Edition 2020-21

Environmental
Engineering
PEN-Drive / G-Drive Course & LIVE Classroom Program

Workbook

Civil Engineering

GATE / ESE / PSUs

Environmental Engineering
PEN-Drive / G-Drive Course & LIVE Classroom Program

Workbook
Civil

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GATE ACADEMY ®

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Edition : 2020-21

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 GATE Syllabus
Water and Waste Water: Quality standards, basic unit processes and operations for water
treatment. Drinking water standards, water requirements, basic unit operations and unit processes
for surface water treatment, distribution of water. Sewage and sewerage treatment, quantity and
characteristics of wastewater. Primary, secondary and tertiary treatment of wastewater, effluent
discharge standards. Domestic wastewater treatment, quantity of characteristics of domestic
wastewater, primary and secondary treatment. Unit operations and unit processes of domestic
wastewater, sludge disposal.
Air Pollution: Types of pollutants, their sources and impacts, air pollution meteorology, air
pollution control, air quality standards and limits.
Municipal Solid Wastes: Characteristics, generation, collection and transportation of solid wastes,
engineered systems for solid waste management (reuse/ recycle, energy recovery, treatment and
disposal).
Noise Pollution: Impacts of noise, permissible limits of noise pollution, measurement of noise and
control of noise pollution.

ESE Syllabus
(a) Water Supply Engineering : Sources, Estimation, quality standards and testing of water and
their treatment; Rural, Institutional and industrial water supply; Physical, chemical and
biological characteristics and sources of water, Pollutants in water and its effects, Estimation
of water demand; Drinking water Standards, Water Treatment Plants, Water distribution
networks.
(b) Waste Water Engineering : Planning & design of domestic waste water, sewage collection
and disposal; Plumbing Systems. Components and layout of sewerage system; Planning &
design of Domestic Waste-water disposal system; Sludge management including treatment,
disposal and re-use of treated effluents; Industrial waste waters and Effluent Treatment
Plants including institutional and industrial sewage management.
(c) Solid Waste Management : Sources & classification of solid wastes along with planning &
design of its management system; Disposal system, Beneficial aspects of wastes and
Utilization by Civil Engineers.
(d) Air, Noise pollution and Ecology : Concepts & general methodology.
 Table of Contents

Sr. Chapter Pages

1. Water Demand, Population Forecasting, Sources of Water ………….……. 1

2. Quality Parameters of Water ……………………………………..………………………. 5

3. Treatment of Water………………………………………………………………...…………. 13

4. Distribution and Conveyance System …………………..……………………………. 26

5. Waste Water Characteristics …………………………………………………………..…. 30

6. Sewage System & Sewer Appurtenances ………………..…………………………. 35

7. Treatment of Sewage ………………………………..………………………………………. 39

8. Disposal of Sewage Effluent ………………………………………………………………. 51

9. Solid Waste Management ………………………………………………….………………. 54

10. Air Pollution ………………………………………………………………………………………. 59

11. Noise Pollution …………………………………………………….……………………………. 66

 Video Lecture Information
Sr. Lecture Name Duration
0 Motivation and Guidance 0:24:25
Water Demand, Population Forecasting, Sources of Water
1 Rate of Demand, Types of Demand, Per Capita Consumption Factors 0:37:23
2 Fire Demand 0:10:13
3 Variation in Demand (Maximum Daily Demand, Maximum Hourly Demand) 0:33:45
4 Workbook Question Number 1 and 2 0:17:11
5 Population Forecasting Methods - Arithmetic Increase Method 0:28:40
6 Geometric Increase Method 0:20:12
7 Incremental Increase Method 0:11:59
8 Logistic Curve Method & Decreasing Rate Of Growth Method 0:32:02
Simple Graphical Method, Comparative Study Graphical Method, Master Plan
9 0:17:19
Method
10 Sources Of Water - Surface Sources 0:31:16
11 Sources Of Water-Subsurface Sources 0:23:05
12 Workbook Question Number 7, 8 and 9 0:10:14
Quality Parameters of Water
1 Quality of Water (Physical Parameters) 0:54:09
2 Workbook Question Number 1, 2 and 3 0:06:54
3 Quality of Water( Chemical Parameters) Part 1 0:56:25
4 Workbook Question Number 4 to 8 & Assignment Question Number 1 0:28:03
5 Quality of Water (Chemical Parameters) Part 2 0:46:29
6 Workbook Question Number 9 to 17 0:43:41
7 Quality Of Water (Biological Parameters) 0:50:48
8 Workbook Question Number 18 and 19 & Assignment Question Number 2 0:19:21
Treatment of Water
1 Treatment of Water-Screening, Aeration 0:47:28
2 Sedimentation 0:42:46
3 Plain Sedimentation Horizontal Flow Type Tank 1:09:51
4 Workbook Question Number 2 to 8 0:37:35
5 Vertical Flow Type Tank 0:18:52
6 Workbook Question Number 9 and 31 0:09:06
7 Sedimentation Aided with Coagulation 0:34:06
8 Types Of Coagulants 0:22:33
9 Alum 0:45:38
10 Workbook Question Number 10, 32 and 33 0:29:58
11 Clariflocculator 0:43:33
12 Workbook Question Number 11 to 15 0:19:30
13 Filtration 0:23:18
14 Slow Sand Gravity Filter 0:19:21
15 Rapid Sand Gravity Filter 0:56:45
16 Workbook Question Number 16-20 0:21:10
 17 Workbook Question Number 21-23 & 30 0:37:47
18 Pressure Filter 0:51:53
19 Disinfection - Types Of Disinfectants 0:52:03
20 Chlorination 0:30:10
21 Workbook Question Number 23 to 29 0:41:08
22 Workbook Assignment Question Number 4 and 5 0:11:09
23 Types of Chlorination 1:01:09
24 Water Softening 1:02:29
25 Desalination, Defluoridation 0:40:58
26 Workbook Question Number 34 and 35 0:24:26
Distribution and Conveyance System
1 Layout Of Distribution Networks 0:55:23
2 Methods of Distribution, Types of Distribution Reservoirs 0:29:33
3 Storage Capacity of Distribution Reservoirs 0:24:38
4 Workbook Assignment Question Number 1 0:17:06
5 Detection of Leaks in Underground Distribution Pipes 0:14:05
6 Pipe Appurtenances 0:31:28
7 Workbook Question Number 3 to 7 0:09:51
8 Analysis Of Complex Pipe Networks 0:18:33
9 Workbook Assignment Question Number 2 0:29:33
Waste Water Characteristics
1 Physical Characteristics of Waste water 0:25:29
2 Chemical Characteristics of Waste Water 0:43:49
Dissolved Oxygen, Chemical Oxygen Demand, Theoretical Oxygen Demand, Total
3 0:22:50
Organic Carbon
4 Biochemical Oxygen Demand 0:50:22
5 Workbook Question Number 2 to 4 0:26:04
6 Workbook Question Number 5 to 11 0:29:41
7 Workbook Question Number 12 to 15 0:17:20
8 Population Equivalent & Relative Stability 0:12:36
9 Workbook Question Number 16 to 19 0:15:42
Sewage System & Sewer Appurtenances
1 Important Definitions & Sewerage System 0:46:05
2 Designing of Sewage System 0:48:45
3 Self Cleansing Velocity & Partial flow Characteristics of Circular Sewer (Part 1) 0:18:23
4 Partial flow Characteristics in Circular Sewer (Half Full) Part 2 0:32:29
5 Workbook Question Number 1 to 6 0:36:21
6 Workbook Assignment Question Number 1 and 2 0:35:33
7 Workbook Assignment Question Number 3 and 4 0:25:27
8 Workbook Assignment Question Number 5 to 7 0:31:07
9 Shapes of Sewer Pipes 0:19:42
10 Sewer Appurtenances 0:44:31
Treatment of Sewage
1 Introduction To Sewage Treatment 0:30:14
2 Screening 0:32:07
 3 Grit Chamber 0:24:57
4 Workbook Assignment Question Number 2 and 3 0:23:37
5 Skimming Tanks 0:15:15
6 Primary Sedimentation Tank 0:20:09
7 Secondary Treatment of Sewage 0:28:15
8 Trickling Filters 0:29:07
9 Operational Troubles In Trickling Filters 0:17:34
10 High Rate Trickling Filters 0:14:35
11 Design Considerations & Design Steps Of Trickling Filters 0:20:48
12 Workbook Assignment Question Number 1 and 2 0:29:45
13 Workbook Assignment Question Number 3 0:20:58
14 Activated Sludge Process 0:38:29
15 Design Considerations in Activated Sludge Process 0:44:13
16 Short Notes 0:21:24
17 Workbook Question Number 1 to 4 0:23:54
18 Workbook Question Number 5 to 8 0:24:16
19 Workbook Assignment Question Number 1 to 3 0:26:02
20 Rotating Biological Contractors 0:12:56
21 Oxidation Pond 0:22:29
22 Design Steps and Design Parameters of Oxidation Pond 0:13:13
23 Workbook Question Number 1 0:18:32
24 Workbook Assignment Question Number 2 to 4 0:36:05
25 Oxidation Ditch 0:10:59
26 Sludge Digestion Tank 0:53:09
27 Factors Affecting Process Of SDT 0:27:37
28 Design Steps of Sludge Digestion Tank 0:17:58
29 Workbook Assignment Question Number 1 and 2 0:35:21
30 Workbook Assignment Question Number 3 0:11:23
31 Septic Tank 0:30:23
32 Soak Pit & Dispersion Trenches 0:18:07
33 Imhoff Tank 0:15:06
34 Workbook Assignment Question Number 1 and 2 0:27:22
35 Workbook Assignment Question Number 3 0:16:11
36 Secondary Sedimentation Tank 0:10:17
Disposal of Sewage Effluent
1 Methods of Disposal 0:40:21
2 Zones of Pollution in River 0:26:44
3 Workbook Question Number 1 to 4 0:27:43
4 Factor Affecting Process Of Self Purification 0:31:11
5 Oxygen Deficit Curve 0:17:54
6 Lake Stratification 0:23:05
7 Workbook Assignment Question Number 1 and 2 0:23:07
8 Workbook Assignment Question Number 3 to 5 0:36:24
Solid Waste Management
1 Introduction To Solid Waste Management 0:30:39
2 Disposal Of Refuse By Landfilling, Pulverization 0:29:17
3 Disposal Of Refuse By Composting, Incineration & Pyrolysis 0:30:57
4 Examination Of solid waste 0:10:55
5 Workbook Question Number 1 to 3 0:20:17
6 Workbook Question Number 4 to 6 0:20:05
7 Workbook Question Number 7 to 9 0:24:20
8 Workbook Nuestion Number 10 and 11 0:13:50
9 Workbook Assignment Question Number 1 and 2 0:16:30
10 Workbook Assignment Question Number 3 and 4 0:21:43
Air Pollution
1 Introduction & Classification of Air Pollutants - Part 1 0:41:01
2 Sources & Classification of Air Pollutants - Part 2 0:29:48
3 Global Warming & Ozone layer Depletion 0:20:28
4 Harmful Effects of Air pollutants 0:19:14
5 Control Devices for Particulate Matter (Part 1) 0:40:03
6 Control Devices for Particulate Matter (Part 2) 0:27:20
7 Control Devices for Gaseous Pollutants 0:15:39
8 Stable & Unstable Environment, Environmental Lapse Rate 0:22:34
9 Negative Lapse Rate & Adiabatic Lapse Rate 0:35:44
10 Plume Behaviour 0:29:50
11 Height of Stack, Plume height, Effective Height of Stack 0:19:36
12 Workbook Question Number 2 to 4 0:24:44
13 Workbook Question Number 5 to 10 0:24:36
14 Workbook Question Number 11 to 14 0:29:55
15 Workbook Assignment Question Number 1 and 2 0:23:18
Noise Pollution
1 Noise Pollution 0:54:07
2 Workbook Question Number 1 to 4 0:18:10
3 Workbook Assignment Question Number 1 to 3 0:31:15
GATE 2019 Questions
1 Question Number 1 0:05:05
2 Question Number 2 0:06:37
3 Question Number 3 0:08:34
4 Question Number 4 0:09:22
5 Question Number 5 0:08:41
6 Question Number 6 0:05:39
7 Question Number 7 0:08:04
8 Question Number 8 0:11:45
9 Question Number 9 0:01:44
10 Question Number 10 0:04:10
11 Question Number 11 0:03:16
 1 Water Demand, Population
Forecasting, Sources of Water

M MCQ & NAT Questions estimated by geometrical increase will

nearly be [ESE : 2015]
Q.1 The town of 2 lakh population is supplied (A) 100000 (B) 125000
with water from a source for which the
(C) 150000 (D) 175000
lowest water level is at 10 m below water
Q.5 The population of a city at previous
vane of town. Water demand is 135 lpcd. If
consecutive census year was 4,00,000,
maximum demand is 1.5 times the average
5,58,500, 7,76,000 and 10,98,500. The
demand, then the power of pump which is
anticipated population at the next census
required (in kW) for the pumping
to the nearest 5,000 would be __________.
operation is _____
[GATE 1991 : IIT Madras]
Q.2 If the population of a city is 3.5 lakhs, the Q.6 Population statistics of a town are given
average water consumption is 300 lpcd, below, the population in the year of 2040
calculate fire demand using Freeman’s using decreasing growth rate method can
formula and capacity of the distribution be given as
system will be
Year Population
(A) 130.86 MLD and 319.86 MLD 1980 30000
(B) 130.86 MLD and 283.5 MLD 1990 36000
(C) 189 MLD and 105 MLD 2000 44000
(D) 189 and 319.86 MLD 2010 50000
Q.3 The present population of a community is 2020 58000
28000 with an average water consumption
(A) 100000 (B) 85000
of 4200 m3 /d . The existing water treatment
(C) 75500 (D) 50000
plant has a design capacity of 6000 m3 /d . It
Q.7 Which of the following would contain
is expected that the population will water with the maximum amount of
increase to 44000 during the next 20 years. turbidity? [ESE : 1996]
The number of years from now when the (A) Lakes (B) Oceans
plant will reach its design capacity, (C) Rivers (D) Wells
assuming an arithmetic rate of population Q.8 Which of the following statements are
growth, will be correct
(A) 5.5 years (B) 8.6 years 1. Groundwater is generally free from
(C) 15.0 years (D) 16.5 years suspended and dissolved impurities
[GATE 2004 : IIT Delhi] 2. Suspended matters often contain
Q.4 The population of a city in the year 2000 pathogenic bacteria
was 82,300. If average percent increase in 3. Rain water is soft and tasteless
population per decade is 35%, the 4. Lake water may contain microscopic
population of the city in the year 2020 organisms
 2 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Select the correct answer using the codes Q.4 If the average water consumption of a city
given below [ESE : 2001] is 270 lpcd and its population is 5,00,000.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 2 Then the maximum daily draft and
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4 maximum hourly draft will be
Q.9 Consider the following statements : (A) 135 MLD and 202.5 MLD
1. Infiltration galleries are placed along (B) 202.5 MLD and 135 MLD
the river beds at a depth of 4 to 6 m (C) 243 MLD and 364.5 MLD
2. The drawdown for the infiltration (D) 202.5 MLD and 243 MLD
galleries is more than that for redial Q.5 On which of the following factors, does the
wells population growth in a town normally
3. Clogging of pipe pores in infiltration depend?
galleries is less than that for radial 1. Birth and death rates
wells 2. Migrations
4. The cost of extracting unit volume of 3. Probabilistic growth
water is more in case of infiltration 4. Logistic growth
galleries as compared to radial wells. Select the correct answer using the codes
Which of the following statements given given below :
above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 2
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 4 only Q.6 The population figures in a growing town
are as follows :
P Practice Questions
Year Population
Q.1 Which one of the following factors has the
maximum effect on figure of per capita 1970 40,000
demand of water supply of a given below? 1980 46,000
(A) Method of charging of the 1990 53,000
consumption
2000 58,000
(B) Quality of water
(C) System of supply intermittent or The predicted population in 2010 by
continuous Arithmetic Regression method is
(D) Industrial demand (A) 62, 000 (B) 63,000
(C) 64,000 (D) 65,000
Q.2 Consider the following statements :
Q.7 Population levels over 5 decades of a small
The daily per capita consumption of water
town are given below :
apparently increases with
1. Higher standard of living of people. Year Population
2. Availability of sewerage in the city. 1960 2,25,000
3. Metered water supply.
1970 2,80,000
4. Wholesome and potable quality of
1980 3,40,000
water.
Which of these statements are correct? 1990 4,20,000
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 2000 4,90,000
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
The population of the town in the year 2020
Q.3 If average population of a city is 2 lakhs.
estimated by arithmetic increase method
The average water consumption is 270
will be
lpcd. Then the filter and pumps will be
(A) 5,10,000 (B) 5,90,000
designed for __________ MLD.
(C) 6,22,500 (D) 6,90,000
GATE ACADEMY ® Water Demand, Population Forecasting, Sources of Water 3

Q.8 Estimate the future population of a town in 3. Upstream of the populated city
2051 by geometrical increase method : 4. Near navigational channel
Year Population (thousand) Which of these are correct ?
1951 350 (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
1961 466
1971 996 A Assignment Questions
1981 1960 Q.1 Fire demand in lpcd for town with a
1991 2130 population of 2 lakhs assuming that on an
average fire accident occur per month
2001 2296
which lasts for 4 hours. Use national board
Q.9 The populations of 5 decades from 1930 to of underwriters formula.
1970 are given below in below table. Find (A) 20 lpcd (B) 5 lpcd
out the population after one, two and three (C) 2.25 lpcd (D) 10 lpcd
decades beyond the last known decade, by Q.2 The population records of a city are given
using incremental increase method. below. It is exerted to supply water in 2021
Year Population at the rate of 335 lpcd, then find average
1930 25000 daily demand in 2021.Use Arithmetic
Increase Method
1940 28000
Year Population
1950 34000
1961 1,00,000
1960 42000
1971 1,12,000
1970 47000 1981 1.32,000
Q.10 In two periods each of 20 years, a town has 1991 1,50,000
grown from 40000 to 160000 and then to 2021 ?
280000. The saturation population is
__________. (A) 50 MLD (B) 67 MLD
Q.11 The populations of 5 decades from 1930 to (C) 88 MLD (D) None of these
1970 are given below in table. Find out the Q.3 The populations of 5 decades from 1930 to
population after one, two and three 1970 are given below in below table. Find
decades beyond the last known decade, by out the population after one, two and three
decreasing rate of growth method. decades beyond the last known decade, by
Year Population using geometric increase method.
Year Population
1930 25000
1930 25000
1940 28000
1940 28000
1950 34000
1950 34000
1960 42000
1960 42000
1970 47000 1970 47000
Q.12 Consider the following statements :
Q.4 The population of a city in three
While deciding to locate an intake consecutive years i.e. 1991, 2001 and 2011 is
structure for a city situated on a river bank, 80,000, 2,50,000 and 480000, respectively
intake for water supply should be located determine
1. In deep waters (A) The saturation population
2. Sufficiently away from shore lines (B) The expected population 2021
4 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

A Answer Keys
MCQ & NAT Questions

1. 45.9 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. 141500

6. C 7. C 8. C 9. B

Practice Questions

1. D 2. D 3. 108 4. C 5. B

6. C 7. C 8. 8554438 9. 53167, 60001, 67502

10. 320000 11. 52579, 58804, 65754 12. B

Assignment Questions

1. C 2. B 3. * 4. 655602, 605436

3. (i) 54698.6 (ii) 63658.23 (iii) 74085.45


 2 Quality
Parameters of Water
M MCQ & NAT Questions Q.3 A 12.5 mL sample of treated waste-water
requires 187.5 mL of odour-free distilled
Q.1 Match List-I (Parameters) with List-II water to reduce the odour to a level that is
(Units) and select the correct answer using just perceptible What is the threshold odor
the codes given below the lists : number (TON) for the wastewater sample?
[ESE : 2011]
[ESE : 2009]
List-I List-II (A) 0.07 (B) 1.07
A. Turbidity 1. TON (C) 15 (D) 16
B. Pathogen 2. TCU Q.4 A groundwater sample was found to
C. Odour 3. JTU contain 500 mg/L total dissolved solids
D. Colour 4. MPN (TDS). TDS (in %) present in the sample
is ___________.
Codes :
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur]
A B C D
Q.5 The pH of water admitted into a treatment
(A) 2 1 4 3
plant was 6.0 in the morning. Consequent
(B) 3 1 4 2 to inflow of raw water from a different
(C) 2 4 1 3 source, it changed to 8.0 in the next 24
(D) 3 4 1 2 hours. Assuming linear variation in time of
Q.2 Match List-I (Equivalent) with List-II the hydrogen ion concentration, the time
(Parameter) and select the correct answer mean pH value of the water over this 24
using the codes given below the lists : hours period is_______.
[ESE : 2006] [GATE 1991 : IIT Madras]
List-I List-II Q.6 Two samples of water A and B have pH
values of 4.4 and 6.4 respectively. How
A. Tintometer 1. Temperature
many times is sample A more acidic than
B. Nephelometer 2. Colour
sample B is
C. Imhoff cone 3. Turbidity
(A) 0 (B) 50
D. Muffle furnace 4. Settleable solids (C) 100 (D) 200
5. Volatile solids [GATE 1999 : IIT Bombay]
Codes : Q.7 A waste water sample contains
A B C D 10 5.6  0
mmol/L of OH ions at 25 C . The pH
(A) 4 3 1 5 of this sample is
(B) 2 5 4 3 (A) 8.6 (B) 8.4
(C) 4 5 1 3 (C) 5.6 (D) 5.4
(D) 2 3 4 5 [GATE 2008 : IISc Bangalore]
 6 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.8 A water sample has a pH of 9.25. The

