16/04/2024 Phase-II

CODE-D

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2024

MM : 720 Test -5 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

CC-026:
Topics covered CC-026 CC-026 CC-026

Physics : Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves, Ray Optics and Optical
Instruments, Wave Optics
Chemistry : The p-Block Elements (Group 15-18), The d and f-Block Elements, Coordination Compounds, Haloalkanes
and Haloarenes
Botany : Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Microbes in Human
Welfare
Zoology : Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health, Evolution

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

CC-026 CC-026 PHYSICS CC-026 CC-026

Choose the correct answer :

SECTION - A
1. Magnetic flux linked with a coil changes with time (3) (4)
as shown below its corresponding emf () vs time
(t) graph will look like

2. Two coils are inductively coupled in such a way

that rate of change of current of 2 A/s in one coil
induces an e.m.f. of 2 V in the neighbouring coil.
(1) (2) The mutual inductance of coils is
(1) 1 henry (2) 0.5 henry
(3) 4 henry (4) e4 henry

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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

3. A long coil having 400 turns per meter carries a 8. An EM wave which is widely used in disinfecting
current of 0.5 A. The self inductance per unit and water purifiers is
volume in SI unit of this air cored solenoid is nearly (1) UV rays (2) Infra-red rays
(1) 201 × 10–3 (2) 350 × 10–3 (3) X-rays (4) -Rays
(3) 70 × 10–3 (4) 100 × 10–3 9. The variation of electric field in an EM wave is
4. An alternating current varies as I(t) = 20sin(100t). given by E = 120sin(3 × 104t – 2 × 10–4x).
Its rms value in half cycle will be The amplitude of magnetic field is (All quantities
are in SI units)
10
(1) A (2) 20A (1) 4 × 10–7 T (2) 8 × 10–7 T
2
(3) 40 × 10–7 T (4) 80 × 10–7 T
(3) 10 2A (4) Zero 10. Consider the following statements and choose the
5. Reciprocal of impedance of an A.C. circuit is correct option
knownCC-026
as admittance. The SI unitCC-026
of admittance is CC-026 CC-026
(I) For a triangular prism, the sum of angle of
(1) ohm (2) mho prism and angle of minimum deviation is equal
(3) ohm metre (4) mho per metre to the sum of angle of emergence and
6. Consider the following LCR circuit connected to an incidence.
A.C. source E = 200sin(100t). The instantaneous (II) A graph between angle of incidence (at
current as a function of time can be given as abscissa) and angle of deviation (at ordinate)
for a triangular prism is parabolic in nature.
(1) Only (I) is correct
(2) Only (II) is correct
(3) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(4) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect
  11. A compound microscope is of magnifying power
(1) 2 2 sin 100t −  80. The magnifying power of its objective lens is
 4
16. The magnification of its eyepiece lens will be
 
(2) 2sin 100t +  (1) 5 (2) 4
 4
(3) 8 (4) 10
(3) 4sin (100t) 12. An object is kept at a distance of 10 cm in front of
2   a concave lens of focal length 20 cm. The distance
(4) sin 100t − 
2  4 of image from the lens will be
7. Which of the following is responsible for loss in a (1) 10 cm on the same side of object
transformer? (2) 20 cm on the opposite side of object
(1) Eddy currents 20
(3) cm on the same side of object
CC-026coupling of coils
(2) Inefficient CC-026 CC-026
3 CC-026
(3) Resistance of windings 10
(4) cm on the opposite side of object
(4) All of the above 3
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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-D)

13. An equiconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 and 17. The magnetic flux through a coil is varying
radius 20 cm. The focal length of the lens is according to the relation  = (5t3 + 4t2 + 2t – 5) Wb.
(1) 10 cm (2) 40 cm Calculate the induced current through the coil at
t = 2 s, if the resistance of the coil is 5 .
40
(3) cm (4) 20 cm (1) 7.8 A (2) 15.6 A
3
(3) 32.33 A (4) 61 A
14. The path difference between two wavefronts
emitted by coherent sources of wavelength 18. What inductance would be needed to store 1 kWh
6280 Å is 2 m. The phase difference between the of energy in a coil carrying a 200 A current?
wavefronts at that point is (1) 90 H (2) 180 H
(1) 2 radian (2) 20 radian (3) 45 H (4) 360 H
(3) 0.5 radian (4) 5 radian 19. In the given network, the equivalent inductance
CC-026 CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
between X and Y will be approximately (neglect
15. A beam of light consisting of two wavelength 6300
Å and  Å is used to obtain interference fringes in mutual inductance in circuit)
a Young’s double slit experiment. If 4th bright
fringe of 6300 Å coincides with 5th dark fringe of 
Å, the value of  (in Å) is
(1) 5200 (2) 4800
(3) 5600 (4) 6200
16. In YDSE, the source placed symmetrically with
(1) 15 H (2) 3.3 H
respect to the slit is now moved parallel to the
plane of the slits from point A to point B so that it (3) 4.4 H (4) 1.1 H
is closer to the upper slit, as shown, Then 20. Reading of voltmeter V shown in figure at
resonance is 400 V, then the quality factor of the
circuit is

(1) The fringe width will increase, and fringe

pattern will shift down
(2) The fringe width will remain same, but fringe
pattern will shift up
(1) 2
(3) The fringe width will decrease, and fringe
pattern will shift down (2) 4
CC-026 CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
(4) The fringe width will remain same, but fringe (3) 1
pattern will shift down (4) 3

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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

21. Current (i) in a circuit varies with time (t) as shown 26. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a
distant source falls on a single slit, 1 mm wide and
the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a
screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark
fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is
(1) 1.2 cm (2) 1.2 mm
(3) 2.4 cm (4) 2.4 mm
The rms value of current in time interval zero to T0
27. A thin lens is broken into four equal parts and
is
rearranged as shown. If the initial focal length was
i0 f, then after rearrangement the equivalent focal
(1) i0 (2)
3 length will be
2 3
(3) CC-026
i0 (4) i CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
3 20
22. A transformer
(1) Convert AC into DC
(2) Convert DC into AC f f
(1) (2)
(3) Is employed to obtain a suitable AC voltage 4 2
(4) Is employed to obtain a suitable DC voltage (3) 2f (4) 4f
23. In an AC circuit, voltage leads the current by 30°. 28. A fish inside water, looks upwards towards an
Then circuit can be unobstructed overcast sky. What total angle does
(1) Only LCR (2) Only LR the sky appear to subtend on fish? (Take

