I

I KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
End Semester'Exam ination
Mark Scored:
MaY/Jun e, 2022

I Level : B.Arch. Course : SOCA

Semester: II
401

Year :IV
F.M.
I Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins.

Date:
: l0

No.:

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 KATHMANDU IJNIVERSITY
Mark Scored:
End' Semester Examination
MaY/Jun e,2022

Course : SOCA 401

Level : B.Arch Semester : II
Year : IV
Exam Roll No Time: 30 mins. F.M. : l0
Date: U 6
Registration No. ..A"
SECTION
:
t20Q. x 0.5 l0 marksl
Encircle the most appropriate option'
the discipline of sociology?
Which one of the following scholars is regarded as the founder of
a. Karl Marx c' Auguste Comte
t. Emile Durkheim d' Max Weber
a complex systetn whose
2 which one of the following theoretical perspectives argues that society is
should investigate their
i
various parts work together to produce stability una that sociology
relationships?
a. Functionalist PersPective c. Symbolic Interactionist Perspective
b. Conflict PersPective d. Feminist PersPective
3. Which of the following theories looks at the social world on a micro level?
a. Functionalism c'Social Contract Theory
Theory
b. Conflict d' Symbolic Interactionism
4. Emile Durkheim's ideas about society can best be described as "'
a. Functionalist c'
Symbolic Interactionist
TheorY
b. Conflict d' Rationalist
5. Which one of the following social statuses is an example of ascribed status?
d'
a. Teacher b. Doctor c' Priest Father

6. Which one ofthe following sentences best explains the meaning of socialization?
a. It is concemed with how people interact in a social group'
\t b.ltisconcernedwithhowp"oplel"u,,societalnorms,beliefs'andvalues'
:
c. It is concerned with a p"riorb mental state when s/he is in a group setting'
d. It is concerned with how people work together to achieve common goals'
7. Which one ofthe following is not regarded as the secondary agent of socialization?
d'
a. Family b. P"", group c' Religion School

8. What does social stratification mean?

a. Division of society into higher and lower social units
b. Ensuring equal status to all individual living in a society
c. A system of integrated social relationships
d. Equal distribution of role and status
9. Which ofthe following scholars has defined culture as the "capabilities and habits acquired by
man as a member of societY"?
a. B. Malinowski c' Herbert Blumer
b. E.B. Tylor d. G'H' Mead
10. A child who assticiates his Iine ofdescent with his father's side only is a part of which ofthe '
' following society?
a. Neolocal b. Bilateral c. Matrilineal d. patrilineal

I l. Which one of the following arguments is best describing what religion is?
a. It is a collection ofpeople with different cultural backgrounds
b. It is a group ofpeople living in a specific territory with strange feelings
c. It is a belief in unseen forces or super-natural power
d. It is a people assembled together for a common purpose

12. Which one ofthe following sociologists had regarded society itselfas the real object ofworship?
a. Auguste Comte c. Max Weber
b. Emile Durkheim d. Karl Marx
13. Which one of the following sentences best explains the meaning of social movements?
a. It is a disruptive and chaotic challenge to the government.
b. It is a form of mass movement led by mainstream political parties.
c. It is a collective attempt to secure common goals through action outside the sphere of
establ ished institutions.
d. It is a rnovement supported by the state to discredit or silence the opposition. ']
14. Which one of the following is not an appropriate feature of urbanization?
a. Over population c. Higher crime rate
b. Homogeneity d. Higher literacy rate
15. What is the term used in sociology to explain the concept where a person judges other cultures
according to the norrns and values of one's own?
a. Cultural Relativism c. Cultural Diffusion
b. Ethnocentrism d. Egalitarianism
r6. Which one of the following words means "a process of urban renewal in which older, decaying
houses are refurbished by affluent people moving into the area"?
a. Globalization b. Ghettoization c. Gentrification d. Gratification

17. Marxism has used historical materialism as a theoretical approach while studying society.
Historical materialism explains
a. what materials were used in history.
b. which technologies were preferred by the people in history.
c. how the use of sophisticated tools in history eased the life of people.
d. struggles between different social classes rooted in the underlying economic base.
r8. Which of the following concepts is regarded as a "significant symbol" in Symbolic
Interactionism?
a. Gesture b. Sign c. Language d. Norms
19. Which one of the following systems of government is extremely oppressively that seeks to
control all aspects of its citizens' life?
a. Oligarchy b. Totalitarian c. Egalitarian d. Democracy

20 Which one of the following is not an aspect of globalization?

a. [ntegrating governments through international trade
b. Integrating cultures through international trade
c. Integrating finance through international trade
d. Integrating child care through international trade
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
End Semester Examination
May/Jun e, 2022
Level : B.Arch. Course : SOCA 401

:[V Semester: II
Year
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins.
F.M. : 40
SECTION "B"
t6Q. x 4:24 marksl
Answer ANY SIX questions-
of
I Explain with some appropriate examples how sociology is interrelated with the disciplines
arch itecture and psYchologY.

2 How is the emergence of sociology linked with the industrialization of western Europe?

with
a
J How do individuals as a mernber of a society acquire gender identity? Provide your answer
the help of the sociological concept called "gender socialization".
i

4 Describe the changing pattern of marriage in contemporary Nepali society with special reference
to the growing cases of divorce and remarriage.

The critics of globalization say that it has enabled the concentration of wealth in the hands of
a
5
few people. The supporters of tnir system, however, claim that this system has distributed
medicine. food, edrcaiion and technology to more people than other economic systems in history.
Examine both sides of the debate.

6 Critically examine why the growing integration of information technology in the educational
sector shoulcl be a matter of concern for sociologists and social activists.

7 Explain the process of urbanization through conflict perspective and examine how this perspective
may prove to be helpful to architects in addressing the concerns of poor and marginalized people
within the urban context.
t!
ECTI
- :
[2Q' t s 16 marks]
Answer,4Nf rzo questions.
8. Some social scientists argue that socio-political changes in the past 100 years have made the Hindu
caste system less signifiiant. The Dalit activists, however, disagree with such an assessment by
claiming that the casle system continues to be the core basis ofthe stratification ofNepali society.
Which of these two perspectives do you agree with?

g. Mary Daly has analysed patriarchy as "the prevailing religion of the entire planet". For her, the
1."ligions of the world are the mere sects or subjects of patriarchy whose purpose is to
"*iriing
legitimize patriarchy. Why do you agree or disagree with her argument? Explain.

10. How are the social movements that are currently being organized in the age ofthe internet different
from the ones that were o rganized in the pre-internet world? Explain this by focusing on the social
movements in Nepal that are concerned with the preservation ofcultural heritage sites.
 KATHMANDU UNTVERSITY Marks Scored:
End Semester Examination
May/June,2022
Level : B.Arch. Course : ENVS 402
Year [V
: Semester: II
Exam Roll No.: Time: 30 mins. F.M. : 10

tration No.: Date : fl oD TL

SECTION "A"
t20 Q. x 0.5 = 10 marksl

Encircle the most appropriate option.

1. Projects requiring EIA are listed in of EPR, 2020.

a. Schedule 1 b. Schedule 2 c. Schedule 3 d. Schedule 4

2. Environmental Screening is required to.

a. Decides the level of Environmental Assessment required
b. Identify the impacts of the project
c. Carry out the Terms of Reference for EIA
d. Predict the identified impacts of the project
3 Scoping Document and Terms of Reference is prepared for..
a. Brief Environmental Study (BES)
b. Initial Environmental Examination (IEE)
c. Environmental Impact Assessment (ElA)
d. Strategic Environmental Assessment (SEA)
4 For Scoping purpose, the proponent publishes a notice in national daily to ask the
stakeholders of suggestions with.
a. 5 days b. 15 days c. 7 days d. 18 days

5 According to Environmental Protection Act, 20L9 if the proponent implements the

- proposal without the approval of ElA, there is the provision of punishment and
)

compensation upto..
a. Nrs. 5 Lakhs b. Nrs. 10 Lakhs c. Nrs. 25 Lakhs d. Nrs. 50 Lakh
6 According to EPR, 2020, a project of construction a road which requires forest areaof more
than 5 hectares will require:
a. IEE b. BES c. SEA d. EIA

7 Accumulation of lmpacts due to multiple development activities in an ecosystem is known as

a. Cumulative Impact b. Direct Impact
c. Indirect Impact d. Reversible Impact

8 Incorporation of proposed mitigation measures and monitoring system is done

at stage of the project.
a. Prefeasibility b. Feasibility
c. Design and Cost Estimate d. lmplementation
9 Installation of Air Pollution Control devices in factory is referred to
of impacts mitigation.
a. Corrective measures b. Preventive measures
c. Compensatory measures d. Benefits augmentation
10. The minimum environmental flow requirement for hydropower project as per the
Hydropower Development Policy of Nepal, 2001 is
a- ISVo of Minimum Mean Monthly Flow b. IOVo of Minimum Mean Monthly Flow
c. 25Vo of Minimum Mean Monthly Flow d. 3O Vo of Minimum Mean Monthiy Flow
11. According to Use of National Forests Land for National Priority Projects, 2076 the
compensatory plantation ratio is ....... for the loss of one tree.
a. 1:10 b. 1:15 c. l:25 d. L:20
12. The cost of the Environmental Protection Measures is usually about of the
total cost of the project (although it depends on the nature, size, location etc. of the
project).
a. l5Vo b. I07o c. 25Vo d. 3OVo

13. is carried out to know the implementation status of

environmental protection measures as documented in EIA report that should be complied
with during pre-construction, construction and operational stages.
a. Compliance Monitoring b. Baseline Monitoring
c. [mpact Monitoring d. Direct Monitoring
14. Environmental Auditing is undertaken by... within 6 months after two
years of commencement of the services of the project (chapter 2, Anicle-Ll, EPA, 2076).
a. Department of Environment
b. Ministry of Forests and Environment
c. Ministry of Urban Development
d. Ministry of Physical Infrastructure and Transport
15. Baseline Monitoring of the project is carried out
a. After the construction of the project b. During the construction of the project
c. Before the construction of the project d. Implementation of the project
FiII in the blank.

r6. The interaction and inter-relationship among the components of natural, cultural and social
systems, economic and human activities and their components is

17. Identification and determination of the issues that should be taken into consideration during
the Environmental Assessment process with the involvement of the public is

18. Monitoring undertaken to find out the effectiveness of the Environment Protection
Measures is..

t9. . . ...refers to collection of biophysical, socioeconomic and cultural

information in the project area or areas that are likely to be affected by the project.

20 A systematic, documented, periodic and objective process in examining and assessing

environmgntal performanco i.s ,....... r. r.. |. r...... r...,.......
 KATHMANDU UNTVERSITY
End Semester Examination
May/June,2022
Level : B.Arch. Course : ENVS 402
Year :[V Semester: II
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F.M. :40
SECTI ON "B''
t10Q x2= 20 marksl
Write short notes on (AI[Y TEI$:

1. Strategic Environmental Assessment

2. Environmental Assessment Process in Nepa1

3. EIA Activities in the Project Cycle

4. Environmental Scoping

5. Baseline Information

6. Principles of Impact Management

7 . Impacts Identification Methods

8. Environmental Management Plan

9. Environmental Auditing

10. Principles of Monitoring

I 1. Environmental Standards and its Important

..C"
SECTION
[4Q x 5 -20 marks]
Attempt ALL questions.

12. What is EIA? Write the objectives of EIA? What are the core values and guiding principles
that governs EIA?

13. What is Environmental Screening? Why SCOPING DOCUMENT is prepared before EIA
study? Write the methods involved in Scoping document preparation?

14. Suppose you are assigned as Consultant Engineer of the Construction of Architecture
Building at Devithumka Community Forest, Panauti Municipality, 3-Lamadol and your
Project Manager ask you to conduct EIA and get approved from the concerned Ministry.
ln this scenario first clearly list the data that you are going to collect for the baseline
environment for EIA project. List major impacts of the Construction of Architecture
Building considering Physical, Biological, Soci-economic and Cultural Environment. For
the identified impacts prepare Environmental Management Plan. For this project also
consider Solid waste ruanagement issues/wastewater treatment issues and loss of 150 trees
from the project area.

15. Describe the types of Environmental Monitoring. Mention the provision of Monitoring as
per Environmental Act, 2076 and Environmental Protection Rules, 2477.
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY Mark Scored:
End Semester Examination
May/June,2022

Level : B.Arch. Course : ARCH 425

Year :[V Semester: II
Exam Roll No. Time: 30 mins. F.M. : 10

Registration No.: Date

SECTI 'N
ttA"
t20Q. x 0.5 = 10 marksl
Encircle the most appropriate option.

