FIITJEE – (JEE-Advanced)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

CODE: 100279 Common Test - 1

BATCHES – Two Yr CRP(2224) Batches

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall befor e the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment
No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.

(i) Part-A (01-04) – Contains four (04) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) Part-A (05-10) – Contains six (06) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in −1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(ii) Part-B (01-08) This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a
SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, BOTH INCLUSIVE. Each question carries +3 marks
for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate: ____________________________________________

Batch: ____________________ Date of Examination: ___________________

Enrolment Number: _______________________________________________

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 2

SECTION – I: PHYSICS
PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. There is a uniformly charged cube of charge density . Then consider

B
two points A and B in the cube (A is at centre and B is at the corner) + + +
+
E V 1 E V + +
(A) A = 0 and A = (B) A = 0 and A = 8
+ + +
+
A +
EB Vb 2 EB VB +
+
+ +
+ +
+ + +
E V E V +
(C) A = 0 and A = 2 (D) A = 0 and A = 4
+
+ + +
+
EB Vb EB VB

+
2. A non-conducting wire is bent into a semicircle of radius R and +
+
a charge +Q is uniformly distributed over if as shown in figure. +
V
Find the ratio A of potential to the magnitude of the electric +
EA B+
field both evaluated at A of diameter AB. A
+
(A) R (B) 2R
( ) ( )
+
(C) R n 1 + 2 (D) 2R n 1 + 2 +
+ +

3. In a certain region of space. The potential field depends on x and y coordinates as

V = (x2 – y2). The corresponding electric field lines x-y plane are correctly represented by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 3

4. A particle of charge q and mass m clamped rigidly at E

circumference of a ring of radius R. Initially ring is in
vertical plans resting on a sufficiently rough surface with
charge q at same horizontal level as centre of ring. There m R q. m
exist a uniform horizontal electric field shown. At t = 0
22
system is let free given qE = mg  = . Sufficiently
7
rough surface to avoid slopping. Work done by electric
E
field when the ring has rotated through 90° is:
2 4
(A) mgR (B) mgR (C) –mgR (D) 2 mgR
7 7

PART – A: (One or more than one Options Correct Type)

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5. Figure shows a neutral metallic sphere with a point charge +Q placed near its surface.
Electrostatic equilibrium conditions exist on metallic sphere. Mark he correct statements:

Plane that divides

Gaussian surface Spherical Gaussian surface
in two halves

+Q

Neutral metallic sphere

(A) Net flux through Gaussian surface due to charge Q is zero.

(B) Net flux through Gaussian surface due to charges appearing on the outer surface of
metallic sphere must be zero.
(C) If point charge Q is displaced towards metallic sphere, magnitude of net flux through
right hemispherical closed Gaussian surface increases.
(D) Same reason as (C) and hence charge distribution on outer surface of sphere will
change.

6. Figure shows three concentric thin spherical shells A, B and

C of radii R, 2R, and 3R. Shells A and C are given charges
q and 2q and shell B is earthed. Then
4
(A) charge on inner surface of shell C is q
3
4
(B) charge on outer surface of shell B is − q
3 A
2
(C) charge on outer surface of shell C is q B
3
4 C
(D) charge on outer surface of shell C is q
3
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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 4

7. A particle of mass m and charge q is projected in a region where an electric field is existing
and given by E = Ec ˆi, with a velocity v 0 ˆj from the origin at time t = 0, then choose the
correct statements (assuming m2 v 02 = 2qE0mx0 ).
(A) radius of curvature of the particle when its x-coordinate becomes x0 is 2x0.
(B) radius of curvature of the particle when its x-coordinate becomes x0 is 4 2 x0 .
(C) speed of the particle when its x-coordinate becomes x0 is 2v 0.
(D) speed of the particle when its x-coordinate becomes x0 is 2v0.

8. If the electric field E is plotted, with distance from E

q1 along the line joining of two, then (E is positive
along +ve x-axis) it looks as shown in figure. From
the plot we can say that
(A) q1 and q2 both are negative
(a,0)
q q1 (0,0)
(B) 1 = 4  2a  q2 x-axis
q2  ,0 
(C) q1 is positive and q2 is negative  3 
q 1
(D) 1 =
q2 4

9. Three charges q1, q2 and q3 are placed as shown. The y

magnitude of q1, is 2µC, but its sign and the value of the
F
charge q2 are not known. Charge q3 is +4µC, and the net q3
→
force F on q3 is in the negative x direction. 4cm 3cm
(A) Charge q1 is negative.
x
(B) Charge q2 is positive. q1 5 cm q2
27
(C) The magnitude of charge q2 is µC.
32
→ 45
(D) The magnitude of net force F on charge q3 is mN.
22
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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 5

10. Consider an imaginary cylindrical surface of length 3R and

radius R. A point charge q is placed at the axis of cylinder at a
distance of 2R from plane circular face F2 and at R from plane q
circular face F1. The correct option(s) are F2 F1
R
 q 1 
(A) Electric flux through face F1 is 1 − 20 
 2
q  1 
(B) Electric flux through face F2 is 1−
20  2


q  1 1 
(C) Electric flux through curved surface of cylinder is  + 
0  2 2 5
q
(D) Total flux through the cylinder is
0

PART – B
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9.

