MODULE NO: 15 QUESTION BANK CAR 147BASIC

Sl Question Ans lev Book ref

no MODULE 15 PART 1 el
Module 15 sub module 1:- Fundamentals
1. One of the greatest single factors influencing the construction features of any gas A 2 1-37
turbine engine is the type of -------------------- for which the engine is designed. para-3
a) compressor or compressors b) turbine c) combustor e) Exhaust.
2. The term ----------- was used to describe any gas turbine engine used in aircraft. D 2 1-37
a) turbo shaft b) turbofan c) turbo prop d) turbojet” Para-4
3. The turbojet engine has problems with noise and fuel consumption in the speed range C 2 1-37
that airliners fly ------------ . Due to these problems, use of pure turbojet engines is very Para-4
limited.
a) 1 mach b) 2 mach c) 0.8 mach d) 3 mach.
4. An APU is used on turbine-powered aircraft to provide electrical power and bleed air B 2 1-38
on the ground and a backup _______________. Para-1
a) generator on ground. b) generator in flight. c) stand by generator. d) AOTA.
5. The turboprop a/c, like a piston engine a/c, rapidly loses its power due to. A 2 1-54
a) Increased drag at higher speeds. b) Increased drag at lower speeds. PARA-1
c) Decreased drag at higher speeds. d) Decreased drag at lower speeds.
6. A turbojet engine is a mechanical device which produces A 2 dl/cran
a) Fwd thrust by forcing the movement of gases rearward. p-357
b) It produces more power per pound of weight than does the reciprocating engine.
c) Energy taken from the gases to operate turbines, fans, propellers or shafts.
d) All the above.
7. What happens to the total energy of a moving object if all the applied forces are C 2 Net
conserved?
A. It increases B. It decreases
C. It remains constant D. The velocity is required to answer this question
8. A heavy block is suspended from a vertical spring. The elastic potential energy is A 2 Net
stored in the spring is 2 J. What is the spring constant if the elongation of the spring is
10 cm?
A. 400 N/m B. 300 N/m C. 200 N/m D. 100 N/m.
9. A machine does 2500 J of work in 1 min. What is the power developed by the B 2 Net
machine?
A. 21 W B. 42 W C. 150 W D. 2500 W
10. An a/c travels with a constant speed of 15 00 m/s. The a/c’s engine produces a 4000 D 2 Net
kN pushing force in order to keep the speed constant. How much power is developed
by the engine?
A. 60 W B. 600 W C. 6000 W D. 600 MW
11. A spacecraft moves around Earth in a circular orbit with a constant radius. How much B 2 Net
work is done by the gravitational force on the spacecraft during one revolution?
A. FGd B. zero C. mgh D. ½ mv2
12. On fwd fan turbofan engines, the engine fan section lies just ; A 2 Net
a) Rear of the air inlet section. b) They are considered as a part of the compressor.
c) Rear of the compressor. d) Separate unit built around the perimeter of the free
turbine.
13. A block of mass m = 50 kg moves on a rough horizontal surface with a coefficient of D 2 Net
 kinetic friction µ = 0.5. The traveled distance is 20 m. How much work is done by the
friction force? A. 1000 J B. 2000 J C. 3000 J
D. 5000 J.
14. An object I with a mass of 4 kg is lifted vertically 3 m from the ground level; another C 2 Net
object II with a mass of 2 kg is lifted 6 m up.
Which of the following statements is true?
I. Object I has greater potential energy since it is heavier
II. Object II has greater potential energy since it is lifted to a higher position
III. Two objects have the same potential energy
A. I B. II C. III D. I and II E. II and III
15. A block of mass m is moved over a distance d. An applied force F is directed B 2 Net
perpendicularly to the block’s displacement. How much work is done on the block by
the force F?
A. mFd B. zero C. Fd D. –Fd
16. Abnormal engine noise, such as rumble , chugging or buzzing is the indication of A 2 Easa
a) Surge. b) Creep. c)Mild stall. d) All. 4.7
17. Rapid EGT increases or fluctuation , RPM fluctuation , EPR decrease or fluctuation C 2 Easa
indicates 4.7
a) Stall. b) Choking. c) Surge. d) Creep.
18. Very loud bang may be accompanied by flame , vapor , or smoke at the engine inlet D 2 Easa
and/or exhaust indicates ; 4.7
a) Surge. b) Severe stalls. c) Choking. d) All.
19. P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2 transposing will give as ; D 2 Easa
a) P2 =P1V1T2/V2T1. b) V2 = P1V1T2/P2T1. c) T2 = P2V2T1/P1V1. d) All. 1.5
20. We get the general gas law by ; C Easa
a) Cherie’s law. b) Boyle’s law. c) Combining boyle’s law & Charles’s law. d) None. 1.5
21. Pv/T = constant or R by transposing Pv = RT is derived from A 2 Easa
a) Combining Boyle’s law & Charles’s law. b) Combining Charles’s law & 1.5
Newton’s 2nd law. c) Boyle’s law. d) Charles’s law.
22. When the gases are passing through a duct , where pressure and temperature increases B 2 Easa
& decreases in velocity occurs in ; 2.4
a) Convergent duct. b) Divergent duct. c) Parallel duct. d) Both a &
b.
23. Turboprops and turboshafts can use an inlet screen to help _____ out ice or debris from C 2 1-39
entering the engine. Para
a) squeeze b) knock c) filter d) ooze. 1

