PHP 38 Apg T

Test Booklet Code
T3
NEET (UG) 2024
Questions, Answer Key & Solutions
Date: 05 May, 2024 | TIME: (02:00 PM to 05:20 PM)
Duration: 200 minutes (03 Hrs. 20 Min.) | Max. Marks: 720
Important Instructions:
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in
the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single
correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two
Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions Nos – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark
will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
iz'uksa ds vuqokn esa fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr esa] vaxzsth laLdj.k dks gh vfUre ekuk tk;sxkA
Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters): ____________________________________________________________________________
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NEET (UG) 2024 | DATE : 05-05-2024 | PHYSICS
PART : PHYSICS
1. A tightly wound 100 turns coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic
field at the centre of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as 4  107 SI units ):
(1) 4.4 mT (2) 44 T (3) 44 mT (4) 4.4 T
Ans. (1)
2. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(Material) (Susceptibility  )))
A. diamagnetic I.  = 0
B. Ferromagnetic II. 0    1
C. Paramagnetic III.   1
D. Non-magnetic IV. 0     (a small positive number)
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) A-III, B-II,C-I,D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III,C-II,D-I
(3) A-II, B-III,C-IV,D-I
(4) A-II, B-I,C-III,D-IV
Ans. (3)
3. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle abcda. the work done by the gas along the path bc
is
(1) 90 J3 (2) 90 J (3) Zero (4) 30 J

Ans. (3)
4. An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then

(1) both the reflected and refracted light will be completely polarised
(2) the reflected light will be completely polarised but the refracted light will be partially polarised.
(3) the reflected light will be partially polarised.
(4) the refracted light will be completely polarised.
Ans. (2)
Np 1
5. In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is  . The ratio Vs : Vp is equal to (the symbols carry their
Ns 2
usual meaning):
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
Ans. (4)

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6. A logic circuit provides the output Y as per the follwing truth table :
The expression for the output Y is
(1) B (2) B (3) A.B  A (4) A.B  A

Ans. (1)
7. In a vernier calipers, (N+1) divisions of vernier scale coincide with N divisions of main scale. If 1 MSD
represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is :
1 1
(1) 100 N (2) 10 (N+1) (3) (4)
10N 100N  1
Ans. (4)
8. The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1m length if the elastic limit of steel and its Youns's modulus,
respectively, are and 8  108 Nm2 and 2 1011 Nm2 is :

(1) 40 mm (2) 8 mm (3) 4 mm (4) 0.4 mm
Ans. (3)
9. A horizontal force 10 N is applied to a block A as shown in figure. The mass of block A and B are 2 kg
and 3 kg, respectively The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block A on block
B is :
(1) 6 N (2) 10 N (3) zero (4) 4 N

Ans. (1)
10. If the monochromatic source in Young's double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then
(1) There will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.
(2) all bright fringes will be of equal width.
(3) interference pattern will disappear.
(4) there will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.
Ans. (1)

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 1
11. The graph which shows lite variation of  2  and its kinetic energy, E is (where  is de Broglie
 
wavelength of a free particle):
1
(2) 
2
(1)
1
(3) 
2
(4)
Ans. (2)
12. In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is :
2F 2F
A 2F B
2F 2F
(1) 0.5  F (2) 4 F (3) 2 F (4) 1 F
Ans. (3)
13.
In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction
of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions :
(1) AB and CD (2) BA and DC (3) AB and DC (4) BA and CD
Ans. (3)

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14. Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer :
A. For a solar-cell, the I-V characteristics lies in the IV quadrant of the given graph.
B. In a reverse biased pn junction diode, the current measured in (A), is due to majority charge carriers.
(1) Both A and B are correct. (2) Both A and B are incorrect.
(3) A is correct but B is incorrect. (4) A is incorrect but B is correct.
Ans. (3)
15. A light ray enters through a right angled prism at point P with the angle of incidence 30° as shown in
figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base BC and emerges along the face AC. The refractive
index of the prism is :
3 3 5 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 4 2
Ans. (4)
16. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : The potential (V) at any axial point at 2 m distance r from the centre of the dipole of dipole

moment vector P of magnitude, 4 × 10–6 C m, is ±9 × 103 V.
1
(Take = 9 × 103 SI units)
4 0
2P
Reason R : V = ± , where r is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2m from the centre of
4 0 r 2
the dipole.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is flase but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Ans. (1)
17. The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its mid point and perpendicular to the
rod, is 2400 g cm2. The length of the 400 g rod is nearly:
(1) 20.7 cm (2) 72.0 cm (3) 8.5 cm (4) 17.5 cm
Ans. (3)

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18. The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is 10 V and internal resistance 1, when connected
through an external resistance of 4 as shown in the figure is :
(1) 8V (2) 10 V (3) 4V (4) 6V

Ans. (1)
19. Match List I with List II

List I List II
Spectral lines of hydrogen (Wavelengths (nm)
for transitions from)
A. n2 = 3 to n1 = 2 I. 410.2
B. n2 = 4 to n1 = 2 II. 434.1
C. n2 = 5 to n1 = 2 III. 656.3
D. n2 = 6 to n1 = 2 IV. 486.1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Ans. (4)
20. If c is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photon among the following are :
A. The energy of a photon is E = h
B. The velocity of a photon is c.
h
C. The momentum of a photon, p =
c
D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved.
E. Photon possesses positive charge
(1) A, C and D only (2) A, B, D and E only
(3) A and B only (4) A, B, C and D only
Ans. (4)
  
 
21. 290
82X  Y 
 Z 
e
 P  Q
e
In the nuclear emission stated above, the mass number and atomic number of the product Q respectively
are
(1) 288, 82 (2) 286, 81 (3) 280, 81 (4) 286, 80
Ans. (2)
22. At any instant of time t, the displacement of any particle is given by 2t – 1 (SI unit) under the influence of
force of 5N. The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit) :
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 5
Ans. (3)

