Nsscas 2022

REPUBLIC OF NAMIBIA
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, ARTS AND CULTURE
DIRECTORATE OF NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS AND ASSESSMENT
REPORT ON THE EXAMINATIONS
NSSCAS
OCTOBER/NOVEMBER 2022
CONTENTS
ACCOUNTING
Paper 8244/1.................................................................................................................................................................... 3
Paper 8244/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 12
AFRIKAANS SECOND LANGUAGE

Paper 8201/1 Reading and Writing................................................................................................................................ 21
Paper 8201/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................... 24
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
Paper 8222/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 27
Paper 8222/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 37
ART & DESIGN

Paper 8251/1&2............................................................................................................................................................. 39
BIOLOGY
Paper 8223/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 41
Paper 8223/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 42
Paper 8223/3.................................................................................................................................................................. 52
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 8245/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 57
Paper 8245/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 64
CHEMISTRY
Paper 8224/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 69
Paper 8224/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 70
Paper 8224/3.................................................................................................................................................................. 76
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Paper 8231/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 83
Paper 8231/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 96
DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY

Paper 8256/1................................................................................................................................................................ 109
Paper 8256/2................................................................................................................................................................ 124
Paper 8256/3................................................................................................................................................................ 126
ECONOMICS
Paper 8246/1................................................................................................................................................................ 129
Paper 8246/2................................................................................................................................................................ 135
ENGLISH SECOND LANGUAGE

Paper 8202/1 Reading and Writing.............................................................................................................................. 145
Paper 8202/2 Essay Writing......................................................................................................................................... 151
ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Paper 8247/1................................................................................................................................................................ 155
Paper 8247/2 Coursework........................................................................................................................................... 160
FIRST LANGUAGE AFRIKAANS

Paper 8166/1 Writing.................................................................................................................................................... 163
Paper 8166/2 Literature................................................................................................................................................ 166
FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH

Paper 8167/1 Writing.................................................................................................................................................... 173
FIRST LANGUAGE GERMAN

Paper 8168/1 Writing.................................................................................................................................................... 183
NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

1
FIRST LANGUAGE KHOEKHOEGOWAB
Paper 8190/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 191
Paper 8190/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 194
FIRST LANGUAGE OSHIKWANYAMA

FIRST LANGUAGE OSHINDONGA

FIRST LANGUAGE OTJIHERERO

FIRST LANGUAGE RUKWANGALI

Paper 8194/2 Writing.................................................................................................................................................... 228
FIRST LANGUAGE RUMANYO

Paper 8195/2 Writing.................................................................................................................................................... 234
FIRST LANGUAGE SETSWANA

Paper 8196/2 Writing.................................................................................................................................................... 240
FIRST LANGUAGE SILOZI

Paper 8197/2 Writing.................................................................................................................................................... 245
FIRST LANGUAGE THIMBUKUSHU

Paper 8198/2 Writing.................................................................................................................................................... 251
GEOGRAPHY
Paper 8233/1................................................................................................................................................................ 253
Paper 8233/2................................................................................................................................................................ 261
HISTORY
Paper 8234/1................................................................................................................................................................ 275
Paper 8234/2................................................................................................................................................................ 287
MATHEMATICS
Paper 8227/1 ............................................................................................................................................................... 299
Paper 8227/2 ............................................................................................................................................................... 305
PHYSICS
Paper 8225/1................................................................................................................................................................ 315
Paper 8225/2................................................................................................................................................................ 316
Paper 8225/3 ............................................................................................................................................................... 322

2
ACCOUNTING
8244
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
I was pleased to see that the standard of the learners’ work has improved in some centres.
Teachers are encouraged to continue emphasising the importance of dates, names of contra accounts, layout of
Statements, etc. It is also very important that learners are taught to show their calculations.
Some learners struggled to finish the paper and teachers are encouraged to teach time management skills in answering
an exam paper during the year. Learners wasted time by showing column heading in the general ledger accounts.
Some learners still misinterpret some of the questions and did not answer what was asked. Teachers are requested to
encourage learners to study the definitions and terminology in the notes.
There were many learners writing the AS Level Examination who were not able to cope with the challenges and
difficulties of Accounting at AS Level.
The neatness of the learners’ work can improve and they should write legibly and make their digits clear.
Abbreviations are not allowed.
COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS
1 (a) (i) Fairly well answered. The correct dates are still a problem for some learners, but most learners
could record the correct dates.
Double entry was applied correctly although some learners recorded the proceeds of the credit
sale to Charlie’s Pawn Shop in the Equipment account.
Answer
Equipment Account
Date Day Details Amount Date Day Details Amount
N$ N$
2020 Balance b/d 2021
Oct 1 (180 000 + 80 000) 260 000 (1) Sep 30 Balance c/d 340 000
2021
Jan 1 Mr Office 60 000 (1)
Mar 31 Capital 20 000 (1)

340 000
340 000
2021 2022 Equipment
Oct 1 Balance b/d 340 000 Mar 31 Disposal 80 000 (1)
Sep 30 Balance 260 000

340 000 340 000
2022
Oct 1 Balance 260 000 (1) O/F
[5]
(i) Poorly answered. Most of the learners used the correct dates and applied the double entry
correctly.
Learners should be encouraged to show their calculations in brackets when more than one
calculation is required. Some learners used the straight-line method.

3
Answer
Provision for depreciation on Equipment Account
N$ N$
2021 2020 Balance b/d
Sep 30 Balance c/d 101 400 Oct 1 (36 000 + 12 000)
Depreciation
2021
(28 800 + 13 600 (1) +
Sep 30
9 000 (1) + 2 000 (1))
101 400 101 400
Equipment
2022
Disposal(12 000 + 2021
Mar 31
13 600 + 5 440) 31 040 (1) Oct 1 Balance b/d 101 400
2022
Sep 30 Balance c/d 112 640 Mar 31 Depreciation 5 440 (1)
Depreciation
(23 040 (1) +
Sep 30
10 200 (1) + 3 600 (1)) 36 840
143 680 143 680

2022
Oct 1 Balance b/d 112 640
[9]
Workings for depreciation
Financial Equipment 1 Equipment 2 Equipment 3 Equipment 4
year ending
Opening 180 000 x 20% 80 000 x 20% x
balance = 36 000 9/12
= 12 000
2021 (180 000 – 36 000) (80 000 – 12 000) x 60 000 x 20% x 20 000 x 20% x
30 Sep x 20% 20% 9/12 6/12
= 28 800 = 13 600 = 9 000 = 2 000
2022 (180 000 – 36 000 – (80 000 – 12 000 (60 000 – 9 000) x (20 000 – 2 000) x
30 Sep 28 800) x 20% – 13 600) x 20% x 20% 20%
= 23 040 6/12 = 10 200 = 3 600
= 5 440
(iii) Fairly well answered. Some learners used profit on disposal instead of income statement and
some learners incorrectly balanced the disposal account. Some learners wrote vehicles and
provision for depreciation on vehicles instead of Equipment and Provision for depreciation on
equipment.
Answer
Equipment disposal Account
N$ N$
2022 2022 Provision for
Mar Equipment Mar depreciation on
31 80 000 (1) 31
equipment 31 040 (1) O/F
Charlie's Pawn
Income statement 6 040 (1) O/F Shop 55 000 (1)
86 040
86 040
340 000 340 000
[4]

4
(b) Fairly well answered. Some learners gave advantages of reducing balance method instead of the
straight-line method. Learners should take note that if a question counts two marks, they should give
at least two facts.
Answer
Useful for non-current assets which have an even use over their life. (1)
Useful for non-current assets from which equal benefits will be gained each year. (1) [2]
(c) Poorly answered. Only a few learners could give justification for purchasing machine A. Some
learners misread the question and did not answer what was asked.
Answer
Choice
Machine A will be the better option. (1)
Justification
Machine A will be paid back within the 54 months while Machine B will be paid back after 60 months. (1)
It will be better for the business to have cash available earlier after repaying the loan than later. (1)
OR
- Better cash flow available for the business. (1)
- The lower the initial costs mean a smaller loan and hence lower interest payments.
- It also means depreciation is lower for A despite B’s longer life. [3]
(d) Poorly answered. Lack of knowledge on capital and revenue expenditure items and how they affect
the financial statements. Learners answered the question in general and did not base their answer
on the case provided.
Answer
Income statement
The expenses will increase with the fuel, N$1 300 as well as the depreciation that will be charged on the
vehicle, (1) because it is part of the revenue expenses. (1)
Statement of Financial Position
The vehicles will increase from N$250 000 to N420 550, (1) because the cost price of the vehicle would be
N$170 550. (150 000 + 12 000 + 7 800 + 750) (1) This is because all these costs are part of the capital
expenses. (1)
OR
Vehicles will increase to N$420 550 (170 550 + 250 000) (1).
150 000 + 12 000 + 7 800 + 750 = 170 550 (1)
170 550 is seen as capital expenditure. Expenses are directly linked to the purchase of the vehicle. (1)
Fuel, however, is not used as it is part of the day-to-day expenses of the business (revenue expenditure). (1)
Therefore, expenses will increase. (1) [5]
2 (a) Fairly well answered. If a question asks of learners to explain, merely stating is not enough. Two
marks require two facts. Answers given by learners not sufficient to warrant 2 marks.
Answer
Provide information about the company’s overall actual cash inflows and outflows, (1) and the net
change in cash resulting from the operating, returns on investment, investing and financing activities
during the period. (1)
OR
- It links profit and the change in cash. (1)
- It shows the extent to which a company has relied on external financing. (1) Any two [2]
(b) Fairly well answered. Learners who knew the layout scored high marks in this question. Emphasis
should be given to a clear distinction between amounts added and amounts subtracted.
Some learners erroneously recorded the taxation in the statement of changes in equity.

5
Answer
Dollar Ltd
Statement of changes in equity for the year ended 30 June 2022
Ordinary General Retained Total
Share Reserve Earnings
Capital
N$ N$ N$ N$
Opening Balances – 01/07/2021 150 000 40 000 26 350 216 350 (1)
Ordinary Shares issued 50 000 50 000 (1)
Profit after tax 272 460 272 460 (1)
Ordinary Share dividends paid (45 000) (45 000) (1)
Transfer to General Reserve 110 000 (110 000) - (1)
Closing Balances – 30/06/2022 200 000 150 000 143 810 493 810
[5]
(c) Fairly well answered. Learners lost marks by indicating that cash flow concentrates on the total cash
inflow and outflow of past years. Past years is incorrect as it only analyses net change in cash flow
for one financial period, and not multiple years. Some learners only define the cash budget and the
cash flow statement and failed to show the difference between the two.
Answer
CASH BUDGET STATEMENT OF CASH FLOW
It highlights the future cash position on the basis of It highlights the analysis of various inflows and
future financial plan of action. (1) outflows of cash on the basis of past information. (1)
Calculate the projected cash balance at the end of Calculate the actual cash balance at the end of the
each month. (1) financial period. (1)
Cash Budget helps the management to know the Cash Flow Statement helps the management to
estimated cash position and thus assists in taking know the actual cash position and thus assists in
corrective steps to improve the business cash flow taking corrective steps to avoid future cash flow
in advance. (1) problems. (1)
Cash Budget is usually prepared for a short period, Cash flow statement is prepared annually from
such as monthly, quarterly, half-yearly, etc. (1) the financial statements at the end of the financial
period. (1)
Cash budget is not a financial statement, but a Cash flow statement forms part of the company’s
working document to do financial planning. (1) financial statements. (1)
Any comparison, one mark each [2]
(d) Well answered. Learners who studied the layout/format did well in this question.
Learners struggled to calculate the non-current assets purchased and did not show any calculations.
Some learners were placing items under wrong headings and ended up losing marks.
Some learners tried to balance the cash flow by working backward from
N$3 500 and were penalised for it. Encourage learners to carry forward their answers of net cash inflow/
outflow to the analysis of cash and cash equivalents as they might receive an own figure mark.
A few learners only listed the amounts and did not treat the amounts to a total.