(3) Only CR (4) Both LCR or LR refractive index of water as 2)

24. Amplitude of magnetic field in a beam of (1) 180° (2) 90°
electromagnetic wave with intensity 3 Wm–2 (3) 75° (4) 60°
approximately is
29. A transparent sphere kept in air has its right half
(1) 1.6 × 10–9 T (2) 1.6 × 10–7 T polished so as to act as a mirror. A paraxial ray
(3) 1.6 × 10–8 T (4) 3.2 × 10–14 T incident from left, exits parallel to the incident ray
25. Two beams of light of intensities I1 and I2 interfere as shown. The refractive index μ of the material of
to give an interference pattern. If the ratio of the sphere is
maximum intensity to that of minimum intensity
25 I
is , then 1 is
9 I2
5 7
(1) (2)
3CC-026 3 CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
16 8 (1) 1.2 (2) 1.5
(3) (4)
1 3 (3) 1.8 (4) 2.0

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-D)

30. What is the relation between the refractive indices 34. Read the following statements and choose the
μ2, μ1 and μ3, if the behaviour of light rays is as correct option.
shown in figure? Statement A: An emf can be induced by moving
a conductor in a magnetic field.
Statement B: An emf can be induced in a coil by
changing the magnetic field, in which the coil is
lying.
(1) μ1 = μ2 = μ3 (2) μ1 > μ3 > μ2 (1) Both statements A and B are true
(3) μ3 > μ2 > μ1 (4) μ3 > μ1 > μ2 (2) Statements A is true but statements B is false
31. Which of the following has got dimensions of time (3) Statements B is true but statements A is false
(4) Both statements A and B are false
R L
(1) (2)
CCC-026 R CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
35. Which of the following quantity remain constant
when a light ray enters from air to glass?
1 (1) Wavelength (2) Frequency
(3) (4) Both (1) and (2)
LC (3) Velocity (4) Both (1) & (3)
32. The reading of hot wire ammeter in sinusoidal a.c. SECTION - B
circuit is 10 A. The peak value of current 36. Column I contains mathematical operation of few
(approximately) is quantities while column II contains the
corresponding proportional results. Match the
(1) 7 A (2) 10 A
columns by choosing the correct option (symbols
(3) 14 A (4) Insufficient data have usual meanings)
33. As shown in figure a uniform magnetic field B exist Column I Column II
in large space and a conducting rod AB is given a
A. d B P Magnetic flux
velocity v to the left. No friction is present between
rails and rod then
dt
B.
 B  ds Q Induced electric field

C. dB R Self Inductance
dt
D.  S Induced emf
dI
(1) Rod will move with constant velocity
dt
(2) Velocity of rod will decrease with time and will
(1) A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S)
finally become zero
CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
(2) A(S), B(P), C(Q), D(R) CC-026
(3) No current will be induced in the circuit
(3) A(S), B(Q), C(P), D(R)
(4) Direction of induced current will be clockwise (4) A(Q), B(P), C(S), D(R)

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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

37. Consider the following LR circuit, what is the 41. For a triangular prism with angle of prism is 60°
current in the circuit at steady state if inductive coil and refractive index 1.5, the angle of minimum
has inductance of 10 mH, while it offers a deviation will be
resistance of 10  as well? 3 3 
(1) 2sin−1   (2) 2sin−1   −
4  4 3
 3 
(3) (4) sin−1   −
6  2 6
42. An object O is placed infront of a refracting surface
(1) 1 A (2) 2 A having radius 10 cm and refractive index 1.5 as
shown in figure the position of image for object O
(3) 3 A (4) 4 A
will be
38. Indian electricity grid system works on a natural
CC-026
frequency CC-026
of 50 Hz. In an LCR circuit if inductance CC-026 CC-026
20
is mH then for driving it to resonance its

capacitive reactance should be
2
(1)  (2) 20 

20 (1) (4, 0) cm (2) (8, 0) cm
(3)  (4) 2 
 (3) (–4, 0) cm (4) (–6, 0) cm
39. The average power dissipated in the given circuit 43. Assertion (A): Interference obeys the law of
connected to an AC main of 50 Hz and carrying conservation of energy
current of 4 A, is Reason (R): The energy is redistributed in case of
interference.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(1) 160 W (2) 240 W (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) 400 W (4) 640 W (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
40. A plane electromagnetic wave having intensity 44. Two polaroid’s are oriented with their planes
8 × 103 W/m2 strikes a surface and is completely perpendicular to incident light and transmission
reflected in the same medium. If refractive index axis making an angle of 30° with each other. What
of that medium is 1.5 then radiation pressure fraction of incident unpolarized light is
CC-026
exerted CC-026
by the electro magnetic wave is CC-026
transmitted? CC-026
(1) 5.33 × 10–5 Pa (2) 2.66 × 10–5 Pa (1) 20% (2) 45%
(3) 4 × 10–5 Pa (4) 8 × 10–5 Pa (3) 37.5% (4) 75%
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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-D)

45. A coil has 2000 turns and area of 70 cm2.The (1) 5 A (2) 13 A
magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the
coil is 0.3 Wb/m2 and the coil takes 0.1 second to 19 17
(3) A (4) A
rotate through 180°. The value of the average 2 2
induced emf will be d E
48. The dimension of 0 is
(1) 4.2 V (2) 8.4 V dt
(3) 42 V (4) 84 V (1) [AT] (2) [A]
46. A current (i) carrying long wire and a conducting (3) [ML2T–2] (4) [ML–1T–2]
loop are in same plane as shown. If the current (i)
49. A convex mirror has focal length 50 cm in air. If it
in wire is increasing, then induced current in the
 4
loop is is submerged in water   =
3 
then its focal

CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
length now will be CC-026
(1) 45 cm (2) 50 cm
(3) 80 cm (4) 120 cm
50. S1 and S2 are the two coherent point sources of
light located in the x-y plane at point (0, 0), and (0,
6λ) respectively. Here λ is the wavelength of light.
(1) Anticlockwise At which one of the following point (given as
(2) Clockwise coordinates), the intensity of interference will be
(3) Zero maximum?
(4) First clockwise then anticlockwise (1) (4, 0) (2) (8, 0)
47. The effective value of current i = 2 sin 100t + 3  8 
(3)  , 0 (4) (2, 0)
sin(100t + 60°) is  3 

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 52. Ion present in brown ring complex is
51. Incorrect statement about nitric acid is (1) [Fe (H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe (H2O)5 (NO)]3+
(3) [Fe (H2O)5 NO] 2+ (4) [Fe (H2O)5 (SO4)]+
(1) It is formed by catalytic oxidation of NH3 by
atmospheric oxygen 53. Oxoacid of phosphorous which contains two
(2) Laboratory grade nitric acid contains ~ 68% of ‘P – OH’ bonds is
HNO3 by mass (1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO3
(3) Nitric acid on reaction with gold produces NO (3) H4P2O7 (4) H3PO4
asCC-026
one of the product CC-026 CC-026
54. Disproportionation CC-026
of Se2Cl2 gives
(4) Aluminium does not dissolve in conc. HNO3 (1) Se and SeCl2 (2) SeCl4 and SeCl2
due to formation of passive film of oxide on the
(3) SeCl4 and Se (4) Se and SeCl6
surface
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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

55. Select the acidic oxide among the following 61. Consider the following statements
(1) CrO3 (2) CrO (a) Many copper (I) compounds undergo
(3) NO (4) N2O disproportionation reaction in aqueous
56. Consider the following statements medium

(a) Rhombic sulphur is readily soluble in CS2 (b) E° of Cr3+/Cr2+ Couple has a positive value

(b) Rhombic sulphur is also called as -sulphur (c) Density of iron is greater than chromium

(c) -sulphur is stable below 369 K and The correct statements are
transforms into -sulphur above this (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
temperature (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
The correct statements are 62. Colourless ion among the following is
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
CC-026 CC-026 Ni2+
(1)CC-026 Ti4+
(2) CC-026
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
57. Which atomic or physical properties of halogens (3) Cu2+ (4) V3+
regularly decreases with increase in atomic 63. Incorrect match among the following is
number?
(1) Mn2O7: covalent green oil
(1) Covalent radius
3–
(2) Boiling point (2) V2O5: with alkalies gives VO4 ion
(3) Melting point –
(3) V2O4: with acids gives VO2 ion
(4) Standard reduction potential
(4) Na2CrO4: Yellow solution on acidification turns
58. Correct order of oxidizing power of dihalogens is
into orange colour
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (2) F2 > I2 > Br2 > Cl2
64. Most basic lanthanoid hydroxide among the
(3) F2 > I2 > Cl2 > Br2 (4) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 following is
59. Oxyacid of iodine which is least likely to exist
(1) Eu(OH)3 (2) Gd(OH)3
(1) HOI (2) HOIO
(3) Er(OH)3 (4) Yb(OH)3
(3) HOIO2 (4) HOIO3
65. Correct electronic configuration of Am (Americium,
60. Consider the following compounds
atomic no. 95) is
(1) [Rn] 6d1 7s2 (2) [Rn] 6d3
(3) [Rn] 5f 7 7s2 (4) [Rn] 5f 9 7s0
The correct order of rate of solvolysis of the given 66. Correct IUPAC name of [Ni(en)3]Cl2 is
compounds in 50% aqueous ethanol in
(1) Triethylenediaminenickel(II) chloride
CC-026
(1) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
CC-026 (2)CC-026 CC-026
Triethylenediaminenickel(II) chlorido
(2) (iii) > (i) > (ii) > (iv)
(3) Tris(ethane-1,2-diamine)nickel(II) dichlorido
(3) (iii) > (i) > (iv) > (ii)
(4) (i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii) (4) Tris(ethane-1,2-diamine)nickel(II) chloride

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-D)

67. Which complex is diamagnetic in nature? 73. Match the following

(1) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3 (2) [Cu(H2O)6]Cl2 List-I List-II
(3) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 (4) [Mn(H2O)6]Cl2 a. The metal which (i) Scandium
68. Crystal field stabilisation energy of complex reveals a maximum
[Mn(H2O)6]Cl2 is numbers of oxidation
states
(1) Zero (2) –1.20
b. The metal although (ii) Manganese
(3) –1.60 (4) –0.40
placed in 4d series but
69. Correct electronic configuration of central metal it is not considered as a
ion in [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 is transition element
(1) t62g eg2 (2) t52g e3g c. The transition metal (iii) Cadmium
CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
which does not exhibit CC-026
(3) t62 e2 (4) t52 e3 variable oxidation states
70. An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of a d. The d-block element (iv) Zinc
0.02 M solution of dichloridotetraaquachromium which shows only +2
(III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl oxidation state
precipitated would be
Select the correct option.
(1) 0.004 mol (2) 0.002 mol
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) 0.0002 mol (4) 0.02 mol
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
71. Given below are the two statements
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
Statement-I: (Ph3P)3RhCl is a Wilkinson catalyst.
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Statement-II: Wilkinson catalyst is used in the
74. Given below are the two statements
treatment of lead poisoning.
Statement I: SN2 reactions of optically active
In the light of above statements, choose the most
halides are accompanied by inversion of
appropriate answer from the options given below. configuration.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Statement II: In case of optically active alkyl
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are halides, SN1 reactions are accompanied by
incorrect racemisation.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is In the light of above statements, choose the most
incorrect appropriate answer from the options given below.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
correct incorrect
72. Which one of the following exhibit optical (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
CC-026 CC-026
isomerism (en-ethylene diamine)?
CC-026
correct CC-026
(1) cis-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (2) [Ni(CO)4] (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (4) trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

