MHT CET 2021 Paper II

Physics
Question 1
Two cars A and B are travelling in the same direction with velocities vA
and vB(vA > vB). When the car is at a distance s behind car B, then the
drives of the car A applies the brakes producing a uniform retardation
a, there will be no collision when

Options:

vA − V B
A. s ≤ 2

(vA − vB)2
B. s ≤ 2a

2
C. s ≤ (vA − vB)

2
(vA − vB)
D. s = a

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) For no collision, the speed of car A should be reduced to vB before the cars meet, i.e. final relative velocity of car A
with respect to car B is zero, i.e.
v relative = 0
Here, initial relative velocity, ur = vA − vB
Relative acceleration, ar = −a − 0 = −a
Let relative displacement be sr.
Thus, from third equation of motion, we get
2 2 2
v relative = ur + 2arsr = (vA − vB) − 2asr
2
(vA − vB)
⇒ sr =
2a
For no collision, s ≤ sr
2
(vA − vB)
i.e., s ≤
2a

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Question 2
A point moves along X -axis initially at rest. Its acceleration is
a = (6t + 5)m ∕ s2. The distance covered in 2s, if it starts from origin is
given by

©
Options:

A. 6m

B. 12m

C. 16m

D. 18m

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) Given , acceleration, a = (6t + 5)m ∕ s2
dv
a= = 6t + 5
dt
⇒ d v = (6t + 5)d t
⇒ ∫ d v = ∫ (6t + 5)d t
⇒ v = 3t2 + 5t + c
where, c is constant of integration.
When t = 0, v = 0, so c = 0
Therefore, v = 3t2 + 5t
⇒ d s = (3t2 + 5t)d t ∵v =
ds
dt [ ]
From 0 to 2s, we have
s 2
∫ d s = ∫ (3t2 + 5t)d t
0 0

(t )
5 2 2
3
s = + t = 8 + 10 = 18m
2 0

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Question 3
A ball released from the top of a tower falls 1136
of the height of the tower
in the last second of its fall. The height of the tower is

Options:

A. 180m

B. 120m

C. 140m

D. 110m

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) The distance travelled in nth second is given by
1
s = u + a(2n − 1)
2
g
s = (2n − 1) [ here , u = 0, a = g]
2
According to the question,
11 9.8
h= (2n − 1) ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
36 2
From second equation of motion,
1
h = gn2
2
[∵u = 0]... (ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
11 9.8 9.8
× × n2 = (2n − 1) [here, g = 9.8m ∕ s2 ]
36 2 2
11 2
⇒ 2n − 1 = n
36
⇒ 11n2 − 72n + 36 = 0
⇒ 11n2 − 66n − 6n + 36 = 0
⇒ 11n(n − 6) − 6(n − 6) = 0
⇒ n=6
(rejecting fractional values).
1
Therefore, h = × 10 × 6 × 6 = 180m
2

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Question 4
A person throws a ball with speed 10m ∕ s at an angle of 30∘ with
horizontal from the top of 10m high tower. The distance of ball from the
foot of the tower after falling on the ground will be

Options:

A. 7m

B. 8.6m

C. 9.6m

D. 10m

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:

The ball will be at a point P when it is at a height of 10m from the ground. So, we have to find the distance OP, which can
be calculated directly by considering it as a projectile on a levelled plane OX .
u2 sin 2 θ
Therefore, maximum range, OP = R =
g
102 × sin(2 × 30∘) 10√3
= = = 5√3 = 86m
10 2
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Question 5
10
A 1kg mass is tied to a light inextensible string of length I = 3
m, is
wheeled in circular path of radius 1ms in a vertical plane. The ratio of
maximum to the minimum tension in the string is 4 . The speed of stone
at the highest point of circle is

Options:

A. 5m ∕ s

B. 10m ∕ s

C. 15m ∕ s

D. 20m ∕ s

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) The maximum tension in the string will be at lowest point i.e.,
2
mv1
T max = + mg
I
and minimum tension in the string will be the highest point
mv22
i.e., T min = − mg
I
mv12
T max + mg
I
Therefore, = 2
=4
T min mv2
− mg
I
2
v1 + gl
⇒ = 4 ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
v22 − gl
As we know, v12 = v22 + 4gl ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (ii)
So from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
v22 + 4gl + gl = 4v22 − 4gl
⇒ 3v22 = 9gl
10
v22 = 3gl = 3 × 10×
3
2
⇒ v2 = 100 ⇒ v2 = 10m ∕ s

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Question 6
The spheres of masses 2kg and 4kg are situated at the opposite end
wooden bar of length 9m. Where does centre of mass of the system will

Options:

A. 6m from 2kg sphere

B. 2m from 4kg sphere

C. 3m from 2kg sphere

D. 6m from 4kg sphere

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) Let 2kg mass be placed at x = 0, therefore 4kg mass will be situated at x = 9.
Therefore,
m1x1 + m2x2
xCOM =
m1 + m2
0+4×9 36
= = = 6m
2+4 6
Thus, centre of mass will be situated at 6m from 2 kg mass.

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Question 7
Assuming the expression for the pressure exerted by the gas, it can be
shown that pressure is

Options:

A. ( ) nd times kinetic energy per unit volume of gas

3
2

B. ( ) rd of kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas

1
3

C. ( ) th of kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas

3
4

D. ( ) rd of kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas

2
3

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) The rms velocity of gas molecule,
vrms = √
3RT
m
1 2
As, K = mvrms
2
= m
1
2 m(
3RT
= RT )
3
2
3
⇒ K = RT ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
2
From ideal gasequation for one mole,
pV = RT ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get,
2 K
p=
3 V
Hence, pressure is ( 23 ) rd of kinetic energy per unit volume of gas.
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Question 8
Out of the following which statement is NOT true about black body
radiation?
Options:

A. A black body emits all wavelengths.

B. Intensity is less for longer wavelengths.

C. Intensity is same for all wavelengths.

D. Intensity is more for shorter wavelengths.

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) The intensity curve at different wavelength for different temperature is given below

A black body emits all wavelengths.

According to the graph, intensity is less for longer wavelength and more for shorter wavelength.

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Question 9
An ideal gas (γ = 1.5) is expanded adiabatically. How many times has
the gas to be expanded to reduce root mean square velocity of
molecules two times?

Options:

A. 8 times

B. 20 times

C. 16 times

D. 12 times
Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Given, γ = 1.5
rms velocity of gas molecule,
vrms = √
3RT
m
⇒ T ∝ v2

T v 2
⇒ 2 = 22
T1 v1
v
Here, v2 = 1
2
2
T2 (v1 ∕ 2) 1
∴ = = ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
T1 v 2 1
4
For adiabatic process,
T V γ − 1 = constant

⇒ ( )
V 2 γ−1
V1
=
T1
T2 ( )
1 1
⇒
V2
V1
=
T2 ( )
T1 γ−1
= (4) 1.5 − 1 [using Eq. (i)]

= (4)2 = 16
Hence, gas has to be expanded to 16 times.

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Question 10
An ideal gas having pressure p, volume V and temperature T undergoes
a thermodynamic process in which d W = 0 and d Q < 0. Then, for the
gas

Options:

A. p may increase or decrease

B. T will decrease

C. V will increase

D. T will increase

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) According to first law of thermodynamics,
∆U = ∆Q − d W
It is given that, d W = 0 and ∆Q < 0
Thus, ∆U = CV d T = ∆Q is negative.
Since, CV is specific heat, which remains constant, the temperature will decrease.

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Question 11
A particle executing SHM has velocities v1 an v2 at distances x1 and x2
respectively, from the mean position. Its time-period is

Options:

√
2 2
x2 − x1
A. 2π
v22 − v12

B. 2π
√ x12 − x22
v22 − v12

√
x1x2
C. 2π
v22 − v12

√
x1 + x2
D. 2π
v1v2

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
As, we know in SHM,
v2 = ω2(a2 − x2)
2 2 2 2
⇒v1 = ω (a − x1 ) ..... . (i)
2 2 2 2
and v2 = ω (a − x2 ) ........ . (ii)
Subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (ii), we get
2 2 2 2 2
v2 − v1 = ω (x1 − x2 )
2
=
4π
(x 2 − x22)
T2 1
( ∵ω = 2π
T )
√
2 2
x1 − x2
⇒ T = 2π
v22 − v12

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Question 12
A spring of force constant 400N ∕ m is loaded with a mass 0.25kg. The
amplitude of oscillations is 4cm. When mass comes to equilibrium
position. Its velocity is

Options:

A. 16m ∕ s

B. 1.6m ∕ s
C. 0.16m ∕ s

D. 0.016m ∕ s

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Given, mass, m = 0.25kg
Force constant, k = 400N ∕ m
Amplitude of oscillations, A = 4cm = 0.04m
Angular frequency, ω =
k
m
=
√
400
0.25 √
= √1600 = 40rad ∕ s
Velocity at equilibrium position = ωA
= 40 × 0.04 = 1.6m ∕ s

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Question 13
A progressive wave of frequency 500H z is travelling with a velocity of
∘
360m ∕ s. How far apart are two points 60 out of phase?

Options:

A. 0.05m

B. 0.10m

C. 0.12m

D. 0.72m

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Given,
v = 360ms−1
v = 500H z
∘ π
∆φ = 60 =
3
Since, velocity of a wave, v = vλ
v 360
⇒ λ= = = 0.72m
v 500
2π
As, phase difference, ∆φ = × path difference (∆x)
λ
λ
⇒ ∆x = ×∆φ
2π
0.72 π
= × = 0.12m
2π 3

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Question 14
A body sends waves 100mm long through medium P and 0.25m long in
−1
medium Q. If the velocity of wave in medium P is 80cms . The velocity
of wave in medium Q is

Options:
−1
A. 1ms

B. 2ms−1
−1
C. 5ms
−1
D. 7ms

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Given, λP = 100mm = 0.10m
λQ = 0.25m
vP = 80cms−1 = 0.80ms−1
Since, frequency of wave remains same in the two media,
vP v
λP
= Q ∵v =
λQ ( v
λ )
λQ 0.25 −1
⇒ vQ = × vP = × 0.80 = 2ms
λP 0.10

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Question 15
Separation between the plates of parallel plate capacitor is d and the
area of each plate is A. When a slab of material of dielectric constant k
and thickness t(t < d ) is introduced between the plates, its capacitance
becomes ( ε0 = permittivity of free space)

Options:

Aε0
A.
2d − t 1 − [ 1
k ]
Aε0
B.
d +t 1+ [ 1
k ]
Aε0
C.
d −t 1− [ 1
k ]
Aε0
D.
d −t 1+ [ 1
k ]
Answer: C
Solution:

Solution:
(c) The given situation can be shown as

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by

kε0A
C=
d
The above circuit can be considered to be combination of two series capacitors as
1 1 1 (d − t) t
∴ = + = +
C C1 C2 ε0A kε0A

=
k(d − t) + t
=
d −t+
t
k
=
d −t 1− ( 1
k )
kε0A ε0A ε0A
ε0A
⇒ C =
d −t 1− ( 1
k )
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Question 16
Figure below shows a balanced Wheatstone's network. If it is disturbed
by changing P to 22 Ω, then which of the following steps will bring the
bridge again in balanced state?

Options:

A. By increasing S by 3Ω

B. By increasing Q by 20Ω

C. By increasing R by 30Ω

D. Both (a) and (b)

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) At balanced condition,
P S 22 30
= ⇒ =
Q R 200 300
So, it can be balanced again by increasing the resistance S by 3Ω or by increasing Q by 20Ω.

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Question 17
Two circular coils A and B are made from the same wire but the radius
of coil A is twice that of coil B. If the magnetic fields at their centres are
the same, then the ratio of potential differences applied across A to that
of B is

Options:

A. 1 : 4

B. 4 : 1

C. 2 : 1

D. 1 : 2

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) According to the question,
Magnetic field at centre of coil A = Magnetic field at centre of coil B
µ0l 1 µ0l 2
=
2(2r) 2r
l1
⇒ = 2 ...... . (i)
l2

We know, R = ρ ( Al ) , where ρ is resistivity, l is length

and A is area of cross-section.
V1 V1
⇒l 1 = =
R1
ρ
l1
A
( )
V1 l1
⇒ = ρ⋅ ...... . (ii)
l1 A
V2 V2
and l 2 = =
R2
ρ⋅ ( )
l2
A
V2 l2
⇒ = ρ⋅ ..... . (iii)
l2 A
From Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
V1 l2 l1 2πr1
× = =
l1 V2 l2 2πr2
 V1 l2 r
⇒ ⋅ = 1
V2 l1 r2
V1 l2 2r
⇒ ⋅ =
V2 l1 r
V 2
⇒ 1=2 =2×2 [from Eq. (i)]
V2 l2
V1 4
⇒ = =4:1
V2 1

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Question 18
A bar magnet of magnetic moment M 1 is cut into two pieces along its
axis. The pieces are kept perpendicular to each other with their unlike
poles in contact. The magnetic moment of the arrangement is M 2. The
ratio of M 1 ∕ M 2 is

Options:

A. 1 ∕ 2√2

B. 1

C. √2

D. 1 ∕ √2

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) In given case, the magnetic moment of the pieces get halved.
′ ′ M1
i.e., M 1 = M 2 =
2
The magnetic moment of given arrangement,
M 2 = √ (M 1 ) + (M 2 )
′ 2 ′ 2

√ ( M2 ) + ( M2 )
2 2 M1
1 1
= =
√2
M1
⇒ = √2
M2

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Question 19
Frequency of the series limit of Balmer series of hydrogen atom of
Rydberg's constant R and velocity of light c is

Options:
A. 4Rc
4
B.
Rc

C. Rc
Rc
D.
4

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) We know that, wavelength of spectrum in hydrogen atom is given as
1
λ
=R
n (
1 − 1
2
n
2
1 2
)
For the series limit of Balmer series, n1 = 2 and n2 = ∞

