MHT CET 2022 - Paper II

Physics

Q.1
The magnetic susceptibility of the material of a rod is 349 and
permeability of vacuum μ0 is 4π × 10–7 SI units. Absolute permeability
of the material of the rod in SI units is

Options:

A.

4400 × 10–7

B.

4200 × 10–7

C.

4800 × 10–7

D.

4600 × 10–7

Answer: A

Solution:

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Q.2

Options:

A.
B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

Solution:

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Q.3
A body weighs 500 N on the surface of the earth. At what distance below
the surface of the earth it weighs 250 N ? (Radius of earth, R = 6400
km)

Options:

A.
6400 km

B.
800 km

C.
1600 km

D.

3200 km

Answer: D
Solution:

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Q.4
Three discs x, y and z having radii 2 m, 3 m and 6 m respectively are
coated on outer surfaces. The wavelength corresponding to maximum
intensity are 300 nm, 400 nm and 500 nm respectively. If Px , Py and Pz
are power radiated by them respectively then

Options:

A.
Px is maximum

B.

Pz is maximum

C.

Py is maximum

D.

Px = Py = Pz

Answer: B

Solution:
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Q.5

A stationary wave is represented by where x and y are in

cm and t in second. The distance between two consecutive nodes is
Options:

A.

1 cm

B.

8 cm

C.

4 cm

D.
2 cm
Answer: C

Solution:

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Q.6
When the rms velocity of a gas is denoted by 'v', which one of the
following relations is true ?

(T = Absolute temperature of the gas.)

Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: A

Solution:

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Q.7
A parallel plate air capacitor has a uniform electric field 'E' in the space
between the plates. Area of each plate is A and the distance between the
plates is 'd'. The energy stored in the capacitor is [ε0 = permittivity of
free space)

Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

Solution:

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Q.8
Two massless springs of spring constant K1 and K2 are connected one
after the other forming a single chain, suspended vertically and certain
mass is attached to the free end. If 'e1
' and 'e2' are their respective extensions and 'f' is their stretching force,
the total extension produced is

Options:
A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: A

Solution:

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Q.9
The time taken by a particle executing simple harmonic motion of
period 'T', to move from the mean position to half the maximum
displacement is

Options:

A.

B.
C.

D.

Answer: A

Solution:

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Q.10
Using Bohr's model, the orbital period of electron in hydrogen atom in
the nth orbit is (ε0 = permittivity of vacuum, h = Planck's constant, m
= mass of electron, e = electronic charge)
Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

Solution:
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Q.11
A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then disconnected from the
charging battery. If the plates are now moved further apart by pulling
them by means of insulating handles, then

Options:

A.
the capacitance of the capacitor increases

B.

the charge on the capacitor decreases

C.

the voltage across the capacitor increases

D.
the energy stored in the capacitor decreases

Answer: C

Solution:

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Q.12
If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, it's de Broglie
wavelength (λ) changes by a factor
Options:

A.

1/√2

B.
1/2

C.
√2

D.
2

Answer: A

Solution:

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Q.13
In the following network, the current through galvanometer will

Options:

A.

be zero

B.
flow from Q to S

C.

flow in a direction which depends on value of V

D.
flow from S to Q

Answer: D

Solution:

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Q.14

Options:

A.

0.4 m

B.
0.1 m

C.
0.2 m

D.
0.3 m

Answer: D

Solution:
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Q.15
The work done in blowing a soap bubble of radius R is 'W1' at room
temperature. Now the soap solution is heated. From the heated solution
another soap bubble of radius 2R is blown and the work done is 'W2'.
Then

Options:

A.
W2 = W1

B.
W2 = 4W1

C.
W2 < 4W1

D.
W2 = 0

Answer: C

Solution:

Understanding Surface Tension and Work Done

Surface tension (T): A property of liquids that causes their surface to behave like a stretched membrane, minimizing
surface area. It's represented by the symbol T and has units of force per unit length.

Work done in forming a bubble: When you blow a bubble, you increase its surface area. This requires work to be
done against the surface tension forces trying to minimize the area.

Relationship Between Work, Surface Area, and Surface Tension

The work done (W) in increasing the surface area of a liquid is:

W = TΔA

where:

T is the surface tension

ΔA is the change in surface area

Bubble 1:

Radius = R
Surface Area = 4πR2 (Since a soap bubble has two surfaces, inner and outer)

Work Done = W1

Bubble 2:

Radius = 2R

Temperature's Effect:

Surface tension of liquids generally decreases with an increase in temperature.

Calculations

Since the surface area of bubble 2 is four times that of bubble 1, you might think W2 = 4W1. However, the surface
tension is lower for bubble 2 due to the heated soap solution.

Conclusion

Because the surface tension decreases with temperature:

Work done (W2) to form bubble 2 will be less than four times the work (W1) needed to form bubble 1.

Therefore, the correct answer is C: W2 < 4W1

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Q.16
A capacitor of capacitance 50μF is connected to a.c. source e = 220 sin
⁡50t (e in volt, t in second). The value of peak current is

Options:

A.

B.

C.
0.55 A

D.
√2 A

Answer: C

Solution:
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Q.17
Two waves are superimposed whose ratio of intensities is 9:1. The ratio
of maximum and minimum intensity is
Options:

A.
9:1

B.
4:1

C.
3:1

D.
5:3

Answer: B

Solution:

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Q.18
The masses and radii of the moon and the earth
are M1,R1 and M2,R2 respectively. Their centres are at a
distance d apart. What should be the minimum speed with which a body
of mass 'm' should be projected from a point midway between their
centres, so as to escape to infinity?

Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

Solution:

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Q.19
Options:

A.
580 K

B.
1200 K

C.
1160 K

D.
927 K

Answer: B

Solution:

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Q.20
Two parallel conducting wires of equal length are placed distance 'd'
apart, carry currents 'I1' and 'I2' respectively in opposite directions. The
resultant magnetic field at the midpoint of the distance between both
the wires is

Options:

A.

B.
C.

D.