75. Alkyl iodide are generally prepared by 81. Phenylmagnesium bromide on reaction with D2O,
(1) Swarts reaction (2) Sandmeyer reaction gives
(3) Gatterman reaction (4) Finkelstein reaction
76. Terminal gem dihalides on hydrolysis gives
(1) Ketones (2) Aldehydes (1) (2)
(3) Carboxylic acids (4) Halohydrins
77. Correct order of negative hydration enthalpy of the
given ions is
(1) Co2+ > Cu2+ > V2+ > Fe2+ (3) (4)
(2) Cu2+ > Co2+ > Fe2+ > V2+
(3) V2+ > Fe2+ > Co2+ > Cu2+
(4) CuCC-026
2+ > Co2+ > V2+ > Fe2+ CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
82. Which among the following will react fastest with
78. Chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in the AgNO3?
presence of light to an extremely poisonous gas A.
A is
(1) CCl4 (2) COCl2
(1) (2)
(3) CH3CHCl2 (4) CCl3CHO
79. Which among the following is an optically active
molecule? (3) (4)
(1) CH2 = C = C = CH – Br
83. Most suitable reagent for conversion of alcohol
(2) ClCH = C = CHCl into corresponding alkyl halide is
(3) Cl2C = C = CHCl
(1) SOCl2 (2) PCl3
(4) Cl2C = C = C = CCl2
(3) PCl5 (4) HCl/ZnCl2
80. The major product (Q) in the following reaction is
84. Consider the following statements
(a) Cyanocobalamine (vitamin B12) is a
coordination compound of cobalt
(b) [CoF6]3– is a spin free complex
(c) In [Mn(CN)6]3– the central metal ion is sp3d2
(1) (2) hybridised.
The correct statement are
(1) (a) and (b) only
CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
(2) (a) and (c) only
CC-026
(3) (4)
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-D)

85. Match the ions in List-I with their calculated Choose the correct answer from the options given
magnetic moment value in List-II. below.
List-I List-II (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(a) Sc3+ (i) 5.92 BM
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(b) Ti2+ (ii) 0 BM (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(c) Mn2+ (iii) 2.83 BM 89. For which of the following pairs standard heat of
formation is positive?
(d) Cr2+ (iv) 4.90 BM
(1) H2O and H2S (2) H2O and H2Se
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) H2Se and H2Te (4) H2S and H2Se
below. 90. Bronze is an alloy of
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
CC-026 CC-026 (1)CC-026
Cu and Zn CC-026
(2) Cu and W
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (3) Cu and Sn (4) Cu and Ni
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) 91. Which of the following is an outer orbital complex?
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (1) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (2) [Fe(CN)6]4–
SECTION-B (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Mn(CN)6]4–
86. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the 92. Given below are the two statements, one is
complex [Ni(CO)4] are labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
(1) Square planar and diamagnetic Reason (R)
(2) Tetrahedral and diamagnetic Assertion (A): H2S is more acidic in nature than
(3) Tetrahedral and paramagnetic H2O
(4) Square planar and paramagnetic Reason (R): Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2S is
greater than H2O.
87. Copper on reaction with dilute nitric acid produces
which gas? In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer
(1) N2 (2) N2O
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(3) NO2 (4) NO
(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
88. Match the underlined atom of compounds given in
List-I with their oxidation state in given List-II. (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
List-I List-II (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(a) H4 P2O5 (i) +1 correct explanation of (A)
93. The correct order of ligand field strength of the
(b) H4 P2O6 (ii) +3 given ligands is
(1) H2O < Cl– < en < CO
CC-026 CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
(c) H3 PO2 (iii) +4 (2) Cl– < H2O < en < CO
(3) H2O < en < CO < Cl–
(d) H4 P2O7 (iv) +5
(4) Cl– < en < H2O < CO

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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

94. Consider the following statements 97. Total number of optically active isomers of 2, 3-
(i) Copper does not liberate hydrogen on Dibromopentane is
reaction with dilute H2SO4 (1) 2 (2) 4
(ii) Metallic radius of titanium is greater than (3) 1 (4) 6
vanadium
98. Correct order of boiling point of the given
(iii) Ni(CO)4 is an organometallic compound compounds is
The correct statements are (1) HF > HI > HBr > HCl
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(2) HF > HCI > HI > HBr
(3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) HI > HF > HBr > HCl
95. The given reaction is an example of
(4) HF > HCI > HBr > Hl
99. The total number of isomers that can be obtained
CC-026 CC-026 CC-026 stereoisomers) on
(including CC-026
dibromination of
propane is
(1) Kolbe’s reaction
(1) 8 (2) 4
(2) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
(3) Sandmeyer's Reaction (3) 6 (4) 5
(4) Wurtz reaction 100. The compound (B) in the given reaction
96. Consider the following reaction sequence is

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
HBr
(C H CO) O
→ A ⎯⎯⎯→
AgCN
B (major)
6 5 2 2

The reaction will be fastest in which solvent?

(1) Acetone (1) (2)
(2) DMSO
(3) Ethanol (3) (4)
(4) N,N-Dimethylformamide

BOTANY
SECTION-A A. Cytosine and thymine are common in both
101. The last step of DNA fingerprinting is DNA and RNA.
(1) Electrophoresis B. Lambda phage has 5386 nucleotides
C. Along with nucleus, DNA is also found in
(2) Hybridisation using probe
mitochondria and chloroplast.
(3) Autoradiography
CC-026 CC-026 D.CC-026 CC-026 chain is
The backbone of polynucleotide
(4) Blotting formed due to sugar and phosphates.
102. Consider the following statements and choose the (1) A and B (2) C and D
option which includes correct ones. (3) A and C (4) B and D

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-D)

