Test Pattern

(1001CMD300522015) )1//1CMD3//522/15)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2022- 2023) 02-10-2022
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE PHASE - MNL
This Booklet contains 32 pages.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.

Important Instructions :

1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black
ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 Hours 20 Minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions.
Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum
marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be
considered as answer.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this
Test Booklet with them.
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified
space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

: in words

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

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SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : NLM (SPRING, PSEUDO FORCE, FRICTION), WPE, GRAPHS (x-t, v-t, a-t), MOTION UNDER
GRAVITY, PROJECTILE MOTION, [BACK UNIT] :- BASIC MATHS
SECTION - A 6. If y = 4x2 + 5 then slope of y – x graph at x = 2
Attempt All 35 questions is :-
1. Find cos(74°) = ? (1) 21 (2) 16
24 7 16 7 (3) 8 (4) 13
(1) (2) (3) − (4) −
25 25 25 25 v

2. The charge flowing through a conductor beginning 7. ∫ Mv dv =?

with time t=0 is given by the formula u

dq where M is constant :
q = 2t2 + 3t + 1 (coulombs). Find the current i =
dt 1
at the end of the 5th second. (1) M(v – u)
2
(1) 17 Amp. (2) 23 Amp. 1
(2) M(v2 – u2)
2
(3) 20 Amp. (4) 10 Amp.
1
3. Maximum value of y when y = 100– x2 +2x (3) M(u2 – v2)
2
(1) 100 (2) 99 (3) 101 (4) 102 1
(4) M(v + u)
2
4. d 2y
If y = x3 + x2 + x + 1, then =? 4
dx 2 dx
8. The value of integral ∫ is :
2
(1) 3x + 2x + 1 (2) 6x + 2 x
2

(3) 6 (4) 6x2 + 2x2 (1) 3 loge 2 (2) loge 2

5. The magnitude of slope of the curve shown in figure: (3) loge 4 (4) 2 loge 8

9. Area bounded by curve y = sin x, with x-axis,

π
when x varies from 0 to is :-
2
(1) 1 unit (2) 2 units
(1) Continuously increases (3) 3 units (4) 0
(2) Continuously decreases 10. (1+x)–n where x << 1 can be written as :-
(3) First decrease then increase (1) 1 + nx (2) 1 - nx
(4) First increase then decrease (3) x + n (4) x - n
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2 2
x y 14. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with
11. For ellipse + = 1, the co-ordinate of
9 25 speed u, the distance covered during the last
point A & B are respectively :- t seconds of its ascent is
1 2 1 2
(1) gt (2) ut − gt
2 2
(3) u gt t
( − ) (4) ut
15. With what speed should a body be thrown
upwards so that the distance traversed in
(1) (0, 3) & (5, 0) 5 th second and 6 th second are equal :
(2) (3, 0) & (0, 5) (1) 5.84 ms–1 (2) 50 ms–1
(3) (0, 9) & (25, 0) (3) √
−−
98 ms − 1
(4) 100 ms–1
(4) (25, 0) & (0, 9) 16. A body is projected vertically upward from the
12. A ball is released from the top of a tower of surface of the earth, its displacement time graph is :
height h metres. It takes T seconds to reach the
T
ground. What is the position of the ball in (1) (2)
3
seconds ?
h
(1) meters from the ground
9
7h (3) (4)
(2) meters from the ground
9
8h
(3) meters from the ground
9 17. The displacement time graph of two moving
17h particles makes angles of 30° and 45° with the
(4) meters from the ground
18 axis. The ratio of the two velocities VA is :-
VB
13. A stone is dropped into a well in which the
level of water is h below the top of the well. If
v is velocity of sound, the time T after which
the splash is heard is given by :
−−−
−−−
2h h 2h h
(1) T = √ + (2) T = √ +
v g g v
–
−−−
−−−
(1) √ 3:1 (2) 1 : 1
2h h h 2h
(3) T = √ + (4) T = √ +
–
v g 2g v (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : √3
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18. The fig. shows the position time graph of a 21. The speed at the maximum height of a
particle moving on a straight line path, What is projectile is half of its initial speed u. Its range
the magnitude of average velocity of the on the horizontal plane is:
particle over 10 seconds? 2u 2
(1)
3g
–
√ 3 u2
(2)
2g
u2
(3) 3g
u2
(4)
2g

(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s 22. A particle is projected from point O with
velocity u in a direction making an angle with
(3) 5 m/s (4) 8 m/s the horizontal. At any instant its velocity is at
19. A football player throws a ball with a velocity of point P at right angles to the initial direction of
50 ms–1 at an angle 30° from the horizontal. The projection. Its velocity at point P is
ball remains in the air for (Take, g = 10 ms–2).
(1) 2.5 s
(2) 1.25 s
(3) 5 s
(4) 0.625 s
(1) u tan α (2) u cot α
20. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is
2 i 3 j m s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is :
( ^ + ^) /
(3) u cosec α (4) u sec α
23. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined
surface with angle of inclination 'α'. The incline
is given an acceleration 'a' to keep the block
stationary. Then a is equal to :

(1) 2^i + 3^j (2) − 2^i − 3^j

(1) g (2) g tan α
(3) − 2^i + 3^j (4) 2^i − 3^j (3) g / tan α (4) g cosec α
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24. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth 27. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor.
wedge of wedge angle θ. The whole system is The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. A force
accelerated horizontally so that the block does F of 2.5 N is applied on the block as shown in
not slip on the wedge. The force (normal figure. The force of friction between the block
reaction) exerted by the wedge on the block has and the floor is: (g = 9.8 ms–2)
a magnitude:
(1) mg tan θ
mg
(2)
cos θ
(3) mg (1) 1.5 N
(4) mg cos θ (2) 0.5 N
25. The static frictional force is - (3) 2.5 N
(1) Self adjustable
(4) None of these
(2) Not self adjustable 28. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and
(3) scalar quantity m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley
(4) Equal to the limiting force P. The mass m1 hangs freely m2 and m3 are on
a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of
26. A block of mass m lying on a rough horizontal
friction = μ). The pulley is frictionless and is of
surface of friction coefficient μ is pulled by a
negligible mass. The downward acceleration of
force F as shown, the limiting friction between
mass m1 is (Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m) :
the block and surface will be