Answer: D

Solution:

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Q.21
Self inductance of a solenoid cannot be increased by
Options:

A.
decreasing its length

B.
increasing its area of cross-section

C.
increasing the current through it

D.
increasing the number of turns in it

Answer: C

Solution:
The self inductance of a solenoid is given by

L depends upon N,A and I. It does not depend upon the current flowing through it. Change in current does not affect L.

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Q.22
For a NAND gate, the inputs and outputs are given below.

Input A Input B Output Y

0 1 C
0 0 D
1 0 E
1 1 F

The values taken by C, D, E, F are respectively

Options:

A.
0, 1, 0, 0

B.
1, 1, 1, 0

C.

1, 0, 1, 1

D.
0, 1, 0, 1

Answer: B

Solution:

For the NAND gate, the truth table is

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Q.23
An electron and a proton having the same momenta enter
perpendicularly into a magnetic field. What are their trajectories in the
field?

Options:

A.
Path of the electron is more curved than that of proton

B.
They will travel undeflected

C.

Path of the proton is more curved than that of the electron

D.
Both the electron and the proton will move along the same curved path but they will move in opposite directions

Answer: D

Solution:

The force produced by the magnetic field on a moving charged particle is F = qvB and this gives a C.P. force

It is given that both the particles (electron and proton) have the same momenta.

Similarly they have the same charge in magnitude (e and −e) and they move in the same field (B).

∴ They will describe the same curved path.

[One will move clockwise and the other anticlockwise.]

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Q.24
The resistance offered by an inductor ((XL) in an a.c. circuit is

Options:

A.
inversely proportional to inductance and frequency of the alternating current

B.
inversely proportional to frequency of alternating current and directly proportional to inductance
C.
inversely proportional to inductance and directly proportional to the frequency of alternating current

D.
directly proportional to inductance and frequency of alternating current

Answer: D

Solution:

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Q.25
The force between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance
'C' and distance of separation of the plates 'd' with a potential
difference 'V' between the plates is
Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

Solution:

The force of attraction between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is

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Q.26
Consider the following statements about stationary waves.

A. The distance between two adjacent nodes or antinodes is equal

to λ/2(λ = wavelength of the wave)

B. A node is always formed at the open end of the open organ pipe.

Choose the correct option from the following.

Options:

A.
Both statements A and B are wrong.

B.

Only the statement B is true.

C.

Only the statement A is true.

D.
Both statements A and B are true.

Answer: C

Solution:

The correct option is C: Only the statement A is true.

Statement A is indeed correct. In a stationary wave, or standing wave, nodes are points of zero amplitude, while
antinodes are points of maximum amplitude. The distance between two adjacent nodes or two adjacent antinodes is half
the wavelength of the wave, or λ/2. This is because one complete wavelength of the wave contains two node-to-node or
antinode-to-antinode segments.

Statement B, however, is incorrect. A node represents a point of no displacement in a standing wave and is typically
formed where there is a fixed end that cannot vibrate, like a clamped end of a string. In contrast, an open end of an
organ pipe is free to move and thus supports an antinode, not a node. The pressure variation at an open end is minimal
(corresponding to a displacement antinode), while pressure variations are maximal at a closed end (corresponding to a
displacement node). Therefore, in an open organ pipe, there's actually an antinode at each open end if we're discussing
a standing wave in terms of displacement rather than pressure.

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Q.27
If the radius of the spherical gaussian surface is increased then the
electric flux due to a point charge enclosed by the surface

Options:

A.

increases

B.
remains unchanged

C.

decreases

D.

zero

Answer: B

Solution:

If the radius of the spherical Gaussian surface is increased, then the electric flux due to a point charge enclosed by the
surface remains constant.

Flux depends only on the enclosed charge. It does not depend upon the size or shape of the Gaussian surface.

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Q.28
The wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen
spectrum will be

(Rydberg's constant =107 m−1)

Options:

A.

250 m–1

B.

2.5 × 106 m–1

C.

0.25 × 109 m–1

D.

2.5 × 105 m–1

Answer: B

Solution:
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Q.29
A bucket containing water is revolved in a vertical circle of radius r. To
prevent the water from falling down, the minimum frequency of
revolution required is

(g = acceleration due to gravity)

Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

Solution:

To answer this question, we need to consider the forces in action when the bucket is at the topmost point in its circular
path. At that point, the centripetal force required to keep the water moving in a circular path must be greater than or
equal to the gravitational force acting on the water, to prevent it from falling out of the bucket.

The centripetal force (Fc) can be described by the following equation, where m is the mass of water, v is the linear
velocity of the bucket, and r is the radius of the circle:
Let's substitute this into the velocity equation and solve for frequency:

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Q.30
Two monatomic ideal gases A and B of molecular masses 'm1' and 'm2'
respectively are enclosed in separate containers kept at the same
temperature. The ratio of the speed of sound in gas A to that in gas B is
given by

Options:

A.

B.
C.

D.

Answer: A

Solution:

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Q.31

Options:

A.
1:2

B.

3:1

C.

2:1

D.
1:3

Answer: D

Solution:
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Q.32
A hollow pipe of length 0.8 m is closed at one end. At its open end,
a 0.5 m long uniform string is vibrating in its second harmonic and it
resonates with the fundamental frequency of pipe. If the tension in the
string is 50 N and speed of sound in air is 320 m/s, the mass of the
string is

Options:

A.
20 g

B.

10 g

C.

40 g

D.
5g

Answer: A

Solution:
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Q.33
A graph of magnetic flux (ϕ) versus current (I) is drawn for four
inductors A, B, C, D. Larger value of self inductance is for inductor.

Options:

A.
D

B.
B

C.

D.

Answer: D
Solution:

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Q.34
A parallel beam of monochromatic light falls normally on a single
narrow slit. The angular width of the central maximum in the resulting
diffraction pattern

Options:

A.

decreases with increase of slitwidth

B.
may increase or decrease

C.

decreases with decrease of slitwidth

D.

increases with increase in slitwidth

Answer: A

Solution:

The angular width of the central maximum is

∴ If a is increased, the angular width is decreased.