I Aerial photographs are.

a. Perspective projections c. Isometric Projection
b. Orthographic Projections d. Oblique Projections
I

2 Which of the following is true?

a. Farther the object, greater the parallactic angle
b. Nearer the object, smaller the parallactic angle
c. Farther the object, smaller the parallactic angle
d. Parallactic angle does not have any impact
3 Overlap in aerial photograph is necessary:
a. To tie different points such that the principal point of each print appears on the adjacent prints
b. To increase the number of images
c. To get good quality images
d. To enlarge the details
4 For an aerial photo$aph, the interpretation is easy if it is:
a. Vertical b. Tilted c. Oblique d. Near Vertical

5 On a vertical photograph, the relief displacement is always radial from:

a. Principal point b. Isocenter c. Nadir Point d. Principal Line

6 Rectification of aerial photographs is required for eliminating:

a. Tilt b. Collimation c. Relief d. Parallax

7 Parallax bar is used to measure

a. Parallax c. Parallax Difference
b. Height d. Relief Displacement

8 The photographs captured using the camera with a lens of shorter focal length looks as if
a. They have been taken close to the ground.
b. They have been taken at altitude.
c. The length of focal length does not impact photographs.
d. They produce larger scale photographs.
9 ...on a dark background gives the best result while marking the ground control points:
a. Maximum Contrast c. Dark color
b. Minimum Contrast d. Light Color
10. Which of the following is seen as a canopy model and only see's ground where there is nothing
else above it?
a. DEM b. DSM c. DTM d. Orthophoto

11. Feature extraction using Stereo restitution gives:

a. Easy and Faster Results c. 3D View
b. Simple results d. Poor Positional accuracy

12. Tilt displacement affects increase away from the of the photograph
a. Principle points c. Fiducial Mark
b. Isocenter d. Nadir

13. The exact position of the front nodal point of the lens in the air at the instant of exposure is
a. Air Station c. Plumb Point
b. Nadir Point d. Principle Point
14. Planimetric features are often digitized from aerial photography into data layers that
can be used in analysis and cartographic outputs.
a. Raw b. Rectified c. Oblique d. Orthorectified
15. The maximum parallactic angle formed by eyes is approximately
a. 15o b. 10o c. 8o d. 130
r6. In which order the procedure is followed for orthophoto production?
a. Aerial Triangulation, Generation of DTM, Production of orthophoto mosaic, Orthorectification
b. Orthorectification, Aerial Triangulation, Generation of DTM, Production of orthophoto mosaic
c. Generation of DTM, Aerial Triangulation, Orthorectification, Production of orthophoto mosaic
d. Aerial Triangulation, Generation of DTM, Orthorectification, Production of orthophoto mosaic
17. A pair of overlapping photographs is called
a. Depth perception c. Orthophoto
b. Stereo model d. Orthomosaic
18. Which of the following includes elements like ground control system, software etc.?
a. UAV b. UAS c. Drone d. RPAV
t9. Super wide-angle camera has the focal length of
a. 88mm b.
115mm c. 210mm d. 305mm

20. Which of the following android apps is preferred for manual aerial image acquisition?
a. Pix4D Capture c. Pix4D Mapper
b. DJI GO 4 d. AgiSoft
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
End Semester Examination
May/Jun e, 2022
Level : B.Arch. Course : ARCH 425
- Year :IV Semester: Il
Time : 2 hrs.30 mins. F.M. :40
S TION "B"
[5Q''+=20marks]

Attempt ALL questions. Assume suitable data if necessary.

l. What is photogrammetry? Explain major photogrammetric phases as a result of technological

innovations. ll+31
OR

What are the types ofaerial photographs? Differentiate drift from crab' l2+2]

2. What is parallax? Drive its relation where every symbol carries their usual meaning. Il+3]

3. Explain briefly the types ofphoto control points. What are the general principles to be followed to
sellct a photo controipoints? [2+2]

- 4. Define scale. The length ofan airport in a vertical photograph is 6.30inches and in the map ofthe
same area having scale l:24000, it appears to be 4.06 inches. Find the scale of the photograph.
ll+31
-
5 What is relief displacernent? Prove that the relief displace on image is directly proportional to the
height of the object and inversely proportional to the flying height of the aircraft. I I +3]

OR

The flying height above the base of the building shown in figure below. The transferred principal
point permits the measurement of base, b. From the given measurements, determine the height of
the building by parallax. 14)
-
4J r*'rn ]2 nrn

{{} fiull 1O r,r,rrt

- - * Fir;hlIr*

6"$Jmm
 SECTION ..C"
[2Q. * l0 : 20 marks]
Attempt ALL questions.

6 Write in brief about the supervised feature extraction techniques and unsupervised feature
extraction techniques. How do you differentiate between DSM with DTM? Explain the procedure
of creating DTM with flowchart diagram. What are the main advantages of photogrammetric
method over ground survey? 11.5+2+4+2.5)

7 What are the main points to be considered before aerial flight planning for photogrammetric data
acquisition? Explain the procedure for UAV Flight Planning. What are the steps involved in feature
extraction? 12.5+5+2.5)
 KATHMANDU LINIVERSITY Mark scored:
End Semester Examination
March/Apnl,2022
Level : B. Pharm. Course : PHAR 412
Year : IV Semester: II
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins. F. M. :20

Registration No.: Date

((A"
SECTI
[20Qx1:20marks]
I. Encircle the correct answer.

I Which of the following statements is true?

a. Drug concentration can be measured at each of its' target site
b. As concentration of drug in plasma increases, concentration of drug in most tissues increases
proportionally.
c. Drug with a lower EC50 is considered less potent.
d. Upper limit of Dose Response Curv'e is index of potency.
2 "No adequate studies in pregnant women and animal studies are lacking or have shown and adverse
effect on foetus" - Which category of drugs used during pregnancy does such drugs belong to?
a. Category D b. Category B c. Category C d. Category X

a
J Which of the following is not an age related physiological change seen in elderly people?
a. Reduced total body weight b. Reduced semm albumin level
c. Reduced total body water d. Reduced total body fat

4 Therapeutic Drug Monitoring is useful in all except:

a. Anticonvulsants b. Antiarrythmics c. Antidiabetics d. Lithium

5 Displacernent of warfarin from protein binding by aspirin is....

a. Pharmacodynamic DDI b. Pharmacokinetic DDI
c. Not a DDI d. Toxicokinetic DDI
)

6 Which of the following Pharmacokinetic parameter relates input rate to maintenance level?
a. Volume of distribution b. Elimination rate constant
c. Elimination half-life d. Clearance

7. If C(mg/l): l6;T (hour):8 and C(mg/l) - 4;T (hour): 16. What is the half life?
a. 2 hour b. 12 hour c.4 hour d. 8 hour

8 Neonates are considered to be the age between

a. 0-1 month b. 0-6 months c.0-2 months d.0-1 year

9 Which of the following statements is true?

a. Digoxin distributes to a lesser extent into the body fluids and tissue.
b. Higher dose of drug is required to achieve a given plasma concentration for drugs with high
vd.
c. At a constant rate of clearance, a drug with high Vd will have a shorter elimination half-life
than a drug with lower Vd.
d. Hydrophilic molecules have a high Vd.
10. Administering clarithromycin with warfarin has one of the following effects....
a. Decrease in anticoagulant effect of warfarin
b. Increase in anticoagulant effect of warfarin
c. No change in anticoagulant effect of warfarin
d. Potential beneficial effect
11. When a dose of the d.ug has to be progressively increased over the course of days to maintain
rewarding or analgesic effects, it is called:
a. Tolerance b. Adaptation c. Relapse d. Aversion

12. Reference level for serum creatinine is:

a. 0.6-1.35mg/dl b. 8-20mgdL c. 0.2-0.3mg/dl d. 0.9-1.8mg/dl

13. Following drugs are used to manage patients with rheumatoid arthritis except:
a. DMARDs b. NSAIDs c. Opoid analgesics d. Biological therapies

t4. Tlpe of anaemia that occurs with increased MCV.

a. Microcytic b. Normocytic c. Macrocytic d. Megacytic

15. Retrobulbar neuritis is induced by which antitubercular regimen?

a. Rifampicin b. Ethambutol c. Isoniazide d. Pyrizinamide

16. Dosing cards are used in practice to improve:

a. Outcome b. Adherence c. Drug efficacy d. Drug safety

17. Use of N-acetylcysteine is based on the goal of:

a. Inhibiting absorption b. Increasing drug elimination
c. lnactivating a toxic metabolite d. Decreasing receptor binding

18 Disulfiram acts by inhibiting .....in alcoholism.

a. Dopamine b. Alcohol dehydrogenase
c. Aldehyde dehydrogenase d. Serotonin

t9 Commonly reported ADR of diuretic class of drug is

a. Alopecia b. Rhinitis c. Skin Disorder d. Hypokalemia

20. Which of the following responsibility of the Clinical Pharmacist is indirect patient care area?
a. Supervision of d*g administration techniques
b. Providing drug information to physicians and nurses
c. Identify drugs brought into the hospital by patients
d. Reviewing of each patient's drug administration forms periodicalIy to ensure all doses have
been administered
 KATHMANDU LTNTVERSITY
End Semester Examination
March/Apnl,2022
Level : B. Pharm. Course : PHAR 412
Semester : II
Year : IV
Time: 2 hrs. 30 mins. F.M. : 55

page of main answer

Note: Check (.v) the number of each question you have answered in the front
book (of Sections B, C and D).
SECTION "B"
[5Q"3:15marks]
II. Answer AI{Y FIW questions.

1 Calculate the normal dosing rate for a drug given:

Extent of renal imPairment : 0.5
Fraction of drug normally excreted unchanged in urine
: 0.7

2 What is the effect of increased body fat in etderly? State with a relevant example.

a
J Calculate the Gentamicin dose required to achieve a peak gentamicin concentration of 15 mg/l in
a neonate weighine2ke (V: 0.5 litre/kg)-

4 What do you understand by Hepatic extraction ratio? What is its' implication in the clearance of
the drugs? Give examples of high and low clearance drugs.
-
5 Discuss on dopamine theory of drug addiction.

6 What are various risk factors for cardiovascular diseases, explain.

7 Discuss on paracetamol poisoning and its management.

((crt
SECTION
[5Qx5=25*utOt'
) III. Answer AIIY .EIIIE questions.

8. Classifu and describe adverse drug reactions according to Rawling and Thompson classification.
What are the various functions of Pharmacovigilance centre? 13+21

g. Calculate Estimated GFR for a 60-year-old female patient with Scr = 3 mg/dl'

10. What are the possible ways of evaluating hepatic function? Write down the cockroft and gault
formula. L3+21

11. Discuss on various drugs used to treat rheumatoid arthritis'

12. Defirc Medication adherence? What are the key factors effecting medication adherence?

,
13. What are the goals for treating tuberculosis? Discuss about the diagnostic criteria ofTuberculosis'

14. Discuss on various chelating agents and mechanism ofaction ofEDTA in heavy metal poisoning.

-
 (6D,
SECTI
[2Q ' 7.S = 15 marks]
IV. Answer AllY I7O questions.

15. Describe the various mechanisms of drug interactions with examples. How is the creatinine
clearance calculated in pediatric population?

16. What are the implications of laboratory investigations? Discuss briefly on interpreting laboratory
data for Biochemistry and Haematology.

t7. Write down:

i. Various elimination methods in toxicology. l4l
ii. If a dose of gentamicin is administered and a peak plasma concentration is 8 mg/l after the
infusion is completed and is2mgll 6 hours later. Calculate the elimination rate constant. t3.5]

-
 -

- KATHMANDU LINIVERSITY
End Semester Examination
March/Apnl,2022
- Level : B.Pharm. Course : PHAR 4l I
Year :IV Semester: II
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F.M. : 55
-
Note: Check ({) ttre number of each question you have answered in the front page of main
answer book (of Sections B, C and D).
- SECTION "B''
[5Qx3=15marks]
Answer ANY FIVE questions.

- 1. Define : a. Class I BSC

b. Turn over
c. Restricted distribution program
- )

2. What are the complications of parenteral nutrition?

s
3. Identify the similarities and dissimilarities between Compliance and adherence.

4. List down the elements of communication skills.

5. Mention the daily requirement of carbohydrate, fats and protein for different conditions of a
person.
-
6. Outline a schematic diagpam of Pharmaceutical Purchasing process.

- 7. Mention the risks involved for healthcare personnel's handling anticancer chemotherapy.

SECTION
[5Qx 5-25 marks]
Answer ANY FIVE questions.

8. Draw a model of related elements in management in community Pharmacy and explain it.
- )

9. List down types of air flow patterns. Which one is frequently used and why? Mention the
limits for microbial contamination of an operating clean .oom of all grades.
-
10. Define parenteral products. What are the indications for TPN?

- 11. You want to establish ad*g information centre in Nepal. What are the prerequisites? Will
similar facilities and resources work for poison information centre too? Give reasons.

- 12- How specialized services from hospital Pharmacy can create job opportunities for the
Pharmacist in Nepal. Explain.

13. What are the factors to be considered while responding to symptoms? Does the approach for
- responding to the symptoms of children and elderly differ?

.I
14. Orientation holders are as equal as pharmacists in terms of practice power in community
Pharmacy in Nepal. What are the major problems that are, as a consequence of this equity? Is
it okay with you as a pharmacists? Why? Discuss on the orientation holders and community
pharmacy in Nepal.
-

-
 ON "D"
[2Q x 7.5 = 15 marks]
Answer ANY TWO questions.

15. Briefly describe the history and give your opinion on the challenges and opportunities of
Community Pharmacy in Nepal.

16. If you have to choose ca.reer option between community pharmacy and hospital Pharmacy,
which one would you choose? Justify. What are the procedures you need to do before
establishing a community Pharmacy? Show a price and resources breakdown for the
establishment of a community pharmacy in second largest city of Nepal, Birgunj. The
approximate population of this city is 300,000.

17. "Polyphannacy is increasing day by day due to multiple diseases and thus adherence may not
be achieved with conventional drug information trend. How can Pharmacists counseling be
intervened in order to increase adherence?
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY Mark scored:
End Semester Examination
March/Apn|2022
Level : B. Pharm. Course : PHAR 4l 1

Year : IV Semester: II
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins. F.M 20

Registration No.: Date

65 ),
SECTIO
- t20Qx1=20marksl
Encircle the most appropriate option.
1. The meaning of Lean start up in business is
a. Spending as little money as we can.
b. Optimum use of money and minimizing waste
c. Maximum use of money to generate maximum profit.
d. Unplanned investment but being able to generate more profit ever
2. Which one of the following conditions is not minor?
a. Cystitis c. Allergic rhinitis.
- b. Vaginal thrush d. Upper respiratory tract infection

3 The full form of FIP is ...

a. Federation of Indian Pharmacy c. InternationalPharmaceutical Federation
b. Friends In Pharmacy d. Foundation in Pharmacy
4. Abstracting and indexing services is an example of . source of information.
a. Primary c. Tertiary
b. Secondary d. noneoftheabove
5 Which one of the following statements about counseling is incorrect?
a. Good communication demands effort, thought, time, and a willingness to learn how to
make the process effective
b. Many people may find talking to strangers difficult. Those type of person can still
have good counseling skill.
c. Counselling duration lesser than twenty minutes is waste of time.
d. The extent to which patients should be told about side effects will vary from one patient
) to another.

