47/24 Question Booklet Sl. No.

Question Booklet alpha code

a
a
Total Number of Questions : 100 Time : 75 Minutes

Maximum Marks : 100

B
InstructIons to candIdates
1. The Question Paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four
versions of Question Booklets with Question Booklet Alpha Code viz. a, B, c & d.
c 2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet
of the Question Booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in
the Examination Hall.
4. If you get a Question Booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted Alpha
Code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator ImmEdIATEly.
d 5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your
Question Booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new Question Booklet with same
Alpha Code.

A
6. The Question Booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should
not open the Question Booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that
the Question Booklet supplied to him/her contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The
Question Booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should
bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same Alpha
Code. This is most important.
8. Question Serial No. 1 to 70 are printed both in English and in Official Language (Malayalam).
Doubts regarding the meaning and translation of Question Serial No. 1 to 70 will be settled
based on the Questions in english.
9. Two blank pages are provided before the last page of this Question Paper for rough
work.
10. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before
marking your answers.
11. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer.
Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number
using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OmR Answer Sheet.
12. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be
deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
13. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and
without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure
that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and
that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
14. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any
kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.
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1. Which among the following statement/s is or are correct ?

1) Nanu Asan was introduced to Aiyya Swami by Chattambi Swami.
2) The book Vedadhikara Nirupanam is written by Chattambi Swamikal.
3) Cochin Pulaya maha Sabha was founded under the leadership of Pandit Karuppan.
4) Vakkam moulavi founded Islam dharma Paripalana Sangham.
A) Only (1) B) Only (2 and 4)
C) Only (1 and 3) d) All of the above (1, 2, 3 and 4)
2. match the following :
1) marutham a) Animal husbandry
2) Palai b) Salt manufacturing
3) mullai c) Wetland agriculture
4) Neital d) Plundering
A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d B) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a d) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
3. mere Political Swaraj would mean ‘English rule without the Englishmen’. Who argued
this ?
A) dr. Ambedkar B) Gandhi
C) dadabai Naoroji d) Balagangadhara Tilak
4. The dutch Captain who entered into the trade agreement with the Zamorin in1604
was
A) Vander Gohen B) Van Rheede C) de lenoy d) Gyfford
5. Which of the following organizations are banned during the Emergency period ?
1) Jamaat-i-Islami 2) RSS
3) Anand marg 4) maoist CP (ml)
A) Only (1 and 2) B) Only (1, 2 and 4)
C) Only (1, 2 and 3) d) All of the above (1, 2, 3 and 4)
6. Who among the following was hanged on 23 march,1931 in the lahore Conspiracy
Case ?
A) Sury Sen B) Rajguru
C) Chandrashekar Azad d) None of these
7. Who wrote the book ‘India after Gandhi’ ?
A) Bipan Chandra B) Ramachandra Guha
C) Sumit Sarkar d) Ranajith Guha
8. Among the following statements which is/are not correct ?
1) Reign of Terror was related to French Revolution.
2) Bloody Sunday is related to American Revolution.
3) Glorious Revolution in England took place in1688.
4) Nationalist Revolution broke out in China in 1949.
A) Only (1 and 3 ) B) Only (2 and 4)
C) Only (3) d) All of the above (1, 2, 3 and 4)

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1. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ NkñLvjWt]¤ wq]SpfV ?

1) jLeO BwLRj AáL y~Lo]¨V kq]\pRÕaO¾]pfV \ŸÒ] y~Lo]pLeV.
2) SvhLi]WLq j]qPkeU IÐ kOñWU IuOf]pfV \ŸÒ] y~Lo]W¥ BeV.
3) k¼]ãV WrOÕR£ SjfQf~¾]sLeV RWLˆ]¢ kOsp ozLyn òLk]ˆfV.
4) v¨U oTsv] BeV CþLU i¡o kq]kLsj yUZU òLk]ˆfV.
A) Only (1) B) Only (2 and 4)
C) Only (1 and 3) d) oOWt]sOçvRpŠLU (1, 2, 3 and 4)
2. S\qOUka] S\¡¨OW.
1) oqOfU a) oQY yUqƒeU
2) kLsLp] b) DÕV j]¡ÚLeU
3) oOŠLp] c) f¹}¡¾a WQx]
4) RjpV㤠d) RWLçpa]¨OÐO
A) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d B) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a d) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
3. ‘CU…}xOWLq]ŠLRf CU…}xV nqeU’ IÐLeV qLNì}p y~qL^V A¡ÀoL¨OÐfV. BqLeV
CfV vLh]ˆfV ?
A) dr. AUSmhVW¡ B) YLÌ]
C) hLhLnLp] jvSrL^] d) mLsYUYLiq f]sWV
4. 1604&¤ yLoPf]q]pOoLp] v|LkLq WqLr]¤ J¡RÕŸ cˆV W|LkV㢠BqLp]qOÐO ?
A) vLº¡ SYLRz¢ B) vL¢ r}Ra C) Rc RsSjLpV d) ^]UlVSlLcV
5. fLRuÕrpOÐvp]¤ JRfLR¨ yUZajWRtpLeV Aa]pÍqLvò¨Ls¾V j]SqLi]
ˆ]q]¨OÐfV ?
1) ^oLA¾V&C&CþLo] 2) RSS
3) BjÎV oL¡YV 4) oLSvLp]ðV CP (ml)
A) Only (1 and 2) B) Only (1, 2 and 4)
C) Only (1, 2 and 3) d) oOWt]sOçvRpŠLU (1, 2, 3 and 4)
6. sLSzL¡ YPdLSsL\j SWy]¤ 1931 oL¡ˆV 23&jV fLRu krpOÐvq]¤ BqLeV fP¨]
SsãRÕŸfV ?
A) yPq| Ry¢ B) qL^VYOqO
C) \NÎSwX¡ ByLhV d) CvqLqOoŠ
7. "CÍ| YLÌ]¨O SwxU' IÐ kOñWU IuOf]pfV BqLeV ?
A) m]kL¢ \NÎ B) qLo\NÎ YOz
C) yOo]fV y¡¨L¡ d) qLe^]fV YOz
8. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ NkñLvjWt]¤ wq]pŠL¾SffV ?
1) NlµV v]†vOoLp] mÌRÕŸfLp]qOÐO SqpV¢ KLlV Rar¡.
2) ‡c] y¦Sc ASoq]¨¢ v]†vvOoLp] mÌRÕŸ]q]¨OÐO.
3) 1688&¤ CU…º]¤ oz¾Lp v]†vU jaÐO.
4) 1949&¤ RR\jp]¤ Shw}p v]†vU RkLŸ]ÕOrRÕŸO.
A) Only (1 and 3) B) Only (2 and 4)
C) Only (3) d) oOWt]sOçvRpŠLU (1, 2, 3 and 4)
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9. Who is the Chief minister of Chhattisgarh ?