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23. The output (Y) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an/a :
(1) OR gate (2) AND gate (3) NAND gate (4) NOR gate
Ans. (2)
1
24. The mass of a planet is th that of the earth and its diameter is half that of the earth. The acceleration
10
due to gravity on that planet is :
(1) 4.9 ms–2 (2) 3.92 ms–2 (3) 19.6 ms–2 (4) 9.8 ms–2
Ans. (2)
25. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative
charges.
Statement II : Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Ans. (3)
26. A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is v in
the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (P and Q are any highest and lowest
points on the wheel, respectively) ?
Q
(1) Both the points P and Q move with equal speed
(2) Point P has zero speed.
(3) Point P moves slower than point Q.
(4) Point P moves faster than point Q.
Ans. (4)
27. A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains :

(1) constant velocity but varying acceleration.
(2) varying velocity and varying acceleration
(3) constant velocity.
(4) constant acceleration.
Ans. (2)

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28. A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of
water is 0.07 Nm–1, then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is :
(1) 1.98 mN (2) 99 N (3) 19.8 mN (4) 198 N
Ans. (3)
29. In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds
as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is 9.8 × 10–6 kg m2. If the magnitude of magnetic moment
of the needle is x × 10–5 Am2, then value of 'x'is :
(1) 50 2 (2) 1280 2 (3) 5 2 (4) 128 2

Ans. (2)
30. Two bodies A and B of same mass undergo completely inelastic one dimensional collision. The body A
moves with velocity v1 while body B is at rest before collision. The velocity of the system after collision is
v2. The ratio v1 : v2 is :
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
Ans. (4)
 
31. If x  5 s in t  m represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude
 3
and time period of motion, respectively, are :
(1) 5 cm, 1 s (2) 5 m, 1 s (3) 5 cm, 2 s (4) 5 m, 2 s
Ans. (4)
32. The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are :
(1) strain and arc (2) angular speed and stress
(3) strain and angle (4) stress and angle
Ans. (3)
33. A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points C and
P (in V) shown in the figure is :
1
(Take  9  109 SI units)
4 0
(1) 0.5 × 105 (2) zero (3) 3 × 105 (4) 1 × 105

Ans. (2)

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34. A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of  rpm. The tension in
the string is T. If speed becomes 2 while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes :
T
(1) (2) 2T (3) T (4) 4T
4
Ans. (4)
35. A wire of length 'l' and resistance 100 is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in
series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in
series. The resistance of this final combination is :
(1) 55   (2) 60   (3) 26  (4) 52 
Ans. (4)
36. The following graph represents the T-V curves of an ideal gas (where T is the temperature and V the
volume) at three pressures P1, P2 and P3 compared with those of Charles's law represented as dotted
line
Then the correct relation is :

(1) P2 > P1 > P3 (2) P1 > P2 > P3 (3) P3 > P2 > P1 (4) P1 > P3 > P2
Ans. (2)
37. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If I is the current in
the circuit then in the gap between the plates :
(1) displacement current of magnitude equal to I flows in a direction opposite to that of I.
(2) displacement current of magnitude greater than I flows but can be in any direction.
(3) there is no current.
(4) displacement current of magnitude equal to I flows in the same direction as I.
Ans. (4)
38. The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space is that :
1
(1) they travel with a speed equal to .
 0 
(2) they originate from charges moving with uniform speed.
(3) they are transverse in nature.
(4) the energy density in electric field is equal to energy density in magnetic field.
Ans. (2)

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39. Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
40. If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then
A. the charge stores in it, increases.
B. the energy stored in it, decreases.
C. its capacitance increases.
D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
E. the product of charge and voltage increases.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) B, D and E only
(2) A, B and C only
(3) A, B and E only
(4) A, C and E only
Ans. (4)
41. A force defined by F = t2 + t acts on a particle at a given time t. The factor which is dimensionless, if 
and  are constants, is :
 t t
(1) t (2) (3) (4)
t  
Ans. (4)
42. A metallic bar of Young's modulus, 0.5 × 1011 Nm–2 and coefficient of linear thermal expansion 10–5 ºC–1,
length 1 m and area of cross-section 10–3 m2 is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC without expansion or bending.
The compressive force developed in it is :
(1) 100 × 103 N (2) 2 × 103 N (3) 5 × 103 N (4) 50 × 103 N
Ans. (4)
43. A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5.0 cm. The
magnifying power of telescope for viewing a distant object is :
(1) 17 (2) 32 (3) 34 (4) 28

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Ans. (4)
44. An iron bar of length L has magnetic moment M. It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two
arms make an angle 60º with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is :
M M
(1) 2 M (2) (3) M (4)
3 2
Ans. (4)
45. A 10 F capacitor is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz source as shown in figure. The peak current in the
circuit is nearly ( = 3.14) :
(1) 1.20 A (2) 0.35 A (3) 0.58 A (4) 0.93 A

Ans. (4)
46. Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1kW and 2kW, respectively. Those two are first connected in
series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is :
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 9
Ans. (4)
47. The velocity (v) – times (t) plot of the motion of a body is shown below :
The acceleration (a) – time (t) graph that best suits this motion is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (1)

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48. If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made
x
half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is times its original time period. Then the
2
value of x is :
(1) 2 3 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

Ans. (4)
49. The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of earth of mass M and
radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R from the surface of the earth is:
Gm M Gm M 5 Gm M 2 Gm M
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2R 3R 6R 3R
Ans. (3)
50. A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to:
(A) hold the sheet there if it is magnetic.
(B) hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic.
(C) move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting.
(D) move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non- polar.
Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:
(1) A, C and D only
(2) C only
(3) B and D only
(4) A and C only
Ans. (4)

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Test Booklet Code
T3
NEET (UG) 2024
evaluated.