∴
1
λ
= R 12 −
2
[ 1
∞2
]
1 R 4 c 4
⇒ = ⇒λ= ⇒ = [∵c = f λ]
λ 4 R f R
Rc
⇒f =
4

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Question 20
A spherical solid ball of volume V is made up of a material of density ρ1.
It is falling through a liquid of density ρ2(ρ2 < ρ1). Assume that, the
liquid applies a viscous force on the ball that is proportional to the
2
square of the speed vt, i.e., F viscous = K V t ], then the terminal speed of
ball is
( g = acceleration due to gravity)
Options:

A. √ K (ρ1 − ρ2)
Vg

B. √ V g(ρ1 − ρ2)
K

C. √ V g(ρ1 − ρ2)
K

D. √ V g(ρ1 − ρ2)
2K

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) The given situation is shown below

When ball moves with terminal velocity (vt), then

F viscous + F upthrust = W
2
K vt + V ρ2g = mg
2
⇒ K vt + V ρ2g = V ρ1g
2
⇒ K vt = V (ρ1 − ρ2)g

vt = √ V (ρ1 − ρ2)g
K

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Question 21
A charge of magnitude 3e and mass 2m is moving in an electric field E.
The acceleration imparted to the charge is

Options:

3E e
A. 2m

3m
B.
2E e

2E e
C.
3m

2m
D. 3E e

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) Given, charge on particle, q = 3e
′
Mass, m = 2m
Force on charged particle in electric field,
F = qE = 3eE
∴ Acceleration imparted to charged particle,
F 3eE
a= =
m
′ 2m

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Question 22
In a two input logic gate, when one input is 1 and the other is 0 the
output is 1 . But even if both inputs are 0, the outputs is 1 . The logic
gate is
Options:

A. a X-OR gate

B. an AND gate

C. a NOR gate

D. a NAND gate

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) According to given situation, truth table can be given as

Hence the given logic gate is NAND gate

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Question 23
The angular separation of the central maximum in the Fraunhofer
diffraction pattern is measured. The slit is illuminated by the light of
wavelength 6000Å. If the slit is illuminated by light of another
wavelength, the angular separation decrease by 30%. The wavelength of
light used is

Options:

A. 6000Å

B. 3500Å

C. 4200Å
D. 4700Å

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Given, wavelength of used light, λ1 = 6000Å
Initial angular separation, β1 = β
Final angular separation, β2 = β − 30% of β
β2 = β − 0.3β = 0.7β
We know that, β ∝ λ
β λ
ll ⇒ 1 = 1
β2 λ2
β2 × λ1 0.7β × 6000
⇒λ2 = = = 4200Å
β1 β

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Question 24
A series L − C − R circuit is connected to a source of alternating emf of
50V and the potential difference across inductor and capacitor is 90V
and 60V , respectively. The potential difference across the resistor is

Options:

A. 70V

B. 60V

C. 40V

D. 80V

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Given, V = 50V , V L = 90V , V C = 60V
In L − C − R circuit,
∴ V = √ V R + (V L − V C)
2 2

2 2 2
⇒V = V R + (V L − V C)
2 2 2
50 = V R + (90 − 60)
2
⇒2500 = V R + 900
2
⇒V R = 1600
⇒V R = √1600 = 40V

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Question 25
A particle of mass 5kg moves in a circle of radius 20cm. Its linear speed
 −1
at a time t is given by v = 4t, t is in second and v is in ms . Find the net
force acting on the particle at t = 0.5s.

Options:

A. 20N

B. 20√23 N

C. 20√26 N

D. 10N

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Given, r = 20cm = 0.2m, t = 0.5s, v = 4t and m = 5kg
2 2 2
v (4t) 16t 2
Radial acceleration, ar = = = = 80t
r 0.2 0.2
= 80 × (0.5)2
−2
At, = 20ms
Tangential acceleration of particle,
dv d −2
at = = (4t) = 4ms
dt dt
∴ Net acceleration,
an = √ ar + at = √ (20) + (4) = 4√26ms
2 2 2 2 −2

So, net force, F n = man = 5 × 4√26

= 20√26N

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Question 26
A 1kg stone attached to the end of a 60cm chain is revolving at the rate
of 3rev ∕ s. If after 30s, it is making only 1rev ∕ s. Find the mean torque
acting on it.

Options:

A. 0.15N − m

B. 0.32N − m

C. 0.25N − m

D. 0.20N − m

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) Given, r = 60cm = 0.6m
m = 1kg
ω1 = 3rev ∕ s = 2π × 3rad ∕ s
ω2 = 1rev ∕ s = 2π × 1rad ∕ s
t = 30s
dω 2 dω
Torque, τ = l α = l = mr
dt dt
2 2π(3) − 2π(1)
= 1 × (0.6) ×
30
= 0.15N − m

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Question 27
A toroid is a long coil of wire wound over a circular core. Major radius
and cross-sectional radius of toroid is R and r, respectively. The
coefficient of mutual induction of the toroid is
(The magnetic field in it is uniform, N = number of turns, R> > r, µ0 =
permeability of free space)

Options:

µ0N R
A. 2r

µ0N 2R2
B. 2r

µ0N r
C. 2R

2 2
µ0N r
D. 2R

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) The coefficient of mutual induction is given by
µ0N 1N 2A
M = ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
I
where, µ0 is the permeability of free space, N 1 is the number of turns in primary coil, N 2 is the number of turns in
secondary coil, A is the common area of cross-section and l is the length of coils.
Thus, for toroid the Eq. (i) is given as

M =
µ0N ⋅ N ⋅ πR2
2πr
=
µ0N 2R2
2r [ ∵N 1 = N 2 = N

A = πR
2
l = 2πr
]
where, R is the major radius and r is the minor radius.

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Question 28
The readings of ammeter and voltmeter in the given circuit are
respectively
Options:

A. 2.2A, 220V

B. 2A, 200V

C. 2.5A, 200V

D. 2A, 220V

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) Since, the voltage across inductor and capacitor is same, so they are in resonance i.e.,
XL=XC
The impedance of circuit,
Z = √ R + (X L − X C) = R
2 2

∴ Voltage across, R = 220V

By Ohm's law, V = I R
V 220
⇒ I = = = 2.2A
R 100
Hence, ammeter reading is 2.2A and voltmeter reading is 220V .

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Question 29
Let E e and E p represent kinetic energy of electron and photon,
respectively. If de-Broglie wavelength λp of a photon is twice the de-
Ep
Broglie wavelength λe of an electron, then Ee
is (speed of electron
c
= 100
, c = velocity of light)

Options:
−1
A. 10

B. 102
−2
C. 10

D. 104
Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
h h2
(b) For electron, λe = ⇒ Ee=
√2mE e (2m)λe2
hc
For photon, λp =
Ep
hc hc
⇒ Ep = = (∵λp = 2λe)
λp 2λe
2
Ep hc 2mλe λ
⇒ = × 2
= mc× e
Ec 2λe h h
h λ 1
Also, λe = ⇒ e=
mve h mve
Ep 1 c
⇒ = mc× =
Ee mvc ve

=
c
c ∕ 100
∵ve =( c
100 )
= 100 = 102

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Question 30
A nucleus of rest splits into two nuclear parts having radii in the ratio
1 : 2. Their velocities are in the ratio

Options:

A. 1 : 8

B. 1 : 4

C. 4 : 1

D. 8 : 1

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) If A1 and A2 are the mass number of two parts.
The radius of nucleus is given by
1∕3
R = R0(A)
1∕3 1∕3
So, R1 = R0(A1) and R2 = R0(A2)

( )
R1 A1 1∕3
⇒ =
R2 A2

( ) ( )
A1 R1 3
1 3 1
⇒ = = =
A2 R2 2 8
m1 A 1
∴ Ratio of masses, = 1=
m2 A2 8
From conservation of momentum,
⇒ m1v1 = m2v2
 v1 m2 8
⇒ = = or 8 : 1
v2 m1 1

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 31
For a common-emitter amplifier, the voltage gain is 40 . Its input and
output impedances are 100Ω and 400Ω, respectively. The power gain of
the CE amplifier will be

Options:

A. 450

B. 400

C. 300

D. 500

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Given, voltage gain = 40, Rin = 100Ω,
Rout = 400Ω

Since, voltage gain = β ( R out

R in )
R in
⇒ β = Voltage gain ×
R out
100
= 40× = 10
400
Power gain = β× voltage gain
= 10 × 40 = 400

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 32
Two particles A and B having same mass have charge +q and +4q,
respectively. When they are allowed to fall from rest through same
electric potential difference the ratio of their speeds vA to vB will
become

Options:

A. 2 : 1

B. 1 : 4

C. 4 : 1
D. 1 : 2

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) Given, mass of both particle = m
Charge of particle, A = +q
Charge of particle, B = +4q
Potential difference = V
Kinetic energy is given by
1 2
K = mv ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
2
This energy is equal to electrostatic potential energy is
K = V × Q ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
1 2
mv = V × Q
2
For particle A,
1
qV = mvA2 ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (iii)
2
For particle B,
1
4qV = mvB2 ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (iv)
2
Dividing Eq. (iii) by Eq. (iv), we get
1 vA2
=
4 vB2
vA 1
⇒ =
vB 2
v 1
Hence, the ratio of their speed A =
vB 2

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 33
The potential at a point x (measured in µm ) due to some charges
situated on the X -axis is given by v(x) = 220 V
(x − 4)
The electric field E at x = 4µm is given by

Options:

A. 5 V ∕ µm and in the - ve x-direction

2

B. 5 V ∕ µm and in the + ve x-direction

2

10
C. 9 V ∕ µm and in the - ve x-direction

D. 10 V ∕ um and in the + ve x-direction

9

Answer: D

Solution:
Solution:
∂V ∧ ∂V ∧ ∂V ∧
(d) E = − i− j− k
∂x ∂y ∂z
⇒E x = −
∂V
∂x
=−
d 20
d x x2 − 4 [ ] = (x 40x2
− 4) 2

10
⇒E x at x = 4µm = V ∕ µm
9
and is along + ve x-direction.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 34
A potentiometer wire AB having length L and resistance 12r is joined to
a cell D of emf ε and internal resistance r. A cell C having emf 2ε and
internal resistance 3r is connected. The length AJ at which
galvanometer as shown in figure shows no deflection is

Options:

A. 5 L
12

B. 11 L
12

13
C. 24 L

D. 11 L
24

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Given, length of wire, AB = L
Resistance of wire, AB = 12r
emf of cell D = ε, internal resistance of D = r
ε
emf of cell C = , internal resistance of C = 3r
2
Total emf
Current in potentiometer wire (i) =
Total resistance
 ε ε
i= =
r + 12r 13r
Potential drop across the balance length AJ of potentiometer wire is V AJ = i × RAJ
⇒V AJ = i (resistance per unit length × length AJ )

V AJ = i ( 12r
L
×x)
where, x is the balance length AJ .
As null point occurs at J , so potential drop across balance length,
AJ = emf of cell C
V AJ =
ε
2
⇒i
12r
L (×x =
ε
2 )
ε 12r ε
⇒ × ×x=
13r L 2
13
⇒ x= L
24

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 35
A common emitter amplifier circuit built using an n − p − n transistor is
shown in figure. Its DC current gain is 300, RC = 4kΩ and V CC = 20V .
What is the minimum base current for V CE to reach saturation?

Options:

A. 40µA

B. 26.66µA

C. 16.66µA

D. 10µA

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) For CE n − p − n transistor, DC current gain,
IC
BDC =
IB
At saturation state, V CE becomes zero,
∴ V CC − I CRC = 0
V CC 20 1
IC≈ = = A
RC 4000 200
Hence, saturation base current,
IC 1 1
IB= = = A = 16.66µA
βDC 200 × 300 60000
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 36
A satellite is revolving round a planet in a circular orbit close to its
surface and ρ is mean density and R is the radius of planet, then the
period of ( G = universal constant of gravitation)

Options:

A. √ 3π
ρG

B. √ π
ρG

C. √ 2π
ρG

D. √ 4π
ρG

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) According to deduction of Kepler's third law and with the help of Newton's law, the law of period is given by
2
4π 3
or T 2 = r
GM

⇒T = 2π √ r3
GM
where, r is the radius of orbit and M is mass of the planet or star.
As satellite is very close of the planet, thus r = R
Also mass (M ) = density (ρ)× volume (V )
4 3
= ρ× πR
3

√
R3
∴ T = 2π
4
G× πR3
= √ 3π
ρG
3

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 37
Halley's Comet revolves around the sun with time period of 76 years.
10
The aphelion distance if perihelion is given by 8.9 × 10 m, will be
30 −11 3 2
(Take, mass of sun = 2 × 10 kg and G = 6.67 × 10 N m ∕ kg )

Options:

A. 4.7 × 1011m

B. 3.23 × 1012m
C. 5.3 × 1012m

D. 7.63 × 1011m

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) According to Kepler's third law, time period
2
4π 3
T2= a
GM
where, a is the semi-major axis,

[ 76 × 864004 ×× 3.14 ]
30 1∕3
365 × 6.67 × 2 × 10
⇒a =
× 3.14
12
= 2.7 × 10 m
Also in case of ellipse,
2a = perihelion + aphelion
⇒ Aphelion = 2a − perihelion
= 2 × 2.7 × 1012 − 8.9 × 1010
12
≈ 5.3 × 10 m

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 38
540g of ice at 0∘C is mixed with 540g of water at 80∘C. The final
temperature of the mixture will be

Options:

A. 53.3∘C
∘
B. 56.6 C
∘
C. 60.6 C

D. 62.3∘C

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) From the principle of calorimetry,
m1s1 ∆ T 1 = m2s2 ∆ T 2
S
540 × Sw(80 − T ) = 540× w × (T − 0) where, sw is specific heat of water.
2
160 ∘ ∘
⇒ T = C = 53.3 C
3

