EI 2023 Electronics and Instrument Engineering Etr 2023 Paper

VTU-ETR Seat No.
Question Paper Version : A
Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) August 2023
Electronics and Instrumentation Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100
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PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. What is the significance of research?
a) Gathering information b) Solving problems
c) Formulating theories d) Analyzing data
2. Which of the following best defines research?
a) Systematic investigation b) A random experiment
c) A personal opinion d) An intuitive guess
3. Which of the following is NOT an objective of research?
a) Exploring new phenomena b) Developing new theories
c) Testing pre conceived notions d) Proving personal beliefs.
4. What is the difference between research methods and research methodology?
a) Methods are practical techniques, while methodology is the theoretical framework.
b) Methods focus on data analysis, while methodology focuses on data collection.
c) Methods are used in natural sciences, while methodology is used in social sciences.
d) Methods are objective, while methodology is subjective.
5. What are the criteria of good research?
a) Replicability, Objectivity and Reliability
b) Creativity, Subjectivity and Originality
c) Simplicity, brevity, and clarity
d) Validity, Complexity and comprehensiveness
6. What is the purpose of reviewing the literature in research?
a) To validate the researcher’s hypothesis b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge
c) To find short cuts for conducting research d) To plagiarize ideas from previous studies.
7. What is the role of a theoretical framework in research?

a) It provides a structure for organizing the literature review.
b) It establishes the research objectives and hypotheses.
c) It guides the data collection and analysis process.
d) It helps in selecting the appropriate research design.
8. What is the meaning of research design?

a) The overall plan for conducting a research study.
b) The specific research method used in data collection.
c) The Statistical analysis technique used in research.
d) The process of formulating research questions.
9. Which of the following is an important principle of experimental designs?
a) Random sampling of participants b) Use of control groups
c) Longitudinal data collection d) Qualitative data.
10. What is the need for research design?
a) It helps in determining the sample size
b) It ensures the accuracy of data analysis.
c) It provides a structure for conducting research
d) It minimizes the ethical concerns in research.
Ver – A: EI 1 of 11
11. What is the difference between a sample survey and a census survey?
a) Sample survey includes the entire population, while census survey includes a subset.
b) Sample survey is conducted using questionnaires while census surveys use interviews.
c) Sample survey is less accurate than census survey.
d) Sample survey is more expensive than census survey.
12. What are the types of sampling designs?

a) Probability sampling and non probability sampling.
b) Cluster sampling and convenience sampling.
c) Snowball sampling and purposive sampling.
d) Quota sampling and stratified sampling.
13. Which of the following is NOT a classification of measurement scales?

a) Normal Scale b) Ordinal scale c) Interval scale d) Hierarchical scale
14. What are the sources of error in measurement?

a) Systematic error and random error b) Measurement bias and sampling error
c) Observer bias and response bias d) Internal validity and external validity.
15. What is the purpose of scaling in research?

a) To measure the central tendency of data
b) To determine the reliability of measurements
c) To assign numbers to represent characteristics
d) To calculate statistical significance.
16. What is the process of data preparation in research?
a) Collecting data from primary sources. b) Analyzing data using statistical software.
c) Cleaning and organizing data for analysis. d) Conducting data visualization techniques.
17. Which of the following is NOT a problem in the data preparation process?
a) Handling missing values b) Dealing with outliers
c) Ensuring data privacy d) Checking data accuracy.
18. What are the measures of central tendency?

a) Mean, Median and mode
b) Variance, standard deviation and range
c) Skewness, Kurtosis and correlation
d) Probability, confidence interval and hypothesis testing.
19. What do measures of dispersion indicate in research?

a) The shape of the data distribution b) The spread or variability of the data
c) The central value of the data set d) The relationship between variables.
20. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

a) To summarize and describe data b) To test hypotheses and make inferences
c) To establish causal relationships d) To predict future outcomes.
21. What is the difference between a parameter and a statistic?
a) Parameters describe populations, while statistics describe samples.
b) Parameters are qualitative, while statistics are quantitative.
c) Parameters are based on theory, while statistics are based on observation.
d) Parameters are mode reliable than statistics.
22. What is the central limit theorem?
a) It states that the sample mean approaches the population mean as the sample size increases.
b) It explains the relationship between the mean and standard deviation of a sample.
c) It ensures that the sampling distribution is normally distributed.
d) It allows for the estimation of population parameters based on sample statistics.
23. What is the standard error?

