – qs, (iii) – pr, (iv) – ps
II given the displacement of the block with respect
Q.17 A ball is thrown at an angle 75° with the horizontal
to elevator when it is accelerating. Column III gives
at a speed of 20 m/s towards a high wall at a
tension in the cords when elevator is accelerating.
distance d. If the ball strikes the wall, its horizontal
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3 velocity component reverses the direction without
(acceleration of the (displacement of the (Tension in change in magnitude and the vertical velocity
elevator in different block with respect to the cord)
cases) the elevator upto new
component remains same. Ball stops after hitting
equilibrium position) the ground. Match the statement of column I with
(I) 1 m/s2 upward (i) 7.5 cm downward (P) 2.5 N the distance of the wall from the point of throw in
(II) 1.5 m/s2 upward (ii) 2.5 cm downward (Q) 5 N
(III) 2 m/s2 upward (iii) 15 cm downward (R) 172.5 N column II .
(IV) 33 m/s2 downward (iv) 5 cm downward (S) 0 N Column I
(i) Ball strikes the wall directly.
Q.13 Tension in cord-1. (ii) Ball strikes the ground at x = 12 m from the
(A) (I) (i) (S) (B) (II) (i) (R) wall
(C) (III) (ii) (P) (D) (IV) (iii) (Q) (iii) Ball strikes the ground at x = 10m from the
Q.14 Tension in cord 2. wall
(A) (I) (iv) (P) (B) (II) (i) (Q) (iv) Ball strikes the ground at x = 5 m from the
(C) (III) (iii) (R) (D) (IV) (ii) (S) wall
Q.15 Tension in cord 3. Column II
(A) (I) (i) (P) (B) (II) (ii) (P) (p) d = 8 m (q) d = 10 m
(C) (III) (iii) (S) (D) (IV) (iii) (R) (r) d = 15 m (s) d = 25 m
4
T1-P1
(A) (i) –p, r (ii) –p (iii) –q, s (iv) –r,s PART - II: CHEMISTRY
(B) (i) –p,q, r (ii) –p (iii) –q (iv) –r,s SECTION - 1
(C) (i) –q, r (i) –p, q (iii) –q (iv) –r,s Each question has Four options [A], [B], [C]
(D) (i) –p,q, r (ii) –p (iii) –r, s (iv) –q and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
Q.18 Two blocks of masses 20kg and 10kg are kept or four options is(are) correct.
a rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction Q.19 Pick out the correct statements:
between both blocks and floor is µ = 0.2. The (A) The number of nodal planes in a px orbital is
surface of contact of both blocks are smooth. one.
Horizontal forces of magnitude 20N and 60N are (B) With an increase in quantum number, the
applied on both the blocks as shown in figure. energy difference between successive Bohr's
Match the statement in column I with the statements orbits decreases.
in column II. (C) Photoelectric effect is the property of a photon
but interference is not.
F1=20N
20kg 10kg (D) The spectral line obtained when an electron
F2=60N
left //////////////////////////////////// jumps from n = 5 to n = 2 belongs to Balmer
µ=0.2 right series.
rough horizontal floor Q.20 Which of the following statements are correct?
Column I (A) Total number of electrons transferred during
(i) Frictional forces acting on block of mass 10kg the change
(ii) Frictional forces acting on block of mass 20kg Al + FeSO4 Al2O3 + Fe is 24.
(B) In the reaction
(iii) Normal reaction exerted by 20kg block on
3I2 + 6NaOH NaIO3 + 5NaI + 3H2O;
10kg block.
iodine acts as both oxidant and reductant.
(iv) Net force on system consisting of 10kg block (C) 1 mole of ferrous oxalate will react with 3/5
and 20kg block. mole of MnO4– ions in acidic medium.
Column II (D) In the number 90,000 all the zeros are not
(p) has magnitude 20N significant.
(q) has magnitude 40N Q.21 The molecules that have seesaw shape and an
(r) is zero equatorial lone pair are –
(s) is towards right (in horizontal direction) (A) SF4 (B) XeO2F2
(A) (i) – pr, (ii) – ps, (iii) – qs, (iv) – rs (C) XeOF 4 (D) XeOF2
(B) (ii) – qs, (ii) – rs, (iii) – qs, (iv) – r Q.22 Which of the following statements are correct ?
(C) (iii) – pq, (ii) – qs, (iii) – r, (iv) – rs (A) In an atom for n = 6, the total number of
subshells (orbitals) which can exist is 36.
(D) (iv) – ps, (ii) – ps, (iii) – qs, (iv) – r
(B) For an electron which jumps from 5th shell to
2nd shell, the number of possible transitions is
six.
(C) In -scattering experiment, the number of
particles is minimum in the direction of
= 180º.
(D) A photon of red light is more energetic than a
photon of blue light.
5
T1-P1
Q.23 1.2 g of a chalk sample (containing non-volatile Q.27 If Aufbau rule is not obeyed and instead electronic
and thermally stable clay impurity) on strong heating filling occurs orbit by orbit till saturation is reached.
gives off 224 mL CO2 gas (measured at STP). The percentage change in sum of all (n + ) values
Then, select correct option(s): for unpaired electrons in an atom of iron is 10x.
(A) The mass of clay impurity in the initial sample What is the value of x ?
is 200 mg. Q.28 Consider the following compounds:
(B) The mass of residue left behind is 560 mg. (i) ICl (ii) IBr (iii) ICl3
(C) The mass of residue left behind is 760 mg. (iv) SF4 (v) BrF3 (vi) IF3
(D) Percentage purity of CaCO3 in the chalk (vii) BrF5 (viii) IF7
sample is 80%. Calculate the value of (P – S).
Q.24 An alloy consists of rubidium and one of the other P : Total number of polar compounds
alkali metals. A sample of 4.6 g of the alloy when S : Total number of non planar compounds
allowed to react with water, liberates 2.24 dm3 of
hydrogen at STP. The concerned reaction is:
Palladium foil 76 cm of Hg
2 M + 2 H2O 2 MOH + H2
where M is an alkali metal.
Relative atomic masses: (Li) = 7; (Na) = 23; H2
(K) = 39; (Rb) = 87; (Cs) = 133 p = 76 cm of Hg
V
Select the correct statement(s) : T
(A) The other component of the alloy is Na. Q.29 Partition
(B) Composition of Rb in the alloy is 25 % by N2
mole. p = 76 cm of Hg
V
(C) Mole fraction of the Rb in the alloy is 1/5. T
(D) The alloy gives an alkaline solution with excess
water.
Q.25 34.3 g Pb3O4 is dissolved in 500 mL of 4M HNO3
After removing partition what will be difference in
then : (Pb = 207)
Hg level (in cm) on both arm.
(A) there is no residue left.
Note : Only hydrogen can pass the palladium foil.
(B) the weight of residue is 11.9 g.
Give your answer after dividing by 19.
(C) 300 mL of 6M NaOH is required to neutralize
Neglect volume of manometer and it is sufficiently
excess of HNO3.
long.
(D) it is a redox reaction.
Q.30 If the slope of Z (compressibility factor) v/s P curve
SECTION - 2
is atm–1 at 300 K for a gas which shows
The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT 492.6
INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive. negligible intermolecular force then the diameter of
Q.26 A mixture of 32 gm of O2 gas and 16 gm D2 gas is the gas molecule is ___ Å.
allowed to effuse through an orifice. If the relative (NA = 6 × 1023, R = 1/12 atm L–1 mol–1 K–1)
rD
rate of effusion r at the start of effusion is
2
O2
6
T1-P1
SECTION - 3 (s) When single isolated atom/ion is considered,
Answer 31, 32 and 33 by appropriately maximum 4 spectral lines are observed for
matching the information given in the three given transition.
columns of the following table. (A) (i) – p, q, r ; (ii) s ; (iii) – r, s ; (iv) p, q
(B) (i) – p, q ; (ii) p, s ; (iii) – q, s ; (iv) p, q
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3 (C) (i) – p, q, r ; (ii) r, s ; (iii) – q, s ; (iv) q, r
Hybridisation Shape of No. of lone pair
of central atom molecule/ion in the central
(D) (i) – q, r ; (ii) p, s ; (iii) – r, s ; (iv) q
atom Q.35 6 litre H2O is placed in a closed room of volume
(I) sp 2
(i) Linear (P) 0 827 L at the temperature of 300K. If vapour
(II) sp3 (ii) Square (Q) 1 pressure of liquid water is 22.8mm of Hg at 300 K
pyramidal
and its density is 1 g/cm3.
(III) sp3d (iii) T-shaped (R) 2
(IV) sp3d2 (iv) See-saw (S) 3 Given R = 0.0821 atm L mol–1 K–1,
Assuming volume of liquid water to be constant]
Q.31 For the ion BrF5 the only correct combination is Column I Column II
(A) (III) (ii) (Q) (B) (IV) (ii) (Q) (i) Mass of H2O in gaseous form (p) 6
(C) (III) (iv) (P) (D) (IV) (iv) (R) (in gm)
Q.32 For the ion [ICl2]– the only correct combination is (ii) Mass of H2O in gaseous state (q) 18
(A) (III) (i) (S) (B) (II) (iii) (Q) (in moles)
(C) (IV) (iv) (R) (D) (IV) (i) (R) (iii) Approximate amount of water (r) 3
Q.33 For the molecule XeOF2, the only correct left in liquid state (in kg)
combination is (iv) Total number of moles of all (s) 1
(A) (IV) (ii) (Q) (B) (IV) (iii) (Q) atoms in vapour form
(C) (III) (iv) (P) (D) (III) (iii) (R) (A) (i) – p, (ii) – s, (iii) – q, (iv) – r
(B) (i) – s, (ii) – q, (iii) – p, (iv) – r
SECTION - 4 (C) (i) – q, (ii) – s, (iii) – p, (iv) – r
Matching List Type (D) (i) – q, (ii) – s, (iii) – r, (iv) – p
This section contains 3 questions, each having Q.36 Match the column –
two matching lists. Column I
Q.34 Match the column (i) Hypophosphoric acid
Column I (ii) Pyrophosphorus acid
(i) In a sample of H-atom for 5 2 transition (iii) Boric acid
(ii) In a sample of He ion for 5 1 transition
+ (iv) Hypophosphorous acid
(iii) In a sample of H-atom for 7 3 transition Column II
(iv) In a sample of He ion for 7 4 transition
+ (p) All hydrogen are ionizable in water
Column II (q) Lewis acid
(p) Maximum 6 spectral lines will be observed (r) Monobasic
from the sample. (s) sp3 hybridized central atom
(q) A photon of wavelength = 36/5R can be (A) (i) – rs, (ii) – q, (iii) – qr, (iv) – rs
emitted. (B) (i) – ps, (ii) – s, (iii) – qr, (iv) – rs
7R (C) (i) – qs, (ii) – s, (iii) – pr, (iv) – rs
(r) A photon of wavelength can be (D) (i) – ps, (ii) – p,q, (iii) – r, (iv) – rs
144
emitted.
7
T1-P1
PART - III: MATHEMATICS
SECTION - 1 x 3 (a 10) x 2 x a 6
Q.42 If the fraction
Each question has Four options [A], [B], [C] x 3 (a 6) x 2 x a 10
and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these reduces to a quotient of two linear functions then
four options is(are) correct. which of the following is/are correct
Q.37 lf ax2 + 2bx + c = 0, b 1/2 be an equation with (A) both polynomial have 2 common roots.
integral coefficients and (> 0) be its discriminant, (B) The value of a is prime number.
then the equation b2x2 – (b2 – ac) x – ac = 0 has – (C) The value of a is perfect cube of natural
(A) two integral roots number.
(B) two rational roots (D) common roots are 1 and –1.
(C) two irrational roots Q.43 If z1, z2 be two complex numbers (z1 z2) satisfying
(D) one integral root independent of a, b, c
Q.38 Let a1, a2, a3, ... be in AP. and g1, g2, ..., gn be in | z12 z 22 | | z12 z22 2z1 z2 | , then –
G.P. If a1 = g1 = 2 and a10 = g10 = 3, then –
z
(A) a7 g19 is an integer (B) a19g7 is an integer (A) 1 is purely imaginary
(C) a7 g19 = a19 g10 (D) a19 g10 is not an integer z2
Q.39 Number of real values of x satisfying the equation z
(B) 1 is purely real
x x x 2 x 2 2x 3 is (are) ? z2
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) | arg z1 – arg z2 | =
(C) 2 (D) Less than 2 (D) | arg z1 – arg z2 | = /2
Q.40 If 6, 8 and 12 are pth, qth and rth terms respectively
of an A.P. and f (x) = rx2 + 2px – 2q, then f (x) = 0 SECTION - 2
has – The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT
(A) a root between 0 and 1. INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
(B) both roots positive. Q.44 Let zk (k = 0, 1, 2, .... 6) be the roots of the equation
(C) both roots negative.
(z + 1)7 + z7 = 0. Then Re(z k ) is equal to
6
(D) both roots are of opposite sign.
Q.41 An A.P., a G.P., a H.P. have a and b (a b) as their k 0
first two terms, if their (n + 2)th terms respectively
–a/2. Find the value of a.
b 2n 2
a 2n 2 Q.45 Let P(x) is a polynomial with degree 5, and leaves
will be in G.P. then equals – remainder –1 and 1 when divided by (x – 1)3 and
ba (b 2n a 2n )
(x + 1)3 respectively then number of real roots of
n 1 n 1 P(x) = 0 is :
(A) (B) Q.46 Let the equation
n n
(x2 + a | x | + a + 1) (x2 + (a + 1) | x | + a) = 0
n 1 n 1
Cn C has no real root. If the range of values of 'a' contains
(C) (D) n n 2 m number of integers less than 5 then m is
n
Cn 1 C n 1
Q.47 For any x, y R, xy > 0 then the minimum value of
2x x 3 y 4y 2
4 equals –
y3 3 9x
8
T1-P1
Q.48 The inequality | z – 4 | < | z – 2 | represents the (ii) If both roots are negative, then k exhaustively
region given by Re (z) > A. Find the value of A. belongs to interval
(iii) If both roots are equal, then k exhaustively
SECTION - 3 belongs to interval
Q.49 If z1, z2, ...... z10 are the roots of the equation (iv) If no root lies between (–1,1), then k
1 + z + z2 + ..... z10 = 0 match the entries given in exhaustively belongs to interval
column I with one of the entries in column II. Column II
Column I (p) {1} [9, )
(i) (1 + z1) (1 + z2) (1 + z3) .......... (1 + z10) (q) (0, 1)
(ii) 1 + z1100 + z2100 + z3100 + ..... + z10100 (r) {1, 9}
(s) (9, )
(iii) (1 – z1) (1 – z2) (1 – z3) .......... (1 – z10) (A) (i) – p ; (ii) – r, (iii) – s ; (iv) – p
(iv) z1 × z2 × z3 × ...... × z10 (B) (i) – r ; (ii) – q, (iii) – s ; (iv) – p
Column II (C) (i) – p ; (ii) – s, (iii) – r ; (iv) – p
(p) 1 (D) (i) – s ; (ii) – q, (iii) – r ; (iv) – p
(q) –1
(r) 0 Q.52 Match the column –
(s) 11 Column I
Code : (i) The equation x3 – 6x2 + 9x + = 0 have
(A) (i) – p ; (ii) – r, (iii) – s ; (iv) – p exactly one root in (1, 3) then [+ 1] is (where
(B) (i) – r ; (ii) – q, (iii) – s ; (iv) – p [ . ] denotes the greatest integer function)
(C) (i) – p ; (ii) – s, (iii) – r ; (iv) – p
(D) (i) – p ; (ii) – s, (iii) – q ; (iv) – p x 2 x 2
(ii) If 3 2 2 for all x R, then
x x 1
Q.50 Match the equation in z, in column I with the [] is can be where [ . ] denotes the greatest
corresponding values of arg (z) in column II integer function.
Column I Column II (iii) If x2 + x + 1 = 0 and (b – c) x2 + (c – a) x
(i) z2 – z + 1 = 0 (p) –2/3 + (a – b) = 0 have both the roots common,
(ii) z2 + z + 1 = 0 (q) –/3 then [– 1] is (where [ . ] denotes the greatest
integer function)
(iii) 2z 2 1 i 3 0 (r) /3
(iv) If N be the number of solutions of the equation
(iv) 2z 2 1 i 3 0 (s) 2/3 | x – | 4 – x || – 2x = 4, then the value of –N is
(A) (i) rs ; (ii) ps ; (iii) ps ; (iv) pr
(B) (i) qr ; (ii) ps ; (iii) qs ; (iv) pr Column II
(C) (i) qr ; (ii) qs ; (iii) qs ; (iv) pr (p) –3
(D) (i) pq ; (ii) pr ; (iii) qs ; (iv) pr (q) –2
(r) –1
Q.51 For the quadratic equation x2 – (k – 3) x + k = 0 (s) 0
match the items in column I with items in column II. (A) (i) pqrs ; (ii) rs ; (iii) p ; (iv) p
Column I (B) (i) qr ; (ii) pqrs ; (iii) qs ; (iv) pqr
(i) If both roots are positive, then k exhaustively (C) (i) qr ; (ii) pqs ; (iii) s ; (iv) r
belongs to interval (D) (i) q ; (ii) pqrs ; (iii) pqs ; (iv) pr
9
T1-P1
Q.53 Column II gives sum of n terms of the series given Q.54 Match the column
in column I. Match them correctly – Column I
Column I
(i) If a k
sin (2k 1) x
dx ,
(i) 8 + 88 + 888 + ......... 0
sin x
(ii) 3 + 8 + 22 + 72 + 266 + 1036 + ..... then a1, a2, ... form a
1 1 1 (ii) If x, y, z all greater than ‘1’ are in G.P.