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 39
The temperature of a liquid drops from 365K to 361K in 2min. Find the
time during which temperature of the liquid drops from 344K to 342K .
(Take, room temperature = 293K )

Options:

A. 72s

B. 66s

C. 60s

D. 84s

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) According to Newton's law of cooling,
T1−T2
2
=K
T1+T2
2
( −T0 )
365 − 361
2
=K
2 [
365 + 361
− 293 ]
1
K =
35
14
⇒ t = min = 84s
10

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 40
The speed of sound in a mixture of 1 mole of He and 2 mole of oxygen at
∘
27 C is

Options:

A. 400m ∕ s

B. 401m ∕ s

C. 402m ∕ s

D. 403m ∕ s

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Molecular weight of the mixture,
n M + n2M 2
M mix = 1 1
n1 + n2
1 × 4 + 2 × 32 68
= = × 10−3kgmol −1
1+2 3
 3
For helium, CV = R
1 2
5
For oxygen, CV = R
2 2
n1CV + n2CV
(CV ) mix = 1 2

n1 + n2
3R 5R
1+ +2×
2 2 13R
= =
1+2 6
Now, (Cp) mix = (CV ) mix + R
13R 19
= +R= R
6 6
(Cp) mix 19
r mix = =
(CV ) mix 13

√
r mix × RT
Speed of sound in the mixture, v =
M mix

√
19 8.31 × 300
= ×
13 68
× 10−3
3
≈401ms−1

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 41
The lower half of a concave mirror is covered with opaque material.
Then,

Options:

A. the magnification will be halved

B. the intensity of the image will be reduced

C. the distance of the image will increase

D. All of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) The law of reflection is true for all points of the remaining part of the mirror, so the image will be that of the whole
object. However, as the area of the reflecting surface has been reduced, hence the intensity of the image will be low.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 42
An LED is placed at a depth h below the water surface. An opaque disc is
floating on the surface of water such that the bulb is not visible from
the surface. The minimum radius of the disc will be

Options:
A. 2h
µ

h
B.
√µ − 1

h
C. 2u − 1

µ
D. 2h

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b)The given situation is shown below

From the figure we can see the light from the LED will not emerge out of the water, if at the edge of the disc, the
incidence angle is greater than critical angle.
i.e., i > C
or sin i > sin C
Now, if R is the radius of disc and λ is the depth of the LED, then
R 1
sin i = and sin C =
√R +h
2 2 µ
From Eq (i), we have
R 1 h
> ⇒R>
√R +h
2 2 µ √µ −1

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 43
For the prism given below. Two light rays are incident normally on the
surface of the prism. The angle between emergent rays will be

Options:
∘
A. 27
∘
B. 32
 ∘
C. 37

D. 42∘

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) The angle between any two lines is equal to the angle between their perpendiculars.
∘
∴ i = 30
From Snell's law, we have
1 sin 30∘
=
1.5 sin r
⇒ sin r = 0.75 or r = 48.6∘
Therefore, θ = r − i
∘ ∘ ∘
= 48.6 − 30 = 18.6
∴ Required angle between two emergent rays
= 2 × 18.6∘
= 37.2∘C ≈ 37∘

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 44
Three charges are arranged as the configuration given below.
If net force experienced by +Q placed at x = 0 is zero, then the value of
q is

Options:

−Q
A. 4

B. Q
2

C. −Q
2

Q
D. 4

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) From the principle of superposition, we have
1 Q×q 1 Q×Q
F net = +
4πε0 d 2
2 ( ) 4πε0 (d )2

Since, F net = 0
 1 Q×q 1 Q×Q Q
⇒ =− ⇒q=−
4πε0 d 2
2 ( ) 4πε0 d 2 4

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 45
What will be the reading in the ammeter for the circuit given below

Options:

A. 12.3mA

B. 12.3mA

C. 11.3mA

D. 14.3mA

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) Potential drop across silicon diode in forward bias is around 0.7V .
In the given circuit, potential drop across 300Ω resistor is
∆V = I R
∆V 5 − 0.7
⇒I = = = 0.01433A
R 300
or I = 14.33mA

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 46
In Young's double slit experiment, which of the following graph
represents correct variation of fringe width β versus distance D between
sources and screen?
Options:

A.
B.

C.

D.

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) We know that, fringe width,
Dλ
β=
d
⇒ β∝D
Hence, graph (d) is the correct.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 47
An electron in hydrogen atom have energy of −3.4eV . The difference of
its kinetic and potential energy is

Options:

A. 10.2eV

B. −10.2eV

C. −13.6eV

D. Both (a) and (b)

Answer: D
Solution:

Solution:
(d) According to Bohr's model, the kinetic energy of moving electron in nth orbit is given as
K = Rhc 2
⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
n
where, R = Rydberg constant, h = Planck's constant and c = speed of light.
Similarly, potential energy of electron moving in nth orbit,
P = −2 Rhc 2
⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (ii)
n
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have
P = −2K
Total energy of electron moving in nth orbit,
E = K + P = K − 2K
E = −K
⇒ K = −E = −(−3.4eV ) (given E = −3.4eV )
K = 3.4 eV
From Eq. (iii), we have
P = −2K = −2(3.4) = −6.8eV
∵ P − K = −6.8 − 3.4 = −10.2eV
and K − P = 3.4 − (−6.8) = 10.2eV

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 48
In most liquids, with rise in temperature, surface tension of a liquid

Options:

A. remains unchanged

B. decreases

C. increases

D. first decreases and then increases

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) In most of liquids, the cause of dynamic viscosity is the intermolecular force of attraction or cohesive forces and on
increasing the temperature, molecules of liquids try to move away from each other which in turn reduces the cohesive
force and hence dynamic viscosity decreases with increase in temperature in case of liquid.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 49
Three identical thin rods each of length ∕ and mass M are joined
together to form a letter H . What is the moment of inertia of the system
about one of the sides of H ?
Options:
 2
MI
A. 4

2M I 2
B. 3

2
4M I
C. 3

MI2
D. 3

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) The given situation can be shown as

So, moment of inertia of the system about P,

I =IP+IQ+IR

( M12I ) +MI
2 2
MI 2 4
=0+ + = MI2
4 3

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 50
One thousand small water drops of equal radii combine to form a big
drop. The ratio of final surface energy to the total initial surface energy
is

Options:

A. 1000: 1

B. 1 : 10

C. 10 : 1

D. 1 : 1000

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Let initial radius be r1.
Surface area of 1000 small water drops = 1000 × 4πr12
 4 3
Volume of 1000 small drops = 1000× πr
3 1
Let final radius be r2.
Since, initial volume = final volume
4 4
1000× πr13 = πr23
3 3
3 3 r
⇒ 1000r1 = r2 ⇒ 2 = 10
r1
Let us assume surface tension remain constant, i.e. S.
( Surface energy ) final
Therefore,
( Surface energy) initial
2
S × 4πr2
= 2
S × 4πr1 × 1000

( )r2 2
1 1
= × =
r1 1000 10

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 51
Water rises to height 3.2cm in glass capillary tube. Find the height to
which same water rises in another capillary having half the area of
cross-section.

Options:

A. 4.5cm

B. 5.0cm

C. 5.4cm

D. 6.2cm

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) Given, h1 = 3.2cm
As per question,
1
(area of first capillary) = Area of second capillary
2
1
⇒ × πr12 = πr22 ⇒ r1 = √2r2
2
For same fluid,
h1r1 = h2r2
h1r1 3.2 × √2r2
⇒ h2 = = = 4.5cm
r2 r2

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 52
If the pressure of an ideal gas is decreased by 10% isothermally, then its
volume will
 ©

Options:

A. decrease by 8%

B. increase by 8%

C. decrease by 9%

D. increase by 11.1%

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) From ideal gas equation, pV = nRT
For isothermal process, temperature remains constant,
So, for one mole of gas,
pV = constant
So, if pressure decreases, then volume increases.
⇒p1V 1 = p2V 2

Here, p2 = p1 1 − ( 1
10 )= 9
p
10 1
10
⇒V 2 = V
9 1
∴ Percentage increase in volume

= (
V2−V1
V1
× 100 )
= ( 109 − 1 ) × 100
1
= × 100 = 11.1%
9

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 53
−1
The pendulum bob has a speed of 3ms at its lowest position and the
length of pendulum is 0.5m. The speed of the bob when the length of
the pendulum makes an angle of 60∘ with the vertical will be
Options:
−1
A. 1.5ms
−2
B. 2ms
−1
C. 2.7ms

D. 3.2ms−2

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Given, I = 0.5m, u = 3ms−1
The situation is a shown below
Applying energy conservation at points A and B
1 2 1 2
mu = mv + mgh
2 2
⇒ u2 = v2 + 2gh
v2 = u2 − 2gh = u2 − 2g(I − I cos 60∘)
∘
[since, h = M A = OA − OM = I − OB cos 60
∘
= I − I cos 60 ]
2
(
= (3) − 2(9.8) 0.5 − 0.5×
1
2 )
⇒ v2 ≈ 4
∴ v = 2ms−1

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 54
In Young's double slit experiment using monochromatic light of
wavelength λ, the maximum intensity of light at a point on the screen is
K units. The intensity of light at point where the path difference is 3λ is

[ cos 60 ∘
= sin 30
∘ 1
2 ]
©

Options:

A. K4

B. K
2

C. K

D. 3K
4

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) For monochromatic light the resultant intensity is
I R = I 1 + I 2 + 2√I 1I 2 cos θ
= 2I + 2l cos θ
(∵I 1 = I 2 = I ).. . (i)
∘
For maximum intensity, θ = 0
∘ ∘
I R = 2l + 2l cos 0 = 4I (∵cos 0 = 1)
or K = 4I
 K
or I =
4
For path difference λ ∕ 3, phase difference,
Path difference λ∕3 2π
φ = 2π× = 2π× =
λ λ 3
′ 2π
∴ I R = 2l + 2l cos
3
[From Eq. (i)]
= 2I + 2I − (1
2 )
= 2I − I = I
K
=
4
[using Eq. (ii)]

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 55
In Young's double slit experiment, minimum intensity is obtained when
phase difference of the superimposing waves is (n = 1, 2, 3...)

Options:

A. (2n − 1)π

B. (n + 1)π

C. zero

D. nπ

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) For minima in YDSE, the phase difference as superimposing waves should be odd integral multiple of π.
i.e., φ = (2n − 1)π (where, n = 1, 2, 3...... )

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 56
Four plates of equal area A are separated by equal distance d and are
arranged as shown in figure A. Their equivalent capacity is C1. Then, the
same four plates are arranged as shown in figure B, their equivalent
capacity is C2, then C1 : C2 is

Options:
A. 3 : 4

B. 2 : 3

C. 3 : 2

D. 4 : 3

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Let X (1, 4) be positive plate and Y (2, 3) be negative plates.

The equivalent capacitance is just a parallel combination of two capacitors, therefore,

ε A ε A 2ε0A
C1 = 0 + 0 =
d d d
Now,

the equivalent capacitance is just a parallel combination of three capacitors. Therefore,

ε A ε A ε A 3ε0A
C2 = 0 + 0 + 0 =
d d d d
C1 2
Therefore, =
C2 3

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 57
For what value of R in the circuit shown below will the current in
galvanometer be zero?

Options:

A. 2Ω

B. 4Ω

C. 5Ω
D. 7Ω

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) The current distribution in the circuit is shown below

Applying KVL in loop PQSRP, we get

−5I − RI 1 + 12 = 0 ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
Similarly, for loop SRU T S, we get
r − I 1R + 7 = 0
⇒ I 1R = 7 ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (ii)
As per question, I − I 1 = 0 ⇒ I = I 1 ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (iii)
Solving Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
−5I − 7 + 12 = 0 ⇒ I = 1A
From Eq. (ii),
R = 7Ω

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 58
A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circle of single turn.
The magnetic field at the centre of the coil is B. If it is bent into a
′
circular loop of radius r having n turns, the magnetic field at the centre
of the coil for same current is

Options:

A. nB

B. n2B

C. B
n

D. B2
n

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) The magnetic field at the centre of coils is
 µ0I
B= ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
2r
where, r = radius of the coil.
Let L be the length of wire, then
L
L = 2πr ⇒ 2r =
π
From Eq. (i), we get
µ lπ
B= 0 ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (ii)
L
For a loop of n turns, L = 2πnr′
L
⇒ 2r′ =
nπ
And current, I ′ = nl
′ µ l′ µ0nl µ0n2 ∕ π 2
∴ B = 0′ = = = n B [from Eq. (ii)]
2r L ∕ nπ L

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 59
The mutual inductance between a primary and secondary circuit is
0.5H . The resistances of the primary and the secondary circuits are 20Ω
and 5Ω, respectively. To generate a current of 0.4A in the secondary,
current in the primary must be changed at the rate of

Options:

A. 16A ∕ s

B. 1.9A ∕ s

C. 4A ∕ s

D. 8A ∕ s

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Given, coefficient of mutual inductance, m = 0.5H
Resistance of primary, R1 = 20Ω
Resistance of secondary, R2 = 5Ω
Let, current in primary be I 1, such that current is secondary is I 2 = 0.4A.
Now, the emf induced in secondary due to change primary current is given by
dl1
⇒ ε=M
dt
dl1
⇒ (0.4) × 5 = (0.5) (∵ε = I 2R2)
dt
dl1
⇒ = 4A ∕ s
dt

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 60
A condenser of capacitance 2.4µF is used in a transmitter to transmit at
wavelength λ. If the inductor of 10−8H is used for resonant circuit, then
the value of λ is

Options:

A. 200m

B. 254m

C. 292m

D. 320m

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Given, C = 2.4µF = 2.4 × 10−6F
L = 10−8H
1
At resonant frequency, v =
2π√LC
2
⇒ LC = 1 = λ
2 2
4π v
2
4π c 2
∵v =
C
λ ( )
⇒ λ = √ 4π c LC
2 2

= √ 4 × π × (3 × 10 ) × 10
2 8 2 −8 −6
× 2.4 × 10
= 292m

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 61
The work function for a metal is 3.6V and threshold wavelenght is
3000Å. If work function for another metal is 1.8eV , then threshold
wavelength must be

Options:

A. 6000Å

B. 5600Å

C. 5200Å

D. 4800Å

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) Given, work function of metal, φ1 = 3.6eV
Threshold wavelength, λ1 = 3000Å
Work function for another metal, φ2 = 1.8eV
Threshold wavelength, λ2 = ?
According to Einstein's photoelectric equation,
hc
= φ0
λ0
hc
λ1 φ 3.6
Therefore, = 1=
hc φ2 1.8
λ2
⇒ λ2 = 2 × λ1
⇒ λ2 = 6000Å

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 62
If the ionisation energy for the hydrogen atom is 13.6eV , then the
energy required to excite it from the ground state to the next higher
state is nearly

Options:

A. 13.6eV

B. −3.4eV

C. 10.2eV

D. −10.2eV

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Given, E 1 = 13.6eV
Energy of H-atom in nth excited state is
E n = − 13.6 eV
n2
For
n = 2, E 2 = − 13.6 = −3.4eV
22
So, energy required to excite H-atom from ground state to next higher state is
E = E 2 − E 1 = −3.4 − (13.6) = 10.2eV

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 63
The output Y of the logic circuit shown is
Options:

A. A ⋅ B + A ⋅ B

B. A ⋅ B + A ⋅ B

C. A ⋅ B + A ⋅ B

D. A ⋅ B + A ⋅ B

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) The respective output of each logic gate is shown below

′
Here, Y = A ⋅ B = A + B
Y ′′ = A ⋅ (A + B) = A + (A + B)
[By de Morgan's theorem]
= A + (A ⋅ B) = A + (A ⋅ B)
Y ′′′ = B ⋅ ( A + B = B + (A + B) = B + (A ⋅ B)
= B + (A ⋅ B)
Y = Y ′′ ⋅ Y ′′′ = A + (A ⋅ B) ⋅ [B + (A ⋅ B)]
= [A + A ⋅ B] + [B + (A ⋅ B)]
= A ⋅ (A ⋅ B) + B ⋅ (A ⋅ B)
= A(AB) + B(AB)
= (A + B)(A ⋅ B) = (A + B)(A + B)
= AA + AB + BA + BB
= 0 + AB + BA + 0
=A⋅B+A⋅B

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 64
In a single slit diffraction pattern, width of slit is a. The first minimum
∘
is observed at angle of 45 . When light of wavelength 6000Å is incident
on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of

Options:

A. sin−1 ( ) 1
√2

B. sin
−1
( ) √3
2

C. sin−1 ( 3
2√2 )
D. Zero
Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
λ
(c) For the first minima, sin θ =
a
λ 1
⇒ = sin 45∘ =
a √2
λ 1
⇒ = ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
a √2
3λ 3 1
For first secondary maximum, sin θ = = ×
2a 2 √2
[From Eq. (i)]
⇒ θ = sin−1 ( 2√32 )
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 65
A beam of light of wavelength 600nm from a distant source falls on a
single-slit 1mm wider and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed
on a screen 2m away. The distance between first dark on either side of
the central bright fringes is

Options:

A. 1.2cm

B. 1.2mm

C. 2.4cm

D. 2.4mm

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) Distance between the first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe
= width of central maxnima
2λD
⇒ 2y =
d
Here, λ = 600nm = 600 × 10−9m
d = 1mm = 1 × 10−3m
D = 2m
2 × 600 × 10−9 × 2
⇒ 2y = = 24 × 10−4m = 2.4 mm
1 × 10−3

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 66
Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude e each one placed inside a cube.
The total flux coming out of the cube will be

Options:

A. 8e
ε0

B. 16e
ε0

C. e
ε0

D. Zero

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) Net charge of one dipole = −e + e = 0
Net charge of 8 dipoles = 8 × 0 = 0
∴ Net charge inside cube, q = 0
By Gauss's law
q
Total flux emerging out from surface = =0
ε0

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 67
A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance 18µF . If the distance
between the plates is tripled and a dielectric medium is introduced, the
capacitance becomes 72µF . The dielectric constant of the medium its

Options:

A. 4

B. 9

C. 12

D. 2

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
ε0A
(c) For air capacitor, C0 = = 18µF
d
When dielectric slab is introduced between plates and distance in tripled, then
K ε0A
C= = 72µF
3d
Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get
 K 72
= ⇒ K = 12
3 18

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 68
2 2
Two bar magnet having magnetic dipole moments 4A − m and 5A − m
are kept as shown below. The resultant dipole moment will be

Options:

A. √21 Am2

B. √41 Am2
2
C. √61 A − m

D. √31 A − m2

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Here,
&M 1 = 4A − m2
M 2 = 5A − m2

According to parallelogram law of vector addition, resultant dipole moment M

M = √ M 1 + M 2 + 2M 1M 2 cos 60
2 2 ∘

= √ 42 + 52 + 2 × 4 × 5 × cos 60∘ = √61A − m2

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 69
The equivalent capacitance between points A and B is

Options:

4
A. 3 µF

B. 3µF

C. 4µF

D. 12µF

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
The given circuit diagram is drawn as

Hence, given capacitors are in parallel combination.

∴ CAB = 4 + 4 + 4 = 12µF

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 70
A point charge Q is placed at the centre of a cube. The flux linked with
the each face of the cube is

Options:

A. Q
6ε0

B. Q
ε0

Q
C.
12ε0

D. Q
8ε0

Answer: A
Solution:

Solution:
(a) The cube is a symmetrical body with 6 faces and the point charge is at its centre, so electric flux linked with each face
will be
φ total Q
φ′ = =
6 6ε0

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 71
Maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface is v1
when frequency of incident radiation is 2v. When frequency of incident
radiation is increased to 5v, then
maximum velocity of emitted photoelectrons becomes v2. The ratio
v1 : v2 will be

Options:

A. 1 : 4

B. 4 : 1

C. 1 : 2

D. 2 : 1

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, maximum energy of emitted electrons is given by
1 2
K max = mvmax = hv − hv0
2
1
⇒ mvmax2 = h(v − v0) ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
2
When, frequency of incident radiation, becomes 2v, then velocity of emitted electron is v1, hence from Eq. (i), we get
1
mv12 = h(2v − v0)
2
1
mv12 = hv0 ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (ii)
2
Again, when frequency becomes 5v0, the velocity of emitted electron is v2.
∴ From Eq. (i), we have
1 2
mv2 = h(5v − v)
2
1
⇒ mv22 = 4hv
2
Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (iii), we get
1
mv12
2 hv
=
1 2 4hv
mv2
2

⇒ ( ) ( )
v1 2
v2
=
1 2
2
⇒ v1 : v2 = 1 : 2
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 72
Which of the following graphs shows correct variation of photoelectric
current ∕ with frequency of incident radiation?
Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Since, photoelectric current ( I ) does not depend on the frequency (v) of incident radiation. Hence, graph showing in
option (b) is correct.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 73
The frequency of a stretched uniform wire of length L under tension is
in resonance with the fundamental frequency of air column in a closed
pipe of the same length. If the tension in the wire is increased by 8N , it
is in resonance with the first overtone of the same closed pipe. The
initial tension in the wire is

Options:

A. 3N

B. 4N

C. 1N

D. 2N

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) As we know the, frequency of sound wave produced in a stretched wire is directly proportional to square root of
tension in the wire
i.e., f ∝ √T
Let T be the initial tension.
Therefore, for air column, f C ∝ √T ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (i)
According to question, first overtone
i.e., 3f C ∝ √T + 8 ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (ii)
From Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get
fC √T
=
3f C √T + 8
⇒T + 8 = 9T
⇒T = 1N

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 74
A vertical column 50cm long at 50∘C balances another column of same
∘
liquid 60cm along at 100 C. The coefficient of absolute expansion of the
liquid is

Options:

A. 0.002 ∕ ∘C

B. 0.003 ∕ ∘C

C. 0.004 ∕ ∘C
∘
D. 0.005 ∕ C

Answer: D

Solution:
Solution:
(d) Given, h1 = 50cm, T 1 = 50∘C
h2 = 60cm, T 2 = 100∘C
Let the density of the given liquid at STP be ρ0, if both vertical columns balance each other, then their pressure should be
equal.
i.e., p = ρgh

⇒ρ1gh1 = ρ2gh2
ρ h
⇒ 1= 1
ρ2 h2
p0 ρ0
If r be the coefficient of absolute expansion of liquid, then, ρ1 = and ρ2 =
1 + rT 1 1 + rT 2
∴ From Eq. (i) we have
ρ0
1 + rT 1 h 60
= 1=
ρ0 h2 50
1 + rT 2
1 + rT 1 6
⇒ = ⇒ 5rT 2 − 6rT 1 = 1
1 + rT 2 5
1
⇒ r= = 0.005 ∕ ∘C
200

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 75
A source of sound emitting a note of frequency n is approaching a
stationary listener. If the frequency of the note heard by the listener is
2n, the velocity of the source versus is equal to [ v = velocity of sound in
air]

Options:

A. 2v

B. 2v
3

C. 2v

D. 4v

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) The Doppler's effect in sound is given by
v + vo
fo= f
v + vs s
where, f o = observer frequency of sound,
v = speed of sound waves,
vo = observer velocity,
vs = source velocity
and f s = actual frequency of sound wave.
Thus, according to question,
2n = ( vv ++ v0 ) n
s
⇒ 2(v + vs) = v
⇒ 2v + 2vs = v
−2vs = v
v
vs = −
2
where -ve sign shows that source is approaching to the listener.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 76
A uniform rope having a mass m is suspended with a rigid support. It is
strucked as its lower end. The speed of transverse wave v produced in
this way will vary with height h as
Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: A

Solution:
Solution:
(a) Let m be the total mass of the rope of length I . Tension in the rope at a height h from lower end = weight of rope
length h,
i.e.,
As
mg
T = h
L

√
T
v =
m
L ( )
√
mg(h)
v = = √gh
L ( )
m
L

⇒ v2 = gh
Which represents a parabola symmetric along h-axis.
Thus, option (a) is represents the correct graph.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 77
A thin prism P1 with angle 4∘ and made from glass of refractive index
1.54 is combined with another thin prism P2 made from glass of
refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle
of prism P2 is

Options:

A. 2.6∘

B. 5.33∘

C. 3∘

D. 4∘

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) For dispersion without deviation,
A µ′ − 1
=
A1 µ−1
4 1.72 − 1 0.72
⇒ = =
A1 154 − 1 0.54
4 × 0.54 ∘
⇒ A1 = =3
0.72

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 78
A silicon and germanium diode is connected in series as shown below
The current flowing through the circuit will be
Options:

A. 6A

B. 3A

C. 2A

D. 1A

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) We know that, barrier potential of Ge, V B = 0.3 V and barrier potential of Si, V B = 0.7V
1 2
Redrawing the above figure as

Applying KVL, we get

− 19 + 0.3 + 1 ⋅ I + 0.7 + 2I = 0
⇒3I = 18 ⇒ I = 6A

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 79
In hydrogen atom, an electron jumps from third excited state to ground
state, then frequency of emitted light will be
−34
[Take, h = 6.63 × 10 J −s ]

Options:

A. 1.5 × 1014H z

B. 3 × 1015H z
13
C. 4 × 10 H z
12
D. 6.5 × 10 H z

Answer: B

Solution:
Solution:
(b) Energy of electron in nth orbit in H-atom,
E n = −13.6 eV
n2
For third excited state, n = 4
−13.6
∴ E4= = −0.85eV
42
For ground state, n = 1
−13.62
∴ E1= 2
= −13.6eV
1
If v be the frequency of emitted photon, then
hv = E 4 − E 1
= −0.85 − (−13.6)
= −0.85 + 13.6 = 12.75eV
12.75 × 1.6 × 10−19
v =
h
−19
12.75 × 16 × 10
= = 3 × 1015H z
6.63 × 10−34

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 80
An asteroid is falling towards the centre of earth under the influence of
earth's gravitational field. At 10Re( Re = radius of earth) it has speed of
12km ∕ s. What will be the speed of the asteroids when it hits the earth's
surface?