A) Bhupesh Baghel B) Bhajan lal Sharma
C) Vishnu deo Sai d) Shibu Soren
10. Among the following which country/countries voted in favour of a resolution in
the UN General Assembly that demanded an immediate ceasefire in the recent
Israel-Hamaz Conflict ?
1) liberia 2) India 3) Israel 4) United States
A) Only (1 and 2) B) Only (1) C) Only (2) d) Only (3 and 4)
11. Which of the following regions in India have the highest percentage of forests ?
A) The Great Plains of India
B) The Western Ghats and Western Coastal Plains
C) The Himalayan Region
d) The Peninsular Plateau and Hills
12. Read the following statements carefully.
i) Fold mountains are formed due to folding of sedimentary rocks.
ii) The Urals and the Appalachians are examples of old fold mountains.
iii) The Andes and the Himalayas are examples of young fold mountains.
Which of these are true ?
A) All of the above (i, ii and iii) B) i and ii only
C) i and iii only d) ii and iii only
13. Examine the following statements.
i) The day on which the earth is at perihelion occurs between the winter solstice and
the vernal equinox of the Northern hemisphere.
ii) The sun is the farthest from the earth on or around July 4th.
iii) The seasonal change from summer to winter is due to the inclination of the earth's
rotational axis to the orbital plane.
Which of these are true ?
A) i and ii only B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only d) All of the above (i, ii and iii)

14. The Pampadum Shola National Park is located in which district ?

A) Wayanad B) Idukki C) Pathanamthitta d) Kollam

15. The NASA launched a satellite named PACE on February 8, 2024 to study about
microscopic life in the oceans and microscopic particles in the atmosphere.
What does the acronym PACE stand for ?
A) Plankton, Aerosol, Cloud, ocean Ecosystem
B) Plankton, Aerosol, Cloud, Ecosystem
C) Plankton, Algae, Cloud, ocean Ecosystem
d) Plankton, Atomiser, Cloud, Ecosystem
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9. BqLeV M¾}yVYdV oOX|oNÍ] ?

A) mOSkxV mLYV¤ B) n^¢ sL¤ w¡o
C) v]xVeO c]SpL yLp] d) x]mO SyLRr¢
10. yo}kWLs CNyLSp¤&zoLyV yUZ¡x¾]¤ Daja] Rva]j]¡¾¤ Bvw|RÕaOÐ
UN ^jr¤ AyU‡]p]Rs NkSop¾]jV AjOWPsoLp] SvLŸV R\pÅ fLRu RWLaO¾]ŸOç
qL^|°t]¤ JfLeV/JRfL¨pLeV ?
1) RRsm]q]p 2) CÍ| 3) CNyLSp¤ 4) pORReãcV SðãVyV
A) Only (1 and 2) B) Only (1) C) Only (2) d) Only (3 and 4)
11. CÍ|p]¤ JãvOU WPaOf¤ vj°tOç NkShwU fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ JfLeV ?
A) CÍ|p]Rs vs]p yofs°¥
B) ké]oZŸ°tOU ka]´Lr¢ f}q yofs°tOU
C) z]oLsp¢ NkShwU
d) Rkj]¢yOsL¡ k}bnPo]pOU WOÐOWtOU
12. fLRuÕrpOÐ NkñLvjW¥ èÈLkP¡‹U vLp]¨OW.
i) Avw]ì kLrW¥ oa¨]¨tpOÐfV oPsoLeV oa¨V osW¥ qPkRÕaOÐfV.
ii) pOrsOWtOU AÕsLˆ]p¢yOU kup oa¨ k¡vf°tORa DhLzqe°tLeV.
iii) B¢c}yOU z]oLspvOU CtU oa¨V osWtORa DhLzqe°tLeV.
Cvp]¤ JfLeV wq] ?
A) oOWt]sOçvRpŠLU (i, ii and iii) B) i and ii only
C) i and iii only d) ii and iii only
13. fLRu RWLaO¾]ŸOç NkñLvjW¥ kq]SwLi]¨OW.
i) va¨¢ A¡ÈSYLt¾]Rs w}fWLs ArOf]W¥¨OU vyÍ v]xOv¾]jOU Cap]¤ nPo]
Rkq]Rzs]p¢ Bp]q]¨OÐ h]vyU yUnv]¨OÐO.
ii) ^PRRs 4&SjL Af]jaOS¾L BeV yPq|¢ nPo]p]¤ j]ÐV JãvOU AWRspOttfV.
iii) Svj¤ oOf¤ w}fWLsU vRqpOç WLsLjOyQfoLp oLãU nPo]pORa Nnoe AˆO
fº]R£ kq]NWoe fs¾]Ss¨Oç \LpVvLeV.
Cvp]¤ JfLeV wq] ?
A) i and ii only B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only d) oOWt]sOçvRpŠLU (i, ii and iii)
14. kLÒLaOU S\Ls Shw}SpLh|LjU JfV ^]Šp]sLeV ?
A) vpjLaV B) CaO¨] C) k¾jUf]Ÿ d) RWLŠU
15. yoONh°t]Rs yPƒÜ^}v]WRt¨Or]ˆOU AÍq}ƒ¾]Rs yPƒÜWe°Rt¨Or]ˆOU
kb]¨L¢ 2024 RlNmOvq] 8&jV PACE IÐV SkqOç KqO DkNYzU jLy v]Sƒk]ˆO.
PACE IÐL¤
A) †LËVSãL¦, ISqLy¤, S„LcV, KLx|¢ CS¨Ly]ðU
B) †LËVSãL¦, ISqLy¤, S„LcV, CS¨Ly]ðU
C) †LËVSãL¦, B¤YL, S„LcV, KLx|¢ CS¨Ly]ðU
d) †LËVSãL¦, ASãLo]y¡, S„LcV, CS¨Ly]ðU
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16. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect about GST ?

i) The GST Council comprises the Prime minister and Chief ministers of all States.
ii) The Kelkar Task Force on Indirect Taxes first proposed the idea of a nationwide GST
in India.
iii) The GST Council is Chaired by the Prime minister of India.
A) Only (i) B) Only (i and iii) C) Only (ii) d) Only (i and ii)

17. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the monetary Policy of RBI ?
i) RBI shall publish the monetary Policy Report (mPR) once in every six months.
ii) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is the ex officio Chairperson of
the monetary Policy Committee (mPC).
iii) The mPC consists of seven members.
A) Only (i and ii) B) Only (i and iii) C) Only (ii and iii) d) All (i, ii and iii)

18. Automatic fiscal stabilisers are :

A) Changes in taxes and government transfer payments that occur when the level of
income changes
B) Changes in the level of income that occur due to changes in tax rates and government
transfer payments
C) Variables that lead to an increase in public revenue
d) Changes in government expenditure that lead to an increase in income levels