6
Answer
Dollar Ltd
Statement of cash flow for the year ended 30 June 2022
N$ N$
OPERATING ACTIVITIES
Profit for the year before tax 317 900
Interest on overdraft 1 260 (1)
Interest on debentures 7 800 (1)
Depreciation 45 400 (1)
Decrease in inventory 2 320 (1)
Decrease in other payables (220) (1)
Decrease in trade receivables 1 250 (1)
Decrease in trade payables (7 180) (1)
Profit on sale of asset (2 000) (1)
Net cash inflow from operating activities 366 530
RETURNS ON INVESTMENTS AND SERVICING OF FINANCE (54 060)
Interest on overdraft (1 260) (1)
Interest on debentures (7 800) (1)
Dividends paid (45 000) (1)
Net cash inflow before tax 312 470
TAXATION (45 440)
Tax (45 440) (1)
Net cash inflow after tax 267 030
INVESTING ACTIVITIES (243 530)
Non-current assets purchased (50 000 + 20 000 (1) + 183 530 (1)) (253 530)
Proceeds of sale of non-current assets 10 000 (1)
Cash outflow before financing 23 500
FINANCING (20 000)
Increase in share capital 50 000 (1)
Decrease in debentures (70 000) (1)
Net inflow 3 500
Analysis of Cash and Cash Equivalents

Opening balance of cash and cash equivalents 8 000
Inflow of cash and cash equivalents 3 500 (1)
Closing Balance of cash and cash equivalents 11 500
Calculation of vehicles (219 140 + 45 400 – 89 010 + 8 000) [18]

7
3 (a) (i) Well answered. Most learners were able to define single entry though a few did not base their
definition on double entry.
Answer
Single entry
Where a transaction is recorded in only one place, either the debit or the credit side instead
of both. (1) [1]
(ii) Fairly well answered. Some learners were redefining single entry instead of incomplete records.
Answer
Incomplete records
Not recording every transaction, only partly done. For certain transactions no recording is made
in the books of accounts. (1) [1]
(b) Well answered. This was an easy calculation which did not require conversion but some learners
struggled to use margin to find gross profit resulting in them losing the subsequent marks of working
backward.
Answer
Moody Traders
Income Statement for the year ended 30 September 2022
Sales 650 000
Less Cost of sales 380 000 487 500 (1) O/F
Opening inventory 480 000
Add Purchases 860 000
372 500 (1) O/F
Less Closing inventory
Gross profit 162 500 (1)
[3]
(c) Well answered. A few learners wrote down a formula which was not enough to warrant a mark as the
question asked for the definition. A few learners did not indicate that mark up and marking is a
“percentage”.
Answers
(i) Gross profit calculated as a percentage of the selling price. [1]
(ii) Gross profit calculated as a percentage of cost price. [1]
(d) Poorly answered. Many learners failed to distinguish the two ratios from each other. A lot of
learners showed a lack of understanding profitability as a ratio group.
Answer
Profitability ratios measure the ability of a business to generate profit (1) and efficiency ratios measure
how effectively a business uses its assets and liabilities internally (1). [2]
(e) Poorly answered. Many learners did not read the question properly. The question required analyses
and comments. The learners could not indicate which business had a better ratio and why it had a
better ratio.
Answer
(i) M & G Foods performed better with 20 % more than Moody Traders.
This could be due to an increase in selling price or cheaper. [1]
(ii) M & G Foods performed with 6,51 % better than Moody Traders.
Moody Traders did not control their expenses effectively and M & G Foods did. [1]
(iii) M & G Foods performed almost 49 times better in their rate of inventory turnover than Moody traders.
Food is perishable and, therefore, does not stay in the business for weeks or months. (1) [1]
(f) Fairly well answered. Learners did not base their answers on the information provided for Moody
Traders and M & G Foods, and ended up writing general reasons on why businesses should not be
compared.
Answer
Businesses are not trading with the same product, e.g. one business trades with bicycles and the other
business trades in food. (1)
It is unfair to compare businesses with different types of ownership, e. g. to compare a sole trader with a
partnership. (1)

8
Different accounting definitions, methods, techniques and policies used by various businesses may affect
the comparability, e.g. the way in which depreciation is calculated. (1)
Other factors that make it difficult to make a comparison between businesses are the differences in the type
of sales. A business that only sells on cash and credit cannot always be compared to one that only sells
cash. (1)
The years of being in the business also plays a role. One cannot compare a newly established business
with a business already up and running for the past ten years. (1)
A retailer might have only one class of inventory whereas a wholesaler might have various. (1)
Any four [4]
(g) (i) Well answered. Most of the learners were able to get the correct amount.
Answer
N$355 500 [1]
(ii) Fairly well answered. Not all learners could not give the reason for their choice at (i).
Not all learners identify the accounting principle connected to their choice.
Answer
Due to the prudence principle, which states that inventory may not be overstated (1), therefore
the lower amount is used. (1) [2]
(iii) Well answered. This was a simple calculation that some learners could not do.
Answer
372 500 – 355 500 = 17 000 (1)
∴ Profit = 162 500 – 17 000 = N$145 500 (1) O/F [2]
4 (a) Fairly well answered. Most learners knew the effect that each error had on profit, but they indicated
wrong account names such as trade receivables, other payables, trade receivables, drawings etc.
and some learners failed to calculate the correct amounts.
Answer
Zet Supermarket
Statement of corrected profit for the year on 28 February 2022
Increase (+) Decrease (-)
Draft profit for the year 103 754
Inventory 2 820 (1) 100 934
Interest on mortgage 5 120 (1) 95 814
Bad debts 1 270 (1) 94 544
Provision for doubtful debts 160 (1) 94 704
Rent received 2 000 (1) 92 704
Purchases 1 000 (1) 93 704
Depreciation 39 850 (1) 53 854 (1) O/F
[8]
Calculations
Inventory 73 200 – 70 380 = 2 820
Interest on mortgage 128 000 x 16%

= 20 480 – 15 360
= 5 120
Provision for doubtful debts 13 270 – 1 270 x 4%

= 12 000 x 4%
= 480
640 – 480 = 160
Rent received 2 000 x 12 = 24 000

26 000 – 24 000 = 2 000
Purchases 1 500 x 2/3 = 1 000 cost price

9
(b) Poorly answered. Some learners did not seem to understand what the question was asking.
Many learners did not base their answers on the information provided in the question.
A lot of learners gave related answers such as non-cash items but did not indicate how they make
the two figures differ.
Learners should be encouraged to explain their answers by using examples and amounts.
Answer
Non-monetary items such as depreciation (30 850), bad debts (1 270), decrease in provision for
doubtful debts (160) which is not included in the bank account is included in the income statement. (1)
Included in the income statement is accrued expenses (5 120) which are not yet received or paid
by the bank. (1)
Bank includes income received in advance (2 000) which is not included in this year’s income
statement. (1)
Cash drawings are not included in an income statement. (1)
Due to the fact that the owner has been trading for some years; the bank account reflects
transactions from previous years as well as the current year. (1) Any three [3]
(c) Well answered. Most learners knew the format/layout. Learners must use the layout as prescribed
in the syllabus.
Calculation of provision for depreciation amount, bank, drawings and other payables was a
challenge to learners.
Some learners just listed amounts and did not record the totals for example for current assets. It is
important to treat the amounts correctly.
Answer
Zet Supermarket
Statement of Financial Position at 28 February 2022
Non-Current Assets Cost Provision for Net Book Value
depreciation
N$ N$ N$
Land and Buildings 380 000 380 000
Equipment 98 000 47 310 (1) 50 690
Vehicles 180 000 78 500 (1) 101 500
658 000 125 810 532 190
Investments 8 400 (1)

Fixed deposit: WP Bank (14%) 8 400
Current Assets 95 836

Inventory 70 380
Trade receivables
(13 270 - 1 270) 12 000 (1)
Less: Provision for doubtful debts 10 100 (1) 480 (1) 11 520
Cash and cash equivalents (25 936 – 12 000) 13 936 (1)
636 426
Owner's equity 470 404

Capital 473 500
Add: Profit for the year 53 854 (1) O/F 527 354
Less: Drawings (43950 +1 000 (1) + 12 000 (1)) 56 950
Non-current Liabilities 128 000 (1)
Mortgage bond: Pirates Bank (16%) 128 000
Current Liabilities 38 022 (1)
Trade payables 30 902
Other payables (5 120 + 2 000) 7 120 (1)
636 426
[13]

10
POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS
Learners should be encouraged to show all workings and calculations as well as explain terminology in full sentences.
Pay attention to dates, the correct account names and the correct layouts.
Learners should be coached to read the questions with care and understanding.
Do not only work out old examination papers; learners tend to be threatened by questions with a different format.
Teachers must plan enough time for revision and examination preparation. Pay attention to terminology.
Teachers are requested to train learners to read carefully and with understanding, especially the requirements to a
question, and to answer only what is asked.

11
8244
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
There were many more learners who wrote the examination compared to 2021. Unfortunately, a lot of the learners'
work was not on standard, mostly the learners who received Cs on the Ordinary level examination. That led to a
huge number of learners with low marks. The paper was more difficult than the previous year because of more theory
questions and learners could not cope very well. That was especially of concern with the "Advise" questions (1(d), 2 (d)
and 2 (e)) and the analyse question 4 (d).
Those were then also the questions which the learners struggled with. With these type of questions learners must take
responsibility and explain all possibilities before choosing the right option. Sometimes it is necessary to calculate and
use figures to state your answer.
Another concern is the fact that one could see that some centres did not cover the whole syllabus because a lot of
questions were left open from certain centres.
1 (a) Very well answered, especially (i) and (ii).

Answer
(i) No interest is allowed on capital (1)
(ii) Profits and losses are shared equally (1)
(iii) A partner is entitled to 5% interest on loan (1) [3]
(b) Also well answered although not many learners included the adjustments.
Answer
The partnership appropriation account is to allow adjustments to be made to the net profit/income
from the Income statement (1) before distribution of any residual net income is made to the partner
capital accounts. (1) [2]
(c) Most of the learners did an appropriation account which was good, because if some amounts were
wrong, it counted as own figure marks. If no workings were shown the own figures could not be
given. Learners struggled to calculate interest on capital and interest on loan.
Answer
Workings
80 000 + 4 100 (1) – 55 000 (1) – 42 000 (1) = (12 900)
Loss-share between partners = (12 900) ÷ 2
= (6 450)
OR
N$ N$ N$
Profit for the year 80 000
Add Interest on drawings: Jell 2 400
Bean 1 700 4 100 (1)
84 100
Less Interest on capital: Jell 29 400
Bean 25 600 55 000 (1)
Salaries Jell 24 000 42 000 (1) 97 000
Bean 18 000 (12 900)
Loss-share: Jell 6 450 (12 900)

Bean 6 450

12
Interest on capital: Jell: 200 000 x 12/100 x 12/12 = 24 000
60 000 x 12/100 x 9/12 = 5 400
29 400
Interest on capital: Bean: 200 000 x 12/100 x 12/12 = 24 000

40 000 x 12/100 x 4/12 = 1 600
25 600 [3]
Jellybean Traders
Extract of Statement of Financial Position at 30 June 2022
N$ N$
Jelly Bean
Current Account
Balances (9 425) 2 880
Interest on capital 29 400 25 600 (1) O/F
Salaries 24 000 18 000 (1) O/F
Interest on loan 12 000 (1)
43 975 58 480
Drawings 24 000 17 000 (1)
Interest on drawings 2 400 1 700 (1) O/F
Loss/Appropriation 6 450 6 450 (1) O/F
11 125 (1) O/F 33 330 (1) O/F 44 455
[8]
(d) Advise means learners had to compare the two options by calculating the interest of both options and
then on grounds of that makes the correct decisions.
Answers
Interest on loan at bank = 34 000 x 13%
= 4 420 (1)

Interest on loan from partner Bean = 34 000 x 8%
= 2 720 (1)
Best method will be to ask Bean to lend the partnerships the N$34 000 to cover the bank overdraft
since the interest on loan from Bean will be (4 420 – 2 720) N$1 700 less than the interest on loan
from the bank. (1) [3]
(e) Fairly well answered.

Answer
It is an advantage a person gets by continuing to carry on a business which has been carried on for
some time previously. (1)
Goodwill represents the value of the business over and above the value of its net assets. (1) Any one [1]
(f) Badly answered. Most learners used it as a fluctuating capital account. Very few learners wrote
the correct date. No date then no mark for the first correct entry. Learners also did not do the bank
entries to equal the balances.