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Q.35
A body moving in a circular path with a constant speed has constant
Options:

A.
momentum

B.

velocity

C.

acceleration

D.
kinetic energy

Answer: D

Solution:

A body moving in a circular path at constant speed has constant kinetic energy. The directions of momentum, velocity
and acceleration change from point to points. Hence they do not remain constant. K.E. is a scalar. Others are vectors.

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Q.36
A steel coin of thickness 'd' and density 'p' is floating on water of
surface tension 'T'. The radius of the coin (R) is [g = acceleration due to
gravity]

Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D

Solution:
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Q.37
A door 1.2 m wide requires a force of 1 N to be applied perpendicular at
the free end to open or close it. The perpendicular force required at a
point 0.2 m distant from the hinges for opening or closing the door is

Options:

A.

3.6 N

B.
2.4 N

C.

1.2 N

D.

6.0 N

Answer: D

Solution:

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Q.38
The thermodynamic process in which no work is done on or by the gas is

Options:

A.
isochoric process

B.

adiabatic process

C.

isothermal process

D.
isobaric process

Answer: A

Solution:

The thermodynamic process, in which no work is done on or by the system is isochoric process.

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Q.39
The given circuit has two ideal diodes D1 and D2 connected as shown in
the figure. The current flowing through the resistance R1 will be

Options:

A.
7A

B.

3.3 A
C.

2A

D.
2.5 A

Answer: C

Solution:

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Q.40
In a Fraunhofer diffraction at a single slit of width 'd' and incident light
of wavelength 5500 Å, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30o.
The first secondary maxima is observed at an angle θ, equal to
Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

Solution:

The first minimum in a Fraunhofer diffraction pattern occurs when the path difference between the light from the two
edges of the slit is equal to the wavelength of the light, λ. The condition for the first minimum can be written as:
Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option B

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Q.41
A galvanometer of resistance 200 Ω is to be converted into an ammeter.
The value of shunt resistance which allows 3% of the mains current
through the galvanometer is equal to (nearly)

Options:

A.

6Ω

B.

7Ω
C.
10Ω

D.

5Ω

Answer: A

Solution:

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Q.42
The speed of light in two media M1 and M2 are 1.5 × 108 m/s and 2 ×
108 m/s respectively. If the light undergoes total internal reflection, the
critical angle between the two media is

Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D

Solution:
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Q.43
The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by
a convex lens of focal length 'f' is

Options:

A.

2f

B.

4f

C.
1.5f

D.

2.5f

Answer: B

Solution:

To find the minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens, we need to take into
account the lens formula, which is given by:
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Q.44
Heat given to a body, which raises its temperature by 1ºC is known as

Options:

A.
specific heat

B.

thermal capacity

C.

water equivalent

D.
temperature gradient

Answer: B

Solution:

The heat given to a body, which raises its temperature by 1ºC (or 1 K), is known as the thermal capacity or sometimes
referred to as the heat capacity of the body. The correct answer is Option B: thermal capacity.

The thermal capacity (C) of a body is defined as the amount of heat energy (Q) required to raise the temperature of the
entire body by one degree Celsius (or one Kelvin). The formula for thermal capacity is given by:

where Q is the heat energy supplied to the body and ΔT is the change in temperature.
To elaborate on the other options provided:

Option A: Specific heat (sometimes called specific heat capacity) is the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of one kilogram of the substance by one degree Celsius (or one Kelvin). It is an intrinsic property of the
substance and is expressed in units such as joules per kilogram Kelvin (J/kg·K). The formula for specific heat (c) is given
by:

where m is the mass of the substance.

Option C: Water equivalent is a somewhat outdated term used to describe a quantity of a substance that would absorb
the same amount of heat as a given mass of water. It is based on the high specific heat capacity of water, which has
historically been used as a benchmark. It's not precisely a term for the heat to raise the temperature but rather a
comparative metric.

Option D: Temperature gradient refers to the rate of change of temperature with respect to distance in a particular
direction. It is a vector quantity that illustrates how temperature changes from one point to another and is not related
to the amount of heat energy that is supplied to a body. Therefore, it does not describe the amount of heat needed to
increase the temperature of a body by 1ºC.

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Q.45
A shell is fired at an angle of 30o to the horizontal with velocity 196 m/s.
The time of flight is

Options:

A.

6.5 s

B.
20 s

C.

16.5 s

D.

10 s

Answer: B

Solution:

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Q.46
Options:

A.

1/2

B.
√2

C.

1/√2

D.

Answer: D

Solution:

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Q.47

Options:

A.
B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

Solution:

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Q.48
In a full wave rectifier circuit without filter, the output current is

Options:

A.
an eddy current
B.
a constant direct current

C.

a sinusoidal current

D.

unidirectional but not steady current

Answer: D

Solution:

The correct answer to this question is Option D: unidirectional but not steady current.

In a full-wave rectifier circuit, the objective is to convert alternating current (AC) into direct current (DC). The
fundamental characteristic of a full-wave rectifier is that it inverts the negative half-cycles of the AC input voltage so
that on the output side, the current flows in only one direction for both half-cycles. This makes the output current
unidirectional. However, without a filter to smooth out the ripples, the output current is not a constant direct current
but a pulsating direct current that still retains the frequency of the original AC signal.

The output current of a full-wave rectifier without a filter can be represented as an absolute value of a sinusoidal wave,
meaning it maintains the sinusoidal shape but with all the values above the zero line since the negative values are
inverted. This waveform is not constant or steady; instead, it rises and falls with the frequency of the AC input, typically
at twice the frequency in the case of a full-wave rectifier because it rectifies both halves of the input sine wave.

So, to summarize:

Option A (an eddy current) is incorrect since eddy currents are localized currents induced in conductors when they are
exposed to changing magnetic fields, which is not the output of a rectifier circuit.

Option B (a constant direct current) is incorrect because without a filter (such as a capacitor or an inductor), the output
is not constant but pulsating with ripples.

Option C (a sinusoidal current) is incorrect because the resulting current is not sinusoidal; it's the absolute value of a
sinusoidal wave, representing both halves of the wave above zero volts.