Common Data for
concentration of hydroxyl ions in the water
Questions 12 and 13
sample is
(A) 10 9.25 moles/L (B) 104.75 mmoles/L Following chemical species were reported
(C) 0.302 mg/L (D) 3.020 mg/L for water sample from a well :

[GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi] Concentration

Species
(milli equivalent/ L)
Q.9 Which one of the following statements
related to testing of water for municipal Chloride  Cl  15
use is correctly applicable? [ESE : 2018]
Sulphate  SO 24   15
(A) Pseudo-hardness in due to presence of
fluoride in water. Carbonate  CO32   05
(B) When alkalinity  total hardness, Bicarbonate
30
carbonate hardness in mg/l = Total  HCO  
3
hardness in mg/l.
Calcium  Ca  2+
12
(C) Bicarbonate alkalinity = Total
alkalinity –(carbonate alkalinity- Magnesium
18
hydroxide alkalinity).  Mg 2 
(D) Hydroxide alkalinity = Carbonate
pH 8.5
alkalinity +bicarbonate alkalinity.
Q.12 Total hardness in mg/L as CaCO3 is
Common Data for
(A) 1500 (B) 2000
Questions 10 and 11
(C) 3000 (D) 5000
A water contains the following dissolved [GATE 2009 : IIT Roorkee]
ions: Q.13 Alkalinity present in the water in mg/L as
 Na    56 mg/L; Ca 2    40 mg/L; CaCO3 is
(A) 250 (B) 1500
 Mg 2    30 mg/L;  Al3   3mg/L;
(C) 1750 (D) 5000
 HCO3   190 mg/L; Cl   165mg/L [GATE 2009 : IIT Roorkee]
Q.14 A sample of water has been analyzed for
Water pH is 7
common ions and results are presented in
Atomic weights : Ca : 40; Mg : 24; Al : 27; the form of a bar diagram as shown.
H :1; C : 12; O : 16; Na : 23; Cl : 35.5 meq/L 0 2.65 4.10 6.35 6.85

Q.10 The total hardness of the sample in mg/L Ca 2 + Mg 2 + Na + K+

as CaCO3 is –
HCO3 – SO 4 2 – CL
CT -

(A) 484 (B) 450 meq/L 0 3.30 3.90 6.75

(C) 242 (D) 225 The non-carbonate hardness (expressed in

[GATE 2006 : IIT Kharagpur] mg/L as CaCO3) of the sample is

Q.11 The non-carbonate hardness of the sample (A) 40 (B) 165

in mg/L as CaCO3 is (C) 195 (D) 205
[GATE 2016 (S-2) : IISc Bangalore]
(A) 225 (B) 156
Q.15 Watch the given water properties in
(C) 86 (D) 0
Group-I to the given titrants shown in
[GATE 2006 : IIT Kharagpur] Group-II.
GATE ACADEMY ® Quality Parameters of Water 7

Group-I Group-II (A) Turbidity followed by disinfection

P. Alkalinity 1. N/35.5 AgNO3 (B) Fluorides and hardness

Q. hardness 2. N/40 Na 2S2 O3 (C) Iron, followed by disinfection

(D) Fluorides, hardness and iron followed
R. Chlorine 3. N/50 H 2SO4
by disinfection
S. Dissolved oxygen 4. N/50 EDTA
Q.18 A standard multiple-tube fermentation test
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 was conducted on a sample of water from
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 a surface stream. The results of the analysis
(C) P-3, Q-4 R-1, S-2 for the confirmed test are given below :
(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 Sample No. of No. of
size (mL) positive negative
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay]
results out of results out of 5
Q.16 Match List-I (Different forms of nitrogen in 5 tubes tubes
water) with List-II (Inference) and select
1.0 4 1
the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists : [ESE : 2002] 0.1 3 2
List-I 0.01 1 4
A. Nitrate nitrogen MPN index and 95% confidence limits for
B. Total nitrogen combination of positive results when five
C. Nitrite nitrogen tubes used per dilutions (10 mL, 1.0 mL, 0.1
mL)
D. Ammonia nitrogen
Combinati MPN index 95% confidence
List-II
on of per 100 mL limit
1. Unsatisfactory microbial activity positive Lower Upper
2. Satisfactory microbial activity
4-2-1 26 12 65
3. Eutrophication may result
4-3-1 33 15 77
4. Recent organic pollution
Codes : Using the above MPN index table, the most
probable number (MPN) of the sample is
A B C D
(A) 26 (B) 33
(A) 3 2 1 4
(C) 260 (D) 330
(B) 1 4 3 2
[GATE 2004 : IIT Delhi]
(C) 3 4 1 2
Q.19 Anaerobically treated effluent has MPN of
(D) 1 2 3 4
total coliform as 106 / 100 mL . After
Q.17 The results of analysis of a raw water
chlorination, the MPN value declines to
sample are given below :
102 / 100 mL . The percent removal (%R)
Turbidity : 5 mg/L
and log removal (log R) of total coliform
pH : 7.4 MPN is
Fluorides : 2.5 mg/L (A) % R  99.90; log R  4
Total hardness : 300 mg/L
(B) % R  99.90; log R  2
Iron : 3.0 mg/L
(C) % R  99.99; log R  4
MPN : 50 per 100 ml
(D) % R  99.99; log R  2
From the data given above, it can inferred
that water needs removal of [GATE 2011 : IIT Madras]
 8 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

P Practice Questions (A) It is the measure of ability of water to

neutralize oxygen
Q.1 Most of the turbidity meters work on the
(B) It is the measure of ability of water to
scattering principle. The turbidity value so
neutralize carbonates
obtained is expressed in
(C) It is the presence of ions in water that
(A) CFU (B) FTU
will neutralize hydrogen ions
(C) JTU (D) NTU
(D) It is the measure of ability of water to
Q.2 1 TCU is equivalent to the colour produced
neutralize hydroxides
by
Q.9 Hardness of water is caused by the
(A) 1 mg/L of chloroplatinate ion
presence of which of the following in
(B) 1 mg/L of platinum ion water?
(C) 1 mg/L platinum in form of (A) Chlorides and Sulphates
chloroplatinate ion
(B) Calcium and Magnesium
(D) 1 mg/L of organo-chloroplatinate ion
(C) Nitrites and Nitrates
Q.3 If tomato juice is having a pH of 4.1, the
(D) Sodium and Potassium
hydrogen ion concentration will be
Q.10 In natural water, hardness is mainly
(A) 10.94  105 mol/L (B) 9.94  105 mol/L caused by
(C) 8.94  105 mol/L (D) 7.94  105 mol/L (A) Ca ++ and Mn ++ (B) Ca ++ and Fe ++
Q.4 Effluent from an industry ‘A’ has a pH of (C) Na + and K + (D) Ca ++ and Mg ++
4.2. The effluent from another industry ‘B’

Q.11 The Ca 2+ concentration and Mg 2+
has double the hydroxyl ( OH ) ion
concentration of a water sample are 160
concentration than the effluent from
mg/lit and 40 mg/lit as their ions
industry ‘A’. pH of effluent from the
respectively. The total hardness of the
industry ‘B’ will be ______.
water sample is terms of CaCO3 in mg/lit
Q.5 The temporary hardness of water is caused
by is approximately equal to

(A) Dissolved carbon dioxide (A) 120 (B) 200

(B) Bicarbonates and carbonates of calcium (C) 267 (D) 567

and magnesium Q.12 Result of a water sample analysis are as
(C) Carbonates of calcium and magnesium follows :
(D) Bicarbonates of sodium and potassium Concentratio Equivalent
Cation
n (mg/L) weight
Q.6 Hardness of water is directly measured by
titration with ethylene-di-amine-tetracetic Na + 40 23
acid (EDTA) using Mg +2 10 12.2
(A) Eriochrome black T indicator Ca +2 55 20
(B) Ferroin indicator K+ 2 39
(C) Methyl orange indicator
(Milli equivalent weight of
(D) Phenolphthalein indicator
Q.7 The most important water quality CaCO3  50mg/meq )
parameter for domestic use of water is Hardness of the water sample in mg/L as
(A) Carbonate hardness CaCO3 is
(B) Non-carbonate hardness (A) 44.8 (B) 89.5
(C) Coliform group of organisms (C) 179 (D) 358
(D) Chlorides Q.13 The alkalinity and the hardness of a water
Q.8 Alkalinity of water can be defined correctly sample are 250 mg/L and 350 mg/L as
in one of the following ways CaCO3 , respectively. The water has
GATE ACADEMY ® Quality Parameters of Water 9

(A) 350 mg/L carbonate hardness and zero Q.16 Total hardness (mg/L as CaCO3 ) present
non-carbonate hardness in the above water sample is
(B) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness and zero (A) 205 (B) 250
non-carbonate hardness
(C) 275 (D) 308
(C) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness and 350
mg/L non-carbonate hardness Q.17 Carbonate hardness (mg/L as CaCO3 )
(D) 250 mg/L carbonate hardness and 100 present in the above water sample is
mg/L non-carbonate hardness (A) 205 (B) 250
Q.14 The presence of hardness in excess of (C) 275 (D) 289
permissible limit causes
Q.18 For a sample of water with the ionic
(A) Cardio-vascular problems
composition shown in the figure below, the
(B) Skin discolouration carbonate and non-carbonate hardness
(C) Calcium deficiency concentrations (in mg/l as CaCO3 ),
(D) Increased laundry expenses
respectively are:
Q.15 The analysis of a water sample produces 4 5
meq/l 0 7
the following results : 2+
Ca 2+ Mg Na +
milligram per
Concentration SO4 2-
Ion milli-equivalent HCO3-
(mg/L)
for the ion meq/l 0 3.5 7
Ca 2 20.0 60 (A) 200 and 50 (B) 175 and 75
Mg 2
12.2 36.6 (C) 75 and 175 (D) 50 and 200
Na 
23.0 92 Q.19 Methemoglobinemia, the ‘blue baby’
K 
39.1 78.2 syndrome is caused by consuming water
Cl 35.5 71 containing excess of
SO 24  48.0 72 (A) Fluoride (B) Phosphate

HCO3 61.0 122 (C) Nitrate (D) Nitrite

Q.20 Presence of fluoride in water greater than
The total hardness (in mg/L as CaCO3 ) of
permissible level of 1.5 mg/L causes
the water sample is _________.
(A) Cardiovascular disease
(B) Methemoglobinemia
Common Data for
Questions 16 and 17 (C) Hepatitis
(D) Dental fluorosis
Ion concentrations obtained for a
Q.21 Excessive fluoride in drinking water causes
groundwater sample (having pH  8.1 ) are
given below (A) Alzheimer’s disease
Ion (B) Mottling of teeth and embrittlement of
Ion concentration Atomic weight bones
(mg/L) (C) Methamoglobinemia
Ca 2+ 100 Ca  40
(D) Skin cancer
Mg 2+
6 Mg  24
Q.22 Total Kjeldahl nitrogen is a measure of
Na +
15 Na  23
(A) Total organic nitrogen
HCO 
250 H  1,C  12,O  16
3 (B) Total organic and ammonia nitrogen
SO 2
45 S  32, O  16
4 (C) Total ammonia nitrogen
Cl 
39 Cl  35.5 (D) Total inorganic and ammonia nitrogen
 10 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.23 Match List-I (Estimation method) with Q.26 Match List-I and List-II and select the
List-II (corresponding indicator) and select correct answer using the codes given
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
below the lists :
List-I List-II
List-I
A. Azide modified winkler method for A Absence of 1. Methaemo
dissolved oxygen fluorides globimia
B. Dichromate method for chemical
B. Excess of lead 2. Goiter
oxygen demand
C. EDTA titrimetric method for hardness C. Presence of 3. Dental
D. Mohr or Argentometric method for excess nitrate caries
chlorides nitrates
List-II
D. Absence of 4. Anemia
1. Eriochrome Black T
iodide
2. Ferroin
3. Potassium chromate Codes :
4. Starch A B C D
Codes : (A) 3 4 2 1
A B C D (B) 2 3 4 1
(A) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 2 1 3
(D) 1 2 4 3
(C) 4 1 2 3
Q.27 Match List-I (Impurities) with List-II
(D) 4 2 3 1
(effects) and select the correct answer
Q.24 Some of the nontoxic metals normally
using the codes given below the lists
found in natural water are
(A) Arsenic, lead and mercury List-I List-II
(B) Calcium, sodium and silver A Dissolved 1. Hardness
(C) Cadmium, chromium and copper sulphates and and
(D) Iron, manganese and magnesium chlorides of corrosion
Q.25 Match List-I (Parameters) with List-II Ca and Mg
(Permissible concentration in drinking B. Dissolved 2. Bacterial
water) and select the correct answer using bicarbonates infection
the codes given below the lists : of Ca and Mg
List-I List-II
C. Dissolved 3. Alkalinity
A Hardness 1. 0.1 mg/L
fluorides of and softness
B. Nitrate 2. 0.5 mg/L Na
concentration
D. Dissolved 4. Impairment
C. Iron concentration 3. 200 mg/L organic of dental
D. Fluoride 4. 45 mg/L matter health
concentration
Codes :
Codes :
A B C D
A B C D
(A) 3 4 2 1 (A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2 (B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 4 3 2 1 (C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 3 1 2 (D) 1 3 4 2
GATE ACADEMY ® Quality Parameters of Water 11

Q.28 Match List-I (Parameter) with List-II Q.31 The microbial quality of treated piped
(Impact) and select the correct answer water supplies is monitored by
using the codes given below the lists : (A) Microscopic examination
List-I (B) Plate count of heterotrophic bacteria
A. Excess sulphate (C) Coliform MPN test
B. Lack of iodide (D) Identification of all pathogens
C. Excess hardness Q.32 The organism, which exhibits very nearly
D. Excess dissolved oxygen the characteristics of an ideal pathogenic
List-II indicator is
1. Greater soap consumption (A) Entamoeba histolytica
2. Laxative effect (B) Escherichia coli
3. Goitre (C) Salmonella typhi
4. Corrosion of pipes (D) Vibrio comma
Codes : Q.33 A standard multiple-tube fermentation test
A B C D was conducted on a sample of water. The
(A) 2 1 3 4 results of the analysis for the confirmed test
(B) 4 3 1 2 are given below :
(C) 2 3 1 4 No. of No. of
(D) 4 1 3 2 Sample positive negative
Q.29 Match List-I (Type of impurity) with List- size (mL) results out result out of 5
II (Harm caused) and select the correct of 5 tubes tubes
answer using the codes given below the 10 4 1
lists : 1 2 3
List-I List-II 0.1 1 4
A. Excess of nitrates 1. Brackish water 0.01 0 5
B. Excess of fluorides 2. Goiter
MPN Index for combinations of positive
C. Lack of iodides 3. Fragile bones
results when 5 tubes used per dilutions (10
D. Excess of chlorides 4. Blue babies mL, 1.0 mL, 0.1 mL)
Codes : Combination of MPN index
A B C D positive per 100 mL
(A) 4 2 3 1 5-4-3 280
(B) 1 2 3 4 4-3-1 33
(C) 4 3 2 1
4-2-1 26
(D) 1 3 2 4
2-1-0 7
Q.30 Bacteriological examination of drinking
water for Escherischia Coliforms (E-Coli) is Using the above MPN index table, what is
performed because the most probable number (MPN) of the
(A) They are pathogenic causing intestinal sample?
diseases (A) 280 (B) 33
(B) Their presence indicates viral (C) 26 (D) 70
contamination of water Q.34 Consider the following statements :
(C) They are used as indicator organisms 1. Typhoid fever is caused by viral
for probable presence of pathogens infection.
(D) They represent unique indicator 2. Infections hepatitis is caused by
organism for sewage pollution bacterial infection.
 12 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

3. Cholera is caused by bacteria. A Assignment Questions

4. Amoebic dysentery is caused by
protozoa infection. Q.1 The concentration OH  ion of in a water
sample is measured 17 mg/l at 260 C . The
Which of these statements are correct?
pH of the water sample is ______.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.2 Determine the MPN using the Thomas
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 2 and 3 only
equation :
Q.35 Which one of the following organisms is Size of Number of Number of
responsible for enteric fever? sample positive negative
(A) ECHO 1 4 1
(B) Salmonella typhi 0.1 3 2
(C) Entamoeba histolytica 0.01 2 3
0.001 0 5
(D) Echinococcus

A Answer Keys

MCQ & NAT Questions

1. D 2. D 3. D 4. 0.05 5. 6.2967
6. C 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. C
11. D 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. C
16. A 17. D 18. D 19. C
Practice Questions
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. 4.5 5. B
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. D
11. D 12. C 13. D 14. D 15. 300
16. C 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. D
21. B 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. A
26. C 27. D 28. C 29. C 30. C
31. C 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. B
Assignment Questions
1. 11 2. 344


 3 Treatment of Water

M MCQ & NAT Questions temperature 200 C (  103 kg/m-s and

  1000 kg/m 3 ) . Assuming Stoke’s law to
Q.1 Consider the following statements:
be valid, the proportion (percentage) of
Aeration in water treatment helps in
spherical sand particles (0.01mm in
[ESE : 2004] diameter with specific gravity 2.65), that
1. Killing pathogens will be removed, is
2. Correcting pH (A) 32.5 (B) 67
3. Precipitating dissolved iron and
(C) 87.5 (D) 95.5
manganese
[GATE 2003 : IIT Madras]
4. Expelling excess CO 2 and H 2S
5. Expelling volatile oils Common Data for
Which of these statements are correct? Questions 5 and 6
(A) 2, 4 and 5 (B) 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 A plain sedimentation tank with a length
Q.2 For a water treatment plant having a flow of 20m, width of 10 m, and a depth of 3 m
rate of 432 m 3 /hr , what is the required plan is used in a water treatment plant to treat 4
million liters of water per day (4 MLD). The
area of a Type-I setting tank to remove 90%
average temperature of water is 200 C . The
of the particles having a setting velocity of
dynamic viscosity of water is
0.12 cm/sec is
1.002  10 3 N-s/m 2 at 200 C . Density of
(A) 120 m 2 (B) 111 m 2
water is 998.2 kg/m 3 . Average specific
(C) 90 m 2 (D) 100 m 2
gravity of particles is 2.65.
[GATE 2002 : IISc Bangalore]
Q.3 A town has an existing horizontal flow Q.5 What is the surface overflow rate in the
sedimentation tank with an overflow rate sedimentation tank?
of 17 m 3 /day/m 2 , and it is desirable to (A) 20 m 3 /m 2 /day (B) 40 m 3 /m 2 /day
remove particles that have settling velocity (C) 67 m 3 /m 2 /day (D) 133 m 3 /m 2 /day
of 0.1 mm/sec. Assuming the tank is an
[GATE 2007 : IIT Kanpur]
ideal sedimentation tank, the percentage of
Q.6 What is the minimum diameter of the
particles removal is approximately equal to
particle which can be removed with 100%
(A) 30% (B) 50%
efficiency in the above Sedimentation
(C) 70% (D) 90%
tank?
[GATE 2001 : IIT Kanpur]
(A) 11.8  10 3 mm (B) 16.0  10 3 mm
Q.4 An ideal horizontal flow setting basin is 3m
deep having surface area 900 m 2 . Water (C) 50  10 3 mm (D) 160  10 3 mm
flows at the rate of 8000 m 3 /d, at water [GATE 2007 : IIT Kanpur]
 14 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.7 A horizontal flow primary clarifier treats Q.11 The clariflocculator is the unit in which of
wastewater in which 10%, 60% and 30% of the following things will occur
particles have settling velocities of (A) Floc formation and its subsequent
0.1mm/s, 0.2 mm/s and 0.1 mm/s removal by filtration
respectively . What would be the total (B) Floc formation and its subsequent
percentage of particles removes if clarifier removal by sedimentation
operates at a Surface Overflow Rate (SOR) (C) Floc formation and its subsequent
of 43.2 m 3 /m 2 -d ? removal by decantation
(A) 43% (B) 56% (D) Removal of bacteria by filtration and
chlorination
(C) 86% (D) 100%
[GATE 1992 : IIT Delhi]
[GATE 2009 : IIT Roorkee]
Q.12 Flocculation is a process
Q.8 Consider a primary sedimentation tank
(A) That removes algae from stabilization
(PST) in a water treatment plant with
pond effluent
surface overflow Rate (SOR) of 40 m 3 /m 2 /d .
(B) That promotes to aggregation of small
The diameter of the spherical particle particles into larger particles to
which will have 90 percent theoretical enhance their removal by gravity
removal efficiency in this tank is _________ (C) That mixes the coagulant in water
m .
(D) None of these
Assume that settling velocity of the [GATE 1997 : IIT Madras]
particles in water is described by Stoke’s Q.13 Design parameters for rapid mixing units
Law. are
Given : Density of water  1000 kg/m 3 (A) Velocity gradient and the volume of
mixing basin
Density of particles  2650 kg/m 3
(B) Viscosity and velocity gradient
g  9.81m/s 2 ; Kinematic viscosity of water (C) Viscosity, velocity gradient and the
 v   1.10  106 m 2 /s volume of the mixing basin
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur] (D) Detention time and viscosity of water
Q.9 A municipal corporation is required to [GATE 1997 : IIT Madras]
treat 1000 m 3 /day of water. It is found that Q.14 A water treatment plant is required to
process 28800 m 3 /d of raw water (density
an overflow rate of 20 m/day will produce
a satisfactory removal of the discrete =1000 kg/m 3 kinematic viscosity
6 2
suspended particles at a depth of 3 m. The =10 m /s. The rapid mixing tank imparts
diameter (in meters, rounded to the nearest a velocity gradient of 900 s 1 to blend
integer) of a circular settling tank designed 35mg/L of alum with the flow for a
for the removal of these particles would be detention time of 2 minutes. The power
______. [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee] input (W) required for rapid mixing is
Q.10 A surface water treatment plant operates (A) 32.4 (B) 36
round the clock with a flow rate of (C) 324 (D) 32400
35 m 3 /min . The water temperature is 15 0 C [GATE 2008 : IISc Bangalore]
and jar testing indicated an alum dosage of Q.15 A flocculation tank contains 1800 m 3 of
25mg/l with flocculation at a Gt value of water, which is mixed using paddles at an
4  10 producing optimal results. The alum
4
average velocity gradient G of 100/s. The
quantity required for 30 days (in kg) of water temperature and the corresponding
operation of the plant is _______. dynamic viscosity are 300 C and
3
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur] 0.798  10 Ns/m , 2
respectively. The
GATE ACADEMY ® Treatment of Water 15

