GG 2022

SESSION - 1
GATE 2022 General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.
Q.1 Inhaling the smoke from a burning _________ could _________ you quickly.
(A) tire / tier
(B) tire / tyre
(C) tyre / tire
(D) tyre / tier
Q.2 A sphere of radius 𝑟 cm is packed in a box of cubical shape.
What should be the minimum volume (in cm3 ) of the box that can enclose the
sphere?
(A) 𝑟
8
(B) 𝑟
(C) 2𝑟
(D) 8𝑟
Page 1
Q.3 Pipes P and Q can fill a storage tank in full with water in 10 and 6 minutes,
respectively. Pipe R draws the water out from the storage tank at a rate of 34
litres per minute. P, Q and R operate at a constant rate.
If it takes one hour to completely empty a full storage tank with all the pipes
operating simultaneously, what is the capacity of the storage tank (in litres)?
(A) 26.8
(B) 60.0
(C) 120.0
(D) 127.5
Page 2
Q.4 Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the
center not necessarily in the same order. Consider the following statements:
 P sits next to S and T.

 Q sits diametrically opposite to P.
 The shortest distance between S and R is equal to the shortest distance
between T and U.
Based on the above statements, Q is a neighbor of
(A) U and S
(B) R and T
(C) R and U
(D) P and S
Page 3
Q.5 A building has several rooms and doors as shown in the top view of the building
given below. The doors are closed initially.
What is the minimum number of doors that need to be opened in order to go

from the point P to the point Q?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
Page 4
Q. 6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.
Q.6 Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component

of diet worldwide. Climate change, causing extreme weather, poses a threat to
sustained availability of rice. Scientists are working on developing Green Super
Rice (GSR), which is resilient under extreme weather conditions yet gives higher
yields sustainably.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the
information given in the above passage?
(A) GSR is an alternative to regular rice, but it grows only in an extreme weather
(B) GSR may be used in future in response to adverse effects of climate change
(C) GSR grows in an extreme weather, but the quantity of produce is lesser than
regular rice
(D) Regular rice will continue to provide good yields even in extreme weather
Page 5
A game consists of spinning an arrow around a stationary disk as shown below.
Q.7
When the arrow comes to rest, there are eight equally likely outcomes. It could
come to rest in any one of the sectors numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 or 8 as shown.
Two such disks are used in a game where their arrows are independently spun.
What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the resulting sectors upon
spinning the two disks is equal to 8 after the arrows come to rest?
(A) 1
16
(B) 5
64
(C) 3
32
(D) 7
64
Page 6
Q.8 Consider the following inequalities.
(i) 3𝑝 − 𝑞 < 4
(ii) 3𝑞 − 𝑝 < 12
Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two
inequalities?
(A) 𝑝 + 𝑞 < 8
(B) 𝑝 + 𝑞 = 8
(C) 8 ≤ 𝑝 + 𝑞 < 16
(D) 𝑝 + 𝑞 ≥ 16
Page 7
Q.9 Given below are three statements and four conclusions drawn based on the
statements.
Statement 1: Some engineers are writers.
Statement 2: No writer is an actor.
Statement 3: All actors are engineers.
Conclusion I: Some writers are engineers.
Conclusion II: All engineers are actors.
Conclusion III: No actor is a writer.
Conclusion IV: Some actors are writers.
Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?
(A) Only conclusion I is correct
(B) Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct
(C) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct
(D) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct
Page 8
Q.10 Which one of the following sets of pieces can be assembled to form a square
with a single round hole near the center? Pieces cannot overlap.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 9
GATE 2022 Geology Geophysics (Geology)
PART A: COMPULSORY SECTION FOR ALL CANDIDATES

Q.11 – Q .17 Carry ONE mark each
Q.11 Which one of the following is the typical product of ductile deformation?
(A) Gouge
(B) Breccia
(C) Cataclasite
(D) Mylonite
Q.12 Which one among the following coastal erosional landforms is caused by the action
of sea waves?
(A) Ventifact
(B) Kettle
(C) Cirque
(D) Cliff
Page 10
Q.13 In which one of the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum does the
maximum atmospheric scattering occur?
(A) UV
(B) IR
(C) Radiowave
(D) Microwave
Q.14 Which one of the following is the Poisson’s ratio for an incompressible fluid?
(A) 0
(B) 0.25
(C) 1
(D) 0.5
Q.15 Which among the following Period(s) belong(s) to the Paleozoic Era?
(A) Carboniferous
(B) Paleogene
(C) Silurian
(D) Cretaceous
Page 11
Q.16 The average bulk density of a fully saturated sandstone reservoir with a fractional
porosity of 0.23 is ______ g/cc. [round off to 2 decimal places]
[Assume matrix density for sandstone = 2.63 g/cc and fluid density = 1.05 g/cc]
Q.17 For a productive alluvial aquifer with hydraulic conductivity = 105 m/day and
hydraulic gradient = 0.01, the flow rate is _________ m/day. [round off to 2 decimal
places]
Q.18 – Q .26 Carry TWO marks each
Q.18 The relationship between conjugate shear fractures and the principal stresses in a
homogenous, isotropic, deformed body is shown in the stereoplot given below
(1, 2 and 3 are compressive stresses). Which one of the given fault regimes is
indicated according to the Anderson’s theory of faulting for the formation of
conjugate shear fractures under plane strain?
(A) Dextral strike-slip
(B) Sinistral strike-slip
(C) Reverse
(D) Normal
Page 12
Q.19 How many independent elastic parameters are needed to describe a homogenous
isotropic material?
(A) 21
(B) 2
(C) 36
(D) 3
Q.20 Which one of the following is a mafic volcanic rock?
(A) Dacite
(B) Trachyte
(C) Rhyolite
(D) Basalt
Q.21 The intercepts of a crystal face on the crystallographic axes are ∞a, 2b, 3c. Which
one of the following is its Miller Index?
(A) (032)
(B) (023)
(C) (203)
(D) (320)
Page 13
Q.22 Match the locations in Group I with the corresponding economic deposits in
Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Wajrakarur 1. Chromite
Q. Sukinda 2. Diamond
R. Malanjkhand 3. Barite
S. Mangampeta 4. Copper
(A) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(B) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2
(C) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
(D) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
Q.23 Choose the CORRECT statement(s) on seismic wave propagation in an elastic