Option D (unidirectional but not steady current) is correct as the output is indeed unidirectional due to the inversion of
the negative half-cycles, but not steady due to the absence of a filter to smooth out the ripples.

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Q.49
The excess pressure inside a soap bubble of radius 2 cm is 50 dyne/cm2 .
The surface tension is

Options:

A.

50 dyne/cm

B.
60 dyne/cm

C.

75 dyne/cm

D.
25 dyne/cm
Answer: D

Solution:

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Q.50
Two bodies of masses 'm' and ' 3 m' are rotating in horizontal speed of
the body of mass 'm' is n times that of the value of heavier body; while
the centripetal force is same for both. The value of n is

Options:

A.
3

B.
1

C.

D.

Answer: A

Solution:
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Chemistry

Q.1

Options:

A.

2.22 × 10–3 mol dm–3

B.

1.11 × 10–3 mol dm–3

C.

4.44 × 10–3 mol dm–3

D.

3.33 × 10–3 mol dm–3

Answer: C

Solution:
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Q.2
Identify the products obtained when chlorine reacts with hot and conc.
NaOH.

Options:

A.

NaClO3, NaCl and H2O

B.

NaCl and HOCl

C.

Na2O and NaCl

D.
NaOCl and H2O

Answer: A

Solution:

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Q.3
Which from following elements does NOT react with water?

Options:

A.

Ca

B.

Sr

C.
Be

D.

Mg

Answer: C

Solution:
The element that does not react with water at room temperature among the options provided is Beryllium (Be), option
C. Calcium (Ca), Strontium (Sr), and Magnesium (Mg) can all react with water, though Magnesium's reaction is very
slow and often requires heat to be noticeable at room temperature.

Beryllium is an alkaline earth metal, and it is the least reactive among the group 2 elements. While other alkaline earth
metals like calcium and strontium will react with water to form hydroxides and release hydrogen gas, beryllium does
not react with water even when heated. It is protected by an oxide layer that forms on the surface, which prevents it
from reacting with water. The reactions for Ca and Sr with water are as follows:

For Calcium (Ca):

Consequently, the correct answer to the question is Option C, Beryllium (Be).

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Q.4
Identify the type of hybridization involved in hexaaminecobalt (III)
complex ion.

Options:

A.

sp3

B.

dsp2

C.

d2sp3

D.

sp3d2

Answer: C

Solution:
Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option C

d2sp3

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Q.5
Calculate the solubility of a gas in water at 0.8 atm and 25oC.

[Henry's law constant is 6.85 × 10–4 mol dm–3 atm–1]

Options:

A.

2.74 × 10–4 mol dm–3

B.

3.94 × 10–4 mol dm–3

C.

6.85 × 10–4 mol dm–3

D.

5.48 × 10–4 mol dm–3

Answer: D

Solution:

The solubility of a gas in a liquid according to Henry's law can be determined using the formula:
Option D

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Q.6
What is the value of temperature in degree Celsius at absolute zero ?

Options:

A.

273.15oC

B.

–373.15oC

C.

0oC

D.

–273.15oC

Answer: D

Solution:

The value of temperature in degree Celsius at absolute zero is Option D:

–273.15oC

Absolute zero is the lowest theoretical temperature where nothing could be colder and no heat energy remains in a
substance. Absolute zero is the point at which the fundamental particles of nature have minimal vibrational motion,
retaining only quantum mechanical, zero-point energy-induced particle motion. The Celsius scale is set up so that the
freezing point of water is at 0∘C, while the boiling point is at 100∘C. By definition, absolute zero is 0 kelvin (K), but it
can be converted into degrees Celsius by the equation:
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Q.7
Which among the following reactions does NOT correctly match with its
reagent?

Options:

A.

Stephen reaction : SnCl2, HCl

B.
Etard reaction : CrO2Cl2

C.

Gatterman - Koch formulation : CrO3/(CH3CO)2O

D.

Rosenmund reduction : H2/Pd – BaSO4

Answer: C

Solution:

Gatterman Koch - CO, HCl and Anhydrous AlCl3

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Q.8
Which among the following compounds is NOT prepared by Sandmeyer's
reaction ?

Options:

A.

B.
C.

D.

Answer: A

Solution:

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Q.9
Which among the following compounds undergoes SN2 reaction fastly ?

Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: D

Solution:

Primary iodide will undergo SN2 reaction fast.

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Q.10
Which of the following molecules possesses highest dipole-dipole
interactions ?

Options:

A.
HCl

B.

HI

C.

HBr

D.

HF

Answer: D

Solution:

Greater the dipole moment higher is dipole-dipole interaction.

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Q.11
What is the total volume occupied by atoms in bcc unit cell ?

Options:

A.

52.36%

B.

68%

C.

80%

D.

74%

Answer: B

Solution:

The body-centered cubic (bcc) unit cell is one of the basic structures that atoms can be arranged in for a crystalline
solid. In a bcc cell, there is one atom at each corner of the cube and one atom in the center of the cube. The volume
occupied by the atoms in a bcc unit cell can be calculated if we know the atomic radius and the edge length of the cube.
The atoms in a bcc structure touch each other along the body diagonal of the cube. Therefore, we can use the relation
between the body diagonal (d) of the cube, the cube's edge length (a), and the atomic radius (r) for a bcc lattice, which
is given as:

Each corner atom is shared by eight adjacent cubes and the center atom belongs entirely to one cube. Therefore, a
single bcc unit cell contains

Thus, the total volume occupied by atoms in a body-centered cubic (bcc) unit cell is approximately 68%. Therefore, the
correct answer is:

Option B

68%

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.12
Which among the following metals is involved in preparation of
Grignard reagent ?

Options:

A.
Magnesium

B.

Sodium

C.

Silver

D.

Zinc

Answer: A

Solution:

Alkyl magnesium halide is Grignard reagent.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.13
Which among the following properties of lanthanoids is NOT true?

Options:

A.

Good conductors of heat and electricity

B.

All are non-radioactive elements

C.