(iii) ...
1.2.3.4 2.3.4.5 3.4.5.6 1 1 1
then , , are in
1 2 3 1 log x 1 log y 1 log z
(iv) ... (iii) If a, b, c are in A.P. then
1 12 14 1 22 24 1 32 34
ab ac bc ba ca bc
, , are in
Column II bc ca ab
1 n (iv) If x1, x2, ...... xn are n non zero real
(p) (4 1) n(n 1) numbers such that,
3
(x21+x22 + ...+ x2n 1) (x22 + x23 + ...+ x2n)
8 (x1x2 + x2x3 + ...+ xn 1 xn)2 ,
(q) [10n+1 – 9n + 10] then x1, x2, ...,xn are in
81
Column II
1 n(n 1) (p) constant sequence
(r) 2
2 n n 1 (q) A.P.
(r) H.P.
1 1 1 (s) G.P.
3 1.2.3 (n 1) (n 2) (n 3)
(s) (A) (i) – p ; (ii) – q, (iii) – r ; (iv) – s
(A) (i) – q ; (ii) – p, (iii) – s ; (iv) – r (B) (i) – q ; (ii) – p, (iii) – s ; (iv) – r
(B) (i) – r ; (ii) – q, (iii) – s ; (iv) – p (C) (i) – p ; (ii) – r, (iii) – q ; (iv) – s
(C) (i) – p ; (ii) – s, (iii) – r ; (iv) – p (D) (i) – p ; (ii) – s, (iii) – q ; (iv) – r
(D) (i) – s ; (ii) – q, (iii) – r ; (iv) – p
10
T1-P1-SOL
IIT-JEE (ADVANCED)
SOLUTIONS TEST-1 (PAPER-1)
2
T1-P1-SOL
(11) 9. We know that velocity of rain w.r.t. man vrm Tension in cord 1, T1 = 172.5 N
is given as v r m v r v m . Let v m1 and (14) (A). For elevator acceleration 1 m/s2, tension in
cord 2 and cord 3 decreases.
vm2 be the initial and final velocities of the So, 165 + T – 2 × (7.5 – T) – 150
1 1
h ut gt 2 70 25t 10t 2
2 2 fmax=40N fmax=20N
(13) (B). For elevator acceleration 1.5 m/s2, tension in Hence, magnitude of friction force on both
cord 2 and cord 3 is zero. blocks is 20N and is directed to right for both
So, T1 – 150 = (15) (1.5) blocks.
3
T1-P1-SOL
Normal reaction exerted by 20 kg. block on = 180º.
10 kg. block has magnitude 40N is directed (23) (AC). CaCO3 (s) + clay (s)
towards right. Net force on system of both CaO (s) + clay (s) + CO2 (g).
blocks is zero. 224ml CO2 gas at STP implies 10 mmol CO2.
(19) (ABCD). Mole of CaO = 10 mmol
(20) (ABC). Mass of CaO = 560 mg.
Mole of CaCO3 = 10 mmol.
* 4 × (2 Al0 Al2+3 + 6e–)
Mass of CaCO3 = 1000 mg = 1 g.
3 × (8e– + Fe38/3 3 Fe0) Mass of clay = 0.2 g.
________________________ Residue contains clay and CaO, its mass
8 Al0 + 3Fe38/3 4Al2+3 +9 Fe0 = 560 + 200 = 760 mg.
* In NaIO3, the O. N. of iodine is + 5 % purity of CaCO3 = (1 g / 1.2 g) × 100
In NaI , the O.N. of iodine is –1 = 83.3 %.
* 2 KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 (24) (CD). 2 M + 2 H2O 2 MOH + H2
K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 3 H2O + 5 (O) × 3 Mole of H2 = 2.24 / 22.4 = 0.1 mol.
COO Thus, by stoichiometry total mole of both alkali
2 Fe + 3H2SO4 + 3(O)
COO metals = 0.2 mol.
Fe2(SO4)3 + 4CO2 + 3H2O × 5 Mean molar mass of the alloy
COO = total mass / total mol
10 Fe 6 KMnO 4 = 4.6 g / 0.2 mol = 23 g/mol.
COO
Mean molar mass must lie between the
1 mole of ferrous oxalate
individual molar masses of the metals. Looking
6 3 at the molar masses of alkali metals, only
mole of KMnO4
10 5 lithium can come into consideration, i.e. the
* In the number 90,000 all the zeros are alloy consists of rubidium and lithium.
significant. Let, n1 = moles of Rb,
64 M1 = Atomic mass of Rb,
(21) (AB). SF4 : = 5 pairs: n2 = moles of Li, M2 = Atomic mass of Li.
2
n1 + n2 = 0.2 mol
4 bond pairs, 1 lone pair
n1.M1 + n2.M2 = 4.6 g
802 87 × n1 + 7 × n2 = 4.6
XeO2F2 :
2 87 × n1 + 7 × (0.2 – n1) = 4.6
= 5 pairs : 4 bond pairs : 1 lone pair n1 = 0.04 mol
.. .. n2 = 0.16 mol
(25) (BC).
Pb3O4+ 4HNO3 2Pb(NO3)2 + PbO2 + 2H2O
F S F F Xe F 0.05 mol 2 mol 0 0 0
F F O O 0 1.8 mol 0.05 mol
SF4 XeO2F2 HNO3 + NaOH NaNO3 + H2O
(22) (ABC). Possible transitions : 1.8 mol
n = (5 – 2) = 3 = 3 × 2 × 1 = 6 So moles of NaOH required = 1.8 mol
1 rD n D M O2
Scattering
2
2
; n O2 1, n D2 4
(26) 8. r n M D2
sin 4 O2 O2
2
32
For minimum scattering = 90º. 4 8 2
2 4
4
T1-P1-SOL
(27) 5. 26Fe (normal configuration) –
= 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2, 3d6 Cl
3d
[ICl2]–
(n + ) for each unpaired electron = 5
Total (n + ) for 4 unpaired electrons = 20. Cl
26Fe (abnormal configuration)
= 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 Hybridisation – sp3d
Shape – Linear
3d Lone pair in the central atom = 3
Total (n + ) for 2 unpaired electrons = 10
20 10
% change = 100 50 10x F
20
x = 5.
(28) 4. P : Total number of polar compounds XeOF2
Xe O
4 3 1 1 1 7R
b r 4N A 300 L / mol R(1) 2 2 2 144
3 492.6 12 3 4
r = 2.5 Å, d = 5Å For single isolated atom, maximum spectral
(31) (B), (32) (A), (33) (D). lines = 3 (5 4, 4 3, 3 2)
(ii) For 5 1 transition in He+ ion sample,
n(n 1) 5 4
Max. spectral lines = 10
2 2
(H)3 2 = (He+)6 4 (Not possible for given
sample)
(H)4 3 = (He+)8 6 (Not possible for given
Hybridisation = sp3d2 sample)
Shape – square pyramidal For single isolated ion, maximum spectral lines
Lone pair in central atom = 1 =4
(5 4, 4 3, 3 2, 2 1)
5
T1-P1-SOL
(iii) For 7 3 transition in H atom sample,
O O
4(4 1) || ||
Max. spectral lines = 10 HO P P OH ; Basicity = 4
2
| |
36 OH OH
To emit photon of , sp3 sp3
5R
transition should be from 32 (Not possible) (ii) Pyrophosphorus acid (H 4P2O5)
7R O O
To emit photon of ,
144 || ||
transition should be from 4 3 (possible) HO P O P OH ; Basicity = 2
| |
For single isolated atom, maximum spectral H H
lines = 4
(7 6, 6 5, 5 4, 4 3) (iii) Boric acid (H 3 BO 3 )
(iv) For 7 4 transition in He+ ion sample, H3BO3 OH [B(OH)4 ]
3(3 1) (L.B.) (L.B.) borate ion
Max. spectral lines = 6 (iv) Hypophosphorous acid (H3PO2)
2
(H)3 2 = (He+)6 4 (possible for given O
sample) ||
HO P H ; Basicity = 1
36 |
photon of , can be emitted
5R H
(H)4 3 = (He+)8 6 (not possible for given sp3
sample)
For single isolated ion, maximum spectral lines = 3 (37) (BD). = 4 (b2 – ac) > 0 b2 > ac
(7 6, 6 5, 5 4) Discriminant of the given equation
(35) (C). Vapour pressure of liquid 22.8 mm of Hg (b2 – ac)2 + 4b2ac = (b2 + ac)2
6
T1-P1-SOL
6/9 2/3 tn+2 of H.P.
3 3
a19 g7 4 (2) 8 1 ab
2 2
1 a b a (a b) n ... (iii)
is not an integer. (n 1)
a ab
(39) (BD). Put y x x 2
These terms are in G.P. so
y 2 2x 2 2 x 2 2x 2n
2 b ab
b [b (b a) n]
y2 2 a a (a b) n
Hence, y 2 3
b2n 2 a 2n 2 n 1
By solving,
2y + y2 – 2 = 6 ab (b2n a 2n ) n
y + 2y – 8 = 0
2
(y + 4) (y – 2) = 0 linear
(42) (ACD). It can be reduce in only when both
as y > 0, y = 2 linear
have 2 roots common so common roots are
x x2 2
{x3 + (a –10) x2 – x + a – 6}
x 2 2 x – {x3 + (a – 6) x2 – x + a – 10}
x 2 x 44 x = 0 – 4x2 + 4 = 0
x =1x=±1
2
1
24 x x So roots of x3 + (a –10) x2 – x + a – 6 = 0
4 are 1, –1,
Hence, x = 1/4 is only solution of equation. = – (a –10)
(40) (AD). Let a be the first term and d be the common –1 + 1 + = – a + 10
difference of A.P. = 10 – a … (i)
= – (a – 6)
– = – (a – 6) ; = a – 6
10 – a = a – 6 ; 2a = 16 ; a = 8
O 1
z1 z1
(43) (AD). | z1 + z2 | = | z1 – z2 | z 1 z 1
Now, a + (p – 1) d = 6, a + (q – 1) d = 8, 2 2
a + (r – 1) d = 12 z1
(q – p) d = 2 and (r – q) d = 4 lies on bisector of 1 and – 1
z2
qp 1 z1
2q – 2p = r – q lies on imaginary axis
rq 2 z2
2p + r = 3q ......... (1)
Given f (x) = rx2 + 2px – 2q z1
is purely imaginary
f (0) = – 2q and f (1) = r + 2p – 2q = q z2
Now, f (0) f (1) = – 2q2 < 0
z1
f (x) = 0 has one root between 0 and 1, arg ; | arg (z1) – arg (z2) | =
Product of roots = negative 2
z 2 2
7
T1-P1-SOL
(48) 3. Let P (z), A (4, 0), B (2, 0)
z k 2 which is real
6
7 |z–4|<|z–2|
k 0 PA < PB
Re (z) > 3
Re(zk )
6
7
k 0 2 (3,0)
(45) 1. P (x) + 1 (x – 1)3.Q1(x) B(2,0) A (4,0)
P'(x) has twice repeated root '1'.
Also, P(x) – 1 (x + 1)3.Q2(x)
P'(x) has twice repeated root '–1'. (49) (A).
P'(x) = k (x – 1)2. (x +1 )2 (i) 1, z1, z2, ...... z10 are the 11th roots of unity
(as degree of P(x) 5) 1 + z + z2 + .. z10 = (z – z1) (z – z2) ...(z – z10)
= k (x – 1) = k (x4 – 2x2 + 1)
2 2 for z = – 1,
1 = (– 1 – z1) (– 1 – z2) .......... (– 1 – z10)
x 5 2x 3 = (1 + z1) (1 + z2) ....... (1 + z10)
P(x) = k x C (ii) 1 + z1100 + z2100 + z3100 + ..... + z10100
5 3
= 1 + z1 + z2 + ..... + z10 = 0
Using P (1) = –1 and P (–1) = 1 we get (iii) 1 + z + z2 + ...... + z10 = (z – z1) (z – z2)
15 (z – z3) ..... (z – z10)
k=–
8
C = 0. 11 = (1 – z1) (1 – z2) (1 – z3) .............. (1 – z10)
(iv) z1, z2, ...... z10 are the roots of z11 – 1 = 0
15 x 4 2x 2 product of roots
P (x) x 1
8 5 3
1, z1, z2, ...... z10 = (–1)11 (–1) = 1
(50) (B).
x 1 3i 1 i 3 1 i 3
(3x 4 10x 2 15) (i) z or
8 2 2 2
(46) 4. We have
(x2 + a | x | + a + 1) (x2 + (a + 1) | x | + a)= 0
amp z or amp z qr
Clearly for a > 0, 3 3
x2 + a | x | + a + 1 > 0 x R and
x2 + (a + 1) | x | + a > 0 x R 1 3i 1 i 3 1 i 3
(ii) z or ;
Hence the given equation has no real root if 2 2 2
a (0, ) 2 2
(47) 2. As x, y R and xy > 0, so x and y will be of amp z or ps
3 3
same sign.
1 i 3
All the quantities
2x x 3 y 4y 2
, , are positive. (iii) 2z 2 1 i 3 z 2
2
y3 3 9x 4
A.M. G.M. 2 2
cos i sin
3 3
1/3
2x x 3 y 4y 2 2x x 3 y 4y 2
3 4 3 3 3 4 2m (2 / 3) 2m (2 / 3)
z cos i sin
y 3 9x y 9x 2 2
3
2
2
m = 0, z cos i sin ;
3 3 3
8
T1-P1-SOL
m = 1, –3<+1<0
–3<+1<1
2 2
z cos i sin [ + 1] = – 3, – 2, –1, 0
3 3
x 2 x 2
2 (ii) 3 2
amp z or qs x2 x 1
3 3
–3x2 – 3x – 3 < x2 – x – 2 < 2x2 + 2x + 2
(D) 2z 2 1 i 3 0 (i) (ii)
( x2 + x + 1 > 0 when x R)
1 i 3 2 2
z2 cos i sin From inequality (i),
2 3 3 4x2 – ( – 3) x + 1 > 0
( – 3)2 – 4 .1 . 4 . 1 < 0 – 4 < + 2 < 4
2m (2 / 3) 2m (2 / 3)
z cos i sin –1 < < 7
2 2
From inequality (ii),
x2 + ( + 2) x + 4 > 0
m = 0, z cos i sin ; m = 1, ( + 2)2 – 4 . 1 . 4 . 1 < 0 – 4 < + 2 < 4
3 3
– 6 < < 2
4 4 From (i) & (ii),
cos i sin
3 3 – 1 < < 2 [] = –1, 0, 1
(iii) x = 1 satisfies
2 2 (b – c) x2 + (c – a) x + (a – b) = 0
or cos i sin pr
3 3 x = 1 satisfies x2 + x + 1 = 0
(51) (D). 1 + + 1 = 0 [ – 1] = [–2 – 1] = – 3
(i) D > 0 (k – 3)2 – 4k > 0 (iv) | x2 – x – 6 | = x + 2
Sum of roots > 0 k – 3 > 0 ; | (x – 3) (x + 2) | = x + 2
Product of roots > 0 k > 0 |x–3||x+2|=x+2
(ii) D > 0 (k – 3)2 – 4k > 0 (x 3) (x 2) x 2, x 2
Sum of roots < 0 k – 3 < 0 ;
(x 3)(x 2) x 2, 2 x 3
Products of roots > 0 k > 0
(x 3)(x 2) x 2, x 3
(iii) D = 0
(iv) f (x) = x2 – (k – 3) x + k
D 0 k (–, 1] [9, ) ......... (i) (x 4, x 2
because f (1) = 4 is positive, it means f (–1) is x 2, 2 2 x 3
also positive. x 4, x3
k 1 ......... (ii)
From (i) and (ii) k {1} [9, ) So, x = –2, 2, 4 N=3
(52) (A). Let f (x) = x3 – 6x2 + 9x + (53) (A).
f ' (x) = 3x2 – 12x + 9 = 3 (x – 1) (x – 3)
8
(i) Sum = [9 +99 + 999 +..... n terms ]
+ + 9
1
–
3 z 8
= [(10 – 1) + (100 – 1) + (1000 – 1)
9
f ' (x) = < 0 in (1, 3) +.... n terms]
But f (1) = 4 + & f (3) =
f (x) = 0 to have exactly one root in (1, 3), 8
= [(10 + 102 + 103 + ... + 10n) – n]
f (1) and f (3) should have opposite signs 9
f (1) f (3) < 0 ( + 4) < 0
9
T1-P1-SOL
8 10 (10n 1) 1 1 1 1 1 1
t1 , t 2 ,
= 9 n 2 1 3 2 3 7
10 1
1 1 1
8 t 3 .......