19. According to the System of National Income Accounting, which of the following
statement/s is/are correct ?
i) Gross National Income = GdP + primary income receivable from the rest of the world
(row) – primary income payable to the rest of the world.
ii) Gross National disposable Income = Gross National Income + Current transfers
receivable – Current transfers payable.
iii) Gross National disposable Income can be divided into Gross Savings and Final
Consumption.
A) Only (i) B) Only (i and ii)
C) Only (ii and iii) d) All (i, ii and iii)

20. As per the revised estimates, the fiscal deficit of the Union Government for the
financial year 2023-24 is
A) 5.9% B) 5.1% C) 5.8% d) 6.4%
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16. GST Rp WOr]ˆV fLRu krpOÐvp]¤ JfLeV RfãV ?

i) GST WT¦y]s]¤ IŠL yUòLj°tORa oOX|oNÍ]oLqOU NkiLjoNÍ]pOU
D¥RÕaOÐO.
ii) kSqLƒ j]WOf] yUmÌ]ˆ RW¤¨¡ aLWõV SlLuVyV Bh|oLp] CÍ|p]¤ qL^|v|LkW
GST IÐ BwpU oOSÐLŸV vˆO.
iii) CÍ|¢ NkiLjoNÍ]pLeV GST WT¦y]¤ Ai|ƒ¢.
A) Only (i) B) Only (i and iii) C) Only (ii) d) Only (i and ii)
17. RBI pORa SoLe]ãr] SkLt]y]Rp yUmÌ]ˆV fLRuÕrpOÐ NkñLvjWt]¤ JfLeV
wq] ?
i) RBI BrOoLy¾]RsLq]¨¤ SoLe]ãr] r]SÕL¡ŸV Nky]È}Wq]¨OU.
ii) RBI Yv¡erLeV SoLe]ãr] SkLt]y] WÚ]ã]pORa IWõV Kl}Sx|L R\p¡SkuVy¦.
iii) mPC&¤ 7 AUY°tLeOçfV.
A) Only (i and ii) B) Only (i and iii) C) Only (ii and iii) d) All (i, ii and iii)

18. KLSŸLoLã]WV l]y]¨¤ Rðm]RRsSyuõV IÐL¤

A) vqOoLj¾]R£ j]sàV v|f|LyU vqOSÒL¥ j]WOf]¨OU YvR½£V NaL¢ó¡
SkpVRo£Vy]jOU DºLWOÐ oLãU
B) j]WOf] j]q¨]jOU YvR½£V NaL¢ó¡ SkpVRo£Vy]jOU oLãU vqOÐfV oPsU
vqOoLj¾]R£ j]sàV vqOÐ oLãU
C) RkLfO vqOoLj¾]R£ AgvL rvj|Ov]R£ v¡Èjv]jV WLqeoLWOÐ
Svq]pm]¥yV
d) vqOoLj v¡ÈjvV oPsU DºLWOÐ y¡¨Lq]R£ \]sv]Rs oLã°¥
19. y]ðU KLlV jLxe¤ C¢WU A¨Tº]°V NkWLqU fLRu fÐ]q]¨OÐ NkñLvjWt]¤
JfV/JRfL¨ wq] ?
i) SNYLôV jLxe¤ C¢WU = GdP + rðV KLlV h] Sv¥cV (row) sn]S¨ºOÐ RRNkor]
vqOoLjU – rðV KLlV h] Sv¥c]jV j¤SWº RRNkor] vqOoLjU.
ii) SNYLôV jLxe¤ c]yVSkLô]m]¥ C¢WU = SNYLôV jLxe¤ C¢WU + Wr£V
NaL¢Só¡yV r]y]vm]¥ – Wr£V NaL¢Só¡yV Skpm]¥.
iii) SNYLôV jLxe¤ c]yVSkLym]¥ C¢WU IÐf]Rj SNYLôV Syv]‚VyV BpOU
RRlj¤ SWL¦ykVx¢ BpOU fqUf]q]¨LU.
A) Only (i) B) Only (i and ii)
C) Only (ii and iii) d) All (i, ii and iii)

20. kOfO¨]p Ið]SoãV NkWLqU 2023-24 Rs pPe]p¢ YvR½£]R£ l]y]¨¤

Rcl]y]ãV BeV
A) 5.9% B) 5.1% C) 5.8% d) 6.4%

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21. Which among the following provision of the Indian Constitution was given effect from
November 26,1949 ?
A) Fundamental Rights B) directive Principles
C) Citizenship d) Emergency Provisions

22. Which among the following fundamental right is available to foreigners ?

A) Article 14 B) Article 15 C) Article 16 d) Article 19

23. When was the second proclamation of emergency was made in India under Article 352 ?
A) 1962 B) 1971 C) 1972 d) 1975

24. Which among the following items are is in the concurrent list of seventh schedule ?
A) Posts and telegraph
B) Police
C) Public Health and sanitation
d) Social security and social Insurance

25. When India celebrated its first Republic Day who was the Chief Guest of Republic
day parade ?
A) American President Harry S. Truman
B) President of France Vincent Auriol
C) Indonesian President Sukarno
d) USSR President Joseph Stalin

26. The term ‘eKranti’ is related to

A) Automation of Electronic Industry
B) Electronic delivery of Services
C) digital Broadband Access
d) Solar Electric Project

27. Whom among the following is a member of the Selection Committee for the Chief
Information Commissioner of India ?
A) Speaker of lok Sabha B) Vice President of India
C) leader of opposition in lok Sabha d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India

28. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 who among the following is the chair person
of Central Consumer Protection Council ?
A) Prime minister
B) Any person nominated by the President of lndia
C) minister in charge of the consumer affairs in the Central Government
D) Minister in charge of finance in the Central Government
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21. 1949 jvUm¡ 26 oOf¤ NkLms|¾]¤ vÐ CÍ|¢ nqeZajpORa fLRuÕrpOÐ