Have greater co-ordination number than six

D.
Strongly paramagnetic

Answer: B

Solution:

The incorrect property among the listed options for lanthanoids is:

Option B: All are non-radioactive elements

This statement is not true because not all lanthanoids are non-radioactive. Most lanthanoids are indeed non-radioactive
under normal conditions. However, among the lanthanides, promethium (Pm) is an exception as it does not have any
stable isotopes and is radioactive. The most common isotope of promethium, promethium-145, has a half-life of 17.7
years and thus, it decays over time emitting radiation.

The other options given are typically true for the lanthanides (also known as lanthanoids):

Option A: Good conductors of heat and electricity – True. Lanthanoids are metals and like most metals, they are
generally good conductors of heat and electricity.

Option C: Have greater coordination number than six – True. Lanthanoids have the ability to adopt coordination
numbers greater than 6 because of their relatively large ionic radii and the availability of empty 4f, 5d, and 6s orbitals
that can participate in bonding.
Option D: Strongly paramagnetic – True. Many lanthanides are strongly paramagnetic due to the presence of unpaired
electrons in their 4f orbitals. Their magnetic properties are significant and are utilized in various applications such as in
magnets, phosphors, and in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) contrast agents.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.14
Which of the following is a Lewis acid but NOT a Bronsted acid?

Options:

A.

BCl3

B.
HNO3

C.

NH3

D.

Answer: A

Solution:

To identify which of the given compounds is a Lewis acid but not a Bronsted acid, we must first understand the
definitions of Lewis and Bronsted acids.

A Lewis acid is a compound that can accept an electron pair, whereas a Bronsted acid is a compound that can donate a
proton (H+). In other words, Lewis acids are electron pair acceptors, and Bronsted acids are proton donors.

Now let's evaluate the given options:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.15
Which of the following aqueous solutions of salts will have
highest pH value?

Options:

A.

CH3COONH4

B.

Na2CO3

C.

NH4Cl

D.
NaCl

Answer: B

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.16
Which among the following compounds represents a soap molecule?

Options:

A.

Ammonium salt of higher fatty acids

B.

Sodium salt of formic acid

C.

Potassium salt of higher fatty acids

D.

Ammonium salt of formic acid

Answer: C

Solution:
Soaps are best represented by the salts of higher fatty acids (long-chain carboxylic acids) with sodium or potassium.
These salts form when a strong base reacts with a fatty acid in a process called saponification. Soaps have a
hydrophobic tail that is typically composed of a long straight-chain hydrocarbon and a hydrophilic head that contains
the ionic part of the molecule.

Let's analyze each option:

Option A: Ammonium salt of higher fatty acids – This features the right type of acid (higher fatty acids) but the wrong
cation, ammonium . Ammonium salts aren't typically used as soaps.

Option B: Sodium salt of formic acid – Formic acid is the simplest carboxylic acid and doesn't qualify as a higher fatty
acid which is needed to form soap. Moreover, the resulting salt is not used as a soap due to its simple structure and
lack of a long hydrophobic tail.

Option C: Potassium salt of higher fatty acids – This fits the definition of a soap, having a potassium ion (K+) combined
with a higher fatty acid anion, making it a potassium soap.

Option D: Ammonium salt of formic acid – Similar to option B, this uses formic acid and has the ammonium ion, which
is also not typically used in soap.

Therefore, Option C, the Potassium salt of higher fatty acids, best represents a soap molecule.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.17
How long will it take to produce 5.4 g of Ag from molten AgCl by
passing 5 amp current?

(Molar mass Ag = 108 g mol−1)

Options:

A.

1930 second

B.

193 second

C.
965 second

D.

9650 second

Answer: C

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.18
Which of the following is NOT an example of secondary voltaic cell?

Options:
A.

Lead storage battery

B.

Dry cell

C.
Nickel-cadmium cell

D.
Mercury cell

Answer: B

Solution:

Dry cell is an example of primary voltaic cell.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.19
What is the number of unpaired electrons in [Co(NH3)6]3+ complex ?

Options:

A.

Four

B.

Two

C.
Zero

D.
Six

Answer: C

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.20
Which among the following methods is used to prepare Grignard
reagent?

Options:
A.
Action of magnesium powder on alkyl halide in aqueous medium

B.

Action of magnesium hydroxide on alkyl halide

C.

Action of magnesium metal on alkyl halide in presence of dry ether

D.

Action of MgCl2 on alkyl halide in presence of dry ether

Answer: C

Solution:

Grignard reagent reacts in aqueous medium hence dry ether is used.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.21
Calculate the density of metal having volume of unit cell 64 × 10–24 cm3
and molar mass of metal 192 g mol–1 containing 4 particles in unit cell.

Options:

A.

14.92 g cm–3

B.

16.00 g cm–3

C.

19.93 g cm–3

D.

18.00 g cm–3

Answer: C

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.22
Calculate the work done when 2 moles of an ideal gas expand from a
volume of 5 dm3 to 7 × 10–3 m3 against a constant external pressure of
2.02 × 105 Nm–2 ?

Options:

A.

20.2 J

B.

–404 J

C.
202 J

D.

–35.0 J

Answer: B

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.23
Which among the following pair of monomers does not generate
polyamide polymer?

Options:

A.
Urea and Formaldehyde

B.
Glycine and ε amino caproic acid

C.

Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine

D.

3-Hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-Hydroxy pentanoic acid

Answer: D

Solution:
None of the monomers has −NH2 group.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.24
What type of following phenomena is NOT exhibited by adsorption?

Options:

A.

Irreversible

B.

Bulk

C.

Exothermic

D.
Endothermic

Answer: B

Solution:

Among the listed options, Option B: "Bulk" is NOT a phenomenon that is typically exhibited by adsorption. To
understand why let's examine all the options:

Option A: Irreversible - Adsorption can be either reversible or irreversible. Irreversible adsorption means that once
the adsorbate molecules attach to the adsorbent surface, they are not easily detached; this is common with
chemisorption, where strong chemical bonds are formed. Reversible adsorption is more characteristic of physisorption,
where the forces involved are weaker (like van der Waals forces), allowing the adsorbate to be released from the
adsorbent surface under certain conditions. So, adsorption can indeed be irreversible, but it's not exclusively so.

