Page 1 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

(UPSC CSE Prelims GS Paper 1 Questions with detailed explanations)

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain Provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to Issue directions to
the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question) Recently, deputy governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) warned against government
interference in Reserve Bank's working.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Statement 1 is correct.
Section 8(1)(a) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, provides that there shall be one Governor and not more
than four Deputy Governors to be appointed by the central government on the central board of RBI.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Section 7 of the RBI Act provides that Central Government may from time to time give such directions to the
Bank as it may, after consultation with the Governor of the Bank, consider necessary in the public interest.
Constitution of India does not provide any provision for Central Government the right to issue directions to
the RBI in Public interest.
Statement 3 is correct.
According to RBI Act, the Governor shall have powers of general superintendence and direction of the affairs
and the business of the RBI. He/she may exercise all powers and do all acts and things which may be exercised
or done by the RBI.
Source) RBI Governor appointed by PMO on the recommendation of Finance Minister, RS told - The Hindu
RBI vs Centre: What is Section 7 and why it is being seen as an extreme step against the RBI - The Economic
Times (indiatimes.com)
RESERVE BANK OF INDIA ACT, 1934 (rbi.org.in)
Subject) Economics

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 2 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.2) With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:
1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund Coverage.
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through
its bank account.
Which of the above statement are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question) COVID-19 has exposed the vulnerability of urban casual workers: Periodic Labour Force
Survey
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement a is correct.
A casual worker is a worker on a temporary employment contract with generally limited entitlements to benefits
and little or no security of employment. The main attribute is the absence of a continuing relationship of any
stability with an employer, which could lead to their not being considered ‘employees’ at all.
Supreme Court has ruled that casual workers are also entitled to social security benefits under the
Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act.
“As per Section 2(f) of the EPF Act, the definition of an employee is an inclusive definition, and is widely
worded to include any person engaged either directly or indirectly in connection with the work of an
establishment, and is paid wages,” a bench of SC said.
Statement b is correct.
Casual workers (should) have all those rights that are enjoyed by regular workers, since the definition of
employee includes casual labour as per Supreme Court guidelines. Employees in India are entitled for regular
working hours and overtime payment according to Minimum Wages Rules, 1950.
Statement 3 is correct.
The Payment of Wages (Amendment) Act 2017 provides that the Government may specify that the employer of
any industrial or other establishment shall pay wages to every employee only by cheque or by crediting the
wages in his bank account".
Source) Contractual workers also entitled to PF benefits: SC (indiatimes.com)

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 3 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Government introduces bill for wage payment via e-mode, cheques - The Economic Times (indiatimes.com)
Subject) Economics

Q.3) Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession?
a) Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate
b) Increase in expenditure on public project
c) Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate
d) Reduction of expenditure on public projects

Why this question) Aatma nirbhar Bharat scheme announced an economic stimulus package for Rs 20-lakh-
crore (estimated at 10% of the GDP), amid Covid pandemic.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Economic Recession refers to a significant decline in general economic activity in a designated region.
Increase in expenditure on public projects will have a multiplier effect on the pace of economic growth of the
country. Public expenditure has the expansionary effect on the growth of national income, employment
opportunities, etc.
Private investors are incapable of making massive investments on the various infrastructural projects like road-
bridge-dam construction, power plants, transport and communications, etc. It is imperative that the
government undertakes such projects. Greater the public expenditure, higher is the level of economic
development.
Source) Public Expenditure: Causes, Principles and Importance (economicsdiscussion.net)
Subject) Economics

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

Other things remaining unchanged market demand for a good might increase if
1. Price of its substitute increases
2. Price of its complement increases
3. The good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases
4. Its price falls
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 4 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Why this question) Important static concept

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
The main factors that can increase the demand for a good in market are:
• Prices of related goods
• Income

• Expectations

• Number of buyers

• Preferences
The following are the relations between the demand and price of the products, with changing economic
conditions:
1. The demand for a good increase, if the price of one of its substitutes rises. The demand for a good decrease,
if the price of one of its substitutes falls.
2. The demand for a good increase, if the price of one of its complement’s falls. For example, ice cream and
fudge sauce.
3. The demand for an inferior good decrease if income increases. The demand for a normal good increase if
income increases.
4. If the Price of the good falls, then its demand increases.
Source) ch04lecture.ppt (unf.edu)
Subject) Economics

Q.5) With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in India, consider the following statements:
1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the state Governments.
2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation act,1949 through an amendment in 1966.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 5 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Why this question) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised the Supervisory Action Framework (SAF) for
Urban Co-operative Banks; cooperative banks are brought under the supervision of the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI).
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
The Urban Banks Department of the Reserve Bank of India is vested with the responsibility of regulating and
supervising primary (urban) cooperative banks, which are popularly known as Urban Cooperative Banks
(UCBs).
Statement 2 is correct.
A cooperative bank can, with prior approval of the RBI, issue equity shares, preference shares, or special
shares to its members or to any other person residing within its area of operation, by way of public issue or
private placements.
Statement 3 is correct.
Large cooperative banks with paid-up share capital and reserves of Rs.1 lakh were brought under the purview of
the Banking Regulation Act 1949 through an amendment in 1966.
Source) Reserve Bank of India - About Us (rbi.org.in)
Explained: Why is the NCP opposing RBI supervision of cooperative banks? | Explained News,The Indian
Express
History of Urban Co-op Banking - The Sutex Co-operative Bank Ltd. (sutexbank.in)
Subject) Economics

Q.6) Indian Government bond yields are influenced by which of the following?
1. Action of the United States Federal Reserve
2. Action of the Reserve Bank of India
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 6 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Why this question) Recently, the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) decision to step up purchase of Government
Securities (G-Sec) under the Government Securities Acquisition Programme (G-SAP) led to the yield on the
benchmark 10-year bond falling below 6%.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is correct.
Hike in interest rate in the US by United States Federal Reserve leads not only to an outflow of funds from
equities into US treasury bonds, but also to an outflow of funds from emerging economies to the US. Thus, it
impacts Indian Government Bond Yields in negative manner.
Statement 2 is correct.
The multifaceted roles played by the RBI in the payment system, monetary policy, financial stability policy, and
policy coordination with the Treasury gives it the operational ability to influence government bonds’ nominal
yields by setting and changing the short-term interest rate and using other tools of monetary policy as it deems
appropriate.
Statement 3 is correct.
Short-term interest rate and pace of inflation are the key drivers of interest rates on government bonds.
Source) adev_a_00127.pdf (silverchair.com)
Explained: Federal Reserve signals, and Indian markets | Explained News,The Indian Express
Subject) Economics

Q.7) Consider the following:

1. Foreign currency convertible bonds
2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions
3. Global depository receipts
4. Non-resident external deposits
Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 and 4

Why this question) India sees growth of 10% (to $82 bn) in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
Ans) a

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 7 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Exp) Option a is correct.
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
‘Foreign Currency Convertible Bond’ (FCCB) is a bond issued under the Issue of Foreign Currency
Convertible Bonds and Ordinary Shares (Through Depository Receipt Mechanism) Scheme, 1993, as amended
from time to time.
Automatic Route for Issue of Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs) is allowed.
Foreign Portfolio Investment is any investment made by a person resident outside India in capital instruments
where such investment is (a) less than 10 percent of the post issue paid-up equity capital on a fully diluted
basis of a listed Indian company or (b) less than 10 percent of the paid up value of each series of capital
instruments of a listed Indian company.
It is the percentage which defines whether it is direct or institutional investment.
FII made above 10 percent of the post issue paid-up equity capital will be considered as FDI. But Once an FDI
always an FDI.
Foreign investment in Indian securities has been made possible through the purchase of Global Depository
Receipts, Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds and Foreign Currency Bonds issued by Indian issuers
which are listed, traded and settled overseas.
Statement 4 is incorrect.
A Non-Resident External (NRE) account is a rupee dominated account opened by an NRI to facilitate
deposit of foreign currency earnings. It is not an FDI.
Source) https://www.sebi.gov.in/sebi_data/commondocs/pt1b5_h.html
Subject) Economics

Q.8) Consider the following statements:

The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily
1. Improves the competitiveness of the domestic export in the foreign markets
2. Increases the foreign value of domestic currency
3. Improves the trade balance
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 8 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Why this question) Recently, the Indian rupee depreciated below the 74 levels against the US dollar.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
A devaluation means there is a fall in the value of a currency. The main effects are:
Statement 1 is correct.
Exports are cheaper to foreign customers: If the value of the rupee decreases against the dollar, the price of the
cars sold by Indian manufacturers in America, in dollars, will be effectively less expensive than they were
before. On the other hand, a more valuable currency makes exports relatively more expensive for purchase in
foreign markets.
Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Devaluation of a currency decreases the foreign value of domestic currency.
Devaluation also increases the debt burden of foreign-denominated loans when priced in the home
currency. Thus, devaluation may not improve the trade balance in the long run.
Source) 3 Reasons Why Countries Devalue Their Currency (investopedia.com)
Subject) Economics

Q.9) Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been main cause of worry to
the Government of India?
a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing
b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc.
c) Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism
d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

Why this question) Government has taken a number of measures to bring back the black money stashed abroad
‘The Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015’.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Black money includes all funds earned through illegal activity and otherwise legal income that is not recorded
for tax purposes. Black money causes financial leakage, as unreported income that is not taxed causes the
government to lose revenue. In addition, these funds rarely enter the banking system. As a result, it can be
more difficult for legitimate small businesses and entrepreneurs to obtain loans.
Source) Black Money Definition (investopedia.com)
Subject) Economics

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 9 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.10) Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?
a) Repayment of public debt
b) Borrowing from the public to finance budget deficit
c) Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit
d) Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Why this question) The Centre has decided to retain the inflation target of 4%
Deficit financing means generating funds to finance the deficit which results from excess of expenditure over
revenue. The gap being covered by borrowing from the public by the sale of bonds or by printing new money.
Government expenditure by printing money boosts incomes and raises private demand in the economy. Thus, it
fuels inflation. A little increase in inflation is healthy as it encourages business activity. But if the government
doesn’t stop in time, more and more money floods the market and creates high inflation. And since inflation
is revealed with a lag, it is often too late before governments realise, they have over-borrowed. Higher inflation
and higher government debt provide grounds for macroeconomic instability.
Source: What is deficit financing? - The Economic Times (indiatimes.com)
Explained: To print more money, or not to | Explained News,The Indian Express
Subject) Economics

Q.11) The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
a) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks
b) Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks
c) Increase in the banking habit of the people
d) Increase in the population of the country

Why this Question) The RBI said money multiplier stood at 5.4 in 2020-21, which is marginally below its
decennial average (2011-20) of 5.5.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
The multiplier effect is an economic term, referring to the proportional amount of increase, or decrease, in final
income that results from an injection, or withdrawal, of capital in effect. It measures the impact that a change in
economic activity—like investment or spending—will have on the total economic output of something.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 10 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Increase in Banking habits of the people can lead to increase in money multiplier in an economy. When a
customer makes a deposit into a short-term deposit account, the banking institution can lend one minus the
reserve requirement to someone else. While the original depositor maintains ownership of their initial deposit,
the funds created through lending are generated based on those funds. If a second borrower subsequently
deposits funds received from the lending institution, this raises the value of the money supply even though no
additional physical currency actually exists to support the new amount.
Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks, increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks and
increase in the population of the country will not increase money multiplier.
Source) Multiplier Effect Definition (investopedia.com)
Subject) Economics

Q.12) With reference to Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/ increased by which of the
following?
1. Expansionary policies
2. Fiscal stimulus
3. Inflation-indexing wages
4. Higher purchasing power
5. Rising interest rates
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Why this Question) Important static economic concept, current oil, gas prices.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
Demand-pull inflation is the upward pressure on prices that follows a shortage in supply, a condition that
economists describe as "too many dollars chasing too few goods."
1. Expansionary policies: When the government spends more freely, money in the market is increased. It leads
to increase demand for the goods and fuels demand-pull inflation.
2. Fiscal Stimulus: It also increases the money in the market leads to increase demand for the goods and fuels
demand-pull inflation

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 11 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

3. Higher Purchasing Power: When consumers earn higher income, they feel confident and spend more. This
leads to more demand and fuels Demand-pull inflation
Inflation-indexing wages and rising interest rates do not increase or cause demand-pull inflation
Source: Demand-Pull Inflation Definition (investopedia.com)
Subject) Economics

Q.13) With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in 'Treasury Bills' and 'Government of India Debt Bonds'
in primary market.
2. The 'Negotiated Dealing System Order Matching' is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve
Bank of India.
3. The 'Central Depository Services Ltd.' is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay
Stock Exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