(1) μmg g(1 − 2μ)

(1)
9
F
(2) μ (mg + ) 2gu
2 (2)
3
F g(1 − 2μ)
(3) μ (mg − )
(3)
2
3
–
√ 3F g(1 − 2μ)
(4) μ (mg − ) (4)
2 2
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29. A force F ⃗
i = 4 j acts on block shown.
^
+
^ 32. A block of mass m = 2 kg is resting on a rough
The force of friction acting on the block is : inclined plane of inclination 30° as shows in
figure. The coefficient of friction between the
block and the plane is μ 0.5 . What minimum
=

force F should be applied perpendicular to the

plane on the block, so that block does not slip
(1) − i
^ on the plane ? (g = 10m/s2)

(2) − 1.8 ^i

(3) − 2.4 ^i
(1) zero (2) 6.24 N (3) 2.68 N (4) 4.24 N
(4) − 3 ^i 33. A block slides down an inclined plane with an
acceleration g/2 as shown in fig. Then coefficient
30. A box is lying on an inclined plane. If the box of kinetic friction is :-
starts sliding when the angle of inclination is
60°, then the coefficient of static friction of the
box and plane is-
(1) 2.732
– –
(1) √ 3 (2) √ 3−1
(2) 1.732
– 1
√3
(3) 0.267 (3) (4) –
2 √ 3

(4) 0.176 34. The friction coefficient between the blocks is

31. A body of mass m is displaced from point 0.5. The acceleration of each block is :-
A(3, 1, 2) to point B(4, 3, 3) under the effect
of a force F (3 i 2 j 4k) N , calculate
⃗
=
^
+
^
+
^

W.D. by the force.

(1) 57 J (1) a1 = a2 = 1 m/s2
(2) 11 J (2) a1 = a2 = 4 m/s2
(3) 0 (3) a1 = 5 m/s2, a2 = 10/3 m/s2
(4) 22 J (4) a1 = 5 m/s2, a2 = 3 m/s2
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35. In the arrangement shown in figure, coefficient Q P

of friction between the two blocks is µ = 1/2. 38. If ∫ x 10

. dx = R then ∫ x 10 dx is equal :-
The force of friction acting between the two P Q

blocks is :- (1) R (2) -R (3) 0 (4) ∞

39. Find
1 1 1 1 1
1− + − + − +−−−− ∞
2 4 8 16 32
(1) 8 N 3 2 2 1
(1) (2) (3) − (4) −
2 3 3 2
(2) 10 N
40. A body is thrown vertically upwards from the
(3) 6 N
top A of a tower. It reaches the ground in
(4) 4 N t1 seconds. If it is thrown vertically downwards
SECTION - B from A with the same speed it reaches the
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate ground in t2, seconds. If it is allowed to fall
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of freely from A, then the time it takes to reach
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts the ground is given by:
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted t1 + t2
questions will be considered for marking. (1) t=
2
36. Distance between points (3, –2) & (–1, 2) is :- t1 − t2
(2) t=
2
(1) 2√–2 −− −
(3) t = √ 1 2 t t
–
(2) 4√2 −−
t1
– (4) t=√
(3) 8√2 t2

(4) 4 41. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower of

height h. After 1 second another stone is
37. ∫ t3
( + 3t 2 − 2t + t − 1
) dt = … dropped from the balcony 20 m below the top of
(1) t4 + t3 – t2 – t2 + c the tower. Both reach the bottom simultaneously.
What is the value of h ? take g = 10 m/s2:
(2) t4
+ t3 − 2t 2 + t − 2
+ c
4 (1) 3125 m
t4 (2) 312.5 m
(3) + t3 − t2 + loge t + c
4
(3) 31.25 m
(4) t4 3 2 2
+ t − t − t −
+ c (4) 25.31 m
4
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42. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers 44. Acceleration of a ball is constant then which of
distance h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the the following graph represent velocity-time
graph of the ball :
next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively.
The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is

(1) h1 = 2h2 = 3h3

(1)
h2 h3
(2) h1 = =
3 5

(3) h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2

(4) h1 = h2 = h3
(2)
43. A rocket is launched upward from the earth's
surface whose velocity time graph is shown in
figure. Then maximum height attained by the
rocket is :

(3)

(1) 1 km

(2) 10 km

(4)
(3) 100 km

(4) 60 km
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45. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at 48. A pendulum is suspended from the ceiling of
time t = 0 is 5 m/s2 which varies with time as
shown in the figure. The maximum speed of the the cart as shown in the figure. Find the
particle will be : horizontal acceleration of the cart for which
pendulum will become equally inclined from
the horizontal and vertical :-

(1) 7.5 m/s (2) 15 m/s

(3) 20 m/s (4) 37.5 m/s
46. If the given system is in equilibrium, then (1) g/2 (2) g/4
direction of force by spring on 10 kg block is -
(3) g (4) g/√–3

49. The coefficient of friction between the

block m2 and the inclined plane is μ. If
m1
sin θ (shown in figure) then the mass
=
m2
m1 moves downwards with acceleration :

(1) upwards
(2) downwards
(3) No spring force will act on 10 kg block
(4) can't be predicted
47. If the vessel is given constant retardation while μm 1
(1) μg cos θ (2) g cos θ
it is moving towards the right along a straight m1 + m2
line, which of the following diagrams represents − μm 2
the surface of the liquid:- (3) g cos θ (4) zero
m1 + m2
50. The contact force on the 1 kg block is :-