MODULE 15.2 ENGINE PERFORMENCE

1. The principle used by a gas turbine engine as it provides force to move an airplane is A 1 EASA
based on Newton’s law of momentum which states __________________ 2-10
a) 3rd law b)2nd law c) 1 st law d) NOTA
2. Thrust of a gas turbine engine can be increased by two methods: increasing the mass B 1 EASA
flow of air through the engine or increasing __________________. 2-10
a) RPM b) increasing gas velocity. C) Density d) pressure.
3. Formula for thrust is F = MA/ G. F=? D 1 EASA
a)force in Lbs b) Force in KG c) Force in KN. D) AOTA. 2.2
4. In the thrust formula V2-V1 stands for. A 3 EASA
a) velocity of a/c b) velocity of air. c) velocity of exhaust. d) AOTA. 2.2
5. Compute the gross thrust using the formula, Data given:- for changing the velocity of C 3 EASA
100 pounds of mass airflow per second from 600 ft/sec to 800 ft/sec,. 2.3
 a) 641lb b) 631lb c) 641lb d) 651lb.
6. In Thrust distribution, the turbine produce _____ thrust. A 2 EASA
a) positive b) negative c) will not take part d) NOTA 2.2
7. Expand THP B 2 EASA
a) total HP b) thrust HP c) take –off HP d) Threshold HP 2.4
8. Specific fuel consumption is ______? C 2 EASA
a) fuel consumed by engine. b) fuel un burnt by engine 1.10
c) fuel consumed /lbper hr/ lb of thrust d) AOTA.
9. Equlent specific fuel consumption is use for ____ engine. C 2 EASA
a) TFE b) TSE c)TPE d) TJE. 1-10
10. SFC is highest in ___ type of engine. B 2 EASA
a) TFE b) TPE c)TSE d) TJE. 1.11
11. True acceleration of the gas is the difference in the velocity between the incoming & B 2 Easa2.3
outgoing air, & this difference is used in computing ;
a) A/c speed. b) Net thrust. c) Ram drag. d) Gross thrust.
12. One of the principal measures of jet engine efficiency is called ; B 2 Easa 2.9
a) SFC b) TSFC c) SFC =WF/Fn. d) All.
13. Which efficiency is a prime factor in gas turbine performance. A 2 EASA
a) thermal b)volumetric c) mechanical d)Air standard. 2.5
14. Three most important factors effecting thermal efficiency are, TIT,CR,______? D EASA
a) component efficiency b) compressor efficiency c) turbine efficiency d) AOTA. 2.5
15. I) In actual operation, the turbine engine exhaust temperature varies directly with C 2 EASA
turbine inlet temperature at a constant compression ratio. 2.5
II) The effects that compressor and turbine component efficiencies have on thermal
efficiency.
a) I) is true. b) only II) is true c) Both I) & II) are true. d) Both are false.
16. What is pressure ratio? A 2 EASA
a) ratio between out let of compressor to inlet of compressor b) ratio between out let of 1.12
turbine to inlet of compressor c) ratio between out let of exhaust to inlet of compressor.
d) ratio between in let of compressor to outlet of turbine.
17. P2/p1 indicates _________ ? A 2 EASA
a) compression pressure ratio. b) engine pressure ratio. 1.12
c) exhaust pressure ratio. d) turbine pressure ratio.
18. The expanding gases move rearward through the turbine assembly and are converted A 2 EASA
from _______ energy to mechanical energy by the turbine. 2.3
a) velocity b) pressure c) temperature d) electrical.
19. The hottest portion in the GTE is ? B 2 EASA
a) compressor b) combustor c) turbine d) exhaust. 2.3
20. Lowest temperature in GTE is ? A 2 EASA
a) compressor b) combustor c) turbine d) exhaust. 2.3
21. Engine temperature measured at? D 2 EASA
a) inlet b) turbine c) combustor d) exhaust. 2.3
22. Higest pressure measured in GTE at? C 2 EASA
a) compressor inlet c) compressor out let c) diffuser d) combustor. 2.3
23. In divergent duct increases _______ ? A 2 EASA
a) pressure b) velocity c) temperature. d) volume. 2.3
24. It is the ratio of useful work output of machine/ work or energy input = B 2 EASA
a) Thermal efficiency. b) Mechanical efficiency. 2.3
c) Propulsive efficiency. d) None.
MODULE 15.3 AIR INELT 2
1. Proper inlet design contributes materially to aircraft performance by increasing the A 2 1-38
ratio of compressor discharge pressure to ________ pressure. Para
a) duct inlet b) duct outlet c) Duct intermediate d) NOTA 2
2. In a supersonic A/c, the inlet duct is of ; C 2 AMT
a) Single entrance duct. b) Divided entrance duct. M15
c) Variable geometry duct. d) Scoop ducts. 3.4 para3
3. A bell mouth inlet is usually installed on an engine for ; A 2 AMT
a)Being calibrated in a ground test stand. b) This type of inlet is easily attached & M15
removed. c) Its only objective is to obtain very high aerodynamic efficiency. 3.5 para3
d) Duct loss is so slight that is usually considered as zero plus all a,b,c.
4. The amount of air passing through the engine is dependent upon three factors: B 2 1-38
1. The compressor speed (rpm) 2. __________________ 3. The density of the ambient Para
(surrounding) air. 3
a) The forward speed of the engine. b) The forward speed of the aircraft. c) The
rotational speed of the aircraft. d) The rotational speed of the engine.
5. Large gas turbine powered aircraft almost always have a turbofan engine. The inlet on C 2 1-38
this type of engine is bolted to the front ______ of the engine. Para
a) (B flange) b) (C flange) c) (A flange) d) (D flange) 4
6. A 2 Japp
A bellmouth compressor inlet is used on.
P 3-5
a) helicopters. b) supersonic aircraft. c) aircraft with low ground clearance.
7. A 2 RR
Electrical de-icing operates.
p-150
a) continuously and intermittently. b) cyclically independent of ambient air
temperature. c) cyclically dependent on ambient air temperature.
8. A _______ vane and a heated inlet lip are used to prevent ice or large chunks from A 2 1-39
entering the engine. Para
a) deflector b) reflector c) solid d) hard. 1
9. On military aircraft, the _________ entrance permits the use of very short ducts with a A 2 1-39
resultant small pressure drop through skin friction. Para
a) divided b) added c) reverse d) small. 2
10. i) Military aircraft can fly at speeds above Mach 1, but the airflow through the engine C 2 1-39
must always stay below Mach 1. Para
ii) Supersonic air flow in the engine would destroy the engine. 2
a) only i) is true b) only ii) is true c) both i) & ii) are true d) i0 is false & ii) is true.
11. ___________ functions include acting as an oil reservoir and/or oil sump and housing A 2 1-39
the accessory drive gears and reduction gears. Para 3
a) Secondary. b) primary. c) Third. D) fourth.
12. The arrangement and driving of accessories has always been a _______ problem on B 2 1-39
gas turbine engines. Para 4
a) minor. b) major c) complicated d) serious.
MODULE 15.4 COMPRESSOR
1. The compressor section of the gas turbine engine has many functions. Its primary A 2 1-39
function is to supply ___ in sufficient quantity to satisfy the requirements of the Para
combustion burners. 9
a) air b) oil c) fluid d) oxygen.
2. Specifically, to fulfill its purpose, the compressor must increase the pressure of the D 2 1-39
mass of air received from the air inlet duct, and then, discharge it to the burners in the Para
quantity and at the _______ required. 9
a) velocity b) vector c) speed d) pressures.
3. The exact location of the bleed ports is, of course, dependent on the pressure or B 2 1-39
 _________ required for a particular job. Para
a) volume b) temperature c) quantity d) density. 10
4. i) Air is often bled from the final or highest pressure stage since, at this point, pressure B 2 1-39
and air temperature are at a maximum Para
ii) At times it may be necessary to cool this high-pressure air. If it is used for cabin 10
pressurization or other purposes to which excess heat would be uncomfortable or
detrimental, the air is sent through an air conditioning unit before it enters the cabin.
a) i) is true b) both true c) ii) is true d) both false..
5. What are the current applications of bleed air? D 2 1-40
1. Cabin pressurization, heating, and cooling; Apra 1
2. Deicing and anti-icing equipment;
3. Pneumatic starting of engines; and
4. Auxiliary drive units (ADU).
a) 1 & 2 only b) 2&3 only c) 1,2,3 only d) All.
6. The two principal types of compressors currently being used in gas turbine aircraft A 2 1-40
engines are centrifugal flow and _____ flow. Para
a) axial b) angular c) vertical d) inward. 2
7. The centrifugal-flow compressor achieves its purpose by picking up the entering air A 2 1-40
and accelerating it _______ by centrifugal action. Para
a) inwardly b) outwardly c) obliquely d) angularly. 2
8. The ___________ compressor compresses air while the air continues in its original A 2 1-40
direction of flow, thus avoiding the energy loss caused by turns. Para
a) axial-flow b) centrifugal c) obliquely d) squarly. 2
9. i) These air outlets are constructed in the form of ducts and are known by a variety of C 2 1-41
names, such as air outlet ducts, outlet elbows, or combustion chamber inlet ducts. Para
ii) these outlet ducts perform a very important part of the diffusion process; that 3
is, they change the radial direction of the airflow to an axial direction,
a) i) is false b) ii) is false c) both are true d) both are false.
10. The axial-flow compressor has two main elements: a rotor and a ______. A 2 1-41
a) stator b) rotor c) both d) none. Para
4
11. From inlet to exit, the air flows along an axial path and is compressed at a ratio of A 2 1.41
approximately ______ per stage. Para
a) 1.25:1 b) 1.5 : 1 c) 1.1 : 1 d) 2:1. 4
12. At the discharge end of the compressor, the stator vanes are constructed to straighten A 2 1-41
the airflow to eliminate_________. Para
a) turbulence b) swirl c) heat d) hay-way. 8
13. The stator vanes are usually made of steel with ________- and erosion resistant A 2 1-41
qualities. Para
a) corrosion b) erosion c) heat d) creep. 8
14. Quite frequently, stator vanes are shrouded (enclosed) by a band of suitable material to B 2 1-41
simplify the ________ problem. Para
a) glowing b) fastening c) loosening d) breaking. 8
15. VIGV are placed __________ of the compressor rotor blade. A 2 1-43
a) front b) rear c) port d) starboard. Para
3
16. VSV are placed __________ of the compressor rotor blade. B 2 1-43
a) front b) rear c) port d) starboard. Para
3
17. Most turbofan engines are of the __________ compressor type. C 2 1-43
 a)single spool b) two spool c) split-spool d) three spool. Para
4
18. Most large turbofan engines use a large fan with a few stages of compression called the C 2 1-43
____ pressure spool. Para
a) High b) Intermediate c) low- d) Central. 4
19. The second spool, referred to as the _____-pressure spool and is the compressor for the A 2 1-43
gas generator and core of the engine, supplies air to the combustion section of the Para
engine. 4
a) High b) Intermediate c) low- d) Central.
20. It has the all-important function of reducing high-velocity compressor discharge air to B 2 1-44
increased pressure at a slower__________. Para
a) flow b) velocity c) pressure d) NOTA. 2
21. If the air passed through the flame area at a high velocity, it could ________the flame. A 2 1=44
a) extinguish b) re-light c) support d) continue. Para
2
MODULE 15.5 COMBUSTION CAHMBER 2
1. The primary function of the combustion section is, C 2 1-44
a) to burn the fuel/air mixture, b) adding heat energy to the air. c) both d) none. Para
3
2. the combustion chamber must: D 2 1-44
i) Provide the means for proper mixing ii) Burn this mixture efficiently, iii) Cool the Para
hot combustion products iv) Deliver the hot gases to the turbine section. 4
a) i) & ii) only. b) ii) & iii) only. c) iii) & iv) only d) I,ii,iii,iv,all.
3. The location of the combustion section is directly between the ________ and the A 22 1-44
__________ sections. Para
a) compressor & turbine b) turbine & exhaust c) exhaust & compressor d) inlet & 5
compressor.
4. There are currently three basic types of combustion chambers, variations within type D 2 1-44
being in detail only. These types are:1.Can type 2. Can-annular type 3. Annular type Para
4.cannular. 7
a) 1&2 only b) 3&3 only c) 3&4 only d) 1,2,3 only.
5. The can-type combustion chamber is typical of the type used on _______and_____ .. C 2 1-44
a) turbo shaft b) APUs b) both d) none. Para
8
6. Another very important requirement in the construction of combustion chambers is A 2 1-45
providing the means for draining unburned fuel. This drainage prevents ___ deposits in Para
the fuel manifold, nozzles, and combustion chambers. 2
a) gum b) carbon c) sediments d) all.
7. Secondary or cooling air passes between the outer casing and the liner and A 2 1-45
joins the combustion gases through larger holes toward the rear of the liner, cooling the Para
combustion gases from about 4
a) 3,500 °F to near 1,500 °F. b) 3,000 °F to near 1,000 °F. c) 4500 °F to near 2,500 °F.
d) 2,500 °F to near 500 °F.
8. Two types of fuel nozzle currently being used in the various types of combustion C 2 1-45
chambers are the ------------ and the ----------------nozzle. Para
a) simplex & complex. b) complex & duplex. C) simplex & duplex d) helix & 6
vertex.
9. The igniters must be long enough to -------- from the housing into the combustion A 1-46
chamber. Para
a) protrude b) intrudes c) pass on d) cross over. 1
10. Annular burners have less surface-to-volume ratio than comparable to can type burners D 2 Dl/cran
hence ; p-403
a) Less cooling air is required.
b) Burner weight is less & improvement in burner performance.
c) This arrangement makes more complete use of available space.
d) All the above.
MODULE 15.6 TURBINE SECTION 2
1. Turbine transforms a portion of ________ energy of the exhaust gasses in to B 2 1-47
mechanical energy to drive the compressor and accessories. Para 2
a) potential energy b) Kinetic energy c) thermal energy d) electrical energy.
2. Turbine assembly section consist of _______ & ______ elements? A 2 1-47
a) TIGV & Turbine Blades b) TIGV & stator c) TIGV & Rotor Para 2
d) Rotor & Stator
3. The turbine inlet nozzle vanes are located directly _______ of the Combustion C 2 1-47
chamber? Para 2
a) before b) in between c) after d) top
4. How to overcome the thermal stress on the turbine disc? C 2 1-49
a) cooling b) incidental to blade installation c) Both d) none. Para 3
5. Method of connecting the shaft to the turbine disc is/ Are? D 2 1-49
a) welded b) bolted c) riveted d) either a or b. Para 5
6. Method of connecting the turbine disc to blades is/ Are? D 22 1-49
a) peening b) welding c) riveting & lock tabs d) AOTA. Para7