Why this Question) RBI Retail Direct Scheme introduced recently for retail investors.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. Retail investors have multiple channels to invest in treasury bills (T-Bills) and
Government bonds. It is mandatory to open demat account for a retail investor to invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and
‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market.
Statement 2 is correct. The Negotiated Dealing System Order Matching is an electronic trading platform
operated by the Reserve Bank of India to facilitate the issuing and exchange of government securities and other
types of money market instruments.
Statement 3 is incorrect. CDSL was promoted by BSE Ltd. jointly with leading banks such as State Bank of
India, Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, HDFC Bank, Standard Chartered Bank and Union Bank of India.
Reserve Bank of India is not its promoter.
Source: How to Invest in G-Sec (nseindia.com)

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 12 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Explained: Here’s what to consider before investing directly in govt securities | Explained News,The Indian
Express
Negotiated Dealing System (NDS) (investopedia.com)
https://web.cdslindia.com/myeasi/Resource/AboutUs.html#:~:text=CDSL%20was%20promoted%20by%20B
SE,and%20Union%20Bank%20of%20India.
Subject) Economics

Q.14) With reference to WaterCredit', consider the following statements:

1. It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this Question) Important initiative, also Government of India schemes like Jal Jeevan Mission in news.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. WaterCredit is a powerful solution and the first to put microfinance tools to work in the
water and sanitation sector. WaterCredit helps bring small loans to those who need access to affordable
financing and expert resources to make household water and toilet solutions a reality.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Watercredit is an initiative of Water.org. Water.org is a global non-profit
organization working to bring water and sanitation to the world.
Statement 3 is correct. It helps people get access to safe water and sanitation through affordable financing,
such as small loans.
Source: About Water.org - Learn About Our Water NGO | Water.org
Subject) Environment

Q.15) In India, the central bank's function as the 'lender of last resort' usually refers to which of the following?
1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 13 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

Why this Question) Basic economy concept. Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank crisis, rising NPAs of
banks.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
A lender of last resort is an institution, usually a country's central bank, that offers loans to banks or other
eligible institutions that are experiencing financial difficulty or are considered highly risky or near
collapse.
The lender of last resort functions to protect individuals who have deposited funds and to prevent customers
from withdrawing out of panic from banks with temporary limited liquidity. Commercial banks usually try not
to borrow from the lender of last resort because such action indicates that the bank is experiencing a financial
crisis.
Source: Lender of Last Resort Definition (investopedia.com)
Subject) Economics

Q.16) R2 Code of Practices' constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of
a) Environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry
b) Ecological management of ‘Wetlands of International Importance' under the Ramsar Convention
c) Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
d) Environmental Impact Assessment' in the exploitation of natural resources

Why this Question) An updated version of the R2 Code of Practices (COP 2.1) was released on July 22, 2021.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
The R2 Standard was originally developed to prevent the misuse and improper recycling of electronic
waste. The Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI) institute defines the R2 Standard as, “the
premier global environmental, worker health and safety standard for the electronics refurbishing and

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 14 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

recycling industry''. A goal of this standard is to help prevent unnecessary recycling, and so a reuse business was
born. Reuse refers to a product that’s been used but still has life in it.
Source: Everything you’ve always wanted to know about the R2 Standard - B-Stock Solutions (bstock.com)
Subject) Environment

Q.17) Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this Question) Vedanta copper smelting plant in Tamil Nadu in news recently.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. In copper smelting process, first, the carbon (C) combusts with oxygen (O2) in the air
to produce carbon monoxide (CO). Second, the carbon monoxide reacts with the ore and removes one of its
oxygen atoms, releasing carbon dioxide. Hence, it does not release lethal quantity of CO in the environment.
Statement 2 is correct. Copper smelters emit staggering amounts of toxic pollution i.e., lead, arsenic and
selenium. These heavy metals and particulate matter from copper smelters contaminate the environment
downwind and downstream.
Statement 3 is correct. Copper smelters are the largest source of sulphur oxides (SOx) and trace elements.
Suspended particles have a pollution scope of 2-3 km, while Sulphur dioxide has a range of as much as 15 km.
Source: Toxic Air Pollution from Copper Smelters Challenged | Earthjustice
Air pollution emission from the copper smelter Complex Bor in Serbia (peertechzpublications.com)
Subject) Environment

Q.18) With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:

1. It is a product of oil refineries.
2. Some industries use it to generate power.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 15 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into environment.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this Question) A plea in the National Green Tribunal about the use of pet coke and furnace oil is causing
huge emission of Sulphur dioxide and other pollutants. (July 2020, The Hindu).
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. Furnace oil is a dark viscous residual fuel obtained by blending heavier component of
crude oil. It is a is a product of oil refineries.
Statement 2 is correct. Furnace oil uses include heating up homes and fuel trucks to lighting up furnaces,
producing steam for industrial uses and for generating electric energy. It is produced from the burnable liquids
derived from crude oil and is also called kerosene, home heating oil, diesel fuel or coal oil.
Statement 3 is correct. Sulphur is a natural component in crude oil that is present in gasoline and diesel unless
removed. Furnace oil has high component of sulphur leading to its emission when burned.
Source: FURNACE OIL(FO) (petrobazaar.com)
Furnace Oil in India | furnace oil uses in | Labdhi Petrochem
Subject) Environment

Q.19) What is blue carbon?

a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
d) Carbon present in atmosphere

Why this Question) Important environment concept, in news for environment issues, IUCN report.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 16 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Blue Carbon refers to coastal, aquatic and marine carbon sinks held by vegetation, marine organisms and
sediments. The coastal ecosystems of mangroves, tidal marshes and seagrass meadows contain large stores of
carbon deposited by vegetation and various natural processes over centuries.
These ecosystems sequester and store more carbon – often referred to as ‘blue carbon’ – per unit area than
terrestrial forests. The ability of these vegetated ecosystems to remove carbon dioxide (CO2) from the
atmosphere makes them significant net carbon sinks, and they are now being recognised for their role in
mitigating climate change.
Source: Factly :-News Articles For UPSC Prelims | 4 June, 2021 (forumias.com)
Blue carbon | IUCN
Subject) Environment

Q.20) In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4

Why this Question) Basic environment data. First Lichen Park in Uttarakhand in news.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
1) Lichens have specific requirements for their habitats. These requirements are: water, air, nutrients, light, and
substrates. Every lichen lives on top of something else. The surface of that "something else" is called a substrate.
Just about anything that holds still long enough for a lichen to attach to and grow is a suitable substrate. Trees,
rocks, soil, houses, tombstones, cars, old farm equipment and more can be substrates. The most common natural
substrates are trees and rocks.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 17 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

2) Mosses are non-flowering plants which produce spores and have stems and leaves, but don't have true
roots. So, without roots, some moss suck nutrients up through the rhizoids and others draw in moisture and
minerals from rain and the water around them through their highly absorbent surfaces. It often grows from
trees, absorbing water and nutrients from the atmosphere, but with proper care it can also grow indoors.

3) Fern is a member of a group of vascular plants (plants with xylem and phloem). They grow in soils. There are
four particular types of habitats that ferns are found in: moist, shady forests; crevices in rock faces, especially
when sheltered from the full sun; acid wetlands including bogs and swamps; and tropical trees.

4) A mushroom or toadstool is the fleshy, spore-bearing fruiting body of a fungus, typically produced above
ground, on soil, or on its food source.

Source: Lichen Habitat (fs.fed.us)

do mushrooms require soil - Google Search

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 18 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Mushroom - Wikipedia
8 Plants Without Soil You Can Grow at Home - Bob Vila
Subject) Environment

Q.21) Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent?
a) Congress grass
b) Elephant grass
c) Lemongrass
d) Nut grass

Why this question)

• In late 2019, the Uttarakhand government had decided to carry out bio-fencing to reduce man-animal
conflict by growing various species of plants (including lemongrass).

• A new variety of lemongrass was reported (in January 2020) to be grown by tribals of Anamalai forests.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Option c is correct. Lemongrass is a tall herb that is abundantly found in tropical and sub-tropical areas of Asia,
Africa, and Australia. China and India accounts for the maximum production of Lemongrass.
The Lemongrass plant is known to be an excellent mosquito repellent. It contains a compound citronella that
helps to mask the scents that mosquitoes rely on to target hosts. According to a study conducted in 2011, around
95% mosquitos from a specific range of species were either killed or completely repelled due to the intense
odour of lemongrass oil.
Source: Is Lemongrass Mosquito Repellent? - Conserve Energy Future (conserve-energy-future.com)
Subject) Environment

Q.22) Consider the following kinds of organisms:

1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera
Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 19 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

Why this question)

• Recently (November 2020), scientists from the Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI),
Mangaluru have reported that ‘sea sparkle’ in the Karnataka coast has displaced microscopic algae called
diatoms, which form the basis of the marine food chain.
• Also, an important static topic
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Primary producers are the organisms who synthesis their own food using photosynthesis or chemosynthesis.
Option 1 is incorrect. Copepods are a group of small crustaceans found in nearly every freshwater and
saltwater habitat. They are major primary consumers in the World Ocean. Copepods are generally herbivores,
feeding only on plant plankton which they filter from the water.

Option 2 is correct. Cyanobacteria, also called blue-green algae, are microscopic organisms found naturally in
all types of water. These organisms are primary producers who use sunlight to make their own food.

Option 3 is correct. Diatoms are photosynthesising algae. They are found in almost every aquatic
environment including fresh and marine waters. They are primary producer in oceanic food chain.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 20 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Option 4 is incorrect. Foraminifera are single-celled organisms that are found in most marine environments.
They are characterized by streaming granular ectoplasm for catching food. Foraminifera are heterotrophic
organisms which consumes smaller organisms and organic matter.

Source: Seasonal changes in the abundance and biomass of copepods in the south-eastern Baltic Sea in 2010
and 2011 - PubMed (nih.gov)
Diatoms (ucl.ac.uk)
https://www.cdc.gov/habs/pdf/cyanobacteria_faq.pdf
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/earth-and-planetary-sciences/foraminifera
Subject) Environment

Q.23) Consider the following animals:

1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and
protects/ protect its/their vulnerable parts?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3

Why this question)

• The Madhya Pradesh Forest department, for the first time, has radio-tagged an Indian Pangolin in Feb 2020.
• A detailed article came in The Hindu in Feb 2021.
• Alert for bubonic plague caused by marmots in China in July 2020.

Ans) d

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 21 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Exp) Option d is correct.
Option 1 is correct. Hedgehogs are small nocturnal spiny mammals. When they are frightened, or annoyed,
hedgehogs will roll into a ball so that a predator will feel the full brunt of its sharp spines and will then leave the
hedgehog alone.

Option 2 is incorrect. Marmots are relatively large ground squirrels with 15 species living in Asia, Europe, and
North America. They are the heaviest members of the squirrel family. It does not roll up to protect itself.

Option 3 is correct. Pangolins are actually mammals. They are the only mammals wholly-covered in scales and
they use those scales to protect themselves from predators in the wild. Under threat, a pangolin will
immediately curl into a tight ball and will use their sharp-scaled tails to defend themselves.

Source: How does a hedgehog roll up? – Dickinson County Conservation Board
https://www.worldwildlife.org/stories/what-is-a-pangolin
https://www.newindianexpress.com/world/2020/jul/05/chinese-city-of-bayannur-sounds-alert-for-
bubonic-plague-caused-by-marmots-2165805.html
Subject) Environment

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 22 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.24) With reference to the ‘New York Declaration on Forests', which of the following statements are correct?
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
3. It is a legally binding international declaration.
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1, 3 and 5
c) 3 and 4
d) 2 and 5

Why this question)

• India raised the targets under the “Bonn Challenge” in September 2019. “Bonn Challenge” was extended by
the New York Declaration on Forests.
• Forest conservation is an important topic from environment.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) was endorsed at the United Nations
Climate Summit in September 2014.
Statement 2 is correct. New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) emphasises ten goals which includes
halting natural forest loss by 2030. The targets also include restoring 350 million hectares of degraded
landscapes and forestlands, improving governance, increasing forest finance, and reducing emissions from
deforestation and forest degradation as part of a post-2020 global climate agreement.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) is a voluntary and non-binding
international declaration to take action to halt global deforestation.
Statement 4 is correct. It has presently over 200 endorsers - including national governments, subnational
governments, companies, indigenous groups, financial institutions and NGOs. These endorsers have
committed to doing their part to achieve the NYDF goals and follow its accompanying action agenda.
Statement 5 is incorrect. Presently, India has not signed the New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF).
Source: About|New York Declaration on Forests | New York Declaration on ForestsForest Declaration
About us | CLIMATE FOCUS
https://forestdeclaration.org/about/nydf-endorsers

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 23 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Subject) Environment

Q.25) Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental
pollutants from which of the following?
1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Why this question:

• Human exposure to electromagnetic fields in the context of 5G technology.