6 The intravenous route is widely used to administer parenteral products, but it must not be
used to administer . Emulsion or suspensions.
a. oil -in -water c. Oil-in-water-in oil
b. water-in-oil d. both b and c
7 The formula for calculating body mass index is....
a. Kg/cm2 b. Gm/m2 c. Kg/m2 d. Kg/m3
8 First batch of BPharm got admitted through Common entrance of Medical Education
Commission in ...A.D
a. 2018 b. 2019 c. 2020 d. 2021
9 All types of peritoneal dialysis use machine except
a. IPD c. CAPD
b. APD d. None of the above
10. Which one of the following statements regarding responding to symptoms is Incorrect?
a. Family history should be taken while attending to symptoms of patients
b. Minor symptoms can be managed by non-prescription medicines
c. Effective questioning is essential in order to obtain all relevant information
d. Confirmation of symptoms described by patient can be skipped as per the need basis
11. The method of production of radionuclides consists of 3 methods. They are
a. In a nuclear reactor as a fission byproduct , As the product of a neutron- reaction - either
by activation or transmutation and by use of an accelerator such as a cyclotron
b. [n a nuclear reactor as a fission byproduct, As the product of a proton reaction - either by
activation or transmutation and by use of an accelerator such as a cyclotron
c. [n a nuclear reactor as a fission byproduct, As the product of a proton reaction - either by
activation or transmutation and by use of an accelerator such as a electron
d. None of the above
12. Benzalkonium Chloride in a concentration of .. .....Vc is used in following eye drop
formulation; Atropine Sulphatb, Cyclopentolate, Homatropine and Carbachol
a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 0.01 d. 0.02
13. Which one of the following about "penetration pricing" is correct
a. Involves setting prices that are high retative to most purchaser's willingness to pay
b- lnvolves determining the rupee value benefit for the purchaser and pricing toward that
rupee amount.
c. lnvolves determining the costs involved in making and delivering the product, inctuding
operational costs, and adding a "fair" amount above that.
d. None of the above

t4. choose the incorrect statement on the disposal of cytotoxics.

a. Container may be of plastics, bright colored and sealed with the cytotoxic warning labet
b. Shatp objects like needles, syringes, ampoules and vials should be kept inside sharp bins
c. Container should be leak free
d. Patient excreta should be assumed hazardous for at least 24 hours
15. The formula for calculating body surflace area is.-_..
a. weight (kg) o:oo x Height (cm) 0'725 x O.OOZiii+
b. weight (kg) o'+zs x Height (cm) 0.7es x 0.007184
c. weight (ko; o'+zs x Height (cm) 0.725 x 0.007184
d. weight (ko) 0'+ss x Height (cm) 0.7es x 0.007184
16. Which one of the statements on Balance Sheet is incorrect?
a. a statement of the overall financial position of the business at a certain instant in time.
b. It shows, in financial terms, the possessions of the firm-the assets on one side and the
claims of various parties to these assets (known as liabilities) on the other.
c. Creditors is a component of Liabilities
d. Cash at bank is a componenr of Liabilities
t7. Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration:
a. Rectal c. Inhalation
b. Sublingual d. All are parenteral route
r8. Main elements of good pharmacy practice does not include.
a. Good health prevention
b. Supply and the use of prescribed medicines and other healthcare products
c. Self-care
d. Motivating patients for healthy lifestyle
19. l000ml Dextrose 25 7o provides kcal/ml.
a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 0.3 d. 0.4
20. Which one of the following is not the responsibility of poison information center?
a. Toxico-vigilance
b. Conduction of educational program for healthcare professionals
c. Patient management
d. None of the above
 KATHMANDU LTNIVERSITY
Mark scored:
End Semester Examination
March/April, 2022
Level : B.Pharm. Course : PHAR 417
Year : IV Semester : II
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins F. M. :20

Registration No.: Date

"A"
SECTI ON
[20Qx1:20marks]
Encircle the most correct option.

Which of the following medicines can be used as emergency contraceptive pill?

a. Levonorgestrel b. Ethinyloestradiol c. Mifespristone d. a and c

2. symptoms suggestive of middle ear infection is/are;

a. Pain, discharge & deafness b. Itch, pain & discharge
c. Deafness, dizziness& tinnitus d. Itch only
.)
J Causative organism of fifth disease is:
a. Adenovirus b. Parvovirus Bl9 c. Rotavirus d. Norwalk like virus

4 Which of the following is associated with left lower quadrant pain?

a. Irritable bowel syndrome b. Constipation
c. Dyspepsia d. Hemorrhoid

5 Which of the following is used to treat dysuria in patient suffering from cystitis?
a. Potassium citrate b. Suphamethoxazole
c. Azithromycin d. Hyoscine butylbromide
-
6 which of the following drug can lead to drug abuse?
a. Meclozine b. Cinnarizine c. Cyclozine d. Hyoscine

7 All are true for Choline salicylate except

a. Effective oral analgesics b. Given to adult & children greater than I yrs
- c. Have a quicker action d. None of the above

8 Pilocarpine eye drop;

- a. is used to treat primary open angle glaucoma
b. is used to treat primary angle closure glaucoma
c. decreases the production of aqueous humor
d. increases uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor
9 which statement(s) about head lice treatment is/are true?
a. Phenothrine should applied on wet hair
b. Alcoholic lotions are suitable for all patients
c. Shampoos are not as effective as lotions
d. All of the above
10. Mebend azole can be given to patient from what age?
a. I years b.2 years c. 4 years d. 5 years

11. All of the following statements about indigestion are true except:
a. It is poorly localized upper abdominal discomfort.
b. Any persistent alteration in normal bowel habit is not an indication for referral
c' Complain of indigestion for first time in patients older than 45 years needs a referral.
d- Pain aggravated by food and poorly locafized also needs a referral.

12. Which of the following is a soothing agent?

a.Dimeticone b. Lanolin c. Zinc d. Castor oil

13. In which of the following conditions of athlete's foot, referral is required?

a. Peeling of skin between toes
b. Involvement of toenails
c. Maceration of skin between the toes
d. Itching of affected area
t4. Patient suffering with sore throat should be referred to the doctor if sore throat
fails to
improve within;
a. one week b. two weeks c. one month d. two months

15. which is a mild corticosteroid among the following?

a. Hydrocortisone loZ b. Clobetasol propionate 0.05%
c. Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% d. Triamcinolone acetonid e 0.lyo

16. Which of the following immunoglobulins gets raised in atopic conditions?

a. IgG b. IgE c. IgM d. IgA

17. Which of the following types of psoriasis needs immediate refe rral?
a.Guttate b. [nverse c. Plaque type d. Erythrodermic

18. Which of the following side effects can appear after using nicotinates over a large body
surface arca?
a. Local irritation b. Dizziness c. Dryness d. Skin peeling

t9 Concomitant use of pseudoephedrine with which of the following is contraindicated?

a. Ranitidine b. Paracetamol c. Phenelzine d. Diphenhydramine
20 Which of the following is not used to reduce the level of Malasseziafurfur
on the scalp?
a. Ketoconazole b. Selenium sulphide
c. Coal tar d. Tacrolimus
-

KATHMANDU LINIVERSITY
- End Semester Examination
March/April, 2022
Level : B. Pharm. Course : PHAR 417
- Year :IV Semester: II
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F.M. :55
(6B''
- SECTION
t5Q' x 3 : 15 marksl
Answer ANy FlvEquestions.
I

1. Describe the different pathways involved in onset of nausea & vomiting & mention the
different receptors involved.
-
2. Mention the etiology, symptoms & management of the ear wax.
.)
- J Write down the non pharmacological measures that need to be advised for a patient
suffering from vaginal thrush.
I
4 Write down the clinical features and referral conditions of the oral thrush.

5 What counseling will you provide to a patient with a prescription of permethrin for scabies
treatment?

6 Give a short note on phototherapy used in treatment of psoriasis.

-
7 How can you differentiate allergic rhinitis from cornmon cold? What do you need to know
before helping a patient with allergic rhinitis?

SECTION ..C"
- t5Q.x5:25marksl
Answer AI\IY FIVE questions.
-
8 Define constipation. Give its detail management. How this can be managed in children,
elderly & pregnant women?

9 Differentiate bacterial, viral & allergic conjunctivitis. How are these treated?

- 10. Write down the signs & symptoms of the measles. How can it be differentiated from the
roseola infantum? Mention the referral conditions for children having rashes. How these
rashes can be managed by a pharmacist?
-
11. Discuss the timing & nature of pain associated with dysmenorrhea. Elaborate the
premenstrual syndrome. How is dysmenorrhea managed?
-
t2. Mention pathogenesis of acne vulgaris. What information will you collect before helping
apatient suffering with acne? Discuss on the use of keratolytic agents in acne rnanagement.
-

-
13. Discuss on various topical agents used in management of eczema.
Mention the criteria for
refening a patient with this skin condition.

t4. How will you respond to the patient presenting with cough?
Write in detail.

SECTION ..D"
t2Q. x 7 .5: 15 marksl
Attempt ANY TWO questions.

15. Discuss significances of questions & answers when dealing

with a patient complaining of
hemorrhoid' Mention the condition for referral. Give a treaiment
approach for this disease.

r6. What is heart burn? Elaborate on its contributing factors.

Discuss the signs & symptoms &
associated symptoms of heart burn. Give a pharmaceutical
care approach of management.

17. Differentiate different types of headaches based on the clinical presentations.

Discuss on
the role of a pharmacist while responding to patients complaining
of headache.
 KATHMANDU LNIVERSITY Mark scored:
- End Semester Examination
March/A Pril, 2022
Course : PHAR 419
Level : B. Pharm.
Semester: [l
- Year : tV
Time: 30 mins. F. M. :20
Exam Roll No. :
Registration No.:
Date :

- SECTION "A,,
t20Qxl:20marksl
- Encircle the most appropriate answer'

l. Dairy Products rich in vitamin fights hair loss

- a. 87 b. Bl2 c. 88 d. 86

2 Full form of PTD is

a. Para-toulene diame b. Para pheromone diamne
- c. Para thyroid diamne d. Para terta diamne

are not allergic to us

3. This test helps us ensure that active ingredients such as PPD and PTD
- a. patch test b. Strand Test c. Safety tests d- Dye test

4. All the procedure about strand test are true except

a. A centimeter thick strand of hair is taken'
b. The strand of hair is trapped to sheet and hair color mixture is applied remaining from
the Patch test.
5 or l0
c. Strand is checked after 35 minutes. tf the color is not seen in root extra
minutes is added.
d. tf the reaction is produced on the client's skin, then hair dye is discarded.

5. Which of the following hair dye reactions is enlisted in type-4 hypersensitivity reactions?
a. Contact dermatitis b' Anaphylactic shock
c. Mild irritation d' lntolerance to hair dye
6. The thin, hairy skin that covers the greater part of the body'
a. Hirsute b. Glabrous c. Epidermis d. Dermis

7 Layers of the epidermis present only in palms

a. Stratum baiale (stratum germinativum) b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum lucidum
The cell that communicates a sensory structure known as and works in the
8
sensation of touch.
- a. Melanocytes b. Langerhans cells c. Merkel cells d. Keratinocytes

9 All the statement are true about blister except

a. Described by watery, clear, liquid-filled region on the skin
- b. Maybe littlei than i.rn (vesicie) or bigger than I cm (bulla) and happen alone or in
gatherings
c. Can be found anYPlace on the bodY
- d. Shows up on parts of the body that get a greal deal of sun introduction.

10. Bothersome, raised welts that happen after the exposure to an allergen in the skin with red,
- warrn, and somewhat agonizing to the touch. Furthermore, this can be little, round, and
ring-formed or huge and haphazardly molded. This type of difficult in skin is termed as
a. Hives b. Actinic keratosis c. Rosacea d. Acne
-
n. All the facts about Stratum Corneum are true except
a. It is 25 to 30 layers of flat dead cells filled with keratin and covered by lipids which
continuously sheds
b. It is a barrier to light, heat, water, chemicals, and bacteria.
c. Presence of callus results in abnormal thickening of the epidermis.
d- [t is present only in the fingertips, palms of the hands, and the feet's soles.

12. All the facts about skin are true except

a. [t is a sensory organ that is the biggest organ of the body in both surface region and
weight.
b. In grown-uPS, skin covers a zone around 2 sq.mts (22 sq), weighs about 4.5 to 5 kgs,
and I 60/o of the body weight.
c. Normal thickness is I to 2 mm. Eye cover - 0.5 mm Palm and soles - 6 mm.
d. The pH of the skin is about 7 and the recharging of the skin happens in 28 to 50 days.

13. .are hygroscopic in nature and are available as a clear, colorless and
viscous liquid. They can be used as antimicrobial preservative; humectant; cosolvent and
solvent. But as humectants they lind with water and pull in hydration to the outer layer of
the skin. They can absorb 38.5% w/w of water in 144 hours at gl% RH.
c. Butylene glycol b. Propylene glycol c. Hyaluronic acid
d. Alkyl polyglycosides
14. .....which is available as a white powder are used in a wide range of cosmetics
and personal care products including makeup, nail products, bath soaps.
a. Chrornium oxide b. Zinc oxide c. Ultramarines d. Iron oxide

15. All the facts about fragnance are true except

a. Phenyl ethyl alcohol are obtained from plant extract which are faintly green in colour
and has the rose fragnance.
b. Geraniol is found naturally in geranium, lemongrass, , jasmine rose, palmarosa and
citronella oils
c. Citronellol : They are manufactured synthetically and has rose like fragnance so they
are the main component of rose oils.
d. Plant products like rosemary, lemongrass, clove, jasmine, etc can be used after their
extraction through steam distillation and organic solvent extraction.

16. All are the disorder related to Nail except

a. Onychoschizia b. onycholysis c. Terrys nail d. Enonychia

17. The process by which the mineral structure of enamel and dentine is dissolved and removed
as a result of microorganisms on sugars and carbohydrates that are present in the mouth.
a. Plaque b. Tartar c. Dental Caries d. Demineralization

18. The soap with. .... in its formulation can be claim

as "Soap with cold cream".
a. Mineral oil b. Jojoba oil c. Seaweed oil d. Oatmeal oil

19. .....contain the fragrance l0 to 20 % .

a. Shaving Soap b. Transparent Soap c. Translucent soaps d. Toilet Soaps

20. The root of each tooth sits within a bony socket called
a. Alveolus b. Cementum c. Pulp cavity d. Dentin
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
End Semester Examination
March/APril, 2022
: B. Pharm.
Course : PHAR 419
Level
Semester : [I
Year :IV
Tirne : 2 hrs. 30 mins.
F.M. : 55
SECTION "B"
[5Q"3:15marks]
Attempt ANY FIVE questions.