7. What is the main purpose of the stationary turbine inlet vanes? A 2 Easa 6.9
a) To direct the airflow coming out of the combustion chamber to the proper angle of Q5
rotation to turn the turbine wheel.
b) guide gas flow to exhaust. c) to guide & mix hot air & gas. d) AOTA.
8. What type of turbine blade produces the least internal vibration? C 2 Easa 6.9
a) welded blades. b) un-Shrouded blades. C) Shrouded blades. d) AOTA. Q6
9. The three main types of turbine blades are. C 2 Jep
a) impulse, vector, and impulse-vector. b) reaction, converging, and diverging. 3-27
c) impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction
10. The turbine section. C 2 Jep
a) increases air velocity to create thrust. b) uses heat energy to expand and accelerate 3-25
the gas flow.
c) drives the compressor section.
11. Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on turbine blades?. B 2 Jep
a) Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree. b) Across the leading or trailing edge 4-25
at a right angle to the edge. c) Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge
12. Gas pressure through the turbine section will generally. C 2 Dl/cran
a) increase. b) remain the same. c) decrease. P405
13. A condition known as 'hot streaking' in turbine engines is caused by A 2 Dl/cran
a) a partially clogged fuel nozzle. b) excessive fuel flow. c) a misaligned P407
combustion liner
14. The forces driving a turbine round are due to. C 2 RR 50
a) impulse only. b) reaction only. c) impulse and
reaction2
15. Nozzle guide vanes give a. C 2 Jep
a) pressure increase, velocity decrease. b) pressure increase, velocity increase. 3-35
c) pressure decrease, velocity increase.
16. When carrying out a boroscope the damage on turbine blades that would indicate a B 2 Jep Fig 5-
failure is. 23,26
a) speckling. b) tip curl. c) colour changes P178,
185
17. As the hot gasses flow through an impulse turbine blading, the velocity. B 2 RR
a) will decrease. b) remains constant. c) will increase. fig 5-5
18. What is the normal range of turbine efficiency?. A 2 RR 51
a) 90% - 95%. b) 70% - 85%. c) 30% - 40%. Para11
92%
MODULE 15.7 EXHAUST SECTION 2
1. What is the purpose of exhaust section components? A 2 1-51
a) to prevent the turbulence of exhaust gases b) to prevent vibration c) to prevent Para 3
stresses d) to prevent heat transfer.
2. Exhaust section component/s is / are? D 2 1-51
a) exhaust cone b) tail pipe/ jet pipe c) exhaust nozzle d) AOTA. Para 3
3. The outer shell or duct is usually made o f _______ ? A 2 1-51
a) SS b) HS c) LS d) CS. Para5
4. What is the purpose of convergent-divergent nozzle? D 2 1-52
a) Decrease the gas velocity b) increase the gas velocity c) velocity remains same d) Para5
convert sub sonic flow to super sonic flow.
5. For optimum suppression of noise ________ is used? A 2 3-32
a) honey- comb b) porous skin c) lining material d) NOTA. Para-4
6. Purpose of thrust reverser is to? C 2 3-28
a) reduce landing run b) reduce load on brake c) Both d) none. Para 5
7. Mechanical blockage type of thrust reverser is used for? B 2 3-29
a) fan air b) exhaust gas c) both d) none. Para 1