13
14
Capital Accounts
Date Day Details Jell Bean Marsh Date Day Details Jell Bean Marsh
N$ N$ N$ N$ N$ N$
Answer
2022 2022
July 1 Goodwill 12 000 12 000 12 000 (1) July 1 Balance b/d 260 000 240 000
Bank 6 000 (1) Goodwill 18 000 18 000 (1)
Equipment 100 000 (1)
Balance c/d 260 000 260 000 260 000 Bank 14 000 (1) 172 000 (1)
278 000 272 000 272 000 278 000 272 000 272 000
2022
July 2 Balance b/d 260 000 260 000 260 000 (1)
[7]

2 (a) Very well answered.
Answer
Authorised share capital
Total number of shares which the company is allowed to issue as stated in the memorandum of
association. (1)
Maximum amount of share capital a company is allowed to issue. (1) Any one
Issued share capital

It is the actual/nominal value of a portion of the authorised share capital which has been issued/taken up by
shareholders. (1)
Actual amount of share capital issued to shareholders. (1) Any one [2]
(b) Very poorly answered. Learners cannot do a journal and most of them also could not calculate the
correct amounts. A lot of learners also indicated ordinary shares issued and performance shares
issued and the accounts while is actually ordinary share capital and preference share capital.
Answer
Omdel Ltd
General Journal – August 2021
Debit Credit
N$ N$
1
Bank 2 750 000 (1)
Ordinary share capital 1 500 000 (1)
6% Preference share capital 250 000
Share premium 1 000 000
[4]
(c) Fairly well answered.

Answer
Account to be debited: Bank (1)
Account to be credited: Debentures (1) [2]
(d) Very poorly answered. Learners first had to explain what is share premium and retained earnings
and where they belong and what they can be used for. A maximum of 3 marks is allocated to share
premium and 3 to retained earnings. It is important to give a conclusion for the advice you gave.
Answer
Share premium is the excess amount when shares are issued at a higher price than par or nominal
value (1) while retained profit is profit that has not been distributed to shareholders. (1)
The share premium is a result of non-trading activities(1) while the retained profit is a result of
trading activities. (1)
Explanation
Share premium is a capital reserve which may not be used to issue dividends and may only be used
to issue bonuses. (1)
Share premium is a capital reserve arising from non-trading activities (1) which cannot be used to
pay a cash dividend (1) although it can be used to fund a bonus issue of shares. (1)
Retained profit is a revenue reserve which may be used to issue dividends. (1)
Retained earnings represent a revenue reserve arising from trading activities (1) which can be used
to pay dividends. (1) Retained earnings do not represent a cash balance (1) and the presence
of retained earnings does not mean that cash is available to pay for new buildings. (1)
Maximum three for share premium three for retained earnings
Conclusion
The director’s suggestion cannot be implemented. (1) [7]

15
(e) Also very poorly answered. Again, because it was an advise question. The learners first had to name
all the possible investments. After comparing the three then you advise him on the correct investment
and give reasons for that.
Answer
Debentures Ordinary shares Preference shares
Paid out before preference Paid out last in case of liquidation Paid out before ordinary
shareholders in case of liquidation shareholders in case of liquidation
Fixed rate of interest Variable dividends Fixed dividends
Anyone of the above (1) Anyone of the above (1) Anyone of the above (1)
The best option will be to invest with debentures(1) because the investor will receive a fixed interest
rate which will be paid before any dividends are paid (1)or the fact that debentures are usually secured
on the assets of the company. (1)
Three marks for comparisons
Two marks for best option [5]
(f) Poorly answered. Learners could not calculate at all the dividends that were supposed to be paid.
Only the interim dividend of N$150 000 was correct in most of the answers.
Answer
Interim dividend N$150 000 (1)
Final dividend N$200 000 (1)
Preference dividend N$120 000 (1)
Total N$470 000 (1) O/F [4]
3 (a) Fairly well answered. Centres who did this work with the learners did answer it very well. Still there
were a lot of learners who could not do it because the centres did not cover the topic.
Answer
AVCO
No. of Average Closing
Date Received Issued
Inventory cost inventory
2021
September 40 @ 1 000 = 40 000,00
October 200 @ 1 100 240 1 083,33 (1) 40 @ 1 000 = 40 000,00

200 @ 1 100 = 220 000,00
260 000,00 (1)
November 230 10 1 083,33 10 @ 1 0833,33 = 10 833,00 (1)

2022
January 300 @ 1 500 310 1 486,56 (1) 10 @ 1 0833,33 = 10 833,00
300 @ 1 500 = 450 000,00
460 833,00 (1)
July 280 30 1 4856,56 30 @ 1 486,55 = 44 596,74 (1)
Work on learner's answer.
If learner's answer in (a) is more than 45 000 the learner must answer FOFO because of prudence. [6]
(b) This answer had to relate to your answer in (a). If your answer in (a) was higher than the FIFO
amount of N$45 000, the learners had to choose FIFO with same reason prudence.
Answer
AVCO (1) is the best valuation according to prudence (1) which states that profits and assets are not
overstated (1). [3]

16
(c) (i) Fairly well answered. Although the learners did not write discount received account although the
workings were correct.
Answer
Offer 2
Account effected in income statement Discount received account (1)
Calculations
220 000 – 22 000 = 198 000 (1)
450 000 – 45 000 = 405 000
603 000
670 000 – 603 000 = 67 000 (1)
Discount received increases with N$67 000.
Revised profit for the year 245 000 + 67 000

= N$312 000 (1) [4]
(ii) Fairly well answered. Biggest problem was that the learners did not deduct the carriage inwards
on the end but from the original amounts.
Answer
Offer 3
Account effected in income statement Purchases account
Carriage inwards account
Calculations
220 000 – 11 000 = 209 000
450 000 – 22 500 = 427 500
636 500
670 000 – 636 500 = 33 500 (1)
Purchases decrease with N$33 500.
Revised profit for the year 245 000 + 33 500 – (370 x 2) (1)
= N$277 760 (1) [5]
(iii) Answered poorly. Learners first had to add the 5% price increase before they could deduct the
2,5% trade discount. Also, in no. 3 (a) (i - iii) the learners treated the change wrong. If purchases
increase then profit will decrease and vice versa. Most learners add it to profit.
Answer
Offer 4
Account effected in income statement Purchases account (1)
Calculations
Price increase
220 000 +11 000 = 231 000
450 000 + 22 500 = 472 500 (1)
703 500
Discount
231 000 – 5 775,00 = 225 225,00
472 500 – 11 812,50 = 460 687,50 (1)
685 912,50
670 000 – 685 912,50 = N$15 912,50
Purchases increase with N$15912,50.
Revised profit for the year 245 000 –15 912,50

= N$229 087,50 (1) [4]

17
(d) Was actually poorly answered as it was straight theory.
Answer
FIFO
Advantage
Gives realistic view for closing inventory, as current prices are used. (1)
It is an acceptable method of valuing inventory for tax purposes. (1) Any one
Disadvantage
Materials issues are not priced realistically, especially in times of big price increases. (1)
AVCO
Advantage
Being average, irons out effects of price changes on costs of production and sales. (1)
Easy to calculate. (1) Any one
Disadvantage
Issue prices may not represent any actual price paid for materials. (1) [4]
4 (a) (i) Fairly well answered.

Answer
Marginal costing applies only those costs to inventory that were incurred when each individual
unit was produced, (1) while absorption costing applies all production costs to all units produced. (1) [2]
(ii) Also fairly well answered although a lot of learners confuse the two.
Answer
Over-absorption of overheads: The excess of overheads absorbed over the actual amount of
overheads incurred, when the amount absorbed is more than the expenditure incurred due to. (1)
Under absorption of overheads: The amount of overheads absorbed in the production is less
than the amount of actual overheads incurred, if overheads are understated. (1) [2]
(b) This question was answered well, but a lot of learners lost marks because they did not give the
formula, which was stated on the question clearly. Also, a lot of learners calculated it correctly but
lost the marks because they did not write N$ in their final answer.
Answers
(i) Factory overheads (1)
Number of units produced
82 000
10 000 units
= N$ 8,20 (1) [2]
(ii) Factory overhead (1)

Labour hours
82 000
28 000
= N$2,93 per hour (1) [2]
(iii) Factory overhead (1)

Machine hours
82 000
18 000
= N$4,56 per hour (1) [2]

18
(c) Learners did not know how to use their answer in (b) to complete (c).
Answer
Unit cost Direct Machine hours

Labour hours
Raw material 230 230 230
Direct wages 180 180 180
Prime cost 410 410 410 (1)
Factory overheads 738 (1) O/F 498,10 (1) O/F 501,60 (1) O/F
Total cost 1 148 (1) O/F 908,10 (1) O/F 911,60 (1) O/F
[7]
(d) Again, poorly answered. Learners had to use their answers calculated if there was an over or under
absorption. Also, without being asked for that learners had to give advice and the reasons that
might have led to under absorption.
Answer
Based on the actual hours, the rate should be 27 925 x 2,93 = 81 820,25 (1)
Whereas the actual overheads are N$84 000, but the budgeted overhead calculation is N$81 820,25
it clearly shows that there was an under absorption (1)of overhead of N$2 179,75. (1)
Reasons that might have led to the under absorption
• Wrong estimation of overhead expenses: The actual overhead expenses were higher than the
estimated amount. (1)
• Wrong estimation of work done: The amount of work done may have exceeded what was estimated. (1)
• Seasonal fluctuation in overhead: Due to seasonal nature of work, overhead may have fluctuated from
one period to another. (1) [6]
This Paper 2 had a lot of theory questions in the paper so teachers will have to prepare learners better on how to answer
those theory questions especially the questions on advice. That is much wider than to just give an answer.
Teachers must also do their preparations so that all the topics of the syllabus are covered. It is unfair towards learners
if some topics are left out and then there is a question about the topic.
I know AS is still new to all of us, but you can use old higher papers to prepare your students. Most of the work is the
same as higher and almost on the same level.
Keep up the hard work. Then you will gain more and more experience each year.

19
20
AFRIKAANS AS A SECOND LANGUAGE
8201
Paper 1
ALGEMENE OPMERKINGS
Hartlike dank aan al die taalonderwysers wat hard gewerk het om hul kandidate op standard en gereed vir die eksamen
te kry.
Dit is baie belangrik dat u, as onderwyser, elke jaar die verslag deeglik bestudeer en aan alle aspekte van die sillabus
aandag gee. Sommige kandidate se leesvaardighede was beter, soos geblyk het uit hul antwoorde, maar ongelukkig
geld dit nie vir al die sentrums nie. Onthou: LEES, LEES en LEES, bly maar die sleutel tot ’n uitgebreide woordeskat
en sukses in die beantwoording van ’n vraestel! Ons wil u herinner dat u moeite moet doen om tydskrifte vir u kandidate
te gee.
Aanbevelings
Kandidate moet ook geleer word om nie die antwoorde net so uit tekste te lig nie. In sommige gevalle het kandidate tot
4 punte verloor omdat hulle antwoorde net so uit die teks gelig het. Kandidate is op die Gevorderde vlak, so daar word
van hulle verwag om ŉ goeie taalgebruik te het.
Kandidate moet ook aangemoedig word om te prober om alle vrae te beantwoord. By heelwat sentrums het kandidate
vrae net oopgelos.
AFDELING 1
Deel 1: 1 – 5
Vrae 1 – 5: Die vrae is goed beantwoord deur die kandidate. Heelwat kandidate het tussen 4 – 5 punte in hierdie
afdeling verdien. Daar was egter ook kandidate wat óf twee óf drie punte gekry het. Onderwysers moet seker maak
leerlinge kry blootstelling van hierdie soort vraagstelling.
Kandidate moet ook daarop gewys word dat vrae 1 – 5 in die tabel voorsien, beantwoord moet word. By sommige
sentrums het kandidate die letters omkring en het die tabel leeg gelos. Kandidate moet geleer word dat hulle die tabel
moet gebruik.
Die korrekte antwoorde is soos volg: Vraag 1: C
Vraag 2: B
Vraag 3: D
Vraag 4: A
Vraag 5: A [5]
Deel 2: Vrae 6 – 11
Vraag 6 (a): Die korrekte antwoord is koffieslawe. Baie kandidate het koffieliefhebbers geantwoord wat die verkeerd
was.
Indien hulle die vraag korrek beantwoord het, het hulle die hele sin uit die teks gelig en dan die punte verloor.
Vraag 6 (b): Die korrekte antwoord is opkikker/stimulant. Hierdie vraag was goed beantwoord.
Hulle moet slegs ŉ woord aangehaal het. Heelwat kandidate het punte verloor deur ŉ sinsdeel of hele sin aan te haal
en daardeur het hulle punte verloor omdat slegs die eerste woord as antwoord aanvaar was.
Kandidate moet leer om opdragte te lees!
Vraag 7 (a): Die vraag is nie goed beantwoord nie. Kandidate moes die figuurlike betekenis soos in die sin gebruik
word, gegee het. Om in die moeilikheid te wees / om in die probleem te wees, is die korrekte antwoord.
Vraag 7 (b): Die meeste kandidate het hierdie term uit die teks afgelei en kon dit beantwoord. Nie duidelik nie, is die
korrekte antwoord.
Vraag 8 (a): Baie min kandidate kon hierdie vraag korrek beantwoord. Kandidate kon nie die letterlike betekenis van
hierdie uitdrukking korrekte gebruik nie. In baie gevalle het kandidate dieselfde sin soos in die teks gebruik en punte
verloor. Die man het brandwonde opgedoen toe hy in die warm water beland het.

