GENERAL DIRECTIONS:

 CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER FROM THE SUGGESTED OPTIONS

 YOU MAY REFER THE INFORMATION GIVEN BELOW WHEN YOU WORK ON SOME OF THE
QUESTIONS.
Constant Symbol Value
Acceleration due to gravity g 10 m/s2
Pi  3.14
The specific heat capacity of water c 4200 J/kgK
Permittivity of free space 0 8.85x109Fm-1
√
Sin 450 = Cos 450 =
Sin 600 = Cos 300 = 0.866
Sin 300 = Cos 600 = 0.5
Sin 370 = 0.6
Cos 370 = 0.8
Sin 290 = 0.484
Cos 290 = 0.8
Sin 150 = 0.258
Grade 9 & 11
Vectors
1. Two vectors A and B are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of the resultant is √ unit and .
Determine the magnitude of A and B.
A. B. C. D.
2. Which of the following set of units are units of basic quantities?
A. Kilogram, Newton, Ampere
B. Meter per second, Mole, Pascal
C. Kelvin, Meter, Second
D. Watt, Ampere, Newton
3. If | ⃗ ⃗⃗ | √ ⃗ ⃗⃗ then the value of | ⃗ ⃗⃗ | is
A. √ √ B. √ C. √ D.
√
4. The angle between the two vectors ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ will be
A. Zero B. C. D.
5. The dimensional formula of torque is
A. [ ] B. [ ] C. [ ] D. [ ]

6. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle
between these vectors is:
A. 0° B. 90° C. 45° D. 180°
7. If ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ are perpendicular to each other. Then
A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 1
8. ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ and ⃗⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ . Find the unit vector in the direction of ⃗ ⃗⃗
A. ( ̂ ̂ ̂) C. ( ̂ ̂ ̂)
√ √
B. ( ̂ ̂ ̂) D. ( ̂ ̂ ̂)
√ √

1
9. Find a unit vector in the direction of ̂ ̂ ̂
A. (̂ ̂ ̂) C. (̂ ̂ ̂)
√ √
B. (̂ ̂ ̂) D. (̂ ̂ ̂)
√
10. Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity?
A. Displacement B. Electric field C. Work D. Acceleration

Motion in a straight line and Kinematics

11. A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity becomes 40 m/s towards
north. The average acceleration of the body is
A. B. C. D.
12. If a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 144 km/h in 20 s, it covers a distance of
A. 2880 m B. 1440 m C. 400 m D. 20 m
13. The displacement x (in meter) of a particle of mass m (in kg) moving in one dimension under the action of a
force, is related to time t (in sec) by √ . The displacement of the particle when its velocity is zero, will
be
A. 2 m B. 4 m C. zero D. 6 m
14. Two bodies, A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3 kg), are dropped from heights of 16m and 25m, respectively.
The ratio of the time taken by them to reach the ground is
A. 12/5 B. 5/12 C. 4/5 D. 5/4
15. A ball is thrown vertically upward. It has a speed of 10 m/sec when it has reached one half of its maximum
height. How high does the ball rise? Take g = 10 m/s2
A. 10 m B. 5 m C. 15 m D. 20 m

16. If the velocity of a particle is , where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it
between 1s and 2s is:
A. B. C. D.
17. A boy standing at the top of a tower of 20m height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 m/s^2 , the velocity with
which it hits the ground is
A. 10.0 m/s C. 40.0 m/s
B. 20.0 m/s D. 5.0 m/s
18. The displacement time graph of a moving particle is shown below
The instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at
the point
A. D
B. F
C. C
D. E

Work, energy and power

19. A particle moves with a velocity ⃗ ̂ ̂ ̂ m/s under the influence of a constant force ⃗ ̂
̂ ̂ N. The instantaneous power applied to the particle is
A. 45 J/s B. 35 J/s C. 25 J/s D.195 J/s
20. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done
A. Upon the system by a non-conservative force B. By the system against a conservative force

2
 C. By the system against a non-conservative force D. Upon the system by a conservative force
21. A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s in metres in it, given by the
relation , where t is in seconds. Work done by the force in 2 seconds is
A. J B. J C. J D. J
22. A block of mass 50 kg is projected horizontally on a rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction between
the block and the floor is 0.1. The block strikes a light spring of stiffness k=100 N/m with a velocity 2 m/s. The
maximum compression of the spring is :
A. 4m
B. 3m
C. 2m
D. 1m