theoretical power required to achieve the Q.19 The effect of increasing the filter depth
stated value of G (in kW, up to two decimal (while keeping all other conditions same)
places) is _______. on TB and TH is
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati] (A) TB increases and TH decreases
Q.16 A small filter of 0.05 m depth removes 90% (B) Both TB and TH increase
of particles present in water. If the particles
(C) TB decreases and TH increases
removal required is 99 %, what should be
the depth of filter? (D) Both TB and TH decrease
(A) 0.10 m (B) 0.50 m [GATE 2006 : IIT Kharagpur]
(C) 0.75 m (D) 1.00 m Q.20 The effect of increasing the filter loading
[GATE 1992 : IIT Delhi] rate (while keeping all other conditions
same) on TB and TH is
Common Data for
(A) TB increases and TH decreases
Questions 17 and 18
(B) Both TB and TH increase
A city is going to install the rapid sand (C) TB decreases and TH increases
filter after the sedimentation tanks. Use the
(D) Both TB and TH decrease
following data. Design loading rate to the
filter  200m 3 /m 2 d [GATE 2006 : IIT Kharagpur]
Q.21 A rapid sand filter comprising a number of
Design flow rate  0.5m 3 /s
filter beds is required to produce 99 MLD
Surface area per filter box  50m 2 of potable water. Consider water loss
Q.17 The surface area required for the rapid during backwashing as 5%, rate of
sand filter will be filtration as 6.0 m/h and length to width
ratio of filter bed is 1.35. The width of each
(A) 210m 2 (B) 215m 2
filter bed is to be kept equal to 5.2m. One
(C) 216m 2 (D) 218m 2 additional filter bed is to be provided to
[GATE 2005 : IIT Bombay] take care of break-down, repair and
maintenance. The total number of filter
Q.18 The number of filters required shall be
beds required will be
(A) 3 (B) 4
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 6 (D) 8
(C) 21 (D) 22
[GATE 2005 : IIT Bombay]
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati]
Common Data for Q.22 At a small water treatment plant which has
Questions 19 and 20 4 filters, the rates of filtration and
backwashing are 200 m 3 /dm 2 and 1000
In a rapid sand filter, the time for reaching m 3 /dm 2 , respectively. Backwashing is done
particle break through (TB ) is defined as for 15 min per day. The maturation, which
the time elapsed from start of filter run to occurs initially as the filter is put back into
the time at which the turbidity of the service after cleaning takes 30 min. It is
effluent from the filter is greater than 2.5 proposed to recover the water being
NTU. The time for reaching terminal head wasted during backwashing and
loss (TH ) is defined as the time elapsed maturation. The percentage increase in the
from the start of the filter run to the time filtered water produced (up to two decimal
when head loss across the filter is greater places) would be_______.
than 3 m. [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati]
 16 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.23 Chlorine gas  8mg/L as Cl2  was added to Q.26 The amount of bleaching powder
a drinking water sample. If the free containing 20% available chlorine needed
chlorine residual and pH was measured to to chlorine a rural water supply covering a
population of 10000 at 50 Lpcd at the rate
be 2 mg/L  as Cl2  and 7.5, respectively,
of 2 ppm is [ESE : 2001]
what is the concentration of residual OCl
(A) 1 kg (B) 5 kg
ions in the water? Assume that the chlorine
(C) 0.2 kg (D) 20 kg
gas added to the water is completely

Q.27 A water treatment plant, treats 6000 m 3 of
converted to HOCl and OCl . Atomic
water per day. If it consumes 20 kg chlorine
weight of Cl :35.5
per day, then the chlorine dosage would be
[GATE 2011 : IIT Madras] [ESE : 2014]
k
Given : OCl   H +  HOCl, K  107.5 (A) 3.00 mg/l (B) 3.75 mg/l
(C) 4.25 mg/l (D) 3.33mg/l
(A) 1.408  105 moles/L
Q.28 How many kg of bleaching powder is
5
(B) 2.817  10 moles/L needed per day to chlorinate 4 MLD of
(C) 5.634  10 5 moles/L water so that, after 40 minutes of contact,
there remains residual chlorine of 0.25
(D) 1.127  104 moles/L
mg/l. The input water has a chlorine
Q.24 Chlorine gas used for disinfection demand of 1.25 mg/l, and that the
combines with water to from hypochlorous bleaching powder has only 25% available
acid (HOCL). The HOCL ionizes to form chlorine. [ESE : 2015]
hypochlorite ( OCl  ) in a reversible reaction (A) 8 kg (B) 20kg
HOCL  H   OCL  ( k  2.7  10 8 at 200 C ) , (C) 24 kg (D) 6.6 kg
the equilibrium of which is governed by Q.29 An effluent at a flow rate of 2670 m 3 /day
pH. The sum of HOCL and OCl  is known from a sewage treatment plant is to be
as free chlorine residual and HOCL is the disinfected. The laboratory data of
more effective disinfectant. The 90% disinfection studies with a chlorine dosage
fraction of HOCL in the free chlorine of 15 mg/L yield the model N t  N 0 e  0.145t
residual is available at a pH value where Nt  number of micro-organisms
[GATE 2004 : IIT Delhi] surviving at time t (in minute) and N 0 
(A) 4.8 (B) 6.6 number of micro-organisms present
(C) 7.5 (D) 9.4 initially (at t = 0). The volume of
Q.25 16 MLD of water is flowing through a 2.5 disinfection unit (in m 3 ) required to
km long pipe of diameter 45 cm. The achieve a 98% kill of micro-organisms is
chlorine at the rate of 32 kg/d is applied at ________. [GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur]
the entry of this pipe so that disinfected
Q.30 A water treatment plant of capacity, 1 m 3 /s
water is obtained at the exit. There is a
has filter boxes of dimensions 6 m  10 m .
proposal to increase the flow through this
pipe to 22MLD from 16 MLD. Assume the Loading rate to the filters is 120 m 3 /day/m 2
dilution coefficient, n  1 . The minimum . When two of the filters are out of service
amount of chlorine (in kg per day) to be for back washing, the loading rate
applied to achieve the same degree of (in m 3 /day/m 2 ) is ________.
disinfection for the enhanced flow is [GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur]
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur] Q.31 A water supply board is responsible for
(A) 60.50 (B) 44.00 treating 1500 m3/day of water. A settling
(C) 38.00 (D) 23.27 column analysis indicates that an overflow
rate of 20 m/day will produce satisfactory
GATE ACADEMY ® Treatment of Water 17

removal for a depth of 3.1 m. It is decided (A) After adjusting the dosage of lime and
to have two circular settling tanks in alum
parallel. The required diameter (expressed (B) After sedimentation
in m) of the settling tanks is ________. (C) After filtration
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore] (D) Before aeration
P Practice Questions
Common Data for
Questions Q.32 and Q.33 Q.1 A circular primary clarifier processes an
average flow of 5005 m 2 /d of municipal
A water treatment plant treating 10 MLD waste water. The overflow rate is
of water requires 20 mg/L of filter alum, 35 m 3 /m 2 /d . The diameter of clarifier shall
Al2 (SO4 )3 .18H 2 O . be
Water has 6 mg/L of alkalinity as CaCO3 . (A) 10.5 m (B) 11.5 m
(Al = 26.97, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1, Ca = 40 (C) 12.5 m (D) 13.5 m
and C = 12) Q.2 Consider the following statements
regarding the overflow rate of a
Q.32 Total alkalinity requirement ( 106 mg per
sedimentation tank:
day as CaCO3 ) matching filter alum, shall
1. Temperature of water affects the
be
overflow rate Size of particle intended
(A) 180 (B) 120
to be removed does not affect the
(C) 90 (D) 60 overflow rate
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore] 2. Density of particle intended to
Q.33 Quantity of quick lime required ( 106 mg removed affects the overflow rate be
per year as CaO) shall be Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 2132 (B) 3000 (A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 4132 (D) 6132 (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore] Q.3 A settling tank is designed for a surface
Q.34 The hardness of a ground water sample m3
overflow rate of 30 . Assuming
was found to be 420 mg/L as CaCO3 . A day m 2
softener containing ion exchange resins specific gravity of sediment particles =
was installed to reduce the total hardness 2.65. Dynamic viscosity of water,
to 75 mg/L as CaCO3 before supplying to 4  water  0.001Ns/m 2 and stokes law is valid.
households. Each household gets treated The approximate minimum size of
water at a rate of 540 L/day. If the particles which can be completely removed
efficiency of the softener is 100%, the is
bypass flow rate (expressed in L/day) is (A) 0.01 mm (B) 0.02 mm
_____. [GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore] (C) 0.03 mm (D) 0.04 mm
Q.35 The flow chart of water treatment plant is Q.4 A suspension of sand like particles in water
shown in the following figure. If it is with particles of diameter 0.10 mm and
proposed to defluoridate the water using below is flowing into a settling tank at
‘Nalgonada treatment’ then it should be 0.10 m 3 /s. Assume g  9.81m/s 2 , specific
done [ESE : 1995] gravity of particles  2.65, and kinematic
Lime addition
Alum addition
viscosity of water  1.0105  10 2 cm 2 /s. The
Aeration Coagulation Flocculation minimum surface area (in m 2 ) required for
this settling tank to remove particles of size
0.06 mm and above with 100% efficiency is
Filtration Sedimentation
_____.
 18 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.5 Which of the following statement is/are Q.9 What is the settling velocity of a discrete
true in relation to the term ‘detention particle in a wide body of water when the
period’ in a settling tank? relevant Reynold's number is less than 0.5?
1. It may be determined by introducing a The diameter and specific gravity of the
dye in the inlet and timing its particle are 2  10  3 cm and 2.65
appearance at the outlet respectively. Water temperature is 20°C.
2. Greater the detention period, greater (Kinematic viscosity  2  10 2 cm2/sec.)
the efficiency of removal of settleable (A) 0.018 cm/sec (B) 0.025 cm/sec
matter. (C) 0.18 cm/sec (D) 0.25 cm/sec
3. It is the time taken for any unit of water Q.10 A continuous flow sedimentation tank is
to pass through the settling basin. 3.5 m deep and 65m long. The flow velocity
4. It is usually more than the flow through observed is 1.22 cm/sec what size of the
period. particle of S.G. 2.65 may be effective
Select the correct answer using the codes removed. Assume T  250 C and
given below: v  0.01cm /s 2

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 Q.11 For a flow of 5.7 MLD (million litres per
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 4 alone day) and a detention time of 2 hours, the
Q.6 The raw water entering an ideal horizontal surface area of a rectangular sedimentation
settling tank contains following two types tank to remove all particles having setting
of particles : velocity of 0.33 mm/s is
Particle settling Concentration (A) 20 m 2 (B) 100 m 2
type velocity (m/h) (mg/L) (C) 200 m 2 (D) 400 m 2
I 3 200 Q.12 The following chemical is used for
II 1 300 coagulation
(A) Ammonium Chloride
When the surface overflow rate of the
(B) Aluminium Chloride
settling tank is 3 m3 m 2 h , the
(C) Aluminium Sulphate
concentration of the particles in the settled
(D) Copper Sulphate
water will be
Q.13 Use of coagulants such as alum
(A) 100 mg/L (B) 200 mg/L
(A) Result in reduction of pH of the treated
(C) 300 mg/L (D) 400 mg/L
water
Q.7 If the specific gravity of a suspended
(B) Results in increase in pH of the treated
particle is increase from 2 to 3, the settling
water
velocity will
(C) Results in no change in pH of the
(A) Not change treated water
(B) Get double (D) May cause an increase or decrease of
(C) Get increased by 1.5 times pH of the treated water
(D) Get increased by 2.25 times Q.14 Match List-I (Water treatment units) with
Q.8 What is the most important design List-II (Detention time) and select the
parameter used in designing a continuous correct answer using the codes given
flow rectangular sedimentation tank for below the lists :
removal of discrete particles? List-I List-II
(A) Length of the tank A. Rapid mixing unit 1. 1.5 hours
(B) Surface overflow rate B. Flocculator 2. 10 second
(C) Depth of the tank C. Propeller mixing unit 3. 10 seconds
(D) Temperature of the water to be treated D. Sedimentation tank 4. 30 minutes
GATE ACADEMY ® Treatment of Water 19

Codes : Q.19 According to the theory of filtration in

A B C D water treatment, which of the following
(A) 3 4 2 1 mechanisms come into play when water is
filtered a filter bed?
(B) 4 3 1 2
1. Mechanical straining
(C) 4 3 2 1
2. Capillary action
(D) 3 4 1 2
3. Centrifugal force
Q.15 Match List-I (Nature of the solids) with 4. Electro-kinectic phenomenon
List-II (Unit operation or process 5. Osmotic force
connected with its removal) and select the 6. Bacteriological action
correct answer using the codes below the Select the correct answer using the codes
lists : given below :
List-I List-II (A) 1, 2, 4 and 6 (B) 2, 3 and 5
(C) 3, 4, 5 and 6 (D) 1, 3, 4 and 6
A. Dissolved solids 1. Sedimentation
Q.20 The cleaning of slow sand filter is done by
B. Colloidal solids 2. Reverse osmosis
(A) Reversing the direction of flow of water
C. Volatile solids 3. Coagulation (B) Passing at through the filter
D. Settleable solids 4. Digestion (C) Passing a solution of alum and lime
Codes : through the filter
(D) Scraping off top layers of sand and
A B C D
admitting water
(A) 2 3 4 1
Q.21 The absorbent most commonly used in
(B) 3 2 4 1
water and waste treatment is
(C) 2 3 1 4 (A) Sand of grain size from 0.1 to 2mm
(D) 3 2 1 4 (B) Activated carbon granules of size 0.1 to
Q.16 For proper slow mixing in the flocculator 2 mm
of a water treatment plant, the temporal (C) Ordinary wood shaving of fine size
mean velocity gradient G needs to be of the (D) Coal-tar
order of Q.22 In which treatment unit is Schmutzdecke
formed?
(A) 5 to 10 s -1 (B) 20 to 80 s -1
(A) Sedimentation tank
(C) 100 to 200 s -1 (D) 250 to 350 s -1 (B) Rapid sand tank
Q.17 Consider the following treatment process (C) Coagulation tank
units in a water treatment plant : (D) Slow sand filter
Q.23 Air-binding in rapid sand filters is
1. Coagulation 2. Disinfection
encountered when
3. Sedimentation 4. Filtration (A) There is excessive negative head
Which is the correct sequence of the (B) The water is subjected to prolonged
process units in the water treatment plant? aeration
(A) 2-4-3-1 (B) 1-4-3-2 (C) The raw water contains dissolved gases
(C) 2-3-4-1 (D) 1-3-4-2 (D) The filter bed comprises largely of
coarse sand
Q.18 A flash mixer of 2.0 m3, with a velocity
Q.24 A water treatment plant, having discharge
gradient of mixing mechanism equal to
1m3 /sec , has 14 filters to treat the water.
600 s -1 , and fluid absolute viscosity of
-3 2
Each filter is having 50 m 2 area, but due to
1.0×10 N-s m is continuously operated.
backwashing activity 2 filters are non-
What is the power input per unit volume? operational. Calculate hydraulic loading
(A) 360 W (B) 720 W m3
rate in .
(C) 1140 W (D) 300 W day.m2
 20 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.25 Match List-I (Operational problems in List-II

rapid gravity filter) with List-II (Methods 1. Excess CO 2 and H 2S
to overcome the problems) and select the
2. Settleable and colloidal mater
correct answer using the codes given
3. Suspended matter
below the lists :
4. Suspended, colloidal and
List-I
A. Incrustation of filter sand media bacteriological matter.
B. Air binding and development of Codes :
negative head A B C D
C. Mud ball formation (A) 1 3 2 4
D. Slime growth on filter (B) 3 1 2 4
List-II (C) 3 1 4 2
1. Compressed air scouring for about 4 (D) 1 3 4 2
minutes at the time of backwashing Q.28 Which one of the following filters will
and manual surface raking produce water of higher bacteriological
2. Washing the filter with sodium quality?
hydroxide or bleaching powder
(A) Slow sand filter
occasionally
(B) Rapid sand filter
3. Thorough backwashing with salt
(C) Pressure filter
solution after soaking the filter in it
(D) Dual media filter
4. Increasing the depth of water during
filter operation by about 15 – 20 cm as Q.29 Which of the following are removed by
compared to the normal depth rapid sand filter from water?
maintain during daily operation and 1. Dissolved solids
more frequent backwashing 2. Suspended solids
Codes : 3. Bacteria
A B C D 4. Helminths
(A) 2 4 3 1 Select the correct answer using the codes
(B) 4 2 1 3 given blow :
(C) 2 4 1 3 (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(D) 4 2 3 1 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
3
Q.26 A water treatment plant of capacity, 1m /s Q.30 Which of the following remedial measures
has filter boxes of dimensions 6 m  10 m . are taken to avoid negative head and air
Loading rate to the filters is 120 m 3 /day/m 2 . binding in a rapid sand filter?
When two of the filters are out of service 1. Avoiding the occurrence of excessive
for back washing, the loading rate negative head
 in m /day/m  is ________.
3 2 2. Pumping in air
3. Avoiding increase in water
Q.27 Match List-I (Units in water treatment
temperature
plant) with List-II (Impurities removed)
and select the correct answer using the 4. Control of algae growth
codes given below the lists : Select the correct answer using the codes
List-I given below:
A. Aerator (A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4
B. Rapid sand filter (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. Slow sand filter Q.31 Which one of the following filters should
D. Sedimentation tank (after coagulation be recommended for protected rural water
and flocculation) supply project?
GATE ACADEMY ® Treatment of Water 21

(A) Pressure filter (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(B) Slow sand filter (C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) Diatomaceous earth filter Q.36 What is the rapid sand filter surface area
(D) Rapid sand filter required for filtering of 10 MLD water
Q.32 Which one of the following is the correct assuming a filtration rate of 1,00,000
sequence of slow sand filter (SSF), rapid l /m 2 /day ?
sand filter (RSF), dual media filter (DMF) (A) 100 m 2 (B) 10 m 2
and mixed media filter (MMF) in the
(C) 1 m 2 (D) 1000 m 2
decreasing order of their filtration rates?
Q.37 Consider the following statement in
(A) MMF  DMF  RSF  SSF
respect of slow sand filter and rapid sand
(B) DMF  RSF  SSF  MMF
filter:
(C) RSF  SSF  MMF  DMF 1. The two filters differ in respect of the
(D) SSF  MMF  DMF  RSF standards regarding non uniformity of
Q.33 Consider the following statements : the sand used in their filtering media.
The role of the gravel bed in a rapid sand 2. The two filters do not differ in respect
filter is : of the effective size of the sand used in
1. To filter out large suspended matter. them.
2. To support the sand bed above it. 3. The two filters differ in respect of their
3. To prevent the escape of sand particles respective under-drainage system.
4. To uniformly distribute the backwash 4. The two filters differ in respect of their
water. respective rate of filtration.
5. To prevent algae growth. Which of the above statements are correct?
Which of these statements are correct? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 3, 4 and 5 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only Q.38 Match List-I (Treatment process) with
Q.34 Which of the following operational List-II (Removed matter) and select the
problems relate to the functioning of rapid correct answer using the codes given
gravity filter? below the lists :
1. Inadequate media comprising filter List-I
bed A. Plain sedimentation
2. Sludge bulking B. Chemical precipitation
3. Mud balls C. Slow Sand Filtration
4. Negative head D. Aeration
5. Incrustation of media List-II
(A) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 1. Dissolved gases
(C) 2.3, 4 and 5 only (D) 1, 3, 4 and 5 2. Dissolved solids
Q.35 Which of the following statements are the 3. Suspended solids with specific gravity
important characteristics of a slow sand more than 1.0.
filter? 4. Floating solids
1. Cleaning of filter is done by scraping 5. Bacterial cells
and sand removal. Codes :
2. Lack of pretreatment. A B C D
3. Greater efficiency of bacterial removal (A) 5 1 4 2
as compared to rapid sand filter. (B) 3 2 5 1
4. Efficient in colour, taste and odour (C) 5 2 4 1
removal. (D) 3 1 5 2
 22 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.39 A good disinfectant Q.45 In the plot of residual chlorine does

1. Should be persistent enough to prevent applied shown in the figure below, the
regrowth of organisms in the curve will not have any (0, 0) point because
distribution system.