1. What are the main ingredients of lipsticks?

2. Give the diagram of transverse section of human skin'

a
J Write short note:
a. AntipersPirant
b. Deodorant
4 Describe about the ingredients of nail lacquers'

5 Explain about the anatomy of skin with diagram'

6 What are the main ingredients of mouthwash preparation?

7 Describe about the formulation of cold cream.

SECT[ON "C"
[5Q * 5:25 marks]

Attempt ANY FIVE questions.

g. Explain about the anatomy of hair with diagram. List down and explain the hair disorders.

g. What is color cosmetic? List down the characteristics of nail polish.

10. Describe about hair growth cycle.

n. Classify the skin on the basis of reaction to the Sun. Explain the formulation of cleansing
milks.

t2. What do you mean by translucent soap? Explain in detail about this soap with its method
of manufacture

13. What do you mean by bath foam? What are the basic formulation requirements of bathing
foam?

14. Explain in detail about cleansing cream with their method of manufacture.
 SECTION "D"
[2Q * 7.5 : 15 marks]

Attempt ANY TWO questions.

15. What do you mean by Sun cream chemicals? How do they work? What are sun cream
consumer's expectations? Explain in detail about the sun cream with their method of
manufacture and eval uation.

16. List down the lip products types. Describe about the ideal characteristics of the lip products.
Explain in detail about lip products formulation with their method of manufacture.

17. Explain in detail about the anatomy of human oral cavity. What are dental care products
and disorder. Describe about the formulations and evaluation of toothpaste in detail.

-
- KATHMANDU UNWERSITY Marks Scored:
End Semester Examination
March, 2022
: B.E.
Course : ETEG 431
Level
Semester : II
Year :[V
Exam Roll No. : Time : 30 mins. F.M. :10
Date
Registration No.:
SECTION "A"
t20Q. x 0.5 = 10 marksl

Encircle the most appropriate option.

l. Which of the following logic families has the least power dissipation?
a. RTL b. DTL c' CMOS d' ECL

2 Large scale integration circuits use

a. TTL b. DL c. CMOS d. DTL

3 The NAND gate can function as a NOT gate if

a. Inputs are connected together b- [nputs are left open
c. One input is set to 0 d. One input is set to 1

4
a. J=0, K=l b. J=0, K=0 c. J=1, K=0 d. J=1, K=1

5 Complete description of the circuit to be designed is given in

a. Architecture b. Entity c' Library d. Configurations

)
6 Which of the following is the correct use of the signal?
a. To set a default value b' To pass value between circuits
c. To declare a variable d' To represent local information

7 Multiple processes in a VHDL code are executed

a. Sequentially
b. Randomly
c. Based on the order of elements in the sensitivity list
d. Concurrently
8 Which of the following type of memory is the fastest to access?
a. ROM b. Cache c. SRAM d. DRAM

9. In mapping, the data can be mapped anywhere in the Cache Memory'

a. Associative b. Direct c. Set Associative d. Indirect
 10. PAL stands for
a. Programmable Array Logic b. Programmable Logic Array
c. Programmable Array Loaded d. Programmable Adhoc Logic

11. Which of the following can be used for the area optimization of digital
circuits?
a. Parallel structure b. Retiming
c. Folding transformation d. Replicatlon ,,

12. The ease with which the controller determines signal value at any
node by setting input
values is known as
a' Testability b. observability c. Conrrollability d. Manufacturability

13. Builrin self test

a. increases test pattern generation cost b. reduces volume of test data
c. requires external ATE d. increases test time

t4. FPGA belongs to _ devices.

a. SLD b. SROM c. EPROM d. PLD

15. PLA contains

a. AND and OR ilrays b. NAND and OR arrays
c. NOT and AND arrays d. NoR un#b R arrays

16. In an asynchronous sequential circuit, change in more than one state in response to a
change in input is called
a. undefined condition b. race condition
c. reset condition d. ideal condition

17. Naming of the states is done in

a. transition table b. stable state c. flow table d. excitation table

18. Which characteristic of IC in Digital Circuits represents a function of the switching rime
of a particular transistor?
a' Fan-out b. Fan-in c. Power dissipation d. Propagation delay
19. The race in which stable state depends on an order is called
a. Critical race b. Identical c. Non critical race d. Defined race

20 What do the Programmable Logic Devices (PLDs) designed especially for the
combinational circuits comprise?
a. Only gates b. Only flip flops
c. Gates and flip flops d. Only *"*ory devices
 KATHMANDU UNryERSITY
End Semester Examination
March, 2022
Level : B.E. Course : ETEG 431
Year :[V Semester : II
Time : 2 hrs 30 mins. F.M. :40
SECTION "B"
t4Q. x 10 = 40 marksl

Attempt ANY FOUR questions. Symbols have their usual meanings. Urgent appropriate
assumptions are perrnissible.

I
a. Draw the circuit of NOR gate using CMOS and explain its operation. t5l
b. Discuss the basic characteristics of logic families. tsl

2
a. What is the fundamental difference between the structural and behavioral design
methodology? Implement the following Boolean expression using both structural and
behavioral designs to illustrate such difference.
(A'+B).(C+D') t5l
b. Show how a PAL is programmed for the following 3-variable logic function.
Y=AB'C'+ABC+A'B'+BC t3l
c. Differentiate custom ICs and ASICs with examples. t2)

3
a. Draw the logic circuit diagram of the SOP expression f=I (2,3,6,7,1L,12,13,15).
)
Examine the possibility of hazards in the circuit. Explain how the hazard can be
detected and eliminated with the aid of Karnaugh map. t5l
b. Give two valid differences between SRAM and DRAM. tzl
- c. Discuss cache replacement policies in brief. t3l

4.
a. Discuss different strategies for area optimization while designing digital circuit. t5l
b. Lookup tables are used for implementing logic in Field-Programmable Gate Arrays
(FPGAs). Exptain with suitable example. t5l

5
a. What are the differences between CPLD and FPGA? What are the advantages of
FPGA? How is FPGA useful in the implementation of logic circuits? t5l
b. Explain briefly about various processes performed during testing of digital circuits. [3]
c. Define Stuck at fault model with example. tZ)
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY Marks Scored
End Semester Examination
March, 2022
- Level : B.E. Course : EPEG 423
Year :IV Semester : II
Exam Roll No. : Time : 30 mins. F.M. :10

Registration No. : Date

SECTI N
t'A"
t20Q. x 0.5 = 10 marksl
- Encircle the most appropriate option

I Which of the fotlowing is the advantage of a low-pressure sodium lamp over a fluorescent
lamp?
a. High cRI c. High luminous efficacy
b. Long life d. all the above
I 2. Which of the fotlowing is not a category of the human visual field?
a. Central vision c. Monocular vision
b. Binocular vision d. Specular vision
3. According to IESNA, a luminaire is considered to be a wide flood if the view angle is greater
than
a. 40 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70

4. Optimal luminous intensity distribution curve in road lighting installation does not depend on
-.
a. pole height c. road width
b. pole arrangement d. CCT of the light source

5 In which of the following reflector types, the outward beam is parallel?

a. Circular c. Elliptical
b. Parabolic d. None of the above

6. Spectral sensitivity range of medium type cone cell is in the range of

i a. 380-400 b. 400-500 c. 450-630 d. 6s0-780

7 What is the prime concern in the design of a LED driver circuit?

a. Constant voltage c. EMC
b. Constant current d. PF
8 In landscape lighting which of the following lighting scheme produces the shadow effect?
- a. Spotlighting c. Uplighting with directional viewing
b. Silhouette lighting d. Moonlighting
9 Preferred value of light source CRI for sports lighting is greater than
a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80

10. Which of the following luminaire is applicable for an indirect lighting scheme?
a. Downlight c. Spotlight
b. Suspended troffers d. None of the above
11. 100lumensfromalightSourCefallonatableof2m2,illtrminanceis-Iux.
a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200
 12. In a two-lane highway, the width of the road is 16 m and the height
of the pole (luminaire
mounting height) is 9 m. Which of the following pole arrang".Jnt is preferred?
a. Single-sided c. Opposite
b. Staggered d. None of the above
13. Which of the following is not true for luminance?
a. Describes the brightness of a surface.
b. Describes density of light.
c. Revels amount of light reaching the surface
d. Luminance and differences in luminance are perceived by the human
eye.

14. View angle of a luminaire is defined as

a. the angle at which peak luminous intensi ty is observed.
b. the angle at which half of peak luminous intensity is observed
c. twice the angle at which peak luminous intensity is observed.
d. twice the angle at which half of peak luminous intensity
is observed.

15. If you are asked to design lighting for a stadium hosting world cup cricket,
which of the
following lighting class will you choose?
a. Class I c. Class III
b. Class II d. Class IV
t6. Which of the following parameter is not considered in the definition of tighting-class
for
sports lighting?
a. Glare rating c. Horizontal illuminance
b. Contrast ratio d. Illuminance uniformity
n. Unpredictable scheduling lighting conrrol scheme using occupancy/motion sensor
can
provide energy saving up to percent.
a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 60
18. which of the following is nor considered light pollution?
a. Excessive light c. Uneven light
b. Light trespass d. Skyglow
19. Which of the following factor do not contribute to the external quantum efficiency
of LED?
a. Feeding efficiency c. Internal quantum efficiency
b. Injection efficiency d. Oprical
"ifi.i.n.y
20. Draw conical and batwing angular illumination distribution patterns.

8 r'-- .t o
o I
oo 6 o(o
o--
oo
o l i' oF
--_ F
o'
-1.
,-o,
oo
.'& &

o,
& .t '.:. &
o{ .O2 o{
0g & Og eF
0?
0t 0 0r
oZ olo.ooroz
I

Conical Batwing
 KATHMANDU LTNIVERSITY
End Semester Examination
March, 2022
Level : B.E. Course : EPEG 423
Year :IV Semester : II
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F. M. :40
SECTI oN "8"
[5Q.x8=40marks]
Atternpt ANY FNE questions.

l.
a. Draw and explain about illumination distribution pattern of a typical light source. Using
appropriate figures explain rhe working of rhe goniophotometer. 14)
b. What is lumen maintenance lighting control strategy, explain with an appropriate figure how
issues associated with lumen depreciation and constant illumination is addressed with this
control strategy. 14)

2
a. Write about radiative and non-radiative recombination. Draw and explain double
heterostructure and its significance in increasing radiative recombination.
t3l
b. Write about colour mixing and explain how additive colour mixing is utilized in obtaining
white light from its complemenrary colours. t3l
c. Write about different photometric units and explain their significance. t2l

3
a. With an appropriate example, explain about five applications where LED technology has
fulfilled the limitation of conventional lighting technology and light sources. t3]
b. Briefly describe working principle and application of differenr rypes of OLED. t3l
c. Write about CIE CRI and explain methods of increasing the CRI of a phosphor-converted white
LED light source. pl
4.
a. Write about different criteria used to define lighting for traffic routes where motorized vehicles
are dominant.
t3l
b. Write about various aspects of situation that needs to be considered while designing lighting
for sports activities.
t3l
c. Explain lighting glare and explain how glare measure for indoor is different from outdoor
applications. pl

5
a. Write about luminaire classification based on light orientation. 14)
b. write about and image and colour perception of human vision. I4l

6. Write short nores on (AMI FOUR)

14x2=8)
i. Tradeoff between CRI and Luminous efficacy
ii. Radiative and non-radiative recombination
- iii. Human visual field.
iv. Room utilization factor.
v. IP rating of a luminaire.
- vi. Discomfort and disability glare.
 KATHNIANDU LNTVERSTTY Marks Scored:
End Semester Examination
lvlarch' 2022
Course : EPEG 426
Level : B.E
Semester : [I
Year : [V
F. N,1. : t0
Exam Roll No. Time : 30 mins
E
Date
Regis tration No. I

J- t20Q. x 0.5 = [0 marks]

Encircle the most appropriate optlon'

Which of these is not a power quality problem?

swell c' Harmonics d. Sinusoidal volta-ee
a. Volta-9e sa-9 b. Volta-ee

is?
2 The correct sequence in the evolution of smart-grid
grid
a. Electromechanical meter) AMR)AMI)[nter-connected
b. Electromechanical meter) AMI) AMR) lnter-connected 'srid
c. Electromechanical meter) AIvtR ) lnter-connected'erid) AM I
d. Electromechanical meter) lnrer-connected
grid)AMR)AMI

ener-gy stora-qe design?

3 which of this is not an important factor in selectin-9 optimum
a. storage
Type of b. charge/discharge cycle

c. Consumer behavior d' Cost and efficiency

volta-ee level of distributed

4 which one of these is true for the typicat rating ran-se and
ener-qy sources?
a. 50-100 kW, below 25 kV b. 50-100 kW, above 25 kV

c. 3-50 kW, below 25 kV d. 3-50kW, above 25 kV

In the case of distributed energy source inte-qration

into the grid, islandin,e is cate-gorized
5
AS
- a. High severity baseline imPact b. Medium severity baseline impact

c. High severity high penetration impact d. Medium severity hi-eh penetration

6 The voltage deviation acceptable range is

a. 5Vo for distribution system, L\vc for transmission system
b. l07o ofdistribution system , 57c for transmission system
c. 5Vo for both distribution and transmission system
d. l\vo for both distribution and transmission system

-
7 In a grid, the potential to form an unintentional island does not depend on
a. Generation to load ratio in the islanded section
b. Frequency of the supply in the islanded section
c. Reactive power balance in the islanded section
d. Percentage of inverter-based generation and synchronous generation in the islanded
section

8. Which one of these battery technologies has the hi,shest efficiency?

a. Lithium-ion b. Sodium Sulfide c. Lead acid d. Flow battery

9 Which of the following is not a feature of power converter used with ener,gy stora_qe
system?
a. Have high efficiency b. Provide fast response
c. Can withstand high peak power d. Should mana_ge low-rated power

10. The feature of a smart digital meter does not include

a. High samplin-e rate b. Hi,eh operatin_{ voltage
c. High data rate d. High range

11 GSM is an example of which communication technology category?

a. LAN b. WAN c. LPWAN d. Satellite

t2. Which one of the following communication technolo-9y has high data rate and low range?
a. Wifi b. Cellular c. Zi-ebee d. Satellite

13. What is not essential for electricity demand forecastin-9?

a. Time series data of the past loads b. Time series data of the future loads
c. Demographic data d. Seasonal factor

t4. Which one of these is a security issue in smart grids?

a. voltage variation b. Intermittent energy sources
c. Peak shaving d. Radio subversion or takeover

15. Which one of the following is true?

a. PMU has lower resolution compared to SCADA system
b. PMU can measure both magnitude and phase an-tle of volta-9e or current
c. PMU does not have time synchronization option
d. PMU is deployed for local monitoring and control
 r6 Which one of the followin-e is not rhe apptication of data minin-e in transmission and
distribution system?
a. tslanding detection b. Fault identification

- c. Power quaLity mana,sement d. Load modeling

L7 The equipment supply and installation cost falls under which cost cate*eor,v'?