103. Which among the following enzyme facilitates the 108. Select the correct statement among the following.
opening of DNA helix during transcription? (1) In capping, an unusual nucleotide is added to
(1) DNA helicase (2) DNA ligase 3 end of hnRNA
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA polymerase (2) In prokaryotes, the transcription and
104. Who gave the term ‘Nuclein’ for the acidic translation can be coupled
substance present in nucleus? (3) Prokaryotic cells have only three types of RNA
(1) T.H. Morgan (2) Maurice Wilkins polymerases
(4) During tailing of hnRNA, adenylated residues
(3) Rosalind Franklin (4) Friedrich Meischer
are added at 3 end in template dependent
105. During transcription in prokaryotes, the core
manner
enzyme of RNA polymerase is capable of
109. The genes in eukaryotes are said to be split as
catalysing the process of
they have
CC-026
(a) Initiation CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
(1) Non-functional exons only
(b) Elongation
(2) Mature mRNA containing both exons and
(c) Termination introns
Choose the correct one(s). (3) Interrupted coding sequences
(1) (b) only (2) (a) and (b) only (4) Functional introns only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (c) only 110. Match the column I with column II and choose the
106. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
correct option. Column I Column II
Statement A: Genetic code is degenerate and a. lac y gene (i) It encodes
non-overlapping. transacetylase.
Statement B: Marshall Nirenberg’s cell free
b. lac z gene (ii) It codes enzyme which
system for protein synthesis helped the genetic
is primarily responsible
code to be deciphered.
for hydrolysis of
(1) Only statement A is correct disaccharide (lactose)
(2) Only statement B is correct
c. lac i gene (iii) It codes for an enzyme
(3) Both statements A and B are correct that increases
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect permeability of the cell
107. Histones are to -galactosides

(1) Responsible for DNA packaging in d. lac a gene (iv) It codes for repressor
prokaryotes
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
CC-026 charged proteins CC-026
(2) Negatively CC-026 CC-026
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Rich in basic amino acids residues
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Synthesized in nucleoid region
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

111. Select the incorrect statement about RNA (3) Affected individual has short stature
polymerase. (4) It does not follow Mendelian inheritance and
(1) It binds to promotor site of DNA segment to thus cannot be shown via pedigree chart
start transcription 116. In ABO blood grouping
(2) It uses nucleoside triphosphates as substrates (1) Allele IA and IB do not produce any sugar
(3) It polymerises RNA in template dependent (2) Allele i produces a slightly different form of
fashion sugar
(3) A total of four different genotypes are formed
(4) It is involved in elongation of RNA not in the
opening of DNA helix during transcription (4) Individuals with AB blood group will never
have allele i
112. In below flow chart, which step is found in some
117. In a clinical diagnosis a female ‘A’ was identified
RNA viruses only?
with absence of secondary sexual characters and
has rudimentary ovaries. Which of the given
CC-026 CC-026 CC-026 can be true for theCC-026
statements female ‘A’?
(1) The chromosome complement of the female
(1) D (2) A cannot be 44 + XO
(3) B (4) C (2) The female is suffering from a sex linked
113. The very fine X-ray diffraction data of DNA was recessive disorder
produced by (3) Mother of this female may be producing
(1) J. Watson and F. Crick abnormal egg (22 + O) and father producing
normal sperm (22 + X)
(2) E. Chargaff
(4) This female should pass this disorder to her
(3) M. Wilkins and R. Franklin daughters
(4) F. Meischer 118. A pedigree chart is given below. Identify incorrect
114. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. law of option regarding this pedigree.
segregation.
(1) The law is based on the fact that two factors of
a character do not show any blending
(2) Both the traits are recovered as such in F 2
generation
(3) Gamete receives both the factors of a
character during gamete formation
(4) Heterozygous individual produces two kinds of
gametes each having one factor with equal
(1) This pedigree can be applicable for myotonic
proportion
dystrophy
115. Which of the given is not true for Down’s (2) Above pedigree shows genetic disorder like
syndrome? thalassemia
CC-026
(1) Occurs CC-026of
due to non-disjunction two (3)CC-026 CC-026
Male I c can be carrier if the trait is considered
chromosomes of a homologous pair for colour-blindness
(2) Affected individual has only one copy of (4) This pedigree is not applicable for Y linked
chromosome 21 disorders

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-D)

119. Mark the incorrect ratio w.r.t. genetic crosses. A B C

(1) Monohybrid phenotypic ratio- 3 : 1 (1) T T T
(2) Dihybrid genotypic ratio- (2) F T T
1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 (3) T F F
(3) Monohybrid genotypic ratio- 1 : 2 : 1
(4) F F T
(4) Incomplete dominance phenotypic ratio-
123. Read the following statements w.r.t. chromosomal
1:1:1
aberrations.
120. In a family, father is of B blood group and mother
a. Alteration of chromosome structure result in
is of A blood group. If their children show 50%
chromosomal aberration
probability of AB blood group, it indicates that
(1) Both father and mother are homozygous b. Loss or gain of DNA segment due to deletion
or insertion results in chromosomal
(2) Both mother and father are heterozygous
CC-026
(3) Either CC-026
of the parent is heterozygous CC-026
aberrations CC-026
c. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly
(4) Mother has a genotype IO IO and father has
observed in cancer cells
genotype IA IB
Among above statements, choose the correct set
121. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
of statements.
and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): In sickle cell anaemia, the shape (1) Only a and b (2) Only b and c
of RBC changes from biconcave disc to elongated (3) Only a and c (4) All a, b, c
sickle like structure. 124. The phenomenon in which a single gene can
Reason (R): The mutant haemoglobin molecule exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions is called
undergoes polymerization under low oxygen (1) Polygenic inheritance
tension causing the change in shape of RBC. (2) Polymorphism
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (3) Pleiotropy
explanation of (A)
(4) Codominance
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) 125. Colourblindness occurs in about A percent of
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false males and only about B percent of females.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false statements
Choose the correct option for A and B
122. Mark true (T) or false (F) for the statements given
respectively
below and select the correct option.
(1) 8 ; 4 (2) 4 ; 0.4
A. Both starch synthesis and seed shape in pea
seeds are controlled by single gene (3) 8 ; 0.4 (4) 10 ; 10
B. Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a 126. Which among the following helps in converting
CC-026
gene CC-026 CC-026
milk to curd and also improvesCC-026
its nutritional quality
C. In Drosophila white eye mutation leads to by increasing vitamin B12?
depigmentation in many other parts of the (1) Lactic acid bacteria (2) Yeast
body (3) Streptococcus (4) Aspergillus

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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