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NEET (UG) 2024 | DATE : 05-05-2024 | CHEMISTRY
PART : CHEMISTRY
51. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
(Conversion) (Number of Faraday required)
A. 1 mol of H2O to O2 I. 3F
B. 1 mol of MnO4– to Mn2+ II. 2F
C. 1.5 mol of Ca from molten CaCl2 III. 1F
D. 1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3 IV. 5F
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Ans. (3)
52. Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

(1) H2 + Cl2 2HCl (2) BaCl2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaCl
(3) Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu (4) 2KClO3 + I2 2KIO3 + Cl2
Ans. (2)
53. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in

NO2 NO2 NO2
(1) (2) HF (3) (4)
OH HO
HO
Ans. (3)
54. Fehling's solution 'A' is

(1) alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate (Rochelle's salt)
(2) aqueous sodium citrate
(3) aqueous copper sulphate
(4) alkaline copper sulphate
Ans. (3)
55. 1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium hydroxide
left unreacted is equal to
(1) Zero mg (2) 200 mg (3) 750 mg (4) 250 mg
Ans. (4)

List I List II
(Compound) (Shape/geometry)
A. NH3 I. Trigonal Pyramidal
B. BrF5 II. Square Planar
C. XeF4 III. Octahedral
D. SF6 IV. Square Pyramidal

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(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Ans. (3)
57. The Eº value for the Mn3+/Mn2+ couple is more positive than that of Cr3+/Cr2+ or Fe3+/Fe2+ due to change
of
(1) d4 to d5 configuration (2) d3 to d5 configuration
5 4
(3) d to d configuration (4) d5 to d2 configuration
Ans. (3)

List I List II
(Process) (Conditions)
A. Isothermal process I. No heat exchange
B. Isochoric process II. Carried out at constant temperature
C. Isobaric process III. Carried out at constant volume
D. Adiabatic process IV. Constant pressure
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Ans. (2)
59. Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of
(1) orientation of reactant molecules during collision.
(2) rate constant at two different temperature.
(3) rate constant at standard temperature.
(4) probability of collision.
Ans. (2)
60. A compound with a molecular formula of C6H14 has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is :
(1) 2,3-dimethylbutane (2) 2,2-dimethylbutane
(3) n-hexane (4) 2-methylpentane
Ans. (1)
61. 'Spin only' magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions?
A. Ti3+ B. Cr2+
C. Mn 2+ D. Fe2+
E. Sc3+
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) B and C only (2) A and D only (3) B and D only (4) A and E only
Ans. (3)

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62. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity :

N, O, F, C, Si
(1) O < F < N < C < Si (2) F < O < N < C < Si (3) Si < C < N < O < F (4) Si < C < O < N < F
Ans. (3)
63. Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent ?
CH3
(1) CH3—CH—CH2OH (2) CH3—C—OH
CH3 CH3
(3) CH3—CH2—CH3—CH2OH (4) CH3—CH2—CH2OH
CH3
Ans. (2)

Statement I : Both Co(NH3 )6  and CoF6 
3 3–
complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic
behaviour.
Statement II : Co(NH3 )6  is diamagnetic whereas CoF6 
3 3–
is paramagnetic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are true. (4) Both statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans. (3)

Statement I : The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order
H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S.
Statement II : On the basis of molecular mass, H2O is expected to have lower boiling point than the other
members of the group but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in H2O, it has higher boiling point.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are true. (4) Both statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans. (3)

List I List II
Quantum Number Information provided
(A) ml (I) shape of orbital
(B) ms (II) size of orbital
(C) l (III) orientation of orbital
(D) n (IV) orientation of spin of electron
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I (2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(3) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV (4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
Ans. (4)

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List I List II
(Reaction) (Reagents/Condition)
O
(A) 2 O (I) Cl/
Anhyd.AlCl3
O
(B) (II) CrO3
OH O
(C) (III) KMnO4/KOH, 
CH2CH3 COOK
(i) O3
(D) (IV)
(ii) Zn–H2O

(1) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III (2) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III
(3) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II (4) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
Ans. (1)
68. Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation.
CH2–CH=CH2 CH2–CH2–CHO
(1) (i) BH3, (ii) H2O2/OH, (iii) alk. KMnO4, (iv) H3O
(2) (i) H2O/H+, (ii) PCC,
(3) (i) H2O/H+, (ii) CrO3
(4) (i) BH3, (ii) H2O2/OH, (iii) PCC
Ans. (4)
69. The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are
A. Tollen's reagent
B. Schiff's reagent
C. HCN
D. NH2OH
E. NaHSO3
Choose the correct options from the given below:
(1) B and E (2) E and D (3) B and C (4) A and D
Ans. (1)

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List I List II
(Molecule) (Number and types of bonds between two carbons atoms)
(A) ethane (I) one -bond and two -bonds
(B) ethene (II) two -bonds
(C) carbon molecule, C2 (III) one -bond
(D) ethyne (IV) two -bond and one -bond
(1) A – III ; B – IV ; C – II ; D – I (2) A – III ; B – IV ; C – I ; D – II
(3) A – I ; B – IV ; C – II ; D – III (4) A – IV ; B – III ; C – II ; D – I
Ans. (1)
71. Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show –2 oxidation state?
(1) Te (2) PO (3) O (4) Se
Ans. (2)
72. For the reaction 2A B + C, KC = 4 × 10–3. At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is :
–3
[A] = [B] = [C] = 2 × 10 M.
Then, which of the following is correct?
(1) Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction.
(2) Reaction has gone to completion forward direction.
(3) Reaction is at equilibrium.
(4) Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction.
Ans. (1)
1
73. Which plot of ln k vs is consistent with Arrhenius equiton?
T
ln k 
ln k 
ln k 
ln k 
(1) (2) (3) (4)

1/T  1/T  1/T  1/T 
Ans. (2)
74. In which of the following equilibria, KP and KC are NOT equal?
(1) CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) (2) 2BrCl(g) Br2(g) + Cl2(g)
(3) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (4) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HIg)
Ans. (3)

Statement I : The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order
n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane
Statement II : When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of sphere. this results in smaller
surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are
weak, thereby lowering the boiling point.