- a. Capital cost b. Fixed O&M cost

c. Variable O&M cost d' Replacement cost

- 18. Net Present Cost of smart -srid can be defined as

a. present value of all the costs of installing and operatin,q the components of smart grid
over
over the project lifetime minus the present value of all the revenues that it earns
the project lifetime
b. Different between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash
outflows over a period of time
c. Sum of all the costs associated with a smart grid over its lit'etime or over a selected
period of analysis, in today's value takin-s into account the time value of money
d. Sum of all the costs associated with a smart grid over its lifetime or over a selected
period of analysis, in today's value without taking into account the time value of
money

19. The measure of the average net present cost of electricity -Peneration for a -seneratin-g
plant over its lifetime is known as
a. Cost of energy b. Levelized cost of ener-ey
c. Lifetime cost d. Levelized lifetime cost

20 Which one of the fotlowin-9 is not a favorable economic indicator for investment in a

smart -erid project?

a. NPC is low b. NPV is ne,eative
c. Payback period is low d. BCR is hi-sh and -ereater than I
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
End Semester Examination
March, 2022
Level : B.E. Course : EPEG 426
Year :IV Semester : Il
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F.M. :40
SECTI oN ''8"
t4Q. x l0 -- 40 marksl

Attempt ANY FOUR questions.

I
a. Draw a schematic diagram of a traditional power system grid. E.xplain what additiorr
or changes would you make it to make the grid smart. t6l
b. What is a SCADA system? Explain its working mechanisrn witlr a suitable diagrarl.
t4l

2
a. Explain the challenges for the integration of distribr"rted/renewable energy sources to
the grid. t6l
b. Explain with a suitable diagram how a wireless sensor network (WSN) works. 14]

1
J
a. Explain briefly different economic indicators used for econortric artall.sis of'stttat't
grids. List the decision rule among the alternatives. 16
b. What is unintentional islanding and relay desensitization? Explain. [4

4
a. What is a battery energy storage system and what are its applications? Explain
commonly used battery technologies with their merits and dernerits. [6]
b. Explain the benefit of smart meters compared to traditional electromechanical meters.
t4l

5
a. Describe briefly the security issues related to smart grid. t6l
b. What is electricity dernand forecasting? Explain the obiectives of electricity dernand
forecasting. t4l
 KATHMANDU LINIVERSITY Marks Scored:
End Semester Examination
March, 2022
Level : B.E. Course : ETEG 440
Year :IV Semester :II
Exam Roll No. Time: 30 mins. F.M. :10
-
Registration No. :
Date
66A"
SECTI N
E
:
[20 Q. x 0.5 10 marks]

Encircle the most appropriate option.

-
1. Persistence of Hearing for a Human being is second.
a. I b.2 c. 0.1 d. 0.s
- -
2. The pitch of the sound depends on
a. frequency b. amplitude
- c. amplitude and frequency d. energy of wave

3 Sound is a kind of
a. work b. energy c. force d. variables

- 4 Due to which phenomena sound is heard at longer distances in nights than in day?
a. Reflection b. Refraction
c. Dense atmosphere d. Diffractions of sound

5. Air borne noise can be minimized

a. allotting proper places for doors and windows
- b. generating similar sound energy
c. using large barrier behind the sound source.
d. changing the interior of room.
-t

6. Dog here the frequency greater than

a. 400H2 b. 20,000H2 c. 45,000 Hz d. 65,000 Hz
-
7 . The essential feature of good acoustic is,
a. there should be resonance within the building.
- b. there should be no reverberation
c. there should be no resonance within the building.
d. there should be large reverberation.
-
8 Which of the following is not a characteristic of a musical sound?
a. Pitch b. Wavelength c. Quality d. Loudness
-

-
 9 A man standing in between two parallel cliffs, he produces a sound
and first echo is heard
from cliff-2 after 3 seconds and second echo is heard from
cliff - I after 4 second. If the speed
of sound in air is 340m/s. The distance between two cliffs
is
a. 1360m b. 2380m c. 1190m %
10. In any medium, the nature of sound wave will be
a. only transverse b. both longitudinal and transverse
c. neither longitudinal nor transverse d. only longitudinal
It. The loudness of sound varies directly with vibrating
body,s
a. amplitude b. pitch .. fr"qir.n"y d. tone
t2. In which medium speed of sound will be maximum
a. sea water b. distilled warer c. methanol d. ethanol
13. In human beings, which of the following body part produces
the sound?
a' Larynx b. wind pipe c. Eardrum d. Lungs
14. which of the following is/are the effects of noise pollution?
a. Insomnia
c masking l liliiff:::l Hyperrension
15. Identify the three delicate bones present in the middle ear of
Human.
a. Pinna, anvil and cochlea b. Hammer, anvil and cochlea
c. Pinna, eardrum and anvil d. Hammer, anvil and stimrp

16. Thesound power level of a iet plane flying at a height of lkm

is 160 dB. what will be the
maximum sound pressure level on the gio.rira directfi below the
flight path assuming that the
aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions?
a. 59 dB b. 69.5 dB c. 79 dB d. 89.1 dB
17. is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation
direction per
unit time?
a. Loudness b. Coherence c. Sound pressure d. Sound intensity

18. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is decreased to yzthe
original
amount, the intensity of the sound would be
a. 2 times higher b. 3 times higher c. 4 times higher d. 6 times higher

19. Calculate the velocity of sound in ff/sec. if the temperature is 1490

C.
a' 1530.03 ff/sec b. t320 ft/sec c. 1357.03 ft/sec d,. 1920.345 fl/sec

20. 80 phons + 80 Phons is equal to

a. 83 phons b. 160 phons c. 90 phons d. 86 phons
s

KATHMANDU UNTVERSITY
s
End Semester Examination
March, 2022
Level : B.E. Course : ETEG 440
Year :[V Semester : II
F. M. :40
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins.
..B''
SECTION
- t4Q. x 10 = 40 marksl
Attempt ANY FOUR questtons
Missing data may be suitably assumed. Each symbol carries their ttsual meaning.
-
1

a. Find the speed of sound in air at 200 C and at one atmospheric pressure. Air has density of
- l.2L kglm3 and ratio of specific heats l.O4O2 at 200 C. t4)
b. What is acoustics and acoustic energy? t3l
- c. Explain the term acoustic reciprocity with reference to simple source- t3]

2.
- a. A room of 12 m x 10 m x 4 m has an average Sabine absorptivity a - 0.1 find the
reverberation time of room. t4)
b. What are acoustic factors in architectural design? l2l
-
c. State and explain the fundamental properties of hearing? t4l

- -l
J
a. What are the different sound absorption materials used in acoustic design? Explain in brief
about their selection criteria. t5l
- b. What is psychoacoustics? Explain the essential parameters need to be considered to
enhance the quality of hearing. t5l
-
4
a. Explain speech phenomena in the presence of noise and possible noise reduction
- techniques. t5l
b. What are the basic difference to be considered to design a general purpose auditorium and
music recording room? t5]
-
5
- a. Propose a design for school layout based on better acoustic properties near the busy
highway. Your design must include the sketch for class rooms areas, playground,
auditorium and music room. Justify your views with the help of technical parameters. I7l
- b. Define reverberation time. How will you choose the reverberation time in small and big
auditorium? t3l
I

-
 KATHMANDU LTNTVERSITY Marks Scored
End Semester Examination
March, 2022
Level : B.Tech.
Year : fV Course : BIOT 4l 1

Semester : II
Exarn Roll No. :
Time : 30 mins. F. M. :20
Registration No.:
Date :
SECTION "A"
Choose the correct answer.
t10Qx1:l0marksl
t. As per the National Immunization Program, children
in Nepal are recommended to receir,e
vaccines against different pathogens.
L)7 f fto ilrl 1lt2
2 vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine
- [ ] Tetanus [ ] Hemophilus influenza b
[ ] Hepatitis B [ ]MMR
3
s
r- ts most corrmonly used adjuvant in vaccines.
[ ] Freund's incomplete adjuvant [ ] Alum
[ ] Freund's complete adjuvant I i virosome
4 COVISHlplprur developed by Serum Institute of
India (AstraZeneca/oxford formulation) is
a vaccine.
[ ] mRNA [ ] whole inactivated
[ ] recombinant vector [ ] live attenuated
5 Which of the following statements regarding
an ideal vaccine is FALSE?
t ] It must be safe and easy to use with low side effects in humans
I I ItI must provide immunity ro at least 15% ofthe population
[ ] must be available at u io*.ort
[ ] It must provide long-lasting immunity
6 which of the following statements_regarding
live attenuated vaccine is INC.RRECT?
is prepared using whore weakeled hvlng
I ] f, bacteria or virus
[ ] It can generate a long-term immune."rpoir" with the administration
of a single dose
[ ] oral polio vaccine is a live attenuated vaccines
s t ] It is stable at normal room temperature
7 Informed consent for vaccine trials does
the include the follorving parameter:
[ ] Must be obtained in writing
- I J Can be obtained verbally
[ ] Is voluntary
[ ] Should include provision of information
on the process, benefits and risks of
- trial.
8. Maintaining the cold chain ensures that vaccines
are stored at
tl0to+40c Ir-rto+506 r.r-4to+goc
- tl+4to+60c
9 Successful immnun izationcan be impaired
by:
[ ] Adjuvants [ ]cytokines
[ ]MaternalAntibodies [ ] Vaccine stabilizers

-
 A further dose of the same vaccine should not be given if the patient
develops:
10.
[ ] Pain, swelling or redness of the site
[ ] Headache
i j C*aiovascular collapse and other anaphylactic reactions
[ ] Temperature above 37.soc
[5Q * 1: 5 marksl
Fill in the blanks.
11. Reverse Vaccinology was pioneered by

are kept unaware of the treatment being

t2
assigned.

13. is an example of a toxoid vaccine'

-
14. The most com'mon route for vaccine administration is

Phase studies
15. One can apply for vaccine licensure after completing

Define the followings.

[5Q"1=5marksl

16. Primary Pathogens: -,.ffi:

17 . Original Antigenic Sin:

18. Seroconversion:

19. Vaccine PotencY:

20. BoosterVaccination:
 KATHMANDU TINIVERSITY
End Semester Examination
March, 2022
Level : B.Tech. Course : BIOT 411
Year :fV Semester : II
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F.M. :55
- SECTION "B''
[7Q"5:35marks]
Atternpt ALL questions.

I Explain the signifrcance of Herd Immunity with suitable example(s)

2 Write short note on fractional polio vaccine (fPV).
3 Discuss how adjuvants help vaccines perfiorm better.

4 How is the infant immune system distinct from adult immune system? What implications do
- these differences have on vaccine development for the young ones?

5 Explain in detail, the steps involved in developing vaccines through reverse vaccinology
approach.
-
6 Explain the importance of post-marketing surveillance (phase IV studies) in vaccine
development.
s
7 Discuss any five arguments used by anti-vaxxers to refuse vaccination. Also state the facts to
justify/convince that such arguments are just myths.

oN "c"

Write TWO differences between ANY FM. [5Q * 2: l0 marks]

- 8. Vaccine for viral pathogens and Vaccine for bacteria
9. Antigenic Shift and Antigenic Drift
- 10. Trivalent and Bivalent Polio Vaccine
11. Vaccine effectiveness and Vaccine failure
- t2. Recombinant Vector Vaccine and DNA Vaccine
13. Pre-clinical study and Clinical study

-
Explain WIfY/IIOW for ANIY F[VE. [5Q " 2: t0 marks]
a-
14. The development of immunologic memory might not be sufficient to tackle certain pathogens.

15. BCG is a "self adjuvanted" vaccine.

tE 16. The pathogen, Meningococclts B (MenB), was refractory to vaccine development by
conventional approach.
17. Vaccines are subjected to greater scrutiny than other pharmaceutical products.
-
18. Vaccination of pregnant women can confer immunity to their nervborns.
19. Route of administration influences the efficacy of any vaccine.
-

-
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSTTY
End Semester Examination [C]
April 2022
Course : COMP 401
Level : B.E.
Semester: I
Year : fV
Exam RolI No. : Time: 30 mins F.M. :10

Date
Regis tration no.: ..A''
SECTION
t20Q x 0.5 = 10 marksl
Encircle the most appropriate option'

Which one is the cause of the software project failure?