127. For the given statements, choose the correct 132. Which of the following statements is wrong?
option. (1) Members of the genus Glomus form
Statement-A: Brewer’s yeast is used for mycorrhiza.
fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices to (2) Organic farming is raising of crops through the
produce methanol. use of fungi only.
Statement-B: Wine and beer are produced by (3) Rhizobium fixes atmospheric nitrogen into
distillation of the fermented broth. organic forms, which is used by plants.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (4) In mycorrhiza, the fungal symbiont absorbs
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect phosphorus from the soil and passes it to the
plant.
(3) Only statement A is correct
133. Which of the following enzymes(s) is/are used in
(4) Only statement B is correct detergent formulations and helps in removing oily
128. Which statement is true for Bt-cotton? stains from laundry?
CC-026
(1) Bt-toxin genes are present in CC-026
the crop a.CC-026
Pectinases CC-026
(2) It is a wild variety of cotton b. Lipases
(3) Useful to get rid of aphids and mosquitoes c. Proteases
(4) Plants are sensitive to insect larvae d. Amylase
(1) Only a and d
129. All of the following features regarding
Nucleopolyhedrovirus are correct, except (2) Only a, b and c
(1) Species-specific (3) Only b
(4) Only b and c
(2) Broad spectrum insecticidal application
134. Citric acid is produced commercially by
(3) Have no negative impacts on plants
(1) Aspergillus niger
(4) No negative impacts on non-target insects
(2) Clostridium butylicum
130. Trichoderma
(3) Acetobacter aceti
(1) Is free living fungus (4) Methanogens
(2) Are effective against several insect pests 135. BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the
(3) Is used in production of statin amount of
(4) Are used to produce biogas (1) Biodegradable organic matter
131. Choose the correctly matched pair. (2) Oxygen evolution
(3) Total inorganic matter
Column-I Column-II
(4) CO2 consumption by microbes
(Food/Drink) (Microbes used in
preparation) SECTION-B
136. ATGCATTAGCTA is a sequence from the coding
(1) Dosa and Idli – Propionibacterium strand of a gene. What will be the sequence of the
(2) Bread – Baker’s yeast transcribed mRNA?
CC-026 CC-026 (1)CC-026
UAGCUAAUGCAU CC-026
(3) Swiss – Lactobacillus
(2) TACGTAATCGAT
cheese
(3) AUGCAUUAGCUA
(4) Toddy – Penicillium (4) TUGCTUUTGCAU

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-D)

137. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. lac operon. 142. Linkage
(1) Promotor gene – Possess site for (1) Term was coined by Sutton and Boveri
RNA polymerase (2) Describes the generation of nonparental gene
binding combinations
(2) Regulator gene – Functional in the
(3) Refers to physical association of genes
presence of lactose
present on same chromosomes
only
(4) Is 100% in genes located on different
(3) Structural gene – Transcribes mRNA
Chromosomes
for polypeptide
synthesis 143. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
(4) Operator gene – Interact with a theory of inheritance was carried by
regulatory molecule (1) Sutton and Boveri
138. Through which linkage/bond two nucleotides are (2) T.H. Morgan
linkedCC-026
to form dinucleotide? CC-026 (3)CC-026
Alfred Sturtevant CC-026
(1) Phosphoester linkage (4) Henking
(2) Glycosidic linkage 144. In pedigree analysis, the symbol for affected male
(3) Hydrogen bond is
(4) Phosphodiester linkage
(1) (2)
139. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: Severo Ochoa enzyme is
(3) (4)
polynucleotide phosphorylase.
Statement II: Polynucleotide phosphorylase 145. XO type of sex-determination in which the males
polymerises RNA with defined sequence in a have only one X-chromosome besides the
template independent manner. autosomes whereas females have a pair of X-
In the light of above statements, choose the chromosomes is shown by
correct answer from the options given below. (1) Grasshopper (2) Drosophila
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(3) Humans (4) Honey bees
correct
146. Which one of the following genotypes can produce
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
only eight different types of gametes?
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(1) AaBbcc (2) AaBbccDd
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect (3) AaBbCcDd (4) AABBccdd
140. If in a double stranded DNA molecule, the 147. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. lPM.
percentage of adenine is 10%, then what will be (1) It is integration of tactics for control of single
the percentage of cytosine? pest on one or more crops
(1) 40% (2) 60% (2) Maintains situation in which insects are
(3) 20% (4) 10% prevented from causing significant damage to
CC-026
141. Which of the following eukaryotic CC-026
rRNAs is not CC-026
crops CC-026
transcribed by RNA polymerase I? (3) It includes use of pest resistant or tolerant
(1) 28S rRNA (2) 5S rRNA varieties
(3) 18S rRNA (4) 5.8S rRNA (4) It does not include predators and pathogens

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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

148. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. antibiotics. Reason (R): DNA from every tissue from an
(1) Full potential of penicillin as an effective individual show the same degree of polymorphism.
antibiotic was established by Ernst Chain and In the light of above statements, choose the
Howard Florey correct option
(2) Penicillin was widely used in World War I to (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
treat American soldiers explanation of (A)
(3) Alexander Fleming discovered first antibiotic (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
from a fungal source correct explanation of (A)
(4) Antibiotic means against life in the context of (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
disease-causing organisms
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
149. Read the statements and select the correct
option. 150. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixing
bacterium?
Assertion (A): DNA fingerprinting is well known
for its CC-026 CC-026
application in paternity-maternity disputes (1)CC-026
Rhizobium (2) CC-026
Azotobacter
and criminal identifications. (3) Azospirillum (4) Glomus

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A (3) Defective embryo within the uterus
151. The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become (4) Embryo in the uterus at blastocyst stage
interdigitated with each other and jointly form a
153. Consider the given statements.
structure called ‘X’. Choose the incorrect
statement w.r.t ‘X’. A. There is a gradual decrease in secretions of
gonadotropins.
(1) The ‘X’ is connected to the embryo through the
umbilical cord which helps in the transport of B. There is increase in secretion of hormone
substances to and from the embryo. produced from corpus luteum.
(2) It acts as an endocrine tissue and produces The above given statements are true for which
several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, phase of menstrual cycle in human females?
progestogens, thyroxine and cortisol. (1) Follicular phase
(3) ‘X’ facilitates the supply of oxygen and (2) Ovulatory phase
nutrients to the embryo.
(3) Luteal phase
(4) It helps in removal of carbon dioxide and
excretory/waste materials produced by the (4) Menstrual phase
embryo. 154. Assertion (A): When estrogen secretion by the
152. A female went to the gynaecologist after she follicles begins to rise steeply, the FSH and LH
missed her two consecutive menstrual cycles. levels increase markedly.
After diagnosis, doctor told that this is a case of
ectopic pregnancy with her. She asked the doctor Reason (R): During follicular phase of uterine
more details about it and doctor explained that in cycle, there is significant decrease in the secretion
CC-026 CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
ectopic pregnancy there is implantation of of GnRH as well as estrogens.
(1) Embryo in the uterus at morula stage In the light of above statements, select the correct
(2) Embryo at the site other than uterus option.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-D)