= [10n+1 – 9n + 10] 2 7 13
81
(ii) 1st difference 5, 14, 50, 194, 770, ... 1 1 1
........ t n 2 2
2nd difference 9, 36, 144, 576, ..... 2 n 1 n n n 1
They are in G.P. whose nth term is Adding we get,
arn–1 = a4n–1
Tn of the given series will be of the form 1 1
t1 + t2 + t3 + .... + tn 1 2
Tn = a4n–1 + bn + c 2 n n 1
T1 = a + b + c = 3, T2 = 4a + 2b + c = 8,
T3 = 16a + 3b + c = 22 1 n(n 1)
Solving we have a = 1, b = 2, c = 0. 2 n 2 n 1
Tn = 4n–1 + 2n (54) (C).
1 n
Sn = 4 2n (4 1) n(n 1) .
n 1
a k a k 1
sin (2k 1)x sin(2k 3)x
3 (i) dx
sin x
(iii) The rth term of the series is given by 0
1
= 2 cos 2 (k 1)x dx
1 1 2sin 2 (k 1) x
0
3 r(r 1) (r 2) (r 1) (r 2) (r 3) 0
2 (k 1) 0
For k = 2, 3, 4 a1 = a2 = a3 = ........
1 1 1
Sn The sequence is a constant sequence.
3 1.2.3 (n 1) (n 2) (n 3) (ii) Let r is the common ratio of G.P.
log y = log rx = log r + log x
1 r2 r4
n
r n
r log z = log r²x = 2 log r + log x
(iv)
r 1 r 1 (r
2
1 r) (r 2 1 r)
1 1 1
, ,
1 log x 1 log r log x 1 2log r log x
r 2 1 r r 2 1 r
1 1 1
n
are in H.P.
2 r 1
10
IIT-JEE (ADVANCED)
TEST-1 (Paper-2)
Time: 3 hours M. Marks: 183
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Question Paper Format
The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of three sections.
SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 21)
* This section contains SEVEN questions.
* Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
* For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
* For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If, only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : UNITS AND DIMENSIONS, KINEMATICS, LAWS OF MOTION
CHEMISTRY : SOME BASIC CONCEPTS IN CHEMISTRY-STOICHIOMETRY, STATES OF MATTER - GASEOUS STATE,
LIQUID STATE, ATOMIC STRUCTURE, CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE
MATHEMATICS : LOGARITHM, COMPLEX NUMBERS AND QUADRATIC EQUATIONS, SEQUENCES AND SERIES.
Name : ....................................................................................................................
Address : ...............................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
1
T1-P2
PART-I : PHYSICS having friction coefficient µ = 0.5. The cart is pulled
SECTION - 1 with a constant force F. What should be the value
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) of F so that neither static, nor kinetic friction acts
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is on block A. B
correct.
Q.1 The height h to which a liquid rises in a capillary
Smooth
A
tube of radius r depends in addition to r on the Rough
F
surface tension () of liquid, the density () of the
liquid and acceleration due to gravity (g). It is also Smooth
given from experimental observation that h is (A) 5 mg (B) (5/2) mg
inversely proportional to r. Find the formula for (C) 7 mg (D) 10 mg
calculating h using the method of dimensions. Q.5 In the given arrangement, mass of the block is M
and the surface on which the block is placed is
k krg
(A) h (B) h smooth. Assuming all pulleys to be massless and
rg frictionless, strings to be inelastic and light, R1, R2
kr krg and R3 to be light supporting rods, then acceleration
(C) h (D) h of point ‘P’ will be (A is fixed) :
g
Q.2 A graph between the V2
R2 R1
M
square of speed of a 3600 A
2
T1-P2
Q.7 A man running on a horizontal road at 8 km/hr, A
///////////////////
finds the rain falling vertically. He increases his
speed to 12 km/hr and find that the rain drops make 1 T1
30° with vertical. Find the speed of the rain with
respect to road.
(A) 3 6 km/hr (B) 4 7 km/hr 2 T2
C
(C) 3 7 km/hr (D) 6 km/hr F
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T1-P2
Q.12 Man A of mass 2m is standing on a ladder of mass
m. Ladder is attached with an inextensible light vB
string and man C of mass 3m is holding the other
end of string. Initially, the whole system is at rest. B
Assume whole system is at sufficient height and \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
u
pulley is frictionless. Also A and C are at same
horizontal level. Then choose the correct options. A
[g = 10 m/s2].
(A) B will never lose contact with ground.
u
(B) v B
cos
(C) vB = u sin
B m u
A (D) v B
sin
2m
3m C
A Q.14 Two shells are fired from a cannon with speed u
each at angles of and respectively with
horizontal. The time interval between the shots is
Ground
T. They collide in mid air after time t from the first
(A) If man A starts climbing up on the ladder with shot firing. Which of the following conditions must
a constant acceleration of 4 m/s2 w.r.t ground be satisfied?
then, the vertical distance between A and C (A) >
after 1 sec is 1 m. (B) t cos = (t – T) cos
(B) If man C starts climbing up on the rope (while (C) (t – T) cos = t cos
A remain at rest with respect to ladder) with 1 1
constant acceleration of 4 m/s2 with respect (D) (u sin ) t – gt2 = (u sin ) (t–T)– g(t–T)2
2 2
to ground then, the vertical distance between
A and C after 1 sec is 2 m.
SECTION - 3
(C) If both man A and C starts climbing up with
constant acceleration 4 m/s2 with respect to
Paragraph for Questions 15-16
ground then, acceleration of ladder is 4 m/s2
A particle located at x = 0 and t = 0 starts moving
upward.
along the positive x-axis with a velocity v such that
(D) If both man A and C starts climbing up with
constant acceleration 4 m/s2 with respect to v x where is a constant.
ground then, acceleration of ladder is 3 m/s Q.15 How does the velocity vary with time?
2
upward.
2
Q.13 In the Figure, the blocks A and B are of equal mass. (A) v t (B) v t
The pulley is fixed. In the position shown in figure, 2 2
A moves down with a speed u and vB is the speed
3
of B. Find the relation between vB and u. (C) v = 3 t (D) v t
2
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Q.16 What is the average velocity of the particle over (A) 0.16 (B) 0.50
the first s metres of its path? (C) 0.84 (D) 0.75
Q.22 1.0 g portions of each of the two different oxides
(A) s (B) 2
s of a metal M on heating in a current of hydrogen
2
gave 0.1258 g and 0.2264 g of water respectively.
(C) 2 s2 (D) s2
If the first oxide is M2O, the formula of the latter is
(A) MO2 (B) M2O3
Paragraph for Questions 17-18
(C) M3O2 (D) MO
A small bar starts sliding down an inclined plane
Q.23 V2O5 on reduction under different experimental
forming an angle with horizontal. The coefficient
conditions gave different products viz, VO2, V2O3,
of friction depends on the distance covered as
VO and V. the equivalent mass of V2O5 is
µ = s where is a constant.
maximum and minimum respectively, when it is
Q.17 What is the total distance covered by the bar till it
reduced to (atomic mass of V = 51.0)
stops?
(A) VO2, V2O3 (B) V2O3, VO
(A) (2/) tan (B) 2 tan
(C) VO2, V (D) V, VO
(C) 2 sin (D) (2/) sin
Q.24 50 mL of a solution containing 1.0g each of
Q.18 What is the maximum velocity over this distance?
Na2CO3, NaHCO3 and NaOH was titrated
g against 1N HCl. The titre value using
(A) sin tan (B) g sin cos phenolphthalein is
(A) 34.4 mL (B) 75.0 mL
(C) g 2 sin tan (D) g 2 tan (C) 50.0 mL (D) 29.0 mL
Q.25 One mol of H3PO2 reacts completely with two
mole of I2, converting it to iodide. What is the
PART - II: CHEMISTRY
oxidation state of Phosphorous in the product?
SECTION - 1
(A) +3 (B) +5
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
(C) 0 (D) –3
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct.
SECTION - 2
Q.19 A hydrogen atom in an excited state is ionized by
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
the absorption with a photon of 1eV. Then the
and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
minimum value of n for the excited state of H atom
four option(s) is(are) correct.
is :
Q.26 Which statement(s) is/are incorrect according to
(A) 1 (B) 2
MOT ?
(C) 3 (D) 4
(A) O2+ is paramagnetic and bond order is greater
Q.20 Compression factor Z for nitrogen at –50ºC and
than O2.
800 atm pressure is 1.95. The number of moles of
(B) N2 can act as oxidizing agent and reducing
gas necessary to fill a gas cylinder of 50 L capacity
agent.
under the above conditions is
(C) All bonding molecular orbitals are gerade.
(A) 1120.4 (B) 2240.8
(D) C2 is paramagnetic.
(C) 560.2 (D) 280.1
Q.21 The density of a mixture of O2 and N2 at STP is
1.4 g/L. The partial pressure of O2 (in atm) is
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Q.27 Consider the given reactions and select correct Q.30 Which of the following process is/are associated
option(s). with change of hybridization of the underlined
1. Zn + conc. HNO3 compound ?
2. Zn + dilute HNO3 (A) Al(OH)3 ppt. dissolved in NaOH
3. Cu + conc. HNO3
4. Cu + dilute HNO3 (B) B2 H6 is dissolved in THF
(A) n-factor of HNO3 in 1st reaction is 1. (C) SiF4 vapour is passed through liq. HF
(B) n-factor of HNO3 in 2nd reaction is 4.
(C) n-factor of HNO3 in 3rd reaction is 3. (D) Solidification PCl5 vapour
(D) n-factor of HNO3 in 4th reaction is 2. Q.31 In the structure of H2CSF4, which of the following
Q.28 You are given 5m (molal) aqueous solution of statement is/are correct –
H2SO4 of density 1.49 gm/ml, then – (A) Two C – H bonds are in the same plane of
(A) molarity (M) of the solution = 5M axial S – F bonds.
(B) mole fraction of solute = 0.083 (B) Two C – H bonds are in the same plane of
(C) % by weight of H2SO4 = 40% equitorial S – F bonds.
(D) concentration of H ion = 10M
+ (C) Total six atoms are in the same plane.
Q.29 The radial distribution functions [P (r)] is used to (D) Equitorial S – F plane is perpendicular to
determine the most probable radius, which is used plane of -bond.
Q.32 A sample of H2O2 solution labelled as 28 volume
dP(r) has density of 26.5 g/L. Mark the correct option(s)
to find the electron in a given orbital for
dr representing concentration of same solution in other
1s-orbital of hydrogen like atom having atomic units –
(A) M H2O2 2.5
dP 4Z3 2Zr 2 2Zr/a 0
number Z, is 3 2r e .
dr a0 a0 w
17
(B) %
v
Then which of the following statements is/are
correct – (C) Mole fraction of H2O2 = 0.2
(A) At the point of maximum value of radial (D) MH2O2 13.88
dP(r)
distribution function = 0, one antinode SECTION - 3
dr
is present. Paragraph for Questions 33-34
A 10 L flask contains 25.0 g of neon and unknown
a0 weight of hydrogen. The gas density is found to be
(B) Most probable radius of Li2+ is pm
3 3.0 g/L at 0ºC.
a0 Q.33 The number of gram of hydrogen present is
(C) Most probable radius of He+ is pm (A) 5.0 g (B) 10.0 g
2
(C) 15.0 g (D) 1.008 g
(D) Most probable radius of hydrogen atom is Q.34 The pressure of gaseous mixture is (in atm)
a0 pm (A) 10.0 (B) 8.4
(C) 9.2 (D) 5.0
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T1-P2
Paragraph for Questions 35-36 PART - III : MATHEMATICS
The distribution of electrons among various SECTION - 1
molecular orbitals is called the electronic Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
configuration of the molecule which provides us the and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
following very important information about the correct.
molecule. Q.37 If the roots of the equation x3 – 12x2 + ax – 28= 0
(a) Stability of molecule : The molecule is stable are in A.P., then a =
if number of bonding molecular orbital (A) 4 (B) – 39
electrons (Nb ) is greater than the number of (C) 39 (D) – 4
antibonding molecular orbital electrons (Ns). Q.38 If p, q, r and x, y, z are distinct real numbers such
7
T1-P2
Q.43 A regular octagon is inscribed in a circle with centre Q.48 Let (a – 1) (x2 +
3 x + 1)2 – (a + 1) (x4 – x2 + 1) 0
at 3 i 2. If 5 i 2 is one of the vertices on a x R, then which of the following is/are correct?
diagonal of maximum length, then the length of the 1 4
shortest diagonal is – (A) a ,
3 3
(A) 2 3 (B) 2 2
(B) Largest possible value of a is 3
(C) 2 (D) 2 (C) Number of possible integral values of a is 3
SECTION - 2 (D) Sum of all possible integral values of a is '0'
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) Q.49 Let a, b, c and m R+. Possible value of m
and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these (independent of a, b and c) for which atleast one
four option(s) is(are) correct. of the following equations
Z2 ax 2 bx cm 0
Q.44 If amp 0 , then Z can be
2Z 3i
bx 2 cx am 0 have real roots is
3i cx 2 ax bm 0
(A) 4 (B) – 6 – 6 i
2 (A) 1/12 (B) 1/8
9i (C) 1/4 (D) 1/2
(C) 8 (D) 6 + 3i Q.50 Let (log2x) – 4 log2x – m2 – 2m – 13 = 0 be an
2
2
Q.45 Let x be a perfect square natural number. When x equation in x and m R, then which of the following
is divided by 5, the quotient is "q" and the remainder must be correct?
(A) For any m R, the equation has two distinct
is "r" and x r q then check which of the solutions.
following is/are correct? (B) The product of the solutions of the equation
(A) number of solution is 3 does not depend on m.
(B) number of solution is 2 (C) One of the solutions of the equation is less
(C) one of all solution is square of prime number than 1 while the other is greater than 1 for
(D) the value of smallest solution is 25 m R.
1 1 1 (D) The minimum value of the larger solution is 26
Q.46 Let Sn 1 ...... (1) n 1 then which and maximum value of the smaller solution is
2 3 n
2–2.
of the following is/are correct?
SECTION - 3
1 1 1 Paragraph for Questions 51-52
(A) ..... S2n
n 1 n 2 2n Z1, Z2, Z3 are the vertices of an equilateral triangle
(B) S2n < 1 n of side 2 units.
(C) S2n 0.5 n Q.51 (Z1 – Z2)2 + (Z2 – Z3)2 + (Z3 – Z1)2 =
(D) 0.5 Sn 1 n (A) 0 (B) 1
Q.47 m and n are real numbers satisfying the equation (C) 3 (D) 4
9m + 2mn + n – 92m – 20n + 244 = 0, then
2 2 Q.52 Z1 + Z2 + Z3 – Z1Z2 – Z1Z3 – Z2Z3 =
2 2 2
(A) m [3, 6] (B) m [1, 10] (A) Z1Z2 + Z1Z3 + Z2Z3 (B) 0
(C) n [3, 6] (D) n [1, 10] (C) 2(Z12 + Z22 + Z32) (D) Z1 + Z2 + Z3
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
8
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Paragraph for Questions 53-54 Q.54 If S1 is solution of inequality [3x] + [x] < 2 + 3x
Every real number x can be expressed as and S2 is the solution of [x]2 + [x] – 6 = 0 then
x = { x } + [ x ] where [.] represents GIF and {.} compete set of values of S1 S2 is
represent fractional part of x. (A) (–, 2)
Q.53 Number of solutions of equation (B) (–3, –2] [2, 3)
5x + 20{x} + 3[x] = 7 are (C) [–3, –2) (2, 3)
(A) 12 (B) 10 (D) [–3, –2) (2, 3) – {7/3, 8/3}
(C) 9 (D) 13
9
T1-P2-SOL
IIT-JEE (ADVANCED)
SOLUTIONS TEST-1 (PAPER-2)
(1) (A). We are given; h = f (r, , , g) (3) (A). Velocity of man relative to the earth
h=kr g
a b c d
u 2 m / s ˆj
j
r
Substituting the dimensions of all quantities on i
both sides, we get vboat/river 4 m / s ˆi v b u r
(L) = La [MT–2]b [ML–3]c [LT–2]d
Equating power of M, L and T we have
vb/r
b+c=0 x
a – 3c + d = 1 ur
– 2b – 2d = 0
We thus have only three equations for
vb u r v b/r 2m / s ˆj 4 m / s ˆi
determining four unknowns. We need
information about the value of one of the four | v b | 20 m / s
unknowns a, b, c, d. The experimental 4m/s
information is h 1 / r. The power of r in the 2
tan tan 1 (0.5) 2m/s
required relation is therefore –1. 4
a = – 1, b + c = 0, a – 3c + d = 1, south of east
b+d=0 d 800m
b = 1, c = – 1, d = – 1 Time taken, t v 4 m / s 200 s
b/r
k
h k r 1 11g 1 Shift x = vr t = 2 × 200 = 400 s
rg (4) (A). For no friction on block A,
(2) (C). From graph,
ma m
2700
v2 S 3600
0.6 m
a
mg
dv 2700 dv
2v v 2250
ds 0.6 ds
Smooth
ma = mg ; a = g
F = (5m) (a) = (5m) (g)
1
T1-P2-SOL
(5) (C). F.B.D of the mass M : T = F (8) (ABD). Consider the vertical motion of the particle
T after entering the compartment.