–
(1) 4√5 N (2) 8 N
(1) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (4) (iv) (3) 4 N (4) 12 N
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SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : FROM MODERN PERIODIC TABLE TO ATOMIC RADIUS, FROM TEMPERATURE TO
EQUIVALENT WEIGHT, [BACK UNIT] :- ATOMIC STRUCTURE
SECTION - A 54. The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction
Attempt All 35 questions N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is given by
⇌

51. Consider the reaction N H 3] 2

[
Q=
CaC O 3 (s) ⇌ CaO(s) + C O 2 (g) ; in closed N 2 ] [H 2 ] 3
[

container at equilibrium. What would be the The reaction will proceed from right to left if
effect of addition of CaCO3 on the equilibrium (1) Q = 0 (2) Q = KC
concentration of CO2? (3) Q < KC (4) Q > KC
(1) Increases 55. Vapour density of PCl5 is 104.25 at T°C. Then
(2) Decreases degree of dissociation of PCl5 is (MW = 208.5)
(3) Data is not sufficient to predict it (1) 20% (2) 0%
(4) Remains unaffected (3) 30% (4) 15%
52. Change in volume of the system does not alter 56. The equilibrium constant for a reaction;
the number of moles in which of the following A B
+ C D is 1 × 10–2 at 298 K and is 2
⇌ +

equilibrium. at 373 K. The chemical process will be:

(1) Exothermic
(1) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)
(2) Endothermic
(2) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (3) Unpredictable
(4) There is no relationship between K and ΔH
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
57. Consider the following equilibrium in a closed
(4) SO2Cl2(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + Cl2(g) N2O4(g) 2NO2(g). At a fixed temperature,
⇌

the volume of the reaction container is halved.

53. For the reaction Cl2(g) 2Cl(g), ΔH = + ve the
⇌
For this change, which of the following
formation of Cl(g) is favoured at :- statements held true regarding the equilibrium
constant (Kp) and degree of dissociation (α) –
(1) high temperature and low pressure
(1) Neither Kp nor α changes
(2) high temperature and high pressure
(2) Both Kp and α change
(3) low temperature and high pressure (3) Kp changes, but α does not change
(4) low temperature and low pressure (4) Kp does not change, but α changes
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58. Equivalent weight of S in SO3 is :- 62. Calculate equivalent weight of H2SO4.
8×3 8×2 (1) 98
(1) (2)
2 3
(2) 49
2×3
(3) 8 × 3 × 2 (4) (3) 9.8
8
59. In A3(g) ⇌ 3A(g) reaction the initial (4) 4.9
mol
concentration of A3 is 'a' if x is degree of 63. Number of equivalents in 20 g of NaOH is :-
L
dissociation of A3, The total number of moles (1) 20
at equilibrium will be :-
(2) 1
ax ax
(1) a− (2) − x
3 3 (3) 0.5
a − ax (4) 5
(3) (
2
) (4) a + 2ax
64. Match column :-
60. For the manufacture of ammonia by the Column-I Column-II
reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 + 21.9 K cal, the
(a) Size of nucleus (P) Z
favourable conditions are :-
Number of proton
(1) Low temperature, low pressure & catalyst (b) (Q) 10–15 m
in nucleus
(2) Low temperature, high pressure & catalyst (c) Size of atom (R) (A – Z)
(3) High temperature, low pressure & catalyst Number of neutron
(d) (S) 10–10 m
(4) High temperature, high pressure & catalyst in nucleus
61. The theoretical molecular weight of PCl5 is (1) a → R, b → S, c → Q, d → P
208.4 and at 250°C observed molecular weight (2) a → Q, b → P, c → S, d → R
of PCl5 was found to be 115.2. The degree of (3) a → S, b → R, c → Q, d → P
dissociation of PCl5 at this temperature is :-
(4) a → S, b → P, c → Q, d → R
208.4 − 57.6
(1) 65. What is the number of photons of light with
57.6
wavelength 300 nm that provide 2 Joule of energy
104.2 − 57.6
(2) (1) 3 × 1018
57.6
208.4 − 115.2 (2) 3 × 1016
(3)
57.6
208.4 − 57.6
(3) 2 × 1020
(4)
115.2 (4) 2 × 1014
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66. Choose correct relation on the basis of bohr 71. How many maximum electrons can be filled in
theory:- the orbital for which n = 3 and ℓ =1 ?
1 (1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 2 (4) 6
(1) Velocity of electron ∝
n2
72. Which one of the following set of quantum
1 number is not possible for 4p electron :-
(2) Frequency of revolution ∝
n3
(3) Radius of orbit ∝ n2·z (1)
2
n
(4) Energy of electron ∝ (2)
z2
67. Calculate the radius ratio of 3rd and 5th orbit of He+ (3)
(1) 25 : 9 (2) 9 : 25
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 3 : 4 (4)
68. Which is not a correct relation between total
73. An atom has 35 nucleons and has atomic
Energy (E), Potential energy (PE) and Kinetic
Energy (KE) number equal to 17. The number of electrons
with n = 2, m = 0 in it is :-
(1) PE = −2 E
(1) 2 (2) 4
(2) PE = 2 E
(3) 6 (4) 3
(3) KE = −E
74. In the third period, Na to C ℓ , seven elements
(4) PE = −2 KE are called:
69. Different lines in Lyman series of hydrogen (1) lanthanides (2) typical elements
spectrum lie in :
(3) halogen elements (4) metalloids
(1) UV region
75. The number of element present is fifth period is :-
(2) Visible region
(1) 18 (2) 32 (3) 38 (4) 74
(3) IR region
76. The electronic configuration of elements X and Z
(4) None of these are 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 and 1s2 2s2 2p5
70. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with respectively. What is the position of element X
mass 1g and velocity 100 m/sec is : with respect to position of Z in the periodic table
(1) 6.63 × 10–33 m (2) 6.63 × 10–34 m (1) Just below Z (2) Just above Z
–35 –35
(3) 6.63 × 10 m (4) 6.65 × 10 m (3) Left to the Z (4) right to the Z
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77. Which of the following sequence represents 82. Which of the following has largest radius :-
atomic number of only representative elements? (1) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2
(1) 55, 12, 48, 53 (2) 13, 33 54, 83 (2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1
(3) 3, 33 53, 87 (4) 22, 33, 55, 66 (3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p3
78. An element whose IUPAC name is ununtrium (4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p5
(Uut), belongs to :
83. Incorrect order of radius is :-
(1) s-block element
(1) H– > Li+ > Be+2
(2) p-block element
(2) Ni > Cu > Zn
(3) d-block element
(3) Br– > S–2 > Cl– > F–
(4) Transition element
(4) P–3 > S–2 > K+
79. Which of the following electronic configuration
does not belong to same block as others? 84. Which of the following pair of elements have
almost similar atomic radii :-
(1) [Xe]4f14, 5d10, 6s2
(1) Zr, HF (2) Mo, W (3) Co, Ni (4) All
(2) [Kr]4d10, 5s2
85. The correct of atomic radius is :-
(3) [Kr]5s2
6 2
(1) I+ < I– < I
(4) [Ar]3d , 4s
(2) Na+ < Mg2+ < Al+3
80. The IUPAC name of the element which is
(3) O < O– < O2–
placed after Db105 is the periodic table, will be
(4) N3– < N2– < N–
(1) Unnilpentium
SECTION - B
(2) Unnilhexium This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(3) Ununnidium can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
(4) Unnilquandium these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
81. The element with atomic number z = 115 will
questions will be considered for marking.
be placed in -
86. 2 mole of PCl5 were heated in a closed vessle
(1) 7th period, 1 group
of 2 litre capacity. At equilibrium 40% of PCl5
(2) 8th period, 14 group dissociated into PCl3 and Cl2. The value of the
(3) 7th period, 15 group equilibrium constant is:
(4) 6th period, 5 group (1) 0.267 (2) 0.53 (3) 2.63 (4) 5.3
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87. Which of the following is correct for 90. For the reaction :
equilibrium H2O(s) H2O(l) :-
⇌ 2A(g) + B(g) ⇌ 3C (g) + 4D(g)