a) The standard deviation of the population.
b) The standard deviation of the sample.
c) The measure of sampling error.
d) The measure of non-sampling error.
24. What is the purpose of finite population correction?

a) To adjust for sampling bias.
b) To account for non-response error.
c) To correct for measurement error.
d) To adjust the standard error for small populations.
25. What does statistical inference involve?

a) Making predictions about the future based on past data.
b) Estimating population parameters from sample statistics.
c) Analyzing the relationship between variables.
d) Describing and summarizing data.
26. If terms such as, ‘positive’, ‘negative’, ‘more than’, ‘less than’ etc are used to make a statement,
then such a hypothesis is called…..
a) Relational hypotheses b) Causal hypothesis
c) Research hypothesis d) Directional hypothesis.
27. The tests of significance or test statistic are classified into…..

a) Parametric test
b) Non parametric test
c) Both parametric and nonparametric tests
d) None of these.
28. A two-tailed test rejects the null hypothesis if the sample mean is significantly____ than the
hypothesized value of the mean of the population.
a) Higher b) Lower c) Higher or lower d) None of these
29. _________ is a way to test for comparing two related samples, involving small values of ‘n’ that
does not require the variances of the two populations to be equal.
a) Z-test b) Paired t – test c) f-test d) None of these
30. As a test of independence, X2 test enables us to explain _______

a) Whether or not two attributes are associated b) The fit is considered to be a good one
c) Whether test is significant d) None of these
31. The ANOVA technique is important in the context of all those situations where all want to
compare ______
a) Two population b) More than two populations
c) Less than two populations d) Single population.
32. Analysis of variance in which only ______ is used to analyze the difference between more than
two population means is called one way anova.
a) Two criterion (variable)
b) One criterion (variable)
c) Both two criterion (variable) and one criterion (variable)
d) None of these.
33. The basic principle of ANOVA is to test for differences among the ______ by examining the
______ within each of these samples, relative to the amount of variation between the samples.
a) Means of the populations and amount of variation
b) Estimation of the population and amount of variation
c) Means of the samples and amount of variation
d) Samples and amount of variation.
34. While applying the ANOVA techniques, the influence the uncontrolled variable is usually
removed by _______
a) Multiple regression method b) Simple linear regression method
c) One way ANOVA d) All of these
35. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______

a) Various treatment groups are selected at random from the population.
b) The groups are homogeneous in variability.
c) The regression is linear and is from group to group.
d) All of these.
36. Regression analysis helps to determine ______ to measure the variability or spread of values of
a dependent variable with respect to the regression line.
a) Independent value b) Dependent value
c) Linear regression d) Standard error of estimate.
37. Regression models are used for several purposes, including the following_______
a) Data description
b) Parameter Estimation
c) Linear regression and standard error of estimate
d) All of these.
38. Factor analysis is by for the most often used _______ of research studies, specially pertaining to
social and behavioural sciences.
a) Multi functional technique b) Multi lateral technique
c) Multi linear d) Multivariate technique.
39. _______ , in the context of factor analysis, is something like staining a microscope slide.
a) Flipping b) Factoring
c) Rotation d) Synchronizing.
40. In _______, the correlations are computed between pairs of respondents instead of pairs of
variables.
a) Q-type factor analysis b) P-type factor analysis
c) R-type factor analysis d) S-type factor analysis.
41. If the outcome of an experiment is certain, that is the outcome is always the same, it is then a
______
a) Probabilistic Experiment b) Quasi Experiment
c) Deterministic Experiment d) Random Experiment.
42. The probability of the occurrence of a single event, such as P(A) or P(B), which takes a specific
value irrespective of the values of other events, i.e. unconditioned on any other events, is called
______
a) Joint Probability b) A marginal probability
c) Conditional Probability d) Unconditional Probability.
43. When the sample space S is countable, it is known as a ______