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 158. A person observed fluid discharge and felt slight
explanation of (A) pain in his genital region. He went to the doctor for
checkup and after diagnosis, it was found that he
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the is suffering from a viral STI which cannot be
correct explanation of (A) completely cured even if treated properly. Identify
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false the STI and select the correct option.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (1) Syphilis (2) Genital warts
(3) Genital herpes (4) Gonorrhoea
155. Read the given statements and choose the
correct option. 159. One could be free of venereal diseases by
following all of the given principles, except
Statement A: The entry of sperm into the
(1) Avoid sex with unknown partners
cytoplasm of the ovum induces the completion of
(2) In case of doubt, one should go to a qualified
the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte.
doctor for early detection
CC-026
Statement CC-026
B: The second meiotic division is (3)CC-026
Always try to use cervicalCC-026
caps during coitus.
unequal and results in the formation of a second
(4) Avoid sex with multiple partners
polar body and ootid.
160. Choose the odd one w.r.t techniques that involve
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct in-vitro fertilization.
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect (1) ZIFT (2) ICSI
(3) Only statement (A) is correct (3) IUT (4) IUI
(4) Only statement (B) is correct 161. Industrial melanism and Darwin’s finches of
Galapagos Island are classic examples of the
156. How many of the feature(s) given below is/are true phenomenon named ‘P’. Identify ‘P’ and select the
for ‘Saheli’? incorrect statement w.r.t it.
a. Developed at CDRI, Lucknow, India (1) It is known to affect Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium.
b. Contains similar chemical compound as that
present in implants (2) It is a process in which heritable variations
enabling better survival are enabled to
c. ‘Once a week pill’ reproduce and leave greater number of
d. Effective period is much longer than injections progeny.
Select the correct option. (3) It can lead to stabilisation, directional change
or disruption.
(1) One (2) Two
(4) It is always random and directionless that
(3) Three (4) Four causes evolution
157. Choose the odd one w.r.t. barriers that are 162. Mammals were descendants of ______ while
reusable and prevent conception. ancestors of sauropsids were ______. Select the
option that correctly fill the blanks respectively.
(1) Vault
(1) Thecodonts, Synapsids
CC-026
(2) Diaphragm CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
(2) Therapsids, Early reptiles
(3) Cervical cap (3) Pelycosaurs, Synapsids
(4) Condom (4) Thecodonts, Early reptiles

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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

163. When heart of fish and reptile were analysed, it 168. During labor, _______ causes strong uterine
was observed that contractions, which is produced by the _______ in
(1) Both represent homology and indicates the human body.
common ancestry Select the option that correctly fill the blanks
(2) Both represent analogy which is a result of respectively.
divergent evolution
(1) Prolactin, Adenohypophysis
(3) Both represent homology which is a result of
convergent evolution (2) Oxytocin, Hypothalamus
(4) Both represent analogy which is a result of (3) Estrogen, Graafian follicle
convergent evolution (4) Progesterone, Neurohypophysis
164. Choose the carnivore dinosaur among the 169. How many of the structures given below in the box
following characterized by bipedal locomotion.
are human male accessory ducts?
(1) Triceratops (2) Pteranodon
CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
Rete CC-026
testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas
(3) Tyrannosaurus (4) Brachiosaurus
deferens, seminiferous tubules, testicular lobules
165. If, on average, 36% of the loci in a species gene
pool are heterozygous, then the average Select the correct option.
homozygosity of the species should be
(1) Four (2) Five
(1) 64% (2) 36%
(3) Six (4) Three
(3) 86% (4) 74%
166. A pregnant woman went to a gynaecologist for her 170. Our population was approximately A at the
regular checkup. Doctor did ultrasound and time of our independence which reached close to
observed eyelashes and separation of eyelids in B mark by 2000 and crossed C in May
foetus. The pregnant woman went to doctor in/by
the 2011.
(1) 1st month of pregnancy Select the correct option to fill the blanks A, B and
C respectively.
(2) End of second trimester
(3) 5th month of pregnancy (1) 350 million, 1 billion and 1.2 billion
(4) End of first trimester (2) 3 million, 7 million and 8 million
167. Choose the incorrect statement. (3) 200 million, 600 million and 720 million
(1) Mammary glands differentiate during (4) 300 million, 700 million and 800 million
pregnancy and secrete milk after child birth. 171. Given below are certain diseases/defects.
(2) The milk produced during the initial few days
a. Jaundice b. Cleft palate
of lactation is called colostrum which lacks
antibodies. c. Haemophilia d. SCID
(3) Breast-feeding during the initial period of e. Down’s syndrome f. Sickle cell anemia
infant growth is recommended by doctors for How many of the diseases/defects given above
CC-026
bringing up a healthy baby. CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
can be detected by amniocentesis?
(4) Baby suck out the milk through lactiferous
ducts which are connected to mammary (1) Six (2) Four
ampulla. (3) Five (4) Three

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-D)