23. A uniform force of ( ̂ ̂)N acts on a particle of mass 2 kg. The particle is displaced from position ( ̂ ̂)
m to position ( ̂ ̂ ̂ ) m. The work done by the force on the particle is
A. 6 J B. 13 J C. 15 J D. 9 J

Simple machines
24. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.
B. Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body is zero.
C. A couple on a body produces both translational and rotation motion in a body.
D. Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a large load
a) (A) and (B) c) (C) and (D)
b) (B) and (C) d) (B) and (D)

Fluid statics and Properties of bulk matter

25. Which of the following is true?
A. The buoyant force on a floating object is less than its weight.
B. A pressure applied to a confined fluid increases the pressure throughout the fluid by the same amount.
C. The buoyant force on an object immersed in a fluid is equal to the weight of the object.
D. The downward pressure on the top surface of a block immersed in a fluid is greater than the upward
pressure on its bottom surface.
26. If you stand on one foot on the floor of your class room, what will be the pressure exert on the floor?
A. Twice the pressure you exert if you stand on two feet.
B. Half the pressure you exert if you stand on two feet.
C. The same as the pressure you exert if you stand on two feet.
D. Half the pressure you exert if you sit on the floor.
27. An egg is placed at the bottom of a vessel filled with water. Common salt is slowly added and dissolved in the
water until the egg rises and floats at the surface. From this information one could conclude that:
A. The density of the salt exceeds the density of the egg.

3
 B. There is a tendency for Calcium in the egg shell to be repelled by sodium chloride.
C. Salt sinks to the bottom.
D. There is no physical explanation.
28. Which of the following describes Pascal’s principle?
A. Pressure change in an enclosed liquid is transmitted to every part equally.
B. Pressure at the same depth in a given liquid is the same everywhere.
C. A body immersed in a liquid is pushed up by a force equal to the weight of water it displaces.
D. In a given liquid, the greater the depth the greater is pressure.
29. Consider the hydraulic press as shown below. Suppose a force of 12000 N is applied to the right of the piston.
If the area of the cylinder holding the car up is 10 times greater than the area of the left cylinder, what is the
force that must be applied to the left piston?
A.
B.
C.
D.

30. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When water acquires a temperature of 80°C, the mass of
water present will be: [Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g–1 °C–1 and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g–1]
A. 24 g B. 31.5 g C. 42.5 g D. 22.5 g
3
31. The density of unknown liquid is 500kg/m . What is the relative density of the liquid? (
)
B. 0.5 B. 2 C. 5 D. 0.2
Solution

Temperature and heat

32. Absolute zero temperature is
A. The temperature at which particles change its state from solid to liquid
B. The temperature at which particles change its state from liquid to gas
C. The temperature at which solid and liquid phase can coexist in phase equilibrium condition.
D. The lowest temperature at which particles stop moving
33. The amount of heat required to raise temperature of a unit mass (1kg) of the substance per unit kelvin (K) or
is:
A. Heat capacity C. Temperature
B. Specific heat capacity D. Quantity of heat

Wave motion and sound

34. Two waves of the same frequency and intensity superimpose each other in opposite phases. After the
superposition, the intensity and frequency of waves will
A. Increase B. Decrease C. Remain constant D. Become zero
35. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse
B. Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal
C. Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum
D. Both light and sound waves in air are transverse
36. Which of the following statement is FALSE for the properties of electromagnetic waves?
A. Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same time.

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 B. The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors
C. Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of
propagation of wave
D. These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.

37. Rainbow is formed due to a combination of

A. Dispersion and total internal reflection C. Dispersion and focusing
B. Refraction and absorption D. Refraction and scattering
Grade 10
Motion in 2D and rotational motion
38. A wheel rotates with a constant acceleration of 2.0 rad/s2. If the wheel starts from rest, how many revolutions
will it make in the first 10 seconds?
A. 16 revolution B. 160 revolution C. 6 revolution D. 1 revolution
39. A uniform circular disc of mass 200 g and radius 4.0 cm is rotated about one of its diameter at an angular speed
of 10 rad/s. Find the kinetic energy of the disc and its angular momentum about the axis of rotation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
40. Two bullets are fired simultaneously, horizontally and with different speeds from the same place. Which bullet
will hit the ground first?
A. The faster one
B. The slower one
C. Both will reach simultaneously
D. Depends on the masses.
41. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s 2, the range of the missile
is
A. 40 m B. 50 m C. 60 m D. 20 m