- a. Increasing system comPlexitY
b. Failure to use software engineering method
A c. Both a and b
d. None

2 Odd one out from the followings

a. Graphics program c. CAD software
b. Project management tool d. Traffic monitoring sYstem

3. Which one isn't a general issue that affect software?

a. HeterogeneitY c' Security and trust
b. HomogeneitY d' Scale

4 Which one is also included in process description?

a. Products c. Pre- and post-conditions
b. Roles d. All

5 Which one is only a plan-driven model?

a. Waterfall model c. Integration and configuration
b. IncrementaldeveloPment d. All

6 In which one of the followings a prototype can be used?

a. Requirement engineering process c- Testing process
b. Design process d' All
7 Which one is not a principle of agile methods?
a. Process not PeoPle c. Embrace change
b. Maintain simplicitY d. Incremental delivery
8 In XP, when the increments are delivered to customers?
a. Every 1 week c. Every 3 weeks
b. Every 2 weeks d. Every 4 weeks
9 Who is not a reader of user requirements?
a. Client managers c. System architects
b. Software developers d. Client engineers

r0. Broadly classifying, how many types of non-functional requirements are there?
a.2 c.3
b.4 d.5
11. which focuses on testing component interactions?
a. Unit testing c. Regression Testing
b. Component testing d. System testing

t2. Through which interfaces sub-systems request services from other sub-systems?
a. Parameter interfaces c. procedural interfaces
b. Shared memory interfaces d. Message passing interfaces
13. How many stages are there in systems engineering?
a.4 c.6
b.5 d.7
14. which is not a characteristic of socio-technical systems?
a. Emergent properties
b. Non-deterministic
c. complex relationship with organizational objectives
d. None
15. Which one affects schedule or resources?
a. Product risks c. Business risks
b. Project risks d. Alt

16. What is the effect of the risk: the rate of defect repair ts nnderestimatecl?
a. Serious c. Tolerable
b. Insignificant d. Catastrophic*.
.
-..f:

17. Which factor doesn't influence the final size of a software system?
a. Use of reuse systems c. Distribution of system
b. Programming language d. None
18. How many factors are there that affect software pricing?
a.3 c.4
b.5 d.7
19. The inspection check: " Is there any possibility of buffer overflow" falls on which fault class?
a. Storage management fault c. Data fault
b. Inpuuoutput fault d. control faurt
20 Reliability is not related to which one of the followings internal quality amribure?
a. Cyclomatic complexity c. Depth of inheritance tree
b. Program size in lines of code d. Number of error messages
 KATHMANDU UNIVERST|Y
End Semester Examination [C]
April 2022
Level : B.E. Course : COMP 401
Year :fV Semester : I
s
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F.M. :40
..B''
SECTION
[6Q' x4=24marks]
Attempt A.Nysrx questions.
l. Define software engineering. Briefly explain the types of software based on their applications

2. With diagram, discuss on a general model of the design process.

3. Describe principles of agile methods.

4. With diagram, briefly explain layered structure of socio-technical systems.

5. Define software risk. Explain risk management process.

6. Discuss on factors affecting software pricing.

7. Briefly explain static software product metrics.

(.c),
SECTION
[2Q.x8=16marks]
Attempt ANY TWO questions.

8. Define requirement engineering. Draw a spiral view of the requirements engineering process.
How requirements are discovered? Explain it. [1+4+3]

9. Mention testing guidelines. With diagram, describe test driven development (TDD). l4+4)

10. By referring to the activity duration and dependency chart below, draw activity network and
activity bar chart. Also, trace the critical path. 16+21

Task Duration Dependencies

T1 8
T2 15
T3 15 r1 (Ml)
-
T4 10
T5 40 T2,T4 (M2)
T6 5 Tr,T2 (M3)
T7 20 T1 (M1)
T8 25 14 (M5)
T9 10 T3, T6 (M4)
T10 15 T5,T7 (M7)
T11 7 re (M6)
TT2 5 Tl l (M8)
t
 KATHMANDU TINIVERSITY
End Semester Examination [C] Marks Scored:
April, 2022
Level : B.Sc. Course : COMP 484
Year : IV Semester : I
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins. F.M. : l0

Registration no.: Date

SECTION "A"
:
[20Q. x 0.5 10 marks]
Encircle the most appropriate option.

1 Higher value of entropy would mean which of the following?

a. Attributes of instances cannot be related to any class of values
b. Attribute of instances belong to just one class of values
c. Attributes of instances belong to a mixed class of values
d. None of these
2 The average positive difference between computed and desired outcome values is:
a. Mean absolute error b. Mean squared error
c. I\z[ean positive error d. Root mean squared error
J Averaging the output of multiple decision trees helps:
a. Decrease variance b. Increase bias
c. Increase variance d. Decrease bias

4 Overfi tting suffers from :

a. Poor generalization b. Poor specialization

c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b

5. FIND-S algorithm starts from the most specific hypothesis and generalize itby
considering only examples.
a. Negative b. Positive
c. Negative or Positive d. None of the above

6 The general limitations of backpropagation rule is/are:

a. Scaling b. Slow convergence
c. Local minima problem d. All of the above

7. which of the following is assumed by the FIND-S algorithm?

a. H indeed contains the target concept c
b. Training examples are error-free
c. At each step, the hypothesis is generalizedjust as much to cover the current observed
positive example
d. All of the above
8 What does an entropy value of I mean?
a. All the members of S belong to one class either positive or negative
b. S has equal number of positive and negative members
c. S has a mix of non-uniform number of positive and negative members
d. None of the above
 9 which of the f.ollowing systems is devoid of any inductive bias?
a. Rote-learner b. Candidate Elimination
c. FIND-S d. None of the above
10. Parameter estirnation is all about
a. Identifying input parameters b. Identifying output parameters
c. Identifying model parameters d. All of the above
11. which of the following is true about Naive Bayes?
a. Assumes that all features in a dataset are equally important
b. Assumes that all features in a dataset are indepeno"nt
c. Both of a and b
d. Neither a nor b
12. which of the following is provided by the Bayesian Network?
a' Complete description of the problem b. Partial description of the network
c. complete description of the domain d. All of the above
13. The difference between the expected sample value and the estimated
parameter value is called -
a. Bias b. Error c. Contradiction d. Difference
14. which of the following is a subset of population?
a. Distribution b. Sample c. Data d. Set
15. The sampling error is defined as:
a. Difference between population and parameter
b. Difference between sample and parameter
c. Difference between population and sample
d. Difference between parameter and ,urrrpl.
16. A nearest-neighbor approach is best used:
a. with large-sized database
b. when irrelevant attributes have been removed from the data
c. when a generalized model of the data is desirable
d. when an explanation of what has been found is of primary importance
17. What do you expect will happen with bias and variance as you increase the size of the
training data?
a' Bias increases and Variance increases b. Bias decreases and Variance increases
c. Bias decreases and Variance decreases d. Bias increases and Variance decreases
18. what does computational Learning Theory (cLT) comprise of?
a. Sample complexity b. Compuiational complexity
c. Mistake Bound d. All of the above
19. When you find noise in the data, which of the following option would you consider in kNN?
a. Increase the value of k
b. Decrease the value of k
c. Noise is not dependent on the value of k
d. None of the above
20. Which of the following techniques would perform better for reducing dimensions of a dataset?
a. Removing columns which has too many missing values
b. Removing columns which have high variance in data
c. Removing columns with dissimilar data trends
d. None of the above
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
End Semester Examination [C]
April, 2022
Level : B.Sc. Course : COMP 484
Year :IV Semester: I
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F. M. :40
- SECTION "B''
t6 Q. x 4
:24 marksl
Attempt ANY SIX questions.

1. What is the major shortcorning of Concept Learning as a Machine Learning Approach?

Differentiate between the hypothesis space and version space.

2. Define the terms - "Instances", "Hypotheses", "Target concept" and "Training Examples".

3. Distinguish between "Preference bias" and "Restriction bias". Which of the bias do the
Decision trees have and how does it impact in the overall classification?

4. Explain the architecture and working mechanism of Artificial Neural Networks.

5. Explain the two difficulties with limited set of data "Bias in the estimate" and
"Variance in the estimate".

6 State "Bayes theorem" and explain the parameters involved in the theorem. Derive the
maximum posterior hypothesis (hvep) and maximum likelihood hypothesis (hrr,rr-) from
the theorem.

7 Distinguish between "lazy" and "eager learning" with suitable examples. What is the key
factor that differentiates "instance-based learning" and "general supervised learning
models"?

SECTION ..C"
t2Q.x8:16marksl
, Attempt ANY TWO questions.

8 Explain the working mechanism of "Decision trees". How are "Entropy" and
"Information Gain" used for classification by Decision trees? Shed light on some of the
issues of Decision trees classification and the possible solutions to the problems.

9 Discuss the stochastic gradient descent version of the Backpropagation algorithm for
feedforward networks containing two layers of sigmoid units. What is the "local minima"
problem and what are some of the common heuristics to attempt to alleviate the problem
of the local minima?

10. How does the k-nearest neighbor algorithm work? Discuss the curse of dimensionality
problem in the context of the k-nearest neighbor algorithm.
 KATHMANDU LINIVERSITY
End Semester Examination
s
March/Apnl,2022
Level : B. Pharm. Course : PHAR 416
Year : IV Semester : [I
,- Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F.M. : 55
SECTION "B''
[5Q x 3 = 15 marks]
Attempt AI'IY FNE questions.

1. Lists the regulation made under Drug Act 2035. Why those regulations are made by
Government of Nepal?

2. As per Drug Act2035, what qualifications are required to be dispenser, prescriber, lnspector
and Analyst.

3. On what basis drugs are classified as per Drug Act 2035.

4. What are rights of consumers?

5. Write down powers of lnspector and Administrator as per Drug Act 2035.

6. Write down the objectives of Drug Act 2035.

7. List the Narcotic and Psychotropic Drugs used in pharmaceutical dosage form as per Narcotic
Control Substances Act 2033.
SECTION "C''
[5Q x 5 =25 marks]
Attempt ANY FNE questions.
8. Enumerate the procedure for standardization of drugs which are not included in any of
pharmacopoeias.

9. What is the role of Pharmacists for ethical promotion of medicine?

-, 10. Write down constitution of Drug Advisory Committee.

I l. Please point out factors which affect for effective implementation of drug regulation.

L2. Define Narcotic Substance as per Narcotic Substances Control Act. How would relate Drug
Act 2035 and Narcotic Substances Control Act 2033?
13. Discuss the role of pharmacists in the present context.

14. Briefly write down different organizations related to pharmaceutical fields.

SECTI ON "D"
[2Q x 7.5 = 15 marks]
Attempt ANY TWO questions.

15. Please write down the brief history of pharmaceutical development in Nepal with special
focus to pharmaceutical industry and education.

16. What are provisions and processes that are in place in Nepal to ensure safe, effective and
quality medicines?

17. Enumerate briefly strategies and achievement of National Drug Policy lgg5?
-

-
KATHMANDU UNIVERSTTY Mark scored:
End Semester Examination
- March/Apnl,2022
Level : B. Pharm. Course : PHAR 416
Year : [V Semester : II
- Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins. F. M. :2O

Registration No.: Date

s
SECTION "A''
t20Qx1=20marksl
Encircle the most appropriate option.
s

1 Drugs Act of Nepal is concerned with the following EXCEPT

a. Efficacy b. Safety c. Abuse d. Availability
-
2. As per Drug Act 2035, "Misuse and Abuse" of drug is in section ...
a. 18 b. 1,9 c. 13 d. 12
,-
3 Which of the following is not the component of GMP?
a. Premises b. Advertisement c. Self-audit d. Documentation
s
4 The combinations of antibiotics are not banned by Government of Nepal except the following
Antibiotics
A
a. Penicillin and Sulphonamide b. Rifampicin and lsoniazid
c. Nalidixic Acid and Metronidazole d. Ofloxacin and Sulphonamide
5 Department of Drug Administration was first established under. . ..
a. Ministry of Health b. Ministry of Industry
c. Ministry of Home d. Ministry of Forest
6 As per Drug Act, the following categories Heath Professionals are authorized to sale and
distribute all categories of medicine except
a. Certificate Level in Pharmacy b. MD in Pharmacology
A c. Vyabasai d. Pharmacists

7 The following is the required qualification to be appointed as analyst as per drugs act except...
I a. Bachelor in Pharmacy b. Certificate in Pharmacy
c. Master in Chemistry d. Bachelor in Chemistry with experience
8 National Drug Policy emphasizes on which of the following
- a. Quality, Safety and Efficacy
b. Quality, Safety, Availability and Efficacy
c. Quality, Safety, Availability, Affordability and Efficacy
- d. Quality, Safety and Availability
9 The pharmacy registration license becomes void if not renewed within ...
A
a. 35 days of expiration b. Three months after expiration
c. One year after expiration d. Five years after expiration

- 10. who is eligible to be an investigation officeras per Drug Act, 2035?

a. Chemists
b. Personnel from CDO Office
- c. At least Inspector appointed as per Drug Act
d. Police Inspector

-
 11. The function, duties and power of Drug
consultative council does not cover to...
a. Uplift the quality of pharmacy education
b. Fix the price of drugi
c. Prohibit sale of drug
d. Transportation of Drugs

12. which of the following is not the jurisdicrion

of Nepal pharmacy council?
Make policy related ro pharmacy profession
?.
b. Cancel the license of a pharmacist
c. Act for the availability of medicine
d. Inspection of examination conducted by universities
13. As per Pharmacy Council Ac-t, Pharmacy Profession
is defined as except......
a- Those involved euarity conrrol of Medicines
b. Those involved in pharmaceutical Industry
c. Those involved in Community pharmacy
d. Those involved in Hospital pharmacy
t4. Schedule 4Kha is related with ...
a. Application for sares Registration certificate
b. Sales Registration Certifiiate
c. Application for Import Registration certificate
d. Import Registration Certificate

15. List drugs that have been approved for use on the basis
considerations is
of therapeutic and economic
a. Therapeutic drug list b. Narcotic List
c. Investigational drug list d. Formulary
t6 The maximum penalty against the sale of antibiotics
without prescription,
of injury to health with rhe use of such antibiotics.
if there is chances
a. Up to life imprisonment and fine
b. Up to l0 years imprisonment and fine
c. Up to 5 years imprisonment and fine
d. up to 3 years imprisonmenr and/or fine up to Rs. 25000
t7. All of the followings are regulated by Drug act except:
a. Right
Patenr b. Clinical Trial
c. Drug Advertisement d. price control
18. codl on Drug production (Ausadhi utpadan Sanghita) is
a. Equivalent to GMP guidelines b. Just euality Control document
c' Describes the production documents d. lnstructs for
inventory record
t9. The chairrnan of "Drug Advisory Committee,, is:
a. Hon Minister of Health
b. Director General of DDA
c. Secretary of Ministry of Health
d. DG of Department of Health Services

20 As per Drug Act 2035, pethidine is grouped under:

a. Ka b. Kha c. Ga d. Gha
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
End Semester Examination
March/A Prtl, 2022
Course : PHAR 414
Level : B.Pharm.
Semester: II
Year :[V
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins.
F.M. : 55

in the front page of main answer

Note: check d) the number of each question you have answered
book (of Sections B, C and D).
SECTION "B"
t5Qx3=15marksl
Answer ANf FIVE questions.

l. How you can control cost in pharma industries?