Option B: Bulk - Adsorption is a surface phenomenon. It involves the accumulation of substances at the interface
between two phases, such as between a solid surface and a gas or liquid. "Bulk" refers to the volume of a material or a
phenomenon that occurs throughout the volume, which is contrary to the localized nature of adsorption at surfaces or
interfaces. Therefore, adsorption is not a bulk phenomenon.

Option C: Exothermic - Adsorption is typically an exothermic process. When adsorbate molecules attach to the
adsorbent surface, they release energy in the form of heat. This is because the adsorbate molecules usually go to a
lower energy state when they adhere to the adsorbent, leading to a release of energy. The enthalpy change (ΔH) of
adsorption is negative, which is indicative of an exothermic reaction.

Option D: Endothermic - Adsorption is generally exothermic, but there are instances where adsorption can be
endothermic. For example, when the adsorbate is bound with relatively stronger intermolecular forces in the bulk phase
compared to the forces it experiences at the adsorbent surface, the process may end up absorbing energy from the
surroundings to allow adsorption. However, these cases are the exception rather than the rule.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: "Bulk," as adsorption does not exhibit bulk characteristics; it is a surface-
based phenomenon.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.25
Find the rate constant of first order reaction in second having half life
of 2.5 hours.

Options:
A.

4.3 × 10–5 sec–1

B.

7.7 × 10–5 sec–1

C.

6.9 × 10–5 sec–1

D.

8.4 × 10–5 sec–1

Answer: B

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.26
Which nitrogen atom of pyrimidine base numbered from 1 to 6 is
bonded with furanose sugar ?

Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: B

Solution:

2nd nitrogen atom of pyrimidine base is bonded to furanose sugar.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.27
Identify the element with smallest ionic radius in +3 oxidation state
from following.
Options:

A.
Er

B.

Lu

C.

Eu

D.

Yb

Answer: B

Solution:

For elements in the same group of the periodic table, the ionic radii decrease with an increase in atomic number due to
increasing effective nuclear charge, which pulls the electrons closer to the nucleus. However, when looking across the
lanthanide series (or rare earth metals), there is an additional factor called the lanthanide contraction to consider.

Within lanthanides, as the atomic number increases, the filling up of the 4f sublevel takes place. Due to the poor
shielding effect of 4f electrons, the effective nuclear charge experienced by the outer electrons increases. Thus, despite
a constant charge state (+3 in this case), elements later in the series will have smaller radii due to the stronger
attraction by the nucleus.

Between erbium (Er), lutetium (Lu), europium (Eu), and ytterbium (Yb), Er and Lu are actual lanthanides, while Eu and
Yb have different electronic configurations that make them exceptions within the series. Europium tends to have a
larger radius due to having it typically in a +2 state, and ytterbium has an anomalous configuration with a filled 4f
level, imparting it a smaller radius than expected for its position.

Among the given options, lutetium (Lu) has the highest atomic number (71) and is the last element in the lanthanide
series. Because of the continued lanthanide contraction, Lu+3 is expected to have the smallest ionic radius of the given
options:

Er (Erbium) +3 is before Lu in the lanthanide series.

Eu (Europium) +3 would generally have a larger ionic radius due to being earlier in the series and also due to its
typical +2 state.

Yb (Ytterbium) +3, although having a filled 4f level resulting in a smaller radius than expected, it is still not as
small as that of Lu+3 because Yb has a lower atomic number.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option B: Lu (Lutetium)

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.28
Identify the product in the following reaction.

Options:

A.
B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

Solution:

The carbon atoms of double bond will form –COOH on oxidation.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.29
Which among following compounds possesses highest number of N
atoms in it ?

Options:

A.

Cytosine

B.

Uracil

C.

Guanine

D.

Thymine

Answer: C

Solution:

The number of nitrogen atoms present in the given compounds can be determined by looking at the molecular
structures of each base. Cytosine, uracil, guanine, and thymine are all nitrogenous bases found in nucleic acids. Let's
analyze each one:

Cytosine (Option A) has a single ring structure known as pyrimidine and it contains three nitrogen atoms within that
ring.

Uracil (Option B) is also a pyrimidine base and it too contains two nitrogen atoms.

Guanine (Option C) is a purine base and has a two-ring structure. It contains five nitrogen atoms—three in the larger
six-membered ring and two in the smaller five-membered ring.

Thymine (Option D) is another pyrimidine base and it contains two nitrogen atoms, similar to uracil.

Among these options, guanine contains the most nitrogen atoms. Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option C - Guanine

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.30
What is the bond order of CO molecule?

Options:

A.
1

B.

C.

D.

Answer: C

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.31
Which of the following is NOT hydrogen like species?

Options:

A.

He

B.

He+

C.
Li2+

D.

Be3+

Answer: A

Solution:

Hydrogen-like species, also known as hydrogenic atoms or ions, are those that have only one electron surrounding the
nucleus, irrespective of the charge on the nucleus. To evaluate which of the given species is not hydrogen-like, we need
to look at the electron configuration of each.

Option A: He has two protons in its nucleus and two electrons. This is the normal helium atom and it has two electrons,
hence it is not a hydrogen-like species since a hydrogen-like species can have only one electron.

Option B: He+ is a helium ion with one electron removed, thus it has two protons in its nucleus but only one electron.
This species is hydrogen-like because it has only one electron.

Option C: Li2+ has three protons in its nucleus and, in this ionic state, has had two electrons removed, leaving it with
just one electron. Like He+, this ion is hydrogen-like.

Option D: Be3+ has four protons in its nucleus and, as a trivalent cation, has had three electrons removed. Therefore, it
has only one electron remaining, which makes it a hydrogen-like species.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option A: He, because it is not hydrogen-like due to its two electrons.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.32
What is the intermediate compound formed when chlorobenzene is
treated with fused NaOH under pressure?

Options:

A.

Phenoxide ion

B.

Sodium phenoxide

C.
Benzene diazonium chloride

D.