(1) Equilibrium is unaffected by pressure change Two moles each of A and B were taken into a 1 L
flask. The following must always be true when
(2) Fusion of ice increases on increasing pressure the system attained equilibrium
(3) on increase in pressure conversion of (1) [A] = [B]
water into ice increases
(2) [A] < [B]
(4) None of the above
(3) [A] = [C]
88. AB2 dissociated as : AB2(g) → AB(g) + B(g). If
initial pressure of AB2 is 500 mm of Hg and (4) [A] + [B] < [C] + [D]
total pressure at equilibrium is 700 mm of Hg. 91. Pick out the isoelectronic structures from the
Calculate Kp? following :
CH 3 +
H 3O +
NH 4 +
CH 3 −

(1) 133.3 mm I II III IV

(1) I & II
(2) 130 mm
(2) I & IV

(3) 140 mm (3) I, II & IV

(4) II, III & IV
(4) 125 mm 92. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV
89. The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can and 50eV respectively. The relation between their
be represented as : wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be :
2AB 2 (g) ⇌ 2AB(g) + B 2 (g) (1) λ1 = λ2 (2) λ1 = 2λ2
The degree of dissociation is 'x' and is small
1
compared to 1. The expression relating the (3) λ1 = 4λ2 (4) λ1 = λ
2 2
degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium
93. What are the values of the orbital angular
constant Kp and total pressure P is
momentum of an electron in the orbitals 1s, 3s,
(1) (2Kp/P)1/3 3d, and 2p :-
– –
(1) 0, 0, √ 6ℏ, √2ℏ
(2) (2Kp /P)1/2
– –
(2) 1, 1, √ 6ℏ, √2ℏ
(3) (Kp/P) – –
(3) 0, 1, √ 6ℏ, √3ℏ
(4) (2Kp/P) –
20 ℏ, √6ℏ
−−
(4) 0, 0, √

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94. The potential energy of an electron in the 98. Which two elements are in same period as well
hydrogen atom is –6.8 eV. Indicate in which as same group of modern periodic table :-
excited state, the electron is present ?
(1) Z = 23, Z= 31
(1) First (2) Second
(2) Z = 65, Z = 66
(3) Third (4) Fourth
(3) Z = 52, Z = 87
95. Select the correct statement :
(4) Z = 58, Z = 46
(1) On increasing n, total energy of electron
decreases 99. Match the following
(2) Velocity of electron present in higher bohr Column-A Column-B
orbit is less (Temporary (Official
(3) In excitation of electron, energy is released Name) Name)
(4) A electron present in higher bohr orbit has (i) Uno (p) Moscovium
more kinetic energy.
(ii) Unq (q) Livermorium
96. Which of the following sets of atomic numbers
correspondens to elements of group 16 :- (iii) Uup (r) Rutherfordium
(1) 8, 16, 32, 54 (2) 16, 34, 54, 86 (iv) Uuh (s) Hassium
(3) 8, 16, 34, 52 (4) 10, 16, 32, 50 (1) i(s), ii(r), iii(p), (iv)q
97. Select the correct match -
(2) i(p), ii(r), iii(s), (iv)q
(A) Group no = 17,
P = ns2np4 (3) i(s), ii(q), iii(p), (iv)r
p-block
(B) Group no = 4, (4) i(r), ii(p), iii(q), (iv)s
Q = (n–1)d2 ns2
d-block 100. Which of the following orders of atomic radii
(C) Group no = 16, are correct :-
R = (n–2)f7(n–1)d1ns2
p-block (a) Li < Be < Na (b) Ni < Cu < Zn
(D) Group no = 3, (c) Ti > V > Cr (d) Ti > Zr ~ Hf
S = (n–1)d10ns2np5
f-block Correct answer is :-
(1) (P–A), (Q–B), (R–C), (S–D) (1) a, d
(2) (P–C), (Q–B), (R–D), (S–A) (2) a, b
(3) (P–A), (Q–C), (R–B), (S–D) (3) b, c
(4) (P–B), (Q–D), (R–C), (S–A) (4) b, d
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SUBJECT : BIOLOGY - I