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In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Ans. (3)
76. The compound that will undergo SN1 reaction with the fastest rate is
CH3
Br Br
(1) (2) (3) Br (4) Br
Ans. (2)
77. The energy of an electron in the ground state (n = 1) for He+ ion is –x J, then that for an electron in n = 2
state for Be3+ ion in J is :
4 x
(1) – 4x (2) – x (3) – x (4) –
9 9
Ans. (3)
78. In which of the following processes entropy increases ?

A. A liquid evaporates to vapour.
B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from 130 K to 0 K.
C. 2 NaHCO3 (s)  Na2CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (g)
D. Cl2(g)  2 Cl(g)
(1) A, C and D (2) C and D (3) A and C (4) A, B and D
Ans. (1)
79. On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state.
The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known
as
(1) Distillation (2) Chromatography
(3) Crystallization (4) Sublimation
Ans. (4)

List I (Complex) List II (Type of isomerism)
A. CoNH3 5 NO2 Cl2 I. Solvate isomerism
B. CoNH3 5 SO4 Br II. Linkage isomerism
C. CoNH3 6  CrCN6  III. Ionization isomerism
D. CoH2O6 Cl3 IV. Coordination isomerism
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

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Ans. (3)
81. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction.
Statement II : Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement Ii is false.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Ii is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans. (3)
82. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy:
Li, Be, B, C, N
(1) Li < Be < C < B < N (2) Li < Be < N < B < C
(3) Li < Be < B < C < N (4) Li < B < Be < C < N
Ans. (4)
83. The highest number of helium atoms is in

(1) 4 g of helium (2) 2.271098 L of helium at STP
(3) 4 mol of helium (4) 4 u of helium
Ans. (3)
84. The most stable carbocation among the following is

CH3
 
(1) CH2 (2)
CH3
CH3 
C CH
(3) H3C CH CH3 (4) H3C H CH2
 CH3
Ans. (2)
85. The Henry's law constant (KH) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are 145, 2 × 10 –5 and 35 kbar
respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order:
(1) A > C > B (2) A > B > C (3) B > A > C (4) B > C > A
Ans. (4)
86. A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula
of X is: (Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32 u)
(1) AB2C2 (2) ABC4 (3) A2BC2 (4) ABC3
Ans. (4)

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87. The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are
3ROH + PCl3  3RCl + A
ROH + PCl5  RCl + HCl + B
(1) H3PO4 and POCl3 (2) H3PO3 and POCl3
(3) POCl3 and H3PO3 (4) POCl3 and H3PO4
Ans. (3)
88. The plot of osmotic pressure () vs concentration (mol L–1) for a solution gives a straight line with slope
25.73 L bar mol–1. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is:
(Use R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1)
(1) 25.73°C (2) 12.05°C (3) 37°C (4) 310°C
Ans. (3)
89. For the given reaction:

+
C CH KMnO4/H 'P'
(major
H product)
OH OH OH OH
(1) CH CH (2) C C
(3) CHO (4) COOH
Ans. (4)

Statement I: CoNH3 6  is a homoleptic complex whereas CoNH3 4 Cl2  is a heteroleptic complex.
3 
Statement II: Complex CoNH3 6  has only one kind of ligands but CoNH3 4 Cl2  has more than one
3 
kind of ligands.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement I is false. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3)Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans. (3)
91. During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid
is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe2+ ion?
(1) dilute nitric acid (2) dilute sulphuric acid
(3) dilute hydrochloric acid (4) concentrated sulphuric acid
Ans. (2)

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92. Identify the correct answer.

(1) Dipole moment of NF3 is greater than that of NH3.
(2) Three canocical forms can be drawn for CO32 ion.
(3) Three resonance structures can be drawn for ozone.
(4) BF3 has non-zero dipole moment.
Ans. (2)
93. Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group
number from 0 to VI.
A. Al3+ B. Cu2+
C. Ba 2+ D. Co2+
E. Mg2+
(1) E, C, D, B, A (2) E, A, B, C, D (3) B, A, D, C, E (4) B, C, A, D, E
Ans. (3)
94. Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence:
CH3  CH2  CH2  I   A
NaCN
OH– NaOH
B C
Partial hydrolysis Br2 (major)
(1) butanamide (2) –bromobutanoic acid
(3) propylamine (4) butylamine
Ans. (3)
95. The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27°C to 57°C.
Calculate the energy of activation.
Given R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1, log 4 = 0.6021
(1) 3.80 kJ/mol (2) 3804 kJ/mol (3) 38.04 kJ/mol (4) 380.4 kJ/mol
Ans. (3)
96. Consider the following reaction is a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of
N2 = 3.0 × 10–3 M, O2 = 4.2 × 10–3 M and
NO = 2.8 × 10–3 M.
2NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g)
If 0.1 mol L–1 of NO(g) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be degree of dissociation () of NO(g) at
equilibrium?
(1) 0.8889 (2) 0.717 (3) 0.00889 (4) 0.0889
Ans. (2)
97. The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25°C from
pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is :
(Given R = 2.0 cal K–1 mol–1)
(1) 413.14 calories (2) 100 calories
(3) 0 calories (4) –413.14 calories
Ans. (4)

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98. Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper
sulphate solution for 100 seconds is :
(Given : Molar mass of Cu : 63 g mol–1, 1 F = 96487 C)
(1) 31.5 g (2) 0.0315 g (3) 3.15 g (4) 0.315 g
Ans. (4)
99. Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are
OH
H3C
PBr3 Alc. KOH
A B
(major) 
(major)

OH OH OH O
H3C Br H3C H3C Br H3C
(1) A = ;B= (2) A = ;B=
Br Br
H3C H3C H3C H3C
(3) A = ;B= (4) A = ;B=
Ans. (3)
100. The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is

(1) Gd3+ and Eu3+ (2) Pm3+ and Sm3+ (3) Ce4+ and Yb2+ (4) Ce3+ and Eu2+
Ans. (3)

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Test Booklet Code
T3
NEET (UG) 2024
evaluated.