Benzene

Answer: B

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q.33

Options:

A.

2y + Z → 3x

B.

2y → 3x + Z

C.

3x + 2y → Z

D.

3x → 2y + Z

Answer: A

Solution:

The given rate of reaction is:

The negative sign in front of the derivatives of concentrations of Y and Z suggests these are reactants being consumed
over time, while the positive sign for substance X indicates that it is a product being formed over time.

To relate the reaction rates of individual reactants and products to a balanced chemical equation, you have to equalize
the rate of disappearance of the reactants with the rate of appearance of the products, taking into consideration their
stoichiometric coefficients.

Using the stoichiometry of the balanced equation, we can understand that the coefficients of X, Y, and Z in the reaction
equation would correspond to the ratios of the rates at which they appear or disappear.

For this, the coefficients of Y and Z can be taken as 2 and 1, respectively, which would mean that for every 1 mole of Z
consumed, 2 moles of Y are consumed, as indicated by their rates being two times faster.

As per the given rate relationship, X is being formed thrice as fast as Z is being consumed and simultaneously 1.5 times
(= 3/2) as fast as Y is being consumed. Adding these stoichiometric coefficients into the equation, you can balance them
according to the reaction:

2Y + Z → 3X

Therefore, the correct representation of the reaction with stoichiometric coefficients is option A:

2y + Z → 3x

This is the only equation that correlates to the provided rate of reaction change for each compound, ensuring that the
Law of Conservation of Mass is upheld, with reactants being converted into products at the rates described in the
equation.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.34
Which among the following compounds contains highest number of
chlorine atoms in their single molecule ?

Options:

A.

Mustard gas

B.

Phosgene

C.

Tear gas

D.
Phosphine

Answer: C

Solution:

Tear gas CCl3(NO2) contains three Cl-atoms.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.35

Options:

A.

–388 kJ

B.

–194 kJ

C.

–97 kJ

D.

194 kJ

Answer: C

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q.36
Identify the concentration of the solution from following so that values
of ,ΔTf and Kf are same.

Options:

A.

1m

B.
1M

C.

1N

D.

N/10

Answer: A

Solution:

To identify the correct option, we first need to understand the relationship between the freezing point depression (ΔTf)
and the molal freezing point depression constant (Kf) of the solvent. This relationship is given by the colligative
property equation for freezing point depression:

Thus, the molality of the solution needs to be 1 mol/kg since the only situation where the equality holds is if the
molality m is equal to 1.

Now, let's analyze the options:

Option A: 1 m - This represents a concentration of 1 molal, which means 1 mole of solute per 1 kilogram of solvent.

Option B: 1 M - This represents a concentration of 1 molar, which is 1 mole of solute per 1 liter of solution. Molarity
and molality are not the same and the density of the solution would matter to convert between the two.

Option C: 1 N - This represents a 1 normal solution, which is related to the equivalent concept of moles of reactive
species. Normality can vary based on the equivalent factor of the solute, and is not purely a measure of the number of
moles of solute per liter of solution.

Option D: N/10 - This represents one-tenth the normality of the solution, which would be equivalent to a 0.1 N solution.

From the analysis above, we can conclude that the correct option is A, as it provides a molality of 1 which is necessary
for ΔTf to equal Kf when they are numerically the same:
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.37
What is the product formed when cumene is air oxidised in presence of
Co-naphthenate and further treated with dilute acid?

Options:

A.
Cumene hydroperoxide

B.
Phenol and CO2

C.

Acetone and Benzoic acid

D.

Phenol + Acetone

Answer: D

Solution:

The oxidation of cumene (isopropylbenzene) in the presence of a catalyst like cobalt naphthenate followed by treatment
with a dilute acid such as sulfuric acid leads to a process known as the cumene process. This process is used in the
industrial production of two important chemicals: phenol and acetone. Here’s how the process works:

Cumene is first oxidized by oxygen from the air to form cumene hydroperoxide (C6H5C(CH3)2OOH) in the presence of
a catalyst like cobalt naphthenate.

The cumene hydroperoxide is then treated with dilute acid to initiate a cleavage reaction. This reaction is a form of
acid-catalyzed decomposition called heterolytic cleavage.

The cumene hydroperoxide splits or cleaves to form phenol (C6H5OH) and acetone (CH3COCH3).

The reaction scheme is as follows:

Thus, the correct product formed when cumene is air oxidized in the presence of cobalt naphthenate and further
treated with dilute acid is Option D: Phenol + Acetone.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.38
Identify the use of polystyrene for household purposes.

Options:

A.

To prepare shopping bags

B.

To prepare microwavable food trays

C.
To manufacture disposable cups and plates

D.
To prepare bottles for storage of mouth wash

Answer: C

Solution:

Polystyrene is a versatile plastic that can be used for various purposes, including household items. Let's evaluate each
option provided:

Option A: To prepare shopping bags – Polystyrene is not typically used for shopping bags. Shopping bags are commonly
made from materials like polyethylene, which is more flexible and durable for this purpose. Therefore, Option A is not
generally correct.

Option B: To prepare microwavable food trays – Polystyrene can be used to make food trays, but it is important to note
that typical polystyrene, such as the one used in foam cups and takeout containers, is not microwave-safe. However,
there are certain types of polystyrene that have been made to be microwavable, so this use is possible but not as
common. Thus, Option B may be used in some cases with special types of polystyrene.

Option C: To manufacture disposable cups and plates – Polystyrene is widely used to produce disposable cups and
plates. This material offers insulation properties useful for both hot and cold drinks and is lightweight, making it
suitable for such disposable items. Therefore, Option C is correct.

Option D: To prepare bottles for storage of mouth wash – Polystyrene is generally not used for making bottles for
mouthwash or other liquids that can be ingested. Such bottles are usually made from materials like polyethylene
terephthalate (PET) or high-density polyethylene (HDPE) which are better suited to storing liquids safely. Consequently,
Option D is not correct for typical household-purpose polystyrene.