Topic : CELL BIOLOGY, UPTO LIGHT REACTION (PHOTOSYNTHESIS), [BACK UNIT]

:- BIOMOLECULES

SECTION - A 104. The phase of cell cycle which marks duplication

Attempt All 35 questions of centriole in cytoplasm also shows -
101. Assertion (A) : Cytokinesis in plant cell occur (1) Continuous growth of cell which is
by cell plate formation method. metabolically in active.
Reason (R) : Cytokinesis in animal cells occur (2) Synthesis of tubulin proteins
by the formation of cell furrow.
(3) Replication of DNA
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True &
(4) Splitting of centromere
the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion. 105. Read the following statements (A-C) carefully -
(A) The homologous chromosome separate.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but (B) Chromatids move to opposite poles.
Reason is not a correct explanation of (C) Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
the Assertion. How many of the above statement is related to
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. anaphase of the mitosis ?
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (1) Two (2) Three
102. Select the incorrect match - (3) One (4) Zero
(1) Syncytium → Liquid endosperm of coconut 106. Yeast can progress through the cell cycle in
only about -
(2) Cell plate → Middle lamella
(1) 20 minutes
(3) G0 -phase → Quiscent stage (2) 90 minutes
(4) Chiasmata → Leptotene (3) 24 hours
103. Mitosis is responsible for all of these except - (4) 30 minutes
(1) Restores nucleo cytoplasmic ratio. 107. Which of the following meiotic stage is marked
(2) Production of diploid daughter cells with by terminalisation of chiasmata ?
identical genetic complement. (1) Pachytene
(3) Contribute to cell repair (2) Diakinesis
(4) Conservation of specific chromosome (3) Diplotene
number across generations. (4) Zygotene
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108. How many chromatids will be present in a 112. Match the column I with column II and
diploid human cell at metaphase of mitosis ?
select the correct option given below :-
(1) 46
Column I Column II
(2) 23
(3) 92 A. Crossing over P. Zygotene
(4) 84 B. Chiasma Q. Pachytene
109. In which of the following phase of cell cycle
synapsis occurs ? Synaptonemal
C. R. Diakinesis
complex
(1) Prophase-II
D. Terminalization S. Diplotene
(2) Metaphase-I
T. Leptotene
(3) Anaphase-I
(1) A-Q, B-S, C-T, D-P
(4) Prophase-I
(2) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R
110. The begining of diplotene is recognised by -
(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata (3) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
(2) Disappearence of nucleolus and nuclear
(4) A-S, B-Q, C-T, D-P
membrane.
(3) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex. 113. Which of the following is not correct regarding
(4) Recombination of genotic material between meiosis ?
two chromosomes. (1) Four haploid cells are formed
111. At which stage of meiosis, sister chromatids do
not separate and attached to centromere? (2) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and
(1) Anaphase-II recombination between

(2) Anaphase–I (3) Two sequential cycles of nuclear cell

(3) Metaphase–II division and two cycle of DNA replication

(4) Both (2) & (3) (4) Occurs in specialised diploid cells
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114. Match List-I with List-II: 117. If the amount of DNA at the ‘S’ phase of a
List-I List-II gamete producing cell is 40 pg. Than what will
Transition to the amount of DNA in the gamete cell :-
(a) (i) Anaphase-I
Metaphase (1) 40 pg (2) 20 pg
Segregation of (3) 10 pg (4) 80 pg
(b) homologous (ii) Anaphase-II
chromosomes 118. Milk sugar yields .......... on hydrolysis
Splitting of (1) Glucose + Glucose
(c) (iii) Diakinesis
centromere (2) Glucose + Fructose
Nuclear (3) Glucose + Maltose
(d) membrane (iv) Telophase-I
(4) Glucose + Galactose
reappear
Choose the correct answer from the options 119. Which of the following is a saturated fatty acid
given below : (1) Arachidonic acid (2) Oleic acid
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) (3) Palmitic acid (4) Linoleic acid
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii) 120. Which of the following is basic amino acid ?
(3) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii) (1) Glutamic acid (2) Lysine
(4) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (3) Tyrosine (4) Cysteine
115. Bouquet stage is - 121. Variations in amino acids depend on :
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (1) Side group
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene (2) Ester group
116. During different stages of cell division, cell (3) Complexity of cell
show ............. in place of the nucleus. A single
(4) None of them
human cell has approximately ............ meter
long thread of DNA distributed among its 122. Amino acids kept at acidic pH will show:-
......... chromosomes:- (1) +ve charge (2) –ve charge
(1) Chromatin, 46, 5 (3) No net charge (4) No charge
(2) Chromosomes, 5, 46 123. The chief pigment associated with photosynthesis.
(3) Chromosomes, 2, 46 (1) Chlorophyll ‘a’ (2) Chlorophyll ‘b’
(4) Nucleolus, 2, 23 (3) Carotenoid (4) Xanthophyll.
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124. In this given diagram (A), (B), (C) stands for :- 128. Which of the following pigments help to
prevent photo-oxidation of chlorophyll-a in
higher plants ?
(1) Chlorophyll-c
(2) Chlorophyll-d
(3) Carotenoids
(4) Phycobillins
(A) (B) (C)
129. Read the following four statements, A, B, C
(1) Chl-a Chl-b Carotenoids and D and select the right option having both
(2) Chl-b Chl-a Phycobilins correct statements.
Statements :
(3) Chl-b Chl-a Carotenoids
(A) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in
(4) Carotenoids Chl-a Chl-b presence of PSI only.
125. In photosystem–I, the first electron acceptor is: (B) Only PSI is functional in
cyclic photophosphorylation
(1) Ferredoxin (C) Cyclic photophosphorylation results into
synthesis of ATP and NADPH(H+)
(2) Cytochrome (D) Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as
(3) Plastocyanin NADP reductase
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(4) Fe-Sulphur protein
(3) C and D (4) B and D
126. First reaction in photosynthesis is:
130. 6CO + A Light→ C H O + B + 6O
(1) Photolysis of water 2 −−−
6 12 6 2