Introduction to electronics
42. Choose the only FALSE statement from the following
A. In conductors, the valence and conduction bands may overlap
B. Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are insulators
C. The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature
D. The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature
43. The output of OR gate is 1
A. if either input is zero B. if both inputs are zero C. if either or both inputs are D. only if both inputs are 1
44. To obtain a p-type germanium semiconductor, it must be doped with
A. Arsenic B. Antimony C. Indium D. Phosphorus
45. When arsenic is added as an impurity to silicon, the resulting material is
A. n-type semiconductor B. p-type semiconductor C. n-type conductor D. insulator
46. Which one of the following statement is FALSE?
A. Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type semiconductor
B. Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor are holes

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 C. Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are electrons
D. The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature
47. In forward bias, the width of potential barrier in a p-n junction diode
A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains constant D. No change
48. In forward biasing of the p–n junction
A. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p–side and the depletion region becomes thick
B. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n–side and the depletion region becomes thin
C. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to n–side and the depletion region becomes thick
D. the positive terminal of the battery is connected to p–side and the depletion region becomes thin

Grade 11

Forces and Newton’s laws of motion, and Dynamics

49. A ladder rests against a wall at an angle of 60° to the horizontal as shown below. The ladder is 10m long and
has a mass of 40kg. The wall is considered to be frictionless. Which one of the following is the magnitude of
the frictional force applied to keep the ladder in its state of static equilibrium? ( )
A. 400N
B. 48N
C. 96N
D. 40N

50. A 50 kg block rest on a smooth plane inclined at 370 to the horizontal. The force needed to push the block up
the plane is 400N. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the block?
A. 2 m/s2 B. 3 m/s2 C. 5 m/s2 D. 1 m/s2
2
51. What force is required to accelerate a 2kg object at 4 m/s ?
A. 2 N B. 8 N C. 5 N D. 1 N
52. Which of the following is not true?
A. The rolling friction is much less than sliding friction.
B. Once the body is in motion, the force needed to keep the body in motion is less than the starting force.
C. The static friction depends on the area of the surface in contact.
D. The value of static coefficient of friction is always between 0 and 1.
53. A 10 N force is applied on a body produces an acceleration of 1 m/s2. The mass of the body is
A. 5 kg B. 10 kg C. 15 kg D. 20 kg
54. A ball is dropped from a satellite revolving around the earth at a height of 120 km. The ball will
A. continue to move with same speed along a straight line tangentially to the satellite at that time
B. continue to move with the same speed along the original orbit of satellite
C. fall down to earth gradually
D. go far away in space
55. A drum of radius R and mass M, rolls down without slipping along an inclined plane of angle θ. The frictional
force

6
 A. Dissipates energy as heat
B. Decreases the rotational motion
C. Decreases the rotational and translational motion
D. Converts translational energy to rotational energy
56. Two blocks and are hung vertically over a light frictionless pulley as shown here.
What is the acceleration of the masses when they are left free?
A.
B.
C. g
D.

57. The speed of a homogenous solid sphere after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h from rest
without sliding is
A. √ B. √ C. √ D. √

58. A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The mass and the
radius of the earth are, respectively, M and R. G is gravitational constant and g is acceleration due to gravity on
the surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not return back to earth, is
A. √ B. √ C. √ D. √
59. When a body moves with a constant speed along a circle
A. its velocity remains constant
B. no force acts on it
C. no work is done on it
D. no acceleration is produced in it
60. A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity ν. It reaches up to a
maximum height of with respect to the initial
position.