8. Aerodynamic blockage type of thrust reverser is used for? A 2 3-29

a) fan air b) exhaust gas c) both d) none. Para1
9. Cam door used in thrust reverser for ___? A 2 3-29
a) Aerodynamic blockage b) Mechanical blockage c) Both d)NOTA Para1
10. Cam shell used in thrust reverser for ___? B 2 3-29
a) Aerodynamic blockage b) Mechanical blockage c) Both d)NOTA Para1
11. Aerodynamic blockage type of thrust reverser is operated by? D 2 3-29
a) pneumatically b) mechanically c) electrically d)Both A&C. Para-1
12. Mechanical blockage type of thrust reverser is operated by? D 2 3-29
a) pneumatically b) hydraulically c) electrically d)Both B&C. Para2
13. Thrust reverse operation, power lever/ throttle should be in what position? A 2 3-29
a) Idle b) max c)cruise d) reverser. Para2
MODULE 15.8 BEARING SECTION 2
1. A bearing used to support a gas turbine rotor that is surrounded by a thin film of oil to D 2 EASA
reduce vibration is called a ----------------- bearing. Page 8.2
a) Ball bearing. b) plain bearing. c) roller bearing. d) hydraulic bearing. Para1

2. Carbon seals in a gas turbine engine are usually ------------------ loaded. B 2 EASA
a) Pressure loaded. b) spring loaded. c) ball loaded. d) air pressure loaded. Page 8.3
Para 3
3. What determines the number of bearings required to support the rotor of a turbine D 2 EASA
engine? Page 8.2
a) rotor length. b) rotor weight. c) rotor speed. d) both length & weight of the Para 1
 rotor.
4. what is the most significant maintenance concern regarding bearings? A 2 EASA
a) Ingestion of foreign matter and dirt. b) oil leak. c) fails. d) vibrations. Page 8.2
Para 4

5. oil seals are, may be pressurized to------------------ oil leaking along the compressor A 2 EASA
shaft.(8-2p5) Page 8.2
a) maximize. b) minimize. c) seal. d) spill. Para 5

6. Carbon seals rest against a surface provided to create a sealed bearing ------------. D 2 EASA
a) void. b) line. c) cavity. d) Both a & c . Page 8.2
Para 3

7. The bearing is usually locked in position by a steel ------- ring. A 2 EASA

a) snap. b) helical. C) coil. d) retaining. Page 8.2
Para 2

8. The bearing surface is usually provided by a machined --------------- on the appropriate A 2 EASA
shaft. Page 8.2
a) journal. b) cavity. c) surface. d) path. Para 2

9. The compressor support bearings are ; A 2 Amt/m15

a) Ball bearings. c) Either ball or roller bearings. P-8.2
b) Roller bearings. d) None.
15.09 LUBRICANTS AND FUELS 2
1. Low viscosity oils provide good -------------------------. B 2 EASA
a) Load carrying capacity. b) flowability. c) high friction. d) high pump wear . Page 9.2
Para 1

2. High viscosity oils provide -----------------------------------. A EASA

a) load bearing capacity. b) rigidity. c) low friction. d) high pump wear. Page 9.2
Para 1

3. Turbine synthetic oil has a viscosity of around . B 2 EASA

a) 5-5.5 centistokes at 100 degree F. b) 5-5.5 centistokes at 210 degree F. c) 5-5.5 Page 9.2
centistokes at 300 degree F. d)5-5.5 centistokes at 500 degree F. Para 3

4. Turbine oil health and safety precautions are given in. A 2 EASA
a) MSDS. (material safety data sheet) b) Engine DS. c) aircraft DS. d) Page 9.2
Manufacture DS. Para 5

5. I. If turbine oil contacts the” Eyes “, flush the eye with fresh water until irritation D 2 EASA
subsides. Page 9.2
II. Prolonged or repeated contact of turbine oil with skin can cause irritation and Para 6
dermatitis.
Regarding above statements.
a) Only I is true. b) Only II is true. c) Both are true. d) both are false.

6. Painted surfaces should be wiped clean with a ------------------- solvent after spillage of B 2 EASA
turbine oils. Page 9.2
 a) chemical. b) petroleum. c) general. d) water . Para 6

7. AVGAS for Reciprocating Engines ‘s is dyed various colors for use in different D 2 EASA
parts of the world, however jet fuels is ---------------------- dyed. Page 9.3
a) white. b) blue. c) yellow. d) not. Para 4

8. Since turbine engine fuels always contain water, -------------------- contamination is B 2 EASA
always threat. Page 9.3
a) biocide. b) microbial. c) biological. d) global. Para 3

9. Freezing point for jet-A fuels is----------------.degree F. B 2 EASA

a) – 50. b) –40 c) -70. d) -58. Page 9.4
Para 2

10. Fuel anti-ice additive can be added to the bulk fuel and also directly into the aircraft A 2 EASA
fuel tank, usually during --------------------- . Page 9.5
a) refueling b) de-fueling. c) bulk- fueling. d) bulk storage. Para 1

11. The use of filters in jet fuels removes foreign ---------------- from the fuel. C 2 EASA
a) contaminants. b) dirt. c) sediment. d) microbes Page 9.
Para 6

12. PRIST is --------------------product? D 2 EASA

a) microcide. b) biocide. c) anti-solvent. d) anti-icing. Page 9.4
Para 7

15.10 LUBRICATION SYSTEM

1. Oil tanks are provided with space because. A 2 EASA
a) allow expansion b)allow for air space c)for air oil mixing d)nota. Page 10.2
Para 9
2. Some tanks also incorporate a deaerator tray to separate --------- from oil. 10-2p9 B 2 EASA
a)fuel from oil b)air from oil c)sediments d)dirt. Page 10.2
Para 9
3. The gear type oil pump has only ------- elements ,one for pressure oil and one for B 2 EASA
scavenging . Page 10.3
a)4 b)2 c)8 d)6. Para 4