a) Discrete sample space b) Continuous sample space
c) Asynchronous sample space d) Synchronous sample space.
44. If two or more events cannot occur simultaneously in a single trail of an experiment, then such
events are called _______
a) Mutually exclusive events or disjoint events b) Collectively exhaustive events
c) Both A and B d) Joint events.
45. The _______ is that value that occurs most often or has the greatest probability of occurring.
a) Mean of a random variable b) Mode of a random variable
c) Median of a random variable d) None of these
46. Two events are mutually exclusive if the occurrence of one of them prevents or rules out the
occurrence of the other is called _______
a) Collectively exhaustive events b) Mutually exclusive events
c) Both A and B d) None of these.
47. Binomial probability distribution is a widely used probability distribution where ______
a) There are only two possible outcomes b) There exists discrete random variable
c) it’s a Bernoulli process d) All of these
48. Mean  and standard deviation  are called parameters of ________

a) Normal distribution b) Binomial
c) Bernoulli Process d) Poisson
49. The Poisson process measures the number of occurrences of a particular outcome of a discrete
random variable in a predetermined _______
a) Time interval b) Space
c) Volume d) All of these
50 In the _______ process, the random variable values need counting. Such a count might be
number of telephone calls per hour coming into the switchboard, number of fatal traffic
accidents per week in a city/state etc. and so on.
a) Binomial distribution b) Normal distribution
c) Bayesian d) Poisson
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electronic and Instrumentation Technology)
[50 MARKS]
51. N-PN transistor are preferred over P-N-P transistor become they are
a) High mobility of holes
b) Equal mobility of holes
c) Low mobility holes
d) Higher mobility of Electronics than the mobility of holes in p-n-p transistor
52. Choose correct diode equivalent circuit for N-P-N transistor
a) b)
c) d)
53. For the base – bias circuit find VCE when RB = 220K, Rc = 1.2K, VCC = 10V ; VBE = 0.7V
and β = 50
a) 8.46V b) 5.46V c) 9.46V d) 7.46V
54. For the circuit shown in Figure below the value of the hybrid parameter h11 is --------
a) 15 b) 20 c) 30 d) 25

55. In determining open circuit impedance parameters among V1, V2, I1, I2 which of the following
are dependent variable
a) V1 and V2 b) I1 and I2 c) V1 and I2 d) I1 and V2
56. Determine the region of operation of MOSFET suitable for achieving amplification with gain
greater than 1 in the following circuit. Neglecting the channel length modulation of the
transition the operation of the MOSFET resembles which basic circuit element.
a) Linear, Resistor b) Cutoff, Source

c) Saturation, current source d) Linear, Source
57. The conversion gain of an XOR – gate phase detector in the phase locked loop circuit is given
as
VDD VDD 3 VDD VDD
a) b) c) d) 
2  5  2
58. The Astable multivibrator circuit designed using 555 timer is as shown in Figure below.
Find the frequency of the output signal (free running frequency) f0 ; t R1 = 1K, R2 = 2K
and C = 1F
a) f0  190Hz b) f0  230 Hz c) f0  290 Hz d) f0  330 Hz

59. Find the high cut-off frequency fH of a second order low pass active filter shown in figure
below. Assume R1 = R2 = 33.86K, C1 = C2 = 4.7F, R3 = 27K. Also find the value of RF to
achieve a pass band voltage gain AF = 1.586
a) fH = 100Hz, RF  15 M b) fH = 1KHz, RF  15 K
c) fH = 10KHz, RF  15  d) fH = 20KHz, RF  100 
60. The circuit diagram of a Binary weighted DAC is as shown in figure. The positions of the
switches are controlled by digital inputs “D” (4-bit). Switch S4 is controlled by LSB where as
switch S1 is controlled by MSB. Find the output current (io) of the DAC. Also find the output
voltage V0 of the DAC terminated with I to V converted. Assume digital input = (0101)2 =
(5)10 Vref =5V, R = 1K, For logic – 1 position of switch is at 2.
a) i0 = 6.25mA, V0 =  3.125V b) i0 = 3.125mA, V0 =  1.5625V