isotropic medium.
(A) P-waves are polarized in the direction of propagation.
(B) S-waves are polarized in the direction of propagation.
(C) Rayleigh waves are elliptically polarized.
(D) Love waves are elliptically polarized.
Page 14
Q.24 The difference in arrival times of P- and S-waves generated by an earthquake and
recorded at a seismological station is one second. Assuming a homogeneous and
isotropic Earth, a P-wave velocity (VP) of 3 km/s, the ratio of P- to S-wave
velocities (VP/VS) of 2.0, the distance between the station and the hypocenter is
__________km. [round off to 1 decimal place]
Q.25 Assuming the rate of rotation of the Earth is 7.27  10-5 radians/s and the radius of
Earth is 6371 km, the centrifugal acceleration at 60o latitude for a spherically
rotating Earth is ______ 10-3 m/s2. [round off to 1 decimal place]
Q.26 The angle of inclination of the remanent magnetization of a volcanic rock measured
at a location is 45°. The magnetic latitude of the location of the volcanic rock at the
time of its magnetization is _________ °N. [round off to 1 decimal place]
Page 15
PART B (SECTION 1): FOR GEOLOGY CANDIDATES ONLY
Q.27 – Q.44 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.27 A coarse-grained igneous rock consists of 55% olivine, 25% augite and 20%
enstatite. According to the IUGS classification, the rock is
(A) websterite
(B) lherzolite
(C) wehrlite
(D) harzburgite
Q.28 The rock-type used to build the walls of the Red Fort in Delhi is
(A) sandstone
(B) marble
(C) granite
(D) basalt
Page 16
Q.29 During crystallization of a magma, which one of the following schematic paths (I,
II, III and IV) describes the behavior of compatible elements in the residual melt?
(A) II
(B) IV
(C) I
(D) III
Q.30 In the geological map of India, which one of the following geological units has the
largest area?
(A) Vindhyan Supergroup
(B) Deccan Volcanic Province
(C) Singhbhum Granite
(D) Mesozoic rocks of Kutch
Page 17
Q.31 Which one of the following cross-stratifications provides the paleocurrent direction
on the truncated bedding surface of an undeformed cross-stratified sedimentary
strata?
(A) Tabular
(B) Hummocky
(C) Trough
(D) Herringbone
Q.32 Which one of the following is a dinosaur?
(A) Stegodon
(B) Stegosaurus
(C) Equus
(D) Otoceras
Q.33 The Hoek-Brown failure envelope is typically the segment of which one of the
following?
(A) Straight line
(B) Ellipse
(C) Parabola
(D) Hyperbola
Page 18
Q.34 Which one of the following is the optical spectral window suitable for remote
sensing?
(A) 0.02 – 0.2 µm
(B) 0.4 – 14 µm
(C) 0.8 – 2.0 µm
(D) 0.01 – 1 m
Q.35 A radioactive nucleus 𝑋 decays to 𝑌. The number of α and β particles emitted

during this decay are
(A) 12α and 1𝛽
(B) 6α and 1𝛽
(C) 3α and 1𝛽
(D) 3α and 1𝛽
Page 19
Q.36 The silicate mineral(s) that commonly occur(s) in regionally metamorphosed

siliceous dolomitic limestone is/are
(A) diopside
(B) cordierite
(C) tremolite
(D) wollastonite
Q.37 Which of the natural hazard(s) listed below can be caused by Earthquakes?
(A) Tsunamis
(B) Landslides
(C) Cyclones
(D) Lightning
Q.38 Which of the following is/are the driving force(s) behind plate motion?
(A) Slab-Pull
(B) Ridge-Push
(C) Mantle Convection
(D) Advection
Page 20
Q.39 Which of the following is/are copper ore mineral(s)?
(A) Bornite
(B) Pentlandite
(C) Gahnite
(D) Covellite
Q.40 Which of the following stratigraphic unit(s) of the Vindhyan Supergroup contain(s)
commercially significant limestone deposit(s)?
(A) Bhander Formation
(B) Rewa Formation
(C) Kaimur Formation
(D) Rohtas Formation
Q.41 The strike and dip of the axial plane of a reclined fold is 022° and 28° SE,
respectively. The plunge direction (in whole circle bearing) of the axis of the
reclined fold is ______ degrees. [in integer]
Q.42 If the shrinkage factor of a crude oil is 0.7, its formation volume factor is _____.
[round off to 1 decimal place]
Page 21
Q.43 The cross section of a river channel is approximated by a trapezium. The river has
an average channel width of 40 m and average depth of 3 m. If the average flow
speed is 2 m/s, the discharge rate is _________ m3/s. [in integer]
Q.44 A mineral of uniform composition is cut into a wedge shape. The birefringence of
the wedge section is 0.012. The retardation at 40 µm thickness of the wedge is
_______ nm. [in integer]
Page 22
Q.45 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.45 The sand supply and the variability of wind direction results in different dune types.
In the options below, choose the CORRECT pair of dune types marked I and II in
the figure.
(A) I – Transverse dune; II – Barchan dune
(B) I – Star dune; II – Barchan dune
(C) I – Barchan dune; II – Linear dune
(D) I – Barchan dune; II – Star dune
Q.46 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
(A) Salt dome traps are abundant in the Upper Assam Basin
(B) Fold and thrust related traps are common in the Mumbai Offshore Basin
(C) Limestone is the predominant reservoir rock in the Cambay Basin
(D) Sandstone is the reservoir rock in the Krishna-Godavari Basin
Page 23
Q.47 Identify the common metamorphic minerals labelled X and Y in the ACF diagram.
(A) X – Anorthite; Y – Actinolite
(B) X – Grossular; Y – Diopside
(C) X – Wollastonite; Y – Almandine
(D) X – Ferrosilite; Y – Andradite
Page 24
Q.48 Which one of the following schematic P-T paths is characteristic for a rock
metamorphosed in a subduction zone?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.49 Which one of the following is the CORRECT statement regarding the ecology of
bivalves?
(A) Pholas is a swimming form
(B) Venus is a shallow burrower
(C) Pecten is a stone borer
(D) Spondylus is a deep burrower
Page 25
Q.50 On a fault surface with strike and dip 320° and 55° NE, respectively, four sets of
slickenlines were measured by a geologist. Given that the fault surface was
measured correctly, the plunge and plunge direction of the lineation on the fault
surface is
(A) 55° → 050°
(B) 20° → 320°
(C) 50° → 325°
(D) 60° → 090°
Q.51 Match the following tectonic settings in Group-I with the corresponding examples
in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
P Rift Basin 1 Pacific Ocean
Q Passive Margin 2 Gulf of Suez
R Subducting Ocean 3 West coast of India
S Collision 4 Mediterranean Sea
(A) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4
(B) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1
(C) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
(D) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
Page 26
Q.52 Match the following igneous textures in Group-I with their definitions in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
P Vitrophyre 1 Alkali feldspar rimmed by plagioclase
Q Rapakivi 2 Aggregate of radially arrayed, needle-like