172. Read the given statements and select the correct 177. Which of the following represents external
option. genitalia of a human female?
Statement A: During post industrialisation period, (1) Labia majora, labia minora, oviduct
the tree trunks became dark due to industrial
(2) Labia minora, breasts, cervix
smoke and soots.
(3) Clitoris, labia majora, womb
Statement B: After industrialization, there was
evolution of white-winged moths that were able to (4) Labia majora, labia minora, clitoris
camouflage themselves better. 178. Organism which was believed to be extinct but
(1) Both statements A and B are correct was caught in 1938 in South Africa was
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (1) Rana
(3) Only statement A is correct (2) Coelacanth
CC-026
(4) Only statement B is correct CC-026 (3)CC-026
Flying squirrel CC-026
173. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct (4) Flying phalanger
option.
179. Probable reasons for population explosion is rapid
Tubectomy : Oviduct : : Vasectomy : _______ decline in all of the following, except
(1) Vasa efferentia (1) Number of people in reproducible age
(2) Vas deferens
(2) Maternal mortality rate
(3) Epididymis
(3) Infant mortality rate
(4) Seminal vesicles
(4) Death rate
174. A tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper
junction of the two labia minora in human females 180. Combination of which of the following set of
is hormones can be used by females as implants
under the skin for birth control?
(1) Hymen (2) Urethral opening
(1) Oxytocin and progestogen
(3) Clitoris (4) Mons pubis
(2) Relaxin and estrogen
175. During the course of evolution, the first mammals
on Earth were like (3) Estrogen and oxytocin
(1) Horse (2) Elephant (4) Progestogen and estrogen
(3) Shrews (4) Dinosaurs 181. Louis Pasteur’s view for the origin of life on Earth
176. In the test tube baby programme, embryo with is that
upto eight blastomeres is transferred into (1) Life originated within six days
(1) Uterus (2) Life originated from pre-existing life
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(2) Fallopian tube CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
(3) Life originated spontaneously from non-living
(3) Vagina substances/matter
(4) Cervical canal (4) Life came from other planets

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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

182. Bryophytes and tracheophytes have possibly 187. A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg
evolved from common ancestor(s) named equilibrium if
(1) Chlorophyte ancestors (1) Selective mating is present
(2) Progymnosperms (2) Recombination will not occur
(3) Rhynia-type plants (3) Gene migration does not take place
(4) Psilophyton (4) There are no mutations
183. In human males, spermatogonia are present on 188. Choose the option with correct match between
the inside wall of Column I and Column II.
(1) Rete testis
Column I Column II
(2) Vasa efferentia
a. Neanderthal man (i) Fossils dated
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(3) Epididymis CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
back to 15 mya
(4) Seminiferous tubules
184. The embryological support for evolution proposed b. Dryopithecus (ii) Probably lived in
by Ernst Haeckel was disapproved on careful East African
study performed by grasslands

(1) Louis Pasteur c. Homo sapiens (iii) Lived in near

(2) Karl Ernst von Baer East and Central
Asia between
(3) S.L. Miller
1,00,000-40,000
(4) Hugo de Vries years back
185. On Galapagos Islands, ______ finches were the
ancestral finches from which the other finches d. Australopithecus (iv) Arose between
evolved. 75,000-10,000
years ago
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
(1) Insect eating (2) Fruit eating (1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

(3) Cactus eating (4) Seed eating (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
SECTION-B (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
186. Select the odd one w.r.t. Darwinism. (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) The fitness, refers ultimately and only to 189. In human females the three phases of the uterine
reproductive fitness cycle within uterus in correct order are
(2) Successful organisms have a low rate of (1) Menstrual  Luteal  Ovulatory
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reproduction CC-026 (2)CC-026
Menstrual  ProliferativeCC-026
 Secretory
(3) Struggle for existence
(3) Follicular  Ovulatory  Luteal
(4) Adaptive ability is inherited and has genetic
basis (4) Ovulatory  Luteal  Proliferative

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Final Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-D)

190. How many primary follicles are left in each ovary 195. All of the following are natural methods of
at puberty in a normal human female? contraception, except
(1) 60 – 80 (1) Periodic abstinence
(2) 6000 – 8000 (2) Withdrawal method
(3) 600 – 800 (3) Coitus interruptus
(4) 60,000 – 80,000 (4) Lippes loop
191. Fossils are most abundantly found in which type of 196. Intra Uterine Device does not suppress
rocks? (1) Spermatogenesis
(1) Metamorphic (2) Implantation of blastocyst
(2) Igneous (3) Fertilizing capacity of sperm
(3) Sedimentary
CC-026 CC-026 (4)CC-026
Sperm motility CC-026
(4) Volcanic 197. Which of the following is true for vasectomy?
192. Comprehend the given statements and select the (1) Sperm production decreases
correct option.
(2) Degeneration of testes
Statement A: The ovulatory phase is followed by
(3) Loss of sexual desire
luteal phase.
(4) It blocks gamete transport and thereby
Statement B: The levels of progesterone exceed
prevents conception
the levels of oestrogen in follicular phase.
198. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) The most successful story is the evolution of
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
man with language skills and self
(3) Only statement A is correct consciousness.
(4) Only statement B is correct (2) Study of comparative anatomy and
193. Choose the correct set of haploid cells. biochemistry provides evidence for evolution.
(1) Spermatogonia and spermatozoa (3) Earth was supposed to have been formed
(2) Primary oocytes and spermatids about 450 million years ago.
(3) Secondary oocytes and spermatids (4) Life appeared 500 millions years after the
(4) Oogonia and secondary spermatocytes formation of Earth.

194. Select the correct option w.r.t. middle layer of 199. Assertion (A): In humans, testes are situated
uterine wall in human females. outside the abdominal cavity within the scrotum.

(1) Glandular in nature Reason (R): The scrotum helps in maintaining the
low temperature of the testes (2-2.5°C lower than
(2) Undergoes contractions during parturition
CC-026 CC-026 CC-026
the CC-026
internal body temperature) necessary for
(3) Made up of striated, branched muscle fibres spermatogenesis.
(4) Sheds off due to sudden fall in progesterone In the light of above statements, select the correct
levels option.
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Test-5 (Code-D) Final Test Series for NEET-2024

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 200. Complete the analogy w.r.t. convergent evolution.
explanation of (A) Lemur : Spotted cuscus : : Anteater :____
Choose the correct option.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(1) Marsupial mole
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Bobcat
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false (3) Numbat
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (4) Tasmanian tiger cat

❑ ❑ ❑

CC-026 CC-026 CC-026 CC-026

CC-026 CC-026 CC-026 CC-026

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