T Let it reach the floor in time t.
ma = 2T = 2F a = 2F/m 1
So, acceleration of point P is 2a = 4F/m 3.2 (10) t 2 or t = 0.8 s
2
(6) (A). When the string breaks the particle starts from
the point (2, 0, 5) with speed (vy) 3 m/s and Due to the velocity component u which remain
moves as a projectile. It will reach the x-y constant; it covers a distance of 2.4 m in 0.8s.
plane in one second. 2.4
u= = 3 m/s
The x, y-coordinates are (2, 3). 0.8
Z Due to velocity v, point B must move forward
3m/s by 16 m in 0.8 s.
P
16m
5m v= = 20 m/s
Y 0.8
To a stationary observer outside the
X compartment, the path of the particle is a
(7) (B). We have parabola.
(9) (ABCD).Draw the free body diagram for B & C.
vrain road v rain man v man road ...... (1)
Balance the horizontal and vertical forces
The two situations given in the problems are separately for both
illustrated in the Figure T1 cos 1 = T2 cos 2 + mg
vman road T1 sin 1 = T2 sin 2
T2 cos 2 = mg ; T2 sin 2 = mg = F
O vman road
vrain man 30°
v
ra
30° Solving these equations, we find all the choices
are correct.
in
vrain man
ro
ad vrain road
N12
Vertically downwards T
(a) (b) 45°
W2
vrain road is same in magnitude and direction (10) (BD). f12
sin (30 ) 12 3 1 3
N12
; cot 2
f12
sin 8 2
P W1
f1
8
N1
200
(12) (AC). a3 a1
larger time of flight t. The second shell is fixed
C
3mg 2mg at an angle < and has a shorter time of
N+mg
Ground flight (t - T). Option (B) satisfies the condition
for equal horizontal displacement and (D) for
N – 2mg = 2ma1 ........(i) equal vertical displacement.
N + mg – T = ma2 ........(ii) (15) (B). We know that the instantaneous velocity of
T – 3mg = 3ma3 ........(iii)
a1 = 4 and a2 = a3 N = 2mg + 2m (4) dx
the particle is given by v =
a2 = 2 m/s2 (by equations) dt
arel = 2m/s2 dx
dx
v x i.e., x ; dt
1 2 1 dt x
Srel = rrel t 2 1 1m
2 2 Integrating from t = 0 (x = 0) to t = t (x = x)
a3 = 4 ; a2 = – a1
x dx dt ; x 4t
T = 3mg + 12m
x t 2 2
1/2
By (ii) N + mg – 3mg – 12m = – ma1
N = 2mg + 12m – ma1
0 0
By (i) 2mg + 12m – ma1 – 2mg = 2ma1 The time dependance of the velocity is
a1 = 4 obtained by differentiating both sides of this
arel = 0 Srel = 0 relation with respect to time.
a3 = 4 ; a1 = 4 dx 2 2
T = 3mg + 12m and N = 2mg + 8m v 2t t
dt 4 2
By eq.(ii),
2mg + 8m + mg – 3mg – 12m = ma2 The velocity v of the particle is thus increasing
a2 = – 4m/s2 directly proportional to time.
a2 = 4 m/s2 upward. (16) (A). To find the average velocity for first s metres,
(13) (AB). Let the length of sections of string be we assume that the time taken to cover the
BP = 1 and PA = 2 in the position shown. distance is t.
Let B move through a small horizontal distance 2t 2
x' to B' and A move down to A'. Using, x , we get
4
P
2t 2 2 s
P
s or t
1 4
s
2
Average velocity = s
A
t 2
B B'
A'
3
T1-P2-SOL
(17) (A). Consider the free body diagram of body 13.6
sliding down. For n = 4, E = eV = –0.85 eV
16
dv i.e., one eV will be sufficient to ionize the
mg sin – µ mg cos = ma = m
dt H-atom.
It is given, µ = s PV
dv (20) (A). Z ; Z = 1.95, V = 50 L, P = 800 atm
nRT
mg sin – s mg cos = mv
ds R = 0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1
T = –50 + 273 = 223 K
dv dv ds dv
v 800 50
dt ds dt ds n = 1120.4 moles.
1.95 0.0821 223
dv
g sin – g cos s = v (21) (C). Let there be n1 moles of O2 & n2 moles of N2
ds Molecular weight of mixture
g sin ds – g cos s ds = v dv
32n1 28n 2
Integrating, = 1.4 × 22.4 = 31.36
n1 n 2
v2 s2
(g sin ) s g cos + constant 32n1 + 28n2 = 31.36n1 + 31.36n2
2 2 n1 = 5.25n2
s = 0, v = 0 n1 5.25n 2 5.25
Constant = 0 0.84
n1 n 2 5.25n 2 n 2 6.25
v2 1 at STP, P is 1 atm
g sin s g cos s 2 ..... (1)
2 2 n1
When it stops, v = 0 Partial pressure of O2 = ×P
n1 n 2
1 2
g sin s g cos s 2 or s tan = 0.84 × 1 = 0.84 atm.
2 (22) (D). Mass of oxygen in 1.0 g of first oxide
(18) (A). Differentiating equation (1),
16
dv = × 0.1258 = 0.1118 g
v g sin g cos s 18
ds Mass of metal = (1 – 0.1118) = 0.8882 g
dv As the formula is M2O
When velocity is maximum, 0
ds 0.8882
Number of atoms of metal 2
x
1
s tan Number of atoms of oxygen 0.1118 1
16
x = 63.55
1 1 1 1
mv 2max g sin tan g cos 2 tan 2 Mass of oxygen in 0.2264 g of water
2 2
16
= × 0.2264 = 0.2012 g
g 18
v max sin tan
Mass of metal present
(19) (D). Energy of H atom in the nth excited state = (1.0 – 0.2012) = 0.7988 g
13.6 0.7988
= eV Number of atoms of metal
n2 63.55 1
Number of atoms of oxygen 0.2012
16
Formula of second oxide is MO.
4
T1-P2-SOL
+5 +4
5
V2O5 VO2
= 1000 = 5M H2SO4
182 1000
(23) (C). E V2O5 91.0 (max)
2 (B) Mole fraction of the solute
2e gain per mole
–
5 5
0.083
+5 +3
V 2O 5 V 2O 3 = 1000 5 55.55
182 5
E V2O5 45.5 18
4
4e gain per mole
(C) % by weight of H2SO4
–
+2
Total mass of solute
+5
V 2 O5 VO
182 = 1000
E V2O5 30.33 Total mass of solution
6
6e gain per mole 5 98
–
= 100 = 32.88%
+5 0 5 98 1000
V2O5 V
182 (29) (ABCD).
E V2O5 18.2 (min)
10e gain per mole
– 10 At the point of maximum value of RDF
(24) (A). The end point using phenolphthalein as
dP 2Zr 2 a
indicator uses complete NaOH and half 0 ; 2r 0, r 0
milliequivalent of Na2CO3 dr a 0 Z
Milliequivalent of NaOH + ½ Milliequivalent where Z = 3 for Li2+ and Z = 2 for the He+,
of Na2CO3 = Milliequivalent of HCl Z = 1 for hydrogen.
1 1 1 (30) (ACD).
1000 1000 1 V1 (A) Al(OH)3 + NaOH –––– Na[Al(OH)4]
40 2 53
(sp2) (sp3)
V1 = 34.4 mL
(25) (B). {n-factor of I2 / n-factor of H3PO2} (B) B2 H6 2 2 O BH3
= {Coefficient of H3PO2 / Coefficient of I2 } (sp3 ) .. (sp3 )
..
..
{2 / n-factor of H3PO2 } = { 1 / 2 }
O
..
THF
n-factor of H3PO2 = 4
Iodine is reduced to iodide, hence (C) SiF4 2HF
H 2 SiF6
sp3d sp3d 2
phosphorous is oxidized by + 4 from +1 to
+5. (D) 2PCl5 PCl
4 PCl6
solidification
(26) (CD). (C) bonding M.O. is ungerade. sp3d (sp3 ) (sp3d 2 )
(D) C2 is diamagnetic.
(27) (AB). Oxidation state of N in HNO3 is +5.
F
H F
It is reduced to NO2, N2O, NO2 and NO (31) (AC). C=S
respectively in the given reactions. n-factors H F
F
are 1, 4, 1, 3 respectively.
Hydrogen atoms are in a vertical plane with
(28) (ABD).
axial fluorine atoms -bond involving a
(A) Total moles of solute (H2SO4) = 5
p-orbital of carbon atom must lie in equatorial
Total mass of solute (H2SO4) = 5 × 98 = 490gm.
plane of the molecule.
Volume of the solution
Six atoms, i.e., 2H-atoms, C, S and both axial
Total mass of solution 490 1000 F-atoms lie in one plane.
= = 1000ml
Density of solution 1.49 (32) (ACD). Vstrength = 56,
mole of solute 28
Molarity of the solution = 1000 M= 2.5
volume of solution 11.2
5
T1-P2-SOL
1L contain 2.5 moles of H2O2 Roots are 1, 4, 7
or 2.5 × 34 = 85g H2O2 S2 = 4 + 7 + 28 = a a = 39
wt. of 1 litre solution = 265g (d = 265g/L) (38) (B). (q – r) x = k (q – r) (q + 2r – p)
w H2O = 180g or moles of H O = 10 = k (q2 – r2) + r (q – r) k – p (q – r) k
= 0 + k r (q – r) – 0
2
2.5 k
x H 2O2 0.2 = – (2p2 + 2q2 + 2r2 – 2pq – 2qr – 2rp)
2.5 10 2
k
w 2.5 34 = – (q – r)2 = (negative)
% 100 8.5 2
v 1000 (39) (A). Putting log4 x2 as y
2.5 52 log 5 y y y 2 1
m 1000 13.88
180
i.e., 5log5 y y y2 1 or 2y2 – y – 1 = 0
2
(33) (A). Weight of gaseous mixture = V × d
= 10 × 3 = 30 g (2y + 1) (y – 1) = 0 or y = –1/2 or y = 1
Weight of hydrogen = 30 – 25 = 5.0 g Since definition of log5 y demands y to be
(34) (B). PV = nRT positive, y = 1 only
25 log4 x2 = 1 x2 = 4 x = ± 2
No. of moles of Ne = = 1.25 The sum of the roots = 2 + (–2) = 0
20
(40) (B). (b + c – a) (c + a – b) (a + b – c) are all
5 positive.
No. of moles of H2 = = 2.5
2
(b c a) (c a b)
Total no. of moles = 3.75 > {(b + c – a) (c + a – b)}1/2
V = 10.0 L; T = 273 K; 2
R = 0.0821 L atm K –1 mol–1 and two more similar expression.
Multiplying them,
nRT 3.75 0.0821 273
P cab > (b + c – a) (c + a – b) (a + b– c)
V 10 Hence the given expression is negative.
= 8.405 atm. n n 1
(35) (D). (41) (D). Consider a i a i
(A) Bond order 1/bond length 1 1
Bond order O2+ = 2.5, O2 = 2, O2– = 1.5
a a a a a a
So correct order of bond length is n 1 2 1 3 .... 1 n
O2– > O2 > O2+ a 2 a1 a 3 a1 a n a1
22 a a a a a a
(B) Bond order of He2 = 0 2 3 2 4 .... 2 n
2 a 3 a 2 a 4 a 2 a n a 2
So He2 does not exist
a a
(C) In all these molecules all electrons are paired ...... n i n
in molecular orbitals. So they are all a n a n 1
diamagnetic . n + 2 {(n – 1) + (n – 2) + (n – 3) + ..... +1}
(D) F2 MOT configuration
a r as
1s 2 *1s 2 2s 2 * 2s 2 2p2z 2p2y 2p2z * 2p z2 * 2p 2z Since a a 2
s r
(36) (A). O2 O2– O22– O2+
Bond order 2 1.5 1 2.5 n + (n – 1) n = n2
(37) (C). Roots can be taken as – d, , + d
ai
n
1 n2
S1 = 3= 12 = 4 Hence,
S3 = 4 (16 – d2) = 28 d2 = 9 d = ± 3 i 1
6
T1-P2-SOL
is the point which divides BA externally in the
1
(42) (C). If Z = x + i y, then Re ratio 2 : 1.
Z
x iy x
A (2)
Re
x 2 y2 x2 y2 – 3i B
2
1
x 2 y2 x 0 and this represents a circle 3i
6 4
2 is the point which
Im (Z2) = Im (x + i y)2 = 6 6i
3 4
Im (x2 – y2 + 2ixy) =
2xy = l xy = /2 which represents a divides BA externally in the ratio 3 : 4.
rectangular hyperbola 3i
4 2 3
9i 2 is the point which
(43) (B). Let A5 5 i 2 8
2 43
EA5 = 2 units and A4E A5 = 45° divides BA externally in the ratio 4 : 3.
A5
Similarly 6 + 3i satisfies the given equation.
A6 A4 (45) (ACD). Given that x = 5q + r .... (i)
(with r = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4)
A7
E(3 i 2)
A3
and x rq …. (ii)
A8 A2 From (i), x 5 x 5r r
A1
(x – 6r)2 = 25x
If A4 Z1, then (i) r = 0 x = 0, 25. But x 0 so x = 25
(ii) r = 1 x2 – 12x + 36 = 25x
(5 i 2) (3 i 2) 2 x2 – 37x + 36 = 0 ; x = 1, 36
(cos 45 i sin 45)
Z1 (3 i 2) 2 But x = 1 not satisfy equation (i) & (ii)
So, x = 36
2 1 i (iii) r = 2 x2 – 24x + 144 = 25x
Z1 (3 i 2) 2 2 x2 – 49x + 144 = 0
No solution for natural no.
Z1 (1 i) (3 i 2) (1 i) 2 2 (iv) r = 3 x2 – 36x + 324 = 25x
x2 – 71x + 324 = 0
Z1 3 2 and if A6 Z2, then No solution for natural no.
(v) r = 4 x2 – 48x + 576 = 25x
Z2 (3 2) 2 2 i
x = 9, 64
Length of the diagonal, x = 9 not satisfy equation (i) & (ii)
A 4 A6 | Z2 Z1 | | 2 2 i | 2 2 so x = 64
x = 25, 36, 64 Ans.
Z2
(44) (ABCD). amp 0 1 1 1
2Z 3i (46) (ABCD). .....
n 1 n 2 2n
Z lies on the line BA produced or AB produced
(but not within AB) 1 1 1 1 1
= 1 ... 1 ...
2 3 2n 2 n
3i
2 (2) 1
3i 2 1 1 1 1
4 1 .....
2 2 1 2 3 2n 1 2n
7
T1-P2-SOL
A(Z1)
b2 4acm
c2 4abm
a 2 4bcm
B(Z2) C(Z3)
a2b2c2 < 43a2b2c2 m3 m > 1/4
8
T1-P2-SOL
2
(53) (A). 5 ([x] + {x}) + 20{x} – 3 [x] = 7
Z1 Z2 2 2 25{x} = 7 – 2 [x]
Z Z cos 3 i sin 3
3 2 7 2 [x]
{x}
25
Z Z
Similarly, Z Z cos 3 i sin 3
1 3
[x] = 0, 1, 2, 3, –1, –2, –3, –4, – 5, – 6, –7, –8
2 3 (54) (C). [x]2 + [x] – 6 = 0
2 ( [ x ] + 3) ( [x] – 2 ) = 0
Z1 Z3 2 2 [x] = 2, – 3
Z Z cos i sin
2 3 3 3 x [2, 3) [–3, –2) ...…(1)
[3x] + [x] < 2 + 3x
2 2 [3x] + [x] < 2 + [3x] + {3x}
cos i sin
3 3 [x] < 2 + {3x}
2 2 Case -1
Z1 Z2 Z1 Z3 2 x [2, 3) then 2 < 2 + {3x}
Z Z Z Z 2 cos 3 1 0 < {3x}
3 2 2 3
(Z1 – Z2)2 = 0 x (2, 3) – {7/3, 8/3}
Case -2
Z1 Z2 Z2 Z3 x [–3, –2)
(52) (B). ei /3 and ei /3
Z3 Z 2 Z1 Z3 –3 < 2 + {3x}
–5 < {3x}
Z1 Z2 Z1 Z3 xR
By division, Z Z Z Z 1 x [–3, –2)
3 2 2 3
Case -1 Case -2
The simplified as
x [–3, –2) (2, 3) …(2)
Z12 + Z22 + Z32 – Z1Z2 – Z2Z3 – Z3Z1 = 0
(1) (2) x [–3, –2) (2, 3)
9
IIT-JEE (ADVANCED)
FULL TEST-1 (Paper-1)
Time: 3 hours M. Marks: 183
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Question Paper Format
The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of three sections.