crystals of plagioclase with or without
clinopyroxene
R Ocelli 3 Sub-parallel skeletal, platy olivine and/or
pyroxene
S Spinifex 4 Large phenocrysts within a glassy matrix
(A) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1
(B) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
(C) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
(D) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2
Page 27
Q.53 Match the Volcanogenic Massive Sulfide (VMS)-type deposits in Group-I with the
dominant mineralized host rocks in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
P Besshi 1 Felsic volcanics
Q Bathurst 2 Mafic volcanics + siliciclastics
R Kuroko 3 Mafic volcanics
S Cyprus 4 Felsic volcanics + siliciclastics
(A) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
(B) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
(C) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
(D) P-1; Q-4; R-2; S-3
Page 28
Q.54 The following diagram shows phase relations in a system consisting of components
A and B at 1 bar pressure. If the initial composition of liquid is R, during cooling
and crystallization of magma, which of the following statement(s) is/are
CORRECT?
(A) On complete crystallization of magma, the final composition (in wt.%) of rock
consists of 25 of mineral A and 75 of mineral B.
(B) On cooling of magma, mineral A is the first mineral to crystallize.
(C) At point Q, the weight percentages of crystal and liquid are 37.5 and 62.5,
respectively.
(D) The composition (in wt.%) of liquid at point E is 40 A and 60 B.
Page 29
Q.55 Which of the following systems tract(s) indicate regression?
(A) Transgressive systems tract
(B) Falling stage systems tract
(C) Highstand systems tract
(D) Lowstand systems tract
Q.56 Which of the following sedimentary feature(s) indicate(s) sub-aerial exposure of

the depositional surface?
(A) Groove cast
(B) Double mud drape
(C) Rain print
(D) Adhesion ripple
Q.57 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Diatoms are algal forms.
(B) Dinoflagellates are unicellular algae.
(C) Petropods are planktic gastropods.
(D) Radiolarians are organic-walled microfossils.
Page 30
Q.58 Which among the following space groups is/are non-compatible with glide plane?
(A) Pab21
(B) Pnma
(C) P6 /c
(D) P3c1
Q.59 Which type of porphyroclast(s) listed below is/are suitable as kinematic indicators
in ductile shear zones?
(A)  - type
(B)  - type
(C)  - type
(D)  - type
Q.60 Which of the following parameter(s) is/are Rock Mass Rating (RMR) based on?
(A) Rock Quality Designation
(B) Uniaxial compressive strength of intact rock
(C) Groundwater conditions
(D) Rock composition
Page 31
Q.61 A sample of 10 g coal yields 1 g of moisture, 2 g of ash and 5.6 g of volatile matter.
The percentage of volatile matter content of the coal on dry ash-free basis is
________. [round off to 1 decimal place]
Q.62 A soil sample shows an average beta count of 6.8 counts per minute (cpm) per gram
of organic carbon. The 14C count rate from organic carbon of present day vegetation
is 15.26 cpm/g. The age of the sample is _________ years. [round off to 1 decimal
place] (Half-life of 14C = 5370 years)
Q. 63 A digital camera with a focal length of 150 mm is flown at a height of 3000 m over
a flat terrain for taking aerial photographs. The scale of the aerial photograph is
1: ________. [in integer]
Q. 64 The following reaction occurs at 1 bar and 823 K.
Grossular + Quartz = Anorthite + 2 Wollastonite
Mineral Entropy (S1, 823) Volume (V1, 823)