21
Vraag 8 (b): Baie min kandidate kon hierdie vraag korrek beantwoord. Of wanneer hulle die vraag beantwoord het, was
die antwoord baie vaag. Die rivierwater is glashelder. Die vensters is nie glashelder nie.
Kandidate moet blootstelling gegee word aan letterlike en figuurlike betekenisse van woorde en uitdrukkings.
Byvoorbeeld: Groen – groen van jaloersie wees (figuurlik) die kleur groen (letterlik).
Vraag 9: Die korrekte antwoord is: Astrid Mehlig glo dat koffie kan ŉ mens se energievlakke verhoog terwyl
Stephen Chemiske glo dat dit jou nie in ŉ beter bui of fut gee nie.
Die verskil moes duidelik gewees het. Die woord “fut” kon ook met “lewenslus” vervang word. Heelwat kandidate kon
nie die verskil genoem het nie. Sommiges het net genoem wat Astrid Mehlig geglo het en sodoende twee punte verloor.
Ander het weer die hele paragraaf oorgeskryf en daardeur ook punte verloor.
Vraag 10: Kandidate moes die antwoord in 30 woorde opsom. Baie kandidate het die hele paragraaf net so oorgeskryf
en punte verloor omdat die feite in die eerste 30 woorde gemerk was.
Dr. Kerr het opgehou om koffie te drink, want die onttrekkingsimptome was erg. Hy het ŉ kloppende hoofpyn
gehad, kon nie konsentreer nie. Hy het ook gemoedskommelinge gehad.
Vraag 11 (a): Baie kandidate het hierdie vraag korrek beantwoord. Daar was vyf moontlike antwoorde en hulle moes
net drie feite genoem het.
Mense glo dat die kafeïen in koffie hulle energievlakke verhoog. Dit dien as stimulant/opkikker. Dit hou jou
wakker. Kafeïen verbeter jou geheue en dit laat leer jou makliker.
Vraag 11 (b): Die meeste kandidate het hier 1/2 punte verdien, maar kandidate moet blootgestel word aan tekste
waarin ooreenkomste en verskille voorkom.
Beide groepe is verslaaf aan dit. Altwee groepe het gemoedskommelinge en kan nie konsentreer nie. Beide
groepe kry onttrekkingsimptome.
Vraag 12: Van die kandidate het hierdie antwoord net so uit die teks geskryf en het punte verloor omdat antwoorde uit
die teks gelig was. Kandidate moes by hierdie vraag in hul eie woorde genoem het wat navorsers se opinie was. Punte
is ook verloor omdat kandidate nie navorsers se name met hul opinie gegee het nie.
Astrid Mehlig glo dat koffie energie gee. Dr. Kerr sê dat koffie nie goed vir ŉ mens se gesondheid is nie.
Stephen Cheriskee is van mening dat dit onsin is dat koffie jou geheue verbeter en makliker laat leer.
Kandidate moet geleer word om hulle antwoorde slegs op die spasies voorsien, te skryf.
AFDELING B – Gerigte skryfwerk
Vraag 13
Kandidate moes ŉ toespraak geskryf het om hulle medeleerders te oortuig dat ŉ aanlyn winkel die beste
besigheid vir die toekoms is.
Die meerderheid kandidate het daarin geslaag om hierdie vraag te beantwoord. Kandidate moes relevante feite uit die
teks asook hul eie idees in hul toespraak genoem het. Baie het net die feite uit die teks genoem asook die wenke uit
die teks gelig en sodoende heelwat punte vir inhoud verloor.
Sommige kandidate het in plaas van ŉ toespraak ŉ opstel geskryf en sodoende punte verloor. In sommige gevalle
was die aanspreekvorm en register te formeel in die toespraak. Kandidate skryf “Geagte Dames en here” in plaas van
“Liewe medeleerders”. Hulle gebruik ook die aanspreekvorm “u” in plaas van “jy” of “julle”. In sommige toesprake was
daar geen bewustheid van gehoor nie.
In baie gevalle is die slot weggelaat. Die gebruik van Engelse woorde, anglisismes en spelfoute was aan die orde van
die dag. Sommige kandidate het ook die Engelse woorde gebruik. Idiomatiese uitdrukkings wat verkeerdelik gebruik
was, het ook voorgekom. Dit het ongelukkig die kandidate se puntetoekenning beïnvloed.
By die taalgebruik het kandidate heelwat punte verloor omdat hulle die inhoud van teks woordeliks oorgeskryf het.

22
Die volgende feite uit die teks moes die kandidate genoem het vervleg met hul eie idees.
Dit is baie goedkoop om ŉ aanlyn winkel te begin.
Jy het die vryheid om rondom jou leefstyl te werk.
Kan maklik klante in die hande kry.
Jy het geen oorhoofse onkoste nie.
Betaal geen huurgeld nie.
Kan enige produk of diens verkoop.
Het geen pakruimte nodig nie.
Mense koop deesdae meer aanlyn.
Geen huurkontrakte is nodig nie.
Kandidate moes ook hulle eie idees genoem het, maar nie die wenke uit die teks nie!!!
Beplanning is belangrik by die skryf van enige skryfstukke!
Baie dankie aan al die onderwysers wat hard werk om hulle kandidate voor te berei vir die eksamen. Sterkte
vir 2023!

23
8201
Paper 2
Algemene opmerkings
Dit word altyd van kandidate verwag om die opdrag korrek te interpriteer, ’n gepaste titel daaraan te voorsien, die
opdrag korrek uit te voer deur die gebruik van aanvaarbare woordeskat en sinsbou asook die vereiste paragrafering.
Daarna moet die korrekte aantal woorde, aan die einde van die tweede reël na die einde van die opstel, tussen hakies,
aangedui word.
Bogenoemde is ideaal, maar foute kom wel voor. Hierdie foute sluit in: die titel, die die misinterpretering van en vereistes
van die opdrag, woordeskat, sinskonstruksie, paragrafering, vaste uitdrukkings, die aanbieding van ondersteunende
bewyse en die aantal woorde wat gebruik is.
Onleesbare/swak/onnet en slordige handskrif, asook algehele onnetheid, in sommige gevalle, dra by daartoe dat
kandidate onnodig punte verloor.
Alhoewel die meeste kandidate hul uiterste bes probeer, is daar tog ’n groot aantal wie wel tog genoemde probleme
ervaar of wel hierdie foute begaan.
Vraestel
1 Omgewing (Argumenterend)
Kandidate moes hul argumente aanvoer oor hoekom die omgewing net so belangrik as mense is.
Kandidate het goed probeer, maar die oorgrote meerderheid kon nie daarin slaag om die verband tussen mens en
omgewing in te sien nie. Baie het slegs na die onmidellike omgewing (woonareas) verwys en elementȇre/uiters
gewone inligting aangebied.
2 Die media (Beredenerend)

Die oorgrote meerderheid, van die paar wie wel hierdie onderwerp gekies het, kon dit redelik goed hanteer. Die
ander het of die punt oor privaatheid gemis, of nie die onderwerp verstaan nie.
3 Gesondheid (Argumenterend)
Die term “mediese deurbrake” was baie uitdagend vir die meeste kandidate, maar die ander kon dit goed hanteer.
Van die kandidate het deurbrake met mediese fondse/geskiedenis verwar.
4 Loopbane (Verhalend/Kreatief)
Heelwat kandidate kon die onderwerp hanteer. Baie het egter gesukkel met “wik en weeg.” ’n Heel paar het egter
slegs algemene stories oor werk geskryf, of oor ’n beroep uitgebrei.
5 Geskiedenis (Verhalend/Kreatief)
Redelik baie kandidate het hierdie onderwerp gekies. Sommige van hulle kon dit goed hanteer, ander het ’n
algemene storie geskryf, terwyl heelwat totaal die punt gemis en met ’n onlogiese vertelling voortgegaan het.
Bespreking
• Dit is van die uiterste belang dat kandidate duidelik moet weet dat die kennis oor die temas, asook die voorgestelde
voorbeelde in die syllabus die vereiste kennis vir die eksamen is.
• Kandidate behoort die aangeleleerde woordeskat korrek te kan gebruik in die eksamen.
• Idiome/Vaste uitdrukkings moet korrek en in dieselfde konteks as in realiteit gebruik word.
• Statistieke en bronne moet korrek aangehaal word, anders mag daar verwys word na “studies, bronne, ensovoorts
om opinies/menings te verduidelik of te ondersteun.*
• Paragrafering: Baie kandidate skryf tot agt (8) paragrawe. Sommiges skryf ’n paragraaf van een (1) lang, lomp, sin
wat saamgeflans is met/sonder voegwoorde of leestekens. Baie keer skryf hulle ook nie voluit in die reël nie. Dit
dui duidelik op die onvermoë om lettergrepe suksesvol te gebruik, of sommer swak skryfgewoontes.
• Baie kandidate beskik nie oor die vaardigheid om by die vereiste 220 tot 260 woorde te bly nie. Onthou, daar
bestaan geen uitsondering oor die lengte van ’n opstel nie.
• Die korrekte aantal woorde moet aan die einde van ’n opstel aangedui word. Kandidate, of van hulle, besef nie die
erns van oneerlikheid hier nie.

24
Algemeenste probleme
• Spelling
• Woordsoorte
• Sinsbou
• Die gebruik van lees- en skryftekens.
• Die dubbele ontkenning
• Trappe van vergelyking
• Intensiewe vorme
• Meervoude
• Homofone/Homonieme
• Idiome/Vaste uitdrukkings
• Die gebruik van woorde in Engels, by gebrek aan die Afrikaanse term.
• Sinsnede(s) as ’n sin aangebied, ter verduideliking/uitbreiding van feite/vertelling.
• Die gebruik van direkte rede, veral by verhalende opstel.
• Sinne wat met voegwoorde begin.
• Lettergrepe
• Die gebruik van “’n”as “’N” aan die begin van ’n sin.
• Die gebruik van slenguitdrukkings en spreektaal.
• Absurde/Selfgeskepte woorde en uitdrukkings, meestal as gevolg van die Engelse invloed.
• In ’n mindere, maar tog steurende mate, ook eties-onaanvaarbare taal
• Uitdagende handskrif van sommige van die kandidate
• Slordige werk
• Die gebruik van glimpenne op die vraestel is nie gemagtig nie.
• Die gebruik van eksamenboeke, terwyl hierdie ’n invulvraestel is.
Aanbevelings
• Onderwysers moet streng toesien dat kandidate toegerus is met die vaardighede en vereistes wat hierdie vraestel
vereis.
• Oefen gereeld die soorte opstelle en hulle vereistes, woordeskat, relevante idiome / vaste uitdrukkings,
verwysingsbronne/statistieke, paragrafering die gebruik van die vereiste aantal woorde.
• Sien die opdragte tydig en gereeld na sodat onverwylde terugvoer, te alle tye, aan leerders gegee kan word.
• Toets die leerders so gereeld as moontlik.
• Hou by die voorskrifte en vereistes van die leerplan (syllabus).
• Let op die algemene probleme wat hierbo genoem is.
• Leer die kandidate om bladsy 7 en 8, van die vraestel, te gebruik om hulle beplanning (rofwerk) vir die twee
opstelle te doen. Die vraestel mag net so ingehandig word, sonder om die rofwerk uit te vee of dood te trek.
• Die gebruik van algemeen aanvaarbare Afrikaans bly ’n vereiste van hierdie leerplan.
Slot
Baie dankie aan elkeen van u wat so hard gewerk het om die kandidate voor te berei vir die eksamen.
U moet ook onthou dat werk nooit te veel is ter voorbereiding van leerlinge vir eksamen nie.
Volg die leerplan slaafs na en vind, soveel as moontlik, gepaste leerinhoud uit alle moontlike/beskikbare bronne.
Weereens, baie dankie vir u harde werk.