Name : ....................................................................................................................
Address : ...............................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
1
FT1-P1
PART-I : PHYSICS (C) At maximum extension speed of block A is
SECTION - 1
4 3
Each question has Four options [A], [B], [C] m/sec.
and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these 5
four options is(are) correct. (D) Impulse by vertical wall on block B is
Q.1 For a prism of refracting angle /2 and refractive 4 3 N.sec.
1 Q.4 The current in coil (as shown in
index µ (sin µ ), if is the angle of minimum
2 figure) is I (centers of all the
circular loops lie at same point)
deviation and is the deviation of the ray at grazing
and angular spread of coil is 90º,
incidence, then which of the following options is/are
n is number of turns per unit radian and R is radius
correct:–
of each turn. (Assume that turns are very close)
(A) sin = sin2 (B) cos = µ cos
(C) sin = µ sin (D) sin = cos2 0 nI
(A) B at common centre will be .
Q.2 A steady state current of 4 A flows in a coil when 2R
connected to a 12 V dc source. If the same coil is
connected to a 12 V, 50 rad/s ac source a current 2 0 nI
(B) B at common centre will be
of 2.4 A flows in the circuit. R
(A) the inductance of the coil is 0.08H (C) Magnetic moment of loop will be
(B) the power developed in the circuit if a 2500
F capacitor is connected in series with the coil nI 2 R 2
is 17.28 W. 2
(C) the inductance of the coil is 0.8 H.
(D) Magnetic moment of loop will be 2nIR 2
(D) the power developed in the circuit if a 2500µF
capacitor is connected in series with the coil Q.5 A long co-axial cable carries a uniform volume
is 17.28 W. charge density on inner cylinder and uniform
Q.3 Initially distance between two small blocks A and surface charge density on outer cylinder. If radius
B is 1m and natural length of spring is 2m. Now of inner cylinder is ‘a’ and radius of outer cylinder
the system is released. If B hits the vertical wall is ‘b’. It is found that this infinite cable is electrically
elastically then : (All surfaces are smooth) neutral then which of the following is/are correct.
a b
A B
k = 10N/m
2kg 3kg
Smooth
0.4m (A) 0
b 2 2a
(A) Maximum extension in spring during complete
motion is 20cm. (B) 0
a 2 2b
(B) Maximum speed of block B during complete
(C) Electric field outside the cable increases
2 linearly with radial distance.
motion is m/sec.
3 (D) Electric field will be zero outside the cable.
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
2
FT1-P1
Q.6 In the given circuit, X is an unknown resistance. If SECTION - 2
the current Is in the network is independent of the The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT
value of X, then INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
Q.8 A block of mass M is suspended by a
R1
string. Bullets each of mass m are fired
–
E
R3
vertically upwards towards the centre
+ R2
X of the block at speed u. If the bullets
I rebound after striking the block and
M
R4 R5 coefficient of restitution for each
collision is same and equal to e, how u
many bullets per second are to be fired m
(A) R2R5 = R3R4 so that the string just becomes slack ?
1 1 1 1 (Use M = m, g = 10 m/s2, u = 4/3 m/s, e = 1/2).
(B) R R R R Q.9 Figure shows a uniform metal ball suspended by
2 3 4 5
thread of negligible mass from an upright cylinder
(C) If I be not independent of X, then Is is the that floats partially submerged in water. The cylinder
maximum current for given values of R1, R2 has height 6 cm, face area 11 cm2 on the top and
and R3. bottom and density 0.5 g/cm3. 4 cm of cylinder’s
(D) Is is the minimum current for given values of height is inside the water surface. Density of the
R1, R2 and R3. metal ball is 8gm/cm3. R is the radius of the ball. It
Q.7 A string of mass m is fixed at both its ends. The
fundamental mode of string is excited and it has an 3
is found that R 3 cm3 , where is an integer..
angular frequency and the maximum displacement
amplitude A. Then, Find . ( w = 1gm/cm 3) (system is in equilibrium)
(A) The maximum kinetic energy of the string is
A = 11 cm2
1
EK = mA
2 2
6cm
4
(B) The maximum kinetic energy of the string is
4cm
1
EK = mA
2 2
2
(C) The mean kinetic energy of the string averaged
1
over one periodic time is < EK> = mA 2 2 R
4
(D) The mean kinetic energy of the string averaged
1
over one periodic time is < EK> = mA 2 2
8
3
FT1-P1
Q.10 A conducting loop made of thin, light thread has a SECTION - 3
soap film inside and outside it. Length of thread is Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.15 by appropriately
, total resistance is R, and initially area enclosed matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
2 Column-1 shows the bob of mass m tied to string
by it is Ai = . It is kept in a uniform magnetic
8 of length and initial velocity (at lowest point) as
field B directed inwards and then a small puncture shown in the figure. Column-2 shows the angle
is made in inner film. If total charge flown through made by string with downward vertical and column-
3 shows speed of bob at angle .
B 2 Column-1 Column-2 Column-3
the loop after the puncture is . Then value of
nR
n is :
Inner soap B
film
Conductor thread
Q.11 A man crosses a river of width d. Current flow (II) 6g (ii) = 180° (Q) V 6g
speed is v. Speed of swimmer relative to water is
v. Man always heads towards the point exactly
opposite to the starting point at the another bank
(relative to water). If radius of curvature of the path
followed by the swimmer just after he start (III) (iii) = 60° (R) V = 0
5g
swimming is n 2d, then the value of n is.
Q.12 A point charge +q is placed on the axis of a closed
cylinder of radius R and length 25R/12 as shown.
If electric flux coming out from the curved surface
xq
of cylinder is , then calculate x. g
10 0 (IV) 3g (iv) = 0° (S) V
3 3
R +q
Q.13 Which of the following correctly represent the
4R/3 3R/4 combination at highest point of trajectory.
(A) (I) (i) (R) (B) (II) (i) (R)
(C) (IV) (iii) (S) (D) (III) (ii) (S)
Q.14 Which of the following correctly represent the
combination of situation with speed and angle.
(A) (I) (i) (S) (B) (II) (ii) (S)
(C) (III) (iii) (Q) (D) (III) (i) (P)
4
FT1-P1
Q.15 Which of the following correctly represent the
Gravitational potential energy
combination for maximum tension in the string during (U 0, at the reference level)
the motion. Q.18 (in J-s2/m) of
g
(A) (I) (iv) (Q) (B) (II) (iv) (Q)
(C) (II) (ii) (R) (D) (III) (iv) (P) the body (shown in column-1) with respect to the
reference level (shown in column-2), where g is
Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately gravitation acceleration.
matching the information given in the three (A) (I) (i) (S) (B) (II) (ii) (R)
columns of the following table. (C) (III) (iii) (P) (D) (IV) (iv) (Q)
Match the following
PART - II: CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3 Each question has Four options [A], [B], [C]
and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
(Body) (Axis and reference level) (magnitude
of physical
quantity in
S.I. Unit)
four options is(are) correct.
(I) (i) (P) 1 Q.19 Which is/are correct about SO2Cl2 ?
(A) OSO ˆ OSCl ˆ ClSCl
ˆ bond angle
(B) Number of p– p bonds < Number of
Uniform hollow
hemispherical shell of Reference
M = 3 kg and R = 2 m level (U = 0) p–d bonds
(C) 1 mol of this reacts with 0.1 mol P4.
(II) (ii) (Q) 2
5
FT1-P1
Q.22 Select the correct match(es): (C) pH = 2 HCN & pH = 12 NaOH
(A) Gold sol : Colloidal particles move towards (Ka of HCN = 10–10)
anode during electrophoresis. (D) pH = 5 CH3COOH & pH = 9 NH3 (aq),
(B) Egg albumin : Lyophilic colloid. Ka (CH3COOH) = Kb (NH3 (aq))
(C) Zeta potential decreases : stability of lyophobic Ph H
colloidal sol decreases. Q.25 Reactant
alc. KOH (E2)
C = C
(D) Polarity of dispersion medium increases : HCl CH3 CH2Ph
CMC increases. Which of the following molecule (s) is/are suitable
reactant ?
Red P + HI
Isohexane
Ph Ph
Ac2O H3C H H3C Cl
Q.23 C6H12O6 Pentaacetate
(P) Pyridine (A) H Cl (B) H H
CH 2 OH CH O
| | A
800
CO OH C CH 2 OH
| |
(C) (D) CH OH
CH OH 400
B C
Temperature in K
| |
HO C CH 2OH CH OH
| | D
CH 2 OH 100
CH 2 OH
5 10 40 50
Q.24 Equal volumes of following solutions are mixed, in Time in minutes
which case the pH of resulting solution will be av-
erage value of pH of two solutions. AB represent cooling of liquid, BC represent
(A) pH = 2 HCl & pH = 12 NaOH conversion of liquid to solid, CD represent cooling
(B) pH = 2 HCl & pH = 4 HCl of solid. The molar entropy of fusion in J mole–1
K–1 is (Give your answer after dividing by 10):
6
FT1-P1
Q.27 How many of the following relation is/are correct?
(a) Mg > Al (electropositive character)
(b) Al > Ga (electronegativity) (II) Conductivity (ii)CH3COOH (Q) NaOH
(c) S–S > O–O (bond energy of single bond)
(d) N+ > N (ionization energy) Vol. of Titrant
7
FT1-P1
1 PART - III: MATHEMATICS
(iii) t1/2
2.303 a
(III) k log SECTION - 1
t ax ka
Each question has Four options [A], [B], [C]
1 1 1 3 and [D]. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
(IV) k 2t (a x)2 a 2 (iv) t1/2 four options is(are) correct.
2ka 2
Column 3 Q.37 Let p (z) = z3 + az2 + bz + c where a, b, c are real.
There exists a complex number such that three
roots of p(z) = 0 are + 3i , + 9i , 2 – 4 where
t1/ 2
i2 = –1 , then –
(A) 4 is real root of p (z) = 0
t1/ 2
(P) (Q)
a a
(B) a = – 12, b = 84, c = 208
(C) | a + b + c | = 136
(D) | a + b + c | = 280
Q.38 If x1, x2, x3 are roots of 3x3 – 13x2 + 14x – 2 = 0
t1/ 2
t1/ 2 where x1 < x2 < x3 and if
(R) (S)
f (x) = tan 1 x sin 2 x sin 3 x , where [•]
[x ] [x ] [x ]
1/a 1/a 2
denotes greatest integer function then
(A) Range of f is [1, 3]
Q.34 For the decomposition of HI on the surface of gold (B) Range of f is [3/4, 3]
the only correct combination is
[x 2 ]
(A) (III) (ii) (R) (B) (II) (i) (P) dt
(C) (IV) (i) (P) (D) (I) (iii) (z) (C) If g (x) = then g' (1/2) = 0
1 | x t |
[x1 ]
1
Q.35 For the reaction N2O5 2NO2 + O2 the only (D) tan–1x1 + tan–1x2 + tan–1x3 is equal to –/4.
2
Q.39 With all angles measured in degree the product
correct combination is
8
FT1-P1
Q.40 Let y = f (x) be a function such that (A) = (B) 2 = 1 – 22
f (2 t) f (2 t) 1 cos 2
lim 4 . Which of the (C) 2 = – cos 2 (D)
2
t 0 t 2
following conclusions cannot be drawn from this
information: SECTION - 2
(A) f (x) is differentiable at x = 2 The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT
(B) f (x) is continuous at x = 2 INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
(C) f (x) has to be discontinuous at x = 2 Q.44 If positive numbers a, b, c are in H.P. and if
(D) f (2) is finite
ab cb
Q.41 Let f (x) = x3 + 2x2 – x + 1 , then which of the ..... ,
2a b 2c b
following is/are correct
(A) sin–1(sin [] ) + cos–1 (cos [] ) = 6 – then find maximum value of such that above
(where is real root of f (x) = 0 and [· ] denotes relation always hold ?
the G.I.F)
Q.45 Let a and b be unit vectors that are perpendicular
(B) f (x) = 0 has three distinct real roots. to each other, then box product
(C) f (x) = 0 has only one real root.
[a (a b) b (a b) a b] is equal to
(D) sin–1 (sin [] ) + cos–1 (cos [] ) = 5 – 2
(where is real root of f (x) = 0 and [· ] Q.46 Let f (x) = (x2 + 3x + 2)cosx find number of
denotes the G.I.F)
log10 f (k)
n
Q.42 If m1 and m2 are the roots of the equation 1
positive integers n for which
x2 – ax – a – 1 = 0, then the area of the triangle k 1
formed by the three straight lines y = m1x, y = m2x
Q.47 If a and b are chosen randomly from the set
and y = a (a –1) is
consisting of numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ......... 12
a 2 (a 2) 2/x
(A) if a > –1 a x bx
2 (a 1) lim 12
and if p is probability that 2
x0
a 2 (a 2)
(B) if a < –1 then find 24 p.
2 (a 1)
x
a 2 (a 2) Q.48 If f (x) = cot n then
2
(C) if –2 < a < –1
2 (a 1)
x
lim f (x) cos ec r 1 is equal to –
n
a (a 2)
2
x /4
(D) if a < –2 r 1 2
2 (a 1)
Q.43 Unit vectors a and b are perpendicular, and unit
If c a b (a b), then –
9
FT1-P1
SECTION - 3 Answer Q.52, Q.53 and Q.54 by appropriately
Answer Q.49, Q.50 and Q.51 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
matching the information given in the three columns of the following table
columns of the following table Column-1: real valued function;
Let a be the length of tangent to circle Column-2: continuity of the function;
x2 + y2 – 6x – 4y – 11 = 0 drawn from point Column-3: differentiability of the function;
P(1, a) for items in column-1. Match the following Column(s)
Let f (x) = maximum {sin x, cos x, 1– cos x}, Column–1
x (0, b) for items in column-2. (I) f (x) = ||x – 6| – |x – 8|| – |x2 – 4|
Let Sn be the number of triangles that can be + 3x – |x – 7|3
formed using the vertices of a 'n' sided polygon (II) f (x) = (x – 9) |x + 11x + 24 | + sin | x – 7|
2 2
such that no side of polygon is side of triangle. + cos | x – 4 | + (x – 1)3/5 sin (x – 1)
Column-1
3/5 3
(I) a = 4 (II) a = 5 (x 1) 2 : x 1
(III) a = 5 (IIV) a = 1 1
Column-2 (III) f (x) x cos 1 (4x 3 3x) : 1 x 1
2
(i) f(x) is not differentiable at 3 points
(x 1) : 1 x 2
5/3
f (x 1)
lim 0
(ii)
x
x (IV) f (x) = {sin x} {cos x} + (sin3 {x}) ([x]),
2b 2b x [–1, 2]
b /2 Column 2
(iii) f (x) dx 2 (i) continuous x R
/2 (ii) discontinuous at a single point only
(iv) f (x) is not continuous at 2 points. (iii) discontinuous at 2 points
Column-3 (iv) discontinuous at 3 points
(P) Sn = 2 (Q) Sn = 7 Column 2
(R) Sn = 50 (S) Sn = 70 (P) not differentiable at 3 points
Q.49 If a = 8, b = 3, n = 7 then which of the following is/ (Q) not differentiable at 4 points
are incorrect ? (R) not differentiable at 2 point
(A) (I) (ii) (Q) (B) (III) (iii) (P) (S) not differentiable at 5 points
(C) (I) (iii) (Q) (D) (I) (i) (Q) (Where [.] denotes the greatest integer function and
Q.50 If a = 7, b = 2, n = 6 then which of the following is/ {.} fractional part function)
are incorrect ? Q.52 Which of the following combination is correct?
(A) (II) (i) (R) (B) (II) (iii) (P) (A) (I) (i) (R) (B) (III) (ii) (R)
(C) (IV) (ii) (P) (D) (II) (iv) (P) (C) (IV) (iv) (P) (D) (I) (i) (Q)
Q.51 If a = – 4, b = 1 n = 10 then which of the following Q.53 Which of the following combination is correct?
is/are incorrect ? (A) (II) (iii) (S) (B) (III) (i) (P)
(A) (II) (iv) (S) (B) (I) (ii) (R) (C) (II) (iii) (R) (D) (III) (i) (R)
(C) (I) (i) (R) (D) (III) (iii) (R) Q.54 Which of the following is correct?
(A) (I) (i) (S) (B) (IV) (i) (S)
(C) (II) (ii) (S) (D) (II) (ii) (P)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
10
FT1-P1-SOL
IIT-JEE (ADVANCED)
SOLUTIONS FULL TEST-1 (PAPER-1)
1
FT1-P1-SOL
dB
(3) r > b
E 2r 0
dN = n × d E=0
d
E
(4) (AD).
a
2 0 E 1/r
E r
0 (dN) I
dB
2R r=a r=b r
dBy = dB cos
(6) (AD). Obviously, R2, R3, R4 and R5 along with X
0 nI /2 form a Wheatstone's network. If this net is
dBy 2R
cos d
R 2 R3
0 balanced, (i.e) , no current will
R4 R5
0 nI nI
By Bx ; Bcentre 0 pass through X and so the current IS in the
2R 2R network will be independent of value of X.