kJ K-1 J bar-1
Grossular 0.255 12.535
Quartz 0.042 2.269
Anorthite 0.200 10.079
Wollastonite 0.082 3.993
Using the above molar thermodynamic data, the calculated slope of the above
reaction is ________bar K-1. [round off to 2 decimal places]
Q.65 Operating costs of an open cast gold mine are Rs. 4000/tonne. The recovery at the
mill is 90%. At a gold price of Rs. 4550/g, the cutoff grade of gold calculated on
the basis of operating cost is _________ g/tonne. [round off to 2 decimal places]
Page 32
Q. No. Session Question Subject Key/Range Mark
Type Name
1 4 MCQ GA C 1
2 4 MCQ GA D 1
3 4 MCQ GA C 1
4 4 MCQ GA C 1
5 4 MCQ GA C 1
6 4 MCQ GA B 2
7 4 MCQ GA D 2
8 4 MCQ GA A 2
9 4 MCQ GA C 2
10 4 MCQ GA C 2
11 4 MCQ GG D 1
12 4 MCQ GG D 1
13 4 MCQ GG A 1
14 4 MCQ GG D 1
15 4 MSQ GG A, C 1
16 4 NAT GG 2.24 to 2.30 1
17 4 NAT GG 1.00 to 1.10 1
18 4 MCQ GG C 2
19 4 MCQ GG B 2
20 4 MCQ GG D 2
21 4 MCQ GG A 2
22 4 MCQ GG C 2
23 4 MSQ GG A, C 2
24 4 NAT GG 3.0 to 3.0 2
25 4 NAT GG 16.3 to 17.3 2
26 4 NAT GG 26.2 to 27.0 2
27 4 MCQ GG B 1
28 4 MCQ GG A 1
29 4 MCQ GG B 1
30 4 MCQ GG B 1
31 4 MCQ GG C 1
32 4 MCQ GG B 1
33 4 MCQ GG C 1
34 4 MCQ GG B 1
35 4 MCQ GG D 1
36 4 MSQ GG A, C, D OR A, C 1
37 4 MSQ GG A, B 1
38 4 MSQ GG A, B, C 1
39 4 MSQ GG A, D 1
40 4 MSQ GG A, D 1
41 4 NAT GG 112 to 112 1
42 4 NAT GG 1.4 to 1.5 1
43 4 NAT GG 240 to 240 1
44 4 NAT GG 480 to 480 1
45 4 MCQ GG B 2
46 4 MCQ GG D 2
47 4 MCQ GG B 2
48 4 MCQ GG B 2
49 4 MCQ GG B 2
50 4 MCQ GG A 2
51 4 MCQ GG A 2
52 4 MCQ GG C 2
53 4 MCQ GG B 2
54 4 MSQ GG A, C 2
55 4 MSQ GG B, C, D 2
56 4 MSQ GG C, D 2
57 4 MSQ GG A, B, C OR A,B 2
58 4 MSQ GG A, C 2
59 4 MSQ GG A, C 2
60 4 MSQ GG A, B, C 2
61 4 NAT GG 80.0 to 80.0 2
62 4 NAT GG 6261.0 to 6266.0 2
63 4 NAT GG 20000 to 20000 2
64 4 NAT GG 20.00 to 21.00 2
65 4 NAT GG 0.96 to 1.00 2
SESSION - 2
GATE 2022 General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.
Q.1 Inhaling the smoke from a burning _________ could _________ you quickly.
(A) tire / tier
(B) tire / tyre
(C) tyre / tire
(D) tyre / tier
Q.2 A sphere of radius 𝑟 cm is packed in a box of cubical shape.
What should be the minimum volume (in cm3 ) of the box that can enclose the
sphere?
(A) 𝑟
8
(B) 𝑟
(C) 2𝑟
(D) 8𝑟
Page 1
Q.3 Pipes P and Q can fill a storage tank in full with water in 10 and 6 minutes,
respectively. Pipe R draws the water out from the storage tank at a rate of 34
litres per minute. P, Q and R operate at a constant rate.
If it takes one hour to completely empty a full storage tank with all the pipes
operating simultaneously, what is the capacity of the storage tank (in litres)?
(A) 26.8
(B) 60.0
(C) 120.0
(D) 127.5
Page 2
Q.4 Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the
center not necessarily in the same order. Consider the following statements:
 P sits next to S and T.

 Q sits diametrically opposite to P.
 The shortest distance between S and R is equal to the shortest distance
between T and U.
Based on the above statements, Q is a neighbor of
(A) U and S
(B) R and T
(C) R and U
(D) P and S
Page 3
Q.5 A building has several rooms and doors as shown in the top view of the building
given below. The doors are closed initially.
What is the minimum number of doors that need to be opened in order to go

from the point P to the point Q?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
Page 4
Q. 6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.
Q.6 Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component

of diet worldwide. Climate change, causing extreme weather, poses a threat to
sustained availability of rice. Scientists are working on developing Green Super
Rice (GSR), which is resilient under extreme weather conditions yet gives higher
yields sustainably.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the
information given in the above passage?
(A) GSR is an alternative to regular rice, but it grows only in an extreme weather
(B) GSR may be used in future in response to adverse effects of climate change
(C) GSR grows in an extreme weather, but the quantity of produce is lesser than
regular rice
(D) Regular rice will continue to provide good yields even in extreme weather
Page 5
A game consists of spinning an arrow around a stationary disk as shown below.
Q.7
When the arrow comes to rest, there are eight equally likely outcomes. It could
come to rest in any one of the sectors numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 or 8 as shown.
Two such disks are used in a game where their arrows are independently spun.
What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the resulting sectors upon
spinning the two disks is equal to 8 after the arrows come to rest?
(A) 1
16
(B) 5
64
(C) 3
32
(D) 7
64
Page 6
Q.8 Consider the following inequalities.
(i) 3𝑝 − 𝑞 < 4
(ii) 3𝑞 − 𝑝 < 12
Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two
inequalities?
(A) 𝑝 + 𝑞 < 8
(B) 𝑝 + 𝑞 = 8
(C) 8 ≤ 𝑝 + 𝑞 < 16
(D) 𝑝 + 𝑞 ≥ 16
Page 7
Q.9 Given below are three statements and four conclusions drawn based on the
statements.
Statement 1: Some engineers are writers.
Statement 2: No writer is an actor.
Statement 3: All actors are engineers.
Conclusion I: Some writers are engineers.
Conclusion II: All engineers are actors.
Conclusion III: No actor is a writer.
Conclusion IV: Some actors are writers.
Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?
(A) Only conclusion I is correct
(B) Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct
(C) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct
(D) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct
Page 8
Q.10 Which one of the following sets of pieces can be assembled to form a square
with a single round hole near the center? Pieces cannot overlap.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 9
GATE 2022 Geology Geophysics (Geophysics)
PART A: COMPULSORY SECTION FOR ALL CANDIDATES
Q.11 – Q .17 Carry ONE mark each
Q.11 Which one of the following is the typical product of ductile deformation?
(A) Gouge
(B) Breccia
(C) Cataclasite
(D) Mylonite
Q.12 Which one among the following coastal erosional landforms is caused by the action
of sea waves?
(A) Ventifact
(B) Kettle
(C) Cirque
(D) Cliff
Page 10
Q.13 In which one of the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum does the
maximum atmospheric scattering occur?
(A) UV
(B) IR
(C) Radiowave
(D) Microwave
Q.14 Which one of the following is the Poisson’s ratio for an incompressible fluid?
(A) 0
(B) 0.25
(C) 1
(D) 0.5
Q.15 Which among the following Period(s) belong(s) to the Paleozoic Era?
(A) Carboniferous
(B) Paleogene
(C) Silurian
(D) Cretaceous
Page 11
Q.16 The average bulk density of a fully saturated sandstone reservoir with a fractional
porosity of 0.23 is ______ g/cc. [round off to 2 decimal places]
[Assume matrix density for sandstone = 2.63 g/cc and fluid density = 1.05 g/cc]
Q.17 For a productive alluvial aquifer with hydraulic conductivity = 105 m/day and
hydraulic gradient = 0.01, the flow rate is _________ m/day. [round off to 2 decimal
places]
Q.18 – Q .26 Carry TWO marks each
Q.18 The relationship between conjugate shear fractures and the principal stresses in a
homogenous, isotropic, deformed body is shown in the stereoplot given below
(1, 2 and 3 are compressive stresses). Which one of the given fault regimes is
indicated according to the Anderson’s theory of faulting for the formation of
conjugate shear fractures under plane strain?
(A) Dextral strike-slip
(B) Sinistral strike-slip
(C) Reverse
(D) Normal
Page 12
Q.19 How many independent elastic parameters are needed to describe a homogenous
isotropic material?
(A) 21
(B) 2
(C) 36
(D) 3
Q.20 Which one of the following is a mafic volcanic rock?
(A) Dacite
(B) Trachyte
(C) Rhyolite
(D) Basalt
Q.21 The intercepts of a crystal face on the crystallographic axes are ∞a, 2b, 3c. Which
one of the following is its Miller Index?
(A) (032)
(B) (023)
(C) (203)
(D) (320)
Page 13
Q.22 Match the locations in Group I with the corresponding economic deposits in
Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Wajrakarur 1. Chromite
Q. Sukinda 2. Diamond
R. Malanjkhand 3. Barite
S. Mangampeta 4. Copper
(A) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(B) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2
(C) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
(D) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
Q.23 Choose the CORRECT statement(s) on seismic wave propagation in an elastic