Voorspoed vir 2023.

25
26
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
8222
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
Generally, the performance in this paper was poor compared to last year. Some candidates struggled to finish the paper
and teachers are encouraged to teach time management to their learners for them not to struggle during the end of
year examinations. It is also important to ensure that the entire syllabus is covered before the start of the examination
as it was evident that some topics were not sufficiently covered e.g. Agricultural technology and Agricultural economics
and extension. For section B, most candidates opted for Question 7 and Question 8 and only very few candidates
opted for Question 9 (which was on Agricultural technology) and Question 10 (which was on Agricultural marketing
and Agricultural extension). Most candidates failed to plot the correct graph for question 2 a (i) and some could not
differentiate between the dependent and independent variable and as such failed to label the x-axis and the y-axis
correctly. Teachers are encouraged to continue emphasising on the importance of command words and train learners to
read questions very carefully and with understanding for them to be able to interpret the question requirements correctly
and answer the questions appropriately. Candidates still need to be reminded of the importance of clear handwriting
and how to delete incorrect answers.
Section A
1 (a) (i) The majority of candidates were able to answer this question correctly. However, a few could
not understand the question requirements and ended up just defining what vertical farming is
and not linking it to sustainable agriculture.
Answer
Does not use soil/ does not degrade any soil/does not damage the environment/saves the land;
Water loss is reduced/reduces water use/saves water;
Increases yield/production in comparison to field crops;
reduced pests and diseases/no need for the use of herbicides/pesticides/chemicals;
lowers carbon footprints from production/reduced length of supply chains;
(ii) Fairly well answered. Most of candidates scored two marks out of three.
Answer
Requires (technical) knowledge;
understanding of plant physiology required;
It is expensive/high initial investment costs/greenhouse/irrigation/fertilizing systems to support plant
growth/clean supply of water/filtration unit;
Requires (reliable) energy/electrical supply;
(b) Most candidates could not identify which one was an asset and liability and some were just either
writing the wording e.g. land, and left the space for the amount blank.
Answer
(i), (ii) Land 100 000; Second hand tractor 50 000;
(iii) Creditor 10 000;
(iv), (v) Debtors 13 000; Cash 2 000;
(vi) 260 000;
(c) Well answered.

Answer
construction of dams/usage of sand storage dams (to reduce evaporation)/storing rain water in tanks;
digging of wells/drilling boreholes;
mulching;
minimum/no tillage;
use drip irrigation;
use soil moisture sensors;
reuse effluent;
artificial aquifer recharge;

27
2 (a) (i) Poorly answered. Some candidates plotted the data for plant groups instead of soil pH. Some
candidates drew a bar chart and some did not scale the axis correctly, which resulted in a smaller
graph, not covering half of the square.
Answer
A (Axis labelling);
L all points joined with no extrapolation / B (same width of bars with no space between bars);
P (accurate plotting of all points);
S (vertical scale, data plotted to within ± half a small square);
A Histogram
(ii) Most candidates could not describe the trend.

Answer
As pH increases the average height of plants increases; up until pH 6.8 /
maximum average height is at pH 6.8 / optimum soil pH is 6.8;
As pH increases over 6.8 the average height decreases;
(b) (i) Fairly answered.

Answer
Parental material/mineral weathering/gradual withdrawal of an ocean/drop back of an ocean;
salt deposition;
application of fertilisers /fertiliser irrigation;
high water table/poor drainage;
low annual rainfall;
(ii) Most candidates scored two marks for this question.
Answer
salinity creates high osmotic potential in roots / salinity causes the water potential in the soil to be lower
than that of root cells;
when sodic soil become dry, it cracks/ soil becomes dry and cracks;
(cracking) damages roots/ reduces water uptake/ plants are unable to absorb water;
(iii) Poorly answered. The soil in question was poorly drained, therefore, some of the points
suggested by candidates i.e. practise heavy irrigation, were not appropriate for such soil.
Answer
avoid fertilisers with high level of (potential) harmful salts/potassium chloride/ammonium sulfate;
add organic matter/manure to the soil;
test electrical conductivity of irrigation water;
choose the suitable irrigation method/drip irrigation;
flush the soil after each growing cycle;

28
3 (a) Poorly answered. Most candidates wrote single letters and some separated the letters with colons
which led to wrong answers.
Answer
(i) GgHh
(ii) GGhh
(iii) ggHH
(b) (i) Most candidates could not draw a dihybrid cross correctly. Most candidates did not also label the
diagram to indicate the gametes, genotypes and phenotypes, which is very crucial for genetic diagrams.
Answer
Fertilisation and offspring genotypes:
gH gh gH gh
Gh GgHh Gghh GgHh Gghh
Gh GgHh Gghh GgHh Gghh
gh ggHh gghh ggHh gghh
gh ggHh gghh ggHh gghh
Offspring phenotype: GgHh – purple flower hairy stem

Gghh – purple flower hairless stem
ggHh – white flower hairy stem
gghh – white flower hairless stem
OR
(ii) Poorly answered. Most candidates could not get the answer correct since they did not do
proper crossing in (i).
Answer
100 plants
(c) Well answered.

Answer
plants grown from hybrid seeds are very predictable and uniform;
they have been bred for specific characteristics, such as flavour/colour/high quality products;
they are more resistant to disease/pests/drought;
they are more vigorous and faster growing/possess hybrid vigor/more plants survive the seedling stage/
mature plants are large and healthy;
yield than other crops;

29
(d) (i) Fairly well answered. Most candidates could identify the process correctly.
Answer
Double fertilisation
(ii) Fairly well answered.
Answer
Pollen tube grows through the style towards the ovary;
the generative nucleus moves down the pollen tube and divides into two haploid generative
nuclei/male gametes;
Pollen tube enters ovary through the micropyle/pollen tube reaches the ovule and degenerates;
One male nucleus fuses with the egg cell;
To form a 2n/diploid zygote;
The other male nucleus fuses with 2 polar nuclei to form a polyploidy/3n endosperm;
4 (a) (i) Well answered. Candidates were aware that young growing farm animals need feeds that is rich
in digestible protein.
Answer
(Feed) A
(ii) Well answered.
Answer
The amount of food that is absorbed; for growth/reproduction;
OR a measure of how much nutrition a feed provides; in a given volume;
OR an indication of how much food is absorbed/ proportion of nutrients that is absorbed; from the gut
into the bloodstream;
(iii) Most candidates compared the TDN and crude fibre content of feed A and feed B instead of
analysing the relationship that exists between TDN and crude fibre content.
Answer
The lower the crude fibre content; the higher the total digestible nutrients; ORA
(b) Most candidates scored one mark for this question. Some candidates referred to potassium hydroxide
instead of sodium hydroxide. Learners should carry out the food tests during the course of the year
for them to see the colour change for each test and be able to answer food test related questions in
the examination.
Answer
Add equal amount of NaOH/ sodium hydroxide solution to the food solution and mix carefully
Add a few drops of of (1%) CuSO4 /copper sulphate; A Biuret test
Purple colour = positive result;
(c) Fairy well answered. Some candidates, however, confused antibodies with antibiotics as a measure
for controlling bacteria.
Answer
Similar - vaccinations;
Decontamination;
quarantine;
controlled/restricted movements;
Different - antibiotic medications can be used to kill bacteria in infected animals, but antibiotics do not have
any effect on viruses;
5 (a) (i) Well answered. Most candidates could identify the seed hopper on the planter.
Answer
A Seed hopper;
B metering device/metering control;
C seed tube/seed delivery mechanism;

30
(ii) Well answered.
Answer
advantanges
reduced labour costs/one planter can do the same amount of work as many workers/reduces repetitive
tasks;
faster and efficient;
optimises field productivity/profit at prescribed planting distances;
increased capacity to work larger farms/planter allows farmers to farm larger areas of land/to farm the
land more intensively;
allows crop husbandry in terms of weed/pest control/ seeds planted in straight rows with correct
spacing;
disadvantanges
it is expensive;
loss of jobs/fewer workers are needed/ unemployment increases;
increased need for skilled operators/operators must be trained to use and maintain planters;
spreads diseases/pests/weeds from one area to another;
causes soil compaction;
(iii) Fairly well answered.
Answer
ensure that the dosing units are clean/check for obstruction;
check the condition of the metering system (for constant planting depth and uniform spacing)/ make
sure the turbines will help meter the seeds;
keep all moving parts lubricated;
prevent dirt from getting into the bearing by wiping off fittings before lubricating;
replace worn/broken parts/nuts/bolts;
store the planter away from moisture when not in use;
store it inside the building with wheels off the ground;
cover all the furrow openers with protective covers;
(b) Well answered. Some candidates however, misinterpreted the question and described the
maintenance of the combine harvester instead of naming the operational principles.
Answer
cutting/reaping;
threshing;
separating/winnowing or cleaning;
straw chopping;
6 (a) Poorly answered. Most candidates failed to differentiate the income and expenses from the table
which resulted in wrong calculations.
Answer
Total profit/loss = Total income - Total costs;
= N$ 40 000 – N$ 16 550;
= N$ 23 450 Profit;
(b) (i) The majority of candidates failed to define opportunity cost correctly.
Answer
the benefits of the building that the farmer gave up by choosing to use the building for poultry farming/
the value of the next best alternative that is given up in making a choice;
(ii) Poorly answered. Most candidates referred to the problems associated with the farmers instead
of the farmer’s source of capital.
Answer
requires collateral;
not easy to get because agricultural enterprises are risky/getting approval may be difficult;
not easily repayable if enterprises made a loss;
limited number of clients to be given financial assistance;
Short repayment period / regular repayment / cash flow not easy;
Bank charges/interest;
(c) (i) Poorly answered.

Answer
a quota is a trade restriction;
that limits the number of goods or the value of goods that a country can import or export during a

31
particular period;
quotas are used to regulate the volumes of products traded between countries/reduce depletion of
products in the country;
quotas are imposed to reduce imports and, thereby, boost domestic production (as local farmers do not
have to compete with imported products);
Helps to keep prices low for domestic users;
(ii) Poorly answered. Some candidates referred to the requirements for exporting beef.
Answer
(For each animal exported live to South Africa) six must be slaughtered at local abattoirs; this is to
promote employment locally through value addition;
(d) Most candidates referred to the law of supply and demand in general instead of referring to Fig. 6.1
to describe the elasticity of supply and demand.
Answer
Supply is elastic;
Demand is inelastic;
SECTION B
7 (a) Most candidates could explain the term locus correctly. Most candidates failed, however, to explain the term
heritability.
Answer
locus - the location of a gene on a chromosome;
Heritability - the proportion of variation in a particular trait that can be attributed to inherited genetic factors
rather than to environmental factors/ how strongly a characteristic can be transferred from parents to
offspring;
(b) (i) Well answered.

Answer
poor nutrition;
improper timing of insemination/breeding too late or too early;
stress/hormonal imbalance;
poor libido in bulls;
insufficient bull numbers for cow numbers;
genetic disorders/defects;
venereal diseases/infectious diseases that damage parts of the reproductive system (e.g.brucellosis,
vibrosis)
poor handling/poor management;
genetic selection;
(ii) Fairly well answered.
Answer
MOET is the process of using hormones to make the female produce multiple egg cells (multiple
ovulation);
females with genetic disorders related to ovulation can be assisted through stimulating superovulation/
Hormones, such as FSH (follicle stimulating hormone), are given to the female animals;
fertilising the egg cells to form embryos/ In-vitro fertilisation of eggs is performed;
The embryos are removed from the female’s uterus by flushing;
then the embryo is transferred to a uterus of surrogate-mother by means of a soft transfer catheter;
Embryos that are not immediately transferred can be stored by cryopreservation;
Sperm cells can be obtained from bulls to artificially inseminate as many cows as possible;
Many eggs/sperms are collected from tested cows/bulls, therefore, there is a high chance of success;
Artificial insermination prevents the spread of venereal diseases that may cause infertility;
Semen/eggs can be stored for many years in a viable state and be used years later;
Artificial insemination prevents the transmission of venereal diseases that may cause infertility;
(c) Poorly answered. Most candidates referred to the importance of keeping financial records instead of
the importance of record keeping in relation to breeding plan.
Answer
Provides the basis for evaluation of animals from past records/a farmer measures the productive efficiency
of the herd (through records);
Helps the farmer not to repeat the past mistakes;
desirable characteristics are identified and monitored;
32
detect the signs of heat accurately/schedule insemination at optimum times;
the information about fertility rates is kept;
allows the farmer to know the pedigree of the animal/ancestor lineage/to know the genetic compositions of
the breeds/helps in selection of superior parents;
helps in detection of abnormalities/diseases;
better replacement and culling process;
(d) Poorly answered. Candidates could not describe the process of oogenesis correctly and most of
them confused this process with fertilisation process.
Answer
process where ovum/egg cell is made/formation of egg cells
begins with immature (germ) cells migrating to the ovaries + follicular cells surrounding them/
germ cells becoming oogonium;
oogonium divides by mitosis to produce many oogonia;
oogonia undergo oocytogenesis/mitosis to form primary oocytes;
primary oocytes divide through meiosis to form polar body and secondary oocytes;
secondary oocyte continues with miosis II to produce a haploid egg cell;
Haploid egg cell matures by cell division;
polar body degenerates as egg/secondary oocyte leaves the ovary;
8 (a) Fairly well answered. Some candidates failed to interpret the question and ended up giving the
purpose of plant spacing and planting depth instead of how the two influence vegetable production.
Answer
Spacing can determine/impact the size of vegetable/crop yield/ performance;
Correct spacing gives each plant enough space to grow/reduces diseases by allowing air movement
between plants/reduces competition for light/ nutrients/ moisture;
Plant spacing based on: soil type, soil fertility, water availability, crop variety;
Correct depth ensures that the seeds have the right conditions for germination;
Deep sowing reduces crop emergence/yield;
Shallow planting exposes seeds to effects of high temperature/sun;
Recommended sowing depth is based on the size of seed and soil type;
(b) Well answered.

