Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each

of the following exchanges.

Question 1: Bob and Khanh are chatting.
- Bob: “I think we should cut down on carbon footprints.”
- Khanh: “_________. It’s essential for reducing global warming.”
A. I beg to differ. B. I don’t think so.
C. That sounds amazing. D. You can say that again.
Question 2: Mary and Giang are discussing about weekend plans.
- Mary: “Would you like to go hiking this weekend, Giang?”
- Giang: “_________.”
A. No, I prefer to stay at home. B. I’d love to, but I’m not available this weekend.
C. Yes, I’d like to go to the beach instead. D. Maybe, let me think about it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: The more you practice, _______ you become.
A. the goodest B. the best C. the better D. the more good
Question 4: John’s _______ stories have inspired many aspiring business owners to pursue their dreams.
A. successive B. succeed C. successful D. success
Question 5: John was in the middle of cooking dinner when the power went out, _______ him in
darkness.
A. was left B. leaving C. to leave D. left
Question 6: In _______ library, students were quietly studying for their exams.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: Emily _______ criticism after her remarks during the meeting sparked controversy among
the team members.
A. looked up to B. got away with C. went back on D. came in for
Question 8: Young people _______ to explore their interests and pursue their passions to discover their
true potential.
A. are encouraging B. encourage C. are encouraged D. have encouraged
Question 9: After much negotiation, the two parties finally agreed _______ the contract.
A. to sign B. signing C. to signing D. sign
Question 10: Nobody was late for the interview, _______?
A. wasn’t he B. were they C. weren’t they D. was he
Question 11: During the Tet holiday, the National Cinema Center of Vietnam had to _______ the high
ticket demand by adding extra showtimes and expanding seating capacity.
A. inundate B. accommodate C. accentuate D. deliberate
Question 12: When I started learning abroad in 2011, my girlfriend _______ in a different city.
A. was living B. has lived C. lives D. is living
Question 13: The designer carefully _______ the suit to the client’s specific requirements, ensuring a
perfect fit and style.
A. adjusted B. tailored C. adapted D. modified
Question 14: Julie will go for a walk _______.
A. after she had finished her chores B. when she has finished her chores
C. as soon as she finished her chores D. by the time she will finish her chores
Question 15: Alexis, with her keen eye for detail, could always _______ the difference between genuine
and counterfeit artwork.
A. tell B. split C. make D. give
Question 16: Jessica found a job that was suitable _______ her skills and interests.
A. for B. on C. with D. to
Question 17: Despite being born with a _______ spoon in her mouth, she chose to work hard and make
a name for herself rather than relying on her family’s wealth.
A. golden B. silver C. bronze D. wooden

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. commit B. certain C. cereal D. city
Question 19: A. moon B. cook C. choose D. loose

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. apprehend B. previous C. afternoon D. employee
Question 21: A. behave B. polite C. former D. obey

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Because he left the door unlocked, he is liable for any items that may have been stolen
from his house.
A. responsible B. willing C. innocent D. reluctant
Question 23: During the holiday season, the staff at the retail store were rushed off their feet trying to
keep up with the influx of customers.
A. overwhelmed B. speedy C. sluggish D. leisurely

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The lack of rainfall during the dry season only served to exacerbate the already dire
situation.
A. intensify B. aggravate C. ameliorate D. reinforce
Question 25: Recent advancements in technology have revolutionized the way we communicate and
access information.
A. investments B. breakthroughs C. setbacks D. expenditures