isotropic medium.
(A) P-waves are polarized in the direction of propagation.
(B) S-waves are polarized in the direction of propagation.
(C) Rayleigh waves are elliptically polarized.
(D) Love waves are elliptically polarized.
Page 14
Q.24 The difference in arrival times of P- and S-waves generated by an earthquake and
recorded at a seismological station is one second. Assuming a homogeneous and
isotropic Earth, a P-wave velocity (VP) of 3 km/s, the ratio of P- to S-wave
velocities (VP/VS) of 2.0, the distance between the station and the hypocenter is
__________km. [round off to 1 decimal place]
Q.25 Assuming the rate of rotation of the Earth is 7.27  10-5 radians/s and the radius of
Earth is 6371 km, the centrifugal acceleration at 60o latitude for a spherically
rotating Earth is ______ 10-3 m/s2. [round off to 1 decimal place]
Q.26 The angle of inclination of the remanent magnetization of a volcanic rock measured
at a location is 45°. The magnetic latitude of the location of the volcanic rock at the
time of its magnetization is _________ °N. [round off to 1 decimal place]
Page 15
PART B (SECTION 2): FOR GEOPHYSICS CANDIDATES ONLY
Q.27 – Q.47 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.27 In 2D stacked seismic sections, the vertical axis corresponds to two-way travel time
and the horizontal axis corresponds to __________.
(A) receiver locations
(B) source locations
(C) Offsets
(D) common midpoint (CMP) locations
Q.28 In a 2D seismic survey acquired on land, head waves were recorded at the surface.
Assuming that the subsurface consisted of horizontal, isotropic and homogeneous
layers, the moveout of the head wave event(s) would be _________.
(A) linear
(B) parabolic
(C) hyperbolic
(D) elliptical
Page 16
Q.29 An accurate depth migration of seismic data requires the knowledge of ________.
(A) interval velocities
(B) root mean squared (RMS) velocities
(C) stacking velocities
(D) normal moveout (NMO) velocities
Q.30 The dimension of bulk modulus is _________.
(A) [𝑀𝐿 𝑇 ]
(B) [𝑀𝐿𝑇 ]
(C) [𝑀𝐿 𝑇 ]
(D) [𝑀𝐿 𝑇 ]
Page 17
Q.31 A current flows from a medium with resistivity 1 to a medium with resistivity 2.
A planar interface separates the two media. The angle of incidence and refraction
with respect to the normal to the interface are θ1 and θ2, respectively. If the
components of the current density perpendicular to the interface and the
components of the electric field horizontal to the interface are continuous, the
electrical law of refraction can be expressed as ___________.
(A) 1 tan θ1 = 2 tan θ2
(B) 1 sin θ1 = 2 sin θ2
(C) 2 cos θ1 = 1 cos θ2
(D) 1 tan θ2 = 2 tan θ1
Q.32 The convolution of two box-car pulses of positive amplitudes, with unequal and
finite durations yields a ________ pulse.
(A) triangular
(B) trapezoidal
(C) rectangular
(D) sinusoidal
Page 18
Q.33 Which ONE of the following P-phases represents a reflection from the Moho?
(A) Pn
(B) Pg
(C) P*
(D) PmP
Q.34 The remanent, induced and total magnetizations of a rock sample are denoted by
𝑀 ⃗, 𝑀⃗ and 𝑀 ⃗, respectively. The Königsberger ratio is
(A) 𝑀⃗ 𝑀⃗
(B) 𝑀⃗ 𝑀⃗
(C) 𝑀⃗ 𝑀⃗
(D) 𝑀⃗ 𝑀⃗
Page 19
Q.35 Which among the following is/are CORRECT statement(s) about the Van Allen
radiation belts?
(A) The inner belt consists mainly of protons and the belt extends to about 1000-3000
km from the Earth’s surface.
(B) The belts are doughnut-shaped regions coaxial with the geomagnetic field lines of
the Earth.
(C) The pitch of the helical motion of the charged particles increases as the particles
approach the surface of the Earth.
(D) The outer belt occupies regions between 3 to 4 Earth radii and consists primarily of
electrons.
Q.36 Which of the following logging methods can be used to measure the resistivity of
the flushed zone?
(A) Lateral log
(B) Long normal log
(C) Microlaterolog
(D) Microspherically focused log
Page 20
Q.37 Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT about the continuation of the
gravity field?
(A) Continuation of the gravity field from one surface to another is permissible only
when there are no masses present between the two surfaces.
(B) In upward continuation, the longer wavelength anomalies are attenuated more than
the shorter wavelength anomalies.
(C) Downward continuation may enhance noise and uncertainties.
(D) Upward continuation is a smoothing process.
Q.38 An oceanic plate formed at a mid-oceanic ridge 27 million years ago. The plate has
been moving with a uniform half-spreading rate of 4 cm/year ever since its
formation. The current distance between the edge of this plate and the centre of the
ridge is __________ km. [round off to 1 decimal place]
Q.39 An artificial neural network (ANN) is trained to classify between shale and sand
formations. The final layer of the ANN consists of a single neuron with a sigmoid
activation function given by (𝑥) = . If the input to the final neuron is 0,
then the output is __________. [round off to 1 decimal place]
Q.40 A current electrode introduces a 2 Ampere current at a point (P) on the surface of a
uniform half space. If the resistivity of the half space is 5 -m, the magnitude of
the electric field (due to the current) in the half space at a distance of 1 m from P
is ________ V/m. [round off to 2 decimal places]
Page 21
Q.41 The relative dielectric permittivity of a homogeneous isotropic medium is 10 and