4. A PRV is located in the ---------side of the pump limits the output pressure of the B 2 EASA
pump by bypassing the oil to pump inlet. Page 10.3
a)inlet side b)discharge side c)any side d)nill. Para 5

5. By varying the size of the gerotor elements the capacity of the elements can B 2 EASA
be--------. Page 10.3
a) regulated b)controlled c)lowered d)varied . Para 6

6. Mesh sizes are measured in -------------for mesh type filters. A 2 EASA

a)millionth of a meter b)tenth of a meter c)100th of a meter Page 10.4
d)thousandth of a meter . Para 4LL

7. Lubrication system breather is always connected to ----------- A 2 EASA

 a) oil tank b)gear box c)directly to atmosphere Page 10.7
d)either a ,b, c Para 4

8. What is the purpose of bearing box ,oil tanks ,accessory cases are vented together? B 2 EASA
a) to maintain the difference in pressure between the three b)to maintain the Page 10.8
same pressure between the three c)to maintain oil tank pressure greater Para 1
than other two d)AOTA

9. Some breathers may have a -------- to prevent oil leakage during flight C 2 EASA
maneuvers Page 10.8
a) swing check valve b) NRV c)baffle Para 3
d) deaerator

10. Scavenge oil generally flow past chip detector, reason is ? A 2 EASA
a) to trap magnetic particle b) to indicate impending failure c) to warn the Page 10.9
AME d) AOTA Para 4

15.11 FUEL SYSTEM

1. FADEC stands for-------------- B 2 EASA
a) Full authority digital engine control. b) Full authority digital Electronic Page 11.2
control. c) Full authority data electronic control. d) False aided data entry collector. Para 5

2. Regardless of the type, all fuel controls accomplish the same function. The function is? D 2 EASA
a) to schedule fuel flow. b) to match the power required. c) as desired by the Page 11.2
pilot. d) AOTA. Para 8

3. A -------- supplies a signal to the EEC that indicates an almost clogged filter condition. A 2 EASA
a)oil filter differential switch b) fuel filter differential switch c)W/M differential Page 11.4
switch d)AOTA Para 2

4. The main fuel pump on a turbine engine is ---------driven A 2 EASA

a) engine b) APU c)both d) none Page 11.10
Para 1
5. The design of fuel spray nozzles is closely related to the type of ……………….? A 2 EASA
a) Combustion chamber. b) fuel pump. c) fuel control. d) nozzle vane. Page 11.12
Para 5
6. Any jettisoned fuel is indicated on fuel counter as fuel still ------------------ for use? B 2 EASA
a) not available b) available c) either a or b. d) both a & b. Page 11.15
Para 5
7. Any fuel that leaks from upstream of the fuel flow meter is? B 2 EASA
a) counted. b) not counted. c) counted differently. d) integrally counted. Page 11.15
Para 5
8. Combustion drain valve faulty then? D 2 EASA
a) hot start in next start. b) after fire after shut down. c) both A & B can occur. d) Page 11.15
either a or b. Para 3

9. The fuel nozzles can be constructed to be installed in various ways .The two C 2 EASA
methods use quite frequently are Page 11.13
a)external mounting b)internally mounting c) either a or b d) both a and b. Para 2
10. The filter in simplex nozzle is made up of? B 2 EASA
a)Threaded screen b)fine - mesh screen c)paper screen d)felt screen. Page 11.13
Para 4
11. For providing optimum spray for good combustion -------type of nozzles are B 2 EASA
used. Page 11.13
a)simplex b)duplex c)air blast d)lucoboc. Para 6

12. The primary advantage of air blast is? C 2 EASA

a)lower working pressure b)lighter pumps c)both a&b d)nota. Page 11.11
Para 1
13. The purpose of LP filter is to ? D 2 EASA
a)protect EDP b)protect various control devices c)to protect last chance filters in Page 11.11
spray nozzle d)both a&b. Para 4

14. The porous cellulose material frequently use in filter cartridges is capable of B 2 EASA
removing foreign matter from --------to-------microns. Page 11.12
a)15-25 b)10-25 c)20-25 d)25-30. Para 1

15. Wf/P3 , P3 stands for? A EASA

a) Compressor discharge pressure b)LP compressor outlet pressure. c) Fan outlet Page 11.4
pressure. d) AOTA. Para 3

16. Rapid acceleration can lead to? D 2 EASA

a) rich blowout. b) lean flame out. c) compressor stall. d) both a & c.. Page 11.2
Para 4
17. Channel B sensor signals are………? B 2 EASA
a) blue b) green c) gray d) yellow. Page 11.9
Para 2
18. The non-EEC circuit wire is …………? C 2 EASA
a) blue b) green c) gray d) yellow. Page 11.9
Para2

Module 15 QUESTION BANK part II

Sl no Question GTE –II Ans leve Book/Page
wer l No
MODULE 15 SUB MODULE 12 ENGINE AIR SYSTEM (FAAH-8033-
32 (12A)

1. 3)The large surplus of air cools the hot sections of the engine to A (12-2 p2.)
acceptable temperatures ranging from ---------to-----------°F. 2
a)1500-2100 b)1000-2000 c)800-1000 d)2100-2500.

2. 4)---------&------------anti ice systems are common and well suited B (12-3 p4)
for small aircraft. 2
a)pneumatic and hydraulic b)electrical and chemical c)pneumatic
and electrical d) hydraulic and electrical.
3. 5) i)Cooling zones are divided into zone 1,zone2, zone3,zone4. D (12-2
ii)Zone 3 is the area around the high pressure compressor to 2 p10,11,12)
the turbine cases. (12-2 LL)
a)i is true b)ii is false c) i true &ii false d) i false & ii true.

4. Zone -1 air is ____? d Faa 8083

a) Around fan case b) accessory case c) EEC d) AOTA 2 Page 6-40
para 2
5. If air is taken from the compressor for air conditioning or anti-icing. b Jepp
A. thrust will increase EGT will increase. 2 Page 9-2
B. thrust will decrease EGT will increase.
C. thrust will decrease EGT will decrease.
6. Turbine case cooling utilizes. b Jepp
A. LP compressor air. 2 Page 9-2
B. fan air.
C. H.P compressor air.
7. Air for anti-icing is taken from the. c Jepp
A. accessory Gearbox. 2 Page 9-2
B. LP compressor.
C. H.P compressor.
8. As air is bled off the engine, EGT will. c Jepp
A. remain constant. 2 Page 9-2
B. decrease.
C. increase.
MODULE 15.13 A STARTING SYSTEM( SUB MODULE 13)

1. Most gas turbine engines are equipped with a high c EASA

energy ,----------------- ignition system and are air cooled by fan 2 (13-17 Q5)
air flow.
a)magneto type b)self exited type c)capacitor type d)direct
type.

2. The igniter plug of a turbine engine ignition system carries C EASA

---------- current than a spark plug of a reciprocating engine 2 (13-17 Q6)
ignition system
a)less b) equal c) more d)NOTA .