c) i0 = 12.5mA, V0 =  0.78125V d) i0 = 25mA, V0 =  0.390625V
61. Consider the 2-bit multiplexer (MUX) shown in figure. For OUTPUT to be the XOR of C and
D, the values for A0, A1, A2 and A3 are -----------.
a) A0 = 0, A1 = 0, A2 = 1, A3 = 1 b) A0 = 1, A1 = 0, A2 = 1, A3 = 0
c) A0 = 0, A1 = 1, A2 = 1, A3 = 0 d) A0 = 1, A1 = 1, A2 = 0, A3 = 0
62. Select the Boolean function (s) equivalent to x + yz where x, y and z are Boolean variables,
and + denotes logical OR operation
a) x + z + xy b) (x + y) (x + z) c) x + y + yz d) x + xz + xy
63. Consider a Boolean gate (D) where the output Y is related to inputs A and B as Y ⍰ A⍰B,
where + denotes logical OR operation. The Boolean input ‘0’ and ‘1’ are also available
separately. Using instances of only D gates and inputs ‘0’ and ‘1’, select the correct option.
a) NAND logic can be implemented b) OR logic cannot be implemented
c) NOR logic cannot be implemented d) AND logic cannot be implemented
64. If (1235)x = (3033)y, where x and y indicate the bases of the corresponding numbers, then
a) x = 6 and y = 4 b) x = 7 and y = 5 c) x = 9 and y = 7 d) x = 8 and y = 6
65. The propagation delays of the XOR gate, AND gate and multiplexer (MUX) in the circuit
shown in the figure are 4ns, 2ns and 1ns, respectively.
If all the inputs P, Q, R, S and T are applied simultaneously and held constant, the maximum
propagation delay of the circuit is
a) 6 ns b) 3 ns c) 5 ns d) 7 ns
66. Match the following resisters with their function

Registers : 1) B 2) PSW 3) PI 4) SCON 5) DPTR
Function : i) Addressing ii) Accumulator iii) Control iv) Port v) Status
a) (1, iii), (2, iv), (3, v), (4, ii), 5, i) b) (1, ii), (2, iii), (3, iv), (4, i), 5, v)
c) (1, i), (2, ii), (3, v), (4, iii), 5, iv) d) (1, ii), (2, v), (3, iv), (4, iii), 5, i)
67. Match the instructions with the corresponding addressing modes

Instructions : 1) MOV R3, A 2) MOV R2, #60 3) MOV 23H, A 4) MOV A, @ R1
Addressing modes : i) Direct ii) Immediate iii) Indirect iv) Register
a) (1, iii), (2, i), (3, ii), (4, iv) b) (1, iv), (2, i), (3, ii), (4, iii)
c) (1, iv), (2, ii), (3, i), (4, iii) d) (1, iii), (2, ii), (3, i), (4, iv)
68. The ----- is an instruction
a) MOVC b) EQU c) END d) ORG
69. The following -------- is an example of unconditional branching.

a) CJNE A, #98H, Next b) JZ CONTINUEL
c) JMP @A + DPTR d) JNB OD7H, here
70. For the given ALP, if R0 = 100 and R1 = 200, the output displayed is ----- at port P1
MOV A, R0
ADD A, R1
JC message
MOV A1 # “N”
MOV P1 A
SJMP EXIT1
Message : MOV A, # “Y”
MOV P1, A
EXIT1:SJMP EXIT1
a) “N” b) “Y” c) “N” “Y” d) “Y” “N”
71. Under which of the following conditions a bridge is balanced?

a) When no current flows b) When the temperature of the circuit is high
c) When power dissipation is high d) When no voltage drop across the circuit
72. A transmission line of length 3/4 and having a characteristic impedance of 50 is terminated
with a load of 400. The impedance (rounded off to two decimal places) seen at the input end
of the transmission line is ------- .
a) 5.85 b) 6.25 c) 5.75 d) 6.15
73. A 10-bit D/A converter is calibrated over full range from 0 to 10V. If input to D/A converter is
13A (in hexadecimal number). Then output voltage is ------- V.
a) 3.050 b) 3.080 c) 3.065 d) 3.075
74. A Schering bridge can be used for the ------------

a) protecting the circuit from temperature rises b) testing capacitors
c) measuring voltages d) measuring currents
75. Which of the following compares the output in a successive approximation type DVM?
a) comparator b) diode c) op amp d) rectifier
76. Which of the following might be the form of input applied to transducers?
a) Light b) Force c) Energy d) All of these
77. Sensitivity of a sensor can be depicted by _________.