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
INTERNSHIPS
In many countries going through difficult economic times, job openings for new graduates can
be few and far between. In this competitive environment, relevant work experience can help job seekers
stand out from the crowd, and (26) _________ organisations now offer temporary placements, called
internships. The problem with numerous internships, (27) _________, is that they are unpaid, and this
often puts young people off applying for them.
Employers and interns sometimes come to mutually beneficial arrangements, however. Dinesh
Pathan, applying for an internship with an IT company, negotiated a deal in which he would be given
travel (28) _________ only for two weeks, and then, as long as he could show his marketing work was
adding value, he would be paid a wage. The arrangement worked well: Dinesh had a(n) (29) _________
to work hard, and he ended up feeling “not so much an intern as a temporary staffer”. HR consultant
Denise Baker says similar arrangements are common. What is more, “if interns do well, employers
would often rather make them full employees than recruit people (30) _________ they don’t know”.
(Adapted from Exam Essential Practice Tests - Cambridge English by Tom Bradbury and
Eunice Yeates)

Question 26: A. much B. every C. another D. many

Question 27: A. instead B. therefore C. moreover D. however
Question 28: A. companions B. restrictions C expenses D. destinations
Question 29: A. profit B. incentive C. persuasion D. promotion
Question 30: A. who B. when C. where D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the Staying in hotels and resorts has been a traditional part of travel since the beginning of mass tourism.
But nowadays, many tourists want a more intimate experience. For this reason, they are choosing to ‘go
native’. This often means staying in the kinds of places that local people inhabit. In big cities, you can
try staying with the friend of a friend. You may end up sleeping on the couch or floor, but the advantages
outweigh the discomfort. The biggest plus is that you’ll be staying with a local and seeing the city from
a local perspective.
Another option is house-swapping. Several websites allow you to connect with people who want
to trade living situations. It’s usual to exchange emails about favourite places in the city before the swap,
meaning you can have a truly local experience. But of course, you can only do this if you don’t mind
having strangers staying in your house.
For the more adventurous, staying in a native structure in an African village or a hut on the water
in Vietnam or Thailand can be a real thrill. These might not even include plumbing or electricity, and
that is part of the charm. The experience of dealing with oil lamps and carrying water really gives you
a sense of how the people live.
 No matter how unadventurous you feel, you might want to consider crossing hotels off your list.
Getting to know the local way of life is the most valuable part of travel. And what better way is there to
do this than staying where the local people actually live?
(Adapted from Solutions - Third Edition by Tim Filla and Paul A Davien)

Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?

A. New holiday accommodation trends B. Adventurous holiday activities
C. World heritage sites D. Main tourist attractions in Asia
Question 32: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. resorts B. hotels C. local people D. tourists
Question 33: What is the biggest advantage of tourists’ going native?
A. It enables them to experience the local lifestyle.
B. It offers them opportunities to make new friends.
C. It is more comfortable than staying in hotels and resorts.
D. It is cheaper than staying in other kinds of accommodation.
Question 34: The word “charm” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. price B. attraction C. safety D. danger
Question 35: Which of the following is mentioned in the passage?
A. There are several websites used for house-swapping purposes.
B. Tourists to Thailand prefer staying in a native structure to staying in a hut.
C. Staying with local people is more popular than staying in hotels and resorts.
D. Dealing with oil lamps is the most thrilling experience for tourists to Vietnam.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The United Nations recently outlined the extent of the global water crisis, saying that 2.7 billion
people would face severe water shortages by 2025 if consumption continues at current rates. Today, an
estimated 1.2 billion people drink unclean water, and about 2.5 billion lack proper toilets or waste
disposal systems. More than five million people die each year from diseases related to unclean water.
Humans are pumping water out of the ground faster than it can be replenished. In this difficult situation,
a water conservationist, Neil MacLeod in South Africa, has found innovative ways to improve his local
water situation.
Neil MacLeod took over as head of Durban Metro Water Services in 1992. The situation he found
was a catastrophe. Durban had one million people living in the city and another 1.5 million people who
lived in poverty just outside it. The entire city was rife with broken water pipes, leaky toilets, and faulty
plumbing whereby 42 percent of the region’s water was simply being wasted.
MacLeod’s crews began repairing and replacing water pipes. They put water meters on
residences, replaced eight-liter toilets with four-liter models, and changed wasteful showers and water
taps. To ensure that the poor would receive a basic supply of water, MacLeod installed tanks in homes
and apartments to provide 190 liters of water a day free to each household. Water consumption in Durban
is now less than it was in 1996, even as 800,000 more people have received service. Through sensible
water use, Durban’s conservation measures paid for themselves within a year. No new reservoirs will be
needed in the coming decades, despite the expected addition of about 300,000 inhabitants.
MacLeod has also turned to water recycling. At the water recycling plant, wastewater is turned
into clean water in just 12 hours. Most people are unable to discern a difference between the usual city
drinking water and the treated wastewater, although it is actually intended for industrial purposes.
 Some people still hope that new technology, such as the desalination of seawater, will solve the
world’s water problems. “But the fact is, water conservation is where the big gains are to be made,” says
Sandra Postel of the Global Water Policy Project. The dedication and resourcefulness of people like Neil
MacLeod offer inspiration for implementing timely and lasting solutions to the world’s water concern.
(Adopted from “Reading Explorer 4” by Paul MacIntyre and David Bohlke)