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NEET (UG) 2024 | DATE : 05-05-2024 | BIOLOGY
PART : BIOLOGY
Botany : Section –A (Q. No. 101 to 135)

101. Identify the set of correct statements: XII B SRFP-D
A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar.
B. The flowers of waterlily are not pollinated by water.
C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting.
D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like.
E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water.
(1) A, C, D and E only
(2) B, C, D and E only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) A, B, C and D only
Answer (2)
102. The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and
placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care is called;
XII B E-BandC-B
(1) Semi-conservative method (2) Sustainable development
(3) In-situ conservation (4) Biodiversity conservation
Answer (4)
103. Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of: XI Z BIO-II-B
(1) Competitive inhibition (2) Enzyme activation

(3) Cofactor inhibition (4) Feedback inhibition
Answer (1)
104. Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed
germinates. XII B SRFP-E
(1) C (2) D (3) A (4) B

Answer (1)
105. Bulliform cells are responsible for XI B AFP-A

(1) Increased photosynthesis in monocots. (2) Providing large spaces for storage of sugars.
(3) Inward curling of leaves in monocots. (4) Protecting the plant from salt stress.
Answer (3)
106. Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis? XI B PPII-PHP-C
A. Light
B. Chlorophyll

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C. CO2
D. ATP
E. NADPΗ
(1) C, D and E only
(2) D and E only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) B, C and D only
Answer (1)
107. Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for
XI B PPII-PGandGH-A
(1) Dedifferentiation (2) Maturation

(3) Differentiation (4) Redifferentiation
Answer (1)
108. Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:
XII Z AB-A
(1) 4 bp (2) 10 bp (3) 8 bp (4) 6 bp
Answer (4)
109. Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because XII B E-BandC-A
A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was
available for species diversification.
B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.
C. More solar energy is available in tropics.
D. Constant environments promote niche specialization.
E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable.
(1) A, B and E only (2) A, B and D only
(3) A, C, D and E only (4) A and B only
Answer (3)
110. Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi? XI B BC-C
(1) Mode of spore formation (2) Fruiting body
(3) Morphology of mycelium (4) Mode of nutrition
Answer (4)
111. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of CO 2 fixed in the Calvin
cycle? XI B PPII-PHP-C
(1) 3 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH
Answer (2)
112. These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss: XII B E-BandC-A
A. Over exploitation
B. Co-extinction
C. Mutation
D. Habitat loss and fragmentation Migration
Choose the correct option:
(1) A, B and E only (2) A, B and D only B (3) A, C and D only (4) A, B, C and D only
Answer (2)

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113. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called: XI B PPII-PGandGH-A
(1) Differentiation (2) Somatic hybridization
(3) Totipotency (4) Micropropagation
Answer (3)
114. The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is XII B E-OandP-B

dN K  N 
 rN 
dt  K 
From this equation, K indicates:
(1) Carrying capacity (2) Population density
(3) Intrinsic rate of natural increase (4) Biotic potential
Answer (1)
115. Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during XI B CB-M

(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase (3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
Answer (4)
116. Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the
ovary from the given figures (a) and (b) XI B MFP-E
(1) (a) Perigynous; (b) Epigynous

(2) (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous
(3) (a) Epigynous; (b) Hypogynous
(4) (a) Hypogynous; (b) Epigynous
Answer (2)
117. Match List I with List II XI B BC-C

List I List II
A. Rhizopus I. Mush Mushroom
B. Ustilago II. Smut fungus
C. Puccinia III. Bread mould
D. Agaricus IV. Rust fungus
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Answer (3)
118. In a plant, black seed colour (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed colour (bb). In order to find out the
genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it? XII B GEN-I-A

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(1) Bb (2) BB/Bb (3) BB (4) bb

Answer (4)
119. A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type RR of
phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny? XII B GEN-I-A
(1) Only pink flowered plants (2) Red, Pink as well as white flowered plants
(3) Only red flowered plants (4) Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants
Answer (4)
120. Match List I with List II XII B GEN-I-A
List I List II
A. Two or more alternative forms of a gene I. Back cross
B. Cross of F1 progeny with homozygous II. Ploidy
recessive parent
C. Cross of F1 progeny with any of the parents III. Allele
D. Number of chromosome sets in plant IV. Test cross
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Answer (1)
121. Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:
XI Z BIO-I-C
(1) Glycerides (2) Carbohydrates (3) Amino acids (4) Phospholipids
Answer (4)
122. Match List I with List II XII Z MHW
List I List II
A. Clostridium butylicum I. Ethanol
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae II. Streptokinase
C. Trichoderma polysporum III. Butyric acid
D. Streptococcus sp. IV. Cyclosporin-A
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Answer (1)
123. In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?
XI B AFP-A

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(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Answer (3)
124. Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower? XI B MFP-E

(1) Pisum (2) Sesbania (3) Datura (4) Cassia
Answer (3)
125. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect
to upstream and down stream end; XIIs B GEN-II-B
(1) Inducer, Repressor, Structural gene
(2) Promotor, Structural gene, Terminator
(3) Repressor, Operator gene, Structural gene
(4) Structural gene, Transposons, Operator gene
Answer (2)
126. What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien
organism? XII Z AB-A
A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism.
B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.
C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.
D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome.
E. It shows ability to replicate.
(1) B and C only (2) A and E only (3) A and B only (4) D and E only
Answer (1)
127. Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin
(1) does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants.
(2) can help in cell division in grasses, to produce growth.
(3) promotes apical dominance.
(4) promotes abscission of mature leaves only.
Answer (1)
128. The factor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase

(1) Flavin (2) Haem (3) Zinc (4) Niacin
Answer (3)
129. The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of
(1) Permease (2) Polymerase (3) Beta-galactosidase (4) Acetylase
Answer (1)
130. Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?
A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive.
B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in F 2 generation.