1. If a dipole Piˆ and a point charge placed at point (o, y) and origin respectively create no
electric field at (x, x + y). Here x and y both are positive then y = kx. Find the value of ‘k’.

E0 y
2. Electric field given by the vector E = (xiˆ + yj)
ˆ present in x-y
(O, ) (, M)
plane. A small ring of mass M carrying charge + which can slide
freely on a smooth non-conducting rod is projected along
the rod from point (O, ) such that it can reach the other end of x
(, O)
the rod. Assuming no gravity in region. The minimum velocity
K
should be given to ring in S.I. unit is V = ms−1 . Find the value
2
E0
of ‘K’ if = 8.
M

3. Plate A of a parallel plate air filled capacitor is connected to a

spring having force constant k and plate B is fixed. They rest on
a frictionless table top as shown in the figure. if a charge +q is A B
placed on plate A and a charge –q on plate B, at equilibrium, if + -
+ -
q2
the elongation of the spring is then find the value of ‘n’.
nok
Area of plate = .
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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 6

4. The electric field in a region is given by E 3x2 yiˆ x3 ˆj V/m. The potential difference
between the points A (0,0,0) and B(1m,1m,1m) is i.e. VB VA (In volt)

5. A, B, C, D, E, F are conducting plates each of area A and only

two conservative plates separated by a distance d. The net
energy stored in the system after the switch S is closed is
K 0 AV 2
closed is then value of K is _____ :
8d

6. A hollow charged metal sphere has a radius r. If the potential difference between its
surface and a point at distance 3r from its centre is V then the electric intensity at distance
V
3r from the centre is . Find the value of .
r

7. Two mutually perpendicular infinite wires along x-axis and y-axis carries charge density 1
x
and 2 respectively. The electric lines of force at P is along the line y = where P is the
3

point lying along same line then 1 = ?
2

8. A parallel plate capacitor of capacity C0 is charged to a potential V0. E1 is energy stored in

capacitor. When the battery is disconnected and plate separation is doubled and E2 is
energy stored in capacitor when charging battery is kept connected and separation
E
between the capacitor is doubled then 1 .
E2

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 7

SECTION – II: CHEMISTRY

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. O
Br COOH
NH

/
F N N

CH3
The major product of the above reaction is
O O
Br COOH Br

(A) (B)
N N N N
CH3 CH3
O
O
N
N
(C) (D)
F N
F
CH3
CH3

2. O H

(i) CO2 /Aq.NaOH

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ P ( major product )
(ii) H3O+

O H
O

(i) Aq.NaOH, Ph − C − H
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Q ( major product )
(ii) H3O+

P and Q are
OH OH

COOH
(A) P= Q=

CH2

OH OH

COOH
(B) P= Q=
CH - Ph
OH

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 8

O
OH O - C - Ph

(C)
P= Q=

COOH
OH OH OH

(D) COOH Ph
P= Q=

3. The major organic compound that results from the following sequence of reaction is

(i) OH / H 2SO 4

(ii) KMnO 4/ 
CH3O

COOH
(A) (B)

CH3O COOH
CH3O

HOOC

(C) (D)
CH3O CH3O

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 9

4. Major product of the following reaction is

18
O
14 + CH3ONa ⎯⎯→ Major Product
CH 2 CH CH 2

Cl
18
O OCH 3
14
(A) (B) CH 2 CH CH 2
CH 2 CH CH 2
14 Cl OH
18
OCH 3
18 18
O O
14
(C) (D)
CH 2 HC CH 2 CH 2 CH CH 2
14
OCH 3 OH

PART – A: (One or more than one Options Correct Type)

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5.
O


⎯⎯→

The products formed from the above reactions are:-

OH OH

(A) (B)

OH OH

(C) (D)

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 10

6. OH

CHCl3
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →?
NaOH

CH3
The possible products of the above reaction is/are
OH O
CHO
(A) (B)

CH3 H3C CHCl 2

O O

(C) (D)

O C
H O

7.
Br FeBr 3
The products formed from the above reaction is/are

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 11

CH3
H 3C
O HCl
8. H CH3
⎯⎯⎯
→ P
Major

The major product of the above reaction with correct stereo representation is
H3C OH H3C CH3
(A) (B)
H3C CH3 H3C Cl
H Cl
H H Cl
H H H
H H Cl H CH3
(C) H H (D)
H H
CH3 C H
CH3 C Cl H
CH3 H H
CH3