3. To accomplish a cartridge , a cartridge is first placed in the a EASA/M15

------------. 2 (13-2 P4 CL)
a)breech cap b)fire cap c)electric handle d)turn handle .
4. The cartridge is ignited by applying voltage through the connector d EASA/M15
at the end of the ------------handle . 2 (13-2 P4 LL)
a)fire b)breech c)cartridge d) connector.

5. Starter generator system has a special second series windings that c EASA/M15
allows to switch to a ----------------after engine has reached self 2 (13-3 P3LL)
sustaining speed.
a)synchronous motor b) series motor c) generator d)any of the
above.
6. Self sustaining RPM means that. C Dl/cran
A. The engine can accelerate to full power in under 5 seconds. 2 p-495
B. There is sufficient power for ground manoeuvring.
C. The engine will run independently of external help.

7. A 'hot start' with excessive temperatures may be caused by. B Dl/cran

A. wrong grade of fuel. 2 p-519
B. throttle partly open.
C. high electrical power supply.
MODULE 15.13 B IGNITION SYSTEM( SUB MODULE 13)
2
1. When is ignition used?. A RR 127
A. For relight and start up. 2
B. For continuous relight.
C. At high altitudes.
2. An ignitor plug for a large gas turbine takes the form of a. C RR121
A. glow' plug. 2
B. sparking plug.
C. surface discharge plug.

3. The grommet seal should be free of -----------and carbon tracking C (13-14 P4 CL)
a)arcing b)cracks c)flash over d) NOTA. 2
4. Inspect the complete system for D (13-14 4 LL)
a) security of mounting b) short or high voltage arcing c) loose 2
connections d)AOTA
15.14 MODULE 15 SUB MODULE 14 TURBINE ENGINE
INSTRUNMENTATION
1. EGT, TIT, TGT, ITT,TOT are all relative temperatures used to monitor A EASA
the temperature of the exhaust gases 2 SM 14
entering…………………………………. . (Q1
a) first stage turbine inlet guide vanes. b) last stage turbine inlet guide
vanes. c) intermediate stage turbine inlet guide vanes. d) exhaust
propelling nozzles.
2. Which turbine engine gauge is used to indicate the thrust developed ? B EASA
a) engine power ratio gauge. b) EPR ( engine pressure ratio) gauge. c) 2 SM 14
OP&T gauge. d) compressor pressure ratio gauge. (Q2)

3. Fuel flow is interest in monitoring fuel …………………. And C EASA

checking engine performance.) 2 SM 14
a) flow b) weight c) consumption d) heat. (Q5)

4. Vibration monitors on turbine engines generally track D EASA

……………………………. Imbalance. 2 SM 14
a) stator b) compressor c) turbine d) rotor. (Q6)

5. N2 refers to in two spool engine. B EASA

a) LP compressor spool speed. b) HP compressor spool speed. c) 2 SM 14
propeller speed. d) fan speed . (q7)
6. What type of engine use torquemeter? B EASA
a) TJE b) TPE C) TSE d) TFE. 2 SM 14
(Q 8)

7. Temperature is an engine operating limit and is used to monitor the C EASA

mechanical integrity of the ……………………? 2 SM 14
a) combustor b) compressor c) turbine d) exhaust nozzle. (14-2 p2FL)
8. That drives the indicator pointer in EGT system? B EASA
a) energizer b) servomotor c) tiny thermocouple voltage d) servo- 2 SM 14
transmitter. (14-2 P2 CL)

9. In EGT indicator instruments scale ranges from ……. To D EASA

……………..? 2 SM 14
a) 0 to 1000 °C b) 0 to 850 °C c) 0 to 1500 °C d) 0 to 1200 °C. (14-2 P4CL)

10. If Thermo couple material colour coded Is________ & _________ ? D Treager
a) Alumel is white, chromel is black. b) Alumel is red, chromel is 2 641
black. C) Alumel is white, chromel is red. d) Alumel is green, chromel
is white.
11. In thermo couple Alumel stud is ______ diameter & Chromel Stud is B Treager
________ diameter? 2 641
a) Smaller, larger. b) Larger, smaller. C) Same size. d) can not say
depends on a/c to a/c.
12. Turbine engine tachometers are typically -------------- B EASA
or-----------------. 2 SM 14
a)Electric or mechanical b)electric or probe c)electronic or probe (14-5 P2 FL)
type d)mechanical or probe type.
13. Tachometer probes output signals may be used as input for D EASA
----------- ? 2 SM 14
a)Automatic power control system b)Flight data (14-6 P4 LL)
acquisition system
c)cockpit digital display d)AOTA
14. Engine oil pressure indicator usually shows engine oil pump A EASA
----------- pressure. 2 SM 14
a)Discharge b) inlet c)inlet but before cooler d)discharge but (14-6 P7 FL)
after cooler.

15. Piezo –electric sensors are used in ------------- A

a)Vibration monitoring b)rpm monitoring c)fan speed 2
monitoring d) Turbine speed monitoring.

MODULE 15 ( SUB MODULE 15) EASA

POWER AUGUMENTATION SYSTEM 2 SM 15
(Q1)
1. Power augmentation system such as after burner is used to C EASA
increase ---------------------. 2 SM 15
a)Drag b)speed c)thrust d)NOTA (Q2)

2. There are two principal problems related to after burner systems A EASA
---------------&--------------- 2 SM 15
 a) Extreme heat in exhaust ducts & very high fuel flow rates (Q4)
.
b) Extreme cold in exhaust duct and very high fuel flow
rates.
c)Extreme heat in exhaust ducts and very low fuel flow rates.
d) NOTA

3. How is rpm maintained during a water injection cycle? D RR175

a) By speed governor. b) by water pressure c) by fuel pressure d) 2
As in a and b.

4. When reheat is used, effect on E.P.R. is -------? B JPPEN

a) is reduced. 2 7-41
b) remains constant.
c) is increased.
5. Water methanol for cooling is injected into the. A JPPEN
a) compressor inlet or outlet. 2 7-41
b) engine hot zone.
c) combustion chamber.
6. Water methanol injection will increase thrust by up to. C JPPEN
a) 70%. 2 7-41
b) 50%.
c) 30%.
7. Injection of water/methanol into compressor inlet causes. B RR169
a)increase in power due to the burning of methanol alone. 2
b) increase in power without the need for burning extra fuel.
c) increased efficiency of the engine due to reduced icing in the airflow.
8. Reheat is the term used to describe. A JPPEN
a) adding fuel in the exhaust section. 2 7-39
b) adding of fuel in the turbine section.
c) adding of fuel in the compressor section.
d) adding water- methanol in compressor section
9. Water or water/methanol injected into the combustion chamber inlet A EASA
increases. 2 SM-16
a) mass airflow through the turbine. (q1)
b) combustion chamber outlet temperatures.
c) fuel to air ratio by up to 20%.
MODULE 15 SUB MODULE 16 TURBO PROP ENGIEN