Residual chlorine (mg/l)

2. Must be toxic to micro-organism at
concentrations well above the toxic
thresholds of humans and higher
animals.
3. Should have a fast rate of kill of micro-
organisms. Chlorine applied (mg/l)
Select the correct answer using the codes (A) Of experimental error
given below:
(B) Chlorine escapes into the atmosphere
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) Chlorine requires some contact time
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3
(D) Chlorine is consumed for disinfection
Q.40 Among the following disinfectants of
Q.46 Which of the following reasons are
waste water, the one that is most
responsible for adoption of post-
commonly used is
chlorination of water?
(A) Chlorine dioxide (B) Chlorine
1. Chlorine demand is reduced.
(C) Ozone (D) UV-radiation
2. Possibility of taste and odour
Q.41 The disinfection efficiency of chlorine in
formation is reduced.
water treatment
3. Possibility of carcinogenic compounds
(A) Is not dependent of pH value
is reduced.
(B) Is increase by increased pH value
4. Chloramines are formed.
(C) Remains constant at all pH values
(A) 1, 2.3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) Is reduced by increased pH values
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.42 In disinfection, which of the following
Q.47 Chlorination with Cl 2 produces
forms of chlorine is most effective in killing
hypochlorous acid (HOCl), which may
the pathogenic bacteria?
further dissociate as hypochlorite ion
(A) Cl (B) OCl 
(OCl  ) depending upon pH of the water.
(C) NH 2 Cl (D) HOCl
The reaction is represented as:
Q.43 Breakpoint chlorination of water involves
HOCl  H   OCl 
addition of chlorine in an amount sufficient
to ( k  2.5  10 8 moles L at 200 C)
(A) React with any ammonia and readily What is the fraction of HOCI in the water
oxidizable organic matter at pH 7.0?
(B) Kill giardia cysts (A) 0.95 (B) 0.80
(C) React with inorganic matter (C) 0.20 (D) 0.05
(D) Reduce bacterial growth in filters Q.48 Match List-I (Disinfectant) with List-II
Q.44 The following residual chlorine (Property) and select the correct answer
compounds are formed during using the codes given below the lists :
chlorination of water. List-I
1. NH 2 Cl 2. NHCl2 A. Chlorine B. Ozone
3. HOCl 4. OCl  C. Iodine D. Ultra-violet rays
The correct sequence of formation of these List-II
residual chlorine compounds is 1. No carcinogenics results
(A) 2, 1, 3, 4 (B) 1, 2, 4, 3 2. Ineffective in the presence of
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 2, 1, 4, 3 suspended solids
GATE ACADEMY ® Treatment of Water 23

3. Not affected by the Ammonium ion List-II

4. Feasible residual oxygen 1. Reverse osmosis
Codes : 2. Chlorination
A B C D
3. Zeolite Treatment
(A) 4 3 1 2
4. Coagulation and Flocculation
(B) 1 2 4 3
5. Coagulation, Flocculation and
(C) 4 2 1 3
Filtration
(D) 1 3 4 2
Codes :
Q.49 Match List-I (Predominance of
compounds) with List-II (pH range) and A B C D
select the correct answer using the codes (A) 1 2 4 5
given below the lists (B) 3 2 2 4
List-I (C) 2 1 3 5
A. Monochloramine (D) 3 1 2 5
B. Dichloramine
Q.53 The purpose of re-carbonation after lime-
C. Nitrogen trichloride
soda process of water softening is the
List-II
(A) Removal of excess soda from water
1. Below pH 4.4 2. Over pH 7.5
(B) Removal of non-carbonate hardness
3. Between pH 5 to 6.5
Codes : (C) Recovery of lime
A B C (D) Conversion of precipitates to soluble
(A) 1 2 3 form
(B) 2 3 1 Q.54 Chlorides from water are removed by
(C) 3 1 2 (A) Lime soda process
(D) 3 2 1 (B) Reverse osmosis
Q.50 A rural water supply scheme serves a (C) Cation exchange process
population of 10,000 at the rate of 50 litres
(D) Chemical coagulation
per capita per day. For the chlorine does of
Q.55 Which one of the following processes of
2 ppm, the required amount of bleaching
water softening requires recarbonation?
powder with 20% available chlorine will be
(A) 0.5 kg (B) 5 kg (A) Lime-soda ash process
(C) 10 kg (D) 15 kg (B) Hydrogen-cation exchanger process
Q.51 Zero hardness of water is achieved by (C) Sodium-cation exchanger process
(A) Lime soda process (D) Demineralization
(B) Excess lime treatment Q.56 Which of the following treatment reduce
(C) Ion exchange treatment salinity of water?
(D) Excess alum and lime treatment 1. Flash mixing and sedimentation
Q.52 Match List-I (Type of water impurity) with
2. Electrodialysis
List-II (Method of treatment) and select the
3. Reverse osmosis
correct answer using the codes given
below the lists: 4. Freezing
List-I 5. Filtration
A. Hardness Select the correct answer using the codes
B. Brackish water from sea given below :
C. Residual MPN from filters (A) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 (B) 2, 3 and 4
D. Turbidity (C) 1, 3 and 5 (D) 1, 2 and 4
 24 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

A Assignment Questions
Q.1 A coagulation sedimentation tank clarifies
50 MLD of water. The dosage of filter alum
required is 16 mg/L. If the raw water is
having an alkalinity equivalent to 5 mg/l
of CaCO3 , then the quantities of filter alum
and the quick lime in tonnes (containing
87% of CaO only) required per year for the
plant.
Q.2 Determine the power requirement in watt
and total paddle area to achieve a velocity
gradient of 50 sec1 . The volume of the tank
is V  3000 m 3 . Dynamic viscosity   1.139
10 3 Ns / m 2 CD  1.8 and paddle tip
velocity is 0.6 m/s, it is assumed that the
paddle velocity is 75% of tip velocity. The
mass density of water is 999.1 kg / m 3 .
Q.3 A water treatment plant is designed to treat
0.25 m 3 / s of turbid water. The no. of filter
units is 4, rate of filtration 5 m 3 / m 2 / hr .
The backwashing rate is 10 l / m 2 / sec .
L
2
B
(i) Find the length and breadth of filter
unit.
(ii) The flow rate in (m 3 / s) in, the wash
water trough, if 2 troughs are provided.
Q.4 For the treatment of the water if 0.7 mg/l
of Cl2 is required for satisfactory
disinfection of water at pH = 7, what
dosage Cl2 will be necessary at the pH = 8.
(The dosage of Cl2 is calculated based on
the HOCl percentage) and the K (reaction
rate constant  2.7  10 8 )
Q.5 For the given % of killing of bacteria the
time required at 50 C is 24.4 min. calculate
the time required in min at 200 C by
adopting the activation energy 26,800
Joule/mole. R  8.314 Joules/ mole/k.
Q.6 A sample of water contains 55 mg/l of
hardness as CaCl2 and 70 mg/l hardness
as MgSO4 . The amount of lime and soda
ash required to be added to treat 1 MLD of
water is ________.
GATE ACADEMY ® Treatment of Water 25

A Answer Keys

MCQ & NAT Questions

1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. B 7. B 8. 22.567 9. 8 10. 37800
11. B 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. 14.364
16. A 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. C 22. 7.52 23. A 24. B 25. A
26. B 27. D 28. C 29. 50 30. 144
31. 6.90 32. C 33. D 34. 385.7 35. A
Practice Questions
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. 31.214 5. A
6. B 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. 0.027
11. C 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. A
16. B 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. D
21. B 22. D 23. A 24. 144 25. A
26. 144 27. D 28. A 29. D 30. D
31. B 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. D
36. A 37. D 38. B 39. C 40. B
41. D 42. D 43. A 44. C 45. D
46. D 47. B 48. A 49. B 50. B
51. C 52. D 53. D 54. B 55. A
56. B
Assignment Questions
1. 292, 25.84 2. 8542.5, 104.25

3. (i) 9.5m  4.7m (ii) 0.225 4. 0.24 mg/l dosage of Cl 2

5. 13.5 min 6. 32.67 kg of lime, 114.3 kg of Soda ash


 4
Distribution and
Conveyance System
M MCQ & NAT Questions List-II
1. Prevention of reversal of flow in a
Q.1 Match List I with List II and select the
pipeline
correct answer
2. Regulating or stopping the flow
List I especially in large size conduits
A. Dead – end system 3. Control of water hammer
B. Grid iron system 4. Draining or emptying the pipeline
C. Ring system section
D. Radial Codes :
List II A B C D
1. Equal pressure and multiple flow paths (A) 1 2 4 3
2. Both economy and reasonably equal (B) 3 2 4 1
pressures (C) 1 4 2 3
3. Economy and simplicity (D) 3 4 2 1
4. Zonal distribution Q.4 Match List-I with List-II and select the
Codes: correct answer using the codes given
A B C D below the lists :
List-I
(A) 3 2 1 4
A. Release valve
(B) 2 4 4 3
B. Check valve
(C) 3 1 2 4
C. Gate valve
(D) 2 1 4 3
D. Pilot valve
Q.2 The approximate value of BHP of a pump
List-II
to supply 1 m3 /s water to a town at RL 400 1. Reduce high inlet pressure to lower
m from a source, whose water level is at RL outlet pressure
320 m, would be [ESE : 2017] 2. Limit the flow of water to single
(A) 940 (B) 1000 direction
(C) 1070 (D) 1120 3. Remove air from the pipeline
Q.3 Match List-I (Fixture) with List-II 4. Stopping the flow of water in the
(Purpose) and select the correct answer pipeline
using the codes given below the lists : Codes :
[ESE : 2004] A B C D
List-I (A) 3 2 4 1
A. Surge arrester (B) 4 2 1 3
B. Butterfly valve (C) 3 4 2 1
C. Scour valve (D) 1 2 4 3
D. Check valve [GATE 2005 : IIT Bombay]
GATE ACADEMY ® Distribution and Conveyance System 27

Q.5 The following sketch shows a water supply 3. Cannot be used for high pressure.
main from a storage reservoir provided (Generally not used for pressures
with a sluice value : above 7 kg/cm2).
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Reservoir (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only

P Practice Questions
Q.1 Which one of the following pairs is not
Main
correctly matched?
(A) Check valve :
To check water flow in all directions
The type of value most suitable for this
(B) Sluice valve :
pipeline is [ESE : 2001]
To control flow of water through
(A) Air valve
pipelines
(B) Scour valve
(C) Air valve :
(C) Pressure relief valve
To release the accumulated air
(D) None of the above
(D) Scour valve :
Q.6 In the figure show below, X 2 X 4 represents
To remove silt in a pipeline.
[ESE : 2001]
Q.2 Match List-I (Values) with List-II (Uses)
and select the correct answer using the
Commulative flow

Supply curve x3
codes given below the lists :
x1 x2
(ha-m)

ve List-I
x4 cur
mand A. Sluice valve
De
B. Check valve

1 2 C. Air inlet valve

Month D. Ball valve
Mass Flow Diagram List-II
(A) Accumulated supply 1. Used where gravity flow is required
(B) Storage requirement through pipe line
(C) Accumulated demand for the period 1 2. Used to maintain constant level of
to 2 water
(D) Surplus in the reservoir 3. Used for reversal of flow
Q.7 Consider the following statements : 4. Used for isolating
[ESE : 2010]
Codes :
The disadvantages of employing steel
A B C D
pipes in conveyance and distribution of
(A) 1 3 4 2
water are, they
1. Cannot withstand high negative (B) 4 2 1 3
pressure or vacuums that may be (C) 1 2 4 3
created in them, especially the (D) 4 3 1 2
combined effects of vacuums and Q.3 The purpose of providing a balancing
external loads of backfill and traffic. reservoir in a water supply distribution
2. Are easily affected by acidic or alkaline system is to
waters and even atmospheric agencies (A) Equalize pressure in the distribution
may produce adverse effects on them. system
 28 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

(B) Store adequate quantity of water to Determine the capacity of the service
meet requirements in case of break- reservoir assuming pumping to be at
down of inflow uniform rate and the period of pumping to
(C) Store adequate fire-fighting reserve be from 6 am to 6 pm. Neglect fire demand
(D) Take care of fluctuation in the rate of solve by analytical method
consumption. Q.2 Determine the distribution of flow in the
Q.4 Consider the following statements : pipe network shown in figure. The head
loss, hL may be assumed as KQ n . The flow
In a water supply system,
is turbulent and pipes are rough. The value
1. Drain valves are provided at elevated
of K for each pipe is indicated in the figure.
or higher points to remove
Use Hardy-Cross method.
accumulated air.
50
2. Reflux valves allows flow in one
direction only.
K
3. Drain valves are provided at low points

2
=
4

=
K
to remove silt and another deposit. 50 75
K=1
Which of these statements is/are correct?
K
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 only =

3
2

=
K
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 only
Q.5 Consider the following statements :
25
In water supply distribution network
1. The grid-iron system requires more
length of pipe lines and larger number
of cut-off valves
2. The design of the grid-iron system is
difficult but economical
3. Employing a grid iron system, the dead
ends are completely eliminated
4. Employing a grid-iron system permits
more water to be diverted towards the
affected point from various directions.
Which of these statement are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3

A Assignment Questions
Q.1 A town with a population of one lakh is to
be supplied with water daily at 200 litres
per head. The variation in demand is as
follows
6 am to 9 am – 40% of total
9 am to 12 noon – 10% of total
12 noon to 3 pm – 10% of total
3 pm to 6 pm – 15% of total
6 pm to 9 pm – 25% of total
GATE ACADEMY ® Distribution and Conveyance System 29

A Answer Keys

MCQ & NAT Questions

1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C
6. A 7. B
Practice Questions
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B
Assignment Questions
1. 8 ML


 5 Waste Water
Characteristics
M MCQ & NAT Questions incubated at 200 C in BOD bottles for 5
days. The results were as follows.
Q.1 A synthetic sample of water is prepared by
adding 100 mg Kaolinite (a clay mineral), S. Waste-water Initial DO DO after 5
No. volume, mL mg/L days, mg/L
200 mg glucose, 168 mg NaCl, 120 mg
MgSO 4 and 111 mg CaCl2 to 1 liter of pure 1. 5 9.2 6.9
water. The concentration of the total solids 2. 10 9.1 4.4
(TS) and fixed dissolved solids (FDS) in the
3. 50 8.4 0.0
mg/l is equal to?
(A) 699 and 599 (B) 599 and 399 Based on the data, the average BOD 5 of the
(C) 699 and 199 (D) 699 and 399 waste water is equal to

Q.2 If the BOD5, 20 of waste is 150 mg/L and the [GATE 2006 : IIT Kharagpur]
(A) 139.5 mg/L (B) 126.5 mg/L
reaction rate constant (to the base ’e’) at
(C) 109.8 mg/L (D) 72.2 mg/L
200 C is 0.35/day, then the ultimate BOD is
mg/L is [GATE 2001 : IIT Kanpur] Q.5 If the BOD 3 of a wastewater sample is 75
mg/L and reaction rate constant k (base e)
(A) 97.5 (B) 181.5
is 0.345 per day, the amount of BOD
(C) 212.9 (D) 230.5
remaining in the given sample after 10
Q.3 A portion of waste water sample was days is [GATE 2010 : IIT Guwahati]
subjected to standard BOD test (t days,
(A) 3.12 mg/L (B) 3.45 mg/L
200 C ), yielding a value of 180 mg/L. The
(C) 3.69 mg/L (D) 3.92 mg/L
reaction rate constant (to the base ‘e’) at
Q.6 Ultimate BOD of a river water sample is 20
200 C was taken as 0.18per day. The
mg/L. BOD rate constant (natural log) is
reaction rate constant at other temperature
0.15day1 . The respective values of BOD (in
may be estimated by kT  k20 (1.047)T  20 .
%) exerted and remaining after 7 days are :
The temperature at which the other portion
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur]
of the sample should be tested, to exert the
same BOD in 2.5 days, is (A) 45 and 55 (B) 55 and 45
(C) 65 and 35 (D) 75 and 25
(A) 4.90 C (B) 24.90 C
Q.7 Two wastewater streams A and B having
(C) 31.7 0 C (D) 35.00 C
an identical ultimate BOD are getting
[GATE 2004 : IIT Delhi] mixed to form the steam C. The
Q.4 To determine the BOD 5 of a waste water temperature of the stream A is 200 C and
sample, 5, 10 and 50 mL aliquots of the the temperature of the steam C is 100 C. It
waste water diluted to 300 mL and is given that
GATE ACADEMY ® Waste Water Characteristics 31

 the 5-day BOD of the stream A place) after three days of incubation at
measure at 20 C  50mg/l 0
27 0 C for this wastewater will be
 BOD rate constant (base 10) at 200 C  __________ . [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati]
0.115 per day Q.12 The waste water having an organic
 temperature coefficient  1.135 concentration of 54 mg/L is flowing at a
The 5-day BOD (in mg/l, up to one steady rate of 0.8 m3 /day through a
decimal place) of the stream C, calculated detention tank of dimensions 2m  4m  2m
at 100 C, is _______. . If the contents of the tank are well mixed
and decay constant is 0.1 per day, the outlet
[GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee]
concentration (in mg/L upto one decimal
Q.8 A 2% solution of a sewage sample is kept
place) is _____. [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee]
at an incubation temperature of 200 C . If Q.13 The 2 – days and 4 – days BOD values of a
initial DO (Dissolved Oxygen) and final sewage are 100 mg/L and 155 mg/L,
DO values after 5 days incubation period respectively. The value of BOD rate
are 8.5 mg/L and 5.5 mg/L respectively, constant (expressed in per day) is
then the BOD will be [ESE : 2000] _________. [GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore]
(A) 50 mg/L (B) 150 mg/L Q.14 For a given water sample, the ratio
(C) 250 mg/L (D) 350 mg/L between BOD 5-day,200 C and the ultimate BOD
Q.9 A sample of sewage is estimated to have a is 0.68. The value of the reaction rate
0
5 day 20 C BOD of 250 mg/L. If the test constant k (on base e) (in day-1 , up to two
temperature be 300 C , in how many days decimal places ) is _______.
will the same value of BOD be obtained? [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee]
(A) 1.5 days (B) 2.5 days Q.15 The 5 – days BOD of a waste water sample
(C) 3.3 days (D) 7.5 days is obtained as 190 mg/L (with k  0.01 h -1 ).
Q.10 The figure below shows, BOD curve when The ultimate oxygen demand (mg/L) of
the experiment was conducted at 200 C . If the sample will be
(A) 3800 (B) 475
the experiment is conducted at 300 C , the
(C) 271 (D) 190
portion AB of the curve. [ESE : 2010]
[GATE 2008 : IISc Bangalore]
B
Oxygen consumed

Q.16 What is the theoretical oxygen demand of

300 mg/L glucose solution?
(A) 300 mg/L (B) 320 mg/L
(C) 350 mg/L (D) 400 mg/L
Q.17 The amount of CO 2 generated (in kg)
A
Time while completely oxidizing one kg of CH 4
(A) Shifts to the left to the end products is ______.
(B) Shifts to the right Q.18 A certain waste has a BOD of 162 mg/L
(C) Remains unchanged and its flow is 1000 cubic metres per day. If
(D) Shrinks the domestic sewage has a BOD of 80 gram
Q.11 The ultimate BOD  L0  of a wastewater per capita, then the population equivalent
of the waste would be [ESE : 2001]
sample is estimated as 87% of COD. The
(A) 20.25 (B) 1296
COD of this wastewater is 300 mg/L.
(C) 2025 (D) 12960
Considering first order BOD reaction rate
Q.19 If the period of incubation is 10 days at
constant k (use natural log) = 0.23 per day
200 C, then the relative stability of the
and temperature coefficient   1.047 , the
sample will be ________.
BOD value (in mg/L, up to one decimal
 32 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