Options:

A. 12.4km ∕ s

B. 14.6km ∕ s

C. 16km ∕ s

D. 18km ∕ s

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) According to conservation of energy,
Total energy of asteroid at 10Re = Total energy of asteroid at surface of earth
⇒U 1 + K 1 = U 2 + K 2
−GM em 1 −Gmem 1
⇒ + mv02 = + mv2
10Re 2 Re 2
9 GM em 1 2 1 2
⇒ + mv0 = mv
10 Re 2 2
9 2GM
⇒ × + v02 = v2
10 Re
9
⇒ v2 = (v )2 + v02
10 e
where, ve = escape velocity = 11.2km ∕ s
2 9 2 2
⇒ v = × (112) + (12)
10
9
= × (11.2)2 + 144 = 16kms−1
10
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 81
A geostationary satellite at 36000km height has 24h time period. The
time-period of a spy satellite at R = 6400km will be

Options:

A. 1.2h

B. 1.3h

C. 1.53h

D. 2h

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) For time period of a satellite, we can write

( GM )
3 1∕2
2πr 2×r r
T = = = 2π
v GM
r √
According to question,

[ (6400 GM ]
3 1∕2
+ 36000)
24 = 2π

[ (6400)
GM ]
3 1∕2
and for spy satellite, T ′ = 2π
1
ll ∴
T′
24
= [
(6400)3
(6400 + 36000)3
] 2

⇒T = (24) × (0.4)3
′

⇒T ′ = 1.53h

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 82
A lead bullet at 27∘C melts when hit on a target. Assuming only 75% of
heat is used to melt the bullet, the velocity of bullet at time of striking
is
(Take, melting point of lead = 327∘C, specific heat of lead
= 0.03cal ∕ g∘C, latent heat of fusion of lead = 6cal ∕ g )

Options:

A. 330m ∕ s

B. 410m ∕ s

C. 470m ∕ s
D. 510m ∕ s

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Let mass of the bullet be m gram, then total heat required for bullet to just melt down
Q1 = mc ∆ T + mL
= m × (0.03)(327 − 27) + m × 6
= 15m − cal
= (16m × 4 ⋅ 2)J
Now, when bullet is struck by obstacles, the loss in its mechanical energy
1
= (m × 10−3)v2
2
The energy absorbed by bullet,
72 1
Q2 = × mv2 × 10−3
100 2
3 2 −3
= mv × 10 J
8

Now, the bullet will melt if Q2 ≥ Q1

3 2 −3
i.e., mv × 10 ≥ 15m × 4.2
8
⇒vmin = 410m ∕ s

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 83
A cell can be balanced against 120cm and 100cm of potentiometer wire,
respectively.
When in open circuit and when short-circuited through a resistance of
10Ω, then the internal resistance of the cell is

Options:

A. 1Ω

B. 1.5Ω

C. 2Ω

D. 0.5Ω

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Given, l 1 = 120cm, l 2 = 100cm
R = 10Ω, r = ?

∴ r= (
l1
l2
−1 R )
= ( 120
100
− 1 ) × 10 =
20
100
× 10 = 2Ω

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 84
Which of the following curves shows correct variation of capacitive
reactance X C with frequency v ?

Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
(d) We know that, capacitive reactance,
1 1
XC= =
ωC 2πvC
1
⇒ XC∝
v
Hence, graph shown in option (d) represents correct variation of X C with v.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 85
An α-particle and a proton, accelerated through same potential
difference, enter into a region of uniform magnetic field with their
velocities perpendicular to the field. If radius of circular path traversed
by proton is √2 cm, then radius of circular path traversed by α-particle is

Options:

A. 1cm

B. 2cm

C. 3cm

D. 4cm

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) We know that, radius of circular path in magnetic field B,
mv
r=
Bq
When a charge q is accelerated by V volts, it acquires a kinetic energy, E k = qV
l ∵ Momentum p = √2mE k = √2mqV
⇒ mv = √2mqV
From Eq. (i) and (ii), we get

cr = √
2mqV
Bq
= 2mV
√
qB2

√ √ √ √
rα mα qp 4mp qp
Thus, = = ⋅ = √2
rp mp qα qα 2qp
⇒rα = √2 rp = √2 × √2 = 2cm

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 86
If two waves of the same frequency and amplitude respectively on
superposition produce a resultant disturbance of the same amplitude.
The waves differ in phase by

Options:

A. π
2

B. π
6

C. 2π
3
D. π
4

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) According to given situation,
a1 = a2 = a = aR (resultant)

√ a1
2
∴ aR = + a22 + 2a1a2 cos φ
a= √ a2 + a2 + 2a2 cos φ
2 2
a = 2a (1 + cos φ)
⇒ 1 + cos φ = 1 ∕ 2
1 2π
⇒ cos φ = − ⇒ φ =
2 3

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 87
The radii of two columns in a U-tube are r1 and r2. When a liquid of
density ρ (angle of contact = 0∘ ) is filled in if, the level difference of
liquid in two arms is h. The surface tension of liquid is

Options:

(r1 − r2)ρgh
A. 2r1r2

r1r2ρgh
B.
(r1 − r2)

r1r2ρgh
C.
2(r2 − r1)

r r (ρgh)
1 2
D. 2(r
1 − r2)

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) The height of liquid in tube of radius r1 is
2T cos θ 2T
h1 = =
r1ρg r1ρg
∘
(∵θ = 0 )
Similarly, for tube of radius r2,
2T
h2 =
r2ρg
Given, h = h1 − h2
2T (r2 − r1)
=
2T
ρg r1
1
(
−
1
r2
= )
ρgr1r2
r1r2ρgh
⇒ T =
2(r2 − r1)
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 88
The ratio of the wavelength of the last line of the Balmer series to last
line of Lyman series is

Options:

A. 1 : 2

B. 2 : 1

C. 4 : 1

D. 1 : 4

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Wavelength of spectral line in hydrogen atom (Z = 1) given as
1
λ
=R
[
1 − 1 ...(i) [∵Z = 1]
n 2 n 2
1 2
]
For last line of Lyman series,
n1 = 1 and n2 = ∞
∴ From Eq. (i), we have
1
λL (
= R 12 −
1 ∞
1
)
=R

1
⇒ λL = ⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅⋅ ⋅ (ii)
R

Similarly, for last line of Balmer series, n1 = 2 and n2 = ∞

∴ From Eq. (i), we get
1
λB
=R
1
22
(−
1
∞
=
R
4 )
4
⇒ λB =
R
Hence, from Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get
λL 1∕R 1
= =
λB 4∕R 4
or λL : λB = 1 : 4
⇒λB : λL = 4 : 1

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 89
A body of mass m is tied to one end of a spring and whirled round in a
horizontal circle with a constant angular velocity. The elongation in the
spring is 1cm. If the angular velocity is doubled, the elongation in the
spring is 5cm. The original length of the spring is

©
Options:

A. 13cm

B. 15cm

C. 14cm

D. 16cm

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Let original length be xcm.
Initial angular velocity be ω.
Elongation, d x = 1cm
mv2
According to Newton's law F = −kd x = ⇒ − kd x = mω2r
r
Since, r = (x + 1) and d x = 1cm
Therefore, −k(1) = mω2(x + 1)
...(i)
Again angular velocity is doubled and elongation produced is 5cm.
Therefore, −k(5) = m(2ω)2(x + 5)
−5k = 4mω2(x + 5)
From Eq. (i) and Eq. (ii), we get
5k 4mω2(x + 5)
=
k mω2(x + 1)
⇒ (x + 1)5 = 4(x + 5)
⇒ 5x + 5 = 4x + 20
⇒ 5x − 4x = 20 − 5
⇒ x = 15cm

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 90
A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The
magnitude of average acceleration after half revolution is
Options:

v2
A. 2πR

2
2v
B. πR

2
C. 2v 2
πR

2
v
D. πR

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) For half revolution, the position of the particle is given below,
Let velocity be v.
Change in velocity = v2 − v1 ⇒ v(−v) = 2v
Time taken by the particle to cover half revolution
πR
∴=
v
2
Velocity 2v 2v
∴ Average acceleration = = =
Time πR πR
v

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 91
For a given gas at 1atm pressure, rms speed of the molecules is 100m ∕ s
∘ ∘
at 27 C. At 2atm pressure and at 927 C temperature, the rms speed of
the molecules will be

Options:

A. 50m ∕ s

B. 100m ∕ s

C. 200m ∕ s

D. 400m ∕ s

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) Given, T 1 = 27 + 273 = 300K T 2 = 927 + 273 = 1200K
(vrms)1 = 100m ∕ s
(vrms)2 = ?
We know that, vrms ∝ √T

√
(vrms)2 T2
(vrms)1
=
T1
= √ 1200
300
=2

(vrms)2 = 2 × (vrms)1 = 2 × 100 = 200m ∕ s

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 92
The magnitude of electric field intensity that balances the weight of an
α-particle is
[Take, mass of proton, mp = 1.67 × 10−27kg, g = 10m ∕ s2 and
−19
e = 1.6 × 10 C]
 ©

Options:

A. 3.3 × 10−6N ∕ C

B. 4.2 × 10−8N ∕ C
−9
C. 2.5 × 10 N ∕C
−7
D. 2.1 × 10 N ∕C

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
. (d) For equilibrium of α-particle,
qE = mg
mg
⇒ E =
q
4mp ⋅ g 4 × 167 × 10−27 × 10
= =
2e 2 × 1.6 × 10−19
−7
= 2.1 × 10 N ∕ C

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 93
A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4cm.
When the particle is at 2cm from the mean position, then the magnitude
of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then, its time period is

Options:

A. √3 πs

B. π s
√3

C. πs

D. 2π s
√3

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Magnitude of velocity of particle when it is at displacement x from mean position.
v = ω√A −x
2 2

when x = 2cm, then

v=a
⇒ω √ A − x = ω2x
2 2
⇒ω =
√ A2 − x2 =
√ 42 − 22 =
√12
=
4√3
x 2 2 2
⇒ω = 2√3 rad ∕ s
2π 2π π
∴ Time period, T = = = S
ω 2√3 √3

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 94
3
Molar specific heat capacity of an ideal gas at constant volume is 4
R,
the molar specific heat capacity of the ideal gas at constant pressure
will be

Options:

A. 1.75R

B. 1.45R

C. 1.33R

D. 1.20R

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) We know that, according to Mayer's formula,
Cp = CV + R
3 7
= R + R = R = 1.75R
4 4

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 95
Which of the following is correct for adiabatic process?

Options:

A. Work done is independent of path.

B. Work done is equal to negative of change in internal energy.

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: C

Solution:
Solution:
(c) According to first law of dynamics.
∆Q = ∆U + ∆ W
0 = ∆U + ∆ W ⇒ ∆ W = − ∆ U
In adiabatic process, work done does not depend on the path,
i.e., it is independent with path.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 96

A force of ( 3i + 2j − k ) N
∧ ∧ ∧
acts on a particle with position vector
( i + j − k ) m. The magnitude of torque of given force is
∧ ∧ ∧

Options:

A. √10 N − m

B. √6 N − m

C. √8 N − m

D. √5 N − m

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Given, F = 3 i + 2 j − k N ( ∧ ∧ ∧
)
r= ( i + j − k)m
∧ ∧ ∧

∴ Torque, τ = r × F = ( ∧i + ∧j − k∧ ) × ( 3∧i + 2∧j − k∧ )

= | i , j , k; 1, 1, −1; 3, 2, −1 |
∧ ∧ ∧

∧ ∧ ∧
= i (−1 + 2) − j (−1 + 3) + k(2 − 3)
∧ ∧ ∧
τ = i − 2j − k
∴ τ = | τ | = √ 1 + (−2) + (−1)
2 2 2

= √1 + 4 + 1 = √6N − m

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 97
In the phenomena of refraction of light, which of the following
characteristics remains unchanged?

Options:

A. Intensity

B. Amplitude
C. Frequency

D. Velocity

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
(c) In the phenomenon of refraction, frequency of light remains unchanged.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 98
A 2kW motor is used to pump water from a well 20m deep. The quantity
of water pumped out per second is nearly
[Take, g = 10m ∕ s2 ]

Options:

A. 10kg

B. 20kg

C. 5kg

D. 25kg

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) Given, P = 2kW = 2 × 103W
h = 20m
W
∴ P=
t
mgh
P=
t
Pt 2 × 103 × 1
⇒ m= = = 10kg
gh 10 × 20

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 99
The angle of projection of a projectile for which horizontal range and
height attain same magnitude is

Options:
−1
A. tan (2)
B. tan−1(4)

C. tan−1(3)

D. tan−1(0.5)

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
(b) Here, H = R
u2sin2θ u2 sin 2 θ
=
2g g
2
sin θ
⇒ = sin 2 θ
2
sin2θ
⇒ = 2 sin θ cos θ
2
sin θ
⇒ = 4 ⇒ tan θ = 4
cos θ
⇒ θ = tan−1(4)

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 100
A thin rod of length 2I is rotating about an axis passing through its
centre and perpendicular to its length. The radius of gyration of for the
rod is

Options:

A. I
√3

B. I
√4

1
C.
√14

I
D.
√12

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
(a) The moment of inertia of rod.
M L2 M (2l )2
I = = (Here, L=21)
12 12
2
MI
I =
3
MI2
M k2 = [ k = radius of gyration]
3
I
k =
√3
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Chemistry

Question 1
Identify the last element in lanthanoid series.

Options:

A. N d

B. Tm

C. Lu

D. T b

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Last element of lanthanoid series is Lu i.e. leutetium with atomic number 71 and mass number 175.5. It is a silver white
metal, which resists corrosion in dry air, but not in moist air.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 2
0.05F electricity is passed through CuSO4 solution. Calculate the mass
−1
of Cu produced at cathode? (molar mass of Cu = 63.5gmol )

Options:

A. 3.17g

B. 2.54g

C. 0.795g

D. 1.59g

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Equivalent mass of copper
Atomic mass 63.5
= = = 31.75
Valency 2
Amount of copper deposited by 0.05F
= 0.05 × 3175 = 1.5875 ∼ eq1.59g
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 3
Identify the product obtained in the following reaction.

Options:

A. o-nitrophenol

B. m-nitrophenol

C. p-nitrophenol

D. None of these

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 4
Formation of gluconic acid from glucose by oxidation using Br2 water

Options:

A. glucose contains five hydroxyl groups.

B. the presence of aldehyde group in glucose.

C. glucose contains one primary alcoholic group.

D. the six carbon atoms of glucose are in a straight chain.

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Glucose gets oxidised to six carbon. Carboxylic acid (gluconic acid) on reaction with a mild oxidising agent like bromine
water. This indicates that the carbonyl group is present as an aldehyde group.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 5
What is the density of potassium, if it has bcc structure with edge
length 4Å ?
(Atomic mass of K = 39 )

Options:

A. 3gcm−3
−3
B. 2gcm
−3
C. 5gcm

D. 4gcm−3

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
For density, ρ = Z3 × M
a ×NA
Edge length, a = 4Å = 4 × 10−8cm
For bcc structure, Z = 2
2 × 39
ρ =
(4 × 10−8)3 × 6.022 × 1023
= 0.202 × 1024 × 10−23gcm−3
= 0.202 × 10gcm−3 = 2.02gcm−3

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 6
Which formula from following is used to determine molar mass of solute
from depression in freezing point?