1. Turbo-propeller control assemblies have a feathering system that A EASA

feather the propeller when_____________ ? 2 SM-16
a) engine is shut down on ground b) the engine is shut down in flight (Q4)
c) when engine goes out in auto mode d) when the engine comes into
manual mode.
2. An ______________ is the backup for the propeller governor and is C EASA
mounted on the reduction gearbox. 2 SM-16
a) under speed governor. b) on speed governor c) over speed governor (Q5)
d) stable speed governor.
3. What aspect of operation always remains constant on a turbo prop B EASA
engine in flight? 2 SM-16
 a) fuel flow b) engine RPM c) propeller blade angle d) EGT. (Q8)
4. A propeller brake will only operate when the engine is in what A FAA-H
operational condition? 2 8083-32
a) When the engine is shut down ( turned off) b) During start c) in 1-54
flight as desired by pilot d) NOTA.
5. A free turbine is usually found on a. C RR 5
a) turbo-jet. 2
b) turbo-fan.
c) turbo prop.
6. Torque measurement is taken from the. A RR98
a) reduction gearbox. 2
b) prop shaft.
c) free turbine shaft.
7. Fuel trimming on a turboprop engine is. B RR98
a) pilot controlled. 2
b) governor controlled.
c) automatic.
8. What controls the fuel trimmer on a turboprop engine?. C RR98
a) The blade angle. 2
b) Propeller Control Unit.
c) Engine Speed Governor.
9. What is the purpose of the reduction gear on a propeller driven engine?. C 10-56
a) To maintain a constant propeller blade speed. 2 FAA-H
b) To enable torque measurement. 8083-32
c) To prevent the propeller tips reaching the speed of sound.
10. If an E.P.R gauge is installed on turbofans as a measure of power B 10-56
output, what is used on a turboprop?. 2 FAA-H
a) E.P.R gauge. 8083-32
b) Torque-meter.
c) Thermocouples.
MODULE 15 SUB MODULE 17 TURBO SHAFT ENGIEN

1. At what rpm would a spray clutch engage on a turbo shaft engine? A EASA
a) At zero rpm ( in the event of an engine seizure) b) At zero rpm ( in 2 SM-17
the event of an engine start) c)At max rpm ( in the event of an engine (Q4)
seizure) d) At max rpm ( in the event of an engine start).
2. Turbo shaft engine are ideal for helicopter operation because of their D Jepp
_______________ & __________ ? 2 2-6
a) Large size, light weight b) smaller size, heavy weight
c) Large size, heavy weight d) small size, light weight.
3. On a twin spool turbo-shaft engine, the free turbine is connected to the. a Jepp
a) output gearbox. b) L.P gearbox. c) H.P gearbox. 2 2-6
4. Gas generator consist of ______ ? D EASA
a) compressor b) combustion chamber c) ignitors & fuel nozzle, & 2 17.2
turbine/s. d) AOTA.
5. The power section consist of D EASA
a) turbine. b) reduction gear c) drive shaft d)AOTA. 2 17.2
6. About ___ of energy produced by a H/C turbo shaft engine is used to B EASA
operate the gas generator. 2 17.2
a) 1/3 b) 2/3 c) 4/3 d) 5/3
7. The output shaft may be coupled directly to the engine turbine, or the D EASA
shaft may be driven by a turbine of its own is called ………. ? 2 17.2
a) power turbine b) free turbine c) work turbine d) AOTA.
8. The turboshaft engine's output is measured in ……………… instead of A EASA
thrust because the power output is a turning shaft. 2 17.2
a) horsepower b) KW c) Newton d) AOTA.
9. The drive shaft consists of a shaft with two flexible couplings attached B EASA
at each end. The shaft turns at high speed of ……..? 2 17.2
a) 7 000 to 30 000 rpm b) 6 000 to 30 000 rpm c) 10 000 to 30 000 rpm
d) 8 000 to 30 000 rpm
MODULE 15 SUB MODULE 18 APU

1. An A.P.U has. C Honeywell

a) automatically controlled thrust and is self contained. 2 331-200
b) variable speed and is self contained. A.P.U
c) constant speed and is self contained.
2. An A.P.U shut down is initiated by. B JEPP
a) high oil pressure, fire warning, hot oil temperature. 2 7-25
b) low oil pressure, fire warning, hot oil temperature.
c) low oil pressure, fire warning.
3. An A.P.U start cycle is completed at. C JEPP
a) 100% RPM. 2 7-23
b) 75% RPM.
c) 95% RPM.
4. Frequently, an aircraft's auxiliary power unit (A.P.U) generator. A JEPP
a) is identical to the engine-driven generators. 2 3-37
b) has a higher load capacity than the engine-driven generators.
c) supplements the aircraft's engine-driven generators during peak
loads.
5. An A.P.U is usually rotated during start by. C JEPP
a) a pneumatic starter. 2 3-37
b) a turbine impingement system.
c) an electric starter.
6. When in operation, the speed of an A.P.U. A JEPP
a) remains at or near rated speed regardless of the load condition. 2 3-37
b) remains at idle and automatically accelerates to rated speed when
placed under load.
c) is controlled by a cockpit power lever.
7. Generally, when maximum A.P.U shaft output power is being used in C Dl/cran
conjunction with pneumatic power. 2 p-495
a) electrical loading will be automatically modulated to maintain a safe
E.G.T.
b) temperature limits and loads must be carefully monitored by the
operator to maintain a safe E.G.T.
c) pneumatic loading will be automatically modulated to maintain a
safe E.G.T.
8. When the A.P.U is running and pneumatics are on. B APU HAND
a) bleed valve is closed, surge valve is open. 2 BOOK
b) bleed valve is open, surge valve is closed.
c) bleed valve is open, surge valve is modulating.
9. When is the A.P.U at its greatest load?. B MM
a) With generator loads on line. 2 B 757/767
b) With bleeds closed.
c) With bleeds open and with generator loads on line.
10. One of the accessories driven from the A.P.U gearbox in a centrifugal b Honey
switch, the purpose of which is to. 2 well 331-200
a) arm the governed speed indication circuits and max. RPM governor. A.P.U hand
b) cancel the ignition circuits and arm the overspeed protection circuits. book
c) control starting and automatic extinguishing circuits.
11. What iniates A.P.U shutdown?. a Jepp
a) Fire detection, low oil pressure, high oil temperature. 2 3-37.
b) Overspeed, fire detection, low oil quantity.
c) Low oil pressure, low oil pressure, high oil temperature.
12. Why is an APU typically turned on prior to landing? A EASA
a) To take over the main engine’s pneumatic burden b) Allow full 2 SM18
engine power in case of an aborted landing c) Both A&B P-18-9
Q8
15.19 MODULE 15 SUB MODULE 19 POWER PLANT
INTALLATION
1. Pipes, electrical cables and associated components of a fire-detection C AMT M15
system should be. 2 P20-3
a) fire resistant. b) fire proof. c) fire retardant.
2. The minimum bend radius for a continuous loop type fire wire is. B AMT M15
a) 1/2 inch. b) 1 inch.. c) 1/8 inch 2 P20-6
3. An aircraft has a heavy landing and on inspection of the engine B CAIP P-2
mounting bolts the bolts torque loading has reduced, you should. 2 EL-3-10
a) add washers to take up any gap or slackness and re-torque to correct
value.
b) remove bolt and carry out inspection as the bolt may have increased
in length due to heavy landing.
c) re-torque bolt up to correct torque value.
4. Forward engine mounts take which loads?. A CAIP P-2
a) Thrust, vertical and shear loads. b) Centrifugal, thrust and axial. 2 EL-3-10
c) Thrust, vertical and impact.
5. Noise lining in the fan area is made from. B 2 RR-205
a) layers of bonded resin.
b) porous type Honeycomb and backing sheet.
c) felt with aluminium sheet.
6. A powerplant consists of. C 2 RR-243
a) a basic engine plus E.C.U. PARA-1
b) a basic engine plus thrust reverser, exhaust system and gear box with
accessories.
c) the complete engine as it would be found on aircraft including all
connections, controls, cowlings, intake etc.
7. Acoustic blankets are installed to. A 2 AMT M15
a) reduce noise levels. P-19.3
b) increase thermal efficiency.
c) aid the streamlining of the engine.
8. What are sometimes installed in an engine mounting system to tune out C 2 APU’S
the worst engine vibrations?. USE
 a) Spring cushioned mounting pads.
b) Vibration absorbers of calibrated weight.
c) Rubber encased wire-mesh vibration isolators.
9. Where are the lifting points on a high bypass turbine engine?. C 2 K&W
A. On the fan and compressor casing. P-383
B. On the fan, turbine and compressor casing.
C. On the fan and turbine casing.
10. A_______________ is a partition between the engine power plant D 2 EASA
installation and the aircraft. M15
a) Firewall b) Separation wall c) Bulk head d) AOTA. (Q1)
11. Wiring at terminal lugs or connectors should have sufficient slack to D 2 EASA
allow _________ re-terminations with out replacement of wires. M15
a) 01 b) 03 c) 05 d) 02 (19-13 p1 cl)
12. wherever wires cannot be clamped, in a way that ensures at least a C 2 EASA
____________ inch clearance from structure at penetrations. M15
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3/8 d) 1/8. (19-12 P1
LL)
MODULE15 SUB MODULE 20 FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM
1. A complete fire protection system includes both a fire detection and a C 2 EASA
fire___________ system. M15
a) Protection b) detection c) Extinguishing d) sensing. (20-19 Q2)