(2) Excitation of chlorophyll molecule Choose the correct option for A and B in given
reaction of photosynthesis, respectively -
(3) Formation of ATP
(1) 12H2O, 6H2O (2) 6H2O, 12H2O
(4) Fixation of CO2
(3) 6H2O, 6H2O (4) 12H2O, 12H2O
127. Which of the following is required for the
chemiosmosis process? 131. Rection center of PSI and PSII are respectively :
(1) Proton pump (1) P680 and P700
(2) Presence of a membrane (2) P700 and P640
(3) Presence of proton gradient (3) P680 and P720
(4) All of these (4) P700 and P680
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132. Choose the correct match for A to D. 133. Identify A to D in the given figure.

(1) A - Protons,
B - Reaction centre, (1) A : e– acceptor, B: Light,
C: Chlorophyll P700,
C - Primary acceptor,
D : Electron transport system.
D - Accessory pigments (2) A : Light, B: Electron transport system,
C: e– acceptor, D: Chlorophyll P700
(2) A - Antenna molecules,
(3) A: Electron transport system,
B - Primary acceptor, B: e– acceptor, C: Chlorophyll P700,
C - Photons, D : Light

D - Reaction center (4) A : Chlorophyll P700,

B : Electron transport system,
(3) A - Primary acceptor, C : Light, D : e– acceptor

B - Photons, 134. ......A...... performed an elegant experiment

with an .....B..... plant to show that in bright
C - Reaction center, sunlight, small bubbles were formed around the
D - Antenna molecules .....C..... parts, while in dark they did not.
A B C
(4) A - Antenna molecules, 1 Ingenhousz Aquatic Green
B - Reaction center, 2 Ingenhousz Terrestrial Green
C - Photons, 3 Priestley Aquatic Green
D - Primary acceptor 4 Priestley Aquatic Non-Green

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135. Select the correct match :- 141. Match Column - I with Column - II and select
(1) Thylakoids – CO2 fixation the correct option from the codes given below.
(2) Stroma – Light reactions Column - I Column - II
(3) Grana – Absorption of light energy A. Tetrose sugar (i) Galactose
(4) Stroma lamellae – Synthesis of NADP B. Pentose sugar (ii) Maltose
SECTION - B C. Hexose sugar (iii) Erythrose
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate D. Disaccharide (iv) Ribose
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (v) Sedoheptulose
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (1) A - (v), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (i), (ii)
questions will be considered for marking. (2) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (v), D - (ii)
136. Which of following carbon compounds are not (3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
strictly macromolecules? (4) A - (i), (ii), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (v)
(1) DNA (2) Lipids 142. Given below are the example of few amino
(3) Glycogen (4) RuBisCO acid Glutamic acid, Lysine, Valine, Tyrosine,
Phenylalanine, Tryptophan
137. Ketohexose sugar is - How many of the above are aromatic amino
(1) Glucose (2) Ribose acids?
(3) Fructose (4) Arabinose (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 3
138. The glycosidic linkage present in sucrose is :- 143. Which of the following sugar is found in nucleic acid?
(1) 1 → 4 (2) 1 → 2 (1) Glucose
(3) 1 → 6 (4) 2 → 2 (2) Dextrose
139. How many sugars are reducing in given below? (3) Levulose
Glucose, Fructose, Galactose, Maltose, (4) Deoxyribose
Sucrose, Trehalose, Lactose 144. Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 7 (1) Tryptophan
140. Which sugar does not give positive Benedict's test ? (2) Valine
(1) Glucose (2) Maltose (3) Tyrosine
(3) Fructose (4) Sucrose (4) Lysine
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145. In a protein carboxyl (–COOH) group of one 148. What is the process that creates proton gradient
amino acid reacts with the amino (–NH2) group across thylakoid membrane ?
of the next amino acid by :-
(1) Peptide bond (1) Splitting of water molecule on inner side
(2) Elimination of water of the membrane (towards lumen).

(3) Dehydration (2) H+ carrier transports H+ ion from stroma

(4) All of these to lumen.
146. During photosynthesis- (3) NADP reductase removes H+ ions from
(1) Water is reduced & CO2 is oxidized stroma for reduction of NADP+.
(2) CO2 is reduced & water is oxidized
(3) Both CO2 & water get reduced (4) All of these
(4) Both CO2 & water get oxidized 149. TW Engelmann’s prism experiments on a green
147. alga, Cladophora led to the discovery of-

(1) Cyclic and non - cyclic photophosphorylation

(2) First action spectrum of photosynthesis

(3) Two photosystems operating simultaneously

(4) Oxidative phosphorylation

150. During photosynthesis oxygen in glucose

comes from:-

Which of the following is correctly labelled for (1) H2O

the given figure :-
(1) A : PS II : B : PSl : C : e– acceptor D : LHC (2) CO2
(2) A : LHC : B : e– acceptor : C : PSl : D : PSll
(3) Both H2O and CO2
(3) A : PSl : B : PSll : C e– acceptor : D : LHC
(4) A : e– acceptor : B : LHC : C : PSll : D : PSl (4) From air and H2O
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SUBJECT : BIOLOGY-II
Topic : DIGESTIVE SYSTEM (PANCREASE COMPLETE), CIRCULATORY SYSTEM (COMPLETE TILL
30.09.22)
SECTION - A 154. Match the columns and choose the correct
Attempt All 35 questions options:
151. Maximum digestion and absorption of digested
food takes place in simultaneously :- Column-I Column-II
(1) Jejunum, duodenum A. Amylase I. Proteins
(2) Stomach, jejunum B. Lipase II. Milk Sugar