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. South Africa to Successfully Desalinate Seawater
B. Tackling Water Problems: A Story from South Africa
C. The United Nations to Address Local Water Situations
D. Drinkable Seawater – A Dream Turning Sour?
Question 37: According to the passage, how many people have to drink unclean water worldwide?
A. 2.5 billion B. About 5 million C. 2.7 billion D. Around 1.2 billion
Question 38: The word “catastrophe” in paragraph 2 is mostly a situation which is_______.
A. unlikely B. disastrous C. local D. familiar
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to_______.
A. Durban B. water consumption C. household D. service
Question 40: The word “discern” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _______.
A. recognize B. emphasize C. examine D. appreciate
Question 41: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Over forty percent of Durban’s water was wasted through faulty plumbing, leaks and bursts.
B. Money saved from sensible water use helped cover the cost of reservoir construction in Durban.
C. In Durban, treated wastewater is provided free of charge to meet the residents’ daily needs.
D. Provision of desalinated seawater is the ultimate solution to the world’s water problems.
Question 42: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Each Durban household is not allowed to use more than 190 liters of water per day.
B. Water shortages are the most severe in areas with substandard toilet facilities.
C. It used to take about half a day to convert wastewater into drinkable water.
D. A growth in population normally necessitates a rise in the number of reservoirs.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: Jacob forgot to save the document. He had to redo the entire project.
A. If Jacob had saved the document, he wouldn’t have had to redo the entire project.
B. If Jacob had saved the document, he would have to redo the entire project.
C. If Jacob had saved the document, he would have had to redo the entire project.
D. If Jacob had saved the document, he wouldn’t have to redo the entire project.
Question 44: I had just brushed my teeth. My roommate invited me to have some barbecue.
A. If I hadn’t brushed my teeth, my roommate wouldn’t have invited me to have some barbecue.
B. Scarcely had my roommate invited me to have some barbecue when I brushed my teeth.
C. Not until my roommate invited me to have some barbecue did I brush my teeth.
D. Only after I brushed my teeth did my roommate invite me to have some barbecue.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: The band members were pleased with his performance at the concert last night.
A. band B. were C. his D. concert
Question 46: The company, formally reliant on conventional methods of production, has since
transitioned to utilizing cutting-edge technology to stay competitive in the market.
A. formally B. conventioned C. cutting-edge D. competitive
Question 47: Despite her initial reluctance, Sarah find herself becoming increasingly addicted to social
media.
A. her B. find C. increasingly D. addicted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Visitors are banned from taking photographs in this area.
A. Visitors can take photographs in this area.
B. Visitors should take photographs in this area.
C. Visitors must take photographs in this area.
D. Visitors will take photographs in this area.
Question 49: My cousin started learning English when he was four.
A. My cousin hasn’t learnt English since he was four.
B. My cousin has been learning English since he was four.
C. My cousin didn’t learn English when he was four.
D. The last time my cousin learnt English was when he was four.
Question 50: “My sister went to France to study abroad last week,” said John.
A. John said that my sister had gone to France to study abroad last week.
B. John said that his sister had gone to France to study abroad the previous week.
C. John said that my sister had gone to France to study abroad the previous week.
D. John said that his sister had gone to France to study abroad last week.