9. Which of the following reaction(s) represents the correct major product.

OH
H3O+
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(A)
O CH3
HO
CH3 H3C CH3
Br2
⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Br
(B) H2O
OH O
H H
Ph H3O+
(C) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Ph
Ph O 
Ph O
OH O
(1) ( CH3COO)2HgTHF/H2O
(D) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
−
( 2) NaBH4 /OH

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 12

10. Consider the following sequence of reactions that yields ‘Phenacetin’ an analgesic and
antipyretic drug.
OH

( i) Fe,HCl ( CH3CO )2 O
→ ( A ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → (B ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → (C)
CH3CH2Br
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
NaOH ( ii) OH− Phenacetin

NO2
The structure of Phenacetin(C) is
OCOCH 3 OH

(A) (B)

NH2 NHCOCH 3
OCH 2CH 3 OCH 2CH 3

(C) (D)
COCH 3
NHCOCH 3 NH2

PART – B
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9.


+ CHCl3 + OH− ⎯⎯→ Final stable product
1. N
H
Degree of unsaturation in the final product is

−
2. For the reaction, R − X + OH ⎯⎯→ R − OH + X− . The rate of reaction is given as
r = 4.7  10–5[R - X][OH–] + 0.24  10–5[R - X]. What % of R – X react by SN2 mechanism
−
when [ OH ] = 0.001 molar.
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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 13

HOCH CH CCH
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ( X ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ( Y ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ( Z ) + Salt
Monochlorination 2 2 Mg
3. Ether ( dry ) 3.5 gram
70 gram
If number of moles of (Z) produced would be (assuming the yield to 100%) a  10–1.
Calculate the value of ‘a’.

4. An alcohol X(C4H10O3) is chiral and absorbs two moles of HIO4 per mole of X.
Stereoisomers exist for X is ‘a’. What is the value of ‘a’.

5. Among the following, how many of them can undergo nucleophilic substitution by its
neighbouring group participation.
O O
(p) C X (q) CH 2 X
C
R CH 2 R O
O X
(r) C CH 2 (s)
R O CH 2 CH2 CH2 X
H Br
X
(t) (u)
HS
R COOH
Br
CH 2 CH 2
CH CH 3
(v) Br (w)
CH 3O
CH 3O
H3C OTs
(x) (y)
R N X D D

(z)
OTs

6. How many of the following ethers cannot be prepared by Williamson’s synthesis:

CH3OC2H5, C6H5OCH3, C6H5OCH2CH3, (C6H5)2O, (CH3)3COCH3, (CH3)3COCH2CH3,
(CH3)3COC(CH3)3,(C2H5)2O, C6H5CH2OC6H5
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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 14

7. Identify total number of SN1 reactions:

Cl
Cl
NaCN
(1) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → (2) H O
DMSO ⎯⎯⎯
2
→

Me

EtOH
(3) ⎯⎯⎯→ (4) 3 CH ONa
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
DMF
Cl
Cl
Cl
Me
Me Me
CH SNa H OH NaI
(5) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
3
(6) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
DMF Acetone
H OH
Me
Cl
Ph Ph
Conc.
O - Me ⎯⎯⎯⎯
(7) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
MeOH
(8) →
HI
Ph OTs
Ph
Conc.
O - Me ⎯⎯⎯⎯
(9) →
Ph HI
Ph

8. Identify total number of -elimination reactions:

Cl
Cl Zn−dust
AlC.KOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(1) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → (2) 


Cl
Me
H NaI
Cl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ OH
Al2O3
(3) Acetone (4) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
H Cl 


Me
Cl Cl Cl
Aqueous
(5) NaNH2
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → (6) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
 KOH

D H NaI
Cl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ OH
Acetone Conc.
(7) Me (8) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
H3PO4 , 
H D
Cl
Mg/Dry ether
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(9)

Cl

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 15

SECTION – III: MATHEMATICS

PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If f ( x ) = x2 + bx + c and f ( 2 + t ) = f ( 2 − t ) for all real numbers t, then which of the following

is true?
(A) f (1)  f ( 2)  f ( 4 ) (B) f ( 2)  f (1)  f ( 4 )
(C) f ( 2)  f ( 4 )  f (1) (D) f ( 4 )  f ( 2)  f (1)
1 −1 2
2. If y 4 + y 4 = 2x, and x 2 − 1 ( ) dx
dy
+ x
2
dy
dx
+ y = 0 , then  −  is equal to
(A) 15 (B) 16
(C) 17 (D) 18

3. Let R be the relation from A = 1,2,3,4 to B = 1,3,5 defined by R = ( a,b ) ,a  b . Then

RoR−1 =
(A) (1,3 ) , (1,5 ) , ( 2,3 ) , ( 2,5 ) , ( 3,5 ) , ( 4,5 ) (B) ( 3,3 ) , (3,5 ) , (5,3 ) , (5,4 )
(C) ( 3,3 ) , (3,4 ) , (5,3 ) , (5,5 ) (D) ( 3,3 ) , ( 3,5 ) , ( 5,3 ) , ( 5,5 )