The object is a:__________________

A. solid sphere B. hollow sphere C. disc D. ring

61. Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are moving with equal KE. The ratio of their linear momentum is
A. 4 : 1 B. 1 : 1 C. 1 : 2 D. 1 : 4

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62. Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio 4:1 are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of their
masses is
A. 1 : 2 B. 1 : 1 C. 4 : 1 D. 1 : 4
63. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of inclination with the
horizontal reaches 30º the box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank in 4.0s. The coefficients of static
and kinetic friction between the box and the plank will be, respectively:

A. 0.6 and 0.5 B. 0.5 and 0.6 C. 0.4 and 0.3 D. 0.6 and 0.6
64. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly
weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring would be

A. 0.5 m B. 0.15 m C. 0.12 m D. 1.5 m

65. The co-efficient of restitution (e) for a perfectly elastic collision is
A. 1 B. 0 C. D. -1
66. A block of mass 1 kg is placed on a truck which accelerates with acceleration 5m/s2. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and truck is 0.6. The frictional force acting on the block is
A. 5 N B. 6 N C. 5.88 N D. 4.6 N

Equilibrium
67. A particle is acted on by the forces as shown in Figure below. Which one of the following is the magnitude of
the force P to be the particle is in its state of equilibrium?
√
A. N C. 9√ N
B. 4√ N D. 4N

Grade 12

Thermodynamics
68. The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by and
respectively. If and R is the universal gas constant, then is equal to:
A. B. C. D.

8
69. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2. The amount of work done by the gas is greatest, when the
expansion is
A. Adiabatic B. Isobaric C. Isothermal D. Equal in all cases
70. A gas at 27ºC temperature and 30 atmospheric pressure is allowed to expand to the atmospheric pressure. If the
volume becomes 10 times its initial volume, then the final temperature becomes
A. 100ºC B. 173ºC C. 273ºC D. –173ºC
71. In thermodynamic processes which of the following statements is not true?
A. In an isochoric process pressure remains constant
B. In an isothermal process the temperature remains constant
C. In an adiabatic process
D. In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from the surroundings
72. An ideal Carnot engine, whose efficiency is 40%, receives heat at 500 K. If its efficiency is 50%, then the
intake temperature for the same exhaust temperature is
A. 600 K B. 700 K C. 800 K D. 900 K
73. At 0 K, which of the following properties of a gas will be zero?
A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy C. Density D. Mass
74. Which of the following processes is reversible?
A. Transfer of heat by conduction
B. Transfer of heat by radiation
C. Isothermal compression
D. Electrical heating of a nichrome wire
75. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled.
Temperature of the source is
A. 37°C B. 62°C C. 99°C D. 124°C

Oscillations and waves

76. A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is represented by ( ) ( ) where x is
in metres and t is in seconds. The speed of the wave is
A. 0.5 π m/s B. m/s C. 8 m/s D. 4π m/s
77. The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator when the particle is half way to its end point is
A. B. C. D.
78. Which one of the following is a simple harmonic motion?
A. Ball bouncing between two rigid vertical walls
B. Particle moving in a circle with uniform speed
C. Wave moving through a string fixed at both ends
D. Earth spinning about its own axis.
79. The time period of a mass suspended from a spring is T. If the spring is cut into four equal parts and the same
mass is suspended from one of the parts, then the new time period will be
A. 2T B. C. 2 D.
80. A particle starts simple harmonic motion from the mean position. Its amplitude is A and time period is T. What
is its displacement when its speed is half of its maximum speed
√ √
A. B. C. D.
√ √
81. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The
minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is
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 A. B. C. D.
82. The circular motion of a particle with constant speed is
A. periodic but not simple harmonic
B. simple harmonic but not periodic
C. periodic and simple harmonic
D. neither periodic nor simple harmonic
83. A transverse wave is represented by ( – ) For what value of the wavelength is the wave
velocity equal to the maximum particle velocity?
A. B. C. D.
84. Resonance is an example of
A. tuning fork C. free vibration
B. forced vibration D. damped vibration

Wave optics and Electromagnetic waves and geometrical optics

85. Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 m and 5.5m respectively each propagate in a gas with velocity 330
m/s. We expect the following number of beats per second
A. 0 Hz B. 1 Hz C. 6 Hz D. 12 Hz
86. Which one of the following statements is true for the speed v and the acceleration (a) of a particle executing
simple harmonic motion?
A. When v is maximum, a is zero
B. When v is maximum, a is maximum
C. Value of a is zero, whatever may be the value of v
D. When v is zero, a is zero
87. Which of the following equations represent a wave?
A.
B.
C. ( – )
D. ( – )
88. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has the least wavelength?
A. Gamma rays B. Infra-red C. Ultraviolet D. X-ray
89. A closed organ pipe (closed at one end) is excited to support the third overtone. It is found that air in the pipe
has
A. Three nodes and three antinodes C. Four nodes and three antinodes
B. Three nodes and four antinodes D. Four nodes and four antinodes
90. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, and then which of the following statements is not true?
A. Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
B. All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
C. Pressure change will be maximum at both ends
D. Antinode will be at open end

Electrostatics
91. Three equal charges, each having a magnitude of 2.0 × 10 - 6 C, are placed at the three corners of a right angled
triangle of sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. Find the force on the charge at the right-angle corner.