The correct answer for the most common use of polystyrene for household purposes from the options provided is Option
C: To manufacture disposable cups and plates.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.39
Identify compound A in following reaction

Benzene + Ozone (excess) → Benzenetriozonide Glyoxal

Options:

A.

conc. HNO3

B.

Ni

C.
Zn + H2O

D.

Zn
Answer: C

Solution:

Zn + H2O is used for ozonolysis.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.40
Which from following pairs of compounds is an example of
metamerism?

Options:

A.

But-2-ene and But-1-ene

B.

m-Butane and 2-Methylpropane

C.

Ethoxyethane and methoxypropane

D.
Dimethyl ether and ethyl alcohol

Answer: C

Solution:

Divalent oxygen is bonded to two different alkyl group having same molecular formula.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.41
If Q is the heat liberated from the system and W is the work done on the
system then first law of thermodynamics can be written as,

Options:

A.
Q = W – ΔU

B.
Q = ΔU – W

C.

Q = ΔU + W

D.
Q = –W

Answer: B

Solution:

First law of thermodynamics is ΔU = Q + W

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.42
Calculate the number of atoms in 5 gram metal that crystallises to form
simple cubic unit cell structure having edge length 336 pm. (Density of
metal = 9.4 g cm−3)

Options:

A.

1.0 × 1022

B.

2.1 × 1022

C.

1.4 × 1022

D.

1.8 × 1022

Answer: C

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.43
Identify the molecule in which central atom
undergoes sp3 hybridisation?

Options:

A.
BF3

B.
H2O

C.

C2H4

D.

BeCl2

Answer: B

Solution:

The central atom in a molecule undergoes sp3 hybridization when it forms four sigma (σ) bonds and has no lone pairs of
electrons. Let's examine each option to identify the correct one:

Option A: BF3

The boron atom in boron trifluoride (BF3) has three bonding pairs and no lone pairs of electrons. As a result, boron is
surrounded by three regions of electron density. Boron undergoes sp2 hybridization to form three sp2 hybrid orbitals,
which overlap with the p orbitals of fluorine to form three σ bonds. Hence, BF3 does not have sp3 hybridization.

Option B: H2O

In water (H2O), the central oxygen atom has two bonding pairs (with hydrogen atoms) and two lone pairs of electrons.
The oxygen atom is thus surrounded by four regions of electron density, which necessitates the use of four orbitals (one
s and three p orbitals) to hybridize into four equivalent sp3 hybrid orbitals. Two of these sp3 hybrid orbitals
form σ bonds with hydrogen atoms, and two accommodate the lone pairs. Therefore, water exhibits sp3 hybridization.

Option C: C2H4

In ethene (C2H4), each carbon atom forms three sigma (σ) bonds—two with hydrogen atoms and one with the other
carbon atom. In addition, there is a pi (π) bond between the carbon atoms formed from unhybridized p orbitals. Each
carbon atom in ethene undergoes sp2 hybridization to form three sp2 hybrid orbitals involved in sigma bonding, leaving
one p orbital to form the pi bond. Thus, ethene does not exhibit sp3 hybridization either.

Option D: BeCl2

In beryllium chloride (BeCl2), the central beryllium atom forms two sigma (σ) bonds with two chlorine atoms and has no
lone pairs. It uses its two available orbitals (one s and one p orbital) to hybridize into two equivalent sp hybrid orbitals.
Therefore, beryllium in BeCl2 undergoes sp hybridization, not sp3.

Only Option B, H2O, has a central atom that undergoes sp3 hybridization. The correct answer is Option B: H2O.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.44
Which one of the following conversions does NOT involve either
oxidation or reduction?

Options:

A.

Na → Na+

B.
C.

Zn2+ → Zn

D.

Answer: D

Solution:

Oxidation and reduction are chemical processes often involving the transfer of electrons between species. Oxidation
involves the loss of electrons or an increase in oxidation state, whereas reduction involves the gain of electrons or a
decrease in oxidation state.

Based on these considerations, the correct answer to the question of which conversion does NOT involve either
oxidation or reduction is:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.45

Options:

A.

B.

C.
D.

Answer: B

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.46
Identify the product A in the following reaction.

Options:

A.

CH3 – CH = CH2

B.

H2C = CH2

C.

CH3 – CH2 – CH3

D.
CH3 – C ≡ CH

Answer: B

Solution:

Hoffmann's β-elimination reaction.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.47
Options:

A.

42 gram

B.

60 gram

C.

64 gram

D.
50 gram

Answer: C

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.48
Identify ether from the following compounds.

Options:

A.
Benzenol

B.

Benzene-1, 2-diol

C.

Methoxymethane

D.

Propan-2-ol

Answer: C

Solution:

Methoxymethane CH3 − O − CH3 is ether

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q.49
Which from following polymers is used to obtain bristles for brushes?

Options:

A.

Nylon 2 - nylon 6

B.

Nylon 6, 6

C.

Nylon 6

D.

Polyacrylamide

Answer: B

Solution:

The material used to obtain bristles for brushes is nylon, which is a type of synthetic polymer known for its strength,
elasticity, and resistance to abrasion and chemicals. Let's examine the options you provided to determine the correct
answer.

Option A: Nylon 2 - nylon 6 doesn't typically refer to a commercial polymer used for bristles.

Option B: Nylon 6,6 is a type of nylon made from hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid, which provides strong and
durable fibers that are often used in bristles for brushes.

Option C: Nylon 6 is another type of nylon, made from caprolactam, and it also has good properties to be used for
bristles in brushes.

Option D: Polyacrylamide is not typically used for making bristles for brushes. It is more commonly used in water
treatment processes, soil conditioner or as a flocculant.

Among the options given, both Nylon 6,6 and Nylon 6 are plausible materials for making brush bristles. However,
traditionally, Nylon 6,6 (Option B) is the most common polymer used for high-quality brush bristles due to its high
tensile strength and stiffness. Therefore, Option B is likely the best answer.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.50
What is the pH of 2 × 10−3M solution of monoacidic weak base if it
ionises to the extent of 5% ?

Options:

A.

14

B.

C.
4

D.

Answer: C

Solution:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------