v|vòWt]¤ JfLeV ?
A) oTs]WLvWLw°¥ B) j]¡SÇw ff~°¥
C) kTqf~U d) Aa]pÍq v|vòW¥
22. fLRuÕrpOÐvp]¤ JfLeV v]Shw]W¥¨V sn|oLp oTs]WLvWLwU ?
A) B¡Ÿ]¨]¥ 14 B) B¡Ÿ]¨]¥ 15 C) B¡Ÿ]¨]¥ 16 d) B¡Ÿ]¨]¥ 19
23. B¡Ÿ]¨]¥ 352 NkWLqU CÍ|p]¤ qºLoR¾ Aa]pÍq NkX|LkjU ja¾]pfV
ISÕLuLeV ?
A) 1962 B) 1971 C) 1972 d) 1975
24. fLRuÕrpOÐ Cj°t]¤ JfLeV 7&LU Rxc|Pt]R£ W¦Wr£V s]ð]sOçfV ?
A) SkLðOWtOU Ras]NYLlOU
B) SkLs}yV
C) RkLfO^jLSqLY|vOU wO\]f~vOU
d) yLoPz]W yOqƒpOU yLoPz]W C¢xOr¢yOU
25. CÍ| Bh| r]Õ‡]WV h]jU BSZLx]ˆSÕL¥ r]Õ‡]WV h]j kSqc]Rs oOX|Lf]g] BqLeV ?
A) ASoq]¨pORa Nky]c£V zLq] IyV NaPoL¢
B) NlL¢y]R£ Nky]c£V v]¢Ry£V KLr]SpL¥
C) CSÍLSjx|pORa Nky]c£V yO¨L¡SeL
d) SyLv]pãV pPe]p¢ Nky]c£V S^LylV ðLs]¢
26. "C&NWLÍ]' IÐ khU __________ IÐfOoLp] mÌRÕŸ]q]¨OÐO.
A) CsSNûLe]WV v|vyLp¾]R£ KLSŸLSox¢
B) Syvj°tORa CsSNûLe]WV Rcs]vr]
C) c]^]㤠SNmLcVmL¢cV BWVyyV
d) SyLtL¡ CsNû]WV kÈf]
27. fLRuÕrpOÐvq]¤ BqLeV CÍ|pORa oOX| v]vqLvWLw WÚ}xe¡¨Oç Rysƒ¢
WÚ]ã]p]Rs AUYU ?
A) SsLWVynL y×}¨¡ B) CÍ|pORa DkqLNìkf]
C) SsLWVynp]Rs Nkf]kƒ SjfLvV d) CÍ|pORa yONk}U SWLaf] \}lV ^ð]yV

28. DkSnL©Q yUqƒe j]poU 1986 NkWLqU fLRuÕrpOÐvq]¤ BqLeV Ry¢Na¤

W¦y|Po¡ RNkLŸƒ¢ WT¦y]s]R£ Ai|ƒ¢ ?
A) NkiLjoNÍ]
B) CÍ|¢ qLNìkf] jLoj]¡SÇwU R\áOÐ JRfLqO v|©]pOU
C) SWNÎ y¡¨Lq]¤ DkSnL©Q WLq|°tORa \OofspOç oNÍ]
d) SWNÎ y¡¨Lq]¤ ijWLq|°tORa \OofspOç oNÍ]
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29. Which among the following statement is not true regarding State and Central Public
Service Commission ?
A) Public Service Commissions are advisory bodies.
B) The members of the Public Service Commission can be removed only by the President
of India.
C) The term of service of a member of the Commission is fixed.
d) The members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed by the state
legislature.

30. When was the last Census conducted in India ?

A) 2021 B) 2011 C) 2010 d) 2001

31. Which Indian State did Prime minister Jawaharlal Nehru describe as the ‘Jewel of India’ ?
A) Kerala B) Kashmir
C) Himachal Pradesh d) manipur

32. Whose slogan was ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’ ?

A) Subhash Chandra Bose B) Indira Gandhi
C) lal Bahadur Shastri d) N. G. Ranga

33. According to N.V. Krishna Warrier, what is the Indian literary name for Nineveh in Assyria ?
A) Shaktipuram B) Shonithapuram
C) Hastinapuri d) Anandapuri

34. Who won the Jnanpith Award in 1995 ?

A) U.R. Ananthamurthy B) m. T. Vasudevan Nair
C) O. N. V. Kurup d) mahasweta devi

35. Who is the author of Jnanappana ?

A) melpathur Narayana Bhattathiri B) Vallathol Narayana menon
C) Cherusseri Namboothiri d) Poonthanam Namboothiri

36. Which State is known for the traditional folk dance ‘Ghoomar’ ?
A) Gujarat B) Rajasthan
C) madhya Pradesh d) maharashtra
37. When was the ‘Children’s Film Society of India’ established ?
A) 11 march 1965 B) 21 July 1956
C) 21 September 1966 d) 11 may 1955
38. Which king issued the Temple Entry Proclamation ?
A) Chithira Thirunal Balarama Varma B) marthanda Varma
C) Visakham Thirunal Rama Varma d) Sree moolam Thirunal Rama Varma

39. Where will the Winter Olympics be held in 2026 ?

A) Paris B) Garmisch-Partenkirchen
C) milan and Cortina d’Ampezzo d) Brisbane
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29. yUòLj, Ry¢Na¤ kmæ]WV y¡v}yV WÚ}xRj yUmÌ]\ÿV fLRuÕrpOÐ NkñLvjWt]¤

JRfLR¨pLeV wq]psæL¾fV ?
A) kmæ]WV y¡v}yV WÚ}xjOW¥ DkShwW òLkj°tLeV.
B) kmæ]WV y¡v}yV WÚ}xj]Rs AUY°Rt CÍ|¢ Nky]c£]jV oLNfSo j}¨U R\áL¢
Wu]pP.
C) WÚ}x¢ AUY¾]R£ Syvj WLsLvi] j]ép]\ÿ]ŸOçfLeV.
d) yUòLj kmæ]WV y¡v}yV WÚ}xj]Rs AUY°Rt yUòLj j]poynàV j}¨U
R\áLU.
30. ISÕLuLeV CÍ|p]¤ AvyLjoLp] Ry¢yyV jaÐfV ?
A) 2021 B) 2011 C) 2010 d) 2001
31. "CÍ|pORa qÁU' IÐV NkiLjoNÍ] ^vz¡sL¤ RjzVrO v]Swx]Õ]\ÿ CÍ|¢
yUòLjU
A) SWqtU B) WLwÜ}¡
C) z]oL\¤ NkShwV d) oe]ÕP¡
32. ‘^pV ^vL¢ ^pV W]yL¢’ BqORa oONhLvLW|oLp]qOÐO ?
A) yOnLxV \NÎSmLyV B) CÎ]qL YLÌ]
C) sL¤ mzhP¡ wLNñ] d) I¢. ^]. qUY
33. I¢. v]. WQxVe vLq|qORa An]NkLp¾]¤, Ay}r]pp]Rs j]jSvpORa CÍ|¢ yLz]f|
jLoU IÍLeV ?
A) w©]kOqU B) SwLe]fkOqU
C) zñ]jkOq] d) BjÎkOq]
34. 1995-Rs ³Ljk}bU kOqØLqU Sja]pfV
A) pO. B¡. BjÎoP¡¾] B) IU. a]. vLyOShv¢ jLp¡
C) K. I¢. v]. WOrOÕV d) ozLSw~fL Shv]
35. ³LjÕLjpORa q\p]fLvV BqLeV ?
A) So¤Õ¾P¡ jLqLpe nŸf]q] B) vçS¾L¥ jLqLpe SoSjL¢
C) R\rOSêq] jÒPf]q] d) kPÍLjU jÒPf]q]
36. kqÒqLYf jLSaLa] jQ¾oLp ‘ZPo¡’ Ar]pRÕaOÐ yUòLjU ?
A) YO^rL¾V B) qL^òL¢
C) oi|NkShwV d) ozLqLNì
37. "\]¤Nc¢yV l]s]U RyLRRyã] KLlV CÍ|' ISÕLuLeV òLk]foLpfV ?
A) 1965 oL¡\ÿV 11 B) 1956 ^PRRs 21
C) 1966 RykVãUm¡ 21 d) 1955 RopV 11
38. SƒNfNkSvwj v]tUmqU kOrRÕaOv]\ÿ qL^LvV ?
A) \]¾]q f]qOjL¥ mLsqLo v¡Ú B) oL¡¾L¼ v¡Ú
C) v]wLXU f]qOjL¥ qLov¡Ú d) è} oPsU f]qOjL¥ qLov¡Ú