Magnetic moment Similarly, no current will flow in the diagonal
d y I (R
path, if X = 0, as there will be no potential
2
) (n cos d)
difference across the diagonal. In this case, Is
IR 2 n x will be the minimum current in the network
for given values of R1, R2 and R3 as in all
net 2nIR 2 other cases, an extra current will flow along
X.
b (7) (AD). Let the displacement of the string be given
a
(5) (BD). x
by y (x, t) = A sin cos (t + )
L
Relation between and s where is a phase factor. So the transverse
cable is electrically neutral velocity is given by
.2b .a 2 0 y x
y (x, t) A sin sin (t )
t L
2
FT1-P1-SOL
The maximum kinetic energy is equal to the (8) 5. Mg is balanced by upward impulsive force.
string’s total energy of oscillation. Note that Fdt = dp
all points of the string achieve their maximum Fdt = mu (1 + e)
kinetic energy at the same instant of time, when Mg = mu (1 + e) n
y = 0 for all x. Since dm = µ dx where µ=m/L n = no. of bullets per second
is the mass per unit length of the uniform string. Mg
The maximum kinetic energy, n
mu (1 e)
1 y 2
E k max. of dm
(9) 8. Taking cylinder and the ball as system
...(1)
2 t A
1 L y 2
max . of dx h h1
2 0 t 1
y
2
2
The maximum value of , occurs when
t r
sin2 (t + ) =1
4 3 4
R 2 g Ah1g R 3w g Ah1w g
Hence, E k A sin
2 2 L 2 x 3 3
dx
2 L
0 1/3
3A (h1w h1 )
R
4 (2 w )
The integral sin L dx over the half-cycle
2 x
L
0 Using values
has the average value of L/2. A = 11 cm 2 ; h1 = 4 cm ; w = 1 gm/cm3 ;
1 = 0.5 gm/cm3 ; 2 = 8gm/cm3
1 2 2 L 1
Hence, E k A mA 2 2
2 4 3 11 (4 1 6 0.5) 3
1/3
2 R cm
The mean kinetic energy of the string averaged 4 (22 / 7) (8 1) 8
over one periodic time is obtained from (1) R3 = 3/8
by integrating the time-dependent factor (10) 8. Due to the surface tension force by outside
sin2 (t + ) over one period, 0 to T. film, loop will expand. So current will induce
in anticlockwise direction.
Now since sin (t ) dt 2
T
2 T
0
The mean kinetic energy of the string averaged Outside soap
film
over one periodic time is
Inner soap
T
Ek E
film
Ek sin 2 (t ) dt k
T 2 Conductor thread
0
1 1 1
mA 2 2 mA 2 2
2 4 8
3
FT1-P1-SOL
f i (14) (D).
Charge flown = (15) (B).
R (16) (C). Center of mass of a triangular uniform plate
2 2 h
B from its base is 1m
2 8 B 2 3
2 7
R 8R (17) (B). Iaxis MR 2 MR 2 MR 2
5 5
dr rd
(11) 2. v ; v 7 5
dt dt 9 = 9 kg-m2
5 7
dv vd
dv vd a U 3
dt dt (18) (D). Mh CM (2) 2 m
9 3
v v
2
v v O
d d
(19) (ABCD). S
B O Cl
Cl
2 (p–d) bonds
d
No (p– p) bonds
r
P4 + 10 SO2Cl2 4 PCl5 + 10 SO2
SO2Cl2 + H2O H2SO4 + HCl
d
v v
A
v 96 3 3.42
v (20) (AC). 3.42 ppm Al2(SO4)3 = ppm
2v 342
[SO42–] = 2.88 ppm
27 2 3.42
a v [SO42–] = ppm
45° 342
[Al3+] = 0.54 ppm Al3+
96 1.42
a v2 ( 2v) 2 1.42 ppm Na2SO4 = ppm SO42–
a r a sin 45 142
2 2d
= 0.96 ppm SO42–
2 2d 46 1.42
ppm Na+ = 0.46 ppm Na+
142
R 37° 53°
(12) 7. 0.54 103
[Al3+] = = 2 × 10–5 M,
27 106
q 2 (1 cos 37) q 2 (1 cos 53)
(2.88 0.96) 103
0 4 0 4 [SO42–] =
96 106
q 1 4 1 3 = 4 × 10–5 M
1 2 1 5 2 1 5
0
0.46 103
q 1 2 7q [Na+] = = 2 × 10–5 M
23 10 6
0 1 10 10 10
0
(13) (A).
4
FT1-P1-SOL
Enantiomer give similar product.
Cp
(21) (ABCD). 1.4
Cv H [0.4 103 ] 30
(26) 3. Sfusion
Cp – Cv = R ; Cv – Cv = R T 400
= 30 J mole K–1
–1
R R
or C v and C p (27) 3. (a), (c), (d)
( 1) 1
2
CV = = 5 cal/mol K (28) 7.
0.4
, , , ,
2 H CH3
Also cV or sV = = 0.15 cal/mol K H3C CH3
0.4 32
, and
CH3 H
(22) (ABC). (±) H H
CN
1 |
pH = {pKw + pKa – pKb} = 7 CH 3 CH CH 2 C H
HCN
2
| |
Ph OH OH
Ph H (D)
H
(25) (ABC). C=C
CH3 CH2Ph O
||
CH3 CH2Ph
C OH
There are two possible molecules
|
CH 3 CH CH 2 C H
H3O | |
Ph Ph
OH OH
Cl H
H H
OH
or
H Cl O O
(E)
CH3 CH2Ph CH3 CH2Ph
5
FT1-P1-SOL
(30) 4. For H, n = 2 is first excited state.
x1 x 2 x 3 x1x 2 x 3
We have 2s, 2px, 2py and 2pz.
(31) (ABD). 1 (x1 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3x1 )
(32) (C).
13 2
(33) (ACD).
(34) (B). Decomposition of HI on surface of gold is a 3 3 1
14
zero order reaction. 1
3
2.303 a 3
(35) (A). For a 1st order reaction, k log tan–1x1 + tan–1x2 + tan–1x3 =
t ax 4
(36) (D). For a 2nd order reaction,
cos ec2 (2k 1)
45
1 1 1 (39) (BD).
k k 1
t a x a = cosec21º.cosec23º.....cosec289º
(37) (AC). = + 3i , = + 9i , = 2 – 4
1
Let = x + iy
= x + i (y + 3), = x + i (y + 9) sin 2 1.sin 2 3....sin 2 89
= (2x – 4) + i(2y) 1
+ + = –a
(sin1.sin 3 sin 5....sin 89)
4x – 4 + i (y + 3 + y + 9 + 2y) = –a (sin1.sin 3....sin 89)
a is real 4y + 12 = 0 y = –3
= x , = x + 6i, = 2x – 4 – 6i 1
.. = – c
(sin1.sin 3 sin 5....sin 89)
x [x + 6i) (2x – 4 – 6i)] = – c (sin179.sin177....sin 91)
x [x (2x – 4) + 36 + i {(2x – 4) 6 – 6x}] =– c
c is real 1
x [(2x – 4) 6 – 6x] = 0 (sin1.sin 3 sin 5....sin179)
x=4
sin 2 sin 4 sin 6....sin178
= 4, = 4 + 6i, = 4 – 6i
a = – 12, b = 84, c = – 208 sin1 sin 2 sin 3 sin 4....sin178 sin179)
| a + b + c | = 136
289 cos1.cos 2.cos 3.....cos89
(38) (BC). Let h (x) = 3x3 – 13x2 + 14x – 2 289
h (0) = – 2, h (1) = 2, h (2) = – 2, h (3) = 4 sin 91.sin 92.........sin179
0 < x1 < 1, 1 < x2 < 2 , 2 < x3 < 3 m = 2, n = 89 ; m + n = 91
[x1] = 0, [x2] = 1, [x3] = 2
e
2 4
1
3 e{2x}dx {x}
dx
f (x) = 1 + sin x + sin2x f (x) 3 1
2
2
4
6 e{x}dx 3 (e 1)
1
g (x)
1
dt x
dt 1
dt 1
1 | x t | 1 x t 1 x t 2
0 0 x 0
n + 5m + 1 = 100 = 2252
1 1
g (x) Number of ways
1 x 2 x
1
g' (1/2) = 0 [(2 1) (2 1) 1] 5
tan (tan–1x1 + tan–1x2 + tan–1x3) 2
m + n = 91 = 7 × 13
Required number of ways = 22 – 1 = 2
6
FT1-P1-SOL
(40) (ABCD).
a 2 (a 2)
If f (x) is differentiable then and area = if – 2 < a < –1
2 (a 1)
f (2 t) f (2 t)
lim (43) (ABCD).
t 0 t
Since a, b and c are unit vectors inclined at
f (2 t) f (2) f (2 t) f (2)
lim angle , we have
t 0 t t
| a | | b | 1 and cos a c b c
= 2f ' (2) = 4 f ' (2) = 2
Moreover if f (2) is not defined nothing can Now, c a b (a b)
.... (1)
be said about continuity. Also given limit
a c (a a) (a b) {a (a b)}
implies tlim (f (2 t) f (2 t) 0 , which
0
cos | a |2 ( a b 0, a (a b) 0)
may not necessarily mean that RHL = LHL at
x = 2. =
Similarly, by taking dot product on both sides
f (x)
of (i) by b , we get = cos
=
Again, c a b (a b)
(41) (AC). x
–3 –2
| c |2 | a b (a b) |2
2 | a |2 2 | b |2 2 | a b |2
From the figure it is clearly visible that roots
of equation lies between (–3 , –2 )
2 (a b) 2 {a (a b) 2 (b {a b})
[] = – 3
(42) (ACD). 1 2 2 2 | a b |2
The vertices of the given triangle are (0,0),
2 2 2 { | a |2 | b |2 sin 2 }
a a 2
,
m a and m , a .
1 2
1 2
So the area of the triangle is equal to 2 or
2 2 2
2
a 2 (m 2 m1 ) But = = cos
(2m1m 2 ) 1 = 22 + 2
2 = 1 – 2 cos2 = – cos 2
Since m1 and m2 are the roots of
x2 – ax – a – 1 = 0, 1 2 1 cos 2
we have m1 + m2 = a ; m1m2 = – (a + 1) 2
2 2
or (m1 – m2)2 = (m1 + m2)2 – 4m1m2
= a2 + 4 (a + 1) = (a + 2)2
or m1 – m2 = ± (a + 2) ab cb
(44) 4. P
So, the required area is 2a b 2c b
a 2 (a 2) a 2 (a 2) 2ac 2ac
a c
2 (a 1) 2 (a 1) ac a c as b 2ac
2ac 2ac ac
Since the area is a positive quantity, we have 2a 2c
ac ac
a 2 (a 2)
Area = if a > –1 or a < –2
2 (a 1)
7
FT1-P1-SOL
a 3c 3a c 3 c a 2/x
1 4 a x bx
2a 2c 2 a c lim 12
2
(47) 1.
x0
1 1 1
...
So, ..... 2 4 8 a x bx 2 2
lim x 12
1/2 ex0 2
11/2
e(ln a + ln b) = 12 ab = 12
=4
Possible ordered pair (a, b) are
1. [a (a b) b (a b) a b]
(45) (1, 12) (2, 6) (3, 4) (4, 3) (6, 2) (12, 1)
(a (a b)) (b (a b)) (a b)) 6 1
Required prob. =
12 12 24
(a (a b)) (b (a b))
24p = 1
(a (a b)) (a (a b) b)
(48) 1. We have
r 1
a a a (a b) 1
n
x n 1
cos ec
[as a b 0, a (a b) 0]
r 1 2 r 1
x
sin r 1
(46) 2. f (x) = ((x + 1) (x + 2))cosx 2
If x is even integer the f (x) = (x + 1) (x + 2)
x x
1 sin r 1 r
If x is odd integer then f (x) =
n 2 2
(x 1) (x 2)
r 1 sin
x x
r sin r 1
log10 f (k) log10 f (k) 1
n n 2 2
1
k 1 k 1
x x x x
log10 f (1) + log10 f (2) + … + log10 f (n) = ±1 sin r 1 cos r cos r 1 sin r
n 2 2 2 2
f (1) · f (2) …….f (n) = 10 or 1/10 .... (1)
x x
If n is even integer, then from r 1 sin r sin r 1
2 2
1 1
· (2 + 1) (2 + 2)
(1 1) (1 2) (3 1) (3 2)
cot r cot r 1
n
x x
...... (n + 1) (n + 2) = 10 , 1/10
r 1
2 2
n2 1 1
10, n 2 20,
2 10 5 x x x
cot cot x cot 2 cot ...
n = 18 n N 2 2 2
If n is odd then from (1)
x cot x x
1 cot n n 1 cot n cot x
(2 + 1) (2 + 2) …… 2 2 2
(1 1) (1 2)
8
FT1-P1-SOL
(49) (ABD). 10 11 (21) 5 77 24
(50) (ABCD). S10 11 1
(51) (ACD). 4 6 2 2
9
IIT-JEE (ADVANCED)
FULL TEST-1 (Paper-2)
Time: 3 hours M. Marks: 183
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Question Paper Format
The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of three sections.
SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 21)
* This section contains SEVEN questions.
* Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
* For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
* For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If, only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Name : ....................................................................................................................
Address : ...............................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
1
FT1-P2
PART-I : PHYSICS Q.3 A particle initially at rest moves from a fixed point
SECTION - 1 in a straight line so that at the end of one second its
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) 1
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is acceleration is sin t + . The distance from
correct. (t 1)2
Q.1 A uniform disc of mass m and radius R, hinged at the fixed point at the end of seconds will be
some point is performing pure rotation with respect (A) 2– log ( + 1)
to hinge, in horizontal plane with a constant angular (B) 2– log
velocity . At certain instant center of the disc is at (C) 2+ log ( + 1)
origin in the mentioned co-ordinate system and (D) log ( + 1)
R ˆ ˆ Q.4 A long copper wire of circular cross-section carries
velocity of particle A is VA (3i 4 j) m / s
a current of 10 A. S is a plane surface parallel to
4
the axis of the copper wire wholly inside the wire.
Kinetic energy of the disc is – The magnetic flux per metre of wire, for the plane
y surface is, in Weber/m
B S
x
A
(A) 1 × 10–5 (B) 1.5 × 10–6
(C) 1 × 10–6 (D) 1.5 × 10–5
mR 2 2 17mR 2 2 Q.5 A cylinder of ideal gas is closed by an 8 kg movable
(A) (B) piston (area 60 cm 2) as shown in Figure.
2 4
Atmospheric pressure is 100 kPa. When the gas is
17mR 2 2 7mR 2 2 heated from 30°C to 100°C, the piston rises by
(C) (D) 20 cm. The piston is then fixed in its place and the
32 32
gas is cooled back to 30°C. Let Q1 be the heat
Q.2 A point source S is placed at distance 40 cm from added to the gas in the heating process and | Q2|
a screen. Intensity at a point P on screen which is the heat lost during cooling. Then the value of
closest to the source is I0. A convex lens of focal [Q1 – | Q2 | ] will be,
length 20 cm is placed exactly at mid-point of SP
such that SP is principal axis of the convex lens. Piston
Now intensity at P becomes:
(A) 2I0 (B) 3I0 Gas
(C) 4I0 (D) 5I0
(A) zero (B) 136 J
(C) –136 J (D) – 68 J
2
FT1-P2
Q.6 A progressive simple harmonic wave is moving in SECTION - 2
air along the x-axis. The part of this wave at a given Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
point x = x0 from the source and at a certain instant and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
t = t0 has the waveform shown below in the four option(s) is(are) correct.
displacement (y-t) time graph and velocity (v-t) time Q.8 Both the blocks shown in figure
graph respectively. have same mass ‘m’. All the
pulley and strings are massless.
Velocity
Displacement
y v (A) Acceleration of block A is 2g/5.
x=x0 (B) Acceleration of block A is g/5. m
(C) Acceleration of block B is g/5. Block
x=x0 A
(D) Tension in the string attached
a
with A is 3mg/5.
t=t0 Time t m
t=t0 Time t
(ii) (v-t) graph Block
(i) (y-t) graph B
Q.9 A light ray enters into a medium whose refractive
Velocity of the wave has value v0 and its angular
velocity is . Which of the following equations will x
index varies along the x-axis as n(x) = n 0 1
correctly represent the complete wave at x0 4
agreeing with above wave forms? where n0 = 1. The medium is bounded by the
2 planes x = 0, x = 1 & y = 0. If the ray enters at the
(A) y a cos (t t 0 ) origin at an angle 30º with x-axis.