a) Niquist plot b) Pole-zero plot
c) Bode plot d) None of the mentioned
78. On-off control which is a special case of proportional control has a bandwidth of about
__________ percent.
a) 100 b) 75 c) 25 d) 0
79. The devices used for flow obstruction is/are
a) Orifice plate b) Venturi tube
c) Flow nozzle and doll flow tube d) All of these
80. The flow meter which is replacing the differential pressure meters in its applications is
a) Vortex-shedding flow meter b) Electromagnetic flow meters
c) Ultrasonic flow meters d) All of these
81. A device that follows a process to represent a form of energy in to other energy for is ____
a) Reflector b) Transducer c) Oscillator d) Filter
82. Change in output of sensor with change in input is _____

a) Threshold b) Slow rate
c) Sensitivity d) None of the mentioned
83. Dead zone is the

a) Same as time constant
b) Same as transportation lag
c) maximum change in the variable that does not change the reading of the instrument
d) None of these
84. For the measurement of flow rate of liquid, the method used is
a) Con - veyor – based methods
b) Bourdon tube
c) Coriolies method
d) Thermal mass flow measurement
85. Water flows between two plates of which the upper one is stationary and the lower one is
moving with a velocity V. What will be the velocity of the fluid in contact with the upper
plate?
a) v b) N/2 c) 2v d) 0
86. The noise generated by radio is an example of

a) Discrete signal b) Deterministic signal
c) Periodic Signal d) Random signal

87. The Z-transform of a sequence x(n) is X(z )   x(n )z n is known as
n  
a) Unilateral Z–transform b) Bilateral Z–transform
c) Trilateral Z–transform d) None of the above
88. The convolution of x(n) = h(n) = (1, 1, 1) is

a) (1, 2, 3, 2, 1) b) (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) c) (1, 1, 1, 1, 1) d) (1, 1, 1, 1)
89. The process of increasing the number of samples by a factor L is

a) Sample rate conversion b) Interpolation
c) Decimation d) Sampling
90. LMS adaptive filter minimizes

a) Computational complexity b) Cost
c) Power density of output d) Mean square error
91. What is the carrier frequency in an AM wave when its highest frequency component is 850Hz
and the band width of the signal is 50Hz?
a) 800Hz b) 850Hz c) 825Hz d) 900Hz
92. The power dissipated in a 20 resistor by a FM signal :

V(t) = 20 cos (6600t + 10 sin 2100t) is ----------
a) 5W b) 10W c) 20W d) 400W
93. A thyristor can be brought from the forward conduction mode to forward blocking mode
by-------
a) dv/dt triggering method
b) applying a negative gate signal
c) applying a positive gate signal
d) applying a reverse voltage across anode – cathode terminals
94. The output voltage of a step-up chopper with a supply voltage VS = 240V and a duty cycle =
75% is _____
a) 960V b) 480V c) 120V d) 180V
95. A fully controlled converter uses _____

a) Diodes only b) Thyristors only
c) Both Diodes and Thyristors d) None of these
96. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to High Pressure Liquid Chromatography
(HPLC)
a) It requires high pressure for the separation of the species
b) There is no need to vaporize the sample
c) It has high sensitivity
d) It is performed in columns
97. Atomic absorption spectroscopy is based on which of the following principle

a) Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is measured
b) Colour is measured
c) Colour is simply observed
d) Radiation is absorbed by non – excited atoms in vapour state and are excited to higher states
98. What is the function of flame or emission system in atomic absorption spectroscopy?
a) To split the beam
b) To break the steady light into pulsating light
c) To filter unwanted components
d) To reduce the sample into atomic state
99. The biopotentials generated by the muscles of the heart with time is known as
a) Electroretinogram b) Electrocardiogram
c) Electroculogran d) Electroencephalogram
100. Which of the following is not a method used for blood pressure measurement
a) Sphygmomanometer b) Hagen – poiseuille analysis
c) Percutaneous method d) Catheterization
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B


bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
[50 Marks]
______
______


Ver – B: EI 1 of 11
compare ______
d) None of these.
removed by _______

d) All of these.
a) Data description
d) All of these.
variables.




















a) Parametric test b) Non parametric test
c) Both parametric and nonparametric tests d) None of these.