39. 2026-¤ RRwf|WLs Kt]Ò]WõV Iv]RapLeV ja¨OÐfV ?

A) kLq}yV B) YL¡o]xV&kL¡Ÿ¢W]¡\ÿ¢
C) o]sLjOU SWL¡Ÿ]j c] BRÒSyLpOU d) Nm]yVSm¢

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40. Which literary work contains the following lines ?

“Where the mind is without fear and the head is held high;
Where knowledge is free;
Where the world has not been broken up into fragments
by narrow domestic walls;
Where words come out from the depth of truth;
Where tireless striving stretches its arms toward perfection”
A) The Good Earth B) lalita O manas
C) Gitanjali d) matrubhumi
41. Which of the following is an input device ?
A) Speaker B) monitor C) Printer d) Scanner

42. ____________ is an application software.

A) Word processor B) Windows C) linux d) Unix

43. The network that spans over a large geographical area is called
A) lAN B) PAN C) WAN d) Bus network

44. An application software used to view a webpage

A) e-mail B) browser C) html d) spreadsheet

45. IT Act came into existence in the year

A) 2001 B) 2002 C) 1999 d) 2000

46. Time taken by Sunlight to travel from surface of Sun to Earth is

A) 8.3 Seconds B) 8.3 minutes C) 9.3 Hours d) 9.3 minutes

47. What is the primary purpose of the large Hadron Collider (lHC) ?
A) Study of Astronomy
B) Investigation of climate change
C) Particle Physics research
d) Exploration of deep-sea ecosystems

48. The energy production in Sun and other stars is by

A) Alpha decay B) Beta decay
C) Nuclear Fission d) Nuclear Fusion

49. What is the process by which living organisms obtain energy from food ?
A) Photosynthesis B) Cellular respiration
C) mitosis d) meiosis

50. The COP28 UN Climate Change Conference, was hosted by which city ?
A) mumbai B) delhi
C) Bengaluru d) dubai (UAE)

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40. JfV yLz]f|WQf]p]¤ fLRuÕrpOÐ vq]W¥ Aa°]p]q]¨OÐO ?

“ojôV npo]sæL¾fOU fs Dp¡¾]Õ]a]¨OÐfOoLp]a¾V;
Ar]vV y~fNÍoLp]a¾V;
CaO°]p YL¡z]W of]sOWtL¤ SsLWU w]g]soLp]Ÿ]sæL¾]a¾V;
yf|¾]R£ Bu¾]¤ j]ÐV vL¨OW¥ kOrRÕaOÐ]a¾V;
AèLÍ kq]èoU kP¡efp]Ss¨V Wq°¥ j}ŸOÐ]a¾V;’’
A) h] YOcV I¡¾V B) st]fV K oLjyV
C) Y}fLÆs] d) oLfQnPo]

41. fLRuÕrpOÐvp]¤ JfLeV C¢kOŸV DkWqeU ?

A) y×}¨¡ B) SoLe]ã¡ C) Nk]£¡ d) ØLj¡

42. _________ KqO Bkæ]S¨x¢ SyLlVãVRvp¡ BeV.

A) SvcV SNkLyy¡ B) v]¢ScLyV C) s]jWõV d) pOe]WõV

43. KqO vs]p nPo]wLNñkqoLp NkShw¾V v|Lk]\ÿOW]a¨OÐ wQUXsRp _________ IÐV

v]t]¨OÐO.
A) lAN B) PAN C) WAN d) myV RjãVv¡¨V

44. KqO RvmVSk^V WLeL¢ DkSpLY]¨OÐ KqO Bkæ]S¨x¢ SyLlVãVRvp¡

A) C&Rop]¤ B) NmTy¡ C) html d) RNy×cV x}ãV

45. RI. a]. BW›V j]sv]¤ vÐ v¡xU

A) 2001 B) 2002 C) 1999 d) 2000
46. yPq|R£ Dkq]fs¾]¤ j]ÐV nPo]p]Ss¨V yµq]¨L¢ yPq|NkWLwU IaO¨OÐ yopU
A) 8.3 Ry¨¢cV B) 8.3 o]j]ãV C) 9.3 oe]¨P¡ d) 9.3 o]j]ãV
47. sL¡^V zLSNcL¦ RWLRRtcr]R£ (lHC) NkLgo]W sƒ|U IÍLeV ?
A) S^|Lf]wLNñkbjU
B) WLsLvòL v|f]pLjR¾¨Or]\ÿOç ASj~xeU
C) We]WL nTf]W YSvxeU
d) Bu¨a¤ BvLyv|vòpORa kq|SvƒeU
48. yPq|j]sOU oãV jƒNf°t]sOU DT¡² DfVkLhjU _________ vu]pLeV.
A) B¤l ƒpU B) m}ã ƒpU
C) AeO v]ZajU d) AeO yUSpL^jU
49. ^}v^Ls°¥¨V nƒe¾]¤ j]ÐV DT¡²U sn]¨OÐ NkNW]p IÍLeV ?
A) SlLSŸLy]Íy]yV B) SWLw w~yjU
C) RRoSãLy]yV d) oSpLy]yV
50. COP28 pO. I¢. WLsLvòL v|f]pLj ySÚtjU JfV jYq¾]sLeV jaÐfV ?
A) oOURRm B) c¤z]
C) RmUYtPqO d) hOmLpV (UAE)

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51. What is the value of x if 7x + 2 = 492x – 3 ?