T 2
y
2
(B) y a sin (t t 0 )
Medium n(x)
Air
Air
T 2
O x
30° x=1
2 Air Air
(C) y a sin (t t 0 )
T 2
2
(D) y a cos (t t 0 ) (A) Equation of trajectory of the light ray is
T 2
y [ 3 x 3]
Q.7 A closed and an open pipe, each of 2cm. diameter
are in resonance in fundamental modes with a tun- (B) Equation of trajectory of the light ray is
ing fork of 700Hz when velocity of sound is 336 y 2 [ 3 x 3]
m/s. The minimum number of such open pipes to (C) The coordinates of the point at which light ray
be joined end to end and with the closed pipe so
comes out from the medium is [1, 2 (2 – 3 )]
that the resulting long closed pipe is in resonance
with the same tuning fork is – (D) The coordinates of the point at which light ray
(A) 5 (B) 10 comes out from the medium is [1, (2 – 3 )]
(C) 12 (D) 20
3
FT1-P2
Q.10 A uniform ring having mass m, radius R, cross (A) If R be increased, the length L of the
section area of the wire A and young’s modulus Y potentiometer wire needed for balance point
is rotating with an angular speed ( is small) on a will also be increased.
smooth horizontal surface. Which of the following (B) The device will show greater accuracy for
options is correct : smaller values of R than for larger values for
mR 2 R.
(A) Tension in the wire is . (C) If the supply e.m.f. E be reduced, the length
2
for balance point on the wire will be increased
mR 2 2 (D) The sensitivity of the device for measuring
(B) Change in length of the wire is
2AY potentials can be increased by increasing E
and reducing R.
mR 2 2 Q.13 When barium is irradiated by light of = 4000 Å,
(C) Change in radius of the ring is .
2AY all the photoelectrons emitted are bent in a circle
(D) Elastic potential energy stored is of radius 50 cm by a magnetic field of flux density
5.26 × 10–6 T. Then
1 m 2 4 R 3 (A) The kinetic energy of fastest photoelectron is
4 AY 0.6 eV.
(B) Work function of metal is 2.5 eV.
Q.11 A small ball is connected to a block by a light string
(C) The maximum velocity of photo electron is
of length . Both are initially on the ground. There
0.46 × 106 m/s
is sufficient friction on the ground to prevent the
(D) The stopping potential for photoelectric effect
block from slipping. The ball is projected vertically
is 0.6 V.
up with a velocity u where 2g < u2 < 3g . The
Q.14 Which of the following statements is/are correct
centre of mass of the "block + ball" system is C
about the refraction of light from a plane surface
u
Then – when light ray is incident in denser medium. (C is
////////////////////////// critical angle)
(A) C will move along a circle. (A) The maximum angle of deviation of during
(B) C will move along a parabola.
(C) C Will move along a straight line. refraction is C , it will be at angle of
2
(D) The horizontal component of the velocity of incidence is C
the ball will first increase and then decrease. (B) The maximum angle of deviation for all angle
Q.12 Figure shows the principal circuit of a 10-wire incidences is – 2C, when angle of incidence
potentiometer which is used to measure a given is slightly greater than C.
voltage V between the two points in an auxiliary (C) If angle of incidence is less than C then
circuit. The source has e.m.f. E, and a part R of the deviation increases if angle of incidence is also
adjustable resistor is included in the circuit. For this increased
device, which of the following statements will be (D) If angle of incidence is greater than C then
true? angle of deviation decreases if angle of
incidence is increased.
+ A
E–
C
R
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
4
FT1-P2
SECTION - 3 PART - II: CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Questions 15-16 SECTION - 1
At the moment t = 0, a stationary particle of mass Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
m experiences a time dependent force which is and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
given by F = kt (T – t) where k is a constant and T correct.
is the time for which the force acts. Q.19 A radioactive element X with a half-life of 2.0 hrs
Q.15 What is the momentum of the particle when the converts into another element Y. After time t, the
action of force stops? ratio of atoms of X and Y were found to be 1 : 4,
(A) kT / 6
3 (B) kT / 6
2 then the value of t in hours is
(C) kT / 3
4 (D) kT / 3 (A) 2 (B) 4
Q.16 What is the distance covered by the particle while (C) Between 4 and 6 (D) 6
the force acted? Q.20 The major product of the following reaction
(A) kT4 / 12m (B) kT3 / 6m sequence is
(C) kT / 12m
2 (D) kT / 12m O
(i) HCHO (excess)/NaOH, heat
Paragraph for Questions 17-18 (ii) HCHO/H +(catalytic amount)
A and B are two thin infinite conducting planes (i.e.,
planes of infinite length and width) and carry equal O O O O OH
currents with the current being j amperes per unit
width in a direction out of the page (see diagram). (A) (B)
P is a point between the planes and Q a point on
the other side of plane B. Then
O O O OH
HO
A
(C) (D)
P
OH
B Q.21 The product(s) of the following reaction sequence
Q
is(are)
Q.17 The magnetic induction field at P (= Bp) due to the NH2
currents in both the infinite planes is – (i) Acetic anhydride/pyridine
(A) BP = 0 (B) BP = µ0 j
(ii) KBrO3 /HBr
(C) BP = µ0 j / 2 (D) BP = µ0 j / 2
+
(iii) H3O , heat
(iv) NaNO2 /HCl, 273-278K
Q.18 The force F per unit area on the lower plate because (v) Cu/HBr
of the current in the upper plate will be – Br Br
(A) F = µ0 j2 of away from upper plate. Br Br
(B) F = µ0 j2 towards the upper plate. (A) (B)
Br
j2
(C) F = 0 away from upper plate. Br
2 Br
Br Br
0 j 2
(C) (D)
(D) F = towards the upper plate.
2 Br
Br
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
5
FT1-P2
Q.22 A sample of wustite FexO contains one Fe(III) for (C) Average KE per particle is double in the
every three Fe(II). The value of 9x is : second gas compared to first gas.
(A) 2 (B) 4 (D) Compressibility factor is double in the first gas
(C) 6 (D) 8 compared to second gas.
Q.23 When CuSO4 solution is treated with NH3 solution, Q.27 Alternate tetrahedral void in FCC are not occupied
a blue precipitate is first formed which dissolves in in following :
excess of NH3 to give deep blue colouration. The (A) NaCl (B) ZnS
deep blue colouration is due to formation of: (C) CaF2 (D) Na2O
(A) [Cu(OH)4] 2– (B) [Cu(NH3)4] 2+ Q.28 In which of the following reactions benzaldehyde
(C) [Cu(NH3)6] 2+ (D) Cu(OH)2 will form in final product.
Q.24 Which of the following reactions will give primary CN
alcohol as major product?
SnCl HCl
(A) Propene
1. B H /THF 2
2 6
(A)
2. H O /OH
2 2
H3O
2
CrO Cl /CS
(C) Propene
2 4dil. H SO 2 2
(B)
H3O
CO HCl
Cold and dilute NaOH (C)
(i) + NaCl + H2O Anhyd. AlCl3 /CuCl
Q.25 Cl2
Hot and conc. NaOH OH
(ii) + NaCl + H2O
Compounds (i) and (ii) are - KOH/
(A) NaClO3, NaClO (B) NaOCl2, NaOCl (D) + CCl4
H
(C) NaClO4, NaClO3 (D) NaOCl, NaClO3
Q.29 Which of the following are enantiomers of each
SECTION - 2 other ?
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) OH OH
and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these CHO CHO
four option(s) is(are) correct. (1) HO (2) HO
6
FT1-P2
Q.30 Which statement(s) is/are true for the reaction
A2(g) 2C(g) + D(g) ? Paragraph for Questions 35-36
(A) KP must be greater than KC. Two important class of inorganic reactions are
(B) If H = +ve ; Kp increases with temperature redox reactions and ppt reactions. In redox reaction
and dissociation of A2 increases. if same element of same substance gets oxidized
(C) If H = –ve ; Kp decreases with temperature as well as reduced is known as disproportionation
and dissociation of A2 decreases. reaction. Bonding favours precipitation reaction to
2 be exothermic.
P Q.35 (I) Cl2 disproportionate in basic as well as in
(D) K p 4 3
1 2 neutral medium.
Q.31 The correct statement/s about the compound given (II) I2 disproportionate in basic medium.
below is/are : (III) NaNO2 disproportionate in acidic medium.
(IV) K2MnO4 disproportionate in acidic as well
Cl
H as in neutral medium.
CH3
Correct statement(s) is/are :
CH3
(A) I (B) I, II, III
Cl H (C) I, II, III & IV (D) II, III
(A) the compound is optically active. Q.36 (I) Al (aq) + NaOH Al(OH)3 (white ppt.)
3+
7
FT1-P2
PART - III : MATHEMATICS Q.41 The interval in which x (> 0) must lie so that the
SECTION - 1 greatest term in the expansion of (1 + x)2n, (nN)
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) has the greatest coefficient is –
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
n 1 n n n 1
correct. (A) , (B) ,
n n 1 n 1 n
Q.37 A curve represented by equation
x2 y2 n n 2 n 1 n
(C) , (D) ,
1 is n2 n n n 1
sin 2 sin 3 cos 2 cos 3
Q.42 The plane denoted by P1 : 4x + 7y + 4z + 81 = 0
(A) An ellipse with focii on x-axis.
is rotated through a right angle about its line of
(B) An ellipse with focii on y-axis.
intersection with the plane P2 : 5x + 3y +10z = 25.
(C) A Hyperbola with focii on x-axis.
If the plane in its new position is denoted by P, and
(D) A hyperbola with focii on y-axis.
the distance of this plane from the origin is d, then
Q.38 For acute angle triangle ABC, the value of
find the value of [d/2] (where [ . ] represents
sin A sin B sin C greatest integer function)
is
A B C (A) 3 (B) 5
(A) greater than 6 / (C) 7 (D) 9
(B) 6 / Q.43 If A > 0, B > 0 and A + B = /3, then the maximum
(C) less than 6 / but greater than 3 / value of tan A tan B is
(D) greater than 3 (A) 1 / 3 (B) 1/3
Q.39 Suppose 28 objects are placed along a circle at
equal distances. Number of ways is which 3 objects (C) 3 (D) 3
can be chosen from them so that no two of three
chosen objects are adjacent nor diametrically SECTION - 2
opposite is Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
(A) 2576 (B) 2268 and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
(C) 2940 (D) 2438 four option(s) is(are) correct.
Q.44 If n is the smallest positive integer such that the
Q.40 If a i a1.a 2 .a 3....a n , then
n
polynomial x4 – n.x + 63 can be written as a product
i 1 of a linear and a cubic polynomial with integer
coefficients, then
16 1
(1 ix) 2000i 1
(A) Number of divisors of n is 10.
(B) Number of natural solutions of x.y = n is 10.
i1
lim (C) Number of odd divisors of n is 2.
is equal to –
x 0 x
(D) [x] dx = 100 (e – 1)
n x
e
8
FT1-P2
Q.45 A square S has side length 40. A second square S'
(C) If (p2 q 2 ) dx f ( ) then
1
of side length 15 is constructed inside S with same
centre and with sides parallel to those of S. From 0
each mid point of side S segments are drawn to
the two closest vertices of S', the result is a four e2 1
pointed star like figure inscribed in S. The star like f (0) =
2
figure is cut out and then folded to form a pyramid
(p q ) dx f ( ) then
with base S' 1
2 2
(A) Volume of pyramid so formed is 225. (D)
(B) Volume of pyramid to formed is 750. 0
(C) Total surface area of pyramid is 600
(D) Lateral surface area of pyramid is 375. e2 1
f (0) =
Q.46 A circle with centre O and radius R is drawn on a 2
paper and A is a given point inside circle with OA=a Q.48 If expression 1 + x, 1 + x + x2, 1 + x + x2 + x3,
where O is origin and A is on positive x axis. Fold ........ , 1 + x + x2 ..... + xn are multiplied together
the paper to make a point A' on the circumference and terms of the product are arranged in the
coincident with point A, then a crease line is left on increasing powers of x in the form a0 + a1x + a2x2
the paper. Set of all points on such crease lines, + ......, then –
when A' goes through every point on the (A) Number of terms in the product is
circumference (n 1) (n 2)
(A) consist of all points on the border of or outside .
2
the ellipse with centre (a/2, 0).
(B) Number of terms in the product is
(B) consist of all points on the border of or outside
the ellipse having eccentricity (a/R). n2 n 2
(C) Consist of all points on the border of or inside .
2
the ellipse having eccentricity (a/R). (C) Coefficients of the terms equidistant from
(D) Consist of all points on the border of or inside beginning and end are equal.
the ellipse where principal axes are parallel to (D) a1 + a3 + a5 + .....= a0 + a2+ a4+...... = (n+1)!
co-ordinate axes.
Q.47 Consider following two infinite series in real x & . Q.49 If the inequality sin2x + a cos x + a2 1 + cos x
x2 x3 holds for every x R then the possible negative
p x sin sin 2 sin 3 ....
2! 3! values of ‘a’ is (are)
(A) – 1 (B) – 2
x2 x3 (C) – 3 (D) – 4
q 1 x cos cos 2 cos 3 ....
2! 3! Q.50 If P is a point (x, y) on the line y = – 3x such that P
If remains constant and x varies then and the point (3, 4) are on the opposite sides of
2 2 the line 3x – 4y = 8 then –
dp dq
(A) (p q ) (A) x > 8/15 (B) x > 8/5
2 2
dx dx (C) y < – 8/5 (D) y < – 8/15
2 2
dp dq
(B) (p q )sin
3 3 2
dx dx
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
9
FT1-P2
SECTION - 3 Paragraph for Questions 53-54
Paragraph for Questions 51-52 A, B, P and Q are square matrices each of order
Lines whose equation are 3×3
x 3 y 2 z 1 x 2 y 3 z 2 Q.53 If | P | = 1, | Q | = 1 and adj B = A, then
and adj (Q B P–1) is equal to
–1
2 3 3 2 3
(A) PAQ (B) PAB
lie in same plane, then
(C) ABQ (D) ABP
Q.51 The value of sin–1 sin is equal to :
Q.54 If A and P are skew symmetric matrices, then PAP
(A) 3 (B) – 3
is –
(C) 4 (D) – 4
(A) symmetric matrix
Q.52 Angle between the plane containing both lines and
(B) skew symmetric matrix
the plane 4x + y + 2z = 0 is
(C) row matrix
(A) /3 (B) /2
(D) column matrix
1
(C) /6 (D) cos–1
186
10
FT1-P2-SOL
IIT-JEE (ADVANCED)
SOLUTIONS FULL TEST-1 (PAPER-2)
dv 1
7 R (3) (A). We have, = sin t +
vB
4 vA R
dt (t 1)2
R 1
Integrating v = – cos t – + C1,
(1) (C). (t 1)
3R 53°
4 37° A
3R/4 where C1 is a constant.
H The particle was initially at rest when
t = 0; v = 0
0 = –1 – 1 + C1 C1 = 2
R 5R 5R v 2 cos t
1
VA 9 16 r r
4 4 4 (t 1)
7 R ˆ To find the distance travelled in seconds
VB
i Integrate from t = 0 to t =
4
x 2 cos t
mR 2 9mR 2 17mR 2 1
IH dt
t 1
2 16 16 0
1
FT1-P2-SOL
Consider a small strip of area ds at distance r (6) (C). From the graphs, we see that
from centre (r < R). (i) y = amplitude 'a' , at x = x0 and t = t0
The flux through this area dy
= d = (ds B) = Bds normal to the
(ii) = v = 0 at x = x0 and t = t0.
dt
elementary area. dy
Putting ds = . dr where is the length of the Also, = vt is negative for t < t0, and is
dt
planar strip, d = B..dr
positive for t > t0
0 Ir
But B (at distance r) is B 2
2R 2 Only the equation y a sin (t t 0 )
T 2
0 I satisfies the above conditions.
Hence, d [r dr]
2R 2 (7) (D). End corrections :
Integrating this over r from r = 0 to r = R Closed 0.3d ; Open : 0.6d
We get the total flux through the plane Let x be the number of open pipes required.
Total end correction not available in the long
r dr
0 I R
0 I pipe = 0.3d (for closed pipe)
2 R 2 4 + (x – 1) × 0.6d (for intermediate open pipes)
0
+ 0.3d (for the last open pipe) = x × 0.6d
Putting =1 m per unit length of the plane
This must equal the one-less half wave =
0I 2
107 I 336
4 x d; 0.48m
1.2 700
For I = 10 amp, = 10–7 ×10
= 1 × 10–6 Weber/m d = 0.02m x = 20
(5) (B). The gas pressure Alternate method :
Weight of piston
= + atm. pressure Closed pipe : 1 + 0.3d = ....... (1)
Area of cross-section 4
8 9.8
= 1.00 105 N / m 2 Open pipe : 2 + 0.6d = ....... (2)
4 2
60 10
= 1.13 × 105 N/m2 n
Long pipe : 1 + x2 + 0.3d =
During the heating process, the internal energy 2 4
is changed by U1 and work W1, is done. ....... (3)
Therefore, Q1 = U1 + W1 From the equation, (1) & (3),
= U1 + P.dV
= U1 + (1.13 × 105) (0.20 × 60 × 10–4) n n
x 2 2
= U1 + 136 J 2 x /2
During the cooling process, no work is done
as volume is constant, W = 0. 0.6d
n
Substituting (2), 2 1.2d
Hence, Q2 = U2. But U2 is negative as 1
x /2
the temperature decreases, and since the gas
returns to its original temperature, 1.2 0.02 1 19
1 1
U2 = –U1 0.48 20 20
Hence, [Q1 – | Q2 | ]
= (U1 + 136 – U1) = + 136 J x 20
, min x = 20
n 19
(both should be integers)
2
FT1-P2-SOL
(8) (ACD). d m
mg – T = 2ma .......(i) 2T sin R 2 Rd
2 2R
2T – mg = ma .......(ii)
Solving, mg = 5 ma T mR 2 T/A
a = g/5 T ; Y
2a m 2 /
T = mg – 2ma
T T
g 3mg mg
= mg – 2m YA YA
5 5 2T
m a
mR 2 1 mR 2 2
y 2R
mg 2 YA YA
R mR 2
(x,y)
T
x
i
is (1, 2 (2 3)) .