Options:

1000 × K f × W 1
A. M 2 =
∆T f × W 2
 1000 × K f × W 2
B. M 2 = ∆T f × W 1

1000× ∆ T f × W 2
C. M 2 = Kf ×W1

1000× ∆ T f × W 1
D. M 2 = Kf ×W2

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
The formula used to determine the molar mass of solute from depression in freezing point is
1000 × K f × W 2
M2=
∆T f × W 1
where, W 2 = weight of solute
W 1 = weight of solvent
&K f = molal depression constant

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 7
A gas is heated from 273K to 373K at 1atm pressure. If the initial
volume of the gas is 10 L, its final volume would be

Options:

A. 20d m3

B. 13.66d m3

C. 10d m3

D. 7.32d m3

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
T 1 = 273K
T 2 = 373K
V 1 = 10L
V2 =?
From Charles law,
V1 V2
=
T1 T2
10
&V 2 = 373× = 13.66L = 13.66d m3
273

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 8
The ratio between the root mean square velocity of H 2 at 50K and that
of O2 at 800K is

Options:

A. 4

B. 2

C. 1

D. 0.25

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
T 1 = 50K for H 2
T 2 = 800K for O2

ums = √ 3RT
M
uH
√
T1 M2
⇒
uO
2

2
= ×
M1 T2
= √ 50
2
×
32
800
=1

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 9
What is the IUPAC name of following compound?

Options:

A. 1-methylcyclopentan-3-ol

B. 3 -hydroxy-1-methyl cyclopentane

C. 3-methyl cyclopentanol

D. 3-methylpentan-1-ol

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is 3 -methylcyclopentanol.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 10
An organic compound on analysis gave C = 42.8%, H = 7.2% and
N = 50%. Volume of 1g of the compound was found to be 50mL at STP.
Molecular formula of the compound is
Options:

A. C2H 4N 2

B. C12H 24N 12

C. C16H 32N 16

D. C4H 8N 4

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Given, C = 42.8%, H = 7.2% and N = 50%

∴ Empirical formula = CH 2N
Empirical formula mass = 28
volume given at STP
Now, number of moles =
22400mL
50 −3
= = 2.23 × 10
22400
weight
Also, number of moles =
molecular weight
⇒ Molecular weight = 1 = 448
2.23 × 10−3
molecular weight 448
∴ n= = = 16
empirical weight 28
Hence, molecular formula = ( empirical formula )n
= (CH 2N )16 = C16H 32N 16

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 11
How much BaCl 2 ⋅ 2H 2O and pure water are to be mixed to prepare 50g
of 12.0% (by mass) BaCl 2 solution?

Options:

A. 40.4g

B. 42.9g

C. 52.7g

D. 50.0g

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
w = 12g of BaCl 2, W = 100g of solution.
For 50g of solution, w = 6g of BaCl 2
W = 50g of solution
∴ wBaCl ⋅ 2H O =
2 2 208 (
6 × 244
g = 7.038g )
wH O = (50 − 7.038)g = 42.96g ∼ eq42.9g
2

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 12
What is enthalpy of formation of N H 3, if bond enthalpies as
(N ≡ N ) = −941kJ ∕ mol , (H − H ) = 436kJ ∕ mol and
(N − H ) = 389kJ ∕ mol ?

Options:

A. −84.5kJ ∕ mol

B. −63.45kJ ∕ mol

C. −21.25kJ ∕ mol

D. −42.5kJ ∕ mol

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
N 2 + 3H 2 ⟶ 2N H 3
∆f H (N H 3) = Bond energy of reactant - Bond energy of product
= ( 12 × BE of N ≡ N bond + 32 BE of H − H bond ) - (3 BE of N − H bond)
= ( × 436 ) − (3 × 389)
1 3
× 941 +
2 2
= 470.5 + 654 − 1167 = −42.5kJ ∕ mol

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 13
The enthalpy change that accompanies a reaction in which 1 mole of its
standard state is formed from its elements in their standard states

Options:

A. bond enthalpy of reaction

B. standard enthalpy of formation

C. standard enthalpy of reaction.

D. standard enthalpy of combustion

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Standard enthalpy of formation is the change in enthalpy that accompanies the formation of one mole of a compound
from its elements, with all substances in their standard states, it is also called as 'standard heat of formation'.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 14
What is the SI unit of conductivity?

Options:
−1
A. Ω

B. Ω−1cm2mol −1

C. Sm2mol −1

D. Sm−1

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
1
Conductivity (σ) =
Resistivity (ρ)
 1
In SI unit, σ = = Sm−1.
ohmm

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 15
What is rate constant of a first order reaction, if 0.08 mole of reactant
reduces to 0.02 mole in 23.03 minute?

Options:
−1
A. 1.6021min

B. 0.2303min−1

C. 0.4031min−1

D. 0.06020min−1

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
For first order reaction,
2.303 a
t= log
k a−x
where, t = time, k = rate constant
a = initial concentration
a − x = remaining concentration
2.303 0.08 1
⇒ k = log = log 4
23.03 0.02 10
0.6020
= = 0.06020min−1
10

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 16
Which of the following statement is not true for a reaction having rate
law r = k[H 2][I 2] ?

Options:

A. Overall order of reaction is 2 .

B. The reaction is first order in H 2.

C. The reaction is first order in I 2

D. Overall order of reaction is 1

Answer: D
Solution:

Solution:
Among the given statements, (d ) is not correct regarding the rate = k[H 2][I 2] because overall order of the reaction is 2
not 1 .

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 17
At room temperature, polonium crystallises in a primitive cubic unit
cell. If a = 3.36Å.
Calculate the theoretical density of polonium. [It's atomic weight is
209g ∕ mol .]

Options:

A. 9.15g ∕ cm3
3
B. 10.33g ∕ cm
3
C. 6.22g ∕ cm
3
D. 9.74g ∕ cm

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Given number of atoms per unit cell, Z = 1
Molecular weight, M = 209g ∕ mol
23
Avogadro number, N A = 6.022 × 10
3 −8 3 3
V = a = (3.36 × 10 ) cm [∵Z = 1]
We know that,
ZM 1 × 209
d = =
N AV 6.022 × 1023 × (3.36 × 10−8)3
= 9.15g ∕ cm3

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 18
The vapour pressure of 100g of water reduces from 17.53mm to
17.22mm when 17.10g of substance X is dissolved in it. Substance X
can be

Options:

A. methanol

B. glucose
C. carbon dioxide

D. cannot predict

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Given p∘ = 17.53, ps = 17.22 and W = 17.10
w
p∘ − ps n m
= =
p∘ n+N w
+
W
m M
w W
∵ <
m M
p∘ − ps w∕m w M
∴ = = ×
p∘ W ∕M m W
17.53 − 17.22 17.10 18
= ×
17.53 m 100
17.10 × 18 × 17.53
⇒ m = = 174.05
0.31 × 100
174 is nearest to the molecular weight of glucose (C6H 12O6), thus the substance X can be glucose.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 19
The process by which sites of adsorbent are made free so, that more
adsorbent can occupy them is called

Options:

A. sorption

B. desorption

C. unbalanced distribution

D. dissociation

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Desorption is the process of removing an adsorbed substance from the surface of adsorbent, so that more adsorbate can
occupy surface of adsorbent.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 20
Starch is an example of which of the following type of colloid?

©
Options:

A. Macromolecular colloid

B. Associated colloid

C. Molecular colloid

D. Electrolytic solution

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Starch is an example of macromolecular colloid. In this type of colloid, the particles are themselves large molecules
which on dissolution form size in the colloidal range.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 21
Hybridisation of [N i(CN )4]2− is

Options:
2
A. d sp
3 2
B. sp d
2 3
C. d sp
3
D. sp

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Hybridisation of [N i(CN )4]2− is d sp2.
N i = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s23p63d 84s2
N i2+ = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s23p63d 8, 4s04p0

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 22
The IUPAC name of the coordination compound [Co(H 2O)2(N H 3)4]Cl 3
is

Options:

A. tetraamminediaquacobalt (III) chloride

B. cobalt (III) tetraamminediaquachloride

C. diaquatetraammine cobalt (III) chloride

D. tetraammine diaquacobalt (II) chloride

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
The IUPAC name of the coordination compound [Co(H 2O)2(N H 3)4]Cl 3 is tetraamminediaquacobalt (III) chloride.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 23
The 3d -block elements that exhibits maximum number of oxidation
states is

Options:

A. Sc

B. T i

C. Mn

D. Z n

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Mn exhibits the maximum number of oxidation states. M n(Z = 25) = [Ar]3d 54s2. It shows +2, +3, +4, +5, +6 and +7
oxidation states.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 24
Which one of the following does not have sp3 hybridisation?
Options:

A. CH 4

B. X eF 4

C. H 2O

D. N H 3

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 25
Identify the molecule having dipole moment.
Options:

A. BF 3

B. CH 4

C. CH Cl 3

D. CCl 4

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 26
The major product obtained in the following reaction is
Anhydrous
Chlorobenzene + Chlorine ⟶ product (Major)
F eCl 3

Options:

A. 1,2 -dichlorobenzene

B. 1, 3, 5-trichlorobenzene

C. 1 , 4-dichlorobenzene

D. 1 , 3-dichlorobenzene

Answer: C
Solution:

Solution:
1,4 -dichlorobenzene

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 27
Which among the following compounds is not a colourless gas?

Options:

A. CI F 3

B. CIF

C. I F 7

D. I F 3

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
I F 3 is a yellow powder whereas CI F 3, CI F and I F 7 is a colourless gas.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 28
14 16
6 C and 8 O are the examples of

Options:

A. isotopes

B. isobars

C. isoelectronic species

D. isotones
Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
14
6
C and 816O have same number of neutrons, i.e. 8. Therefore, they are the examples of isotones.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 29
Which of the following series of transition of hydrogen spectrum falls in
visible region?

Options:

A. Lyman series

B. Balmer series

C. Paschen series

D. Brackett series

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Balmer series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall in visible region. Lyman series falls in ultraviolet
region, while Paschen and Brackett series fall in infrared region.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 30
Among the following order, which one is correct order of reactivity of
group 16 elements?

Options:

A. O > S > Se > T e > Po

B. O > Se > T e > S > Po

C. Po > T e > Se > S > O

D. S > O > Se > T e > Po

Answer: A

Solution:
Solution:
Oxygen is the most reactive among the other elements of group 16. As we move down the group, the reactivity
decreases because there is an increase in the atomic radius down the group and hence, the effective nuclear charge
decreases which leads to decrease in chemical reactivity. So, the reactivity order will be O > S > Se > T e > Po.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 31
Identify the product formed in following reaction.
(i) Alk K M nO4
C6H 5CH 2 − CH 3 +
▶?
(ii) H 3O

Options:

A. C6H 5OH

B. C6H 5COOH

C. C6H 5CH 2COOH

D. C6H 5CH 2CH 2COOH

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 32
Identify electron withdrawing group from following when attached with
π-bond.

Options:

A. - COOH

B. - OR

C. - Cl

D. −OH

Answer: A
Solution:

Solution:
An electron withdrawing group (EWG) is a group that reduces electron density in a molecule through the carbon atom it is
bonded to. Here - COOH is one such example of electron withdrawing group.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 33
Which of the following is incorrectly matched.

Options:

A. Decreasing order of pK b values :

(C2H 5)2N H > C2H 5N H 2 > C6H 5N H 2 > C6H 5N H CH

B. Decreasing order of basic strength :

(C2H 5)2N H > CH 3N H 2 > C6H 5N H CH 3 >

C. Increasing order of basic strength : p-nitroaniline < aniline <p-toluidine

D. Increasing order of solubility in water : C6H 5N H 2 < (C2H 5)2N H < C2H 5N H 2

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
C6H 5N H 2 and C6H 5N H CH 3 are less basic than C2H 5N H 2 and (C2H 5)2N H it is due to the delocalisation of lone pair
of electrons of N -atom over the benzene ring.
Next, C6H 5N H CH 3 is little more basic than C6H 5N H 2 it is due to the +-effect of the CH 3 group. Among C2H 5N H 2
and (C2H 5)2N H , (C2H 5)2N H is more basic than C2H 5N H 2 due to greater +l -effect of two C2H 5 group.
By combining above facts, the relative basic strength of given amines decreases as :
(C2H 5)2N H > C2H 5N H 2 > C2H 5N H CH 3 > C6H 5N H 2
As a stronger base has a lower pK b value, therefore, pK b values decreases in the reverse order.
(C6H 5)N H 2 > C6H 5N H CH 3 > C2H 5N H 2
>(C2H 5)2N H

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 34
Consider the following reactions.
H BF N aN O ∕ Cu Sn ∕ H Cl
+ −─────▶
4 2

C6H 5N 2 Cl A ─────▶ B─────▶C

Identify the compound formed C in the above reaction.

Options:

A. Nitrobenzene

B. Aniline

C. Chloro benzene
D. Phenol

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 35
The bond line structure of crotonyl alcohol is
Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
The bond line structure of crotonyl alcohol is

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 36
Which among the following compounds has highest melting point?

Options:

A. Phenol

B. p-cresol

C. p-nitrophenol

D. O-nitrophenol

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
p-nitrophenol has highest melting point due to the presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding, which is not present in
all other given compounds.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 37
Which of the following alkenes on oxidation by K M nO4 in dil. H 2SO4
forms adipic acid?

Options:

A. Hex-2-ene

B. Hex-1-ene

C. Cyclohexene

D. Hex-3-ene

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Cyclohexene on oxidation with K M nO4 in presence of dil. H 2SO4 will form adipic acid, in which oxidative cleavage takes
place. The double bond is broken to which oxygen atoms are going to be added forming a carboxylic acid group at each.
Thus, the cyclic structure is broken forming adipic acid.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 38
Which of the following species is amphoteric in nature?