8 5
A) 5 B) C) d) 3
3 3
52. If the sum of two numbers is 8 and the product is 15, what is the sum of their
reciprocals ?
1 8
A) B) 23 C) d) 7
8 15
53. If the ratio of two positive numbers is 5 : 6 and the product is 480 then the greatest
number is
A) 6 B) 48 C) 24 d) 12

54. If the sum of 4 consecutive odd numbers is 976 then the smallest odd number
among 4 is
A) 243 B) 241 C) 223 d) 213

55. If A and B together can complete a work in 12 days, A and C together in 8 days
and B and C together in 6 days. Then B alone can done the work in
A) 18 days B) 48 days C) 14 days d) 16 days

56. What is the next number; 5, 6, 14, 45, __ ?

A) 104 B) 184 C) 92 d) 91

57. If the distance travelled by a car in ‘t’ seconds is given by d = 4t 2 – 3. If the car started
at 9 am, what is the distance travelled by the car between 9.02 am and 9.03 am ?
A) 33 B) 13 C) 30 d) 20

58. PQ is the diameter of a circle with centre ‘O’. draw tangent at P, mark a point R
on the circle and produce QR to meet the tangent at P at S. If ∠ PSQ = 48° then
∠ PQR =
A) 48° B) 42° C) 90° d) 96°

59. In a certain code language dISCIPlINE is written as CHRBHOKHmd. How is

EdUCATION written in that code ?
A) FEVdBUJPO B) FCyBBSJNO
C) dCTBZSHNm d) dCTBBSHNm

60. Abel has a brother Tom, Abel is the son of dennis. dany is dennis’s father. In terms
of relationship what is Tom of dany ?
A) Son B) Grandson C) Grand father d) Brother
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51. 7x + 2 = 492x – 3 BReË]¤ x-R£ oPs|U IÍLeV ?

8 5
A) 5 B) C) d) 3
3 3
52. qºV yUX|WtORa BRW¾OW 8 DU D¤ÕÐU 15 DU BReË]¤, AvpORa kqy×q
yUX|WtORa fOW INfpLeV ?
1 8
A) B) 23 C) d) 7
8 15
53. qºV SkLy]ã}vV yUX|WtORa AjOkLfU 5 : 6 DU D¤ÕÐU 480 DU BReË]¤ JãvOU
vs]p yUX| _________ BeV.
A) 6 B) 48 C) 24 d) 12

54. fOa¡\ÿpLp 4 KãyUX|WtORa BRW¾OW 976 BReË]¤ B 4-¤ JãvOU R\r]p

KãyUX| _________ BeV.
A) 243 B) 241 C) 223 d) 213

55. A pOU B pOU S\¡ÐV 12 h]vyU RWLºOU A pOU C pOU S\¡ÐV 8 h]vyU RWLºOU
B pOU C pOU S\¡ÐV 6 h]vyU RWLºOU KqO S^Ls] kP¡¾]pL¨LRoË]¤, B KãàV
B S^Ls] INf h]vyRWLºV kP¡¾]pL¨OU ?
A) 18 h]vyU B) 48 h]vyU C) 14 h]vyU d) 16 h]vyU

56. AaO¾ jÒ¡ IÍLeV 5, 6, 14, 45, __ ?

A) 104 B) 184 C) 92 d) 91

57. ‘t’ Ry¨¢c]¤ KqO WL¡ yµq]¨OÐ hPqU d = 4t2 – 3 BeV j¤WOÐfV. qLv]Rs 9 oe]¨V
WL¡ ðL¡ŸV R\pÅL¤, 9.02 am jOU 9.03 am jOU Cap]¤ WL¡ yµq]\ÿ hPqU INfpLeV ?
A) 33 B) 13 C) 30 d) 20

58. PQ IÐfV SWNÎU ‘O’ Dç KqO vQ¾¾]R£ v|LyoLeV. P p]¤ aL¢R^£V vqàOW,
vQ¾¾]¤ R KqO SkLp]£V AapLtRÕaO¾OW, S&¤ P aL¢R^£]Rj yUSpL^]¨OÐ
QR j]¡Ú]¨OW. ∠ PSQ = 48° BReË]¤ ∠ PQR =
A) 48° B) 42° C) 90° d) 96°

59. KqO NkSf|W SWLcV nLxp]¤ dISCIPlINE IÐV IuOf]p]q]¨OÐfV CHRBHOKHmd

IÐLeV. B SWLc]¤ I°RjpLeV EdUCATION IuOfOÐfV ?
A) FEVdBUJPO B) FCyBBSJNO
C) dCTBZSHNm d) dCTBBSHNm

60. BSms]jV KqO ySzLhq¢ SaLU DºV. RcÐ]y]R£ oWjLeV BSm¤. RcÐ]y]R£
k]fLvLeV cLj]. m̾]R£ WLq|¾]¤, SaLU cLj]pORa BqLeV ?
A) oW¢ B) Skq¨OŸ] C) oO¾±¢ d) ySzLhq¢

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61. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 50 minutes past 4 ?
A) 125 B) 150 C) 155 d) 160

62. 2 : 11 : : 3 : ______
A) 30 B) 45 C) 33 d) 31

63. If the 6th day of a month is 2 days earlier than Thursday. What day will it be on the
18th day of the month ?
A) Tuesday B) Wednesday
C) Sunday d) monday

64. How many triangles are there in the following figure ?

A) 6 B) 10 C) 14 d) 12

65. deepak walks 1 km towards east, then he turns to south and walks 5 km. Again he
turns to east and walks 2 km. After this he turns to north and walks 9 km. Now, how
far is he from his starting point ?
A) 4 km B) 16 km C) 7 km d) 5 km

66. A class of girls stands in a single line. One girl is seventeenth in order from both the
ends. How many girls are there in the class ?
A) 32 B) 33 C) 34 d) 31

67. Jungle : Zoo : : Sea : ?

A) Aquarium B) Harbour C) Water d) Fishery

68. 5, 10, 26, 50, ..., 170.

A) 98 B) 122 C) 106 d) 100

69. 237 ÷ ______ = 23700.

A) 10 B) 0.01 C) 0.1 d) 100

70. Which among the following numbers is divisible by ‘9’ ?

A) 1475 B) 3471 C) 5418 d) 4795

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61. KqO SWæL¨]R£ yP\] 4 Wu]´V 50 o]j]ã]¤ JfV SWLe]sLeV \q]´]q]¨OÐfV ?

A) 125 B) 150 C) 155 d) 160

62. 2 : 11 : : 3 : ______
A) 30 B) 45 C) 33 d) 31
63. KqO oLy¾]Rs 6&LU h]vyU v|LuLuV\Sp¨L¥ 2 h]vyU oOÒLReË]¤, oLy¾]Rs 18&LU
h]vyU JfV h]vyoLp]q]¨OU ?
A) R\Lvÿ B) mOi¢
C) `Lp¡ d) f]Ë¥

64. fLRu RWLaO¾]q]¨OÐ \]Nf¾]¤ INf Nf]SWLe°tOºV ?