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C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.
D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor.
E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross.
(1) B, C and D only (2) A, B, C, D and E
(3) A, B and C only (4) A, C, D and E only
Answer (4)

Statement I: Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.
Statement II: Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the
insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Answer (1)

Statement I: Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue.
Statement II: Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of
angiosperms.
Answer (2)

Statement I: Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage.
Statement II: The begining of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
Answer (3)

List I List II
A. Nucleolus I. Site of formation of glycolipid
B. Centriole II. Organization like the cartwheel
C. Leucoplast III. Site for active ribosomal RNA
D. Golgi apparatus IV. for storing nutrients
(3) А-III, В-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer (3)
135. A List of endangered species was released by-

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(1) FOAM (2) IUCN (3) GEAC (4) WWF
Answer (2)
Botany : Section –B (Q. No. 136 to 150)
136. The DNA present in chloroplast is:

(1) Linear, single stranded
(2) Circular, single stranded
(3) Linear, double stranded
(4) Circular, double stranded
Answer (4)
137. Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?
(1) Protoplasts
(2) Pollens
(3) Callus
(4) Somatic embryos
Answer (1)
138. Identify the correct description about the given figure:
(1) Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.

(2) Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy.
(3) Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed.stamens.
(4) Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
Answer (3)
139. Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators, increases the length of
stem, thus, increasing the yield?
(1) Cytokinin
(2) Abscisic acid
(3) Auxin
(4) Gibberellin
Answer (4)

List I List II
A. Frederick Griffith I. Genetic code
B. Francois Jacob & Jacque II. Semi-conservative mode of DNA replication
C. Har Gobind Khorana III. Transformation

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D. Meselson & Stahl IV. Lac operon
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer (4)

List I List II
A. GLUT-4 I. Hormone
B. Insulin II. Enzyme
C. Trypsin III. Intercellular
D. Collagen IV. Enables glucose transport into cell
Answer (3)

Statement I: In C3 plants, some O2 bino RuBisCO, hence CO2 fixation is decreased.
Statement II: In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle show cells do
not show photorespiration.
In the light of the above statements, choose correct answer from the options given bleow
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false
Answer (1)
143. Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.
(1) Succinyl -CoSuccinic acid
(2) Isocitratrate  ketoglutaric acid
(3) Malic acid  Oxaloacetic acid
(4) Succinic acid  Malic acid
Answer (1)

List I List II
A. Citric acid cycle I. Cytoplasm
B. Glycolysis II. Mitochondrial matrix
C. Electron transport system III. Intermembrane space of mitrochndria
D. Proton gradient IV. Inner mitochondrial membrane
Answer (4)
145. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E.coli?

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(1) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5'3' as well as 3'5' direction.
(2) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5'3' direction.
(3) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction that is 3'5'.
(4) The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5'3'.
Answer (2)
146. In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is
100x(kcal m–2)yr–1 what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the
same ecosystem ?
(1) 10x(kcal m–2)yr–1
(2) 100x/3x(kcal m–2)yr–1
(3) x/10(kcal m–2)yr–1
(4) x(kcal m–2)yr–1
Answer (4)

List I List II
A. Rose I. Twisted aestivatio
B. Pen II. perigynous flower
C. Cotton III. Drupe
D. Mango IV. Marginal placentation
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer (3)

List I List II
A. Robert May I. Species -Area relationship
B. Alexander von Humboldt II. Long term ecosystem
C. Paul Ehrlich III. Global species diversity at about 7 millon
D. David Tilman IV. Rivet Popper hypothesis
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer (4)

List I List II
(Types of Stamens) (Example)
A. Monoadelphous I. Citrus
B. Diadelphous II. Pea
C. Polyadelphous III. Lily
D. Epiphyllous IV. China-rose
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Answer (3)

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150. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements
In the members of phaeophyceae,
(A) Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores.
(B) Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only.
(C) Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin.
(D) The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll.
(E) Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin.
(1) A,C,D and E only
(2) A,B,C and E only
(3) A,B,C and D only
(4) B,C,D and E only
Answer (1)
Zoology : Section –A (Q. No. 151 to 185)

List I List II
A. Typhoid I. Fungus
B. Leishmaniasis II. Nematode
C.Ringworm III. Protozoa
D. Filariasis IV. Bacteria
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer (4)

List I List II
A. Non-medicated IUD I. Multiload 3
B. Copper releasing IUD II. Progestoger
C. Hormone releasing IUD III. Lippes loop
D. Implants IV. LNG-20
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Answer (2)
153. Given below are two statements

Statement I: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity
Statement II: The hymen is torn during the fill coitus only.
In the light of the above statements, choose correct answer from the options given below
Answer (1)
154. In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on
(1) 8th and 9th segment

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(2) 11th
segment
(3) 5th segment
(4) 10th segment
Answer (4)

List I List II
A. Pons I. Provides additional space for Neurons,
reggulates posture and balanc.
B. Hypothalamus II. Controls respration and gastric secretions
C. Medulla III. Connects different regions of the brain
D. Cerebellum IV. Neuro secretory cells
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Answer (4)
156. Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?