(3) Duodenum, jejunum C. Lactose III. Starch

D. Trypsin IV. Lipids
(4) Jejunum, large intestine
152. Find out X, Y, Z from below reaction. (1) A-(III) ; B-(IV) ; C-(II), D-(I)
(i) Dipeptides Amino acid
(ii) Maltose Glucoge + Y (2) A-(III) ; B-(IV) ; C-(I), D-(II)
(iii) Sucrose Glucoge + Z
(1) X-Dipeptidases, Y-Glucose, Z-Glucose (3) A-(IV) ; B-(III) ; C-(II), D-(I)
(2) X-Dipeptidase, Y-Fructose, Z-Glucose
(3) X-Dipeptidase, Y-Glucose, Z-Frucose (4) A-(I) ; B-(II) ; C-(III), D-(IV)
(4) X-Lipase, Y-Glucose, Z-Fructose 155. Which one of the following is the correct
153. Pick up the correct matching pair :- matching of the site of acion on the given
(A) Maltase (i) Pancreatic juice substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the
(B) Trypsinogen (ii) Bile juice end product :
pep sin
(C) HCl (iii) Saliva (1) Small intestine : proteins −−−−→ amino acids
(D) Ptyalin (iv) Intestinal juice lipase
(v) Gastric juice (2) Stomach : fats−−−→ micelles
tryp sin
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-v (3) Duodenum : tryglycerides −−−− →
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-ii monoglycerides
α amylase
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-v −

(4) Small intestine : starch −−−−−−→

(4) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-iii disaccharide (maltose)
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156. Which of the following process is aided by the 159. Contraction of gall bladder is induced by
bile salts. :- (1) Gastrin
(1) Nucleic acid Nucleotides (2) Cholecystokinin
Nucleosides (3) Secretin
Sugar + Bases (4) Enterogastrone
160. Hormones secreted by pancreas are
(2) Sucrose Glucose + Fructose
(1) Gastrin and insulin
(3) Fats Diglycerides (2) Insulin and secretin
monoglycerides (3) Glucagon and insulin
(4) Glucagon and gastrin
(4) 161. Enterocrinin acts on
(1) Gall Bladder
157. Which of the following juice contains maltose
and lactose- (2) Intestinal gland
(3) Trypsinogen
(1) Saliva
(4) Gastric gland
(2) Gastric juice 162. In addition to neural control, hormones also
influence the :-
(3) Intestinal juice (1) gastric secretions
(2) intestinal secretions
(4) Pancreatic juice (3) muscular activities of different parts of
alimentary canal
158. Enzyme maltase of human gut acts on food at :-
(4) All of these
(1) pH less than 7, changes maltose to fructose 163. Which of the following stimulates the secretion
of gastric juice :-
(2) pH more than 7, changes maltose to glucose (1) Gastrin

(3) pH less than 7, changes starch to maltose (2) Enterogasterone

(3) Secretin
(4) pH more than 7, changes starch to maltose (4) Hepatocrinin
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164. Choose the incorrect statement :- 168. All of the following components of digested food
(1) In duodenum, glands are also presents in are transported into blood capillaries, except :-
submucosa (1) Glucose
(2) Villi contains lacteals but no capillaries (2) Serine
(3) Mucosa forms irregular folds in stomach (3) Fructose
(4) Microvilli forms brush border appearence (4) Chylomicron
165. Which of the following absorbed in stomach? 169. Mark the enzyme which does not act upon food
substrate.
(1) Simple sugars
(1) Trypsin
(2) Water (2) Chymotrypsin
(3) Enterokinase
(3) Alcohol (4) Aminopeptidase
170. Immediately after fat absorption, monoglycerides
(4) All of these
move into :-
166. Mark the correct pair of food components in (1) Lymph vessels (2) Blood vessel
human which reach the stomach in undigested
form :- (3) Villi (4) Chylomicron
171. Find out correct match of A, B, C, D and E
(1) Starch & fat

(2) Protein & Starch

(3) Fat and Cellulose

(4) Cellulose & Starch

(1) A-Starch (2) A-Dextrin
167. Which of the following nutrient do not follow B-Invertase B-Lactase
entero hepatic circulation ? C-Invertase C-Glucose
(1) Fat E-Maltose E-Sucrose
(2) Protein (3) A-Starch (4) A-Dextrin
B-Lactase B-Lactase
(3) Carbohydrates C-Maltase D-Maltose
(4) None of above E-Glucose E-Glucose
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172. Which of following nutrient absorbed from 176. Defaecation is a :-
intestine against concentration gradient ?
(1) Involuntary process
(1) Glucose only
(2) Voluntary process
(2) Fatty acid
(3) Egestion of faeces and involuntary process
(3) Glucose & Amino acid
(4) All of these
(4) H2O
177. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
173. Which enzyme causes Breakdown of Lipids?
(1) Jaundice – The liver is affected, skin and
(1) Amylopsin
eyes turn blue due to the deoxygenated
(2) Rennin blood.
(3) Steapsin (2) Vomiting – Abnormal frequency of bowel
(4) Nucleases movement and increased liquidity of the
174. Bile salt act as a activator of which enzyme :- faecal discharge
(1) Lipase
(3) Physiological energy value of fat – 10.45 Kcal/gm.
(2) Pepsinogen
(3) Trypsinogen (4) Kwashiorkor – Protein deficiency
(4) Pancreatic amylase
178. Castle's intrinsic factor is connected with
175. Which of the following is not true regarding
kwashiorkor :- internal absorption of: -
(1) It is not related to calorie deficiency (1) Vit. -A/Retinol
(2) results from replacement of mothers milk
by low protein & high calorie diet in child (2) Vit. -B2/Riboflavin
less than one year
(3) This is associated with wasting of muscle (3) Vit. -B1/Thiamine
thining of limbs.
(4) It occur due to protein deficiency. (4) Vit.B12/Cobalamin
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179. Amount of heat liberated from complete 183. Which one is correct -
combustion of 1 gm food in a bomb calorimeter (1) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Blood platelets
is called as :- (2) Plasma = Blood - Lymphocytes
(1) Physiologic value (3) Lymph = plasma + RBC + WBC
(2) Gross calorific value (4) All of the above
(3) Nutritive value 184. Read the following statements and find out the
(4) Net calorific value incorrect statements.
180. In man, the normal blood pressure is (a) Blood is a loose connective tissue
maintained by the blood protein called consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma and formed
elements.
(1) Haemoglobin (b) Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid
constituting nearly 90-92 percent of the blood.
(2) Albumin (c) 55 percent of plasma is water and proteins
contribute 6-8 per cent of it.
(3) Fibrinogen (d) Fibrinogen are needed for clotting or
coagulation of blood.
(4) Heparin (e) Factors for clotting of blood are present in
181. The normal Albumin/Globulin ratio in blood is :- the plasma in an inactive form.
(1) 2 : 1 (1) a, b and c
(2) 1 : 2 (2) b, c and d
(3) 1 : 4 (3) c, d and e
(4) 1 : 5 (4) a, b and e
182. γ-globulins protein present in human blood 185. Each haemoglobin molecule has
plasma are primarily involved in :-
(1) One heme group
(1) Maintaining BCOP
(2) Two heme groups
(2) Defence mechanism of body