A) 6 B) 10 C) 14 d) 12

65. h}kWV 1 W]SsLo}ã¡ W]uS¨LŸV jaÐV RfS¨LŸV f]q]´V 5 W]SsLo}ã¡ ja¨OÐO. v}ºOU
W]uS¨LŸV f]q]´V 2 W]. o}. ja¨OÐO. Cf]jOSwxU vaS¨LŸV f]q]´V 9 W]SsLo}ã¡
ja¨OÐO. CSÕL¥, Av¢ fR£ BqUn SkLp]£]¤ j]ÐV INf AWRspLeV ?
A) 4 W]SsLo}ã¡ B) 16 W]SsLo}ã¡ C) 7 W]SsLo}ã¡ d) 5 W]SsLo}ã¡

66. KqO WæLô]Rs Rk¦WOŸ]W¥ Kãvq]p]¤ j]¤¨OÐO. KqO Rk¦WOŸ] qºã¾Oj]ÐOU 17&LU
òLj¾LeV. WæLô]¤ INf Rk¦WOŸ]WtOºV ?
A) 32 B) 33 C) 34 d) 31

67. WLaV : oQYwLs :: Wa¤ : ?

A) ASW~r]pU B) fOroOXU C) RvçU d) oÃ|mÌjU

68. 5, 10, 26, 50, ..., 170

A) 98 B) 122 C) 106 d) 100

69. 237 ÷ ______ = 23700

A) 10 B) 0.01 C) 0.1 d) 100

70. fLRuÕrpOÐ yUX|Wt]¤ JfLeV ‘9’ RWLºV zq]¨LvOÐfV ?

A) 1475 B) 3471 C) 5418 d) 4795

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71. One must do _________ work.

A) his B) their
C) one’s d) her

72. Identify the correct spelling.

A) Acquaintence B) Acquntance
C) Acquaintance d) Acquentence

73. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer.

The majestic mahogany table ____________
p) belongs to an old king,
q) which had one leg missing
r) who is now impoverished
s) but not without some prode
A) pqsr B) qrsp
C) prsq d) qprs

74. Choose the most appropriate word for the following :

Rising air temperatures ___________ the physical nature of our oceans.
A) transform B) induce
C) affect d) modify

75. Identify the synonym for ‘venerate’.

A) respect B) defame
C) abuse d) accuse

76. Identify the Antonym for ‘Emaciation’.

A) Invigoration B) Glorification
C) Inundation d) depression

77. Identify the pair of related words ‘Blurred : Confused’.

A) Scam : Clarity
B) Abatement : Significant
C) dangerous : Adequate
d) muddled : Unclear
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78. A large dark grey cloud that brings rain or snow is called
A) blizzard B) nimbus
C) fog d) hail

79. The idiom, ‘to have an axe to grind’ means

A) pinpoint the faults of others
B) to take revenge
C) to make unreasonable demands
D) to have a selfish interest to serve

80. I ____________ (go) to the market with my friends now.

A) will go B) am going
C) going d) have gone

81. This brand of furniture is ____________ any other brand of furniture in the market.
A) costly than B) the costliest
C) costlier than d) most costly than

82. She agree ____________ whatever conditions were put before her.
A) to B) with
C) on d) by

83. Identify the most suitable pair of words to complete the sentence.
despite being the _________ partner in the relationship, the franchiser does not always
have all the ________
A) sincere : limitation
B) vulnerable : powers
C) authoritative : legalities
d) dominant : advantages

84. We are happy that our Chief minister with the members of his cabinet _________ to
be present at the function.
A) is B) are
C) will d) had
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85. No sooner had she entered the room _________ and everybody began to make
sound.
A) when the lights went out
B) then the lights went out
C) and the lights went out
d) than the lights went out

86. We met her immediately after the session in which she ________ a nice speech.

A) has been giving B) had given

C) would be given d) will have given

87. The guests admired my paintings but they ________ my writings.

A) seemed disliking

B) seemed to have disliking

C) seemed to have disliked

d) seem to be disliked

88. Find out the correct sentence.

A) I think him as a silly boy

B) I think him as to be a silly boy

C) I think to be him as a silly boy

d) I think him a silly boy

89. Ornithology means

A) Study of birds B) Study of animals

C) Study of metals d) Study of orion

90. Select the alternative word for ‘distasteful’ from the following :
A) not delicious B) unpleasant

C) tasteless d) useless

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91. wq]pLp khU f]qR´aOR¾uOfOW.

A) BSqLY|wq}qU B) ASqLYwq}qU
C) ASqLY|wq}qU d) ASqLWwq}qU
92. SkLRŸ + Av¢ – S\¡R¾uOf]pL¤
i) SkLŸv¢
ii) SkLRŸpv¢
A) (i) oLNfU wq] B) (ii) oLNfU wq]
C) (i) DU (ii) DU wq] d) IŠLU RfãV
93. k]q]RˆuOfOW – WLŸ]Sj¢
A) WLŸ] + J¢ B) WLŸ] + Sp¢
C) WLŸ] + Sj¢ d) WLŸ]jV + J¢
94. Rfã]ŠL¾ vLW|U f]qR´aOR¾uOfOW.
A) nLqf}p¡ IŠLvqOU SyÔSzLhqnLvS¾LaOWPa] v¡¾]¨eU
B) nLqf}p¡ IŠLvqOU SyÔzLhqnLvS¾LaOWPa] v¡¾]¨eU
C) nLqf}p¡ IŠLvqOU SyÔSzLgLqnLvS¾LaOWPa] v¡¾]¨eU
d) nLqf}p¡ IŠLvqOU SyÔz DhSqLnLvS¾LaOWPa] v¡À]¨eU
95. No action seems to be called for on our part – IÐf]jV SpL^]ˆ ospLt v]v¡¾jU
IaOR¾uOfOW.
A) jÚORa nLY¾Oj]ÐV IaO¾ jaka] D\]foLpfLp] SfLÐOÐ]Š
B) jÚORa nLY¾Oj]ÐV Nkv¡¾] IaO¨L¢ v]t]ˆfLp] WLeOÐ]Š
C) jÚ¥ Bvw|RÕŸf]jV KqO Nkf]WqevOU DºLpfLp] WLeOÐ]Š
d) jÚORa nLY¾Oj]ÐV IRÍË]sOU jaka] IaOS¨ºfLp] SfLÐOÐ]Š
96. Sf¢ – IСÀU vqOÐ khU IaOR¾uOfOW.
A) oiONnU B) oiOkU C) oi~WU d) oiPs]
97. RWL¾]R¨LºO kr¨LjOU vá CSŸˆO SkLWLjOU vá – IÐf]jO yoLj yΡn¾]¤
NkSpLY]¨LvOÐ oRãLqO kuRµLSŠfV ?
A) Wƒ¾]s]q]¨OÐfV v}uOWpOoqOfV D¾q¾]s]q]¨OÐfV IaO¨OWpOU SveU
B) oiOq]ˆ]ŸO fOÕLjOU Sos, Wˆ]Ÿ]r¨LjOU Sos
C) AÚSpLaOWPa] oq]¨pOU SveU A±SjLaOWPa]p]q]¨pOU SveU
d) kLsORWLaO¾ Wá]jO fRÐ RWL¾O W]ŸOW
98. If]¡s]UYU IuOfOW – R\Ÿ]ˆ]
A) R\Ÿ] B) R\Ÿ C) R\Ÿ¢ d) S\Ÿ]ˆ¢
99. o´ÕŸOaO¾v¢ – IСÀU vqOÐ khU IuOfOW.
A) k}fLÒq¢ B) k}fLUmq¢
C) Sw~fLUmq¢ d) zq]fLUmq¢
100. iQf] – IÐ kh¾]R£ A¡ÀU.
i) DrÕV ii) RRòq|U iii) f]aO¨U iv) SvYU
A) (i) oLNfU wq] B) (ii) oLNfU wq]
C) (iii) DU (iv) DU oLNfU wq] d) IŠLU wq]