Answer
Wash the leaves to remove soil particles that may contain pests and bacteria;
Cool the spinach leaves quickly after harvesting (to slow down deterioration process)/store leaves at low
temperature and high humidity/in cold storage room/refrigerators;
Store in low density polyethylene/LDPE bags with 5% perforation;
transport the leaves in refrigerated trucks/keep transport times as short as possible;
(c) (i) Well answered.

Answer
BNF accounts for most of the fixation of atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium;
This makes it the main process by which nitrogen is naturally added to the soil;
BNF provides the legumes with which they have a symbiotic relationship with ammonia, which the
plants can use as a source of nitrogen;
Using legumes with BNF bacteria as a forage crop provides a rich source of nitrogen-rich fodder for
livestock;
This reduces the need for supplementary feed;
BNF provides high-protein crops for human consumption;
Using legumes in crop rotation systems and ploughing the residues of the legume crop into the soil as a
green manure adds nitrogen to the soil;
It does not harm the environment/environmentally friendly;
BNF does not harm the soil/ prevents soil erosion;
Does not pollute water supplies or surrounding ecosystems;
Using BNF to fertilise the soil is cheaper than using inorganic nitrogen fertiliser;
Increases organic matter in soil/improves soil structure;
Legumes are carbon sinks;
(ii) Poorly answered.
Answer
Micronutrient: Iron/Fe; A manganese
How to correct the iron deficiency:

33
Acidify the soil/lower the soil pH;
Apply iron directly to the plant foliage/apply FeSO4 + 2H2O / ferrous sulfate directly to foliage;
Apply fertiliser containing iron/chelated iron to the soil;
A named fertilisers (chelated iron fertilisers: Fe-DTPA,
Fe-EDDHA, Fe-EDTA, add aluminium sulfate)
(iii) Most candidates could score one mark for this question.
Answer
Soil colour indicates organic matter content/mineral contentt/drainage/aeration of the soil/how fertile the
soil is;
darker soils are more fertile than soil which is light in colour;
Black – high organic matter;
Brown – good organic content + well aerated/drained;
Red – low organic matter + well aerated/drained/presence of iron/ferric acid /Fe2O3;
Yellow – low in organic matter + well drained/aerated;
Grey – low in organic matter + poorly drained/poorly aerated/presence of iron/ferrous oxide/FeO;
9 (a) (i) Fairly well answered.

Answer
causes soil pore spaces to become smaller/damages the soil structure;
reduces water infiltration rate into soil/decreases the rate that water will penetrate into the soil root zone
and subsoil;
increases the potential for surface water ponding/water runoff/surface soil waterlogging/soil erosion;
reduces the ability of a soil to hold water and air, which are necessary for
plant root growth and function;
reduces crop emergence as a result of soil crusting;
impedes root growth and limits the volume of soil explored by roots/makes it difficult for plant roots to
grow;
(limits soil exploration by roots) which decreases the ability of crops to take up nutrients and water
efficiently from soil;
reduces crop yield potential; ORA
(ii) Well answered. Few candidates, however, brought in ways of conventional farming, most of
which are not sustainable.
Answer
Reduce the loss of biodiversity
Leave small areas of natural vegetation (buffers) around the farm to conserve some of the natural
biodiversity of the area;
Plant a variety of crops through intercropping or crop rotation systems;
Practise crop and livestock farming on the same farm /mixed farming;
Use agroforestry practices/to include trees and shrubs into farm fields;
Reduce damage to the soil
Practise no tillage or minimum tillage;
To reduce the problems caused by tillage machines: use lighter machines/always drive tractors in the
same lanes in a field / use tillage implements that cause minimum soil disturbance, such as chisel
ploughs and rippers/attach multiple tools to the tractor at the same time to allow multiple tillage/
operations to be completed in a single pass across the field;
Leave crop residues from the previous crop on top of the soil/use organic manure;
Use tractor-drawn seed drills which plant seeds directly into fields that have had little or no tillage and
still have crop residues;
Reduce air pollution
Practise reduced or zero tillage to reduce the use of farm machines that burn fossil fuels;
Keep machines in good operating condition through regular maintenance;
Do not spray chemicals when it is windy to prevent the chemicals from being blown into the air by the
wind;
Reduce soil and water pollution
Avoid over-application of chemicals, such as pesticides and fertilisers, to prevent the build-up of
chemicals in the soil/ practise organic farming;
Avoid over-irrigation to prevent chemicals from being washed from the fields into nearby water sources;
Use chemicals that are biodegradable and environmentally friendly, such as organic fertilisers and
narrow-spectrum pesticides;
Use mechanical or biological pest control instead of chemical control;

34
(b) Well answered.
Answer
Genetically altered to give them desirable characteristics; such as:
increased yield;
results in animals that are resistant to diseases/ well adapted to harsh local conditions;
high growth rate;
results in animals that are highly fertile;
improved food quality for human consumption, for example, cow's milk with less fat for making better
cheese/ improves the quality of animal products;
ability to produce new medical products such as medicines or tissues for human implantation, for example,
cow's milk with omega-3 fatty acids;
ability to produce new products for industry, for example, strong fibres;
(c) Poorly answered. Most candidates referred to the disadvantages of using chemicals in farming
instead of biotechnology.
Answer
Beneficial insects could be killed when they feed on pest-resistant GM crops/disrupt the food chain;
This reduces biodiversity;
Genes may be transferred from GM crop plants to wild plants by cross‑pollination/For example, herbicide
resistance may be passed to weeds, creating superweeds;
Increase the spread of certain crop diseases;
Extinction of certain plants/animal species;
Biotechnology can result in genetic mutation/defects;
10 (a) Well answered. Most of the candidates who opted for question 10 could score over four marks for
this question.
Answer
lack of qualified extension staff;
frequent transfer of extension staff;
limited access to information;
limited understanding of extension concepts;
under staff/unproportional extension worker-farmer ratio;
long distance/ lack of transport for mobility/ poor road infrastructures;
budget constraints;
climate change;
attitude change;
market demand of exotic cattle breeds;
(b) Poorly answered.

Answer
one dominant seller/buyer;
high barriers to entry in the market by other suppliers;
price is set by the seller only/the buyer can influence the price;
supplier can change the price any time without notice to customers;
products will be sold regardless of supply and demand;
products have no substitutes in the market;
(c) Poorly answered. Most candidates referred to the impacts of quotas instead of international trade
agreements.
Answer
reduction of international trade barriers;
establishment of (strong) trade partnership;
Increase in agricultural exports;
opening of new markets/expansion of agricultural industries/create access to a larger market for producers;
elimination of export tariffs;
creation of employment opportunity;
growth/development of economy for countries with a smaller economy
boost of agricultural productivity;
enhance global competitiveness;
makes a wider range of products available to consumers;
makes products cheaper for consumers;

35
(d) Well answered.
Answer
Build storage facilities/fresh produce hubs/silos;
Set regulations for market price;
Quotas;
quality standard to prevent import of inferior produce/commodities;
Subsidise transport fees for livestocks and crops to the market;
Support prices;
Deficiency payment;

• Teachers are advised to take more time to prepare learners for the examination by engaging them in practical
laboratory experiments, doing more revision, making them aware of the command words and generally how to
answer examination questions.
• Teachers should guide learners on how to answer questions with action verbs that require a discussion or an
explanation.
• Learners should be taught to spell words correctly through repeated work and assessments.
• Learners should be encouraged to attempt every question and take note of the marks allocated to every part of the
question as a guide to how much detail is required.
• Learners should be made aware of the different types of graphs and when to use them depending on the data given.
• Teachers must encourage the learners to proof read their answers once they have finished writing.
• Teachers are advised to have some excursions with their learners to expose them to some of the farming activities
as well as farm machineries for them to be able to answer the examination questions easily.

36
8222
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
Many centres submitted the required documents and worksheets of good standard for external moderation. Worksheets
submitted by some centres were, however, not of acceptable standard. Marks of a few centres were allocated in such
a manner that it was beneficial to all candidates. However, some centres assessed the same marking point under two
marking criteria.
Most centres submitted evidence in the form of pictures as required. However, some centres failed to submit evidence
of the work done, especially for the practical investigation. Centres are encouraged to ensure that pictures submitted as
evidence for practical investigations are attached to specific investigation reports. Pictures must be clear enough and
should show all stages of the investigation with candidates busy carrying out the tasks.
Selection of investigation topics by candidates has greatly improved. Candidates at most centres selected individual
topics as per the syllabus requirement. Teachers need to ensure that practical investigations topics selected by
candidates are of investigative nature; candidates should find information for themselves by direct observation and
measurement. See page 26 of Agricultural Science NSSCAS syllabus. Candidates who are submitting typed reports
are advised to use Arial / Times New Roman font and font size 12 with 1.5 line spacing.
Appropriateness of Assessment Tasks

Many centres managed to select practical tasks from different themes outlined in the syllabus.
However, a few centres selected tasks from the same themes and some selected tasks from Grade 10-11 ordinary
level syllabus i.e. mulching, animal handling etc.
Centres should take note that selected tasks must address specific objectives in the NASSCAS Agricultural Science
syllabus.
Some centres selected simple tasks that are not challenging enough for candidates at this level. Candidates should
not only prepare seedbeds but should also grow some vegetables on the prepared plots and take care of them until
harvesting and marketing. Similarly, for the task on seed germination, which was selected by most centres, candidates
should grow the viable seedlings and take care of them until harvesting time as well. Soil pH test should be extended
to regulation of the soil pH. A food sample should be tested for at least two or more nutrients. Alternatively, different
samples can be tested for one nutrient.
Interpretation and application of assessment criteria

Most centres were aware of the five assessment criteria that should be assessed in each practical task. However, some
generated marking points that were too general. Centres are urged to generate specific marking points per marking
criteria for each of the practical tasks.
Centres are urged to develop more challenging practical-based questions under the written component of the worksheets.
Teachers are reminded that written work completed by candidates is an important evidence that the candidates have
participated in carrying out a specific assessment task.
Suitability and relevance of practical investigations

Selection of relevant question (hypothesis) for the investigation
Many candidates were able to come up with hypotheses for their investigations. Some candidates selected topics that
were not of investigative nature and some selected topics with more than one variable to be tested.
Planning of the investigation

It was evident that most centres had done prior planning of their investigations. Centres are, however, reminded
that candidates should collect data by direct observation and measurement. This means candidates should set up
experiments and then observe and measure. They should not collect the required data by just using questionnaires or
by interviewing other people. See page 26 of the syllabus. Candidates still need to be guided on how to carry out the
practical investigation.
Handling of evidence
Most candidates were able to show understanding of how to handle data collected through completed tables and
graphs. However, results presented by some candidates seemed unrealistic. Candidates whose reports are hand
written are encouraged to use graph paper for plotting graphs.