(3) Transport of O2 (3) Three heme groups

(4) Blood clotting (4) Four heme groups

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SECTION - B 187. Identify A, B, C and D in the given flow chart :-
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
186. Match the digestive compound with its function:-
Digestive
Function
compound A B C D
Emulsification (1) Lipase Sucrase Maltase Lactase
A. Gastrin a.
of fats (2) Erepsin Sucrase Maltase Lactase
Convert (3) Amylase Maltase Sucrase Lactase
B. Bile juice b. disaccharides to (4) Rennin Sucrase Maltase Lactase
monosaccharides 188. How many enzymes in the list given below act
Stimulate on protein in alkaline medium ?
C. Sucrase c. Chymotrypsin, Nuclease, Carboxypeptidase,
secretion of HCl
Rennin, Lactase, Aminopeptidase, Sucrase,
Convert Pepsin, Trypsin
D. Nuclease d. pepsinogen to (1) Five
pepsin
(2) Four
Convert nucleic (3) Three
E. HCl e. acids in to (4) Six
nucleotides
189. Inhibition of gastric and stimulation of gastric
pancreatic and bile, secretion are controlled by
A B C D E following :
(1) c a b d e (1) Gastrin, Secretion, Enterogastrone, and CCK
(2) c b a e d (2) Enterogastrone, Gastrin, Pancreozymin and CCK
(3) c b a d e (3) Gastrin, Enterogastrone, CCK and Pancreozymin
(4) c a b e d (4) Secretin, Enterogastrone, CCK and Pancreozymin
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190. Crypts of Lieberkuhn are found : 194. Match the column I & II correctly :-
(1) Base of villi in the large intestine Column-I Column-II
(2) Submucosa layer of stomach Ejection of stomach
(3) Base of villi in the intestine (i) contents through the (a) Indigestion
(4) Apex of villi in the small intestine mouth
191. If "sphincter of Boyden" is closed due to some Abnormal frequency
reason so what will be happned :- of bowl movements
(ii) (b) Constipation
(1) No activation of pancreatic enzyme and increased
liquidity of faecus
(2) Pepsinogen will not be convert into pepsin
(3) Digestion of fat will not be occurs in small Faecus are retained
(iii) (c) Diarrhoea
intestine with in the rectum
(4) Only Esterase enzyme will be release Food is not properly
(iv) (d) Vomitting
192. The process by which the end products of digest
digestion pass through the intestinal mucosa
(1) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
into the blood or lymph is known as :-
(1) Absorption (2) Assimilation (2) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-b
(3) Digestion (4) Egestion
193. Which of the following option is correct for (3) (i)-d, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-b
Defaecation-?
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(1) It’s an involuntary process and carried out
by mass peristalsis 195. If a patient is advised to take more meat, milk
(2) It’s a voluntary process and relaxation of and eggs in his diet. The patient is :-
diaphragm, abdominal muscles help in this
process (1) Suffering from rickets

(3) It’s an involuntary process and contraction (2) Can not see in the dark
of diaphragm and abdominal muscles
helps in this process (3) Suffering from scurvy
(4) It’s a voluntary process and carried out by
mass peristalsis (4) Suffering from kwashiorkar
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 ALLEN
196. Plasma is a straw coloured viscous fluid 199. Assertion : First R.B.C of life formed is yolk sac.
constituting nearly ...A...% of the blood, Reason : Blood producing organ is called as
...B...% of the plasma is water and the protein haemopoietic organ.
constitutes ...C...% of it. Choose the correct
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
option for the blanks A, B and C
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) A-55, B-90-92, C-6-8
Assertion.
(2) A-45, B-70-80, C-6-8
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
(3) A-35, B-90-92, C-6-8
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(4) A-45, B-90-92, C-6-8 Assertion.
197. Blood plasma constitutes nearly.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) 30% of blood
(2) 55% of blood (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

(3) 90% of blood 200. Which ones are absorbed in the alimentary
canal without any breakdown?
(4) None of these
198. What will happen if RBC is kept in 0.5% NaCl (1) Proteins
solution? (2) Polysaccharides
(1) It will shrink (2) It will swell (3) Fat soluble vitamins
(3) It will burst (4) Unaffected (4) Albumin of egg

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 Read carefully the following instructions :

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and Regulations of this examination.

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