10
 A. 45.9N B. 459N C. 4.59N D. 49N
92. As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked to the closed loop shown in the Figure below an emf V volt is
induced in the loop. The work done (Joules) in taking a charge Q coulomb once along the loop is

A. QV B. 2QV C. D. Zero
93. Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC and AC, 2a. D and E
are the mid points of BC and CA. The work done in taking a charge Q from D to E is

A. B. C. Zero D.

94. The formation of a dipole is due to two equal and dissimilar point charges placed at a
A. short distance
B. long distance
C. Infinite distance
D. Any distance
95. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between
the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is:
A. B. C. D.

Steady electric current and circuit properties

96. Find the effective resistance between the points A and B in figure below.

A. B. C. D.

97. Eddy currents are produced when

A. A metal is kept in varying magnetic field
B. A metal is kept in steady magnetic field
C. A circular coil is placed in a magnetic field
D. Through a circular coil, current is passed
98. Three resistances each of 4 Ω are connected to form a triangle.
11
 The resistance between any two terminals is

A. 12 Ω B. 2 Ω C. 6Ω D.

99. A step-up transformer operates on a 230 V line and supplies a load of 2 ampere. The ratio of the primary and
secondary windings is 1:25. The current in the primary is
A. 25 A B. 50 A C. 15 A D. 12.5 A
100. If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is , the current flow through it is 0.1 A and the
crosssectional area of wire is then potential gradient will be
A. B. C. D.
101. The resistivity (specific resistance) of a copper wire
A. Increases with increase in its temperature C. Increases with increase in its length
B. Decreases with increase in its cross-section D. Increases with increase in its cross-section
102. Kirchhoff’s first and second laws for electrical circuits are consequences of
A. conservation of electric charge and energy C. conservation of energy and electric charge
respectively respectively
B. conservation of electric charge D. conservation of energy
103. A 4µF conductor is charged to 400 volts and then its plates are joined through a resistance of 1 kΩ. The
heat produced in the resistance is
A. 0.16 J B. 1.28 J C. 0.64 J D. 0.325 J
104. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have
A. A low resistance in series with its coil C. A high resistance in series with its coil
B. A high resistance in parallel with its coil D. A low resistance in parallel with its coil
105. Kirchhoff’s first law, at a junction, deals with the conservation of
A. Charge B. Energy C. Momentum D. Angular momentum

Electromagnetism and Electromagnetic induction and a.c circuits

106. A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed vertically
upwards. The particle will
A. Continue to move due east C. Move in a circular orbit with its speed increased
B. Move in a circular orbit with its speed D. Gets deflected vertically upwards.
unchanged
107. Tesla is the unit of
A. Magnetic flux B. Magnetic field C. Magnetic induction D. Magnetic moment
108. There are four light–weight–rod samples A, B, C, D separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet is
slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted
I. A is feebly repelled
II. B is feebly attracted
III. C is strongly attracted
IV. D remains unaffected
Which one of the following is true?
a) B is of a paramagnetic material
b) C is of a diamagnetic material
c) D is of a ferromagnetic material