©
Options:

A. H Cl

B. H 2O

C. CH 3COOH

D. N aOH

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Water is amphoteric in nature i.e. it can acts as an acid as well as a base. It acts as an acid with N H 3 and a base with
H 2S.
H 2O + N H 3 ⇌ OH − + N H 4+
H 2O + H 2S ⇌ H 3O+ + H S−
The auto protolysis (self ionisation ) of water takes place as follows
H 2O + H 2O ⇌ H 3O+ + OH −
acid base

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 39
Identify the reaction in which carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones
is reduced to methylene group on treatment with zinc-amalgam and
conc. HCl.
Options:

A. Wolf-Kishner reduction

B. Clemmensen reduction

C. Stephen reduction

D. Etard reaction

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
The reduction of carbonyl groups (in aldehydes and ketones) to methylene groups with zinc amalgam and hydrochloric
acid is known as the Clemmension reduction reaction.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 40
Which of the following is an example of green chemistry?

Options:

A. Recycled carpet

B. A product made on Earth's day

C. A sublimation reaction

D. Bio-plastics or bio-diesel

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Bio-plastics or bio-diesel is a product of green chemistry so, other options (a, b, c) are incorrect.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 41
Which of the following alkyl halide is treated with sodium metal to
obtain 2, 2, 3, 3-tetramethyl butane?

Options:

A. sec-butyl bromide

B. n-propyl bromide

C. n-butyl bromide

D. tert-butyl bromide

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
In the Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides react with sodium in dry ether to give hydrocarbon contain double the number of
carbon atoms present in the halide.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 42
Consider the following sequence of reactions
H Br H Br Alc. KOH N aN H 2

CH ≡ CH ───▶A───▶B─────▶C────▶D

Identify D.
Options:

A. Ethanol

B. Ethane

C. Ethyne

D. Ethanal

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 43
Identify the polymer used in making floor tiles.

Options:

A. PVC

B. LDPE

C. HDPE

D. PETE

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Polyvinyl chloride or PVC is used in making floor tiles. Flexible PVC is made flexible and strong to prepare floor tiles. So,
the correct option is (a).

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 44
Which of the following is a thermosetting polymer?

Options:

A. Polythene

B. Bakelite

C. Polystyrene

D. Polyvinyls

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Bakelite is thermosetting polymer as it contains cross links, or heavily branched polymer chains. It gets hardened on
heating and cannot be softened again.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 45
A sample of air turns lime water milky and also turns acidified
potassium dichromate green in aqueous solution has low pH . This is
due to the presence of pollutants.

Options:

A. CO2

B. SO2

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of these

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
SO2 turns lime water milky.
SO2 in aqueous solution gives H 2SO3.
H 2SO3 ⇌ H + + H SO3−
CO2 also turns lime water milky.
CO2 in aqueous solution gives H 2CO3.
H 2CO3 ⇌ H + + H CO3−
H 2SO3 is stronger acid than H 2CO3. Thus, ionisation of H 2SO3 is larger than H 2CO3. Thus, pH of H 2SO3 is lower than
that of H 2SO2.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 46
Solubility product of AgBr is 4.9 × 10−13. What is its solubility?

Options:
−7 −3
A. 2.4 × 10 mol d m
−7 −3
B. 7.0 × 10 mol d m
−7 −3
C. 4.9 × 10 mol d m

D. 3.2 × 10−7mol d m−3

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
The equilibrium reaction of AgBr is
+ −
AgBr(s) ⇌ Ag (aq) + Br (aq)
Molar solubility (S) of AgBr = √ 4.9 × 10
−13

−7 −3
= 7.0 × 10 mol d m

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 47
Consider the following reaction
Br2 − H 2O H N O3

A◀────── Glucose ───▶B

Here, ' A ' and ' B are respectively
Options:

A. glucose oxime and saccharic acid

B. gluconic acid and saccharic acid

C. saccharic acid and sorbitol

D. gluconic acid and sorbitol

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 48
Which of the following has maximum solubility?

Options:

A. BeF 2

B. M gF 2

C. CaF 2

D. SrF 2

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
The solubility of fluorides of alkaline earth metals decreases down the group due to increase in hydration enthalpy.
Thus, the order of solubility of the given compounds is BeF 2 > M gF 2 > SrF 2
Hence, BeF 2 has maximum solubility.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 49
Which of the following explanation is correct about the given below
reaction?
Cr2O72− + H 2O ⟶ 2CrO42− + 2H +

Options:

A. Cr is reduced

B. Cr is oxidised

C. Oxidation number of Cr has neither decreased nor increased

D. Hydrogen is reduced

Answer: C
Solution:

Solution:

The oxidation number of Cr in Cr2O72− and CrO42− is same, i.e. 6. Thus, oxidation of Cr has neither decreased nor
increased.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 50
Aldehydes are readily oxidised to yield carboxylic acids but ketones are
inert to oxidation. Which is the most likely explanation regarding this
difference in reactivity?

Options:

A. Aldehydes have a proton attached to the carbonyl that is abstracted during oxidation.
Ketones lack this proton and so, cannot oxidised.

B. Reducing agents like H N O3 are sterically hindered by ketone's carbonyl carbon.

C. Aldehydes and ketones are of similar hybridisation.

D. The rate of the forward oxidation reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reduction
reaction in ketones.

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Abstraction of H-atom, attached to carbonyl group in an aldehyde, is much easier than the abstraction from bulkier alkyl
group attached to carbonyl group in a ketone.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 51
If an alkane contain n number of carbon atoms, the number of oxygen
molecules required for combustion of alkane are

Options:

A. 3n + 1
2

2n + 1
B. 2
C. 2n + 1

D. n

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
The chemical reaction of complete combustion of alkane is as follows :
CnH 2n + 2 +
2(
3n + 1
)
O2 ⟶ nCO2 + (n + 1)H 2O
where n = number of carbon atoms.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 52
Which among the following is branched polymer?

Options:

A. Bakelite

B. HDP

C. PVC

D. LDP

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
LDP i.e. low density polythene has highly branched structure. It is mainly used for manufacturing containers, wash
bottles, plastic bags etc.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 53
Identify the product obtained in the following conversion.
[O]
Glucose ────────▶ Product
Br2 water
©

Options:

A. n-hexane

B. Gluconic acid

C. Saccharic acid

D. Glucose cyanohydrine
Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 54
Arrange the following free radicals in order of decreasing stability.
Methyl (I), Vinyl (II), Allyl (III), Benzyl (IV) Codes
Options:

A. I >II > III > IV

B. III > II > I > IV

C. II >I > I V > I I I

D. I V > I I > I > I I

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Among the alkyl free radicals, tertiary alkyl free radicals are most stable and methyl free radical is least stable.
Benzyl and allyl free radicals are resonance stabilised and are more stable than alkyl free radicals. Benzyl free radical is
more stable than allyl due to more conjugation. Vinyl radical is least stable as the odd electron is present on sp3C-atom.

∴ Benzyl > Allyl > Methyl > Vinyl

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 55
The decreasing order of the rate of nitration of benzene (I), C6D6(I I ),
nitrobenzene (III), chlorobenzene (IV) is

Options:
A. I > II > III > IV

B. I > I > I V > I I

C. I = I > I V > I I I

D. I = I I > I I I > I V

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Rate of nitration is faster when substituent activates the ring ( +l -effect or +R-effect, ortho\/para directing) and rate is
slower when substituent deactivates the ring ( −I -effect or −R-effect, meta directing group).
- Halogen deactivates ring but orientation is ortho para directing group.
- Rate of C6H 6 = C6D6, as no effect is observed when H is replaced by D. Hence, order is
I =II >IV >III

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 56
The chemical test that distinguish between benzoic acid and phenol is
Options:

A. N aH CO3 test

B. Tollen's reagent

C. Biuret test

D. None of these

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
N aH CO3 test is used to distinguish benzoic acid and phenol.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 57
The order of reactivity of hydrogen halides with ether is as follows

Options:

A. H Br > H I > H Cl

B. H Cl > H Br > H I

C. H I > H Br > H Cl

D. H Cl > H I > H Br

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
The correct order of hydrogen halides is HI > H Br > H Cl . The cleavage of ethers usually takes place with conc. HI or
HBr at high temperature.
Greater the nucleophilicity of halide ion, more is the reactivity of hydrogen halide.
R − OR + H X ⟶ RX + ROH

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 58
Identify product B in following reaction.
+
H 3O
K M nO
Cumene ────────▶A────────▶B
∆4 ∕ K OH

Options:

A. Phenol

B. Benzophenone

C. Benzaldehyde

D. Benzoic acid

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 59
The most effective pair of reagents for the preparation of tert-butyl
ether is
Options:

A. tert-butyl alcohol and ethyl bromide

B. sodium ethoxide and tert-butyl bromide

C. potassium tert-butoxide and ethanol

D. potassium tert-butoxide and ethyl bromide

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
The most effective pair of reagents for the preparation of tert-butyl ether is potassium tert-butoxide and ethyl bromide.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 60
Consider the following reaction

Identify the products A and B respectively.

Options:

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 61
The major product obtained in the following reaction is

Options:

A. 4-iodo-3-methylhexane

B. 4-iodo-4-methylhexane

C. 3-iodo-3-methylhexane

D. 3-iodo-4-methylhexane

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
3-lodo-3-methylhexane
Here, a molecule H I is added to C = C double bond. The addition follows anti-Markownikoff's rule.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 62
Which of the following is likely to undergo racemisation during alkaline
hydrolysis?
Options:

A. (CH 3)3C − CH 2 − Cl

B. H 3C − CH − CH 3
|
Cl

C. H 3C − CH 2 − CH − CH 3
|
Cl

D. H 3C − CH 2 − CH − CH 2 − CH 3
|
Cl

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Among the given compounds,
H 3C − CH 2 − CH − CH 3 will undergo racemisation during alkaline hydrolysis. The reaction involved is as follows:
|
CI

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 63
The 'green' chemical used in household cleaners to remove stains and
also a favourite dressing on salads is

Options:

A. vinegar

B. citric acid

C. hydrochloric acid

D. water

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Vinegar (acetic acid) is used as household cleaner to remove stains and is also a favourite dressing on salads.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 64
The two half-cell reactions of an electrochemical cell is given as
Ag+ + e− ⟶ Ag; E Ag+ ∕ Ag∘ = −0.3995V
F e2+ ⟶ F e3+ + e−; E F e3+∘ ∕ F e2+ = −0.7120V
The value of EMF will be

Options:

A. −0.3125V

B. 0.3125V
C. 1.114V

D. −1.114V

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Species with more negative E ∘ (standard reduction potential) generally acts as reducing agent, while with less negative
value, E ∘ act as oxidising agent. Thus, the overall reaction is
Ag+ + F e2+ ⟶ F e3+ + Ag
The value of EMF will be,
∆E ∘ = E oxidation ∘ − E reduction ∘
= −0.3995 − (−0.7120)
= +0.3125V

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 65
Ethers when dissolved in cold concentrated sulphuric acid forms
Options:

A. oxonium salts

B. alkanoic acids

C. alkanols

D. alkyl hydrogen sulphate

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Ethers react with cold concentrated sulphuric acid to form oxonium salts. In ethers due to the presence of lone pairs of
electrons on oxygen atoms, it behaves as a Lewis base and reacts with a strong acid to form protonated oxonium salt.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 66
The value of Rydberg constant in joule is

Options:

A. 0.082
 −18
B. 2.18 × 10
−19
C. 2.0 × 10

D. 8.314

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
The value of Rydberg constant is 2.18 × 10−18J .

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 67
What is the number of lone pair of electrons in I F 7 ?

Options:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 0

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:

Number of lone pair of electron in I F 7 is 0 .

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 68
The H − N − H bond angle in ammonia molecule is

Options:

A. 107∘
B. 111∘

C. 104∘

D. 109∘

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
The H − N − H bond angle in ammonia molecule is 107∘. Since, the repulsion between lone pair- lone pair and lone pair-
bond pair is more than that between bond pair-bond pair. The repulsion in H 2O is much greater than that in N H 3 which
results in contraction of bond angle from 109∘28′ to 104.5∘ in water while in N H 3 contraction i.e. less is from 109∘ 28 ' to
107∘.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 69
Identify compound having square pyramidal shape from following
Options:

A. Cl F 5

B. BrF 5

C. I Cl

D. BrF 3

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
According to VSEPR theory, the shape of BrF 5 is square pyramidal and its electron geometry is octahedral because
bromine being the central atom has five bonds connected with surrounding fluorine atoms. Each F − Br − F bond
making an angle of 90∘ in the same plane.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 70
The IUPAC name of complex ion [Cr(N H 3)4Cl 2]+is

©
Options:

A. tetraaminedichloridochromium (III) ion

B. dichloridotetraaminechromium (III) ion

C. dichloridotetraaminechromate (II) ion

D. tetraaminedichloridochromate (III) ion

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
The IUPAC name of the complex ion [Cr(N H 3)4Cl 2]+is tetraaminedichloridochromium (III) ion.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 71
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Options:
2−
A. [N iCl 4] is paramagnetic.

B. [N i(CO)4] is diamagnetic.

C. [Cr(N H 3)6]3+ is paramagnetic.

2−
D. [N i(CN )4] is paramagnetic.

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
[N i(CN )4]2− is diamagnetic not paramagnetic.
N i atom (Z = 28) (ground state) = [Ar]3d 8, 4s2, 4p0

CN −is a strong field ligand, due to which pairing of electron takes place.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Question 72
Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Options:

A. [N iCl 4]2− is paramagnetic.

B. [N i(CO)4] is diamagnetic.

3+
C. [Cr(N H 3)6] is paramagnetic.