• Important static topic: Pollution and impact on human health
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Magnetite particles can act as pollutants and led to neurodegenerative problems. Magnetic particles can
penetrate and damage the blood-brain-barrier and led to the early development of Alzheimer's disease.
Whenever any magnetic component is used in appliances, they generate magnetic flux which produces
magnetic particles.
Option 1 is correct. The automotive industry uses ceramic or ferrite magnets to make vehicles safer. One of the
most impressive uses is in the Anti-lock Braking System (ABS) of vehicles. These use of magnets in motor
vehicles can generate magnetic particles.
Option 2 is correct. Engines of motor vehicles can generate magnetic particles as they use high powered
magnets which generate magnetic flux.
Option 3 is correct. In Microwave, a magnetic stirrer is used which can generate magnetic particles.
Option 4 is correct. Power Plants releases metal content along with ash. Use of coal in power plants is a major
source of combustion-associated magnetite fine particles.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 24 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Option 5 is correct. Telephone line produces low frequency, low energy electromagnetic field which are the
potential source of magnetite particles.
Source) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/telecom-mobile-towers-are-within-prescribed-
norms-affirms-dot/article33973886.ece
https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/30216885/
https://www.pnas.org/content/113/39/10797
https://core.ac.uk/download/pdf/231902539.pdf
Subject) Environment

Q.26) Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

a) Catfish
b) Octopus
c) Oyster
d) Pelican

Why this question:

• Recently, the Trifed inked an agreement with the Jharkhand-based Purty Agrotech for the promotion of
pearl farming in tribal areas.

• Important Static topic : pollution abatement

Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Option c is correct. Oysters are natural filters. They capture the particles of size as small as 4 micrometers on
their gills. Their gills act as filter which is self-cleaning.
Generally, water get filtered by something which is static so that water can easily pass through them and get
filtered. Pelicans, Catfish and Octopus are large organisms. Oysters are small organisms, found cemented to
rocks or other hard substrates.
Source) https://phys.org/news/2021-03-filter-feeding-bivalves-microplastics.html
https://ministryearth.com/2020/02/04/oysters-biological-filters/
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world-shrinks-for-oysters-3573
Subject) Environment

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 25 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.27) In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source
of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?
a) Carbon cycle
b) Nitrogen cycle
c) Phosphorus cycle
d) Sulphur cycle

Why this question:

• Important static topic: Biogeochemical cycles

• Recently, the Government has prepared an Action Plan to make India Aatmanirbhar in Rock Phosphate, the
key raw material of DAP and NPK Fertilisers
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Option c is correct. Carbon and Nitrogen cycle are the gaseous cycles. Here, the main reservoir of nutrient is
the atmosphere or the hydrosphere. In sulphur cycle, nutrient is released by weathering of rocks, erosional
runoff and decomposition of organic matter. The sulphur cycle is mostly sedimentary but two of its compounds
hydrogen sulphide (H2S) and sulphur dioxide (SO2) add a gaseous component to its normal sedimentary cycle.
In Phosphorus cycle, nutrients got released mainly by weathering of rocks since the Phosphorus mainly occurs
as a mineral in phosphate rocks. It enters the cycle from erosion and mining activities.
Source) Shankar Ias Book chapter-2 page-19, 20
Subject) Environment

Q.28) Which of the following are detritivores?

1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Millipedes
4. Seahorses
5. Woodlice
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 26 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Why this question: Important static topic:
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Detritivores are heterotrophs that obtain their nutrition by feeding on detritus i.e. dead or decaying plants or
animals.
Statements 1, 3 and 5 are correct.
Earthworms, Millipedes and Woodlice are detritivores. Detritivores include microorganisms such as bacteria
and fungi; invertebrate insects such as mites, beetles, butterflies and flies; mollusks such as slugs and snails; or
soil-dwelling earthworms, millipedes and woodlice.
Jellyfish is carnivorous and Sea horse is also primarily a carnivorous animal.
Source) https://biologydictionary.net/detritivore/
Subject) Environment

Q.29) The ‘Common Carbon Metric', supported by UNEP, has been developed for
a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
d) Assessing the overall carbon foot print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

Why this question) Asked in the context of a new initiatives in building energy efficiency launched by the
Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
Carbon footprint of an entity is the total amount of greenhouse gases that are generated by that entity.
Option a is correct. The Common Carbon Metric is a protocol developed by United Nations Environment
Program's Sustainable Buildings & Climate Initiative (UNEP-SBCI) for measuring energy use & reporting
GHG emissions from Building Operations.
Its purpose is to support greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions reductions through accurate measurement of energy
efficiency improvements in building operations.
Source- https://unfccc.int/sites/default/files/06_unfccc_unep_ws_oxford_rajat_gupta.pdf
https://c2e2.unepdtu.org/wp-content/uploads/sites/3/2016/09/unep-sbci-common-carbon-metric.pdf
Subject) Environment

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 27 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.30) Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms?
1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question) Important static topic

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Some organisms live together and share both shelter and nutrients. This relationship is called symbiosis.
Statement 1 is correct. Cnidaria is an invertebrate phylum which often involves in a symbiotic relation with
the unicellular dinoflagellate algae, called zooxanthellae.
Statement 2 is correct. Certain fungi live inside the roots of plants. The plants provide nutrients to the
fungus and, in return, the fungus provides water and certain nutrients. Fungi also lives in a symbiotic relation
with algae as a lichen.
Statement 3 is correct. Protozoa also forms symbiotic relations with other organisms. Symbiosis in protozoa
mostly represents:

• a close mutualistic association between a protozoan and unicellular symbiont (like bacteria, cyanobacteria
or/and unicellular algae) or

• protozoans and a multicellular organism (ruminants, lower termites, wood-eating cockroaches, plants)
Source) NCERT class-7 PAGE-7
https://www.biology-today.com/general-zoology/symbiotic-relationship-of-protozoans/
https://cals.arizona.edu/azaqua/algaeclass/symbios.htm#:~:text=The%20symbiotic%20association%20betwee
n%20the%20invertebrate%20phylum%20Cnidaria,is%20between%20zooxanthellae%20and%20hermatypic%2
C%20or%20reef-forming%2C%20corals.
Subject) Environment

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 28 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.31) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:
1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
2. It is the only circular temple built in India.
3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

Why this Question) Under central vista project new parliament building is constructed. The existing
parliament building is replica of Chausanth Yogini Temple.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.

Statement 1 is correct. According to an inscription dated to 1323 CE (Vikram Samvat 1383), the temple was built
by the Kachchhapaghata king Devapala (r. c. 1055 – 1075). It is said that the temple was the venue of providing
education in astrology and mathematics based on the transit of the Sun.
Statement 2 is incorrect. This circular temple is one among the very few such temples in India. It is not the only
circular temple built in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect It is, also known as Ekattarso Mahadeva Temple because of the presence of multitude
of shivalingas inside its cells. So it promote Shaivite cult in the region not vaishnavite culture.
Statement 4 is correct Many of these curious visitors have compared this temple with the Indian parliament
building (Sansad Bhawan) as both are circular in style. So, many have drawn conclusions that this temple was
the inspiration behind the Parliament building.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 29 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Source) https://www.financialexpress.com/lifestyle/travel-tourism/temples-which-inspired-design-of-
indian-parliament-madhya-pradeshs-chausath-yogini-mandir/1575446/
https://morena.nic.in/en/tourist-place/mitawali/
Subject) History

Q.32) Which one of the following ancient towns is well-known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and
management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs?
a) Dholavira
b) Kalibangan
c) Rakhigarhi
d) Ropar

Why this Question) Recently Dholavira along with Ramappa temple (Telengana) was declared as World
Heritage Site by UNESCO.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
The ancient city of Dholavira is one of the most remarkable and well-preserved urban settlements in South Asia
dating from the 3rd to mid-2nd millennium BCE (Before Common Era). Discovered in 1968, the site is set apart
by its unique characteristics, such as its water management system, multi-layered defensive mechanisms,
extensive use of stone in construction and special burial structures. It has a complex system for collecting and
storing rain water within several reservoirs. Planners in the ancient city of Dholavira had conceptualised an
amazing system of drains, dams and tanks to manage water.
Source) https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/harappan-era-city-dholavira-inscribed-on-unesco-world-
heritage-list/articleshow/84789197.cms
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/indepth/secrets-of-the-water-fort-31932
https://portfolio.cept.ac.in/archive/dholavira-decoding-its-water-heritage/
Subject) History

Q.33) In the first quarter of seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of
the English East India Company located?
1. Broach
2. Chicacole
3. Trichinopoly

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 30 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

Why this Question) Static topic

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
By 1st quarter of 17th century, English East India Company had established factories at Surat, Broach,
Ahmedabad, Agra, and Masulipatam and not at Chicacole and Tichonopoly.
The timelines are
1613- A permanent factory of the east India company is established at Surat
1616- 1st factory in south at Masulipatnam
1619- Sir Thomas Roe set up factories at Agra, Ahmedabad, and Broach.
Source) Spectrum Revised edition chapter-3 page-38, 39
Subject) History

Q.34) From the decline of Guptas until the rise of Harshavardhana in the early seventh century, which of the
following kingdoms were holding power in Northern India?
l. The Guptas of Magadha
2. The Paramaras of Malwa
3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar
4. The Maukharis of Kanauj
5. The Yadavas of Devagiri
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 5
b) 1, 3, 4 and 6
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 5 and 6

Why this Question) Gupta and Post Gupta period are important static topic.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 31 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
From the decline of Guptas until the rise of Harshvardhanas, new ruling dynasties emerged in different part of
Northern India. The most prominent ones were- The Pushyabhutis of Thaneshwar, Maukharies of Kannauj,
Maitrakas of Vallabhi, etc.
The Maitrakas were tributary chiefs of the Guptas, who established an independent kingdom in western India.
Dhruvasena II was the most important ruler of the Maitrakas. He was a contemporary of Harshavardhana and
was married to his daughter.
The Maukharies ruled over Kanauj, a city in western Uttar Pradesh, which gradually replaced Pataliputra as a
political center of north India. Maukharies were also the subordinate rulers of the Guptas and used the title of
samanta. Harshavardhana’s sister Rajyashri was married to Grihavarman.
An important ruling family to gain prominence after the fall of the Gupta was that of the Pushyabhutis who
had their capital at Thanesar (Thanesvara in Kurukshetra). The dynasty became influential with the accession of
Prabhakarvardhana, who was able to defeat the Hunas and strengthen his position in the regions of Punjab and
Haryana.
Yadava dynasty ruled in deccan near Devgiri (Daultabad) between 12th–14th-century AD.
The Paramara dynasty ruled Malwa and surrounding areas in west-central India between 9th and 14th centuries
AD.
Source) tamil Nadu Higher secondary NCERT chapter-8 page0 104,105
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/315_History_Eng/315_History_Eng_Lesson7.pdf
Subject) History

Q.35) According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in Vijayanagara Empire were expert in which of the
following areas?
1. Wrestling
2. Astrology
3. Accounting
4. Soothsaying
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 32 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Why this Question) Foreign traveller's account have become an important topic, similar question asked in
previous year.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct
Women in general occupied a high position in Vijayanagara society and instances of the active part they took in
the political, social and literary life of the country are not rare, besides being trained in wrestling, handling
swords and shields, music and other fine arts, some of them at any rate received a fair amount of literary
education. Nuniz wrties: “he (the king of Vijaynagar) has also women who wrestle, and others who are
astrologers and soothsayers; and he has woman who write all the accounts of expenses that are incurred inside
the gates and others whose duty it is to write all the affairs of the kingdom and compare their books with those
of the writers outside; he has women also for music, who play instruments and sing. Even the wives of the king
are well versed in music...it is said that he has judges, as well as bailiffs and watchmen who every night guard the
palace, and these are women.”
Source) https://ykcollege.ac.in/wp-content/uploads/2020/04/ADMINSTRATION-OF-VIAJANAGAR-
converted.pdf
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/variety/Alpha-women-of-Hampi/article20396779.ece
Subject) History

Q.36) With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here.
b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of Andhra region from here.
c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.
d) Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up headquarters of Theosophical Society first here.