(1) Progesterone
(2) Glucagon
(3) Cortisol
(4) Testosterone
Answer (2)
157. Which one is the correct product of DNA dependent RNA polymerase to the given template?
3'TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA5'
(1) 5' AUGUACCGUUUAUAGGGAAGU3'
(2) 5' ATGTACCGTTTATAGGTAAGT3'
(3) 5' AUGUACCGUUAUAGGUAAGU3'
(4) 5' AUGUAAAGUUUAUAGGUAAGU3'
Answer (3)
158. Three types of muscles are given as a, b and c. Identity the correct matching pair along with their
location in human body
(a) (b) (c)

Name of muscle/location
(1) (a) skeletal- Biceps

(b) Involuntary – Intestine
(c) Smooth- heart
(2) (a) Involuntary – Intestine
(b) Skeletal – Bone
(c) Cardiac- Heart.
(3) (a) Smooth – Toes

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(b) Skeletal- legs
(c) Cardiac- Heart
(4) (a) Skeletal- Triceps
(b) Smooth – Stomach
(c) Cardiac- Heart
Answer (4)
159. Following are the stages of cell division

A. Gap2 phase
B. Cytokinesis
C. Synthesis phase
D. Karyokinesis
E. Gap 1 phase
Choose the correct sequence of stages from the option given below
(1) B-D-E-A-C
(2) E-C-A-D-B
(3) C-E-D-A-B
(4) E-B-D-A-C
Answer (2)
160. Which of the following are autoimmune disorders?

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Muscular dystrophy
E. Systemic Lupus Erythematous (SLE)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below
(1) B, C and E only
(2) C, D and E only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A, B and E only
Answer (4)
161. Match List I with List II:

List I List II
A. Lipase I. Peptide bond
B. Nuclease II. Ester bond
C. Protease III. Glycosidic bond
D. Amylase IV. Phosphodiester bond
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-1, D-III (2) A-IV, B-1, C-III, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Answer (1)
162. The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the example of the
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Divergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation (4) Natural selection
Answer (1)
List I List II

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A. Expiratory capacity I. Expiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume Inspiratory
reserve volume
B. Functional residual capacity II. Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume
C. Vital capacity III. Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Inspiratory capacity IV. Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume

(1) A-II, B-I, CIM, D-III (2) A-I, B-III, CII, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Answer (3)
164. Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
(1) Gene migration
(2 Constant gene pool
(3) Genetic recombination
(4) Genetic drift
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer (2)
165. Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in correct sequence. (Past to Recent)
A. Homo habilis
B. Homo sapiens
C. Homo neanderthalensis
D. Homo erectus
Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below:
(1) C-B-D-A (2) A-D-C-B (3) D-A-C-B (4) B-A-D-C
Answer (2)
166. Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart:
A. AV bundle
B. Purkinje fibres
C. AV node
D. Bundle branches
E. SA node
Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below:
(1) B-D-E-C-A
(2) E-A-D-B-C
(3) E-C-A-D-B
(4) A-E-C-B-D
Answer (3)
167. Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?
(1) Low pCO2 and High H+ concentration
(2) Low pCO2 and High temperature
(3) High pO2 and High pCO2
(4) High pO2 and Lesser H+ concentration
Answer (4)

List I List II
A. -1 antitrypsin I. Cotton bollworm
B. Cry IAb II. ADA deficiency
C. Cry IA III. Emphysema
D. Enzyme replacement therapy IV. Corn borer

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(1) A-III, B-IV, C-L, D-II
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-L D-III
(4) А-III, В-І, C-II, D-IV
Answer (1)
169. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male.
Reason R: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen
in male human being.
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer (4)
170. The following diagram showing restriction sites in E.coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and
'Y' genes:
(1) The gene 'X' is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics.
(2) Gene 'X' is responsible for recognition sites and 'Y' is responsible for antibiotic resistance.
(3) The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and 'Y' for protein involved in the replication of
Plasmid.
(4) The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and 'Y' for protein
involved in the replication of Plasmid.
Answer (4)
171. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
A. Cocaine I. Effective sedative in surgery
B. Heroin II. Cannabis sativa
C. Morphine III. Erythroxylum
D. Marijuana V. Papaver somniferum
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Answer (2)
172. Consider the following statements :

A. Annelids are true coelomates
B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates
C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates
D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates
(1) C only (2) D only (3) B only (4) A only
Answer (4)

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Statement I: In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and
permeable to electrolytes.
Statement II: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and
increases the surface area for reabsorption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 2 correct answer from the options given below :
(3) Both Statement and Statement II are true
Answer (2)

List-I List-II
A. Fibrous joints I. Adjacent vertebrae, limited movement
B. Cartilaginous joints II. Humerus and Pectoral girdle, rotational movement
C. Hinge joints III. Skull, don't allow any movement
D. Ball and socket joints IV. Knee, help in locomotion
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (B) A-III, B-1, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-1, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Answer (2)
175. Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?

(1) Lactational amenorrhea (2) Vaults
(3) Interrupted intercourse (4) Periodic abstinence
Answer (2)

List-I List II
A. Pleurobrachia I. Mollusca
B. Radula II. Ctenophora
C. Stomochord III. Osteichthyes
D. Air bladder IV. Hemichordata
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-1, C-IV, D-III
Answer (4)

List-I List-II
A. Axoneme I. Centriole
B. Cartwheel pattern II. Cilia and flagella
C. Crista III. Chromosome
D. Satellite IV. Mitochondria
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Answer (2)
178. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures.
(2) Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system and foam control system.
(3) A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product.
(4) Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type.

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Answer (1)

List I List II
(Sub Phases of Prophase I) (Specific characters)
A. Diakinesis I. Synaptonemal complex formation
B. Pachytene II. Completion of terminalisation of chiasmata
C. Zygotene III. Chromosomes look like thin threads
D. Leptotene IV. Appearance of recombination nodules
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Answer (1)

List I List II
A. Common cold I. Plasmodium
B. Haemozoin II. Typhoid
C. Widal test III. Rhinoviruses
D. Allergy IV. Dust mites
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Answer (1)
181. Given below are two statements: one is labelled statements as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A: Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing
a healthy baby.
Reason R: Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new
born baby.
(1) A is correct but R is not correct.
(2) A is not correct but R is correct.
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Answer (3)
182. Match List I with List-II :

List I List II
A. Pterophyllum I. Hag fish
B. Myxine II. Saw fish
C. Pristis III. Angel fish
D. Exocoetus IV. Flying fish
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Answer (4)
183. The "Ti plasmid" of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for

(1) Tumor inducing plasmid.
(2) Temperature independent plasmid
(3) Tumour, inhibiting plasmid
(4) Tumor independent plasmid
Answer (1)

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184. Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?