_____THE END_____
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Linda and James are chatting.
- Linda: “I believe students should prioritize focusing solely on their coursework.”
- James: “__________. Extracurricular activities are crucial for holistic development.”
A. I can’t agree with you more. B. I beg to differ.
C. Of course not. D. Maybe, it depends.
Question 2: Two friends are at a shopping mall.
- Ngan: “Do you want to check out the new shoe store?”
- Hoai: “__________.”
A. No, I prefer shopping for clothes. B. Yes, I’m thinking of getting a new handbag.
C. Sure, I need to buy some new sneakers. D. Maybe, I’m not sure what I’m looking for.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: Lin is _______ than her sister when it comes to cooking.
A. the better B. the best C. better D. more good
Question 4: Alex couldn’t help but feel _______ as he waited for the results of his college entrance
exam.
A. apprehension B. apprehensive C. apprehend D. apprehensible
Question 5: The living costs in big cities have risen substantially, _______ it difficult for people to cover
their living expenses.
A. to make B. is made C. making D. made
Question 6: She loves to play _______ violin in the orchestra every Saturday evening.
A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 7: Emma prefers to _______ in the morning before starting her day.
A. set up B. take off C. work out D. turn down
Question 8: The SAT scores _______ available yesterday at 6 PM.
A. make B. were making C. have made D. were made
Question 9: The new marketing campaign aims _______ increased brand awareness in the market.
A. generate B. to generate C. generating D. to generating
Question 10: James and Mary went to the new exhibition, _______?
A. did he B. did they C. didn’t he D. didn’t they
Question 11: Hailey took a(n) _______ approach to solving the company’s budgetary issues, focusing
on practical solutions rather than theoretical concepts.
A. elaborate B. obstinate C. pragmatic D. fortuitous
Question 12: The film had just reached its thrilling middle when I _______ to leave the theater due to
an urgent phone call.
A. had B. has had C. was having D. is having
Question 13: In the hiring process, it’s essential not to _______ against candidates based on their race,
gender, or ethnicity.
A. discriminate B. distinguish C. separate D. differentiate
Question 14: Peter will celebrate with us _______.
A. by the time he finished his assignment B. when he will finish his assignment
C. as soon as he has finished his assignment D. once he had finished his assignment
Question 15: After years of planning and saving, Isla finally decided to ______ a business selling
handmade jewelry online.
A. take B. set C. run D. stand
Question 16: Working for yourself means you’re in charge and don’t have to answer ______ anyone
else.
A. for B. on C. with D. to
Question 17: John has a memory like a(n) ______; he can never remember where he puts his keys.
A. zebra B. elephant C. sieve D. goldfish

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. kitchen B. church C. chick D. machine
Question 19: A. think B. swim C. quick D. twice

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. difficult B. dangerous C. religious D. tolerate
Question 21: A. finish B. extreme C. although D. degree

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The government decided to curtail spending on non-essential services to manage the
budget more efficiently.
A. restrict B. minimize C. allow D. increase
Question 23: The prohibitive cost of housing in the city makes it challenging for many people to secure
decent accommodation.
A. exorbitant B. obtainable C. affordable D. unavailable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Despite the treacherous terrain, the intrepid explorer ventured into the jungle to discover
its hidden secrets.
A. fat B. slim C. timid D. brave
Question 25: Despite the challenges, she went to great lengths to ensure the success of her project,
working day and night to meet the deadline.
A. took it easy B. lost control C. made efforts D. stay tranquil