4. Let f :R → 1,  ) be defined as f ( x ) = log10 ( )

3x 2 − 4x + k + 1 + 10 if f ( x ) is surjective, then
1 1
(A) k = (B) k 
3 3
1
(C) k  (D) k = 1
3
PART – A: (One or more than one Options Correct Type)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.
5. If R : N → N such that aRb is gcd (a, b) = 1 then relation R is
(A) Reflexive and transitive (B) Reflexive but not transitive
(C) Symmetric but not transitive (D) Symmetric and not reflexive
6. Consider the function f ( x ) = x − 1 + x − 2 + x − 3 then
(A) f ( x ) = −3x + 6 if x  1 (B) f ( x ) = −x + 4 if, 1  x  2
(C) f ( x ) = x if 2  x  3 (D) f ( x ) = 3x − 6 if x  3

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 16

 ex − 1
 if x  0
7.

If f ( x ) = 
( )
1 + x2 − 1 − x2
: Let Lt + f ( x ) = m and Lt − f ( x ) = n . Then
x →0 x →0
 2
 if x = 0
 3

(A) m = (B) m = -
1m 1m
(C) −   = 1 (D) −   = - 1
2 n  2 n 

  x 2 − 5x + 6
 , x2
  5x − x 2 − 6 ( )

tan( x − 2 )

Let f :R → R be defined as f ( x ) =  e   , x  2
x− x
8. where [x] is the greatest integer
 , x = 2




less than or equal to x. If f is continuous at x = 2 , then
(A)  +  = e ( −e + 1) (B)  +  = e ( e − 2)
(C) μ = e (D) μ = - e

9. Which of the following function has its domain x  R ?

1
(A) f ( x ) = sin−1 ( sin x ) (B) f ( x ) =
2  x + 1
 2x   x2 − 9 
(C) f ( x ) = sin−1  2  (D) f ( x ) = log x +1  
 x + 1 x −1 
x +1 
(where [.] denotes GIV function)

10. Let f(x) = 15–|x – 10|; x  R. then the values of x, at which the function, g(x) = f(f(x)) is not
differentiable, is:
(A) x = 5 (B) x = 10
(C) x = 15 (D) x = 20
Space For Rough Work

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 17

PART – B
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9.

1. The minimum number of elements that must be added to the relation R = (1,2 ) , ( 2,3 ) on
the set 1,2,3 so that it is an equivalence relation is

2. ( )
Given f g ( x ) = 1+ x − 2x2 + 5x3 and f ( x ) = 1 + 3x  x  R , then the value of 3g (1) is
equal to

3. (
If f (1) = 1,f ' (1) = 3 , and the derivative of f f ( f ( x ) ) + f ( x ) ) ( 2
) at x = 1 is k, then sum of
digits of k is

4. Let f : R → R be a differentiable function satisfying f ’(3) + f ’(2) = 0. Then

1
 1 + f (3 + x ) − f (3 )  x
lim   is equal to:
x →  1 + f ( 2 − x ) − f ( 2 ) 
 

 f (a + k ) = 16 ( 2 )
10
5. Let 10
− 1 , where the function f satisfies f(x + y) = f(x) f(y) for all natural
k =1
numbers x, y and f(1) = 2. Then the natural number ‘a’ is:

 2 cos x − 1 
 , x
 
6. If the function f defined on  ,  by f ( x ) =  cot x − 1 4 is continuous, then 4k is
6 3  
k, x=
 4
equal to:

d2 y
7. If y = tan  + cot , x = tan  − cot , where  is a parameter then y 3 is equal to
dx 2

  
8. If y2 + loge (cos2 x) = y, x   − ,  , then |y ‘’(0)| =
 2 2
Space For Rough Work

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IT−2024 (Common Test-1)-(PCM) 18

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST BATCH: Two Year CRP224 (All)

Common Test – 1
QP Code: 100279
ANSWER KEY
SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
PART-A
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B
5. ABCD 6. ABC 7. BC 8. AB
9. ABC 10. ACD
PART-B
1. 2 2. 5 3. 2 4. 1
5. 3 6. 6 7. 3 8. 4

SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART-A
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. A
5. BC 6. AB 7. AB 8. D
9. ABCD 10. C
PART-B
1. 4 2. 2 3. 1 4. 4
5. 7 6. 2 7. 5 8. 6

SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)

PART-A
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A
5. CD 6. ABCD 7. AC 8. AC
9. ABC 10. ABC
PART-B
1. 7 2. 4 3. 6 4. 1
5. 3 6. 2 7. 4 8. 2

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