P Practice Questions Q.8 A student began an experiment of 5 day

200 C BOD on Monday. Since the 5th day
Q.1 Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of fell on Saturday. The final DO reading was
wastewater is a measure of taken on Monday. On calculation BOD
(A) Total concentration of biochemical (i.e.7 day 200 C ) was found to be 150 mg/L.
(B) Total concentration of organic matter
What would be the 5 day, 200 C BOD (in
(C) Concentration of biodegradable
mg/L)? Assume value of BOD rate
organic matter
constant (K) at standard temperature of
(D) Concentration of chemically
200 C as 0.23/day (base e).
oxidizable matter
Q.2 The re-oxygeneration coefficient K of Q.9 For a given water sample, the ratio
between BOD5-day, 20 C and the ultimate BOD
0
stream is 0.30 at 200 C. Its K value at 320 C
is likely to be _______. is 0.68. The value of the reaction rate
Q.3 The ultimate BOD of the waste water constant k (on base e) (in day 1 up to two
whose 5 day BOD (BOD) 5 and rate decimal places) is ______.
constant (base e) are respectively 150 mg/L Q.10 Consider the following statements
and 0.23/day is regarding biochemical oxygen demand
(A) 80 mg/L (B) 50 mg/L (BOD) of river water :
(C) 180 mg/L (D) 220 mg/L 1. The BOD rate constant varies with river
Q.4 The BOD 5 of a surface water sample is 200 water temperature
mg/litre at 200 C . The value of the reaction 2. The BOD rate constant does not
constant is K  0.2day 1 with base ‘e’. The depend on the BOD of the river water
ultimate BOD of the sample is 3. The BOD rate constant is often different
(A) 126 mg/litre (B) 544 mg/litre for different river waters
(C) 146 mg/litre (D) 316 mg/litre
4. The BOD rate constant cannot be
Q.5 A waste water sample diluted to 100 times
determined in a laboratory
with aeration water has an initial dissolved
oxygen (DO) of 7.0 mg/L and after 5 days Which of the above statements are correct?

of incubation at 200 C , the DO was zero. (A) l and 4 (B) l and 3

The BOD of waste water is (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
(A) 700 mg/L Q.11 The following data pertain to a sewage
(B) 100 mg/L sample:
(C) Cannot be determined Initial DO = 10 mg/L
(D) 7 mg/L
Final DO = 2 mg/L
Q.6 A wastewater sample has an initial BOD of
222 mg/L. the first order BOD decay Dilution to 1%
coefficient is 0.4/day. The BOD consumed The BOD of the given sewage sample is
(in mg/L) in 5 days is (A) 8 mg/L (B) 10 mg/L
(A) 150 (B) 192 (C) 100 mg/L (D) 800 mg/L
(C) 30 (D) 50
Q.12 The ultimate BOD value of a waste
Q.7 The 5-day BOD of a wastewater sample is
(A) Increases with temperature
obtained as 190 mg/L (with k  0.01h 1 ).
(B) Decreases with temperature
The Ultimate oxygen demand (mg/L) of
the sample will be (C) Remains the same at all temperatures
(A) 3800 (B) 475 (D) Doubles with every 100 C rise in
(C) 271 (D) 190 temperature
GATE ACADEMY ® Waste Water Characteristics 33

Q.13 The second stage BOD as shown in the Q.18 A single rapid test to determine the
figure is due to [ESE : 1999] pollution status of river water is
(A) Biochemical oxygen demand
BOD (mg/L) (B) Chemical oxygen demand
2nd Stage BOD
(C) Total organic solids
(D) Dissolved oxygen
st
1 Stage BOD Q.19 The formation for BOD assimilation in a
stream should include
Time (t) (A) BOD rate constant
(A) Experimental error (B) Sedimentation of organic matter
(B) Increased activity of bacteria (C) BOD rate constant and sedimentation
(C) Nitrification demand of organic matter
(D) Interference by certain chemical (D) Pathogenic bacterial decay coefficient
reactions
Q.20 Consider the following statements :
Q.14 High COD to BOD ratio of an organic
The time of BOD assimilation in a stream
pollutant represents
can be affected by
(A) High biodegradability of the pollutant
1. Ratio of stream depth to flow width.
(B) Low biodegradability of the pollutant
2. Stream BOD value,
(C) Presence of free oxygen for aerobic
3. BOD rate constant.
decomposition
Which of these statements are correct?
(D) Presence of toxic material in the
pollutant (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) l and 2 only
Q.15 Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) of a (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only
sample is always greater than Biochemical Q.21 Consider the following statements
Oxygen Demand (BOD) since it represents associated with water pollution
(A) Biodegradable organic matter only parameters :
(B) Biodegradable and non-biodegradable 1. One of the primary indicators of the
organic matter degree of water pollution is the
(C) Non-biodegradable organic matter concentration of organic matter.
(D) Inorganic matter 2. Total organic carbon (TOC), chemical
Q.16 In a domestic wastewater sample, COD oxygen demand (COD) and
and BOD were measured. Generally which biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) are
of the following statement is true for their important parameters of water
relative magnitude? pollution.
(A) COD  BOD 3. Generally TOC > COD > BOD.
(B) COD  BOD Which of these statements are correct?
(C) COD  BOD (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) l and 2
(D) Nothing can be said (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3
Q.17 What does the presence of excess nitrates Q.22 The correct statement of comparison of
in river water indicate? ultimate BOD, COD, Theoretical Oxygen
(A) Recent pollution of water with sewage Demand (ThOD) and 5-day BOD (BOD5) is
(B) Past pollution of water with sewage (A) BODu > COD > ThOD > BOD5
(C) Intermittent pollution of water with (B) COD > ThOD > BODu > BOD5
sewage (C) ThOD > COD > BODu > BOD5
(D) No pollution of water with sewage (D) COD > BODu > BOD5 > ThOD
 34 Environmental Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.23 If the average sewage from a city is 95  106 sulphate in chemical oxygen demand
day and the average 5 day BOD is 300 mg/l (COD) test. The digested sample is then
against a standard of 75 mg/day per capita titrated with standard ferrous ammonium
at 200 C , then the population equivalent of sulphate (FAS) to determine the un-reacted
the city will be amount of
(A) 28,500 (B) 285  106 (A) Mercuric sulphate
(C) 3,80,000 (D) 380  106 (B) Potassium dichromate
Q.24 A sample of domestic sewage is digested (C) Silver sulphate
with silver sulphate, sulphuric acid, (D) Sulphuric acid
potassium dichromate and mercuric

A Answer Keys

MCQ & NAT Questions

1. D 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. C

6. C 7. 21.2 8. B 9. C 10. A

11. 160.2 12. 18 13. 0.3 14. 0.23 15. C

16. B 17. 2.75 18. C 19. 90.04 %

Practice Questions

1. C 2. 0.521 3. D 4. D 5. C

6. C 7. C 8. 128.0979 9. 0.23 10. B

11. D 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. B

16. B 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. C

21. B 22. C 23. C 24. B


 6
Sewage System &
Sewer Appurtenances
M MCQ & NAT Questions 1
(A) 1 (B)
2
Q.1 A sewer has a diameter of 300 mm and
2/3 3/ 2
slope of 1 in 400. While running full it has 1 1
(C)   (D)  
a mean velocity of 0.7 m/s. If both the 2 2
diameter and slope are doubled (to [ESE : 2013]
respectively be 600 mm and 1 in 200), what Q.5 An existing 300mm diameter circular
will be the changed mean velocity when sewer is laid at a slope of 1 : 280 and carries
running half full? Use Manning's formula,
a peak discharge of 1728 m3 /d .Use the
[ESE : 2012]
partial flow diagram shown in the given
(A) 1.59 m/s (B) 2.80 m/s figure and assume Manning’s n  0.015
(C) 0.90 m/s (D) 1.00 m/s 1

Q.2 In a design of storm sewers, if the time 0.9

taken by rain-water to flow from the
Ration of depth to dia (d/D)

0.8

farthest point of the watershed to the sewer 0.7

Discharge
inlet is ' ti ' and the time of flow of water 0.6
0.5
from the sewer inlet to the point in the
0.4
sewer that is under consideration is ' t f ' Velocity
0.3
then the time of concentration will be 0.2
[ESE : 1999] 0.1
(A) ti 0
0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 1.1
(B) t f v/Vfull and q/Qfull
(C) ti  t f Partial flow diagram for circular sewer

(D) ti or t j whichever is greater At the peak discharge, the depth of flow

and the velocity are, respectively,
Q.3 At the same mean velocity, the ratio of
head loss per unit length for a sewer pipe [GATE 2004 : IIT Delhi]
flowing full to that for the same pipe (A) 45 mm and 0.28 m/s
flowing half full would be (B) 120 mm and 0.50 m/s
[GATE 1998 : IIT Delhi] (C) 150 mm and 0.57 m/s
(A) 2.0 (B) 1.63
(D) 300 mm and 0.71 m/s
(C) 1.00 (D) 0.61
Q.6 A 20 cm diameter sewer is laid at a slope of
Q.4 One sewer has a dia. of 300 mm and
0.004 and is designed to carry a discharge
another one has a dia. of 600 mm. When
at a depth of 10 cm with Manning’s
both run half-full, what will be the ratio of
n  0.014 the design discharge is
velocities in the two pipes if the slope of
_________.
both pipes is the same?
 36 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

P Practice Questions Q.7 Using n  0.015 in Manning’s formula,

design a sewer running half-full at a flow
Q.1 A combined sewer is one which transports
rate of 650 litres per second and laid at an
(A) Domestic sewage and storm water
invert slope of 0.0001.
(B) Domestic sewage and industrial wastes
Q.8 In the design of storm sewers, "time of
(C) Domestic sewage and overhead flow
concentration" is relevant to determine the
(D) Domestic sewage, industrial wastes
and storm water (A) Rainfall intensity
Q.2 In transition of sewers from smaller (B) Velocity in the sewer
diameter sewers to larger diameter sewers, (C) Time of travel
the continuity of sewers is maintained at (D) Area served by the sewer
the Q.9 The maximum flow occurs in an egg
(A) Bottom of the concrete bed of sewers shaped sewer when the ratio of flow to
(B) Inverts of the sewers vertical diameter is
(C) Crowns of the sewers (A) 0.33 (B) 0.50
(D) Hydraulic gradients of the sewers
(C) 0.95 (D) 1.00
Q.3 In the design consideration of sewerage
Q.10 A 20 cm diameter sewer is laid at a slope of
system, the sewers must have which one of
0.004 and is designed to carry a discharge
the following?
at a depth of 10 cm with Manning’s
(A) Maximum velocity of flow
n  0.014, the design discharge is ______.
(B) Only 50 per cent of maximum velocity
of flow Q.11 A sewer of 400 mm diameter and slope 1 in
(C) Minimum velocity of not less than 400, running half-full, has a flow velocity of
cleansing velocity of flow 0.82 m/sec. What velocity of flow will be
(D) High pressure at all times obtained if the slope is made 1 in 100?
Q.4 A 1200 m long storm sewer collects waste (A) 3.28 m/s (B) 1.64 m/s
water from a catchment area of 50 hectare, (C) 0.82 m/s (D) 0.41 m/s
where 35% area is covered by roof Q.12 If the slope of sewer A is 1/100 and that of
( I  0.9), 20% area is covered by sewer B is 1/400. The velocity of flow in the
pavements ( I  0.8) and 45% area is two sewers will have a ratio of (size of both
covered by open land ( I  0.13). Determine the sewers being same)
the average I , and diameter of storm 1
(A) (B) 1
sewer line assuming 2
(i) The time of entry = 3 min (C) (2) 2/3 (D) 2
(ii) Velocity of full flow = 1.5 m/s
Q.13 Self-cleansing velocity is
(iii) n  0.013 and slope = 0.001, I  runoff
(A) The minimum velocity of flow required
ratio.
to maintain a certain amount of solids
Q.5 Determine the size of a circular sewer for a
in the flow
discharge of 500 litres per second running
(B) The maximum velocity of flow
half full. Assume S  0.0001 and n  0.015.
Q.6 A circular sewer of 45 cm diameter was required to maintain a certain amount
designed for a town of population 30,000. of solids in the flow
The sewer was designed to carry 3.5 times (C) Such flow velocity as would be
of the dry weather flow. What slope should sufficient to flush out any deposited
be provided to the sewer when running solids in the sewer
full? Value of n  0.012 in Manning’s (D) Such flow velocity as would be
equation. Assume other relevant data sufficient to ensure that sewage does
suitably. not remain in sewer
GATE ACADEMY ® Sewerage System and Sewer Appurtenances 37

Q.14 A sewer is commonly designed to attain Q.2 A combined sewer of a circular section is to
self-cleansing velocity at be designed for a city with a population of
(A) Peak hourly rate of flow 1 lakh in an area of 100 ha. The flow of
(B) Average hourly rate of flow sewage form the city is 250 lpcd and the
(C) Minimum hourly rate of flow rainfall intensity in the critical time period
is 4 cm/hr. The coefficient of runoff is 0.48
(D) Sewer running half full
and the manning roughness coefficient is
Q.15 The self-cleansing velocity in a sewer
0.012. Assume a velocity of 1.2 m/s.
depends on :
Determine the gradient of secure to carry
1. BOD (soluble)
the design discharge when it is running
2. Slope of the sewer full.
3. Ratio of depth of flow sewage to sewer
Q.3 The length of sewer line in drainage area
diameter ratio
and the entry time are given in the figure
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only and the time of concentration for the
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only catchment area and the storm water
Q.16 The drop manholes are provided in discharge in m3 / s Taking a runoff
sewerage system when there is coefficient of 0.3 the velocity of flow in the
(A) Change in alignment of sewer line sewer is 0.75 m/s and the frequency of
(B) Change in size of sewers design rainfall graph is provided for 5
(C) Change in the elevation of ground level years.
(D) Change from gravity system to
pressure system
Q.17 Consider the following statement
regarding building manholes:
1. They must be provided at every change
of alignment, gradient or diameter.
2. They must be provided at the head of
all sewers
3. They must be provided at every
junction of two or more sewers
4. They must be provided at every 100 m
along straight runs of sewers.
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1.3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
Q.4 The surface water from airport road side is
A Assignment Questions
drained to the longitudinal side drain from
Q.1 Design the section of a combined sewer for across one half of a bituminous pavement
a full flow from the given data. Area to be surface of total width 7.0 m, shoulder and
served = 150 ha population of the locality = adjoining land of width 8 m on one side of
50,000. Maximum permissible velocity = the drain. On the other side of the drain,
3.2 m/s, time of entry is 5 minute and the water flows across from reserve land with
time of flow is 20 minute rate of water average turf and 2% cross slope towards
supply 270 1pcd. Runoff coefficient 0.45. the side drain, the width of this strip of
Assume 75 % of the water is converted into land being 25 m. The inlet time may be
sewage. assumed to be 10 min for these conditions.
 38 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

The runoff coefficients of the pavement, 1

Slope, S  and the sewer would be
shoulder and reserve land with turf are 0.8, 625
0.25 and 0.35 respectively. The length of the designed to carry 4 times the average
stretch of land parallel to the road from discharge under design condition. Assume
where the water is expected to flow to the manning constant n  0.012 .
side drain is 400 m. Estimate the quantity Q.6 A 20 cm diameter sewer with invert slope
of runoff (m3/sec) flowing in the drain of 1 in 500 is running full. Calculate the rate
assuming 10 year frequency. of flow in the sewer. Compare the velocity
The side drain will pass through clayey soil with self-cleansing velocity. Assume
with allowable velocity of flow as 1.33 m/s. Manning’s n  0.12.
Intensity-duration chart for 10 years
Q.7 Design a sewer of diameter 300 mm
frequency is :
d
Duration (minutes) Intensity (mm/hr) flowing at  0.3 on a grade ensuring a
D
5 160 degree of self-cleansing equivalent to that
10 150 obtained in a sewer of dia. 300 mm in
15 125 which at full flow, velocity is 0.9 m/sec.
20 110 Find
30 95 (A) Required grade

Q.5 Design a sewer to serve a population of (B) The velocity of flow (m/s) and
36000. Daily water supply per capita discharge ( m3 /s ) (assume n  constant
 135 l of which 80% goes into the sewer. = 0.013)

A Answer Keys

MCQ & NAT Questions

1. A 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. B
6. 9.625  10 3
Practice Questions
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. 1.937 5. 1.80
1
6. S 7. 2 8. A 9. C 10. 9.626
447.46
11. B 12. D 13. C 14. C 15. C
16. C 17. A
Assignment Questions
11.67,
1. 1.34 2. 1/2666 3. 4. 0.23 m3/s 5. 0.518
0.61
1
6. 0.0158 m3/s 7. (a) (b) 0.845m/s, 0.015m 3 /s
158


 7 Treatment of Sewage
Secondary Treatment, Trickling Filter, Oxidation Pond,
Sludge Digestion Tank, Septic Tank, Imhoff Tank

M MCQ & NAT Questions treatment processes including their correct

sequence from the codes below :
Q.1 The following data are given for a channel
(A) 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 1
type grit chamber of length 7.5 m.
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 3, 1, 2, 4
1. Flow through velocity  0.3m/s
Q.2 Match List-I (Impurities to be removal
2. The depth of waste water at peak flow from sewage) with List-II (Treatment unit
in the channel  0.9 m used) and select the correct answer using
3. Specific gravity of inorganic particles the codes given below the lists :
 2.5 List-I
4. g  9.80 m/s 2 ,   1.002  10 3 N-s/m 2 at A. Large floating matter
B. Suspended inorganic matter
200 C,  w  1000 kg/m 3
C. Suspended organic matter
Assuming that the Stoke’s law is valid, the
D. Dissolved organic matter
largest diameter particle that would be
List-II
removed with 100 per cent efficiency is
1. Trickling matter 2. Primary clarifier
(A) 0.04 mm (B) 0.21 mm
3. Grit chamber 4. Screens
(C) 1.92 mm (D) 6.64 mm
Codes :
[GATE 2004 : IIT Delhi] A B C D
Q.2 In a waste water treatment plant, primary (A) 1 2 3 4
sedimentation tank (PST) designed at an (B) 2 1 3 4
overflow rate of 32.5 m 3 /day/m 2 is 32.5 m (C) 4 3 2 1
long, 8 m wide and liquid depth of 2.25 m. (D) 2 1 4 3
If the length of he weir is 75 m, the weir Q.3 A grit chamber of dimensions 12.0 m  1.50
3
loading rate (in m /day/m) is ______. m  0.80 m liquid depth has a flow of
[GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur] 720 m 3 /hr. Its surface loading rate and
P Practice Questions detention time are, respectively
(A) 4000 m 3 /hr/m 2 and 1.2 minutes
Q.1 The following are the sewage treatment
processes : (B) 40000 m 3 /hr/m 2 and 40 minutes
1. Primary sedimentation (C) 40 m 3 /hr/m 2 and 12 minutes
2. Screening (D) 40000 m 3 /hr/m 2 and 1.2 minutes
3. Grit removal Q.4 The flow sheet of the liquid stream of a
4. Secondary sedimentation sewage treatment scheme consists of
When only preliminary treatment is to be 1. Trickling filter
given for sewage, select the required 2. Primary settling tank
 40 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

3. Grit chamber 1. Can remove general floating matter

4. Screen chamber 2. Can remove oily and greasy matter
5. Secondary settling tank 3. Have detention time of 30 min
The correct sequence of these units in the 4. Employ compressed air blown through
sewage treatment scheme of a liquid diffusers
stream is Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 (B) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5 (A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 2
Q.5 Consider the following pairs of treatment
Q.9 The BOD removal efficiency, in
units and impurities removed
percentage, during primary treatment,
1. Grit chamber : Sand and silt under normal conditions is about
2. Detritus tank : Organic matter (A) 65% (B) 85%
3. Primary sedimentation tank : (C) 30% (D) Zero
Suspended impurities
4. Aeration tank of activated : Oil and A Assignment Questions
grease sludge process plant Q.1 A bar screen is installed in a wastewater
Which of these pairs are correctly treatment plant receiving a daily peak flow
matched? of crude sewage of 50,000 m 3 . Estimate the
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4 head loss through the screen and also the
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 gross area of the screen (i.e., the screen
Q.6 At a sewage treatment plant for a flow of requirements). Take desired velocity of
3m 3 /s , the cross-sectional area of grit flow through screen = 0.8 m/s.
chamber will be about 1
Also calculate the head loss when of the
2
(A) 3m 2 (B) 10 m 2
screen is plugged due to leaves and debris.
(C) 25m 2 (D) 30 m 2
Q.2 There is a dry weather flow of 500 litre/sec.
Q.7 Consider the following data in the design Assuming flow velocity through the tank
of grit chamber : as 0.22 m/sec. and detention period of 2.2
1. Specific gravity of grit  2.7 minutes, design a suitable grit chamber-
2. Size of grit particles  0.21mm cum-detritus tank. The maximum flow is
3. Viscosity of water  1.0  10 2 cm 2 /s three times the dry weather flow.