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word and phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Ecotourism
The primary aim of ecotourism is to educate the traveller and bring him or her closer to nature.
Participants are given the chance to visit parts of the world (26) _________ are untouched by human
intervention and to engage in conservation work and various other kinds of environmental projects.
Visitors benefit by gaining an appreciation of natural habitats and an (27) _________ into the
impact of human beings on the environment. Local communities gain financially but also in (28)
_________ ways, since not only monuments but other buildings as well, such as bridges or windmills,
are restored in order to attract more visitors.
(29) _________, there are also disadvantages to this type of tourism. There have been cases in
which tourism has been allowed to develop with no control or limits. As a result, (30) _________
cultures have been affected or even threatened by foreign lifestyles. Many people today support that our
approach to the development of ecotourism has to be reconsidered. It is essential that this type of tourism
be environmentally, socially, and culturally friendly.

Question 26:A. who B. that C. when D. why

Question 27:A. advent B. intent C. access D. insight
Question 28: A. other B. another C. every D. one
Question 29: A. Although B. Therefore C. However D. Moreover
Question 30: A. primary B. peculiar C. indigenous D. exotic

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Parents complain that it is difficult to live with teenagers. Then again, teenagers say exactly the
same thing about their parents! According to a recent survey, the most common arguments between
parents and teenagers are those regarding untidiness and household chores. On the one hand, parents go
mad over untidy rooms, clothes dropped on the floor and their children’s refusal to help with the
housework. On the other hand, teenagers lose their patience continually when parents tell them off for
dropping the towel in the bathroom, not cleaning up their room or refusing to do the shopping at the
supermarket.
The survey, conducted by St George University, showed that different parents have different
approaches to these problems. However, some approaches are much more successful than others. For
example, those parents who yell at their teens for their untidiness, but later clear up after them, have
fewer chances of changing their teens’ behaviour. On the contrary, those who let teenagers experience
the consequences of their actions are more successful. For instance, when teenagers who don’t help their
parents with the shopping don’t find their favourite food in the fridge, they are forced to reconsider their
actions.
 Psychologists say that the most important thing in parent-teen relationships is communication.
Parents should talk to their teens, but at the same time they should listen to what their children have to
say. Parents should tell their teens off when they are untidy, but they should also understand that their
room is their own private space. Communication is a two-way process. It is only by listening to and
understanding each other that problems between parents and teens can be solved.

Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Teen Issues B. Family Rules
C. Parents’ Advice D. Parents’ Anger
Question 32: The phrase “go mad” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. get bored B. feel sad C. remain calm D. become angry
Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a cause of arguments between teenagers and
parents?
A. Teenagers drop their clothes on the floor. B. Teenagers go shopping a lot.
C. Teenagers refuse to do the housework. D. Teenagers do not tidy their rooms.
Question 34: According to paragraph 2, parents have a better chance of changing their children’s
behaviour by _______.
A. shouting at them whenever they do something wrong
B. cooking them their favourite food
C. doing the household chores for them
D. letting them experience the bad results of their actions
Question 35: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to________.
A. parents B. teens C. psychologists D. children
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
For over 300 years since its appearance in Britain in 1621, newspapers were written and read by
only a tiny minority. In 1896, a new newspaper was produced in large numbers and at such low prices
that ordinary people could buy it on every street corner, and it was an instant success. The Daily Mail,
which is still running today, was the mother of the modern tabloid, and the beginning of a whole new
subculture in the British press. Today more than twice as many tabloids are sold than the so-called
“quality press” titles such as The Times or The Guardian.
Originally, the word tabloid referred to the size and format. But today, for most people, the word
tabloid has nothing to do with shape and size. What makes a tabloid a tabloid is content, and above all,
style. Tabloids follow a special formula: they report the news, but only certain kinds. Tabloids dedicate
most of their pages to stories about celebrities. This involves photographing them in embarrassing
situations, gossiping about their private lives and generally making them look a bit silly. However, the
tabloids are not simply an irritation for celebrities; they are also a vehicle for self-promotion.
Though they have millions of devoted readers, tabloids are also widely criticised in Britain. They
are accused of being sensationalist, in bad taste, and of having no ethical standards in their reporting and
“researching” methods. They may tap celebrities’ phones or even break into their houses just to get a
story. When criticised, the tabloids state that the public has a right to know about everything, but
celebrities have no rights to privacy at all.
 So why does Britain, which has access to the best press agencies and the highest journalistic
standards, consume tabloids like chocolate? Maybe the reason is that we have enough news on the
television, the radio and in the quality newspapers. Tabloids are not actually about news at all; tabloids
are just about gossip. And when it comes to gossip, what matters is not what is true or what is kind, but
what is entertaining and what is funny. The more in bad taste a story is, the funnier it seems. And bad
taste is what the British tabloids have made into an art.
(Adapted from “Oxford Exam Excellent” by Danuta Gryca et al.)

Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The Art of Bad Taste: The British Tabloid
B. Tabloids: Too Kind to Be True
C. Tabloids versus Broadsheets: An Ongoing War
D. The Guardian: Feeding Bad Taste for Gossip
Question 37: The word “formula” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. method B. design C. sequence D. readership
Question 38: The phrase “a vehicle” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. a method of researching something B. a set of instructions on how to do something
C. a means of transporting something D. a way of achieving something
Question 39: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. houses B. people C. readers D. tabloids
Question 40: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 as an accusation against tabloids?
A. They gain entry into celebrities’ houses illegally.
B. They bug celebrities’ phone conversations.
C. They violate the public’s rights to privacy.
D. They feature sensational news stories.
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what explains the popularity of tabloids in Britain?
A. They are deemed to be more aesthetic than “quality press”.
B. They are governed by the highest journalistic standards.
C. They provide thorough accounts of current issues.
D. They contain light-hearted stories that entertain readers.
Question 42: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found in a modern tabloid?
A. Miss Universe lying about her A level results
B. A Premier League footballer failing his dope test
C. Future changes in European economies
D. An Oscar winner accused of tax evasion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 43: Linda didn’t revise the lessons before going to class. She received an F.
A. If Linda had revised the lessons before going to class, she wouldn’t have received an F.
B. If Linda had revised the lessons before going to class, she will have received an F.
C. If Linda had revised the lessons before going to class, she would have received an F.
D. If Linda had revised the lessons before going to class, she won’t have received an F.
Question 44: Peter graduated from high school. He decided to work straight away.
A. Had it not been for Peter’s decision to work straight away, he would have graduated from high
school.
B. Not until Peter decided to work straight away did he graduate from high school.
C. Hardly had Peter graduated from high school when he decided to work straight away.
D. Only after Peter decided to work straight away did he graduate from high school.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: Everyone should be treated fairly and have the same opportunities regardless of her
background or identity.
A. fairly B. opportunities C. her D. identity
Question 46: It is imperative that all individuals are protected by lawful measures against prosecution
and discrimination based on any factor, as such actions violate fundamental principles of equality and
human rights.
A. imperative B. prosecution C. discrimination D. principles
Question 47: After I have finished my homework, I went out to meet my friends for dinner.
A. have B. homework C. went D. my

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48: Spectators are encouraged to keep their seats clean.
A. Spectators may keep their seats clean.
B. Spectators should keep their seats clean.
C. Spectators must keep their seats clean.
D. Spectators can keep their seats clean.
Question 49: Alice last practiced playing any musical instruments a week ago.
A. Alice started practicing playing any musical instruments a week ago.
B. Alice didn’t practice playing any musical instruments for a week.
C. The last time Alice practiced playing any musical instruments was a week ago.
D. Alice has practiced playing any musical instruments for a week.
Question 50: “My teacher never forgets to assign homework before the class ends,” said Sarah.

A. Sarah said that my teacher never forgets to assign homework before the class ends.
B. Sarah said that her teacher never forgets to assign homework before the class ends.
C. Sarah said that my teacher never forgot to assign homework before the class ended.
D. Sarah said that her teacher never forgot to assign homework before the class ended.

_____THE END_____