the relative magnetic permeability of the same medium is 1. If the velocity of the
electromagnetic wave propagating through this medium is v and the velocity of
light in vacuum is c, then the ratio v/c is ________. [round off to 2 decimal places]
Q.42 A mountain of height 8 km above mean sea level is in isostatic equilibrium with a
42 km thick continental crust. As predicted by Airy’s hypothesis, the root beneath
this mountain is ________ km. [round off to 1 decimal place]
[Assume, density of mantle = 3.7 ×103 kg m-3 and density of crust = 2.7 ×103 kg
m-3]
Q.43 In wet soil of resistivity 100m, the skin depth of a GPR signal of 100 MHz is
_________ m. [round off to 2 decimal places]
[Assume: 𝜇 = 4𝜋 × 10 𝐻/𝑚]
Q.44 A Wadati diagram was prepared for a local earthquake occurring in a homogeneous
crust. If the crust is assumed to be a Poisson solid, the slope of the straight line in
the Wadati diagram is ________. [round off to 2 decimal places]
Page 22
Q.45 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.45 The gravitational potential of the spheroidal Earth can be expressed as

𝑈 = −𝐺 1−∑ 𝐽 𝑃 (cos 𝜃) , where G is the gravitation
constant, 𝐸 is the mass of the Earth, 𝑟 is the radial distance from the centre of the
Earth, R is the radius of Earth, 𝐽 are the coefficients obtained from satellite
geodesy, 𝑃 represents the Legendre polynomial of order 𝑛, and 𝜃 is the colatitude.
Which among the following is described by the term corresponding to 𝑛 = 2?
[Given: 𝑃 (cos 𝜃) = (3 cos 𝜃 − 1)]
(A) Gravitational potential due to a spherical Earth
(B) Deviations from the ellipsoid that correspond to a pear-shaped Earth
(C) The effect of the polar flattening on the Earth’s gravitational potential
(D) The gravitational potential of the Earth-Moon system
Q.46 The magnetic potential of a dipole at any external point (P) can be expressed as
⃗∙ ̂
𝑉=𝐶 , 𝑟 ≠ 0, where 𝑚⃗ is the dipole moment, 𝑟̂ is a unit normal along
the vector directed from the centre of the dipole to the external point (P) and 𝐶 is
a constant. If θ is the angle between 𝑚⃗ and 𝑟̂ , the radial component of 𝐵⃗ is:
(A)
𝐵 = 2𝐶
(B)
𝐵 =𝐶
(C)
𝐵 =𝐶
(D)
𝐵 = 2𝐶
Page 23
Q.47 The functions 𝑔(𝑡) and 𝐺(𝜔) constitute a Fourier Transform pair [𝑔(𝑡) ↔ 𝐺(𝜔)]
as per the convention:
𝑔(𝑡) = ∫ 𝐺(𝜔)𝑒 𝑑𝜔 and 𝐺(𝜔) = ∫ 𝑔(𝑡)𝑒 𝑑𝑡
Which ONE among the following is the correct Fourier transform pair?
(A) ( )
↔ 𝐺(𝜔)
(B) ( )
↔ 𝑗𝜔𝐺(𝜔)
(C) ( )
↔ −𝑗𝜔𝐺(𝜔)
(D) ( )
↔ 𝜔𝐺(𝜔)
Q.48 Gauss’ divergence theorem is given by
⃗ 𝑎⃗ 𝑑𝑉 = 𝑎⃗  𝑑𝑆⃗
where 𝑎⃗ is a vector field and V is the volume enclosed by the surface S. If