37
Ability to make deductions
Few candidates could interpret and analyse their data. Deductions (conclusions) made by some candidates were,
however, not linked to the data collected or hypothesis.
Limitations
Most candidates were able to identify 1 or 2 limitations experienced during their investigations. Centres should
encourage candidates to suggest improvements for each limitation identified.
Presentation, layout and originality

Many candidates were able to follow the report layout as outlined in the syllabus. However, some candidates did not
indicate the duration of their practical investigations. Candidates are urged to use pictures from their own investigations
rather than using downloaded pictures from the internet.
Interpretation and application of assessment criteria for practical investigations

Most centres were able to interpret and apply the assessment criteria for practical investigation with regards to the six
marking criteria. Some centres did not, however, use the assessment criteria stipulated in the syllabus to award marks.
Centres are urged to use the assessment criteria for practical investigations, when awarding marks for candidates’
practical investigations and to provide annotations as to how the marks were awarded.
Administration
It is appreciated that many Centres complied with all the administrative procedures, that are required for moderation
purposes and that some centres put in extra effort by providing the required information in neat and well-organised files.
This made the moderation exercise much easier.
Some errors in addition of marks were detected. Centres are urged to internally moderate, verify and ensure that
addition of marks is done correctly.
Centres are encouraged to submit evidence of candidates’ work in the form of photographs, showing all the main stages
of the practical tasks and not just the end result.
In addition, centres are reminded that only a sample of ten candidates’ work (practical tasks worksheets, practical
investigation reports and the individual record cards of those ten candidates) should be submitted for external
moderation. The rest of the individual record cards, worksheets and investigation reports should be kept safely at the
centre until after the release of the results.
It is important to verify before sealing the envelope that all the necessary documents for external moderation are
enclosed.
Centres are referred to the reverse side of the Individual Record Cards, Coursework Assessment Summary Forms for
additional information.
In conclusion, the performance demonstrated by candidates was satisfactory. However, there were a few signs of
negligence by a few centres. Agricultural Science Advanced Subsidiary level teachers should seek assistance regarding
the conducting and administering of School-Based Assessment in Agricultural Science.

38
ART AND DESIGN
8251
Paper 1 & 2
Thank you for your effort and hard work during the year.
Ten candidates enrolled for AS Level.
Question 1, Honeybee Whisperer, was the most popular question.
It seems most learners misunderstood the questions because it was not properly investigated and researched. It
is advisable that the teacher guide the learners through the Assessment Criteria before starting the coursework or
examination paper.
Artist should always be able to relate to a chosen theme. Random artists have no contribution to their work. It is
strongly advisable that the chosen inspirational artist should be the starting point of your investigation and research.
Learners should research inspirational artists more carefully and explain more about how they inspired as well as
informed the applicable pieces. It is advisable that at least 3 inspirational artists should be investigated and researched
since this is AS Level.
It is expected that on AS level, learners should be able to handle chosen mediums and techniques on an excellent
level. Primary and secondary sources as well as preparatory work should always link to the entire body of works.
Unnecessary sources and work only take up much space and will not contribute to better marks. Learners should be
reminded that the quality of work is more important than senseless quantities of work.
Describing technique processes is not critical thinking. The learner’s thought process from start to end regarding the
theme should be recorded which indicate critical thinking.
In coursework, the final should always be the best work that the learner has produced and should be chosen with
careful consideration. Always remember to include reference pictures. If secondary sources are used they should be
referenced and indicated. It is advisable to use primary sources which must also be referenced. Encourage candidates
to be original in their approach in this competitive skill.
It is advisable that the teacher is trained and competent in the disciplines offered by the school, e.g., photography,
fashion and digital media.
Well done and keep up the good work.
As this is a small entry subject, all learners’ work for 2021 and 2022 will be kept as standards.

39
40
BIOLOGY
8223
Paper 1
1 C 21 B
2 A 22 A
3 C 23 B
4 D 24 B
5 B 25 B
6 A 26 C
7 B 27 A
8 C 28 A
9 A 29 D
10 B 30 B
11 A 31 D
12 D 32 A
13 B 33 C
14 A 34 C
15 C 35 B
16 B 36 B
17 D 37 D
18 B 38 A
19 A 39 C
20 D 40 B

41
8223
Paper 2
General comments
Biology on AS level requires not only factual knowledge of the subject, but also an understanding which allows the
candidates to apply this knowledge to new situations. Most of the candidates lacked application and analysis skills.
However, recall questions were answered quite well.
There are still too many candidates who do not take enough time to READ the introductions to the questions as well as
the questions with understanding.
The candidates do not know what is expected of them when the question asks them to ‘explain’.
Explain implies reasoning or some reference to theory, depending on the context. It is another way of asking candidates
to give reasons. The candidate needs to make sure that the examiner is told why something happens.
The English language still is a big problem. Candidates struggle to express themselves clearly. This should not be a
problem any more after 12 years of schooling.
Punctuation rules apply in all subjects! Candidates write sentences without a capital letter at the beginning and they
do not use any punctuation marks. Biological terminology must be used correctly and more care should be taken with
spelling. Questions should be answered using full sentences, except when asked to list or state. PLEASE teach your
candidates accordingly. When you mark at school, be very strict about this. Give your candidates enough time in class
to practise answering questions and expressing themselves properly.
Comments on specific questions. The parts in italics represent the marking scheme.
Question 1
(a) diffusion;
round worm is small, diffusion is sufficient for transport processes;
each body cell in the roundworm is close to the outer surface/surface area: volume ratio is high;
rate of diffusion is high over short distances;
Most candidates knew that the process is diffusion. Few could explain why diffusion is sufficient to supply all
the cells of the roundworm with oxygen. Many candidates named all kinds of structures which could help in
the absorption of oxygen which were not mentioned in the stem of the question. Information provided in the
stem of the question should be read and taken into consideration when answering a question.
Cells membranes cannot be thick or thin, as they are all made of a phospholipid bilayer which is the same for
all living organisms.
The candidates are not expected to know any facts about the roundworm. When answering this question the
information given in the stem of the question should be used.
Some candidates did mentioned that roundworms are extrememly small or quite long in relation to their
diameter. (This is the information they gained from the stem of the question and used correctly.) This clearly
indicates that they have a large surface area compared to their volume. Special transport systems are not
needed if diffusion can supply all the cells, which is not the case in the roundworm.
(b) 1. globular protein;

2. 4 subunits/polypetides;
3. two α-globins and two β-globins;
4.each has a co-factor/haem group;
5. haem group/co-factor includes iron ion/Fe2+ at centre;
6. Iron binds with oxygen;
The structure of haemoglobin is fairly well known.
Important to note, the haem group is not just in the haemoglobin molecule, but attached to each one of the
polypeptide chains.
Each haem group contains an iron (Fe2+) ion, not just an ion.
The oxygen binds to the iron ion (Fe2+) in the haem group.
Candidates confuse the words consist of and contain. The haemoglobin molecule does not consist of the
haem group or the iron.

42
https://chemistryscore.com/hemoglobin-and-myoglobin-function/
Too many candidates described the red blood cell instead of the haemoglobin molecule. Haemoglobin is a molecule
which is found inside the red blood cell.
(c) higher pH/pH 7.5 increases affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen; ORA
curve is more to the left/haemoglobin saturated at lower pO2; ORA
data values from graph with units;
This question was poorly answered.
When reference is made to a change, it must clearly be stated in which direction the change is taking place,
i.e., is there an increase or a decrease. Many candidates just referred to a change which causes either an
increase or a decrease in the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.
The whole idea of affinity of one molecule to another is not well understood. It is the haemoglobin molecule
which has an affinity for the oxygen molecule, not the other way round.
Many candidates did not refer to the affinity at all, they just mentioned % saturation and pO2. The link
between the two is also not clear. When haemoglobin becomes saturated at a low pO2 it means that the
haemoglobin has a high affinity for the oxygen. If haemoglobin only becomes saturated at a higher pO2 it
means that its affinity is low.
Many candidates had the answer correct but could not link it to the graph. When data from a graph is used
to explain a statement, all figures used must be written with the correct unit.
Many candidates do not understand the idea of pH. pH values above 7 indicate that a solution is alkaline, a
pH below 7 indicates an acidic solution. Therefore, when pH decreases, it becomes more acicidic, because
the concentration of H+ is increasing.

43
Figure 20.20. The oxygen dissociation curve demonstrates that, as the partial pressure of oxygen
increases, more oxygen binds with haemoglobin. However, the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen may shift
to the left or the right depending on environmental conditions.
https://opentextbc.ca/biology/chapter/20-4-transport-of-gases-in-human-bodily-fluids/
Reduce Hb-O2 affinity (right shift)

higher CO2
lower pH
higher temperature
This annotation on the graph tells us that Hb has a lower affinity for oxygen when there is a higher CO2
concentration, or a lower pH or a higher temperature The same applies to the other annotation for the
increased affinity.
(ii) Bohr effect;
The name of this shift in the position of the dissociation curve was well known to most candidates.
The spelling of the word ‘Bohr”, however, is a real problem.
(iii) 1. active muscles respire more/at a higher rate;
2. more O2 is needed/more CO2 is produced;
3. increase in CO2 / carbon dioxide concentration decreases blood pH/increase in CO2, increases H+;
4. increase in CO2 causes dissociation curve to shift to the right;
5. haemoglobin has lower affinity for oxygen/realeses oxygen more easily;
This question was answered very poorly.

Candidates do not know the difference between respiration and breathing. Candidates could not apply
the information from the graph to the situation described in the question.
Many candidates just looked at the X-axis and discussed the effect of pO2 on the supply of oxygen to
the cells and related the change in pO2 to altitude. That is not what the question was about.
Oxygen is NOT produced during respiration.
In this question it is important to start with the situation as given in the stem of the question.
The athlete is running.
That means his/her muscles are more active than usual. Therefore, they require more energy (which
cannot be produced).
To supply this energy, the muscle cells have to respire faster. For faster respiration more oxygen is
NEEDED and more CO2 is produced. This increase in carbon dioxide leads to a decrease in the pH of
the blood in the active muscles. A decrease in pH leads to a decrease in the affinity of haemoglobin to
oxygen, as shown by the Bohr shift in the graph, and, therefore, the haemoglobin releases the oxygen
more readily, that provides more oxygen to the respiring cells and allows aerobic respiration to take
place for an extended period of of time.
Reference to more and faster have to be made since cells are always respiring and in need of oxygen
and producing carbon doxide.
O2 is written with a subscript and not a superscript!

44
The following are two links to youtube videos on haemoglobin and the dissociation curve.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wgSUdxrlO8Y
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=b21cU28eHdc
2. (a) Name: Plasmodium falciparum/ Plasmodium malariae/ Plasmodium ovale/ Plasmodium vivax
Type of pathogen: Protoctist/ Protist/Protozoa
The scientific name of an organism must be underlined. The genus and species name are underlined
separately. The spelling of these scientific names is again a big problem which candidates have to
concentrate on.
The type of organism refers to the classification of the organism.
(b) 1. female Anopheles mosquito;

2. bites infected person;
3. mosquito bites non-infected person;
4. secretes saliva into blood to prevent blood clotting; AW
Attention must be paid to detail. It is only the female mosquito which transmits the Plasmodium parasite.
Not all Anopheles mosquitoes are carriers, therefore, it must be mentioned whether the mosquito is infected
or not.
To become a vector the mosquito must bite an infected person to ingest the parasite. Many candidates
mention that the blood from the infected person is directly transferred to the next person being bitten. The
Plasmodium parasite first undergoes certain stages in its lifecycle, in the mosquito before it can be transmitted
to the next person.
Many candidates referred to the blood/saliva being vomited into the next person. This is biologically incorrect!
Many candidates were confusing malaria with cholera. Malaria cannot be transmitted via droplets produced
when coughing or sneezing, or by contaminated water.
Adapted diagram from: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK579956/figure/CSHLP5087CH43F1/

(c) 1. ref. to the Anopheles mosquito needs water to breed/to lay eggs;
2. higher amount of rainfall in the North/more rain in North/higher humidity in North; ORA
3. mosquito prefers fresh water/puddles after rainfall/not polluted water/bodies of standing water;
4. vegetation in South and along coast limited and therefore the humidity of the air is low; ORA
5. temperatures more constant/not much variation in temperature/temperatures mosly high in northern
regions/hot temperatures in North; ORA
6. mosquitoes live long enough for parasite to develop in the gut of the mosquito; (linked to temperature)
7. high population density of humans increases the chance of infection;
45
The conditions in the northern parts of Namibia allow the Anopheles mosquito to reproduce and the mosquito
lives long enough for the parasite to complete those stages of its life cycle which occur in the mosquito.
When referring to conditions it must be very clear which region the candidate is writing about. Candidates
also did not always make it clear whether they were referring to the mosquito or the parasite. Comparative
words should be used, since it rains in all the regions mentioned in the question, but more in the North than in
the South. The same applies to the other conditions that can be mentioned.
(d) (i) 1. indoor-house spraying + to kill adult mosquitoes;