Why this Question) President Ram Nath Kovind visited Madanpalle of Andhra Pradesh (Feb 2021) to
inaugurate a yoga hall at a spiritual centre, along with a school.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
The National anthem was first sung outside the Calcutta by the Rabndranath Tagore himself during a session
at the Besant Theosophical College in Madanapalle, Andhra Pradesh, on 28th Feb 1919, when Tagore went to
college and sang the song. Then deputy director of the university (also an expert in European music and wife of
the Irish poet James Cousins), asked Tagore to create an English translation of the song and establish the

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 33 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

musical notation. Tagore then translated the Bengali song to English and the tune was composed by Margaret
with the girls in the college singing the chorus.
Source) https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/articleshow_comments/63045339.cms?from=mdr
https://www.jaborejob.com/national-anthem-of-india-jana-gana-mana-written-by-poet-rabindranath-tagore/
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/nation/current-affairs/150817/andhra-pradesh-national-anthem-tune-
was-composed-in-madanapalle.html
Subject) History

Q.37) Consider the following pairs:

(Historical place) (Well-known for)
1. Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines
2. Chandra-Ketugarh : Terracotta art
3. Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

Why this Question) Ancient sites and their features/Characteristics have become an important topic in recent
years.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. It can be eliminated as Burzahom site (Jammu and Kashmir) is a Neolithic site.
Rock cut shrines were not found in Neolithic period.
Pair 2 is correctly matched Chandraketugah is a site in West Bengal near Kolkata. According to historians, the
place dates back to the 3rd century, which is pre-Mauryan era. The place has always generate curiosity among
the archaeologists and various excavations have taken place here and a number of terracotta artworks has been
unearthed.
Pair 3 is correctly matched. Ganeshwar is a famous site in Khetri belt in Rajasthan. Ganeshwar complex sites
have yielded more than 5000 copper objects, with some typical Harappan types like thin blades, arrow-heads
etc.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 34 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Source)
http://kashmirnetwork.com/today/burzahom.html#:~:text=Burzahom%20Burzahom%20was%20the%20first
%20Neolithic%20site%20to,km%20from%20the%20famous%20Mughal%20garden%20of%20Shalimar.
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/41368/1/MAN-002B8E.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/64778/1/Unit4.pdf
https://www.livehistoryindia.com/story/amazing-india/chandraketugarh-an-enigma-in-bengal/
Subject) History

Q.38) Consider the following statements:

1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm
prince.
2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus.
3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of
Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3

Why this Question) Sultanate period and vijayanagara Empire are important static topic
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. Changez khan attacked India during the reign of Iltutmish. Iltutmish saved India by
refusing to support Khwarizmi Shah Jalaudin of Central asia against Changez khan.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The period of Mahmud bin Tughlaq was 1325 to 1351. During the reign of Nasurud-
din Muhammad Shah (1394-1412), The last Tughlaq ruler, Taimur invaded India.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Devaraya –II reign was from 1422 to 1426. Vascodagama came to India in 1498.
Source) Tamil Nadu Higher Secondary Chapter-10 page-140, 145, 151 Chapter -12 page-180, 181
Subject) History

Q.39) Consider the following statements:

1. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 35 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

2. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there.
3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year. Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this Question) ASI begin restoration of St Francis Xavier’s 400-year-old casket in Goa.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct
Statement 1 is correct. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founders of the Jesuit order. He was a Spanish saint.
Statement 2 is incorrect. He died on the island of Sancian (now Shang-ch’uan Tao, off the Chinese coast)
while trying to gain entrance to China , which was then closed to foreigners.
Statement 3 is correct. Every year the feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa on 3rd of December.
Source) https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/goa/asi-to-begin-restoration-of-st-francis-xaviers-casket-in-
goa-7098607/
Subject) History

Q.40) With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes.
2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in
the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim right to the property.
3. The Mitakshara system deals with the matters related to the property held by male members only of a family,
whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by both male and female
members of a family.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

Why this Question) Supreme court's decision giving women equal right to inherit ancestral property.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 36 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Mitakshara is the oldest schools of Hindu law and is practiced in India except in the
state of West Bengal and Assam. Dayabhaga is also important schools of Hindu law mainly practiced in Assam
& West Bengal. Both law deals with upper and lower castes.
Statement 2 is correct. In the Mitakshara school of inheritance, property is inherited by the successors
(coparceners) only when they were born in the family of the property holder thus when a son is born, he
receives right in the property. So, he can inherit during the lifetime of a father. In the case of Dayabhaga
school of inheritance, property is inherited by the successors (coparceners) only when the holder of the
property is dead.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Both Mitakshara and Dayabhaga deals with male and female property rights.
Mitakshara school is orthodox school. It is biased against women & gave them very less right to inherit
property. Dayabhaga is also biased, but it is a liberal school and it gives more rights to women to inherit
property compared to Mitakshara.
Source) https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-hindu-explains-what-is-coparcenary-property-in-
hindu-law/article32364484.ece
https://lawtimesjournal.in/inheritance-under-hindu-law/
https://legalsarcasm.com/legal-notes/schools-of-hindu-law/
Subject) History

Q.41) With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla and Kshemeshvara were famous
a) Jain monks
b) playwrights
c) temple architects
d) philosophers

Why this Question) List of notable playwrights during ancient times is an important static topic.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Bhavabhuti was an 8th-century scholar of India noted for his plays and poetry, written in Sanskrit. The works
attributed to poet Bhavabhuti were Mahaviracharita (depicting the early life of Rama), Malatimadhava a play
based on the romance of Malati and Madhava and Uttararamacharita (depicts Rama's coronation, the
abandonment of Sita and their reunion).

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 37 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Hastimalla was 13th century Kannada poet and writer in Hoysala Empire. He wrote Purvapurana.
Kshemeshvara (990 – c. 1070 CE) was an 11th-century Sanskrit poet from Kashmir in India. One of the
important work attributed to him is Dasavatar Charita.
Source) https://www.britannica.com/biography/Bhavabhuti
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hoysala_literature
Subject) History

Q.42) Consider the following statements:

1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all the women above the
age of 21.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this Question) Important Constitutional experiments during British India and is an important static
topic.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Montague Chelmsford reforms of 1919 did not recommend granting voting rights
to all women above the age of 21. Although it recommended the voting rights to women in limited numbers
to be extended on the basis of property, tax or education.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Government of India Act 1935 gave women separate electorate (and did not
reserved seats for women in legislature). It provided separate electorates to depressed classes and labours also.
Source) Laxmikanth Chapter-1 page-1.8, 1.9
https://blog.ipleaders.in/government-of-india-act-1935-2/
Subject) History

Q.43) With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
b) The Viceroy's Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 38 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

Why this Question) As part of ‘Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav’ to mark 75th year of Independence, there was an
exhibition to mark the 79th anniversary of Quit India Movement.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
Statement a is correct. The Quit India resolution was adopted in Bombay in August, 1942, by AICC (All
India Congress committee) at Gowalia Tank.
Statement b is incorrect. More Indians were added to Viceroy’s executive council by Government of India Act
1919. First time, an Indian was added in this council by Government of India act 1909.
Statement c is incorrect. Congress resigned from ministries in 7 provinces in 1939 as they decided not to
support war as India could not be party to a war for democratic freedom while that freedom was being denied to
India.
Statement d is incorrect. Yes, Cripps proposed a dominion status to India, but this was not related to 8
August 1942.
Source) Spectrum Revised edition 2019 chapter-23 page-448
Subject) History

Q.44) Who among the following is associated with 'Songs from Prison', a translation of ancient Indian religious
lyrics in English?
a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
d) Sarojini Naidu

Why this Question) Books and songs associated with Gandhiji is an important static topic.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Mahatma Gandhi was associated with "Songs from Prison", a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in
English in 1934.
Source) https://greencardamom.github.io/BooksAndWriters/gandhi.htm
Subject) History

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 39 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.45) With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order
in terms of size?
a) Paragana-Sarkar–Suba
b) Sarkar–Paragana–Suba
c) Suba-Sarkar–Paragana
d) Paragana–Suba-Sarkar

Why this Question) How the empire, provinces were divided during medieval period is an important static
topic.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
The order according to the size is
Pargana >Sarkar> Suba
The entire Suba was divided into Sarkars (districts), each being looked after by a military officer called the chief
Shiqdar. Each Sarkar was divided into smaller units called Parganas. There was a Shiqdar (military officer),
Amin or Munsif (Civilian Judge), one Fotahdar (treasurer) and two Karkuns (clerks or writers) in each Pargana.
Number of villages comprised of Pargana. Above the Pargana was the sarkar . A number of sarkar group
into provinces called Suba or Mahal.
Source) Satish Chandra History of Medieval India page-138
Subject) History

Q.46) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be
known as Bethune Female School?
a) Annie Besant
b) Debendranath Tagore
c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
d) Sarojini Naidu

Why this question) Recently busts of Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar and Sister Nivedita were unveiled at
Bethune school to celebrate 100 years of the alumni association of the institution.
Also, an article was there recently on how Bethune college a revolutionary institution spawned many
revolutionary women.
Ans) c

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 40 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Exp) Option c is correct.
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was the secretary of Bethune school established in 1849 also known as Hindu
female school. He was one of the pioneers of higher education for women in India.
Source) Spectrum Revised edition chapter-9 page-213.
Subject) History

Q.47) In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon are
remembered as:
a) leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
b) members of the Interim Government in 1946
c) members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly
d) officers of the Indian National Army

Why this question) Static and India National Army was in news also.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Prem Kumar Sehgal, Shah Nawaz Khan and Gurubaksh Singh Dhillon were officers of Indian National
Army whose trial were held in 1945 at the Red Fort in Delhi. This was the first trial of INA Prisoners of wars.
Source) Spectrum Revised edition chapter-24 page-465
Subject) History

Q.48) With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State.
2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire.
3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

Why this question) Medieval kingdoms are an important static topic.

Ans) a

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 41 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Exp) Option a is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. The Nizamat of Carnatic (Arcot) was a dependency of Hyderabad Deccan and was
under the legal purview of the Nizam of Hyderabad, until its demise. Later it emerged out of Hyderabad.
Statement 2 is correct. The Mysore kingdom, which was founded and ruled for most part by the Hindu
Wodeyar family, initially served as a vassal state of the Vijayanagara Empire.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Kingdom of Rohilkhand arose under the declining Mughal Empire in 1721 and
continued to exist until 1774 when annexation by the British transformed its significantly reduced borders into
the Princely State of Rampur.
Source) https://artsandculture.google.com/entity/carnatic-sultanate/m025yy5r?hl=en
https://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Kingdom_of_Mysore
https://www.hmoob.in/wiki/Kingdom_of_Rohilkhand
Subject) History

Q.49) Which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.
b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river.
c) Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada river.
d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river.

Why this Question) Caves and Stupas of ancient India and their location and other geographical aspects is an
important static topic.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
Option a is correct. The rock-cut caves of Ajanta lie in Waghora river valley near Ajanta village in the
Aurangabad district of Maharashtra.
Option b is incorrect. Sanchi lies in an upland plateau region just west of the Betwa River.
Option c is incorrect. Pandu-lena caves is ancient rock-cut sculptures complex located at Gomai River.
Pandu-leni cave is also known as Nasik Caves, Tirthankar Leni, Panch Pandav or Pandav Leni Jain cave.
The "Pandavleni" name sometimes given to the Nasik Caves has nothing to do with the characters Pandavas,
characters in the Mahabharata epic.
Option d is incorrect. Amravati stupa is located in the gorges of Krishna river.
Source: https://govtgirlsekbalpur.com/Study_Materials/History/AJANTA_CAVE_PAINTINGS.pdf
https://www.britannica.com/place/Sanchi-historical-site-India

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 42 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

https://www.incredibleindia.org/content/incredible-india-v2/en/destinations/amaravati.html
https://indianculture.gov.in/pandulena-cave-no-6-original-land-being-removed-0
https://www.nativeplanet.com/travel-guide/pandavleni-caves-nashik-maharashtra-001671-pg1.html
Subject) History

Q.50) Consider the following statements:

1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of
Pakistan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this Question) Recently International Mother Language Day was celebrated and an associated static
statement to it.
Ans) b.
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. 21 February is declared as International Mother Language Day by UNESCO. The
idea to celebrate International Mother Language Day was the initiative of Bangladesh. It was approved at the
1999 UNESCO General Conference and has been observed throughout the world since 2000.
Statement 2 is correct. In 1948, the-then Governor-General of Pakistan Muhammad Ali Jinnah declared that
“Urdu, and only Urdu” would be the official language.
The contentious nature of the official language question came to the fore during the first session of the
Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. A member from East Bengal, Dhirendranath Datta, moved a motion to
include Bengali as one of the languages of the Constituent Assembly along with English and Urdu. The motion
was rejected.
Bengali was eventually granted official status under the 1956 Constitution.
Source: https://en.unesco.org/commemorations/motherlanguageday
https://www.constitutionofindia.net/blogs/_official_languages__in_indo_pak_constitutional_history_
Subject) History

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 43 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.51) How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practical but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture
practices are pre-dominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is
not observed in permaculture farming.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so
easily possible in such regions.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional
chemical farming.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 4 only
d) 2 and 3