(1) Infundibulum (2) Ampulla
(3) Uterine fundus (4) Isthmus
Answer (2)
185. A Match List I with List II:

List-I List-II
A. Down's syndrome I. 11th chromosome
B. -Thalassemia II. 'X' chromosome
C. -Thalassemia III. 21st chromosome
D. Klinefelter's syndrome IV. 16th chromosome
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer (1)
Zoology : Section –B (Q. No. 186 to 200)
186. The following are the statements about non- chordates:

A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
B. Notochord is absent.
C. Central nervous system is dorsal.
D. Heart is dorsal if present.
E. Post anal tail is absent.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) B, D & E only (2) B, C & D only (3) A & C only (4) A, B & D only
Answer (1)

List-I List-II
A. Mesozoic Era I. Lower invertebrates
B. Proterozoic Era II. Fish & Amphibia
C. Cenozoic Era II. Birds & Reptiles
D. Paleozoic Era IV. Mammals
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Answer (2)

Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum.
Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Answer (1)
189. Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) respect to spermatogenesis.

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(1) FSH, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells, spermatogenesis,

(2) ICSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis.
(3) FSH, Leydig cells, Sertoli cells, spermiogenesis
(4) ICSH, Interstitial cells, Leydig cells, spermiogenesis.
Answer (3)
190. Match List 1 with List II:
List I List II
A. RNA polymerase III I. snRNPs
B. Termination of transcription II. Promoter
C. Splicing of Exons III. Rho factor
D. TATA box IV. SnRNAs, tRNA
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Answer (2)
191. A Match List I with List II:

List I List II
A. Exophthalmic goiter I. Excess secretion of cortisol, moon face & hyperglycemia
B. Acromegaly II. Hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone and stunted growth.
C. Cushing's syndrome III. Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone & protruding eye balls.
D. Cretinism IV. Excessive secretion of growth hormone.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Answer (2)
List-I List-II
A. Unicellular glandular epithelium I. Salivary glands
B. Compound epithelium II. Pancreas
C. Multicellular glandular epithelium III. Goblet cells of alimentary canal
D. Endocrine glandular epithelium IV. Moist surface of buccal cavity
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer (1)

Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes
are produced.
Statement II Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and
maturation of T-lymphocytes.

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In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Answer (1)
194. Match List I with List II related to digestive system of cockroach.

List-I List II
A. The structures used for storing of food, I. Gizzard
B. Ring of 6-8 blind tubules at junction of II. Gastric caeca
foregut and midgut
C. Ring of 100-150/yellow coloured thin III. Malpighian tubules
filaments at junction of midgut and hindgat.
D. The structures used for grinding the food. IV. Crop
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer (3)
195. Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.
(1) Loop of Henle of adjacent medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.
(2) Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
(3) Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.
(4) Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
Answer (1)

List I List II
A. P wave I. Heart muscles are electrically silent.
B. QRS complex II. Depolarisation of ventricles.
C. T wave III. Depolarisation of atria.
D. T-P gap IV. Repolarisation of ventricles.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Answer (4)
197. As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B+, mother is A+ and child is O+. Their
respective genotype can be
A. IBi /IAi / ii B. IBIB / IAIA / ii C. IAIB / iIA / IBi D. IAi / IBi /IAi
B
E. iI / iIA /I I A B
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) C & B only (2) D & E only (3) A only (4) B only
Answer (3)
198. Given below are two statements

Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusive principle states that two closely related species competing
for different resources cannot exist indefinitely.
Statement II: According to Gause's principle during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may
be true if resources are limiting.
In the light of the above statements, choose correct answer from the options given below :

Ph. No.: +91-744-2777777, 2777700 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222
7340010333
Answer (2)
199. Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action select the correct sequential steps:
A. Substrate enzyme complex formation.
B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate.
C. Release of products.
D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken.
E. Substrate binding to active site.
Choose the correct answer from the options give below:
(1) B, A, C, D, E (2) E, D, C, B, A
(3) E, A, D, C, B (4) A, E, B, D, C
Answer (3)

Statement: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are both double membrane bound organelles.
Statement: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared to chloroplast.
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-ll incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-ll is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement-II are incorrect.
Answer (1)

Ph. No.: +91-744-2777777, 2777700 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222
7340010333

Ph. No.: +91-744-2777777, 2777700 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222
7340010333
Ph. No.: +91-744-2777777, 2777700 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222

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2. Match List-I with List-II

(1) 90 J3 (2) 90 J (3) Zero (4) 30 J

4. An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then

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The expression for the output Y is

(1) B (2) B (3) A.B  A (4) A.B  A

respectively, are and 8  108 Nm2 and 2 1011 Nm2 is :

(1) 6 N (2) 10 N (3) zero (4) 4 N

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(1) 8V (2) 10 V (3) 4V (4) 6V

19. Match List I with List II

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25. Given below are two statements:

27. A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains :

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(1) 50 2 (2) 1280 2 (3) 5 2 (4) 128 2

(1) 0.5 × 105 (2) zero (3) 3 × 105 (4) 1 × 105

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Then the correct relation is :

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(1) 1.20 A (2) 0.35 A (3) 0.58 A (4) 0.93 A

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(1) 2 3 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

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52. Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

53. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in

54. Fehling's solution 'A' is

56. Match List I with List II.

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

58. Match List I with List II.

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62. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity :

64. Given below are two statements:

65. Given below are two statements:

66. Match List I with List II

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67. Match List I with List II

(A) 2 O (I) Cl/

(B) (II) CrO3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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70. Match List I with List II

(1) (2) (3) (4)

75. Given below are two statements:

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78. In which of the following processes entropy increases ?

80. Match List I with List II.

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81. Given below are two statements :

83. The highest number of helium atoms is in

84. The most stable carbocation among the following is

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