(10) (ACD). Let T be the tension in the string. Let v = speed of ball when the string makes
an angle with horizontal.
d
1 1
T T mv 2 mu 2 mg sin
2 2
d d
Horizontal component of velocity of the ball
Tcos Tcos
= V = v sin = sin u 2 g sin
2 2
d/2 d/2
dV
d Tsin d For V to be maximum 0 , which gives
Tsin
2 2 d
T T
2u 2
d sin
3g
3
FT1-P2-SOL
(12) (ACD). If R is increased, for a given value of E, (15) (A). F = kt (T – t) the force acts for T seconds.
the potential gradient decreases, and hence dp
greater length will be needed for balance point. F kt (T t)
dt
Greater accuracy will be obtained for larger
dp = kTt dt – kt2 dt
value of balance length, as the fractional error
will be less and so also for larger values of R. 1 1
Integrating, p kTt 2 kt 3 + constant
If supply e.m.f. E is reduced, potential gradient 2 3
decreases and length for balance point will At t = 0, p = 0, constant = 0
increase. Sensitivity of the potentiometer wire
1 1
means, one must see a deflection of the test p kTt 2 kt 3
galvanometer for the smallest displacement on 2 3
the wire from balance point (i.e) the balance 1 1 kT3
point must be sharp. This can be obtained by At t = T, p kTT 2 kT3
2 3 6
increasing the potential gradient (i.e) increasing
E and decreasing R. p kT 2 k 3
(13) (ABCD).According to Einstein's photoelectric (16) (A). v t t
m 2m 3m
1 ds
equation, mv 2max W kT 2 k 3
2 ds t dt t dt v
2m 3m dt
Due to magnetic field,
kT 3 k 4
mv2max Ber Integrating, s t t + constant
Bevmax vmax 6m 12m
r m At t = 0, s = 0, constant = 0
5.26 106 1.6 1019 0.5 s
kT 3
t
k 4
t
9.1 1031 6m 12m
= 0.46 × 106 m/s kT 4 kT 4 kT 4
At t = T, s
1 Bevmax r 6m 12m 12m
(KE)max 2
mv max
2 2 A
5.26 106 1.6 1019 0.46 106 0.5 (17) (A).
P
2
B
= 0.973 × 10 J = 0.6 eV
–19
Q
Energy of photon,
L
hc 1240 eV nm
E = 3.1 eV B
400 nm
B
Work function, W = 3.1eV – 0.6eV = 2.5eV Consider only one plate as shown in (b)
(KE)max = eV0 V0 = 0.6 volt above. The field B on the two sides is directed
as indicated. Now choose the path shown
shaded in the diagram. Apply the circuital law
= –2c
to this path. Then we have
=s
i
i=0 i=1 i=90
4
FT1-P2-SOL
0 j (21) (C).
Hence B = with the directions as
2
NH2 NHAc
indicated. Now superpose the fields of two
such plates as given in the problem. At P, they (i) Ac2O/Pyridine (ii) KBrO3/HBr
will cancel each other. At Q, they will add.
Hence BP = 0, BQ = µ0j.
NHAc NH2
(18) (D). Consider a square of side L of the lower plate.
The upward force on this square is (iii) H O+
F = B. I.L = BjL2.
0 j Br Br
But B due to the upper plate is B =
2 Br N2
0 j 2 0 j2 L2
NaNO 2 /HCl
Cu/HBr
Hence, F = BjL2 = jL . 273–278K
2 2
Br
0 j2
Br
F
Force per unit area = 2
L 2
3 x 3x
Hence force per unit area on lower plate due (22) (D). Fe , Fe 2
to current in upper plate is µ0 j2 / 2, towards 4 4
the upper plate. By charge conservation
(19) (C). If N0 is the number of atoms of X at t = 0 then x 3x 8
at t = 4 hrs, (two half-lives) 3 2 2 or x
4 4 9
N0 3N 0 N X 1 (23) (B). [Cu(NH3)4] gives deep blue colouration.
2+
NX ; NY ;
4 4 NY 3 (24) (A).
and at t = 6 hrs (three half-lives)
(A) Propene Propan-1-ol
1. B2H6 /THF
2. H O /OH
N 7N0 NX 1 2 2
NX 0 ; NY ;
(B) Propyne 4
HgSO
8 8 Ny 7 Propan-2-ol
/dil. H SO 2 4
1 1 1
(C) Propene
2 4 dil. H SO
the given ratio lies between and i.e. Propan-2-ol
4 7 3
lies between 4 and 6 hours.
(D) CH3COCl 4
H /Pd/BaSO
2
CH3CHO
O O (25) (D). Cl2 + 2NaOH – NaCl + NaOCl + H2O
OH Cold and dil.
(20) (A). HCHO/OH
Cross aldol (i)
OH OH 3Cl2 + 6NaOH – 5 NaCl + NaOCl + 3H2O
HCHO/OH
+ HCOOH
Hot and conc.
Cross Cannizzaro
(ii)
(26) (AC). Average speed is proportional to square root
of T/M, which is same for both gases. Average
Nucleophilic
addition HCHO / H
5
FT1-P2-SOL
(27) (ACD).In ZnS, S2– occupy FCC lattice points and Rotation of 180º gives a structure
Zn2+ alternate tetrahedral voids. indistinguishable from the original C2 axis of
(28) (ABC). symmetry.
CN CHO (32) (CD). Cell reaction are
(A) 2H2 + O2 + 2H2O 4H+ + 4(OH–)
(A) 2 SnCl HCl
(B) 2H2 + O2 + 4(OH–) + 4H+ 6H2O
(C & D) H+ + OH– H2O
This is simply neutrlization.
CH3 CHO
Hence (C) & (D) are Answers.
(33) (A). HA(aq.) + NaOH(aq.)NaA(aq.) +H2O()
2
(B) CrO Cl /CS
2 2
m moles 10 2.5 0 0
m moles 7.5 – 2.5 2.5
CHO Resulting solution HA(aq.) and NaA(aq.) is
CO HCl/AlCl buffer solution.
(C)
3
2.5 1
pH = pKa + log = 6 + log = 5.52
7.5 3
OH OH
COOH
(34) (C). HA(aq.) + NaOH(aq.)NaA(aq.) +H2O(s)
KOH/
(D) + CCl4
m moles 10 10 0 0
H
m moles 0 0 10 m moles of NaA(aq.)
(29) (AC). 1 1
pH pK w (pK a log C)
OH OH 2 2
R R CHO S S CHO 1 10
S
7 6 log
200 = 9.35
HO
(1) (2)
HO R
OH OH OH OH 2
D-Ribose L-Ribose
(35) (C).
CH=O CH=O
in basic medium
Cl + OCl
– –
H OH H OH
H
H OH HO
(I) Cl2
H OH H OH H2 O
HCl + HClO
(3) (4)
CH 2 –OH CH 2 –OH Neutral medium
(2R, 3R, 4R) (2R, 3S, 4R)
D-Ribose
(II) I2
OH
HI HOI
(30) (BC). A2 2C + D
1 0 0
1– 2 (III) NaNO2 H
NaNO3 + NO
Acidic medium
(2 ) 2 P 4 3P 2
2
(IV) K2MnO4
Acidic or
Kp neutral medium
(1 ) n (1 2 )2 KMnO4 + MnO2
(36) (C).
K H T2 T1
By using, 2.303 log 2 = (I) Al3+(aq) + NaOH Al(OH)3 (white ppt.)
K1 R T1T2
Soluble salt, NaAlO2 is formed.
Excess
for temperature effect. NaOH
Me (II) Zn2+(aq) + NaOH Zn(OH)2 (white ppt.)
H Cl
(31) (AD). No POS, No COS Soluble salt, Na2ZnO2 is formed.
Excess
Cl H
Me NaOH
Fischer projection.
6
FT1-P2-SOL
(III) Cu+(aq) + NH4OH Cu(OH)2 (blue ppt.) f (x) f (0)
lim f (0)
Excess
Soluble complex, [Cu(NH3)4]2+ x 0 x0
NH 4OH
1 1 1
is formed.
(IV) Sn2+(aq) + NaOH Sn(OH)2 (white ppt.) f (x) (1 x) 2001 (1 2x) 2002 ....(1 16x) 2016
f (x)
16
1 1 1
cos 2 cos 3 i
2 f (x) (2000 i) (1 ix)
2 i 1
f (0)
sin 2 sin 3 16
i
i 1
2000 i
0 2 , 3
2 2 (41) (B). 2nCn–1 < 2nCn xn & 2nC(n+1) xn+1 < 2nCn
cos 2 0, cos 3 0 xn
2n
cos 2 cos 3 0 C(n 1) 2n
Cn
2n
x 2n
Now, (sin 2 sin 3) ( cos 2 cos 3) Cn C(n 1)
(42) (C). 4x + 7y + 4z + 81 = 0 …(i)
2 3 2 3
2 2 sin sin 0 5x + 3y +10z = 25 …(ii)
2 2 4 Equation of plane passing through their line of
Foci lies on y-axis. intersection is
( /2, 1)
(4x+ 7y + 4z + 81) + (5x + 3y +10z –25)=0
(A,sinA)
or (4 + 5) x + (7 + 3) y + (4 +10) z
+ 81 – 25 = 0 ..... (iii)
(38) (A). Plane (iii) and (i)
4 (4 + 5) x + 7 (7 + 3) + 4 (4 +10) = 0
/2
= –1
sin A 2 Form (iii), equation of plane is
A – x + 4y – 6z + 106 = 0 ….(iv)
sin A sin B sin C 6 d = Distance of (iv) from (0, 0, 0)
A B C 106 106
(39) (B). Required number of ways 1 16 36 53
(43) (B). We have, A + B = /3 B = –A
3
28
C3 28 28 24 14 22 2268
all three exactly 2 diametrically
3 tan A
together adjacent opposite tan B =
1 3 tan A
(40) (B).
Let Z = tanA + tan B. Then
1 1 1
3 tan A 3 tan A tan 2 A
(1 x) 2001 (1 2x) 2002 ....(1 16x) 2016 1 Z = tan A + =
lim 1 3 tan A 1 3 tan A
x0 x
7
FT1-P2-SOL
Number of natural solution of xy = 48 is 10
3x x 2
z = , where x = tanA
e e
n 48
1 3 x {x}
dx {x}
dx
0 0
dZ (x 3)( 3 x 1)
.
48 e x dx 48 (e 1)
1
dx (1 3x)
dZ 1 0
For max Z, = 0 x = ,– 3
dx 3
(45) (BCD).
x – 3 because A + B = which implies
3 Area of base of pyramid = (15)2
that x = tanA > 0 it can be easily checked that
h1
d Z
2
1
< 0 for x =
dx 2
3
1 1 Let height of be h1
Hence, Z is max. for x = i.e. tanA = or 2h1 + 15 = 40 h1 = 12.5
3 3
A = /6. For this value of x, Z = 1/3 Height of pyramid
(44) (ABC). x4 – n.x. + 63 = (12.5) 2 (7.5) 2 10
= (x – ) (x3 + ax2 + bx + c) .......(i)
Product of roots = 63 Volume of pyramid
From (i) can be 1, 3, 7, 9 or 63 1
x4 – nx + 63 = x4 + (a – ) x3 + (b – a)x2 = × Area of base × height
3
+ (c –b) x – c
1
a – = 0 , b – a = 0, c – b = – n = × (15)2 × 10 = 750
and – c = 63 3
Lateral surface area
63
n = 3 + 1
= (Perimeter of base) × slant height
when = 1, n = 64 2
63 1
= 3 n = 33 + = 27 + 21 = 48 =
2
(4 × 15) × 12.5 = 375
3
= 7 n = 73 + 9 Total surface area of pyramid
= 9 n = 93 + 7 = Area of base – Lateral surface area
Least value of n is 48 = 152 + 375 = 600
n = 48 = 24 31 (46) (AB). Given A (a,0)
Number of divisors = (4 + 1) (1 + 1) = 10 Let A' (R cos , R sin )
Number of odd divisors = 2 Let P (x, y) be any point on MN then
x.y = n = 24.31 | PA' | = | PA |
(x – R cos )2 + (y – Rsin )2
Let x 21 31 , y 2 2 3 2 = (x – a)2 + y2
xy = 48 21 2 31 2 = 24.31 R 2 a 2 2ax
xy = 48 x cos + y sin =
2R
1 + 2 = 4 ; 4 + 2 – 1C4 = 4
1 + 2 = 1 ; 1 + 2 –1C1 = 2
8
FT1-P2-SOL
x y 0 0
where sin , cos
x 2 y2 x 2 y2 1 2cos x)10 e2cos 1
(e )
| sin ( ) | 1 N 2 cos 2cos
P A'
e2 1
R a 2ax
2 2 O M f (0)
1 (0,0) A 2
2R x 2 y 2 (48) (BC). Let P = (1 + x) (1+ x + x2) (1 + x + x2 + x3)
....... (1 + x + .....xn) term containing highest
power of x in P is
R2 a2
a n (n 1)
Centre (a/2, 0), e 1 4
R 2 R x. x2.x3 ....... xn = x 2
Total number of terms in the product
4
n (n 1) n2 n 2
(2x a) 2
4y 2 1
1 2 2
R 2
R a2
2
n (n 1)
Let m then
x 2 i2 x 3 i3 2
(47) (AC). q ip 1 x.ei e e ... P = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + a3x3 + ....... amxm
2! 3!
(1 + x) (1+ x + x2)...(1+ x + x2 + x3+....+ xn)
(i )
e(e x) = a0 + a1x + a2x2 +....+ amxm ...... (i)
Replacing x by 1/x, we get
q ip ex e i
1 1 1 1 1 1
(q ip) (q ip) e x (ei ei ) 1 1 x 2 ... 1 x 2 ... n
x x x x
q 2 p 2 e2x cos 1 1 1
a 0 a1 a 2 2 ..... a m m
q ip e xe (i ) x x x
dq dp (1 x) (1 x x 2 ).....(1 x .... x n )
i e xei ei
dx dx x1 2.... n
Taking modulus
a 0 x m a1x m 1 ..... a m
2 2
dq dp xm
dx dx (1 + x) (1 + x + x2).... (1 + x +....xn)
(i )
= a0xm + a1xm–1 + ...... am
| e xe | | ei | | e x (cos isin ) | From (i) and (ii)
a0 = am , a1 = am–1, ...... , am = a0
| e x cos eixsin |
9
FT1-P2-SOL
Coefficient of terms equidistant from begining (51) (D). Lines are in same plane so
and end are equal
Put x = 1 and x = – 1 in (i), we get 1 1 1
a0 + a1 + a2 + ...... am = (n + 1) ! .......... (iii) 2 3 0
a0 – a1 + a2 ..... + (–1)m am = 0 .......... (iv) 3 2 3
(n 1)! 1 (9 – 2) + 1 (6 – 3) – 1 (– 5) = 0
(iii) and (iv) a0 + a2 + a4 + ....... =
2 20 – 5 = 0 = 4
(n 1)! So sin–1 sin 4 = sin–1sin ( – 4) = – 4
(iii) and (iv) a1 + a3 + a5 + ..... = (52) (B). Normal vector to plane containing lines is
2
(49) (BCD). a + a2 2 when x = 0 ˆi ˆj kˆ
a–2
n 2 3 1 ˆi 6ˆj 5kˆ
a2 + a cosx a2 + a 2 cos2x + cos x
= 1 + cos x – sin2 x 3 2 3
sin2 x + a cos x + a2 1 + cos x
So angle between planes
So, range of negative values of a is a – 2
Alter : cos2x + (1 – a) cos x – a2 0 4 6 10
cos 0
cos x = t [–1, 1] 21 62 2
t2 + (1 – a) t – a2 0 (53) (A). (adj P ) . adj B (adj Q )
–1 –1
(50) (AC). Let L = 3x – 4y – 8 = 0. Then the value of L = (P–1)–1 adj B (Q–1)–1 = PAQ
at (3, 4) is 3 × 3 – 4 × 4 – 8 = –15 < 0. (54) (B). (PAP)T = PT AT PT
Hence, for the point P (x, y), we should have L = (– P) (– A) (– P) = – P A P
>0
3x – 4y – 8 = 0 3x – 4 (–3x) – 8 > 0
[P (x, y) lies on y = – 3x]
x > 8/15 and – y – 4y – 8 > 0 y < –8/5
10