Why this Question) Has been news as the focus shifted towards a more sustainable agriculture.
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/ludhiana/reduce-paddy-save-pb-campaign-propagates-
permaculture-to-save-groundwater/articleshow/83620220.cms
https://www.hindustantimes.com/ht-insight/climate-change/sustainable-agriculture-what-we-know-and-
how-to-scale-up-101626535232859.html
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. Permaculture is a totally integrated design system that's modelled on nature.
Permaculture farming promotes multicropping and integrated farming systems. Agroforestry is its example.
Chemical farming is more suitable for monoculture cropping due to use of crop specific inputs like irrigation,
chemical fertiliser and harvesting methods.
Statement 2 is correct. Chemical fertilizers will make the soil less fertile over time, which can lead to serious
problems like soil salinisation. But such problems are not seen in permaculture farming as it relies on organic
fertilizers.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Chemical farming is based on intense use of inputs like Chemical fertilizers and
irrigation that make the soil less fertile over time, thus restricting its practise in semi-arid region. Thus,
conventional farming is not suitable for semi-arid regions.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 44 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

The concept of permaculture involves well-designed systems don’t produce waste and permaculture tries to
mimic well-designed systems. Thus, permaculture tries to take into account the local conditions like arid
climate. This helps in developing a suitable system to ensure sustainable production.
Statement 4 is correct. Mulching is an important component of Permaculture systems for promoting
maximum efficiency.
Chemical farming does not consider it as essential, so farmers in general do not use mulching.
Knowledge Base:
The philosophy behind permaculture was developed in 1970s in Australia by Bill Mollison and David Holmgren.
The land is called Tamera, the name given to these 330 acres in southern Portugal by a community of 30 people
who moved here from Germany in 1995. Through simple practices of digging swales (ditches) and creating
water retention spaces, Tamera’s ecology experts have transformed an area on the brink of desertification.
Source: https://www.theguardian.com/global-development-professionals-network/2017/mar/07/tamera-
portugal-permaculture-water
https://grocycle.com/permaculture-farming/#Common_Permaculture_Practices
Subject) Environment

Q.52) With reference to 'palm oil' consider the following statements:

1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this Question) Recently Honorable Prime Minister announced a new national initiative on palm oil
production to help increase farm incomes. The mission named as National Edible Oil mission- Oil Palm
(NMEO-OP).
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Palm oil is derived from the oil palm tree which is native to West Africa (and not
Southeast Asia) and grows best in tropical climates with abundant water.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 45 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Statement 2 is correct. It is used in cosmetics products like lipstick and perfumes and cleaning products. Palm
oil is one of the best options and most cost-effective cosmetics ingredients. It is versatile. Due to its high fatty
acid content, it can be used to make surfactants, emulsifiers and emollients.
Statement 3 is correct. The Palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel. It can be used in compression ignition
engines, i.e., diesel engines without any modifications. It refers to methyl esters derived from palm oil through a
process known as ‘transesterification’.
Source: https://www.iucn.org/resources/issues-briefs/palm-oil-and-biodiversity
http://www.palmoilworld.org/biodiesel.html
Subject) Environment

Q.53) With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of
them which joins the Indus direct. Among the following which is one is such river that joins the Indus direct?
a) Chenab
b) Jhelum
c) Ravi
d) Sutlej

Why this Question) Indus water treaty has been in news lately also rivers and their important tributaries is an
important static topic.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Option a is incorrect. The Chenab joins Satluj in Pakistan.
Option b is incorrect. The Jhelum joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.
Option c is incorrect. The Ravi joins the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu.
Option d is correct. Satluj is joined by the Chenab in Pakistan. Thus, Satluj receives the collective drainage of
the Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum rivers. It joins the Indus a few kilometres above Mithankot.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 46 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Knowledge Base:

Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy103.pdf
https://www.britannica.com/place/Chenab-River
https://www.patnauniversity.ac.in/e-content/social_sciences/geography/MAGeog1.pdf
Subject) Geography

Q.54) With reference to India, Didwana Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of
a) glaciers
b) mangrove areas
c) Ramsar sites
d) saline lakes

Why this Question) Static part- Saline lakes in India.

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are saline lakes of Rajasthan. ‘
Didwana is a town in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan. It has a famous Didwana salt-water lake of Rajasthan.
Kuchaman lake is located in Nagaur district of Rajasthan.
Source: https://truerajasthan.com/didwana-lake/
http://www.palaeontologicalsociety.in/vol35/v14.pdf

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 47 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

https://books.google.co.in/books?id=XaE_DAAAQBAJ&printsec=copyright&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q&f=f
alse
Subject) Geography

Q.55) Consider the following rivers:

1. Brahmani
2. Nagawali
3. Subarnarekha
4. Vamsadhara
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 3

Why this Question) Vamsadhara Water tribunal dispute order was in news. Also, there was impact of cyclone
Gulab on Vamsadhara as well as Nagawali which received huge inflows of water from their rivulets.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Brahmani, known as South Koel in its upper reaches, rises near Nagri village in
Ranchi district of Jharkhand at an elevation of about 600 m.
Statement 2 is correct. The Nagavali river originate in the Eastern Ghats near Lakhbahal, located at an altitude
of 1,300 metres in the Kalahandi district of the Indian state Odisha. Langulya is another name for Nagavali
River.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Subernarekha River originate in the Chhotnagpur Plateau near Nagri village in the
Ranchi District of Jharkhand at an elevation of 600 m.
Statement 4 is correct. Vamsadhara river rises in the Eastern Ghats of Orissa State and enters Srikakulam
District in Bhamini Mandal and finally falls into the Bay of Bengal near Kalingapatnam.
Source: https://srikakulam.ap.gov.in/history/
https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=subarnarekha
Subject) Geography

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 48 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.56) Consider the following statements:
1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. 'Rare earth minerals' are present on seafloor in the international waters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this Question) India’s Deep Ocean mission was in news.

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. International Seabed Authority (ISA) considers applications for exploration and
exploitation of deep-sea resources from contractors, assesses environmental impact assessments and supervises
mining activities.
Statement 2 is correct. India was the first country to receive the status of a ‘Pioneer Investor ‘in 1987 and was
given an area of about 1.5 lakh sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) for nodule exploration. India’s
exclusive rights to explore polymetallic nodules from seabed in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB)
have been extended by five years. These rights are over 75000 sq. km of area in international waters allocated
by the International Seabed Authority for developmental activities for polymetallic nodules.
Statement 3 is correct. The sea floor of various oceans boasts one of the world's largest untapped collections of
rare-earth elements. Example is scientists have discovered a vast reserve of rare earth reserve in the Japan side of
the Pacific Ocean.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/why-is-india-pulled-to-deep-sea-
mining/article28809029.ece
Subject) International Relations

Q.57) Among the following which one is the least water-efficient crop?
a) Sugarcane
b) Sunflower
c) Pearl millet
d) Red gram

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 49 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Why this Question) Sustainable agriculture has been the major aim of the Government. Also, water guzzling
crops like sugarcane has been in news.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
Option a is correct. Sugarcane is the least water efficient crop. Among the given options, its water
requirement is 1800-2200 mm/season which is highest.
Option b is incorrect. Sunflower’s water requirement was estimated at 672.4 mm/season.
Option c is incorrect. Pearl millet is a drought tolerant crop.
Water requirement: 350 mm/season.
Option d is incorrect. Red gram uses about 250-400 mm/season of water.
Source: http://www.ikisan.com/ka-redgram-water-management.html
http://eagri.org/eagri50/AGRO103/lec07.pdf
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/260793826_Water_Requirement_of_Sunflower_Helianthus_annu
us_L_in_a_Tropical_Humid-
Coastal_Savanna_Zone#:~:text=Water%20requirement%20of%20sunflower%20(by,season%20or%207.1%20
mm%2Fday.&text=It%20was%20concluded%20that%20even,the%20productivity%20of%20the%20cro.
Subject) Geography

Q.58) Consider the following statements:

1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections, owing to the
influence of trade winds.
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this Question: Important Static Concept

Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 50 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Statement 1 is correct. Warmer water is transported westward in the ocean by the Northeast trade winds in
the Northern hemisphere of the tropical zone (as the figure given below shows). So, in tropical zones, the
western section of ocean is warmer than eastern sections due to trade winds.

Statement 2 is correct. Similarly, the Westerlies play an important role in carrying the warm, equatorial waters
and winds to the western coasts of continents (that is eastern section of the Oceans in temperate zone). Thus, in
temperate zones, westerlies make the eastern section of the ocean warmer than the western sections.
Source: http://www.ces.fau.edu/nasa/module-3/why-does-temperature-vary/ocean-currents.php
https://www.wfmz.com/weather/what-are-the-prevailing-westerlies/article_747a927b-126f-57f1-95fc-
566b0ab2f4d3.html
Subject) Geography

Q.59) In the context of India's preparation for climate-smart agriculture, consider the following statements:
1. The 'Climate-Smart village' approach in India is a part of a project led by the climate change, Agriculture and
Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under consultative group on International Agricultural Research
(CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the
CGIAR's research centres.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 51 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Why this Question) Climate Smart Agriculture has been in news throughout the year and certain initiatives
related to it.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. The Climate-Smart Village project in India is a program of CGIAR Research Program
on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS). The CCAFS started piloting the Climate-Smart
Village in 2012 in Africa (Burkina Faso, Ghana, Mali, Niger, Senegal, Kenya, Ethiopia, Tanzania, and Uganda)
and South Asia (Bangladesh, India, and Nepal).
Statement 2 is correct. Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCFAS) is carried out under CGIAR
(formerly the Consultative Group for International Agricultural Research). Headquarter of CGIAR is in
Montpellier, France. CGIAR is a global partnership that unites international organizations engaged in research
about food security.
Statement 3 is correct. International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is a
CGIAR Research Center. ICRISAT is a non-profit, non-political public international research organization
that conducts agricultural research for development in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa with a wide array of
partners throughout the world.
Source: https://ccafs.cgiar.org/news/what-are-climate-smart-villages
https://www.icrisat.org/
Subject) Agriculture

Q.60) "Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare.
Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by
climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees," This is the most likely
description of
a) coniferous forest
b) dry deciduous forest
c) mangrove forest
d) tropical rain forest

Why this Question) Important static concept.

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 52 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Option d is correct. In tropical rainforest biome, hot, moist atmosphere and all the dead plant material create
the perfect conditions in which bacteria and other microorganisms can thrive. This leads to rapid
decomposition of leaf litter material. The tropical rainforest is known for its dense canopies of vegetation that
form three different layers. The top layer or canopy contains giant trees that grow to heights of 75 m (about 250
ft) or more. Thick, woody vines are also found in the canopy. They climb trees in the canopy to reach for
sunlight.
Source: https://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/biome/biorainforest.php
Subject) Geography

Q.61) The Vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no
trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some
conditions.
Which of the following are such conditions?
1. Burrowing animals and termites
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 4 and 5
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 5

Why this Question) Important static geography topic from GC Leong book and AFR100 initiative in news.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Burrowing animals and termites have not checked the extensive forest cover in
savannah.
A burrow is a tunnel or hole that an animal digs for habitation (a place to live) or as a temporary refuge (a place
of protection). Burrows provide shelter from predators and extreme temperatures. For these reasons, animals
have used burrowing behavior for a very long time.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 53 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

In savannah, an unusually large proportion of dead organic matter—approximately 30 percent—is decomposed
through the feeding activities of termites. In savannas, soil fertility can be markedly improved by mechanically
breaking up termite mounds and spreading the material across the soil surface.
Statement 2 is correct. Fire has a large effect on structure in the densely wooded granitic landscapes in
Savannah. Although proportionally, the woody vegetation was more reduced in the drier than in the wetter
landscapes. Frequent fires reduced woody vegetation and dry-season fires have reduced woody vegetation
more than wet-season fires.
Statement 3 is correct. Grazing herbivores like giraffe and elephant rely on foliage or fruit from the thorny
trees. Thus, their population has impact on tree growth. For example, a steady rise in the elephant population
between 1934 and 1959 in Virunga National Park, Congo (Kinshasa), led to an increase in the destruction of
woody plants and transformed a heavily wooded savanna into a grass savanna with very few trees.
Statement 4 is correct. Seasonal rainfall has affected the extensive forest areas of savannah. Savannah
experience frequent dry periods. The dry season is typically longer than the wet season, but it varies
considerably, from 2 to 11 months.
Statement 5 is incorrect. The Savannah consists of very deep, moderately well drained, moderately slowly
permeable soils on uplands and terraces in the Southern Coastal Plain. They formed in loamy marine or fluvial
terrace deposits. They are beneficial for trees and do not check their growth. The forested areas are dominated
by shortleaf, longleaf, slash, and loblolly pines; white, post, and red oaks; hickory, and sweetgum.
Source) https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/burrow/
https://www.britannica.com/science/savanna/Population-and-community-development-and-structure
https://soilseries.sc.egov.usda.gov/OSD_Docs/S/SAVANNAH.html
Subject) Geography

Q.62) With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this Question) Important static geography data from NCERT class XI.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 54 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Of the total freshwater, 69% resides in glaciers, 30% underground, and less than 1% is
located in lakes, rivers, and swamps. Thus, the amount of water in rivers and lakes is less than amount of
groundwater.
Statement 2 is correct. Of the total freshwater, 69% resides in glaciers and 30% underground. Polar ice caps
and glaciers has more water than groundwater.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy213.pdf
Subject) Geography