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 d) A is of a non–magnetic material
109. The magnetic field ( ⃗⃗ ) due to a small element ( ) at a distance ( ⃗ ) and element carrying current I is
⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
A. ⃗⃗ ( ) C. ⃗⃗ ( )
⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
B. ⃗⃗ ( ) D. ⃗⃗ ( )
110. A charged particle of charge q and mass m enters perpendicularly in a magnetic field ⃗⃗. Kinetic energy of
the particle is E; then frequency of rotation is
A. B. C. D.
111. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
A. velocity remains unchanged C. direction of the particle remains unchanged
B. speed of the particle remains unchanged D. acceleration remains unchanged
112. When a charged particle moving with velocity ⃗ is subjected to a magnetic field of induction ⃗⃗ , the force
on it is non-zero. This implies that
A. angle between ⃗ and ⃗⃗ can have any value other than 90°
B. angle between ⃗ and ⃗⃗ can have any value other than zero and 180°
C. angle between ⃗ and ⃗⃗ is either zero or 180°
D. angle between ⃗ and ⃗⃗ is necessarily 90°
113. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is double and
the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is
A. 4B B. C. B D. 2B
114. Faraday’s laws are consequence of conservation of
A. Energy B. Energy and magnetic field C. Charge D. Magnetic field
115. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 µF and a resistor 40Ω are connected in series across a source of emf
. The power loss in A.C. circuit is:
A. 0.51 W B. 0.67 W C. 0.76 W D. 0.89 W
116. The current in self-inductance L = 40 mH is to be increased uniformly from 1 amp to 11 amp in 4
milliseconds. The emf induced in the inductor during the process is
A. 100 volt B. 0.4 volt C. 4.0 volt D. 440 volt
117. The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as

( )
√

( )
√
The average power in Watts consumed in the circuit is:
√
A. B. C. D.

118. In an experiment, 200 V A.C. is applied at the ends of an LCR circuit. The circuit consists of an inductive
reactance , capacitive reactance and Ohmic resistance . The impedance of the
circuit is
A. B. C. D.

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119. A capacitor has capacity C and reactance X. If capacitance and frequency become double, then reactance
will be
A. 4X B. C. D. 2X
120. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the combination is
joined to the terminals of a 2 volt battery. The time constant of the circuit is
A. 20 seconds B. 5 seconds C. 1/5 seconds D. 40 seconds
121. A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor
C in series produce oscillations of frequency f. If L is doubled and C is changed to 4C, the frequency will be
A. 8f B. C. D.
√
122. An inductor may store energy in
A. its electric field B. its coils C. its magnetic field D. both in electric and magnetic fields
123. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil according to equation
, where and . The maximum value of emf in the second coil
is
A. 2π B. 5π C. π D. 4π

Atomic Physics
124. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
A. nuclei break up at high temperature
B. atoms get ionized at high temperature
C. kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
D. molecules break up at high temperature
125. A nuclear reaction is given by ̅ represents
A. Fission B. γ-decay C. β-decay D. Fusion
126. Which of the following is positively charged?
A. α-particle B. β-particle C. γ-rays D. X-rays
127. Solar energy is due to
A. Fusion reaction B. Fission reaction C. Combustion reaction D. Chemical reaction
128. The mass number of a nucleus is
A. sometimes less than and sometimes more C. always more than its atomic number
than its atomic number D. sometimes equal to its atomic number
B. always less than its atomic number
129. The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 4.125 eV. The cut off wavelength ( ) for this
surface is
A. 4125 Å B. 3000 Å C. 6000 Å D. 2062.5 Å
130. The Bohr model of atoms
A. Predicts the same emission spectra for all types of atoms
B. Assumes that the angular momentum of electrons is quantized
C. Uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation
D. Predicts continuous emission spectra for atoms
131. Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic
surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is:
A. 1:4 B. 1:2 C. 1:1 D. 1:5
132. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum
A. Power B. Wavelength C. Intensity D. Frequency

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133. In any fission process, the ratio is
A. Equal to 1 C. Less than 1
B. Greater than 1 D. Depends on the mass of the parent nucleus
134. , and are all having same energy. Their penetrating power in a given
medium in increasing order will be
A. B. C. D.
135. Light of wavelength falls on a sensitive plate with photo-electric work function of 1.9 eV. The
kinetic energy of the photo-electrons emitted will be
A. 0.58 eV B. 2.48 eV C. 1.24 eV D. 1.16 eV
136. The momentum of a photon of energy will be
A. B. C. D.
137. In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most
energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is
A. 1.8 V B. 1.2 V C. 0.5 V D. 2.3 V
138. The most penetrating radiation of the following is
A. Gamma-rays B. Alpha particles C. Beta-rays D. X-rays
139. The nature of ions knocked out from hot surfaces is
A. Protons B. Neutrons C. Electrons D. Nuclei
140. Number of ejected photoelectron increases with increase
A. In intensity of light B. in wavelength of light C. in frequency of light D. never
,

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