..pressure cascade,, in pharma industries? Describe with a layout diagram
2. What do you mean by
Why it is important?
.,work study" and "method study"? Write down stepwise procedure of "method
3 What do you mean
study".

why ophthalmic preparations are made sterile? How long can you use your eye drop after
its
4
opening? Give Your reason.

5 Explain the various mechanisms by which the core material is released from microcapsules'

6 What are the formulation requirements of injectables given via subcutaneous route?

1 What is Enhanced Permeability and Retention effect?

S N "C"
[5Q x 5 -25 marks]
Answer ANY FIVB questions.

8 Why HVAC is required in Pharmaceutical industries? What happens if it fails to function

normally?

9 What are required for "Pilot Plant Scale up"? And why?

10. What are fluid pollutants produced by Pharma industries? How to treat them?

11 How you can prepare microcapsules by non-solvent addition? Explain.

12. How antisense therapy cause specific inhibition of gene expression? Explain.

13. Write in detail about the different evaluation tests that are required to perform for small volume
parenteral preparations.
-
14. What are polymers? How drugs are released from polymeric system?

-
 .61-)"

[2Qx7 '5 = 15 markl

Answer ANy rwoquestions.
15. "Pilot plant scale up is a team work',. Justify this statement.

16. What are the various factors that can decrease absorption of drugs instilled in conjunctival sac?
What considerations that you will make in your formulation to increase the drug absorption?
Explain with suitable examples.

17. What makes retrovirus a suitable vector for delivery of therapeutic gene? How retrovirus is
constructed as a vector? How does it deliver therapeutic genes?
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY Mark scored:
End Semester Examination
March/A prrl, 2022
Level : B. Pharm. Course : PHAR 414
Year : [V Semester : II
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins F. M. :20

Date
Registra tion No.:
"A"
SECTIO N
t20Qx1=20marksl
Encircle the most appropriate option.

1. filter is having the lowest filtration efficiency

a. HEPA c. Secondary pane
b. Primary panel d. Ternary

2 The air velocity of horizontal laminar air flow as per WHO is .......... meter/sec.
a. 0.25 c.
0-45
b. 0.30 d. 0.5

3 Equipment that come in contact with injectables need to be final rinsed with water.
a. Highly purified c. Purified
b. Potable d. Water for injecti on

4 ..... is not inventory

a. Finished product c. Starch for tablet manufacturing
b. Granules for compression d. Tablet compression machine
5 Organize training to sales personnel.
a. Productionpharmacist c. Quality control pharmacist
b. Quality assurance manager d. Sales manager
6 Production schedule is based on .......
a. Equipment, people and other facility c. Sales forecast
b. Inventories d. Sales quota
7 is used to forecast sale of electrolyte
a. Moving averaging c. Sales composite
b. Weighted averaging d. Simple averaging

8. Number of sales in January, February and March is 25, 35, 50 respectively. Sales forecast for
April using 3 months average moving is
a. 65 c. 85
b. 77 d. 110
9 5 Ms of pilot plant scale up are Money, . .. and machine.
A. management, man, method c. material, man, mOtiOn
b. management, man, motion d. material, man, method
10. In the outline (operation) process chart, the following symbols are used:
a. Inspection and transportation c. Operation and storage
b. Operation and inspection d. Operation and transportation
11. Which of the following ophthalmic dosage form can show highest systemic side effects?
a. InjectionS c. Solutions
b. Ointments d. Suspensions
12. Stroma layer significantly decrease transport of.. ... substance.
a. Both lipophilic and hydrophilic c. Lipophilic
b. Hydrophilic d. Lyophilic
13. Which among the following products is NOT an example of sterile product?
a. Dialysis fluid concentrate c. Live attenuated virus vaccine
b. Irrigating solutions d. Water for injection
t4. Which is NOT suitable for minimizing antioxidants in parenteral preparations?
a. Manufacturing under a nitrogen c. Deoxygenation of vehicle
b. Purging filled vials with gas d. Using suitable pH
15. Which of the following is not involved in the physical method of microencapsulation?
a. Centrifugal extrusion c. Ionotropic gelation
b. Electrostatic deposition d. Spray-drying
16. Which of the following is NOT used as a coating material in microencapsulation?
a. Cellulose acetate butyrate c. Methyl Cellulose
b. Gelatin d. Sodium sulfate
t7. In gene augmentation approach,
a. An abnormal gene repaired through selective reverse mutation.
b. An abnormal gene traded for a normal gene.
c. A normal gene inserted to compensate for a nonfunctional gene.
d. Change the regulation of gene pairs
18. Coxsakievirus and adenovirus receptor (CAR) are
a. Fiber based protein in virus surface c. Present in surface of virosomes
b. Present in cell surface of host cell d. Viral vector
19. Zero order release kinetics is attained in
a. Osmotic pumps c. Pulsed release
b. Enteric coating d. Sustained release
20 Rate determining step for controlled release delivery system is
a. Absorption rate c. Drug dissolving rate
b. Drug diffusion rate d. Drug release from dosage form
 KATHMANDU UNTVERSTTY Mark scored:
End Semester Examination
- March/April, 2022
Level : B. Pharm
Course : PHAR 422
Semester : II
Year : [V
- Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins F. M. :20

Date
Registration No.:
- SECTION "A"
t20Qx1=20marksl
Encircle the most appropriate option.

1. Golden rice is
a. a variety of rice grown along the yellow river in China.
- b. long stored rice having yellow color tint.
c. a transgenic rice having gene for carotene.
d. wild variety of rice with yellow colored grain.
-
2 Which of the following statement is false regarding new biotechnology?
a. New biotechnology was developed after the discovery of DNA structure.
b. [t uses the organiim's inherent capabilities for making useful products.
c. It generates tie valuable producrs by improving the natural capabilities of microorganism.
d. Bt cotton, golden rice, humulin are some of the examples of new biotechnology products.
3 Which of the following is the non-protein biocatalyst?
a. Extremozyme b. Abzymes c. Ribozymes d. Isozymes

- 4 Alt of the following statements regarding V*u* and K, are true except
proceed.
a. V*u* is the maximum rate at which a particu lar enzyme catal yzed reaction can
b. K* is the concentration of substrate at which the rate of reaction reaches Vrn*-
c. A low K- value specifies high affinity of an enzyme toward its substrate.
d. A large K. value indicates low affinity of an enzyme toward its substrate.
5 Which of the following covalent linkage between enzyme and carrier is reversible?
a. Disulphide bond c. Dtazo linkage
b. Isourea linkage d. Carbamate bond
- ,

6 All of the following are the properties of ideal carrier for enzyme immobilization except
a. Should have high rigidity and physical strength.
b. Should be soluble in operational media.
c. Should have high permeability and regenerability.
d. Should have large surface atea.
-
7 In fermentation, upstream processing begins with
a. isolation, seleCtion and improvement of suitable strain of microorganism.
- b. removal of single ampoule of working cell bank from storage and its use to prepare starter
culture.
c. recovery and purification of desired end products.
- d. effluent treatment.
8. Which of the following is not a criterion for choice of recovery process in fermentation?
- a. Location of the product c. Use of the product
b. Price of the product d. Source of organism
9 What is nucleotide?
-
a. A nucleotide is a heterocyclic base.
b. A nucleotide is a sugar molecule covalently bonded to a heterocyclic base.
c. A nucleotide is a sugar molecule bonded to phosphate group and a heterocyclic base.
d. A nucleotide is a heterocyclic base bonded to phosphate group.
10. What is the role of topoisomerase in eukaryotic DNA replication?
a. Topoisomerase enzym€ cut, uncoil and reseal the double stranded DNA.
b. Topoisomerase bind to the origin of replication site within the double stranded DNA.
c. Topoisomerase open up the double stranded DNA at the replication fork.
d. Topoisomerase join the okazaki fragments together with phosphodiester bonds.
11. Which of the following restriction endonuclease produce blunt end?
a. HindIII b. SmaI c. EcoRI d. BamHI
12. Which of the following vector is able to propagate in two different host species?
a. Plasmid c. Shuttle
b. Yeast artificial chromosomes d. Cosmid

13. A linear polymer of more than 50 amino acid residues is referred to as

a. dipeptide b. oligopeptide c. peptide d. polypeptide
1,4. Native structure of protein is stabilized by
a. hydrophobic effect in which non polar amino acid residue is buried in the interior of
polypeptide chain.
b. covalent linkage between the side chain group of amino acids other than disulphide
linkage.
c. only intramolecular hydrogen bonds contribute significantly to the conformational
stability.
d. none of the above
15. In monoclonal antibodies production, the hybridomas are made by
a. fusing T cells with myeloma cells.
b. fusing B cells with myeloma cells.
c. fusing T helper cells with myeloma cells.
d. fusing B memory cells with myeloma cells.
16. HGPRT deficient myeloma cells are selected by treating the cells with
a. 8 azaguanine c. hypoxanthine
b. aminopterin d. thymidine
t7. Plasmid encoding antigenic protein from a pathogen is directly injected into the cells where it
expresses constitutes
a. recombinant vaccine c. nucleic acid vaccine
b. live vector vaccine d. peptide vaccine
18. What protects the intellectual property created by an artist?
a. Copyright c. Patent
b. Geographical location d. Trademark

19. What is the function of biosafety cabinet?

a. A primary barrier to reduce the spreading of disease caused by microorganism into
laboratory environment.
b. A work space to culture and sub-culture the bacteria.
c. A designated space to prevent cross-contamination due to air borne contaminant during
transfer of bacteria.
d. Provide extra ventilation to ensure enough sterilization when sub-culturing or transferring
bacteria.

20 Which of the following organism is not to be worked in biosafety level I ?

a. Bacillus subtilis c. Salmonella species
b. E. coli Kl2 d. Adeno-associated virus
-
KATI{MANDU UNTVERSruY
End Semester Examination
- March/Apnl,2022
Level : B.Pharm. Course : PHAR 422
Year :fV Semester: II
- Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F.M. : 55

- Note: Check ({) the number of each question you have answered in the front page of main
answer book (of Sections B, C and D).
SECTION "B"
- t5Qx3=15marksl
Answer ANf FfVE questions.

- 1. Write about the contribution of biotechnology in pharmaceutical field'

2. What is enzyme immobitization? Mention its advantages and disadvantages'

- 3. Define batch process, fed batch process and continuous process of fermentation.

4. Mention the objectives of recombinant DNA technology.

5. What do you mean by primary and secondary structure of protein?

6. Differentiate between DNA and RNA molecule.

7. Write about second generation monoclonal antibodies.

SECTION "C''
t5Qx5=2sl
Answer ANY FfVE questions.

8. How the enzyme activity is regulated inside the body?

-
9. Describe about the irreversible methods of enzyme immobilization'

- 10. How do you ensure the introduction of rDNA in host cell? Explain with suitable examples.

11. What are the biotechnological precautions to be taken to ensur€ safety in biotechnology?

12. What is intellectual property right? Explain any two ways by which intellectual property can
be protected.

- 13. Discuss about the design and construction of fermentor with suitable diagram.

14. Write about the formulation approach for protein drug delivery.
-
SECTION "D"
[2Qx7.5=15]
- Answer ANY T[7O questions.

15. What is the mechanism of enzyme catalytic action? Write about the factors affecting enzyme
- activity.

16. Describe in detail about the production of murine monoclonal antibodies.

-
17. Explain about various modern subunit vaccines. Write about the formulation ofvaccine delivery
system.
-
 KATHMANDU LINIVERSITY Marks Scored:
End Semester Examination
March, 2022
Level: B.Tech. Course : BIOT 414
Year : IV Semester: [I
Exam Roll No Time: 30 mins. F.M. :20
Date
Registration No.:
6(A"
ECTIO
[10Qx1=l0marks]
66X" in the most appropriate box.
Mark

l. Commercial software not used for 2D gel Spot pattern evaluation/ annotation is
[ ]Melanie4 [ ]Swiss-2DPAGE
i tPoquest6.l [ ] PSIPRED
2. The number of rooted trees that can be made from 5 taxa is
I llso l)7 [ ]ls [ ]lOs

3 During microarray analysis, if the experimental sample is colored red, the control samples
green, and the result show gfeen fluorescent, the respective gene is
[ ]Upr"gulated [ ]Downregulated
i t No change in expression [ ] Non of the above
4 Which of the fotlowing method is used to make phylogenetic inference?
[ ] Character/Time based method [ ] Distance/Time based method
[ ] Distance/Character based method [ ] All of the above
5 Which software for transmembrane protein prediction is designed to overcome false positives
caused by signal peptides.
t ITMHMM [ ]HMMTOP
[ ] Phobius [ ] None of the above

6 In which method of gene analysis we split a sequence into short (usu 14), unique tags with a
restriction enzyme (N 1 aIII)
i [ ]Microalray [ ]RT-PCR
[ ]NorthernBlot [ ]SAGE
7. During phylogenetic analysis, mutations may have occured, when mutated
nucleotide reverted to original nucleotide.
[ ]Intermediate [ ]Back [ ]Parallel [ ] Multiple

8 Which of the following parameter needs to be optimized during 2D gel electrophoresis.

t I IEF pH gradient [ ] Acrylamtde o/o
[ ] Protein loading [ ] All of the above
9 Which RNA secondary structure refers to a structure with two ends of a single stranded
region (loop) connecting a base-paired region(stem)?
[ ] Hairpin loop [ ] Bulge looP
[ ] Interior Loop [ ] Multibranch Loop
10 Which of the foltowing branch deals with the physiologic and biochemical effects of drugs?
[ ]Pharmacokinetics [ ]Pharmacodynamics
[ ] Phase II clinical trials [ ] Phase III clinical trials
 SECTION ..B"
:
t10Q x I 10 marksl
Fill in the blanks.

I 1. In molecular phylogenetics, DNA or protein sequences serves as fossils.

12. MALDI, a technique widely used for protein analysis was developed by
and Michael Karas.

13. The amino acid whose side chain forms a bond with its own backbone amino group, causing
it to be cyclic, making it very rigid is

14. The protein product of the lacZ gene is

15. Tryptic digestion of human hemoglobin alpha chain yields tryptic peptides

16. are superhelical strs involving two or more interacting alpha-

helices, twisting and winding around each other.