Q.63) Consider the following statements:

1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Why this Question) India starts export of Moringa powder (December 2020). Health benefits of Moringa
and tamarind.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Moringa is a green leafy fast-growing deciduous plant, native to the Indian
subcontinent. It is a non-leguminous tree.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Tamarind is a leguminous tree bearing edible fruit that is indigenous to tropical Africa
(and not endemic to South Asia).
Statement 3 is correct. Tamarind is collected mostly as the minor forest produce in India.
Statement 4 is correct. India exports tamarind and moringa seeds to the US, Germany, China, Canada, South
Korea, and other European countries.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 55 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Statement 5 is correct. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used for biofuel. The oil from the Moringa tree is
considered to be a more sustainable biodiesel feedstock than jatropha oil.
Source: https://www.tpci.in/indiabusinesstrade/blogs/moringa-on-track-for-an-export-surge/
https://www.cs.mcgill.ca/~rwest/wikispeedia/wpcd/wp/t/Tamarind.html
https://www.britannica.com/plant/tamarind
https://www.rroij.com/open-access/many-uses-of-moringa-moringa-oleifera-in-human-and-animal-
nutrition.php?aid=86864
https://www.ijsr.net/archive/v3i7/MDIwMTU0OA==.pdf
http://moringaceae.org/imgc-moringa-blog/does-moringa-fix-nitrogen
Subject) Agriculture

Q.64) The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of
a) brown forest soil
b) fissure volcanic rock
c) granite and schist
d) shale and limestone

Why this Question) Important Static geography concept from NCERT class XI.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Black soil in India is formed by the weathering of fissure volcanic rock.
Climatic condition along with the parent rock material is the important factors for the formation of black soil.
Black soils are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the
Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau, where there is both moderate rainfall and underlying basaltic rock.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/jess101.pdf
https://www.britannica.com/place/India/Black-soils
Subject) Geography

Q.65) With reference to recent developments regarding 'Recombinant Vector Vaccines', consider the following
statements:
1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 56 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this Question) COVID-19 recombinant vector vaccines in news recently.

Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of Recombinant vector vaccines.
Genetic engineering involves techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA), to
introduce these into host organisms and thus change the phenotype of the host organism. The techniques of
genetic engineering include creation of recombinant DNA, use of gene cloning and gene transfer.
Statement 2 is correct. Recombinant vaccines are made of a viral or bacterial vector. They are used as channels
for entry into host organisms.
Knowledge Base:
Viral vector-based vaccines use the body’s own cells to produce them. They do this by using a modified virus
(the vector) to deliver genetic code for antigen, in the case of COVID-19 spike proteins found on the surface of
the virus, into human cells. Gene engineering is applied in the development of recombinant vector vaccines.
The use of recombinant proteins allows the targeting of immune responses focused against few protective
antigens.
Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3854212/
https://www.gavi.org/vaccineswork/what-are-viral-vector-based-vaccines-and-how-could-they-be-used-
against-covid-19
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/medicine-and-dentistry/recombinant-vaccine
https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/lebo111.pdf
Subject) Science

Q.66) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:

1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement
therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.
2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 57 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this Question) Scientists at Kyoto University in Japan report a new approach where mutant DNA
sequences inside cellular mitochondria can be eliminated using a bespoke chemical compound. (July 2021).
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. Mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT) is a form of reproductive invitro
fertilization (IVF) which works on the principle of replacing a women's mitochondrial DNA (mt-DNA) with
the donor's healthy one. MRT include different techniques like spindles transfer (ST), pronuclear transfer
(PNT) or polar body transfer (PBT).
Pronuclear transfer technique is a significant approach of MRT administered after fertilization, in which two
zygotes are raised in vitro.
Maternal spindle transfer (MST) technique is executed before fertilization is a form of selective reproduction
similar to prenatal diagnosis and pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)
Statement 2 is correct. Mitochondria are the organelle which contain DNA in circular form, and in animals it is
the only organelle in addition to nucleus which contain DNA and gene. The sperm contains very low number of
mitochondria and mitochondrial gene. So, in the offspring the mitochondrial genes are inherited from the
mother. Thus, a father with mitochondrial gene defect cannot transmit the disease to his offspring.
Knowledge Base:
In pronuclear transfer, the mother’s egg is first fertilized with the sperm which produces a zygote. The
pronuclei of the egg and sperm are then removed from the zygote and inserted into a donor egg that has been
fertilized and has had its own nucleus removed. The zygote derived from the donor egg is then implanted into
the mother’s uterus. So, it works before invitro fertilization of women.
Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7492815/
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kebt108.pdf
Subject) Science

Q.67) Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of

a) clonal propagation of crop plants
b) developing genetically modified crop plants
c) production of plant growth substances

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 58 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

d) production of biofertilizers

Why this Question) The Centre considered writing off trait value charged from farmers for Bollgard-II variety
of Bt cotton to ensure the seeds are available to farmers at affordable prices. (March 2020).
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Bollgard1 and Bollgard 2 help in developing genetically modified crop plants. Bollgard cotton provides in-built
protection for cotton against destructive Bollworm infestations, and contains an insecticidal protein from a
naturally occurring soil microorganism, Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt).
Bollgard Bt cotton (single-gene technology) is India’s first biotech crop technology approved for
commercialization in India in 2002.
Bollgard II technology contains a superior double-gene technology - Cry1Ac and Cry 2Ab which provides
protection against bollworms and Spodoptera caterpillar.
Source: https://www.cropscience.bayer.in/en/Products-H/Brands/Seeds-and-Traits/Traits-Bollgard.aspx
Subject) Science

Q.68) In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the
following?
1. Area of the hole in the lid
2. Temperature of the flame
3. Weight of the lid
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this Question) Applied science from day-to-day life.

Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. Area of the hole in the lid will affect pressure inside the pressure cooker that affects the
temperature at which liquid boils in the cooker.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 59 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Statement 2 is incorrect. Temperature of the flame is not a factor because it will not impact the temperature at
which the food cooks, that will remain the same whether the flame is low or high. Temperature of the flame will
decide the pace of cooking.
Statement 3 is correct. Internal pressure depends upon the weight of the lid plus the external atmospheric
pressure. As the temperature at which the food cooks is the boiling point of the internal water, which goes up
with the internal pressure, the cooking time will depend on weight of the lid.
Subject) Science

Q.69) Consider the following:

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus
Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/synthetic medium?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this Question) Commercial use of Bacteria and Fungi, also viruses in news.
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. Bacteria can be grown in synthetic culture media. Researchers a had rewritten the DNA
of the bacteria Escherichia coli, fashioning a synthetic genome four times larger and far more complex than any
previously created.
Statement 2 is correct. Fungi can be grown in synthetic culture media. Four allergologically important fungi,
viz. Aspergillus fumigatus, Alternaria Penicillium notatum, and Cladosporium herbarum, were cultured in a
pure synthetic medium.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Viruses lack metabolic machinery of their own and are totally dependent on their host
cell for replication, they cannot be grown in synthetic culture media.
Source: https://www.nytimes.com/2019/05/15/science/synthetic-genome-bacteria.html
https://journals.plos.org/plospathogens/article?id=10.1371/journal.ppat.1007019

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 60 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

https://bio.libretexts.org/Bookshelves/Microbiology/Book%3A_Microbiology_(Kaiser)/Unit_4%3A_Eukaryo
tic_Microorganisms_and_Viruses/10%3A_Viruses/10.01%3A_General_Characteristics_of_Viruses#:~:text=Vi
ruses%20can%20infect%20animals%2C%20plants,grown%20in%20synthetic%20culture%20media.
https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/4091234/
Subject) Science

Q.70) Consider the following statements:

1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.
2. Common cold is sometime caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this Question) Viruses and health issues in news in last one year.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Adenoviruses are a group of common viruses that infect the lining of your eyes, airways and lungs, intestines,
urinary tract, and nervous system. They're common causes of fever, coughs, sore throats, diarrhoea, and pink
eye. Infections happen in children more often than in adults, but anyone can get them.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The adenovirus genome is a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA while
retroviruses are single-stranded DNA.
Statement 2 is correct. Common cold is caused by adenoviruses. HIV is caused by retrovirus. HIV is classified
as a retrovirus because it contains reverse transcriptase. It is a D-type virus in the Lentivirus family.
Source: https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/neuroscience/adenovirus-genome
https://www.healthline.com/health/what-is-a-retrovirus#virus-vs-retrovirus
Subject) Science

Q.71) Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because
a) It is dipolar in nature
b) It is a good conductor of heat
c) It has high value of specific heat

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 61 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

d) It is an oxide of hydrogen

Why this Question) Important static science concept.

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
Water is called the "universal solvent" because it is capable of dissolving more substances than any other liquid.
This is important to every living thing on earth. It means that wherever water goes, either through the air, the
ground, or through our bodies, it takes along valuable chemicals, minerals, and nutrients.
It is water's chemical composition and physical attributes that make it such an excellent solvent. Water
molecules have a polar arrangement of oxygen and hydrogen atoms—one side (hydrogen) has a positive
electrical charge and the other side (oxygen) had a negative charge. This allows the water molecule to become
attracted to many other different types of molecules.
Water can become so heavily attracted to a different compound, like salt (NaCl), that it can disrupt the attractive
forces that hold the sodium and chloride in the salt compound together and, thus, dissolve it.
Source) https://www.usgs.gov/special-topic/water-science-school/science/water-universal-solvent?qt-
science_center_objects=0#qt-science_center_objects
Subject) Science

Q.72) With reference to street-lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from led lamps?
1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps.
2. As street-lights, sodium lamps have longer life span than LED lamps.
3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant
colour advantages in street-lighting.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this Question) Government focus on LED lights (Ujala Yojana); environment friendly.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 62 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Statement 1 is correct. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps.
LED lamps have 180-degree bulb angle to preserve light efficiency and allow for target lighting over areas.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As street lights, sodium lamps have on an average shorter lifespan than LED lamps.
High Pressure Sodium lamps tend to have a lifespan averaging 24,000 hours. Whereas, LED lamps lifespan
ranges from 25,000 to 200,000 hours.
Statement 3 is correct. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic as they are
known for their warm yellow glow. On the other hand, LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street-
lighting. LEDs offer variety of colour options providing better lighting solutions than High Pressure Sodium
counterpart.
Source) https://www.homelectrical.com/advantages-led-vs-high-pressure-sodium-area-lights.6.html
Subject) Science

Q.73) The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of

a) Genes introduced in the genetically modified plants
b) Development of India’s own satellite.
c) Radio collars for wildlife tracking
d) Spread of viral diseases

Why this Question) COVID-19 pandemic, research related to it.

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
ACE2 (angiotensin-converting enzyme 2) is a protein on the surface of many cell types. It is an enzyme that
generates small proteins – by cutting up the larger protein angiotensinogen – that then go on to regulate
functions in the cell. Using the spike-like protein on its surface, the SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2 – like a
key being inserted into a lock – prior to entry and infection of cells. Hence, ACE2 acts as a cellular doorway – a
receptor – for the virus that causes COVID-19.
In the search for treatments for COVID-19, many researchers are focusing their attention on a specific protein
that allows the virus to infect human cells.
Source) https://theconversation.com/what-is-the-ace2-receptor-how-is-it-connected-to-coronavirus-and-
why-might-it-be-key-to-treating-covid-19-the-experts-explain-136928
Subject) Science

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 63 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.74) Bisphenol a (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the
following kinds of plastics?
a) Low-density polyethylene
b) Polycarbonate
c) Polyethylene terephthalate
d) Polyvinyl chloride

Why this Question) Health safety concerns, plastic ban in India.

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical used to make polycarbonate plastic. Polycarbonate plastic is used to make hard
plastic items, such as baby bottles, re-useable water bottles, food containers, pitchers, tableware and other
storage containers.
BPA is also used to make epoxy resins. Epoxy resin linings coat the inside of metal products such as food cans,
bottle tops and water supply pipes. The purpose of epoxy linings is to keep the can material from corroding or
reacting with the food.
Small amounts of BPA may remain in polycarbonate products and epoxy linings after curing, and be released
into food and beverages. Canned foods and liquids stored or heated in polycarbonate containers and epoxy-
lined cans appear to be the main source of exposure to BPA.
Scientists and government agencies have differing opinions about whether the levels of BPA found in contents
from polycarbonate containers or epoxy-lined cans may harm human health. Scientists have recently looked for
associations between BPA exposure and health effects in the general population. Some studies have reported
associations between elevated BPA exposure and health effects such as diabetes or heart disease, while other
studies have not.
Source) https://www.health.ny.gov/environmental/chemicals/bisphenol_a/
Subject) Environment

Q.75) ‘Triclosan’, considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in
which of the following?
a) Food preservatives
b) Fruit-ripening substances
c) Reused plastic containers
d) Toiletries

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 64 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Why this Question) Focus given on sanitization and disinfection during the pandemic. Harmful effects of
triclosan highlighted by IIT study.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Triclosan is an ingredient added to many consumer products intended to reduce or prevent bacterial
contamination. It is added to some antibacterial soaps and body washes, toothpastes, and some cosmetics.
Some short-term animal studies have shown that exposure to high doses of triclosan is associated with a
decrease in the levels of some thyroid hormones. Other studies have raised the possibility that exposure to
triclosan contributes to making bacteria resistant to antibiotics. At this time, we don’t have enough information
available to assess the level of risk that triclosan poses for the development of antibiotic resistance.
Source) https://www.fda.gov/consumers/consumer-updates/5-things-know-about-triclosan
Subject) Environment

Q.76) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?
a) Distances among stellar bodies do not change.
b) Gravity of stellar bodies does not change.
c) Light always travels in straight line.
d) Speed of light is always same.