𝑎⃗ =  + ⃗ × 𝜓⃗ , then the application of divergence theorem to 𝑎⃗ yields:
(A) ∫   𝑑𝑉 = ∫   𝑑𝑆⃗
(B) ∫ ⃗ 𝜓⃗ 𝑑𝑉 = ∫ 𝜓⃗  𝑑𝑆⃗
(C) ∫   𝑑𝑉 = ∫ ⃗ × 𝜓⃗  𝑑𝑆⃗
(D) ∫  𝑑𝑉 = ∫ 𝜓⃗  𝑑𝑆⃗
Page 24
Q.49 The angular frequency (𝜔) and wavenumber (𝑘) for an electromagnetic wave is
related by the expression 𝜔 = 𝛼𝑘 + 𝛽𝑘 , where 𝛼 and 𝛽 are constants. The
wavenumber 𝑘 for which the group velocity equals the phase velocity is ______.
(A)
3
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 25
Q.50 The schematic represents P-wave arrivals from a zero-offset Vertical Seismic
Profiling (VSP) experiment conducted over a horizontally layered and isotropic
Earth. Match the four events labelled in the schematic and their listed descriptions.
Schematic Description
1. Primary reflection from the first

reflector
2. Direct arrival
3. First order multiple
4. Primary reflection from the second

reflector
(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
(B) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4
(C) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
(D) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3
Page 26
Q.51 The transfer function of a linear system is given as (𝑠) = . The poles of
this function are __________.
(A) –3 and –2
(B) –3 and 2
(C) 3 and –2
(D) 3 and 2
Q.52 The eigenvalues of the given matrix 𝑨 are _________.
2 −1 1
𝑨 = −1 0 1
1 1 2
(A) –1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 0, 2 and 3
(D) 0, 2 and 2
Page 27
Q.53 The apparent resistivity values obtained from a vertical electrical sounding (VES)
survey over a horizontally layered 1-D Earth are indicated by 𝜌 , 𝜌 , 𝜌 , 𝜌 , where
the subscript refers to the nth layer from the surface. Match the VES curve types
listed in Group-I with the corresponding ordering of resistivity values listed in
Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
P. QH 1. 𝜌 < 𝜌 > 𝜌 <𝜌
Q. HK 2. 𝜌 > 𝜌 > 𝜌 < 𝜌
R. HA 3. 𝜌 > 𝜌 < 𝜌 >𝜌
S. KH 4. 𝜌 > 𝜌 < 𝜌 <𝜌
(A) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
(B) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1
(C) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1
(D) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4
Page 28
Q.54 Choose the CORRECT statement(s) from the following on the solution of systems
of linear equations without the application of regularization.
(A) An under-determined system of linearly independent equations has either a trivial

solution or an infinite number of solutions.
(B) An ill-conditioned system of linear equations can yield stable solutions in the
presence of noise.
(C) An over-determined system of linearly independent equations does not have an

exact solution.
(D) A system of linearly independent equations with the number of equations equal to
the number of unknowns is a mixed-determined system.
Q.55 In seismic spiking deconvolution with an unknown source wavelet, the wavelet can
be deconvolved most effectively under which of the following condition(s)?
(A) The source wavelet is minimum phase.
(B) The source wavelet is zero phase.
(C) The autocorrelation of the reflectivity series in time domain can be approximated
by a delta function.
(D) The autocorrelation of the reflectivity series in time domain can be approximated
to be identically zero.
Page 29
Q.56 The stacking chart for an end-on 2D seismic survey is shown in the figure. The
shot, receiver, mid-point and offset coordinate axes are as indicated in the figure,
while each star represents a unique seismic trace. With reference to the stacking
chart, which of the following is/are CORRECT statement(s)?
(A) The traces along LL constitute a common mid-point (CMP) gather.
(B) The traces along LL constitute a common shot gather.
(C) The traces along NN constitute a common offset gather.
(D) The traces along NN constitute a common receiver gather.
Q.57 Suppose 𝑥 ⁄ defines the half-width at 1/5th of the maximum gravity value measured
over a buried sphere of uniform density. If 𝑑 is the distance from the surface to the
⁄
centre of the sphere, the value of is _______. [round off to 2 decimal places]
Page 30
Q.58 In a reservoir zone, the deep induction log reads 3 m for a formation whose
porosity is 19%. The hydrocarbon saturation of that formation as estimated from
Archie’s equation is ______%. [round off to 1 decimal place]
[Assume: a=1, n=2, m=1.5, formation water resistivity = 0.04 m]
Q.59 The heat flow q (mW/m2) is related to the age t (My) of the ocean floor as
t = (510/q)2. Assuming the temperature gradient and the thermal conductivity at a
site in the Indian ocean to be 55 C/km and 2.3 W/m C, respectively, the age of the
site is_______ My. [round off to 2 decimal places]
[Use the magnitude of the calculated value of q]
Q.60 The radioactive isotopes AX and BX of an element X at the time of formation of a