17 His tag preferentially binds to _ resin.

l8 MTD stands for

19. Proteomics is concerned with the identification, classification of

functions, activities and interactions of all proteins.

20. Simplest enzpe based technique for known polymorphism detection which typically
involves the single base extension of an oligonucleotide by a polymerase is called
 KATHMANDU LTNIVERSITY
End Semester Examination
March, 2022
Level : B.Tech. Course : BIOT 414
Year :IV Semester : II
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F.M. :30
SECTION "C"
s
[4Q' 6:24 marks]
Attempt ANY FOUR questions.

- 1. Describe the Yeast two hybrid system. t6]

2. What is Mass Spectrometry? How can you identiff an unknorvnprotein using Mass
Spectrom etry? 12+41

3. Which computer graphics tools are available for 3D protein viewing? How are
transmembrane proteins secondary structure predicted? [1+5]

4. What is molecular phylogenetics? Discuss the procedure for making a phylogenetic tree.
[1+s]

5 Why is Ctinical trials necessary for drug development? Describe the different phases of
clinical trials in brief. [1+s]

SECTION "D"

6 Write short notes on (ANY THREE): [3x2:6)

a. Expressional Proteomics
b. Immunoprecipitation
c. Microarray
d. Threading
e. 2D gel electrophresis
 KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
End Semester Exam ination / '':.i,ij
i "'i.1J:r1
May/Jun e, 2022 d, ) ;',,.i .J-!,;-:"
Level : B. Arch Course : MGTS 402
Year :[V Semester : [[
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F. M. :40
SECTION "B"
t6Q.x4:24marksl
Attempt ANY,SIX questions

I Dynamic Pricing, and Price Lining are considered the best pricing tactics of all. State one
Nepalese company that implements Dynamic Pricing and one Nepalese company that
implements Price Lining. Explain your choices of company for each pricing tactics.
[2+2-4)
2 "Foodie Nepal" wants to launch a Food Truck inside KU. Statistics gathered from
Competitor's Annual Financial Analysis show that the Food Truck net profit margin is
l0o/o.
a) Compute the sales level required to produce a net profit of Nrs 45,000. tI]
b) The COGS (Cost Of Goods Sold) is estimated to be at 60%. Create a simple
projected income statement for Foodie Nepal. t3]
.}
J Entrepreneur are constantly seeking funds. As the entrepreneur seeks funds, s/he have roles
towards managing the cash. Explain in brief the Cash Management Roles of the
Entrepreneur? t4]
4 Differentiate between Debt Capital and Equity Capital. t4l
5 Foodie Nepal are seeking to acquire funds from an investor. Kindly help Foodie Nepal to
understand what actually an [nvestors look for in a business plan so that they can improve
their business plan? t4]

6 ldea assessment is an important aspect of the Entrepreneurship journey. Explain the

concept of ldea Assessment and the three Idea Assessment Test comprehensively.
[+ 3: 4]
7 Your friend is about to start the journey of entrepreneurship. Advise her about the
drawbacks of heading towards the journey of entrepreneurship so they can be prepared not
to quit? t4)
SECTION '(C"
t2Q. x 8: 16 marksl
Attempt ANY TWO questions.

8 You are the Chief Operational Officer of Shivam Cement. Shivam Cement is going to
launch a new variant of cement in the market.
a) Explain comprehensively the three important factors that sets the price of your
product. t6l
b) Select & explain your choice of a pricing strategy that would you implement to
enter the market. p)
9 Layout is the logical arrangement of the physical
facilities in a business that contributes to
efficient operations, increased productivity, and
higher sales. Elaborate the factors with
example that have a significant impact on
a space,s rayout and design.
tg]
10. There are many ethical tests that aids your
behavior towards the judging an ethicar standard.
Discuss all six comprehensively.
t8l
-
Mark Scored:
s KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
End Semester Examination
May/June,2022
-a
Level : B.Arch Course : MGTS 402
Year :[V Semester : [l
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins. F. M. :10
- Date
fl,
3 iii,i 3i}??
Registration No.:
SECTION "A"
:
[20 Q. x 0.5 10 marks]
-
Encircle the most appropriate option from the given choices:
- l. The balance of all sales revenue still on credit is termed as
a. Accounts Receivable b. Accounts Payable
s c. Notes Payable d. [nventory

2 A tactics where the company sets diverse prices for the same products and services for
different customers using the information they have collected about their customers is
- termed as _.
a. Optional-Product Pricing b. Captive-Product Pricing
c. By-Product Pricing d. Dynamic Pricing

3. The gains the consumers anticipate when thy buy or use the product/service of your firm
is termed as
s
a. Threshold Attributes b. Performance Attributes
c. ExcitementAttributes d. None

s
4 The total amount of net income the company decides to keep is termed as
a. Advance Payments b. Accounts Receivable
c. Fixed assets d. Retained Earnings
-
5. The strategy of introducing the product/service with a high price and gradually
plummeting the price as the time passes is termed as
- a. Loss leader Pricing b. Skimming Pricing
c. Competitive Pricing d. Penetration Pricing

- 6 Total Sales : $2,00,000

Cash Sales: Sl10,000
Account Receivable : $ 60,000
Average-Collection-Period Ratio :?
-
a. 5.166 b. 3.333 c. 1.833 d. 1.5

- 7. [nnovative and exceptional products that they transform existing markets is termed as

a. Revolutionary Products b. Evolutionary Products

a\ c. Me-Too Products d. None

-
 8 The accrued experience and knowledge that a corporation
possesses in many forms like
patents, copyrights, processes, software, and expertise
of the staff in a corporation is
termed as
a. Human capital b. Structural capital
c. Customer capital d. None
9 An approach determining precisely the direction of the where
the organization is heading
and how to attain the destination in a systematic
and coordinated manner is termed as

a. Idea Assessment b. Feasibility Study

c. Strategic Plan d. Revenue PIan
10. What are bootstrap marketing strategies?
a'Bootstrap marketing strategies aie unconventional, low-cost,
creative marketing
techniques pursued by entrepreneurs.
b'Bootstrap marketing strategL. ur. techniques that absorb
all or most of a company,s
marketing budget but that prove to be extiemely beneficial.
c' Bootstrap marketing strategies are used by large organizations
to outpace the smaller,
new entrant entrepreneur com petition.
d' Bootstrap marketing strategiei are strategies that may
or may not attract the target
market, but are thrown out to the entire population to see who
is attracted.

ll. This only sets the minimum standard of behavior and actions
that are legal, however, ffi.y
not be ethical.
a' The Law b. The organizational policies and procedures
c. The Moral stance d. The Utilitarian principle
12. This right suggests that the channels of communication between
companies and their
customers run in both directions.
a. Right to Know b. Right to Be Heard
c. Right to Education d. nignt to Choice
13.

@ffi:i:xil*:,j"r]swhoarejoblessandarehighlyeducatedand
a' Home Based Business Entrepreneurs b. Part-time Entrepreneurs
c. Corporate Castoffs d. Corporate Dropouts
14. The three principles of rapid prototyping are the three Rs, which
are:
a. Rough, Resources, and Right b. Rough, Rapid, and Right
c. Resources, Rapid, and Right d. Rough, Reiourcer, und Right
15. A protects only the form in which an idea is expressed, not the
idea itself.
a. Copyright b. Tradernark c. patent d. Trade Secret

r6. are private, for-profit organizations that assemble pools of capital

and then
use them to purchase equ ity positions in young businesses they believe have high-growth
and high-profit potential.
a. Angel lnvestor b. Corporation
c. Venture Capital Companies d. Crowd Funding
 17. A measure of the potential sales per square foot of store space for a given product within
a specific trading area is shown by
a. Customer Experience Management b. Reilly's Law of Retail Gravitation
- c. The Index of Retail Saturation d. Time Compression Management

18. Which of the following is NOT an advantage to taking the venture public?
- a. More control over decision making
b. Ability to raise a great deal of capital
c. lmproved access to future financing
, d. Ability to attract and retain employees
19. Rectangular with parallel walkway; which is fonnal in pattern; and aids in controlling
- traffic (customer) flow; via the utilization of the selling space efficiently is termed as

a. The Grid b. The Free Form c. The Boutique d. None

20. Materials do not move down a line as in a production layout but rather, due to the weight,
size, or bulk of the final product, are assembled in one spot is termed as
a. Process layout b. Fixed Position Layout
c. Product Layout d. Functional Layout

-
i
 KATHMANDU I.JN I VE RS ITY
ool of Science / School ol. Engineering
End-semester Exam inations
MaylJune,2022
Examination Time: lI:00 A.M. to 2.00 p.M.

Date/ Day I_I I-I I II _ II III _ II

Ma_v 26,2022 PHYS I04 PI-{YS I02
Thursday ETEG 303
Pr{YS t}s / ETEG 30 I 9cA't+o1
ARCH I12 */ MEEG 306
COMP 302
GEOM 306
CIEG 308
ARCH 319 uz
INAN 3OI J
&
rV MCTS 302
BIOT 305
ENVS 303
May 27. 2022 MATH 327
Friday ATI-I 208 vz
\--{4ATI1 207 ,z
\-ENVS 203 ,/
"zfHan 214 /
,/rtletu zl7 v/
{u I-/ARCH 215
t-z glgy 'tg6 v/
rz
v/
\-/
l\,{a1, 3C. 2022 '-._lS:
[7lOT 208
i
I
lrEl\4 !0 t AI-I1 IU,L
--_
I
iVf ondav EC 309..
i A TH 0 1
.) EEC 308
A T IJ 0 J-
oMP 3 t4
I\ A TH 06
oM3t
IEG 309
CIEG J4 I
I
\-.Cl-lEG i05
] -,/EN VS 335
I
P ARJII
_y
j l, 2022 roT 306
/
-f

MCSC 202
Tuesda,v "V
*,/EiEE 22]. w
v4-dRcl1216 t0 C
.t//
-zFneR 22i frw
L.
JBIOT 207 ,.,?
.lune 2- Z0Zz
Thursday
MP
v E
\4HEM W 0u \*
{
OM 307 .,
S-ttO
vlWT ?., \w'
0
C 3tL
AR 3 t3 .
\-/yT 101,y.,,

? an?
t'Yfr
<
lO nrra
(Slteers I qf 3t
 F ,
,!
E
E
A

Datel Day I_I I- II 2-. II - II III _ II

June 5,20222 / eeec 214 J
Sunday
(., 44 -ttt \-A4EEG 202\-/
v-eoMP 204 v/
sCIEG 206 \./
\./ CIEG 241€

,u JCHEC 2IO/
p,/,ENVS 202 r'
JcUEM 212 /
June 6,2A22 ATH III ,.:ZOfVP l16 305 NVs -3lg
Monday ,...-,'COMP 117
^-.-.coEG 30r
; ARCH 16l 'rraEgc 3r8
\--COMP 304
v MATH 322
\,r'CEOM 315
_,/crcc:^to
\-.CHEG 3 l0
E v CIEG 342
,/
? June 7,2022 / patq;rry-
J
y'eNVS
,./elot lol
336

Tuesday COM P IO2 V/PHAR 316

June 8,202') \--/ PHA R 221
Wednesday ,-/gtoL 207
June 9. 2022 101 v V, EEEG 215 .-'//
Tlrursday ',.-'ENVS ,IMEEC 206 */
TZCOMP 231 v
V/GEOM 20,1 1gz'
v--CtEG 207

,v \./CIEC 242 .1/

tz'CHEC 211 sZ
v./BIOT 211 A'
\-/MATH 2ll *
June 10.2022 ENGT I04 Cl'
v' 105 ETEG 321 ,.2
Friday ,yzcuEM I 03,,/
) .I€PEG 318 v'
MEEG 317
@ Jr'
rySrlrTl vrveec:og
coMP 341 ,t
GEOM 3I9
CIEG 318 /
CIEG 3t3
V/ CHEC 312 '/
,/
Ygeec yl ,,/
- BIOT 308
ENVS 305
ENVS 345
ATH 325

?
UP)*rt(
-i', ".''' (Slteers 2 o.f 3)
'l:,:,':t:?"i'=: : i
 2
F ,
IE
E I

Datel Day I_I I-II \= U II_II III _ II

June 12,2022 J ENVS lt2 v sPueRzz+ e vzluex 3ts U

-
Sunday ,/Pa'1tl 4 o/eNvs 205 tsa 4r
June 13,2022 ,,/puex I l2 19 EEEEG 221 'V u,{EOM 3 13 rr(
Monday -r-MEEG 207 ttz
\.,ziCOMP 232rt//
- vz, CEOM 296 Jz
,--rclEc 208 J?
,scHEG 212 ,/
'1 Btor 2to \k/
u--PHAR 212 ,*
June 14,2022
/ BIOT t},t\V t l/-fPeC 30lv
Tuesday )aeec 3ts*
l-zfr[CfS 303 w
306 .,c
-TCOMP
./novP 323r./
-CEG 3l2LY
3 t3W
"l --GEG
Tdtot 3o9tL4
D
'6vsrt
? \.U v?
J
I /ENve 3ss &l
t4

-
June 15,2022
Wednesday r' / Er.u-CG 112 -/yneR222
-/esee2ot W.,
June 16,2022
Thursday J'
,/ /N VS 306 '.Y
June 17,202) ,-/cee3 2ol r
Friday ,-/ clEC 209,y
\,/ Cl IEG 2l:,t r
,r/ u/ ENYE205'ir
td- f\4Al'H. . _\S2
2li
Jurre 19,2022 lvrCOrVP 307 &
Sunday 1l-corra P 342,-t*=
l.-COfraP 409 $<-
-/clEG 3 l4 ,,stz
,r'CHEC 3 15 ty
TzCHEG nZ?t

-G ) "//
u4Nvs::r
"/ENve : t t
Y
Note:
- 1. Examinations v,ill be conducled as per this schedule and under no circumstance the dates and
limes will be changed unless the (Jnitersity publishes prior notice.
2 Practical examinations u'ill be conducted hv the schools/ depar"tments.
3 The sclrcols/deparlmenls should szrhmit lhe in-semester evalualions and the practical examination
evaluations lo the Office o./'the Controller o.f'Examinutiels bt'llay, ]9, 2022.

?*- (Sheets 3 of 3l
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