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Space for rough work

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Space for rough work

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47/24 S\Lh| kOñW NWojÒ¡

S\Lh|kOñW AƒqSWLcV

a
S\Lh|°tORa BRW I¹U : 100 yopU : 75 o]j]ŸV

kqoLvi] oL¡¨V : 100

DSh|LYL¡À]W¥¨Oç j]¡SÇw°¥
1. S\Lh| WasLôV j¤WOÐfV S\Lh| kOñW qPk¾]sLeV. a, B, c, d IÐ} jLsV Aƒq SWLcOWt]sOç
S\Lh| kOñW°tLeV j¤WOÐfV.
2. S\Lh| kOñW¾]R£ oOWt]¤ CafV vw¾V NkSf|W SWLt¾]¤ S\Lh|kOñW Aƒq SWLcV Aˆa]ˆ]ŸOºV.
3. KLSqL DSh|LYL¡À]¨OU j¤W]p]ŸOç S\Lh|kOñW Aƒq SWLcV AvqORa kq}ƒL zLt]Rs Cq]Õ]
a¾]¤ SqXRÕaO¾]p]q]¨OU.
4. j]°¥¨jOvh]ˆ]q]¨OÐ Aƒq SWLc]¤ j]ÐOU v|f|ñoLp SWLc]sOç S\Lh|kOñWoLeV
sn]¨OÐRfË]¤ AfV Daja] C¢v]^]SsãrORa èÈp]¤RÕaOS¾ºfLeV.
5. S\Lh|kOñW NWojÒ¡ kOrU \ŸpORa vsfOvw¾V oOWtã¾Lp] S\¡¾]ŸOºV. NWojÒ¡ CŠL¾
S\Lh|kOñWoLeV j]°¥¨V sn]¨OÐRfË]¤ ASf Aƒq SWLc]sOç S\Lh|kOñWU oLã] vL°OW.
6. S\Lh| kOñWU vsfO oL¡^]j]¤ oÈ|nLY¾Lp] y}¤ R\pÅ]q]¨OU. D¾qRouOfLjOç AjOof]
sn]ˆLsŠLRf S\Lh| kOñWU fOr¨L¢ kLa]Š.
7. kq}ƒ fOa°]pLsOa¢ DSh|LYL¡À] fj]¨V sn]ˆ]q]¨OÐ S\Lh| kOñW¾]¤ 100 S\Lh|°tOU NWooLp]
DSºL IÐV kq]SwLi]S¨ºfLeV. S\Lh| kOñW¾]¤ Aˆa]¨L¾SfL, W}r]pSfL, v]ŸOSkLpSfL
Bp Sk^OW¥ DºLW]Š; AgvL DRºË]¤ A¨Lq|U C¢v]^]SsãrORa èÈp]¤ RWLºOvq]WpOU
ASf Aƒq SWLc]sOç kP¡¹oLp S\Lh| kOñWU oLã] vL°OWpOU R\SáºfLeV. CfV JãvOU
NkiLjRÕŸfLeV.
8. CT S\Lh|SkÕr]Rs 1 oOf¤ 70 vRqpOç S\Lh|°¥ CUYæ}x]sOU KTSh|LY]W nLxp]sOU (ospLtU)
Bp] A\ÿa]\ÿ]q]¨OÐO. CT S\Lh|°tORa A¡ÀU, f¡²o IÐ]v yUmÌ]\ÿ yUwp°¥¨V CUYæ}xV
oLi|o¾]sOç S\Lh|°tLeV BiLqoL¨OÐfV.
9. S\Lh| kOñW¾]R£ AvyLj Sk^]jO RfLŸOoO¢kV KÐOU IuOfL¾ qºV Sk^OW¥ S\¡¾]ŸOºV. CfV
D¾qU WºOk]a]¨OÐf]jOç WOr]ÕOW¥¨Lp] DkSpLY]¨LvOÐfLeV.
10. D¾q°¥ SqXRÕaO¾L¢ BqUn]¨OÐf]jV oOÒV D¾q¨asLy]R£ orOkOr¾Oç j]¡SÇw°¥
èÈLkP¡‹U vLp]¨OW.
11. wq]pO¾qU D¥RÕRa KLSqL S\Lh|¾]jOU (A), (B), (C), (D) IÐ jLsV D¾q°¥ fÐ]q]¨OU. wq]
pO¾qU RfqR´aO¾V K. IU. B¡. D¾q¨asLy]¤ mÌRÕŸ S\Lh| jÒr]jV SjRqpOç wq]pO¾qU
yP\]Õ]¨OÐ WOo]t (mm]¥) oLNfU j}sSpL WrOSÕL mL¥ SkLp]£V Skj DkSpLY]ˆV WrOÕ]¨OW.
12. KLSqL wq]pO¾q¾]jOU KqO oL¡¨V sn]¨OWpOU KLSqL RfãO¾q¾]jOU 1/3 oL¡¨V jìoLvOWpOU
R\áOU. D¾qU SqXRÕaO¾L¾ S\Lh|°¥¨V oL¡¨V jìoLvOWp]Š.
13. kq}ƒL yopU Wu]pOÐf]jV oOSÒL, D¾q¨asLyV C¢v]^]SsãRr J¤Õ]¨LRfSpL KqO DSh|LYL¡À]pOU
kq}ƒLzL¥ v]ŸV kOr¾OSkLWL¢ kLa]Š.
14. j]¡SÇw°¥ W¡wjoLp] kLs]S¨ºfLeV. kq}ƒp]¤ NWoS¨aV ja¾OWSpL Af]jOç èoU
ja¾OWSpL R\áOÐ DSh|LYL¡À]WRt ASpLY|qLp] NkX|Lk]¨OÐfLeV.

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