2. A__________________ detector or sensing system permits more D 2 EASA

complete coverage of a fire hazard area than any of the spot – type M15
temperature detector. (20-19 Q3)
a) Thermo couple b) thermal switch c) temperature raise detector
d) continuous – loop.

3. After a fire is extinguished, or overheat condition removed in aircraft B JEPP

equipped with a Systron-Donner fire detector, the detection system. 2 11-7
a) must be manually reset.
b) automatically resets.
c) sensing component must be replaced.
4. What retains the nitrogen charge and fire extinguishing agent in a high B JEPP
rate of discharge (HRD) container?. 2 11-15
a) Pressure gauge and cartridge.
b) Breakable disk or fusible disk.
c) Pressure switch and check tee valve.
5. The use of water on class D fires. A JEPP
a) will cause the fire to burn more violently and can cause explosions. 2 11-12
b) has no effect.
c) is most effective if sprayed in a fine mist.
6. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an electrical fire is. C JEPP
a) carbon tetrachloride. b) methyl bromide. 2 11-13
c) carbon dioxide.
7. Omission of crushable washer on engine fire-wire connector will. B JEPP
a) allow moisture ingress. b) affect fire wire continuity. 2 11-10
c) affect fire wire capacitance.
8. The Kidde Fault Free Fire detection system has how many internal C JEPP
wires in the sensing element?. 2 12-5
 a) 1. b) 3. c) 2 d) 4.
9. On a fire bottle, if the indicator pin was protruding, this would indicate. B CAIP
a) the bottle is under weight. 2 AL/3-10
b) extinguisher had been fired.
c) an over pressure had occurred in the bottle.
MODULE 15 SUB MODULE 21 OPERATION AND
MAINTENANCE
1. During a typical turbine engine start, It is necessary to monitor the A EASA
tachometer, the oil pressure, and the _________________ ? 2 M15(21-
a) EGT b) OAT c)OIT d)FIT 21Q1)
2. Why is FOD ( foreign object damage) a greater problem for turbine D 2 EASA
engine than it is for reciprocating engine? M1521-21
a) Intake airflow is more powerful b) can lift objects off the ramp Q14)
c) feed them in to the engine d) AOTA.
3. Who establishes the recommended operating time between overhauls B 2 JEPP
(T.B.O) of a gas turbine engine. 3-27
a) The engine manufacturer.
b) The operator (utilizing manufacturer data and trend analysis)
working 2in conjunction with the Airworthiness Authority.
c) The Airworthiness Authority alone.
4. A hung start is indicated by the. B 2 Jepp
a) exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits. 4-7.
b) fails to reach idle RPM. c) RPM exceeds specified operating speed.
5. What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine? A 2 JEPP
a) Starter, ignition, fuel. b) Starter, fuel, ignition. 4-7
c) Ignition, starter, fuel.
6. Foreign object damage on a compressor, when boroscoping, is B 2 JEPP
indicated by. 5-13
a) tip curl. b) nicks and scores. c)flats.
7. When starting a turbine engine, the starter should be disengaged. C 2 JEPP
a) only after the engine has reached full idle RPM. 4-7
b) when the ignition and fuel system are activated.
c) after the engine has reached self-sustaining speed.
8. If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff E.P.R before its E.G.T C 2 K&W
limit is reached, this is an indication that the. P-643
a) fuel control must be replaced.
b) E.G.T controller is out of adjustment.
c) compressor may be contaminated or damaged.
9. When the engine is not running, and engine blanks are installed. The C 2 JEPP
E.P.R gauge shows 1.0, then. 12-17
a) the transmitter is faulty. b)the receiver is faulty. FIG12-12A
c) it is normal.
15-22 ENGINE STORAGE AND PRESERVATION
1. When an installed engine is not to be used for a period of up to 7 days. B CAIP
a) it is necessary to inhibit the engine. b) it is only necessary to blank 2 EL/3-14
off all apertures. c) run the engine as prescribed in the Flight Manual.
2. Installed engines must be re-preserved after preservation at least every. C CAIP
a) six weeks. b) six days. c) six months. 2 EL/3-14
3. On storage of an engine, the desiccant is. B CAIP
a) looked at within 24 hrs if its blue its OK. 2 EL/3-14
 b) looked at 24 hrs later if its blue its OK.
c) looked at 24 hrs later if blue it should be replaced.
4. After placing an engine into storage, details would be recorded in. B CAIP
a) Technical Log. b) Engine log book. c) Aircraft log book. 2 EL/3-14
5. An engine in storage for 7 days should. C CAIP
a) have storage oil placed in engine. 2 EL/3-14
b) be run twice in that week.
c) be fitted with covers and blanks and apertures cover.
6. With an engine in storage, desiccant is used. C A&C
a) as an insecticide. b) as a corrosion inhibitor. 2 EA-AC65
c) to remove moisture from the air. P-389
7. Small cuts in a M.V.P. engine storage bag can be repaired. A Dec 2018
a) with adhesive PVC tape. b) by vulcanizing. 2 Dgca
c) by replacing M.V.P.
8. When removing an engine for long-term storage, bleed valves should C NIL
be. 2
a) removed. b) locked closed. c) open but blanked.
9. The external and internal surfaces of the engine are also protected by D RR
a) special inhibiting powders b) by paper impregnated with inhibiting 20/3 2 p-275
powder c) paper oil dipped d) both a & b.
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