PART – II
[50 MARKS]
and the bandwidth of the signal is 50Hz?
a) 800Hz b) 850Hz c) 825Hz d) 900Hz
V(t) = 20 cos (6600t + 10 sin 2100t) is ----------
a) 5W b) 10W c) 20W d) 400W
by-------
75% is _____
a) 960V b) 480V c) 120V d) 180V

(HPLC)

a) Sphygmomanometer
b) Hagen – poiseuille analysis
c) Percutaneous method
d) Catheterization


d) None of these
a) Con - veyor – based methods
b) Bourdon tube
c) Coriolies method
d) Thermal mass flow measurement
plate?
a) v b) N/2 c) 2v d) 0

67. 
The Z-transform of a sequence x(n) is X(z )   x(n )z n is known as
n  

a) (1, 2, 3, 2, 1) b) (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) c) (1, 1, 1, 1, 1) d) (1, 1, 1, 1)


a) A0 = 0, A1 = 0, A2 = 1, A3 = 1 b) A0 = 1, A1 = 0, A2 = 1, A3 = 0
c) A0 = 0, A1 = 1, A2 = 1, A3 = 0 d) A0 = 1, A1 = 1, A2 = 0, A3 = 0
a) 6 ns b) 3 ns c) 5 ns d) 7 ns

MOV A, R0
ADD A, R1
JC message
MOV A1 # “N”
MOV P1 A
SJMP EXIT1
MOV P1, A
EXIT1:SJMP EXIT1
a) “N” b) “Y” c) “N” “Y” d) “Y” “N”
a) b)
c) d)
and β = 50
a) 8.46V b) 5.46V c) 9.46V d) 7.46V
a) 15 b) 20 c) 30 d) 25

as
VDD VDD 3 VDD VDD
a) b) c) d) 
2  5  2
and C = 1F
a) i0 = 6.25mA, V0 =  3.125V b) i0 = 3.125mA, V0 =  1.5625V
c) i0 = 12.5mA, V0 =  0.78125V d) i0 = 25mA, V0 =  0.390625V

a) 5.85 b) 6.25 c) 5.75 d) 6.15
a) 3.050 b) 3.080 c) 3.065 d) 3.075


__________ percent.
a) 100 b) 75 c) 25 d) 0
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C


bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
[50 Marks]





a) Parametric test
d) None of these.
Ver – C: EI 1 of 11

______
______


compare ______
d) None of these.
removed by _______

d) All of these.
a) Data description
d) All of these.
variables.










PART – II
[50 MARKS]
a) 5.85 b) 6.25 c) 5.75 d) 6.15
a) 3.050 b) 3.080 c) 3.065 d) 3.075


__________ percent.
a) 100 b) 75 c) 25 d) 0

a) 800Hz b) 850Hz c) 825Hz d) 900Hz
V(t) = 20 cos (6600t + 10 sin 2100t) is ----------
a) 5W b) 10W c) 20W d) 400W
by-------
75% is _____
a) 960V b) 480V c) 120V d) 180V

(HPLC)

a) Sphygmomanometer b) Hagen – poiseuille analysis
c) Percutaneous method d) Catheterization

d) None of these
a) Con - veyor – based methods b) Bourdon tube
c) Coriolies method d) Thermal mass flow measurement
plate?
a) v b) N/2 c) 2v d) 0

77. 
n  

a) (1, 2, 3, 2, 1) b) (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) c) (1, 1, 1, 1, 1) d) (1, 1, 1, 1)

a) A0 = 0, A1 = 0, A2 = 1, A3 = 1 b) A0 = 1, A1 = 0, A2 = 1, A3 = 0
c) A0 = 0, A1 = 1, A2 = 1, A3 = 0 d) A0 = 1, A1 = 1, A2 = 0, A3 = 0
a) 6 ns b) 3 ns c) 5 ns d) 7 ns




MOV A, R0
ADD A, R1
JC message
MOV A1 # “N”
MOV P1 A
SJMP EXIT1
MOV P1, A
EXIT1:SJMP EXIT1
a) “N” b) “Y” c) “N” “Y” d) “Y” “N”

a) b)
c) d)
and β = 50
a) 8.46V b) 5.46V c) 9.46V d) 7.46V
a) 15 b) 20 c) 30 d) 25

as
VDD VDD 3 VDD VDD
a) b) c) d) 
2  5  2
and C = 1F
a) i0 = 6.25mA, V0 =  3.125V b) i0 = 3.125mA, V0 =  1.5625V

c) i0 = 12.5mA, V0 =  0.78125V d) i0 = 25mA, V0 =  0.390625V
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D


bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
[50 Marks]
compare ______
d) None of these.
removed by _______

d) All of these.
a) Data description
d) All of these.
Ver –D: EI 1 of 11
variables.








______
______







a) Parametric test
d) None of these.