The settling velocity (cm/s) of the grit Q.3 Design a grit chamber to remove particles
particle will be of a diameter 0.2 mm and specific gravity
2.6 Settling velocity of the particles are in
(A) 1 to 2.5 (B) 2.6 to 5.0
the range of 0.0160 to 0.02 m/sec. The
(C) 5.1 to 7.8 (D) >7.8
proportioning weir will be having a
Q.8 In the preliminary treatment of waste
velocity of 0.28 m/sec. The maximum
water skimming tanks are often included
wastewater flow is expected to be 12000
in the treatment scheme. Various features
cum/day.
of skimming tanks are that these

A Answer Keys

MCQ & NAT Questions

1. B 2. 112.667
GATE ACADEMY ® Treatment of Sewage 41

Practice Questions

1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. D

6. B 7. B 8. B 9. C

Assignment Questions

1. 1.39 cm, 1m 2 , 15.3cm 2. 29m  5.2m  2m 3. 20m  0.5m  1m

Trickling Filter Q.6 Which of the following sewage treatment

methods has inherent problems of odour,
P Practice Questions ponding and fly nuisance?
Q.1 Trickling filters are used to remove (A) UASB system
(A) Suspended solids (B) Activated sludge process
(B) Colloidal solids (C) Trickling filters
(C) Organic matter (D) Stabilization ponds
(D) Pathogenic bacteria Q.7 Match List-I with List-II and select the
Q.2 Which of the following parameters are correct answer by using the codes given
employed in the design of trickling filter? below the lists:
1. Hydraulic loading rate List-I
2. Organic loading rate A. Grit chamber
3. Detention time B. Secondary setting tank
4. Weir loading rate C. Activated sludge process
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 2 only D. Trickling filter
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 and 4 only List-II
Q.3 When the recirculation ratio in a high rate 1. Zone setting
trickling filter is unity, then what is the 2. Stoke’s law
value of the recirculation factor? 3. Aerobic
(A) 1 (B) > 1 4. Contact stabilization
(C) < 1 (D) Zero Codes :
Q.4 In a high rate trickling filter, the problem of A B C D
ponding can be solved by (A) 1 2 3 4
(A) Flooding and raking (B) 2 1 3 4
(B) Chlorination and supply of air (C) 1 2 4 3
(C) Raking and chlorination (D) 2 1 4 3
(D) Flooding and supply of air Q.8 The removal of dissolved organic matter
Q.5 A trickling filter is primarily a occurs in
(A) Straining process to remove suspended (A) Slow sand filters
solids from sewage (B) Trickling filters
(B) Biological oxidation process to remove (C) Rapid sand filters
BOD from sewage (D) Dual media filters
(C) Straining process to remove turbidity
A Assignment Questions
from water
(D) Straining process to remove bacterial Q.1 A trickling filer plant treats 1500 m 3 /day of
from water sewage with a BOD5 of 220 mg/l and a SS
[GATE 1995 : Kanpur] of 250 mg/l. Estimate the total solid
 42 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

production assuming that primary Hydraulic loading = 170 ML/ha-m/day

clarification removes 30% of BOD and 60% (including recirculation)
of influent solids. Take the solid Recirculation Ratio = 1.0
production in the trickling filter at 0.5 kg Find the efficiency of the trickling filter and
per kg of the applied BOD. the BOD of the effluent
Q.2 Population of town = 30000 Q.3 Determine the dimension of a high rate
Domestic sewage produced = 120 lpcd trickling filter for the following data :
having BOD = 200 mg/l (i) Sewage flow = 3.0 MLD
(ii) Recirculation ratio = 1.5
Industrial sewage produced  3  105 lpd
having BOD = 800 mg/l (iii) BOD of raw sewage = 250 mg/L
(iv) BOD removed in primary tank = 25%
Design a high rate single stage Trickling
(v) Final effluent BOD desired = 30 mg/L
filter with the following data
By what % the diameter of the filter will
PST removes 35 % BOD
have to be modified if it is to be designed
Organic loading = 10,000 kg/ha-m/day as a standard rate trickling filter for the
(excluding recirculation) above requirement?

A Answer Keys

Practice Questions
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. B
6. C 7. B 8. B
Assignment Questions
74.5 %, 40.79
1. 340.5 2. 3. 31.79 m, 37.5 %
mg/l

Activated Sludge Process (A) 0.2 h (B) 4.8 h

(C) 10 h (D) 24 h
M MCQ & NAT Questions Q.2 What is the average time for which the
biomass stays in the system?
Common Data for [GATE 2007 : IIT Kanpur]
Questions 1 and 2 (A) 5 h (B) 8 h
(C) 2 days (D) 8 days
A completely mixed activated sludge
Common Data for
process is used to treat a waste water flow
Questions 3 and 4
of 1 million litres per day (1 MLD) having
a BOD5 of 200 mg/L. The biomass The sludge from the aeration tank of the
concentration in the aeration tank is 2000 activated sludge process (ASP) has solids
mg/L and the concentration of the net content (by weight) of 2%. This sludge is
biomass leaving the system is 50 mg/L. the put in a sludge thickener, where sludge
aeration tank has a volume of 200 m 3 . volume is reduced to half. Assume that the
amount of solids in the supernatant from
Q.1 What is the hydraulic retention time of the the thickner is negligible, the specific
waste water in aeration tank? gravity of sludge solids is 2.2 and the
[GATE 2007 : IIT Kanpur] density of water is 1000 kg/m 3 .
GATE ACADEMY ® Treatment of Sewage 43
Aeration tank
Q.3 What is the density of the sludge removed S = 15 mg/L
from the aeration tank? X = 3000 mg/L
Detention time = 2 h Secondary
[GATE 2011 : IIT Madras] Q = 15000 m /d
3
settling tank
Q - Qw = 14950 m3 /d
S0 = 100 mg/L S = 15 mg/L
(A) 990 kg/m 3 (B) 1000 kg/m 3 X 0 : 0 mg/L X e : 0 mg/L
Qr = 5000 m /d
3

(C) 1011kg/m 3 (D) 1022 kg/m 3 S = 15 mg/L

X u = 10000 mg/L Qw = 50 m3 /d
Q.4 What is the solids content (by weight) of S = 15 mg/L
Sludge return X u = 10000 mg/L
the thickened sludge?
So, S  Readily biodegradable soluble
[GATE 2011 : IIT Madras]
BOD, mg/L
(A) 3.96% (B) 4.00%
Q, Qr , Qw  Flow rates, m3 /d
(C) 4.04% (D) 4.10%
X 0 , X , X e , X n  Microorganism
Common Data for concentrations (mixed-liquor volatile
Questions 5 and 6 suspended solids or MLVSS), mg/L
The mean cell residence time (in days, up
An activated sludge system (sketched to one decimal place) is _______.
below) is operating at equilibrium with the [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati]
following information. Waste water Q.8 A waste activated sludge (WAS) is to be
related data : flow rate  500 m /hour , 3
blended with green waste (GW). The
influent BOD  150 mg/L , effluent BOD carbon (C) and nitrogen (N) contents, per
 10 mg/L . Aeration tank related data : kg of WAS and GW, on dry basis are given
in the table
hydraulic retention time  8hours , mean
Parameter WAS GW
cell residence time  240 hours , volume
Carbon(g) 54 360
 4000 m 3 , mixed liquor suspended solids
Nitrogen(g) 10 6
 2000 mg/L
The ratio of WAS to GW required (up to
Influent Secondary Effluent
Aeration two decimal places) to achieve a blended C:
Tank Clarifier
N ratio of 20 : 1 on dry basis is _____.
Sludge Recycle
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati]
Solids Wasted P Practice Questions
Q.5 The food to biomass (F/M) ratio (in kg
Q.1 Which one of the following is LEAST
BOD per kg biomass per day) for the
important in then activated sludge
aeration tank is
process?
[GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi] (A) Proper proportion of the return sludge
(A) 0.015 (B) 0.210 from the secondary settling tank
(C) 0.225 (D) 0.240 (B) Adequate aeration in the biological
reactor, so as to maintain certain
Q.6 The mass (in kg/day) of solids wasted
minimum dissolved oxygen
from the system is
(C) Proper food to micro-organisms (F : M)
[GATE 2012 : IIT Delhi]
ratio
(A) 24000 (B) 1000 (D) The sludge volume index of the return
(C) 800 (D) 33 sludge to be less than 200
Q.7 A schematic flow diagram of a completely Q.2 Sludge bulking can be controlled by
mixed biological reactor with provision for (A) Chlorination (B) Coagulation
recycling of solids is shown in the figure. (C) Aeration (D) Denitrification
 44 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.3 Consider the following statements : Q.8 Consider the following statements.
The process of activated sludge can be In the context of sludge volume index
explained as (SVI).
1. A physical action where by the finer 1. The SVI is expressed as the volume (in
suspended particles of sewage form a cc) of the activated sludge for one gram
sub layer for a bacterial film at the of dry weight of the sludge
surface 2. A higher value of SVI indicates a light
2. A chemical action where by the finer and fluffy sludge which is not easily
suspended particles and colloids solids settleable.
are combined into masses of large bulk Which of these statements is/are correct?
3. A biochemical action where by sludge (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
flocs so formed act as vehicles for (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
aerobic bacteria oxidizing the organic Q.9 In a well operating activated sludge
matter process unit, what is the value of sludge
Which of these statements are correct? volume index?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (A) < 50 (B) 100-150
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 (C) 200-300 (D) > 300
Q.4 The dominating microorganisms in an Q.10 Consider the following statements :
activated sludge process reactor are Activated sludge process can be said to
(A) Aerobic heterotrophs comprise :
(B) Anaerobic heterotrophs 1. Conversion of dissolved organic matter
into biological flocs
(C) Autotrophs
2. Removal of dissolved BOD of the waste
(D) Phototrophs
water
Q.5 Critical factors for the activated sludge
3. Digestion of the sludge
treatment process are
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) Maximum hourly flow rate
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
(B) Maximum and minimum flow rate
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 an 3 only
(C) Minimum hourly flow rate and
Q.11 Chlorine is sometimes used in sewage
minimum daily organic load
treatment
(D) Minimum hourly flow rate and
(A) To avoid flocculation
minimum daily organic load
(B) To increase biological activity of
Q.6 Bulking sludge refers to having
bacteria
(A) F / M  0.3 / d
(C) To avoid bulking of activated sludge
(B) 0.3 / d  F / M  0.6 / d
(D) To help in grease separation
(C) F / M  Zero Q.12 An aerobic reactor receives waste water at
(D) F / M  0.6 / d a flow rate of 500 m 3 /d having a COD of
Q.7 In conventional activated sludge process. 2000 mg/L. the effluent COD is 400 mg/L.
MLSS is generally kept in which range? Assuming that waste water contains 80%
(A) < 100 mg/L biodegradable waste, the daily volume of
(B) 1000 - 2000 mg/L methane produced by the reactor is
(C) 2000 - 3000 mg/L (A) 0.224 m 3 (B) 0.280 m 3
(D) 3000 - 5000 mg/L (C) 224 m 3 (D) 280 m 3
GATE ACADEMY ® Treatment of Sewage 45

A Assignment Questions (B) What is the food to microorganism’s

ratio in day 1
Q.1 The operational data for the activated
sludge treatment plant is given below (C) The % efficiency of the BOD removal
(D) The sludge age in days will be
1. Waste water flow = 35,000 m 3 /day
Q.2 An activated sludge aeration tank (length
2. Volume of aeration tank = 10,900 m3
= 30 m, width = 14 m, effective liquid depth
3. Influent BOD = 250 mg/l = 4.3 m) has the following parameters–
4. Effluent BOD = 20 mg/l
Flow rate = 0.0796 m3 /s
5. MLSS = 2500 mg/l
Influent BOD = 130 mg/l
6. Effluent suspended solids = 30 mg/l
MLVSS = 1500 mg/l
7. Waste sludge suspended solids = 9,700
Then the food to the micro - organism rate
mg/l
will be
8. Quantity of waste sludge flow rate =
Q.3 The MLSS concentration in aeration tank is
220 m 3 /day
2000 mg/l and the sludge volume after
Calculate : setting is 1000 ml graduated cylinder is 176
(A) Aeration time or hydraulic retention ml then the sludge volume index will be
time. (in hours)

A Answer Keys

MCQ & NAT Questions

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. D
6. C 7. 7.5 8. 1.64
Practice Questions
1. D 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. C
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. B
11. C 12. C
Assignment Questions
1. (a) 7.5 hrs (b) 0.32 (c) 92% (d) 8.57 2. 0.33 3. 88

Oxidation Pond treatment of waste water in the following

unit?
M MCQ & NAT Questions (A) Activated sludge
Q.1 A township is to treat 5,00,000 litres of
(B) Rotating biological disc
sewage per day which has a 5 day BOD of
150 ppm. An oxidation pond is used for the (C) Anaerobic digester
purpose. The effluent can have a BOD of 15 (D) Oxidation pond
ppm. The loading is to be 40 kg of 5 day Q.2 Sewage treatment in an oxidation pond is
BOD per hectare per day. The required accomplished primarily by
area of the pond is _______ Ha.
(A) Algal-bacteria symbiosis
[GATE 1991 : IIT Madras]
P Practice Questions (B) Algal photosynthesis only

Q.1 Symbiosis, the beneficial association (C) Bacterial oxidation only

between algae and bacteria is used for (D) Chemical oxidation
 46 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.3 In the oxidation ditch, the excess sludge is Q.7 From amongst the following sewage
taken to treatment options, largest land
(A) Anaerobic digester requirements for a given discharge will be
(B) Aerobic digester needed for
(C) Drying beds
(A) Trickling filter (B) Anaerobic pond
(D) Incinerator
Q.4 Match List-I (Treatment units) with List-II (C) Oxidation ditch (D) Oxidation pond
(Type of processes) and select the correct A Assignment Questions
answer using the codes given below the
lists : Q.1 Population of a town is 20000 with as
List-I assured water supply of 150 liter per head
a. Trickling filter per day. BOD of the waste water 150 mg/L.
b. Activated sludge process determine the dimensions of oxidation
c. Oxidation ditch pond
d. Oxidation pond
Q.2 Calculate the dimensions of an oxidation
List-II
pond and determine, the detention time for
1. Symbiotic
treating sewage from a residential colony
2. Extended aeration
3. Suspended impurities in the southern state with a population of
4. Attached growth 8000 persons. Assume that the sewage to
Codes : he treated at the rate of 125 lpcd, the 5 day
A B C D BOD of sewage is 325 ppm.
(A) 3 4 2 1 Q.3 Design an oxidation pond with inlet outlet
(B) 4 3 1 2 pipes for treating sewage from a residential
(C) 3 4 1 2 colony with 500 persons contributing
(D) 4 3 2 1
sewage At 120 lpcd. The 5-day BOD of
Q.5 Amongst the various sewage treatment
sewage is 300 ppm. Assume velocity of
methods, for the same discharge, the
sewage flow as 0.9 m/s, and daily flow for
largest area is needed for
8 hrs and organic loading in the pond at
(A) Trickling filter (B) Anaerobic pond
(C) Oxidation ditch (D) Oxidation pond d
300 kg/ha/day. Assume 0  1.5
Q.6 The function of algae in an oxidation pond di
is to Q.4 The oxidation pond is designed for 20000
(A) Provide a mat over the surface of the people with a sewage flow rate of 150 lpcd.
oxidation pond so as to prevent The influence BOD is 300 mg/l and
evaporation of water effluent BOD desired is 30 mg/l. The
(B) Provide oxygen for bacteria to degrade
organic loading rate is 300 kg/ha/day. The
organic matter
pond removal constant (rate of reaction) =
(C) Provide a greenish appearance to the
0.1/day depth of the pond will be
pond
(D) Prevent the odour nuisance

A Answer Keys
MCQ & NAT Questions
1. 1.6875
Practice Questions
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. D
6. B 7. D
GATE ACADEMY ® Treatment of Sewage 47

Assignment Questions
34.6m  17.3m  1.8m,
1. 150m  75m  1.8m 2. 148m  74m  1.8m , 20 3.
d 0  8.1cm , d i  5.4cm

4. 1.1 m

Sludge Digestion Tank 3. Greater production of methane

4. Lesser operating cost
P Practice Questions 5. Lesser capital cost
Q.1 The main constituents of gas generated Select the correct answer using the codes
during the anaerobic digestion of sewage given below :
sludge are (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(A) Carbon dioxide and methane (C) 3, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 2 and 5
(B) Methane and ethane Q.4 The following three stages are known to
(C) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide occur in the biological action involved in
the process of sludge digestion :
(D) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen
1. Acid fermentation
Q.2 Match List-I with List-II and select the
2. Alkaline fermentation
correct answer using the codes given
3. Acid regression
below the lists :
The correct sequence of these stages is
List-I
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 1
a. Thickening of sludge
(C) 3, 1, 2 (D) 1, 3, 2
b. Stabilization of sludge
Q.5 Consider the following advantages :
c. Conditioning of sludge
1. Lower BOD concentration in
d. Reduction of sludge
supernatant liquor
List-II
2. Production of a sludge with excellent
1. Decrease in volume of sludge by
dewatering capacity
chemical oxidation
3. Recovery of methane gas
2. Separation of water by heat or chemical
4. Lower operation cost
treatment
Which of these are the advantages of
3. Digestion of sludge anaerobic digestion over aerobic
4. Separation of water by flotation or digestion?
gravity (A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 2
Codes : (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3
A B C D Q.6 Consider the following statements in
(A) 4 3 1 2 regard to aerobic and anaerobic treatment
(B) 3 2 4 1 processes :
(C) 4 3 2 1 1. Biomass production in the aerobic
(D) 2 1 3 4 treatment process is more as compared
Q.3 Which of the following are claimed to the anaerobic treatment process
advantageous in respect of aerobic sludge 2. Start-up period is more in the aerobic
digestion as compared to anaerobic sludge treatment process as compared to the
digestion? anaerobic treatment process.
1. Lower BOD concentration in 3. Energy consumption and production is
supernatant liquor more in the aerobic treatment process
2. Production of sludge with excellent as compared to the anaerobic treatment
dewatering propensity process.
 48 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Which of these statements is/are correct? 2. Total suspended solids in raw sewage
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 = 300 mg/l.
(C) only 2 (D) only 1 3. Assume 60 % of suspended solids settle
in the primary sedimentation tank.
Q.7 Which one of the following is considered as
the thermophilic range of sludge 4. Moisture content of undigested sludge
digestion? = 95 %.

(A) 600 C to 700 C (B) 500 C to57 0 C 5. Moisture content of digested sludge =
85 %.
(C) 290 C to 400 C (D) 200 C to 300 C
6. Specific gravity of raw sludge = 1.02.
Q.8 Match List-I (Water/Waste water
7. Detention time = 30 days.
treatment) with List-II (Operating
Design volume required for the sludge
problem) and select the correct answer
digestion tank will be _______.
using the codes given below the lists :
List-I Q.2 Calculate the volume (in m 3 ) of anaerobic
digester for 5 MLD of domestic waste
a. Trickling filter
water treatment plant having 60% of the
b. Activated sludge process
suspended solids remaoved in primary
c. Rapid gravity filter sedimentation tank. The suspended solids
d. Anaerobic sludge digester concentration is 250 mg/L with a moisture
List-II content of 96%. The initial volatile solid
1. Negative head content in the sludge is 70%, volatile solids
destroyed is 65% the digested sludge solid
2. Fly-breeding
content is 8 %, specific gravity of primary
3. Sludge bulking sludge is 1.03 specific gravity of digested
4. pH reduction sludge is 1.04 and water = 1000 kg/m 3 and
Codes : the digestion period is 15 days.
a b c d Q.3 A digestion tank anaerobic reactor receives
(A) 4 3 1 2 waste water flow at a rate of 500 m3 /day
(B) 2 3 1 4 having a COD of 2000 mg/l. The effluent
(C) 4 1 3 2 COD is 400 mg/l. Assuming that waste
water contain 80 % of biodegradable waste.
(D) 2 1 3 4
The daily volume of the methane gas
A Assignment Questions produced by the reactor is _______.
Q.1 A sludge digestion tank is having the
following data
1. Average sewage flow rate = 20 MLD.