Why this Question) Important basic concept, Indian Space Missions, Gaganyaan and others.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
A light-year is a measurement of distance in space. The astronomical distances are measured in light-years
because, the speed of light is constant throughout the universe and is known to high precision. In a vacuum,
light travels at 670,616,629 mph (1,079,252,849 km/h). To find the distance of a light-year, you multiply this
speed by the number of hours in a year (8,766). The result: One light-year equals 5,878,625,370,000 miles (9.5
trillion km). At first glance, this may seem like an extreme distance, but the enormous scale of the universe
dwarfs this length.
Measuring in light-years also allows astronomers to determine how far back in time they are viewing. Because
light takes time to travel to our eyes, everything we view in the night sky has already happened. In other words,
when you observe something 1 light-year away, you see it as it appeared exactly one year ago.
Source) https://www.space.com/light-year.html
Subject) Science

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 65 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.77) We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from
that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament
to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution
Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this Question) Important static concept about Indian democracy, Judicial review used by the Supreme
Court in various cases like 97th Constitutional Amendment Act case (partially struck down by the court).
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. Parliamentary sovereignty is a principle of the UK constitution. It makes Parliament
the supreme legal authority in the UK, which can create or end any law. Generally, the courts cannot overrule its
legislation and no Parliament can pass laws that future Parliaments cannot change.
Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament. The Indian Parliament may, in exercise
of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in
accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose. However, the Parliament cannot amend those
provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. This was ruled by the Supreme Court in the
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
Statement 2 is correct. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of an amendment of an act of the
Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. A Constitution Bench is a bench of
the Supreme Court having five or more judges on it. These benches are not a routine phenomenon. A vast
majority of cases before the Supreme Court are heard and decided by a bench of two judges (called a Division
Bench), and sometimes of three. Constitution Benches are set up when the case involves a substantial question
of law pertaining to the interpretation of the Constitution (Article 145(3) of the Constitution, which mandates
that such matters be heard by a bench of not less than five judges).

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 66 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Presently, Constitution Benches are set up on an ad hoc basis as and when the need arises. The idea behind a
Constitution Bench is clear: it is constituted in rare cases to decide important questions of fact or legal and/or
constitutional interpretation.
Source) M Laxmikanth, 6th edition, Chapter 3 Salient features of the Constitution\
https://www.barandbench.com/columns/constituting-constitution-benches-of-the-supreme-court-an-
analysis
Subject) Polity

Q.78) With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for
pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative
Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister's charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this Question) Mission Karmayogi for civil service capacity building was launched in 2020.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, in his Report namely ‘Reorganization of the
Machinery of Central Government’ in 1950 recommended for the grouping of ministries, improvement in the
capabilities of the personnel, and also in the working of the O&M Division. It nowhere mentions that a
minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
Statement 2 is correct. In 1970, on the basis of the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms
Commission, the Department of Personnel was set up in the Cabinet Secretariat. It was placed under the Prime
Minister's Office.
Source) https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/70425/1/Unit-10F.pdf
Subject) Polity

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 67 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.79) 'Right to Privacy' is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
a) Article 15
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
a) Article 29

Why this Question) Puttaswamy case, Aadhaar debate, New IT Guidelines etc.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
The nine –judge Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. vs
Union of India And Ors (2017) has ruled that individual privacy is intrinsic to life and liberty and an inherent
part of the fundamental rights enshrined in the Article 21 of the Constitution.
What are the various features of Right to Privacy?

• Privacy is a constitutionally protected right emerging primarily from the guarantee of life and liberty in
Article 21 of the Constitution.
• It includes the preservation of personal intimacies, sanctity of family life, marriage, procreation, the home
and sexual orientation.

• Privacy connotes a right to be left alone. It safeguards individual autonomy and recognizes one’s ability to
control vital aspects of his/her life.

• Privacy is not an absolute right, but any invasion must be based on legality, need and proportionality.

• Informational privacy is a facet of this right. Dangers to this can originate from both state and non-state
actors.
Source) https://blog.forumias.com/right-to-privacy-is-a-fundamental-right-now/
Subject) Polity

Q.80) Consider the following statements:

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three
constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/here
party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of his/her
winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 68 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3

Why this question) Important static concept from polity. Assembly elections held in states in 2021 where
candidates contested from two seats and some won in bye-elections.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. In 1996, the Representation of the People Act, 1951, was amended which restricted
the number of seats one candidate could contest in one election to two constituencies. And whenever they have
won more than one, the candidates have retained only one, forcing bypolls in the rest.
Statement 2 is correct. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha
constituencies. (Although such information need not be remembered by students, it can be validated by
eliminating other statements).
Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no such provision that if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha elections
from many constituencies, then his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated
by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. In every case, the Election Commission of
India (ECI) bears the cost of elections/bye-elections in all the constituencies in Lok Sabha and assembly
elections as well.
Source) https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/bar-people-from-contesting-from-
two-seats-election-commission/articleshow/55960421.cms
Subject) Polity

Q.81) Consider the following statements:

1. Right to the city’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the Commitments made by each
country in this regard.
2. “Right to the City” gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation
in the city.
3. “Right to the City” means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies
in the city.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 69 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3

Why this question)

• In Ajay Maken & Ors. vs Union of India & Ors. (2019), the Delhi High Court invoked the idea of the “Right
to the City” to uphold the housing rights of slum dwellers.
• right to the city was seen in news in the context of Delhi's Draft Master Plan 2041
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Right to the city is a holistic approach to improving the quality of everyday life in cities.
Statement 1 is correct. The right to the city is at the heart of the New Urban Agenda agreed at Habitat III. UN-
Habitat partners with national and local governments, academia, civil society and the private sector in the
implementation and monitoring of the commitment made under the New Urban Agenda and SDG 11.
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights commits to social justice through the promotion, defense and
fulfillment of all human rights related to habitat, including the Human Right to Adequate Housing, Land and
the Right to the City in every region of the world.
There is also a “World Charter for the Right to the City” which provides a progressive framework to rethink
cities and urbanization.
Statement 2 is correct. The Right to the City is the right of all inhabitants (present and future, permanent and
temporary) to inhabit, use, occupy, produce, transform, govern and enjoy cities, towns and human settlements
that are just, inclusive, safe, sustainable and democratic, defined as common goods for enjoying life with
dignity and peace. The right to the city further implies responsibilities on governments and people to claim,
defend, and promote this right.
This right claims for:

• the social function of the city;

• quality public spaces;

• sustainable and inclusive rural-urban linkages;

• inclusive economies;
• inclusive citizenship;

• enhanced political participation;

• non-discrimination;
• gender equality; and

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 70 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

• cultural diversity
Statement 3 is incorrect. The ‘Right to the City’ does not mean the guarantee of any public service or facility to
the unauthorized colonies in a city. It guarantees the common goods and services which are essential for the
quality of life.
Source) https://www.right2city.org/news/declaration-on-human-rights-day-and-the-right-to-the-city/
https://www.hlrn.org.in/documents/World_Charter_on_the_Right_to_the_City.htm
https://uploads.habitat3.org/hb3/Habitat%20III%20Policy%20Paper%201.pdf
Subject) Polity + Environment

Q.82) With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means and accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked
up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect
without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question) The concept of Police and judicial custody appeared in news in the context of Rhea
Chakraborty case. An article explaining the difference between the two came in the Indian Express in
September 2020.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
The provisions for custody in India are governed by Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. A person
may be held in the custody of the police or in judicial custody. The first thing that happens to a suspect on arrest
is that he is taken into police custody, following which he is taken before a magistrate. From there, he may either
be remanded to judicial custody or be sent back into police custody.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Police Custody means that police has the physical custody of the accused while
Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate. In Police custody, the
accused is lodged in police station lockup while in Judicial Custody, he is locked up in the jail.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 71 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Statement 2 is correct. During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to
interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the
interrogation being necessary under the facts produced before the court.
However, during police custody, the police officer in charge of the case, may interrogate the suspect.
Source) https://districts.ecourts.gov.in/sites/default/files/fct.pdf
Subject) Polity

Q.83) With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a
matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoner Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question)

• Recently, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has revised the Model Prison Manual, 2016
guidelines related to parole and furlough.

• Recently, the Supreme Court expressed concern over convicts languishing in jail despite being entitled to
remission of sentences while hearing a case of a murder convict jumping furlough.
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with suspension of the sentence. Parole
cannot be claimed as a matter of right. Parole may be denied to a prisoner even when he makes out sufficient
cause for release on parole.
Parole is to be granted only on a sufficient cause such as cases of severe illness or death of any member of the
prisoner's family. The granting authority for parole is the deputy home secretary of the state government.
On the other hand, Furlough is seen as a matter of right for a prisoner, to be granted periodically irrespective
of any reason. It is granted merely to enable the prisoner to retain family and social ties, and to counter the ill-
effects of prolonged time spent in prison.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 72 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Both Parole and Furlough can be denied if the competent authority is of the opinion that releasing the inmate
would not be in the interest of society.
Statement 2 is correct. State governments have their own Prisoner Release on Parole Rules. ‘Prisons’ is a
State subject under the State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
The management and administration of prisons fall exclusively in the domain of state governments and are
governed by the Prisons Act, 1894, and the Prison Manuals of the respective state governments.
The Prisons Act further says that only states can make rules regarding the release of prisoners on furlough,
parole and remission, as part of the correctional process in jail reforms.
Source) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-what-are-parole-and-furlough-how-are-they-
different-6090508/
https://theprint.in/judiciary/parole-furlough-remission-all-give-relief-to-convicts-but-this-is-how-theyre-
different/708417/
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1463889/
Subject) Polity

Q.84) At the national level, which ministry is the modal agency to ensure effective implementation of the
scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
c) Ministry of Rural Development
d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Why this question)

• Recently, review petitions of approximately 1200 tribals for recognition of their claims over forest land
under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 was
rejected by the local authorities in Mysuru (Karnataka)

• Recently, the Jammu and Kashmir government has decided to implement the Forest Rights Act, 2006
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the nodal agency for the implementation of the Scheduled
Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. The ministry deals
with forest and livelihood objectives at the national level.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 73 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Source) https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/forests/how-can-india-overcome-policy-and-institutional-
gaps-in-forest-management-70718
Subject) Environemnt

Q.85) A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled
discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the
Constitution of India?
a) Article 14
b) Article 28
c) Article 32
d) Article 44

Why this question)

• Important static topic

• In the context of the Government of National Capital Territory (GNCT) of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2021

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
Article 14 of Indian Constitution says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the
equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of
the concept of ‘Rule of Law’. This concept has the following three elements or aspects:

• Absence of arbitrary power

• Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens to the ordinary law of the land
• The constitution is the result of the rights of the individual
The first and the second elements are applicable to India. This means ‘equality before law’ under Article 14
connotes the absence of arbitrary power with the authorities. Thus, when a legislation confers uncontrolled
discretionary powers on any authority, it tends to violate the article 14 of the constitution.
Option b is incorrect. Article 28 is related to the right to freedom of religion. It provides that no religious
instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. Further, no
person attending any educational institution recognised by the State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be
required to attend any religious instruction or worship in that institution without his consent.
Option c is incorrect. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of
an aggrieved citizen. Article 32 affirms the right to move the Supreme Court if a fundamental right is

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 74 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

violated. Under this article, the Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of any of the fundamental
rights of the citizens.
Option d is incorrect. Article 44 provides for one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 44 says that
the “State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India".
Source) Laxmikant Chapter 7
Subject) Polity

Q.86) Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in
character?
a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Why this question)

• Important static topic

• The Supreme court recently said that the independence of district judiciary is cardinal
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
The establishment of an independent judiciary necessarily indicates the federal character of Indian polity. The
Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court to settle the disputes between
the Centre and the states or between the states.
Following are the federal features of Indian Constitution:

• Dual polity consisting of the Union at the Centre and the states at the periphery.
• Written Constitution

• Division of powers between the Centre and the states (by Schedule seven)

• Supremacy of the Constitution

• Rigidity of the constitution

• Bicameral legislature consisting of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

• Independency of judiciary
Source) Laxmikant Chapter 13 (6th edition)
Subject) Polity

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 75 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.87) Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?
a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and
possessing an organized government
b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law
and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance
c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture,
tradition and government
d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the
central authority and an independent judiciary

Why this question) Important static concept related to polity

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
State is “a community of persons permanently occupying a definite portion of territory, independent of
external control, and possessing an organized government”
According to Max Weber, a State is a human community that (successfully) claims the monopoly of the
legitimate use of physical force within a given territory.
The state possesses a government which has the authority to enforce a system of rules over the people living
inside it. That system of rules is commonly composed of a constitution, statutes, regulations, and common law.
Its mains functions can be maintaining law, order and stability, resolving various kinds of disputes through the
legal system, providing common defence, and looking out for the welfare of the population in ways that are
beyond the means of the individual, such as implementing public health measures, providing mass education
and underwriting expensive medical research.
Source) https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/srsec317newE/317EL2.pdf
https://jyotinivas.org/pdf/e_content/sociology/1st%20year%20unit-05%20(on%20state%20).pdf
Subject) Polity

Q.88) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by
the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the president of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 76 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question)

• Recently, the Kerala High Court said that High Courts as Courts of Record could review their own orders

• Recently, nine new Supreme Court judges take oath

• Important static topic: Indian Judiciary
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. The Chief Justice of India can request a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a retired
judge of a high court (duly qualified for appointment as a Supreme Court judge) to act as a judge of the Supreme
Court for a temporary period. He can do so only with the previous consent of the President and also of the
person to be so appointed. Such a judge is entitled to such allowances as the president may determine. He will
also enjoy all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of a judge of Supreme Court.
Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court of India has power to review its own judgement or order. Thus, it is
not bound by its previous decision and can depart from it in the interest of justice or community welfare. As a
court of record, a high court also has the power to review and correct its own judgement or order.
Source) Laxmikant Chapter 26 and 34 (6th edition)
Subject) Polity

Q.89) With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A Citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3

Why this question)

• New domicile rules for J&K

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 77 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

• Recently, the Home Ministry empowered 13 more District Collectors in five States to grant citizenship
certificates to applicants belonging to six minority communities from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan
• Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA) 2019

• Important static topic: Citizenship

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is correct.
Statement 1 is correct. The Indian Constitution provides for only a single citizenship, that is, the Indian
citizenship. The citizens in India owe allegiance only to the Union. There is no separate state citizenship. Also,
when an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship
automatically terminates.
There is only one domicile allowed in India. Domicile Certificate can be made only in one State/UT. In 2010,
the Uttarakhand High Court declared that there is no separate domicile for each State and there is only one
domicile for the entire country.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President is the Head of the Indian State. In India, both a citizen by birth as well
as a naturalised citizen are eligible for the office of President. Thus, a naturalized citizen can become the Head
of the State in India.
This is different from USA, where only a citizen by birth (and not a naturalised citizen) is eligible for the office
of President.
Statement 3 is incorrect. A foreigner, who has been earlier granted Indian citizenship, can be deprived of his
citizenship.
His Indian citizenship can be terminated by the Central government, if:
• he has obtained the citizenship by fraud:

• he has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India:

• he has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;

• he has, within five years after registration or naturalisation, been imprisoned in any country for two years;
and

• he has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.
Source) Laxmikant 6th edition: Chapter 6
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/domicile-rules-for-jk/article31660363.ece
Subject) Polity

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 78 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.90) Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
a) A committed judiciary
b) Centralization of powers
c) Elected government
d) Separation of powers

Why this question)

• Important static concept
• Recently Allahabad HC said that individual liberty cannot be taken away without proper application of mind

• Recently, Prime Minister lauded the judiciary for safeguarding people’s rights and personal liberty
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Option d is correct. The Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
constitute an important safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy. The doctrine of Separation of powers
entails the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government among different organs.
This separation minimises the possibility of arbitrary excesses by the government, since all the three organs
acts as check and balance on the powers of each other. Therefore, none of the three organs can usurp the
essential functions of other organs.
This demarcation prevents the concentration of excessive power by any branch of the Government. It thus
helps to safeguard the liberty and rights of the people in a democracy.
Source) Laxmikant Chapter 7 and 11
https://www.cusb.ac.in/images/cusb-files/2020/el/law/w2/Separation_of_Powers1_iv_semester.pdf
Subject) Polity

Q.91) Under the Indian constitution, concentration of wealth violates

a) The Right to equality
b) The Directive principles of state policy
c) The right to freedom
d) The concept of welfare

Why this question) Oxfam Report on Inequality

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 79 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

The concentration of wealth violates the Directive principles of state policy. Under Article 39 of the
Constitution of India, the State shall direct its policy towards securing that the operation of the economic
system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
Other principles of policy to be followed by the State under the Article 39 are:

• The citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means to livelihood;
• The ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve
the common good;
• There is equal pay for equal work for both men and women;

• The health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused and that
citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength;

• Children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom
and dignity and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral and material
abandonment
Source) https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part4.pdf
Subject) Polity

Q.92) What is the position of the right to property in India?

a) Legal right available to citizens only
b) Legal right available to any person
c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Why this question: The Supreme Court has recently held that a citizen’s right to own private property is a
human right.
The Right to Property is a legal right available to any person. Article 300-A provides that no person shall be
deprived of his property save by authority of law.
Right to Property was a Fundamental Right in the original constitution under Article 31, which provided that the
Constitution not only guarantees the right of private ownership but also the right to enjoy and dispose of
property free from restrictions other than reasonable restriction. It is also mentioned that compensation would
be paid to a person whose property has been taken for public purposes.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 80 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

The Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978 deleted the right to property from the Fundamental
Rights. The Amendment omitted Article 31 and Article 19 (1) (f) and inserted in their place Article 300-A.
Source) https://blog.ipleaders.in/right-to-property-in-india/
Subject) Polity

Q.93) What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950
a) A Democratic Republic
b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
c) A sovereign Secular Democratic
d) A sovereign Socialist secular Democratic Republic

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Why this question: Debate over the word 'secular' in the Preamble of the Constitution by fringe elements.
The original Preamble, adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949 and came into force on
26th January, 1950, declared India as a “Sovereign Democratic Republic”.
By the 42nd Amendment of 1976, enacted during the Emergency, the words “Socialist” and “Secular” were
inserted. The Preamble now reads “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic”.
Source) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/indian-constitution-preamble-citizenship-amendment-
act-caa-protests-br-ambedkar-6190828/
Subject) Polity

Q.94) Constitutional government means

a) A representative government of a nation with federal structure
b) A government whose head enjoys nominal powers
c) A government who’s Head enjoys real powers
d) A government limited by the terms of the constitution

Why this question: static

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 81 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Constitutional government seeks to limit and regulate the exercise of political power by the government.
Constitutional government is by definition limited government. It means government conducted according to
rules and principles, which are binding on all political actors.
Therefore, constitutional government help to constrain the unfettered exercise of power by separating or
dividing it. Constitutional government provides a framework in which the government can be both responsible
and representative - managing conflicts, Protecting the rights, promoting participation and maintaining security
of the citizens.
Source) https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.1111/j.1070-3535.2006.00447.x
Subject) Polity

Q.95) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, ho and Kui’ pertain to
a) Dance forms of Northwest India
b) Musical instruments
c) Pre-historic cave paintings
d) Tribal languages

Why this question: Inclusion of ‘Ho’ dialect in 8th Schedule sought

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Halbi, also known as Bastari, is an Eastern Indo-Aryan language and is spoken by tribes across the central
part of India.
It is written in Devanagari and Odia script, however it is used mainly as an oral language, particularly for trade,
and few Habli speakers can read and write their language.
Ho is tribal language, which is written in Warang Chiti script. It is the mother tongue of nearly 10 lakh tribal
people living in Odisha and Jharkhand.
Kui is a South-Eastern Dravidian language spoken by the Kandhas. It is mostly spoken in Odisha, and written
in the Odia script. The Kui language was also referred to as the Kuinga language during the historical period. It
is closely related to the Gondi and Kuvi languages.
Subject) History

Q.96) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:
1. Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are titles under the Article 18 (1) of the Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 82 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question: Government said that it will Take Away Bharat Ratna, Padma Awards If Misused.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
National awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri do not amount to
titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution and thus are not to be used as prefixes or suffixes
to the name of the recipient in any manner.
Article 18(1) abolishes all titles. It prohibits the State to confer titles on anybody whether a citizen or a non-
citizen. Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the prohibition. Thus, a university can
give title or honor on a man of merit.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Padma Awards were instituted in 1954 to be awarded to citizens of India in recognition of their distinguished
contribution in various spheres of activity.
The government suspended the practice of granting the Padma awards for two years in 1977. It was again
suspended during mid-1992 when 2 PILs were filed in the High Courts of India
They are given in three categories: Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma
Bhushan (distinguished service of higher-order) and Padma Shri (distinguished service).
Statement 3 is incorrect.
A maximum of 3 people can be awarded the Bharat Ratna.
The total number of Padma awards to be conferred each year is limited to 120. But the count excludes
posthumous awards and any non-resident Indian or Overseas Citizen of India or foreign-based winners.
Source) https://theprint.in/india/governance/bharat-ratna-padma-awards-cannot-be-used-as-titles-
government/191472/
Subject) Polity

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 83 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Q.97) Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have
recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.
Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and
maintain the urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
b) Both statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1
c) Statement 1 is correct But Statement 2 is not correct
d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Why this question: 2020 Tree City of the World.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Hyderabad have been recognised as a 2020 Tree City of the World by the Arbor Day Foundation and the
Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), [not United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF)].
Statement 2 is correct.
It was given for its commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests.
Hyderabad earned recognition in the Foundation’s second year of the programme along with 51 other cities
globally (120 cities from 63 countries assessed) and the only city in India to get this recognition so far.
Source) https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/hyderabad/hyderabad-recognised-as-a-tree-city-of-the-
world-7196815/
Subject) Environment

Q.98) Consider the following statements in respect of the laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in
the year 2000:
1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award
2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula one’ players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 84 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Why this question) Naomi Osaka wins top title at 2021 Laureus World Sports awards.
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is correct.
Statement 1 is correct.
The Laureus World Sports Awards is an annual award ceremony honouring individuals and teams from the
world of sports along with sporting achievements throughout the year.
The inaugural winner of the award in 2000 was the American golfer Tiger Woods.
First held in 2000, the annual event was established by Laureus Sport for Good Foundation founding patrons
Daimler and Richemont.
The award is given for six categories (Sportswoman, Sportsman, Team, Breakthrough, Comeback and Action)
and discretionary awards also. The shortlist for World Athlete of the Year with a Disability is provided by the
International Paralympic Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
The Laureus World Sports Awards are not won mostly by Formula One players.
List of formula One players who won the Laureus World Sports Awards in the Sportsman category three times
are:

• 2020 Lewis Hamilton

• 2004 Michael Schumacher

• 2002 Michael Schumacher

Statement 3 is correct.
Swiss tennis player Roger Federer holds the record for the most awards with six, five for Sportsman of the Year
and one for Comeback of the Year.
Source) https://www.laureus.com/world-sports-awards
Subject) Sports Current Affairs

Q.99) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:
1. The official motto for this Olympics is “A New World”.
2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 only

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 85 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question) Olympic and Paralympic Games held in Tokyo 2020 (The Games were postponed to
2021 because of Covid)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
The 32nd Summer Olympics was held in Tokyo in 2021. The Tokyo 2020 official Games motto was “United by
Emotion”.
The Rio Olympics 2016 official slogan was “A New World.”
Statement 2 is correct.
The Tokyo Olympics has 339 events across 41 different sports. Six new sports will be contested at the Tokyo
Olympics - baseball, softball, karate, skateboarding, sport climbing, and surfing.
Source) https://olympics.com/en/news/united-by-emotion-to-be-the-tokyo-2020-games-motto
Subject) Sports Current Affairs

Q.100) Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:
1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question) New Zealand became ICC World Test Champions after beating India.
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Finalists of ICC World Test Championship are to be decided by percentage of points earned, not by the number
of matches won by them.

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005
 Page 86 of 86

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2021 | Set A | ForumIAS

Statement 2 is incorrect.
New Zealand won less matches than England but won more points, thus entering the final.
Source) https://www.icc-
cricket.com/news/2177618#:~:text=New%20Zealand%20are%20ICC%20World,a%20boundary%20from%20R
oss%20Taylor.
Subject) Sports Current Affairs

ForumIAS Offline Guidance Centre, 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, Delhi-110005