PART – II
[50 MARKS]

d) None of these
a) Con - veyor – based methods b) Bourdon tube
c) Coriolies method d) Thermal mass flow measurement
plate?
a) v b) N/2 c) 2v d) 0
57. 
n  
a) (1, 2, 3, 2, 1) b) (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) c) (1, 1, 1, 1, 1) d) (1, 1, 1, 1)
a) b)
c) d)
and β = 50
a) 8.46V b) 5.46V c) 9.46V d) 7.46V
a) 15 b) 20 c) 30 d) 25


as
VDD VDD 3 VDD VDD
a) b) c) d) 
2  5  2
and C = 1F
a) i0 = 6.25mA, V0 =  3.125V b) i0 = 3.125mA, V0 =  1.5625V

c) i0 = 12.5mA, V0 =  0.78125V d) i0 = 25mA, V0 =  0.390625V
a) 800Hz b) 850Hz c) 825Hz d) 900Hz

V(t) = 20 cos (6600t + 10 sin 2100t) is ----------
a) 5W b) 10W c) 20W d) 400W
by-------
75% is _____
a) 960V b) 480V c) 120V d) 180V
(HPLC)

a) Sphygmomanometer
b) Hagen – poiseuille analysis
c) Percutaneous method
d) Catheterization

a) 5.85 b) 6.25 c) 5.75 d) 6.15
a) 3.050 b) 3.080 c) 3.065 d) 3.075


__________ percent.
a) 100 b) 75 c) 25 d) 0

a) A0 = 0, A1 = 0, A2 = 1, A3 = 1 b) A0 = 1, A1 = 0, A2 = 1, A3 = 0
c) A0 = 0, A1 = 1, A2 = 1, A3 = 0 d) A0 = 1, A1 = 1, A2 = 0, A3 = 0
a) 6 ns b) 3 ns c) 5 ns d) 7 ns



MOV A, R0
ADD A, R1
JC message
MOV A1 # “N”
MOV P1 A
SJMP EXIT1
MOV P1, A
EXIT1:SJMP EXIT1
a) “N” b) “Y” c) “N” “Y” d) “Y” “N”

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VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

7. What is the role of a theoretical framework in research?

8. What is the meaning of research design?

12. What are the types of sampling designs?

13. Which of the following is NOT a classification of measurement scales?

14. What are the sources of error in measurement?

15. What is the purpose of scaling in research?

18. What are the measures of central tendency?

19. What do measures of dispersion indicate in research?

20. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

23. What is the standard error?

24. What is the purpose of finite population correction?

25. What does statistical inference involve?

27. The tests of significance or test statistic are classified into…..

30. As a test of independence, X2 test enables us to explain _______

35. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______

43. When the sample space S is countable, it is known as a ______

48. Mean  and standard deviation  are called parameters of ________

a) 15 b) 20 c) 30 d) 25

a) Linear, Resistor b) Cutoff, Source

a) f0  190Hz b) f0  230 Hz c) f0  290 Hz d) f0  330 Hz

a) i0 = 6.25mA, V0 =  3.125V b) i0 = 3.125mA, V0 =  1.5625V

66. Match the following resisters with their function

67. Match the instructions with the corresponding addressing modes

69. The following -------- is an example of unconditional branching.

71. Under which of the following conditions a bridge is balanced?

74. A Schering bridge can be used for the ------------

77. Sensitivity of a sensor can be depicted by _________.

82. Change in output of sensor with change in input is _____

83. Dead zone is the

86. The noise generated by radio is an example of

88. The convolution of x(n) = h(n) = (1, 1, 1) is

89. The process of increasing the number of samples by a factor L is

90. LMS adaptive filter minimizes

92. The power dissipated in a 20 resistor by a FM signal :

95. A fully controlled converter uses _____

97. Atomic absorption spectroscopy is based on which of the following principle

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

3. When the sample space S is countable, it is known as a ______

7. Binomial probability distribution is a widely used probability distribution where ______

15. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______

22. What are the types of sampling designs?

23. Which of the following is NOT a classification of measurement scales?

24. What are the sources of error in measurement?

25. What is the purpose of scaling in research?

26. What is the process of data preparation in research?

28. What are the measures of central tendency?

29. What do measures of dispersion indicate in research?

30. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

32. Which of the following best defines research?

33. Which of the following is NOT an objective of research?

35. What are the criteria of good research?

36. What is the purpose of reviewing the literature in research?

37. What is the role of a theoretical framework in research?

38. What is the meaning of research design?