A Answer Keys

Practice Questions

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. C

6. D 7. B 8. B

Assignment Questions

1. 1176.4 m3 (1172 to 1178) 2. 140.1 m3/day 3. 262.08 m3/day

GATE ACADEMY ® Treatment of Sewage 49

Septic Tank hrs and 75 % of the water becomes waste

water, the tank is cleaned once in a year.
P Practice Questions The rate of deposition of the sludge is 40
Q.1 A septic tank is l/capita/annum, the depth of the tank is 2
L
(A) An aerobic method of an site sewage m with a freeboard of 0.3 m,  3.
B
treatment
Q.2 On the basis of detention period of 24
(B) An anaerobic method of on site sewage
hours, determine the size of septic tank
treatment
which is required for a house of 100
(C) A physical method of water treatment
persons. The flow into the tank may be
(D) A physicochemical method of water
assumed at the rate of 70 lpcd. Assume
treatment
L
Q.2 Which of the following waste disposal  2 and depth of waste water is 1 m.
B
tasks are achieved by a septic tank with its Also calculate the surface loading rate.
dispersion trench?
L 
1. Aerobic sludge digestion Q.3 Estimate the size of septic tank   2.25  ,
 B 
2. Settling and anaerobic sludge digestion the liquid depth is 2 m with a 300 mm
3. Anaerobic sewage stabilization freeboard, the desludging interval in years
4. Bio-oxidation of effluent and the total trench area of the percolation
Select the correct answer using the codes field for a small colony of 300 people has to
given below : be calculated. Assumed a water supply of
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 3 and 4 100 lpcd. The waste water flow is 80 % of
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 4 the water supplied and the sludge
production is 0.04 m3 /capita/year the
A Assignment Questions
detention time is 3 days desluging is done
Q.1 Design a septic tank for a colony of 300 when the tank is 1/3rd full of sludge.
people. The colony is supplied water at the
rate of 135 lpcd. Assume a detention of 24

A Answer Keys

Practice Questions
1. B 2. C
Assignment Questions

1. 8.7m  2.9m  2m 2. 4.6m  2.3m  1.3m, 0.66m 3 /day/m 2

3. 11m  4.9m  2.3m, 3 years

Imhoff Tank Q.2 Match List-I (process) with List-II

(Biological agent) and select the correct
P Practice Questions answer using the codes given below the
lists :
Q.1 The unit in which both sedimentation and List-I
digestion processes of sludge take place A. Oxidation ditch
simultaneously is B. Waste stabilization pond
(A) Skimming Tank (B) Imhoff Tank C. Imhoff tank
(C) Deritus Tank (D) Digestion Tank D. Rotating Biological Contractor (RBC)
 50 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

List-II C. Unit operation

1. Facultative bacteria D. Unit process
2. Anaerobic bacteria List-II
3. Aerobic bacteria (suspended culture) 1. Contaminant removal by physical
4. Aerobic bacteria (attached culture) forces
Codes : 2. Involving biological and/or chemical
A B C D reaction
(A) 4 1 2 3 3. Conversion of soluble organic matter to
(B) 3 1 2 4 biomass
(C) 1 2 3 4 4. Removal of solid materials from
(D) 3 4 1 2 incoming waste water
Q.3 Match List-I (terminology) with List-II Codes :
(definition/brief description) and select A B C D
the correct answer using the codes given (A) 4 3 1 2
below the lists : (B) 4 3 2 1
List-I (C) 3 4 2 1
A. Primary treatment (D) 1 2 3 4
B. Secondary treatment

A Answer Keys

Practice Questions
1. B 2. B 3. A


 8
Disposal of
Sewage Effluent
M MCQ & NAT Questions aeration of the river water is lower than the
rate of degradation of the organics, then
Q.1 In a certain situation, waste water the dissolved oxygen of the river water
discharged into a river mixes with the river (A) is lowest at the location S.
water instantaneously. Following is the (B) is lowest at a point upstream of the
data available: location S.
Waste water DO  2.00 mg/L (C) remains constant all along the length of
Discharge rate  1.10 m 3 /s the river.
(D) is lowest at a point downstream of the
River water DO  8.3mg/L location S.
Flow rate  8.70 m 3 /s [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee]
Q.4 A drain carrying sewage of BOD = 200
Temperature  200 C
mg/L and flow rate of 50 m3/s joins a river
Initial amount of DO in the mixture of whose upstream BOD is 8 mg/L and flow
waste and river shall be rate is 500 m3/s. Assume immediate and
(A) 5.3 mg/L (B) 6.5 mg/L complete mixing of drain with the river.
(C) 7.6 mg/L (D) 8.4 mg/L What is the estimated downstream BOD of
[GATE 2005 : IIT Bombay] the river flow? [ESE : 2009]
(A) 20.4 mg/L (B) 25.4 mg/L
Q.2 A waste water stream (flow  2 m 3 /s ,
(C) 104.4 mg/L (D) 70.4 mg/L
ultimate BOD  90 mg/l ) is joining a small
P Practice Questions
river (flow  12 m 3 /s , ultimate BOD
Q.1 Sewage may be disposed of without
 5mg/l). Both water streams get mixed up
treatment into a water body if the available
instantaneously. Cross-sectional area of the
dilution is
river is 50 m 2 . Assuming the de- (A) Less than 150 (B) More than 150
oxygenation rate constant, k  0.25 /day , (C) More than 300 (D) More than 500
the BOD (in mg/l) of the river water, 10 km Q.2 The minimum dissolved oxygen content
downstream of the mixing point is (ppm) in a river necessary for the survival
(A) 1.68 (B) 12.63 of aquatic life is
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 15.46 (D) 1.37
(C) 4 (D) 8
[GATE 2014 : IIT Kharagpur]
Q.3 Match List-I (Characteristics of sewage
Q.3 The wastewater from a city, containing a discharged into inland waters) with List-II
high concentration of biodegradable (Allowable limit, mg/L) and select the
organics, is being steadily discharged into correct answer using the codes given
a flowing river at a location S. If the rate of below the lists:
 52 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

List-I List- (A) Zone of degradation

A. BOD5 1. 250 (B) Zone of active decomposition
B. COD 2. 30 (C) Zone of recovery

C. Oil and Grease 3. 20 (D) Zone of clear water

Q.8 In dissolved oxygen sag curve, the sag
D. Total Suspended 4. 10
curve results because
Solids 5. 5
(A) It is a function of rate of addition of
6. 3
oxygen to the stream
Codes : (B) It is a function of rate of addition of
A B C D oxygen from the stream
(A) 2 5 4 2 (C) It is a function of both addition and
(B) 4 1 6 4 depletion of oxygen from the stream
(C) 3 1 4 2 (D) The rate of addition of oxygen is linear
(D) 2 1 6 3 but the rate of depletion is non-linear

Q.4 For fish habitat in a river, the minimum A Assignment Questions

dissolved oxygen required is Q.1 A river before its entry into a town had a
(A) 2 mg/L (B) 4 mg/L discharge of 100 l/sec and 20 mg/l as the
(C) 8 mg/L (D) 10 mg/L concentration of a conservative parameter.
Q.5 The following zones are formed in a The town's waste water outfall having 200
polluted river mg/l (two hundred mg/l) concentration of
1. Zone of clear water the same conservative parameter raised the
river concentration of 50 mg/l after a
2. Zone of active decomposition
complete mix with the river water.
3. Zone of recovery
Determine the dilution ratio resulting from
4. Zone of pollution the discharge of the said waste water
The correct sequence in which these zones outfall.
occur progressively downstream in a Q.2 The treated domestic sewage of a town is
polluted river is to be the discharged in a natural stream.
(A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1 Calculate then percentage purification
(C) 2, 4, 3, 1 (D) 2, 4, 1, 3 required in the treatment plant with the
Q.6 When sewage enters a flowing river, the following data :
rapid depletion of dissolved oxygen is due (i) Population  50,000
to (ii) BOD contribution per capita
(A) Change in temperature in river water  0.07 kg/day

(B) The suspended particles in river and (iii) BOD of stream on U/S side  3 mg/l
waste (iv) Permissible maximum BOD of stream
(C) Respiratory activity of aquatic plants in on D/S side  5mg/l
the river (v) Dry weather flow of sewage  140 litres
(D) Microbial activity per capita per day
Q.7 When wastewater is disposed of into a (vi) Minimum flow of stream  0.13m 3 /s
running stream, four zones are formed. In Q.3 125 m3 /s of a sewage is discharged in a
which one of the following zones will the river which is fully saturated with O2 and
minimum level of dissolved oxygen be
flow at a minimum rate  1600 m3 /s with a
found?
minimum velocity of 0.12 m/s. If the 5 day
GATE ACADEMY ® Disposal of Sewage Effluent 53

BOD of the sewage is 300 mg/l. Find out Q.5 The BOD rate constant (K) for a river's BOD
the critical DO that will occur in the river assimilation was determined to be 2/day
k R  0.44 / day . (base e). The BOD of this river after leaving
Assume coefficient of purification of river a heavily populated town was determined
= 4.0, k D  0.11 / day , BODu  12.5 BOD5 . to be 50 mg/l. Determine the distance in
km after which the rivers BOD would
Ultimate BOD = 125% of BOD mix.
become 4 mg/l when the average velocity
Q.4 A large stream has a re-oxygenation
of river was 1 m/s.
constant of 0.4 per day. At a velocity of 0.85 A B
m/s; and at the point at which an organic
pollutant is discharged, it is saturated with
oxygen at 10 mg/l (D0 = 0). Below the 1 m/s
outfall, the ultimate demand for oxygen is
found to be 20 mg/l and the de-
oxygenation constant is 0.2 per day. What
is the D.O. 48.3 km downstream?

A Answer Keys

MCQ & NAT Questions

1. C 2. C 3. D 4. B
Practice Questions
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B
6. D 7. B 8. C
Assignment Questions
1. 6 2. 98.35% 3. 4.39, 17.86 4. 6.15 5. 109.11


 9
Solid Waste
Management
M MCQ & NAT Questions Assuming (c1  c2 )  100 , the composite
Q.1 50 g of CO2 and 25 g of CH 4 are produced density of the solid waste () is given by
from the decomposition of municipal solid 100   
(A) (B) 100  1  2 
waste (MSW) with a formula weight of 120  c1 c2   c1 c2 
  
g. what is the average per capita  1 2 
greenhouse gas production in a city of 1
 12 
million people with a MSW production (C) 100  c11  c22  (D) 100  
 c11  c22 
rate of 500 ton/day?
(A) 104 g/day (B) 120 g/day [GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur]
(C) 208 g/day (D) 313 g/day Q.4 A landfill is to be designed to serve a
[GATE 2007 : IIT Kanpur] population of 200000 for a period of 25
Q.2 The composition of a certain MSW sample years. The solid waste (SW) generation is 2
and specific weights of its various kg/person/day. The density of the un-
components are given below : compacted SW is 100 kg/m 3 and a
Percent Specific weight compaction ratio of 4 is suggested. The
Component ratio of compacted fill (i.e. SW + Cover) to
by weight (kg/m 3 )
Food 50 300 compacted SW is 1.5. The landfill volume
Dirt and (in million m3 ) required is ________.
30 500 [GATE 2015 : IIT Kanpur]
Ash
Plastics 10 65 Q.5 Match List-I (Methods of solid waste
Wood and disposal) with List-II (Terms pertaining to
10 125 the methods) and select the correct answer
Yard waste
using the codes given below the lists :
Specific weight (kg/m3 ) of the MSW
[ESE : 1999]
sample is
List-I
(A) 319 (B) 217
A. Incineration B. Sanitary landfill
(C) 209 (D) 199
C. Composting D. Salvage by sorting
[GATE 2006 : IIT Kharagpur]
List-II
Q.3 Solid waste generated from an industry
1. Requires presorting, grinding and
contains only two components, X and Y as
turning
shown in the table below
2. Limited to special wastes and selected
Composition Density
Components materials
(% weight) (kg/m 3 )
3. High operations and maintenance cost
X c1 1
4. Tractor
Y c2 2
5. Rat and fly breeding
GATE ACADEMY ® Solid Waste Management 55

Codes : Garden
40 60 3500
A B C D trimmings
(A) 2 5 4 3 Wood 5 20 14000
(B) 1 4 2 3 Tin cans 5 2 100
(C) 3 4 1 2
The difference between the energy content
(D) 3 5 4 2
of the waste sample calculated on dry basis
Q.6 The description of solid waste collected is
and as discarded basis (in kJ/kg) would be
as follows : [ESE : 2002]
_________. [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee]
Night soil : 35t
Q.10 A city generates 40  106 kg of Municipal
Rubbish : 40t
Solid Waste (MSW) per year, out of which
Debris : 25t
10% is recovered/recyclable and the rest
Garbage : 40t
goes to landfill. The landfill has a single lift
The organic solids in the above
of 3m height and is compacted to a density
composition is
of 550 kg/m 3 . If 80% of the landfill is
(A) 35t (B) 60t
assumed to be MSW, the landfill area (in
(C) 100t (D) 75t
m 2 , up to one decimal place) required
Q.7 A municipal sewage has BOD5 of 200 would be _________.
mg/L. It is proposed to treat it and dispose
[GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati]
off into a marine environment. For what
Q.11 The moisture content of a certain
minimum efficiency should the sewage
municipal solid waste with the following
treatment plant be designed? [ESE : 2005]
composition will be [ESE : 2018]
(A) 85% (B) 60%
Wet, % Dry %
(C) 50% (D) 33.67%
weight weight
Q.8 A solid waste sample has been segregated
and one of the components has been Food waste 10 03
subjected to elemental analysis. The result Paper 35 30
of analysis in per cent by mass revealed C Yard waste 20 10
(40%), H (6.0%) O (44%), N (0.3%). What is
Others 35 20
the likely waste component? [ESE : 2008]
(A) Food waste (A) 100 % (B) 63 %
(B) Paper and cardboard (C) 37 % (D) 13 %
(C) Plastic waste P Practice Questions
(D) Leather waste
Q.1 Which one of the following comprehensive
Q.9 The compositions of a municipal solid
classifications is used for different types of
waste sample is given below :
solid wastes?
Energy
Percent Moisture content (A) Residential, commercial and treatment
Component by content (kJ/kg, on plant wastes
mass (%) as-discarded (B) Food, demolition and construction
basis) wastes
Food waste 20 70 2500 (C) Municipal, industrial and hazardous
Paper 10 4 10000 wastes
Cardboard 10 4 8000 (D) Rubbish, special wastes and wastes
Plastics 10 1 14000 from open areas
 56 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.2 Two biodegradable components of Q.8 When a sewage is disposed off in a river,
municipal solid waste are the rate of depletion of dissolved oxygen of
(A) Plastic and wood the river mainly depends on
(B) Cardboard and glass (A) Biochemical oxygen demand of the
(C) Leather and tin cans sewage

(D) Food wastes and garden trimmings (B) Chemical oxygen demand of the
sewage
Q.3 A coastal city produces municipal solid
waste (MSW) with high moisture content, (C) Total organic carbon present in the
high organic materials, low calorific value sewage
and low inorganic materials. The most (D) Dissolved oxygen present in the
effective and sustainable option for MSW sewage
management in that city is Q.9 Aerobic method of composting practiced
(A) Composting (B) Dumping in sea in India is called
(C) Incineration (D) Landfill (A) Bangalore method (B) Nagpur method
Q.4 Which one of the following solid waste (C) Delhi method (D) Indore method
disposal methods is ecologically most Q.10 The least expensive and most suitable,
acceptable? excreta disposal unit for rural areas would
(A) Sanitary landfill (B) Incineration be the
(C) Composting (D) Pyrolysis (A) soak pit (B) pit privy
Q.5 Which of the following materials are used (C) leaching cesspool (D) septic tank
as landfill sealants for the control of gas Q.11 In a sanitary landfill, decomposition and
and leachate movements? chemical changes within organic content of
1. Lime 2. Sand the solid waste goes on Consequential
3. Bentonite 4. Fly ash changes within landfill can be
5. Butyl rubber 1. Temperature changes within landfill
Select the correct answer using the codes 2. Production of gases like H 2S,CO, CO 2
given below : and CH 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 4 and 5 3. Destruction of pathogens
(C) 3 and 5 (D) 1, 2 and 4
4. Production of other gases like SO 2 and
Q.6 Which one of the following methods can
NO2
be employed for plastic and rubber waste
disposal? Which of these statements are correct?

(A) Composting (B) Incineration (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) Sanitary landfill (D) Pyrolysis (C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 3

Q.7 Sewage sickness is a term used for Q.12 Sewage sickness signifies
(A) Persons who becomes sick after (A) Diseases caused by sewage
drinking polluted water (B) Soil pores setting clogged and
(B) A treatment plant which does not preventing free circulation of air when
function properly sewage is continuously applied on land
(C) A stream where the flora and fauna die (C) Raw sewage is applied and used for
due to sewage inflow irrigation vegetables which are eaten
(D) The condition of load where sewage is raw
applied continuously for a long period (D) Disposal of specific sewage on land
GATE ACADEMY ® Solid Waste Management 57

Q.13 Bangalore method Indore method of Oxygen 48.58

disposing solid wastes are Nitrogen 0.43
(A) Identical Sulphur 0.13
(B) Different as Bangalore method is an Ash 4.47
anaerobic method
Q.3 Estimate the moisture content of a solid
(C) Different as Bangalore method does
waste sample with the following
not contain human excreta
composition
(D) Different as Indore method is an
% by %
incineration method Component
mass moisture
Q.14 Which one of the following methods of
Food waste 20 70
solid waste management conserves energy
most efficiently in the form of gas or oil? Paper 40 6
(A) Incineration with heat recovery Cardboard 10 5
(B) Combusting Plastic 5 2
(C) Fluidized-bed incineration Garden 5 60
(D) Pyrolysis waste
Wood 5 20
A Assignment Questions
Tin cans 5 3
Q.1 The following composition for a solid
waste is given- Q.4 Estimate the theoretical volume of
methane gas that would be expected from
Calculate :
an anaerobic digestion of a tonne of waste
(a) The unit energy content (kJ/kg)
having the composition of MSW
(b) Find out the energy content (kJ/kg) on
C50 H100O40 N and the chemical expression is
dry basis if the moisture content of the
given below. Assume the density value of
waste is 21 %
the CH 4 is 0.7167 kg / m 3 .
(c) Find out the energy content (kJ/kg) on
ash free basis if the ash content is 5% (4a  b  2c  3d )
Ca H b Oc N d  H 2O
4
Energy in
Component % by mass  4a  b  2c  3d 
kJ/kg   CH 4
 8 
Food waste 15 4650
 4a  b  2c  3d 
  CO2  dx
Paper 45 16750  8 
Cardboard 10 16300
Plastic 10 37600
Garden 10 6500
waste
Wood 5 18600
Tin cans 5 700

Q.2 The ultimate analysis of a combustible

waste is given below. Estimate the energy
content of the waste
Component Density
Carbon 34.51
Hydrogen 6.90
58 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

A Answer Keys

MCQ & NAT Questions

1. D 2. A 3. A 4. 13.6875 5. C

6. D 7. C 8. A 9. 3870 10. 27272.2

11. C

Practice Questions
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. C
6. D 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. D
11. A 12. B 13. B 14. D
Assignment Questions
1. (a) 15240 kJ/kg (b) 19291.14 kJ/kg (c) 20594.59 kJ/kg 2. 13545.65 kJ/kg
3. 31.15% 4. 447


10 Air Pollution

M MCQ & NAT Questions Assuming a linear decline in the air flow
rate during sampling, what is the 24 hours
Q.1 Two electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) are
average TSP concentration in the ambient
in series. The fractional efficiencies of the
air?
upstream and downstream ESPs for size
(A) 59.2μg/m3 (B) 118.6μg/m3
d p are 80% and 65%, respectively. What is
(C) 237.5μg/m3 (D) 574.4μg/m3
the overall efficiency of the system for the
[GATE 2011 : IIT Madras]
same d p ?
Q.4 It was decided to construct a fabric filter,
(A) 100% (B) 93% using bags of 0.45 m diameter and 7.5 m
(C) 80% (D) 65% long, for removing industrial stack gas
[GATE 2007 : IIT Kanpur] containing particulates. The expected rate
Q.2 The mean indoor airborne Chloroform of airflow into the filter is 10 m 3 / s . If the
 CHCl3  concentration in a room was filtering velocity is 2.0 m/min, the
determined to be 0.4 g/m3 . minimum number of bags (rounded to
nearest higher integer) required for
Use the following data : T  293 K , P  1
continuous cleaning operation is
atmosphere R  82.05  106 atm-m3 /mol-K .
(A) 27 (B) 29
Atomic weights : C  12, H  1,Cl  35.5 (C) 31 (D) 32
This concentration expressed in parts per [GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore]
billion (volume basis, ppbv) is equal to Q.5 An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) with
(A) 1.00 ppbv (B) 0.20 ppbv 5600 m2 of collector plate area is 96 percent
(C) 0.10 ppbv (D) 0.08 ppbv efficient in treating 185 m 3 / s of flue gas
[GATE 2006 : IIT Kharagpur] from a 200 MW thermal power plant. It
Q.3 Total suspended particulate matter (TSP) was found that in order to achieve 97
concentration in ambient air is to be percent efficiency, the collector plate area
measured using a high volume sampler. should be 6100 m2 . In order to increase the
The filter used for this purpose has an efficiency to 99 percent, the ESP collector
initial dry weight of 9.787 g. the filter was plate area (expressed in m2 ) would be
mounted in the sampler and the initial air ________. [GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore]
flow rate through the filter was set at Q.6 If carbon monoxide is released at the rate
1.5m3 / min . Sampling continued for 24 of 0.03m3 / min from a gasoline engine and
hours. The airflow after 24 hours was 50 ppm is the threshold limit for an 8 hour
3
measured to be 1.4 m / min . The dry weight exposure, the quantity of air which dilutes
of the filter paper after 24 hour sampling the contaminant to a safe level will be
was 10.283 g. [ESE : 1999]
 60 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

(A) 60 m3 / min (B) 600 m3 / min Q.11 An air parcel having 400 temperature
moves from ground level to 500 m
(C) 60 m3 /s (D) 600 m3 /s
elevation in dry air following the
Q.7 Which one of the following plume “adiabatic lapse rate”. The resulting
behavior occurs when atmospheric temperature of air parcel at 500 m elevation
inversion begins from the ground level and will be
continues? [ESE 2000]
(A) 350 C (B) 380 C
(A) Looping (B) Fumigation
(C) Coning (D) Fanning (C) 410 C (D) 440 C
Q.8 Elevation and temperature data for places [GATE 2010 : IIT Guwahati]
are tabulated below Q.12 Following observations have been made
Elevation ‘m’ Temperature C 0
for the elevation and temperature to
4 21.25 ascertain the stability of the atmosphere :
444 15.70 Elevation Temperature

based on data, lapse rate can be referred as (in m) (in 0 C )