rock sample were in equal proportions. Subsequently, in a closed system, it was
found that the abundances of the isotopes were in the ratio BX / AX = 128.55. The
elapsed time since the formation of the sample is ______ years. [round off to 1
decimal place]
[Assume: decay rate of A = 9.85 × 10-3 y-1, B = 1.55 × 10-3 y-1].
Q.61 A two-layered planet consists of a core and a mantle of uniform but unequal
densities. The density of the core is 7150 kg m-3 and the mean density of the planet
is 5620 kg m-3. If the mantle enclosing the core occupies 2/3rd of the radius of the
planet from the surface, then the density of the mantle is ______ kg m-3. [round off
to 1 decimal place]
Page 31
Q.62 A reflection seismic survey is conducted over a two-layered medium with a single
horizontal, homogeneous, isotropic layer underlain by a homogenous, isotropic
half-space. The Shuey two-term approximation for the P-wave reflection coefficient
for the interface separating the media is given by:
𝑅(𝜃) = 0.025 − 0.1 sin 𝜃,
where 𝜃 is the angle of incidence of the P-wave with respect to the normal to the
interface. Assuming the validity of the approximation, the offset-to-depth ratio
(offset/depth) at which a polarity reversal can be observed in a CMP gather from
the survey is _________. [round off to two decimal places]
[Hint: A change in the sign of the reflection coefficient leads to polarity reversal]
Q.63 The given figure shows the rupture of a unilateral fault with the rupture velocity
(Vr) of 2 km/s. According to the simple Haskell source model, the rupture time
associated with the entire length of the fault as estimated at the station is ________
sec. [round off to 2 decimal places]
[Assume: Shear wave speed = 3.5 km/s]
Page 32
Q.64 The given figure shows ray paths for direct P and P-to-S converted phases recorded
at a station on the surface (R) for a teleseismic event. Given that the ray parameter
(p) is 0.1 s/km, the arrival time difference between the P-to-S converted phase and
the direct P-phase at the receiver R is _____sec. [round off to 2 decimal places]
Q.65 A land seismic survey is conducted over a horizontally layered and isotropic Earth.
The thickness and the P-wave velocity of the homogeneous weathered layer are
5 m and 800 m/s, respectively. The shots are fired at a depth of 5 m below the
surface and the receivers are placed on the surface at mean sea level (MSL). If the
datum plane is defined to be 5 m below the MSL, the magnitude of the P-wave static
correction to be applied to the data is ________ milliseconds. [round off to 2
decimal places]
Page 33
Q. No. Session Question Subject Key/Range Mark
Type Name
1 4 MCQ GA C 1
2 4 MCQ GA D 1
3 4 MCQ GA C 1
4 4 MCQ GA C 1
5 4 MCQ GA C 1
6 4 MCQ GA B 2
7 4 MCQ GA D 2
8 4 MCQ GA A 2
9 4 MCQ GA C 2
10 4 MCQ GA C 2
11 4 MCQ GG D 1
12 4 MCQ GG D 1
13 4 MCQ GG A 1
14 4 MCQ GG D 1
15 4 MSQ GG A, C 1
16 4 NAT GG 2.24 to 2.30 1
17 4 NAT GG 1.00 to 1.10 1
18 4 MCQ GG C 2
19 4 MCQ GG B 2
20 4 MCQ GG D 2
21 4 MCQ GG A 2
22 4 MCQ GG C 2
23 4 MSQ GG A, C 2
24 4 NAT GG 3.0 to 3.0 2
25 4 NAT GG 16.3 to 17.3 2
26 4 NAT GG 26.2 to 27.0 2
27 4 MCQ GG D 1
28 4 MCQ GG A 1
29 4 MCQ GG A 1
30 4 MCQ GG A 1
31 4 MCQ GG A 1
32 4 MCQ GG B 1
33 4 MCQ GG D 1
34 4 MCQ GG C 1
35 4 MSQ GG A, B, D 1
36 4 MSQ GG C, D 1
37 4 MSQ GG A,C, D 1
38 4 NAT GG 1080.0 to 1080.0 1
39 4 NAT GG 0.5 to 0.5 1
40 4 NAT GG 1.55 to 1.65 1
41 4 NAT GG 0.29 to 0.35 1
42 4 NAT GG 21.0 to 22.0 1
43 4 NAT GG 0.46 to 0.54 1
44 4 NAT GG 0.71 to 0.75 1
45 4 MCQ GG C 2
46 4 MCQ GG A 2
47 4 MCQ GG B 2
48 4 MCQ GG A 2
49 4 MCQ GG C 2
50 4 MCQ GG A 2
51 4 MCQ GG A 2
52 4 MCQ GG A 2
53 4 MCQ GG B 2
54 4 MSQ GG A, C 2
55 4 MSQ GG A, C 2
56 4 MSQ GG A, C 2
57 4 NAT GG 1.34 to 1.44 2
58 4 NAT GG 57.0 to 63.0 2
59 4 NAT GG 16.00 to 16.50 2
60 4 NAT GG 580.0 to 590.0 2
61 4 NAT GG 5556.1 to 5566.1 2
62 4 NAT GG 1.10 to 1.20 2
63 4 NAT GG 1.69 to 1.89 2
64 4 NAT GG 4.00 to 4.50 2
65 4 NAT GG 6.20 to 6.30 2

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SESSION - 1

GATE 2022 General Aptitude (GA)

(A) tire / tier

(B) tire / tyre

(C) tyre / tire

(D) tyre / tier

Q.2 A sphere of radius 𝑟 cm is packed in a box of cubical shape.

 P sits next to S and T.

Based on the above statements, Q is a neighbor of

What is the minimum number of doors that need to be opened in order to go

Q.6 Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component

Statement 1: Some engineers are writers.

Statement 2: No writer is an actor.

Statement 3: All actors are engineers.

Conclusion I: Some writers are engineers.

Conclusion II: All engineers are actors.

Conclusion III: No actor is a writer.

Conclusion IV: Some actors are writers.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

(A) Only conclusion I is correct

(B) Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct

(C) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct

(D) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct

PART A: COMPULSORY SECTION FOR ALL CANDIDATES

Q.18 – Q .26 Carry TWO marks each

(A) Dextral strike-slip

(B) Sinistral strike-slip

Q.20 Which one of the following is a mafic volcanic rock?

(A) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2

(B) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(C) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

(D) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3

Q.23 Choose the CORRECT statement(s) on seismic wave propagation in an elastic

(A) P-waves are polarized in the direction of propagation.

(B) S-waves are polarized in the direction of propagation.

(C) Rayleigh waves are elliptically polarized.

(D) Love waves are elliptically polarized.

(A) Vindhyan Supergroup

(B) Deccan Volcanic Province

(C) Singhbhum Granite

(D) Mesozoic rocks of Kutch

Q.32 Which one of the following is a dinosaur?

(A) Straight line

(A) 0.02 – 0.2 µm

(C) 0.8 – 2.0 µm

Q.35 A radioactive nucleus 𝑋 decays to 𝑌. The number of α and β particles emitted

(A) 12α and 1𝛽

Q.36 The silicate mineral(s) that commonly occur(s) in regionally metamorphosed

(C) Mantle Convection

Q.39 Which of the following is/are copper ore mineral(s)?

(A) Bhander Formation

(B) Rewa Formation

(C) Kaimur Formation

(D) Rohtas Formation

(A) I – Transverse dune; II – Barchan dune

(B) I – Star dune; II – Barchan dune

(C) I – Barchan dune; II – Linear dune

(D) I – Barchan dune; II – Star dune

Q.46 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

(C) Limestone is the predominant reservoir rock in the Cambay Basin