D. [N i(CN )4]2− is paramagnetic.

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
In lanthanide series as atomic number increases, atomic radius decreases. Therefore, Pr having lowest atomic number
among the given element is having largest atomic radius.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 73
Which element from following has largest atomic radius?

Options:

A. Pm

B. Eu

C. Gd

D. Pr

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
The 3d -orbitals of Cr and Cu have half-filled and completely filled electronic configuration respectively which are the
most stable electronic configurations. Thus, these both elements do not follow Aufbau principle according to which 4s
orbital should be filled first with 2 electrons as it have lower energy than 3d -orbital. So, their electronic configuration are
Cr(Z = 24) = 1s22s22p63s23p63d 54s1
2 2 6 2 6 10 1
Cu(Z = 29) = 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 74
Identify positively charged sol from following.

Options:

A. Sols of starch

B. Congo red sol

C. Methylene blue sol

D. Gelatin sol

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Sols of starch, congo red sol and gelatin sol are the examples of negatively charged sol, while methylene blue sol is
positively charged sol.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 75
Which one of the following laws will represent the pairing of electrons
in a subshell after each orbital is filled with one electron?

Options:

A. Pauli's exclusion principle

B. Hund's rule

C. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle

D. Hess's law

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Hund's rule represent the pairing of electrons in a subshell after each orbital is filled with one electron. Thus, this rule
states that "during filling of electrons in a subshell, pairing of electrons cannot take place until there is no empty orbital
available". This rule is also called Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 76
What is the energy of an electron in stationary state corresponding to
n=2?

©
Options:
−18
A. −3.45 × 10 J
−18
B. −0.545 × 10 J
−18
C. 0.545 × 10 J
−18
D. 3.45 × 10 J

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Energy of an electron is given by
E n = −13.6 eV
n2
For n = 2
−13.6 −13.6
E = eV = eV
2×2 4
−19
[1eV = 1.602 × 10 J ]
= −3.4 × 1.602 × 10−19J
= −5.45 × 10−19J
or = −0.545 × 10−18J .

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 77

Consider the following reactions.

∘
760 C

I. N a2B4O7 + B2O3 ────────▶A

II. Si + K OH + H 2O ⟶ B + H 2 ↑
III. P2O5 + H N O3 ⟶ H PO3 + C
IV. N H 3 + Cl 2 (excess) ⟶D + H Cl
Identify the missing products ( A, B, C and D ) of the given reactions.

Options:

A. (A) → N a2O (B) → K SiO3 (C) → N 2O4 (D) → N Cl 3

B. (A) → N aBO2 (B) → K 2SiO3 (C) → N 2O5 (D) → N Cl 3

⊕
C. (A) → N aBO2 (B) → K 2SiO3 (C) → N 2O4 (D) → N Cl 4

D. (A) → N a2O (B) → K 2SiO3 (C) → N 2O5 (D) → N Cl 3

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
 ∘
760 C
N a2B4O7 ⟶ 2N aBO2 + B2O3
(A)
Si + 2K OH + H 2O ⟶ K 2SiO3 + 2H 2 ↑
(B)
P2O5 + 2H N O3 ⟶ 2H PO3 + N 2O5
(C)
N H 3 + 3Cl 2 (excess) ⟶ N Cl 3 + 3H Cl
(D)

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 78
A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of N H 3 is
0.30M and the concentration of N H 4+is 0.20M . If the equilibrium
constant, K b for N H 3 equals 1.8 × 10−5, what is the pH of the solution?

Options:

A. 8.73

B. 9.08

C. 9.44

D. 11.72

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Given, K b = 1.8 × 10−5
pK b = −log K b
= −log 1.8 × 10−5 = 4.74
[sal t]
pOH = pK b + log
[ base ]
0.20
= 4.74 + log
0.30
= 4.74 − 0.176 = 4.56
pH + pOH = 14
pH = 14 − 4.56 = 9.44

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 79
A synthetic polymer which is an ester is
Options:

A. dacron

B. teflon

C. PMMA

D. PVC
Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Among the given polymers, only dacron is the ester. It's structure is as follows :

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 80
Identify the correct decreasing order of precipitation power of
flocculating ion added, from following.

Options:

A. N a+ > Ba2+ > Al 3+

B. Al 3+ > Ba2+ > N a+

C. Al 3+ > N a+ > Ba2+

D. Ba2+ > Al 3+ > N a+

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
The flocculation power of cation decreases with decrease in the valence of cation. So, the correct order is
Al 3+ > Ba2+ > N a+

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 81
When electrons are trapped into the crystal in anion vacancy, the defect
is known as

Options:

A. Schottky defect

B. Frenkel defect

C. stoichiometric defect

D. F-centres
Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Due to missing of a negative ion from its lattice site, leaving a hole which is occupied by an electron. The electron, thus
trapped in anion vacancy is called F-centres.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 82
Gas equation, pV = nRT is obeyed by a gas in

Options:

A. adiabatic process

B. isothermal process

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of these

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
Ideal gas equation,
pV = nRT
is obeyed by an ideal gas in both adiabatic and isothermal processes.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 83
What will be the formula of an oxide of iodine (atomic mass = 127 )
which contains 25.4g of iodine and 8g of oxygen?
Options:

A. I 2O

B. I 2O3

C. I 2O5

D. I 2O7

Answer: C

Solution:
Solution:
∵25.4 g of I 2 combines with 8g of oxygen.
∴254gof I 2 will combine with 80g of oxygen.

∴ Formula of oxide of iodine will be I 2O5.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 84
When 0.5g of sulphur is burnt to form SO2 and 4.6kJ of heat liberated.
Calculate enthalpy of formation of SO2(g).
(Atomic mass: S = 32, O = 16 )

Options:
−1
A. −294.4kJ mol
−1
B. −172.4kJ mol
−1
C. −81.2kJ mol
−1
D. −258.6kJ mol

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
S + O2 ⟶ SO2; ∆H f = −4.6kJ
0.5g of sulphur on burning produce 1g of SO2.
∴32g of sulphur on burning will produce 64g of SO2.
∴ ∆ H f = (−4.6kJ ) × 64
= −294.4kJ mol −1

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 85
What is the coordination number of atoms in bcc crystal lattice?

Options:

A. 2
B. 8

C. 6

D. 4

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
The body centered cubic lattice has a coordination number of 8 and contains 2 atoms per unit cell.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 86
Which of the following scientic notation of some figures is not correct?

Options:
3
A. 2080 = 2.08 × 10
3
B. 0.0034 = 3.4 × 10
3
C. 5000 = 5.0 × 10
3
D. 8008 = 8.008 × 10

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
The correct scientic notation of 0.0034 will be 3.4 × 10−3. Thus, 0.0034 = 3.4 × 103 is incorrect.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 87
What is the difference between ∆H and ∆U at 298K for the following
reaction?
C2H 4(g) + 3O2(g) ⟶ 2CO2(g) + 2H 2O(I );
∆H = −1410.0kJ

Options:

A. −14.8kJ

B. −2.45kJ

C. −4.95kJ
D. −7.30kJ

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
In the given reaction,
C2H 4(g) + 3O2(g) ⟶ 2CO2(g) + 2H 2O(l )
∆H = −1410.0kJ
For ideal gas, ∆H = ∆U + RT (∆ng)
where, R = 8.314J ∕ mol K
T = 298K
∆ng = number of gaseous products - number of gaseous reactants
= 2 − 4 = −2
∴−1410 = ∆U + [8.314 × 298(−2)]
∆U = −1405.045kJ
∼ eq − 1405.05kJ
Now, ∆H − ∆ U = −1410 − (−1405.05) = −4.95kJ

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 88
d [H 2] d [N H 3]
What is the relation between dt and d t?

Options:

1 d [N H 3] d [H 2]
A. dt
= dt
2

d [N H 3] 2 d [H 2]
B. dt
=−3 dt

d [N H 3] d [H 2]
C. 2 dt
= dt
3

d [N H 3] d [H 2]
D. dt
= dt

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
N 2(g) + 3H 2(g) ⇌ 2N H 3(g)
Rate expression can be written as,
−d [N 2] −1 d [H 2] 1 d [N H 3]
= =
dt 3 dt 2 dt
1 d [H 2] 1 d [N H 3]
− =
3 dt 2 dt
d [N H 3] 2 [H 2]
d
∴ =−
dt 3 dt

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 89
The half-life of first order reaction is 1.7hr. What is its rate constant?

Options:

A. 0.245hr−1

B. 1.07hr−1
−1
C. 0.407hr
−1
D. 3.45hr

Answer: C

Solution:

Solution:
For first order reaction.
0.693 0.693 −1
k= = hr
t1 ∕ 2 17
k = 0.407hr−1

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 90
Galvanic cell is a device in which

Options:

A. chemical energy is converted into electrical energy

B. electrical energy is converted into chemical energy

C. chemical energy is seen in the form of heat

D. thermal energy from an outside source is used to derive the cell reaction

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:
Galvanic cell is an electrochemical cell that converts the chemical energy of a spontaneous reaction into electrical
energy.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 91
The solubility product (K sp) of solid barium sulphate at 298K is
1.1 × 10−10. The molar solubility, S of [Ba2+] and [SO42−] is
 ©

Options:

A. 1.05 × 10−7mol L−1

B. 1.05 × 10−10mol L−1

C. 1.05 × 10−6mol L−1

D. 1.05 × 10−5mol L−1

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
BaSO4(s) ⇌ Ba2+(aq) + SO42−(aq)
S S
K sp = S × S = S2
1.1 × 10−10 = S2
S = 1.05 × 10−5mol L−1

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 92
If two molecules of A and B have mass 100kg and 64kg and rate of
diffusion of A is 12 × 10−3 then, what will be rate of diffusion of B ?

Options:
−3
A. 15 × 10
−3
B. 64 × 10
−3
C. 5 × 10
−3
D. 46 × 10

Answer: A

Solution:

Solution:

√
rA MB
According to Graham's law, =
rB MA

Here, M A = ( 100
2 )
kg∕ molecule,

MB= ( 642 ) kg∕ molecule

rA = 12 × 10−3 and rB = ?
12 × 10−3
rB
= √ 64 ∕ 2
100 ∕ 2
= √ 64
100
=
8
10
 12 × 10−3 × 10
rB = = 15 × 10−3
8

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 93
Buna-N synthetic rubber is obtained by the copolymerisation of
Options:

A. CH 2 = CH − CH = CH 2 and H 5C6 − CH = CH 2

B. CH 2 = CH − CN and H 2C = CH − CH = CH 2

C. H 2C = CH − CN and CH 2 = CH − C(CH 3) = CH

D. H 2C = CH − (CCl ) = CH 2 and H 2C = CH − CH = CH 2

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Buna-N is obtained by copolymerisation of 1,3 -butadiene and acrylonitrile in the presence of a peroxide catalyst.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 94
The oxidation number of oxygen in oxygen difluoride (OF 2) and
dioxygen difluoride (O2F 2) respectively is

Options:

A. +1 and +2

B. +2 and +1

C. +1 and + 1

D. +2 and +2

Answer: B
Solution:

Solution:
In oxygen difluoride (OF 2) and dioxygen difluoride (O2F 2), fluorine gains electron with negative charge as F is more
electronegative than O. Thus, O will have positive charge.
∴ Oxidation number of O in OF 2 = +2
∴ Oxidation number of O in O2F 2 = +1

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 95
The correct order of radii of F −F −, O and O2− is

Options:
2− −
A. O >F >F >O

B. F − > O2− > F > O

C. O2− > O > F − > F

D. O2− > F − > O > F

Answer: D

Solution:

Solution:
Radii of the given species vary in the order.
O2− > F − > O > F
The size of the anion is larger than their parent atom. Also, the more the nuclear charge, the lesser is the size.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 96
Which of the following can reduce? RCOOH ⟶ RCH 2OH

Options:

A. N aBH 4

B. N a ∕ C2H 5OH

C. BH 3 ∕ T H F ∕ H 3O+

D. H 2 /catalyst

Answer: C

Solution:
Solution:
The reduction of carboxylic acids to alcohols is carried out by LiAl H 4 and boranes ( BH 3 or B2H 6 ) in THF.
BH 3
RCOOH ──────▶RCH2OH
+
THF, H3O

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Question 97
Which of the following trend is correct with respect to the reactivity of
alkalimetal oxides with water?

Options:

A. Li2O > N a2O > K 2O > Rb2O > Cs2O

B. Cs2O > Rb2O > K 2O > N a2O > Li2O

C. Li2O > N a2O > K 2O < Rb2O < Cs2O

D. N a2O > K 2O < Li2O < Rb2O > Cs2O

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Down the group, reactivity of alkali metal oxides with water increases and thus, the reaction of Rb2O with water and
Cs2O with water are explosive. Hence, the correct reactivity order is
Cs2O > Rb2O > K 2O > N a2O > Li2O

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Question 98
Which of the following is an extensive property?

Options:

A. Viscosity

B. Heat capacity

C. Density

D. Surface tension

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Heat capacity is an extensive property. It is a property that changes when the size of the system changes, whereas
viscosity, density and surface tension are intensive properties.

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Question 99
Which of the following polymer is used in the manufacture of
insulators?

Options:

A. Polyacrylonitrile

B. Teflon

C. Bakelite

D. Nomex

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
Teflon is used in the manufacture of insulators, gaskets etc. It is also known as polytetrafluoro ethylene having monomer
unit of tetrafluoro ethylene.

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Question 100
According to Faraday's first law,

Options:

A. W = 96500 × E
I ×t

I ×t×E
B. W = 96500

I ×W
C. E =
t × 96500

D. E = I × t × 96500
W

Answer: B

Solution:

Solution:
According to Faraday's first law,
W = Z l t and
 E
Z =
96500
I ×t×E
W =
96500
where, I = current, t = time
E = equivalent weight
W = weight deposited.

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