(A) Super-adiabatic (B) Sub-adiabatic 10 15.5
(C) Neutral (D) Inversion 60 15.0
[GATE 2013 : IIT Bombay] 130 14.3
Q.9 The following is well known formula for
estimating the plume rise : The atmosphere is classified as

Vs d  Qh  (A) Stable (B) Unstable

h  1.5  0.0096 
u  Vs d  (C) Neutral (D) Inverse
Where the letters have their usual [GATE 2017 : IIT Roorkee]
meaning. The estimated plume rise (by the
Q.13 There are 20,000 vehicles, operating in a
above formula) with a stack gas having
city with an average annual travel of 12,000
heat emission rate 2000 kJ/s, the wind
km per vehicle. The NO x emission rate is
speed 4 m/s, stack gas speed 8 m/s inside
2.0 gm/km per vehicle. The total annual
a stack diameter of 1 m at the top is
release of NO x will be
[ESE : 2002]
(A) 7.8 m [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati]
(B) 8.7 m (A) 4,80,000 kg (B) 4800 kg
(C) 3.15 m (C) 480 kg (D) 48 kg
8000
(D) 1.5  0.0024   Q.14 A coal containing 2% sulfur is burned
 completely to ash in a brick kiln at a rate of
Q.10 Which one of the following pairs is not 30 kg/min. The sulfur content in the ash
correctly matched? [ESE : 2005] was found to be 6% of the initial amount of
Plume behavior atmospheric condition sulfur present in the coal fed to the brick
(A) Looping : Stable kiln. The molecular weights of S, H and O
(B) Fumigation : Inversion above and lapse are 32, 1 and 16 gm/mole, respectively. The
below the stack annual rate of sulfur dioxide (SO 2 )

(C) Fanning : Inversion emission from the kiln (in tons/year, up to

two decimal places) is ________.
(D) Trapping : Inversion above and below
the stack with lapse in between [GATE 2018 : IIT Guwahati]
GATE ACADEMY ® Air Pollution 61

P Practice Questions Codes :

A B C D
Q.1 The atmospheric layer closest to the earth (A) 3 2 1 4
surface is (B) 2 3 4 1
(A) The mesosphere (B) The stratosphere (C) 3 1 2 4
(C) The thermosphere (D) The troposphere (D) 4 1 2 3
Q.7 The atmosphere extends upto a height of
Q.2 Two primary air pollutant are
10,000 km. it is divided into the following
(A) Sulphur dioxide and ozone
four thermal layers :
(B) Nitrogen oxide and 1. Mesosphere
peroxyacetylnitrate 2. Stratosphere
(C) Sulphur oxide and hydrocarbon 3. Thermosphere
(D) Ozone and peroxyacetylnitrate 4. Troposphere
Q.3 Consider four common air pollutants The correct sequence of these starting from
found in urban environments, NO,SO 2 , the surface of the earth upwards is
(A) 2, 4, 1, 3 (B) 4, 2, 1, 3
soot and O 3 . Among these which one is the
(C) 4, 2, 3, 1 (D) 2, 4, 3, 1
secondary air pollutant?
Q.8 Which of the following air pollutants
(A) O 3 (B) NO is/are responsible for photochemical
(C) SO 2 (D) Soot smog?
1. Oxides of nitrogen
Q.4 Pre-cursors to photochemical oxidants are
2. Ozone
(A) NO X , VOCS and sunlight
3. Unburnt hydrocarbons
(B) SO 2 ,CO 2 and sunlight 4. Carbon monoxide
(C) H 2S,CO and sunlight Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
(D) SO 2 , NH 3 and sunlight
(A) 1 alone (B) 2, 3 and 4
Q.5 Which one of the following is not present (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3
in the acid rain Q.9 Match List-I (Pollutants) with List-II
(A) HNO3 (B) H 2SO 4 (Sources) and select the correct answer
(C) H 2 CO 3 (D) CH 3 COOH using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
Q.6 Match List-I with List-II and select the a. Acid water
correct answer using the codes given b. SO 2
below the lists :
c. CO 2
List-I
d. Fly ash
a. CO List-II
b. CO 2 1. Volcanoes
c. SO 2 2. Automobiles
3. Thermal power station
d. NO x
4. Mining
List-II Codes :
1. Greenhouse effect A B C D
2. Acid rains (A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 4 1 3 2
3. Acute toxicity
(C) 1 4 3 2
4. Ozone liberation at ground level (D) 1 4 2 3
 62 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

Q.10 Aerosol is Q.13 Which of the following air pollutants are

(A) Carbon particles of microscopic size responsible for the greenhouse effect?
(B) Dispersion of small solid or liquid 1. Methane
particles in gaseous media 2. Carbon dioxide
(C) Finely divided particles of ash 3. Chlorofluorocarbons
(D) Diffused liquid particles 4. Nitrogen oxides
Q.11 Match List-I (Air pollutant) with List-II Select the correct answer using the codes
(Environmental effect) and select the given below :
correct answer using the codes given (A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
below the lists : (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
List-I Q.14 Which of the following pairs are correctly
A. Carbon monoxide matched?
B. Particulate matter 1. Ringelmann chart : To grade density of
smoke
C. Nitrogen oxides
2. Pneumoconiosis : Disease caused due
D. Sulphur dioxide
to coaldust
List-II
3. PAN : Secondary air pollutant
1. Respiratory distress for living beings
Select the correct answer using the codes
2. Chemical reaction with haemoglobin in
given below :
blood
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
3. Reduction in visibility and
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
aeroallergens carrier
Q.15 Match List-I (Air pollutants) with List-II
4. Photochemical smog in atmosphere
(Harmful effects) and select the correct
Codes : answer using the codes given below the
A B C D lists :
(A) 2 3 1 4 List-I
(B) 3 2 1 4 a. SPM b. NO
(C) 2 3 4 1 c. CO d. SO 2
(D) 3 2 1 4 List-II
Q.12 Consider the following statements in 1. Blood hamoglobin
respect of effect of air pollutants on 2. Vegetation
vegetation : 3. Respiratory system
1. Necrosis refers to killing of tissue 4. Building materials
2. Chlorosis refers to loss or reduction of Codes :
green plant pigment A B C D
3. Leaf abscission refers to dropping of (A) 3 4 1 2
leaves (B) 1 2 3 4
4. Leaf epinasty refers to a downward (C) 3 2 1 4
curvature of a leaf due to a higher rate
(D) 1 4 3 2
of growth on the upper surface.
Q.16 Match List-I (Air pollutants) with List-II
Which of the above statements are correct? (Emitted mainly by) and select the correct
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) l, 2, 3 and 4 answer using the codes given below the
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only lists :
GATE ACADEMY ® Air Pollution 63

List-I Q.19 Which one of the following toxic gases has

a. Hydrocarbons physiological action as asphyxiate?
b. Particulates and gases (A) SO 2 (B) NO 2
c. Sulphur dioxide (C) Cl2 (D) CO
d. Carbon monoxide Q.20 Which of the following are responsible for
List-II the formation of photochemical smog?
1. Coal burning 2. Gasoline fuel 1. Light intensity
3. Tyres 4. Carburetor 2. Ratio of hydrocarbons to nitric oxide
Codes : 3. CO2
A B C D 4. Hydrocarbon reactivity
(A) 3 4 2 1 5. SO2
(B) 4 3 2 1 (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 3 4 1 2 (C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 4 3 1 2 Q.21 Which of the following factors contribute
Q.17 Match List-I (Air pollutant) with List-II to formation of photochemical smog?
(Impact on human health) and select the 1. Stable atmospheres 2. NO x
correct answer using the codes given
3. Solar insolation 4. CO
below the lists :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
List-I
(C) 1 and 4 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
A. Particulates
Q.22 The major source of ‘Carbon monoxide’ in
B. Carbon monoxide
the urban atmosphere is due to
C. Sulphur oxides (A) Decomposition of organics
D. Photochemical oxidants (B) Chemical reaction between VOC and
List-II NOx
1. Impairs transport of O 2 in blood stream (C) Incomplete combustion of fuel
2. Irritation of mucous membranes of (D) Incomplete combustion in the presence
respiratory tract of sun light
3. Causes coughing, shortness of breath, Q.23 Consider the following statements
headache etc. regarding air pollution :
4. Causes respiratory illness 1. The pollutant caused by incomplete
Codes : combustion or organic matter is carbon
A B C D monoxide.
(A) 2 3 4 1 2. Depletion of ozone in outer
(B) 4 1 2 3 atmosphere may trigger skin cancer.
(C) 2 1 4 3 3. Acid rains are caused by SO2 and NO x .
(D) 4 3 2 1 4. The permissible standard for SO2 in air
Q.18 What are the air pollutant responsible for for residential areas in India is
acid rain within and downwind area of 80 μg/m .3

major industrial emission? Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Hydrogen sulfide and oxides of (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4
nitrogen
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(B) Sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen Q.24 Particulate matter (fly ash) carried in
(C) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide effluent gases from the furnaces burning
(D) Methane and hydrogen sulfide fossil fuels are better removed by
 64 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

(A) Cotton bag house filter Determine the safe height (in m) of the
(B) Electrostatic precipitator (ESP) chimney required for the safe dispersion of
(C) Cyclone the pollutants.
(D) Wet scrubber Q.2 Determine the effective height of a stack
Q.25 In an atmosphere under super-adiabatic with the following data (in m)
lapse rate conditions, the emission from a (a) Physical stack is 180 m tall with 0.95 m
chimney produces a plume described as inside diameter
(A) Coning (B) Loftin (b) Wind velocity 2.75 m/s
(C) Looping (D) Fumigation (c) Air temperature 200 C
Q.26 During temperature inversion in (d) Barometric pressure is 1000 millibars
atmosphere, air pollutants tend to (e) Stack gas velocity is 11.12 m/s
(A) Accumulate above inversion layer
(f) Stack gas temperature is 1600 C
(B) Accumulate below inversion layer
(C) Disperse laterally
(D) Disperse vertically
Q.27 The dispersion of pollutants in atmosphere
is maximum when
(A) Environmental lapse rate is greater
than adiabatic lapse rate
(B) Environmental lapse rate is less than
adiabatic lapse rate
(C) Environmental lapse rate is equal to
adiabatic lapse rate
(D) Maximum mixing depth is equal to
zero
Q.28 Following observations have been made
for the elevation and temperature to
ascertain the stability of the atmosphere :
Elevation (in m) Temperature (in 0 C )
10 15.5
60 15.0
130 14.3

The atmosphere is classified as

(A) Stable (B) Unstable
(C) Neutral (D) Inverse
A Assignment Questions
Q.1 A factory uses 1.5 ML of fuel oil per month.
The exhaust gases from the factory contain
the following quantities of pollutants per
ML per year;
(i) Particulate matter :  4 t/year
(ii) SO2 : 20 t/year
(iii) NO x : 5 t/year
(iv) HC, CO and other : 3 t/year.
GATE ACADEMY ® Air Pollution 65

A Answer Keys

MCQ & NAT Questions

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. 8011.78
6. B 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. A
11. A 12. B 13. A 14. 592.88
Practice Questions
1. D 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. D
6. C 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. B
11. C 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. C
16. D 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. B
21. D 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. C
26. B 27. A 28. B
Assignment Questions
1. 52 2. 188.92


11 Noise Pollution

M MCQ & NAT Questions P Practice Questions

Q.1 The sound pressure level for a jet plane on Q.1 The reference pressure used in the
the ground with sound pressure of 2000 determination of sound pressure level is
bar should be [ESE : 1999] (A) 20μPa (B) 20 Db
(A) 60 decibel (B) 100 decibel (C) 10μPa (D) 10 dB
(C) 140 decibel (D) 180 decibel Q.2 According to the noise pollution
Q.2 A noise meter located at a distance of 30 m (regulation and control) rules, 2000 of the
from a point source recorded 74 dB. The ministry of environment and Forests,
reading at a distance of 60 m from the point India, the day time and night time noise
source would be dB. level limits in ambient air for residential
area expressed in dB(A) Leq are
[GATE 2016 : IISc Bangalore]
Q.3 A machine in a steel plate fabricating (A) 50 and 40 (B) 55 and 45
industry is found to be producing a sound (C) 65 and 55 (D) 75 and 70
level of 50 dB. In the expansion plans one Q.3 The sound pressure (expressed in Pa ) of
more such machine needs to be added. the faintest sound that a normal healthy
What will be the combined noise level? individual can hear is
[ESE : 2007] (A) 0.2 (B) 2
(A) 80-100 dB (B) 101-150 dB (C) 20 (D) 55
(C) 51-70 dB (D) 40-50 dB Q.4 As per Noise Pollution (Regulation and
Q.4 The cumulative noise power distribution Control) Rules 2000 of India, the day time
curve at a certain location is given below : noise limit for a residential zone, expressed
in dB (A) Leq is
100
(A) 55 (B) 65
Per cent of time greater

(C) 75 (D) 85
than stated value

Q.5 Two sources generate noise levels of 90 dB

and 94 dB respectively. The cumulative
effect of these two noise levels on the
0 human ear is
50 Noise level, dBA 100
(A) 184 dB (B) 95.5 dB
The value of L40 is equal to
(C) 94 dB (D) 92 dB
[GATE 2006 : IIT Kharagpur] Q.6 Which one of the following is the correct
(A) 90 dBA (B) 80 dBA sound intensity expression with usual
(C) 70 dBA (D) 60 dBA notations?
GATE ACADEMY ® Noise Pollution 67

 I 
2 Q.11 Consider the following statements :
(A) dB  10log10   1. Sound is a form of mechanical energy
 I0 
from a vibrating substance, transmitted
 I  by a cyclic series of compressions and
(B) dB  10log10  
 I0  rarefactions of the molecules of the
material through which it passes.
(C) dB  10log10  I  I 0 
2

2. In a pure tone, the wave pattern of the

(D) dB  10log10  I  I 0  alternating positive and negative
Q.7 What type of noise can be abated by sound pressure is of ideal sinusoidal
providing lining on walls and ceiling with form with fixed wave length, frequency
sound absorbing materials? and amplitude.
(A) Source noise 3. The speed of transmission of sound is a
(B) Reflection noise function of the transmitting medium
and its temperature.
(C) Structural noise
4. The audible range of 200 to 25000 Hz is
(D) Direct air-borne noise
considered normal for young adults.
Q.8 Noise pollutant in a road-side building can Which of these statements are correct in
be reduced by respect of sound transmission?
(A) Providing a ditch around the building (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
and filling it with water (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only
(B) Providing a steel mesh around the
A Assignment Questions
building
Q.1 A 60 dB and another 60 dB noises are
(C) Providing a thick bush around the
measured with reference to the 20μPa then
building
noise level in dB w.r.t. 20μPa is ______.
(D) Planting tall trees around the building
Q.2 While recording various sound levels,
and fencing them with barded wires
readings have been taken at site at different
Q.9 For noise measurement, formula for sound
times of a day. Then the reading are 20 dB,
P
pressure level (SPL) is 20log . What will 56 dB, 66 dB, 42 dB with reference to
Pref
20μPa . Then
be the resultant noise in dB if P is 0.0002 
(a) The total noise level (dB) will be
bar? (b) The average pressure sound level (dB)
(A) 0 (B) 60 be
(C) 90 (D) 100 Q.3 Traffic noise data are given in the table
Q.10 Consider the following statements : below compute Leq
1. Noise pollution can be reduced using Time (in s) Noise (dB)
double-glass window panes 10 71
2. Glass absorbs the noise 20 75
3. The air trapped in the double-glass 30 70
system acts as an insulator and reduces 40 78
the noise 50 80
4. The noise totally reflects back due to 60 84
the two layers of glass. 70 76
Which of these statements are correct? 80 74
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only 90 75
100 74
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 4 only
68 Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY ®

A Answer Keys

MCQ & NAT Questions

1. C 2. 67.98 3. C 4. B
Practice Questions
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C
11. C
Assignment Questions
1. 63 dB 2. (a) 66.43 dB (b) 56.78 dB 3. 75.61 dB


 ® 69
GATE ACADEMY GATE 2019 Questions

GATE 2019 Questions

Q.1 Analysis of a water sample revealed that the sample contains the following species.
CO32 , Na  ,PO34 , Al 3 ,H2CO3 , Cl  ,Ca 2 , Mg 2 ,HCO3 ,Fe2 ,OH
Concentrations of which of the species will be required to compute alkalinity?
(A) CO32 , H , HCO3 ,OH (B) H , H2CO3 , HCO3 ,OH
(C) CO32 , H2CO3 , HCO3 ,OH (D) CO32 , H , H2CO3 , HCO3
Q.2 A completely mixed dilute suspension of sand particles having diameters 0.25, 0.35, 0.40, 0.45 and
0.50 mm are filled in a transparent glass column of diameter 10 cm and height 2.50 m. The suspension
is allowed to settled without any disturbance. It is observed that all particles of diameter 3.35 mm settle
to the bottom of the column in 30 sec. For the same period of 30 sec. The percentage removal (roundoff
to integer value) of particles of diameters 0.45 and 0.50 mm from the suspension is _______.
Q.3 Sedimentation basin in a water treatment plants is designed for a flow rate of 0.2 m 3 /s . The basin is
rectangular with a length of 32 m. Width of 8 m and depth of 4m. Assume that the settling velocity of
these particles is governed by the stoke’s law.
Given :Density of the particles  2.5g/cm3 , density of water  1g/cm3 , dynamic viscosity of water
 0.01g/(cm.s) gravitational acceleration  980 cm/s 2 . If the incoming water contains particles of
diameter 25 μm (Spherical and uniform), the removal efficiency of these particles is
(A) 100% (B) 51%
(C) 78% (D) 65%
Q.4 A 0.80 m deep bed of sand filter (length 4 m and width 3m) is made of uniform particles (diameter =
0.40 mm, specific gravity = 2.65, shape factor = 0.85) with bed porosity of 0.4. The bed has to back
washed at a flow rate of 3.60 m3 /min . During back washing, if the terminal settling velocity of sand
particles is 0.05 m/s, the expanded bed depth (in m round off to 2 decimal places) is_________.
Q.5 A wastewater is to be disinfected with 35 mg/L of chlorine to obtain 99% kill of micro-organisms. The
number of micro-organisms remaining alive ( N t ) at time t, is modelled by Nt  N0e kt , where N 0 is
number of micro-organism at t  0 , and K is the rate of kill. The wastewater flow rate is 36 m 3 /h and
k  0.23 min 1 . If the depth and width of chlorination tank are 1.5 m and 1.0 m respectively, then the
length of the tank (in m round off to 2 decimal places) is_______.
Q.6 A water treatment plant treats 600 m 3 of water per day. As a part of the treatment process, discrete
particles are required to be settled in a clarifier. A column test indicates that can overflow rate of 1.5
m per hour would produce the desired removal of particles through settling in the clarifier having a
depth of 3m. The volume of the required clarifier, (in m 3 , round off to 1 decimal place) would
be_______.
 70 ®
Environment Engineering : Work Book GATE ACADEMY

Q.7 Chlorine is used as the disinfectant in a municipal water treatment plant. It achieves 50 percent of
disinfection efficiency measured in terms of killing the indicator microorganisms (E-coil) in 3 minutes.
The minimum time required to achieve 99 percent disinfection efficiency would be.
(A) 19.93 minutes (B) 11.93 minutes
(C) 9.93 minutes (D) 21.93 minutes
Q.8 Raw municipal solid waste (MSW) collected from a city contains 70%decomposable material that can
be converted to methane. The water content of the decomposable material is 35%. An elemental
analysis of the decomposable material yield the following mass percent.
C : H : O : N : other = 44 : 6 : 43 : 0.8 : 6.2
The methane production of the decomposable material is governed by the following stoichiometric
relation
Ca H b O c N d  nH 2O  mCH 4 +sCO 2 +dNH 3
Given atomic weights : C  12, H  1, O  16, N  14 . The mass of methane produced (in grams, round
off to 1 decimal place) per kg of raw MSW will be______.
Q.9 Which one of the following is a secondary pollutant?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Hydrocarbon
(C) Ozone
(D) Volatile organic carbon (VOC)
Q.10 A sample of air analysed at 00 C and 1 atm pressure is reported to contain 0.02 ppm (parts permillion)
of NO 2 . Assume the gram molecular mass of NO 2 as 46 and its volume at 0 0 C and 1 atm pressure as
22.4 litres per mole. The equivalent NO 2 concentration (in microgram per cubic meter, round off to 2
decimal places) would be_______.
Q.11 Which one of following options contains ONLY primary air pollutants?
(A) Ozone and peroxyacptyle nitrate
(B) Hydrocarbons and ozone
(C) Hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides
(D) Nitrogen oxides and peroxyacptyle nitrate.

A Answer Keys

1. A 2. 100% 3. D 4. 1.21 5. 8.01

6. 500 7. A 8. 137.6 9. C 10. 41.07
11. C