2. (insecticide treated) nets + (to kill adult mosquitoes and) prevent being bitten by mosquitoes;
3. testing regularly to determine the number of people in households infected with the Malaria
pathogen/parasite + to determine chances of infection;
4. treating water bodies with biological agents/description of method + to kill mosquito
larvae/larviciding; AW
5. housing with mosquitonetting at the windows and doors + to keep mosqiutoes out of house;
6. introduction of predatory fish + to feed on larvae;
7. early treatment of infected people + to kill parasite in the bloodstream/ using prophylactic medication;
8. education about malaria prevention + people apply measures; AW
Most candidates mentioned the measures without explaining them which did not gain them any marks.
Droughts, more or less rainfall, cold conditions etc., are not measures that are taken by the population
which could have decreased the number of people suffering from Malaria.
Water bodies, oshanas, lakes, dams, puddles after rain etc., cannot be covered with oil or petrol, as this
pollutes the water which then cannot be used for any other purposes. This measure can only be aplied
to water in containers and there are other ways to cover the water by not polluting it with oil. Should this
method be used, it causes the mosquito larvae in the water to suffocate.
Malaria is not transmitted via contaminated water, open sewage water can just provide a breeding
place for the mosquito. Should a person drink water which contains mosquito eggs or larvae, he/she
will not be infected.
(d) (ii) 1. mosquitoes mainly active at night; AW

2. venues outdoors, no control over movement/presence of mosquitoes;
3. not wearing protective clothing/long sleeved shirts/long trousers to protect against mosquito bites;
4. not using mosquito repellents to prevent mosquito bites;
5. many people bitten by one infected mosquito;
A mosquito cannot immediately transfer the pathogen from one person to the next by sucking blood from
an infected person and then immediately sucking blood from a non-infected person.
Mosuiqtoes are more active at night, not available.
Although it is warmer and maybe more moist in a closed venue when lots of people are gathered there or
they are polluting the environment with cans and bottles in which water could collect; the mosquito does
not breed so fast that this fact could cause an increase in the transmission of the pathogen.
The fact that there are many people together allows one infected mosquito to bite a number of people
and by doing so, the pathogen is passed on to many people.
Many candidates mentioned preventative measures which are not adhered to at night. These must be
reasonable and match the situation, not something like not sleeping under a mosquito net. People are
at a gathering, not sleeping!
(e) Penicillin acts on /targets the peptidoglycan cell wall;

Plasmodium does not have a cell wall/peptidoglycan cell wall;
Many candidates knew that Penicillin acts on the bacterial cell wall by preventing the synthesis of peptidogly-
can which prevents lysis of the bacterial cell.
Penicillin cannot be used to treat malaria, since the Plasmodium parasite does not have a cell wall.
It is incorrect to say that protoctists do not have a cell wall, since there are some that do have a cell wall.
Plant-like protists (algae) and fungi-like protists do have cell walls. Animal-like protists do not have cell walls.
Plasmodium is an animal-like protist.
Many candidates referred to the Plasmodium parasite as being a bacterium or a virus.
46
Penicillin does not affect the cell membrane. Many candidates referred to the cell wall and the cell mem-
brane, which makes the answer incorrect.
https://www.savemyexams.co.uk/a-level/biology/cie/19/revision-notes/10-infectious-disease/10-
2-antibiotics/10-2-1-penicillin/

47
3. (a) (i) Mitosis/M (phase)
The stage of the cell cycle was identified correctly by a large number of candidates. There was a slight
problem with the question, as it asked for the letter in the diagram, instead of the label. In spite of this
error, candidates answered the question very well.
(ii) Stage: Anaphase;

Reason: (daughter) chromosomes/sister chromatids being pulled to opposite poles/spindle fibres
shorten;
The stage of mitosis was well recognised by many candidates and they gave the correct reason.
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Mitosis_schematic_diagram-en.svg
(iii) A: Centriole/centrosome;
B: Spindle fibres;
Most candidates labelled the parts correctly.
In diagrams of cell division there are a number of terms which are very similar: centromere, centrosome
and centriole, so teachers should ensure that candidates can distinguish between the different structures.
(iv) C: (chromosome/chromatid)
- ensures correct distribution of genetic material to the daughter cells;
- regulates the protein synthesis in cells;
- determines the gender of an individual;
- contains genetic material
(telomere)
- prevent chromatids/ chromosomes sticking together/prevents loss of genes
D: (centromere)
attachment of spindle fibres/joins sister chromatids/allows separation of (sister) chromatids;
The functions of chromosomes/chromatids were generally well known.

48
Many candidates identified the labelled part C as being a telomer.
The functions of the telomers are not to prevent the shortening of the DNA or chromosome.
The telomere itself is part of the DNA molecule and parts of the telomere are lost during each DNA
replication/cell division. The chromatids/chromosomes are made of DNA molecules and, therefore, they
would also shorten, if some neucleotides of the telomere were lost during DNA replication.
(b)
Candidates must use a ruled line to label any structure and the label may not be written on the diagram
itself. These are the general rules for labelling which always apply.
(c) chromosomes arrive at opposite poles;
chromosomes decondense (during telophase);
The question was not read correctly; the behaviour of the chromosomes was asked and not a description of
the whole next phase.
Many candidates described all the phases.
The chromosomes decondense and become a chromatin network again. They do not recondense, which
would only happen when the cell prepapres for the next division.
(d) (i) Name: (DNA)-helicase;

Function: breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two DNA strands;
Name: DNA polymerase;
Function: joins new/free nucleotides to form new strand/checks for errors/joins complimentary
nucleotides to template; AW
Name: ligase;
Function: forms bonds between two nucleic acid (fragments) between okazaki fragments;
Name: Primase;
Function: starts process of replication/makes a small piece of RNA (called a primer);
The names and the functions of the enzymes involved in DNA replication were not well known and
described with too little detail.Many candidates could state the names of the enzymes but struggled with
the functions.
Use the link to the video on cell replication for a good explanation of the process:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hrIPD9T5ZJw
(d) (ii) each new DNA molecule has one old/original strand and one new strand;
two/both original DNA strands act as template for the new strands to be formed; AW
origninal strand from parent is conserved in each new molecule;
Few candidates could explain the term ‘semi-conservative replication’ correctly.
There seems to be a lot of confusion between a molecule and a strand. The result of DNA replication is
two new DNA molecules each consisting of two strands, of which one is ‘old’ and the other ‘new’.
Few candidates knew that both DNA strands from the original DNA molecule act as templates in DNA
replication.
Many candidates referred to half the strand being conserved. This is incorrect, since the whole strand
is conserved, but not the whole molecule of DNA.

49
4 (a) (i) the triglyceride has three fatty acids and the molecule in Fig. 4.2 has two fatty acids; AW
lipid has a phosphate group, not present in triglyceride;
triglyceride is unsaturated/has double bonds between C atoms and lipid is saturated; AW
lipid has R group, not present in trigyceride;
When a comparison between two molecules has to be made, the points mentioned must refer to both
molecules and not just to one.
(a) (i)
1. part of the molecule labelled 1/part made up by fatty acids/fatty acid tails is/are non-polar;
2. hydrophobic/does not dissolve/mix in water/hates water;
3. part of the molecule labelled 2/phosphate group is polar;
4. hydrophyllic/does dissolve/mix in water/loves/likes water;
5. inside the cell membrane is cytoplasm/intracellular fluid;
6. and on outside tissue fluid/extracellular fluid;
7. both are a watery liquid/liquid made up (mainly) of water;
8. hydrophobic tail faces away from water, hydrophillic head faces water;
9. hydrophobic tails make up the inside of the membrane, hydrophyllic heads make up the outsides of
the membrane;
10. two layers of phospholipid molecules;
Accept annotated diagram;
An annotated diagram is more than just a diagram with labels. It is a diagram where there is a short
summary accompanying the labels.
Candidates could have also used Fig. 4.2 to annotate and help them with their answer as shown in the
diagram above.
Although many candidates scored quite well in this question, they did not really understand what it was
all about.
Candidates could describe the polarity of the different parts of the phospholipid, but did not really
undersatnd how this influences the arrangement of the molecules in the cell membrane. Candidates are
not aware of the cytoplasm and the tissue fluid which are present on either side of the cell membrane and
that these liquids consist mainly of water. Thus the phospholipids arange themselves in such a way that
the phospholipid head faces either the tissue fluid on the outisde of the membrane or the cytoplasm on
the other side of the membrane.
In the phospholipid molecule it is not the glycerole which makes it polar, it is the phosphate group which
makes the head of the molecule polar.
An annotated diagram could be as follows:

50
(b) (i) Lipase was added after 5 minutes;
The reaction ended after 10 minutes;
Most candidates could read this correctly from the graph. However many gave the unit on the X-axis as
time/minute; this is incorrect as this means time per minute.
When writing the label of the axis, the word time indicates what is recorded on the X-axis and the word
after the / represents the unit.
Lipase was not added right at the start at 0 minutes. It states clearly in the stem of the question that
the solution was given time to reach 25°C before the enzyme was added. This shows again that the
candidates do not read their questions properly. The reaction also did not end at the end of the graph
line, but when the pH levels off.
(b) (ii) triglyceride is split into fatty acids and glycerol;

fatty acids (are acids and) lower the pH of the solution;
This question was very poorly answered. Candidates did not look at the labels on the axes and could
not apply what they had learnt about the structure of a triglyceride and its digestion to the action of the
enzyme in this experiment.
The stem of the question states that tristearide is digested by means of a hydrolysis reaction catalysed
by the enzyme lipase. The progress of the reaction can be measured by the change in the pH of the
solution.
Candidates answered by stating that the enzyme denatured or could not function at a certain pH. This
indicates that the information in the stem of the question was not used at all.
(b) (iii) Graph starts on same level as graph at 25°C, stays the same until lipase is added;
decrease in pH steeper;
final pH reached faster but same as in graph at 25°C;
Many candidates did not answer this correctly. The question asked candidates to draw a graph on the
same figure as the graph given. Many candidates ignored this; a separate graph was not marked.
Since the temperature of the waterbath was higher, the reaction rate was higher. The temperature was
still below the optimum for ligase, an enzyme found in the human digestive system, therefore, the optimum
should be +37°C, therefore the enzyme did not denature.
The enzyme was added at the same time as in the first experiment, i.e. after 5 minutes, so the reaction
could have only started at 5 minutes. The first part of the graph, therefore, is exactly the same as given
for the first experiment.
The reaction takes place faster, meaning the pH decreases faster, shown by a steeper gradient in the
graph.
The pH cannot decrease lower than in the first experiment, since the same concentration of tristearin was
used, i.e. the same number of fatty acids will be formed and, therefore, the pH has to be the same. The
final pH is just reached faster because the reaction rate is higher.

51
8223
Paper 3
Key messages
• It is of utmost importance that the teachers familiarise themselves with the AS Biology syllabus and should be
able to interpret the syllabus correctly, at the beginning of the year.
• Learners should be given the opportunity to experience a variety of practical work throughout the year, in order to
develop the skills that can be applied to the requirements of the examination. Reference is made to the
supervisors’ report where learners did not have enough time to have real practice with the microscope, stage
micrometer and eyepiece graticule.
• Candidates should be made aware that the command word of questions indicates how the candidate should
respond. The word ‘explain’ requires candidates to imply reasoning or some reference to theory, depending on
the context. It is another way of asking candidates to give reasons. The candidate needs to make sure that the
examiner is told why something happens.
• When the question asks ‘state two visible features which indicate that the leaf is from a xerophyte and explain
how they help to reduce transpiration’, the candidate should state a visible feature, that they can see and give a
reason why that feature is an important part of a xerophyte.
General comments
All the Centres returned the Supervisor’s report which is really appreciated, however, most of the reports were
incomplete without the results obtained. Centres are encouraged to complete their report and experience the
practical done by the learners, since the information included in the Supervisor’s report is essential.
Candidates who have used materials and apparatus during practical work as part of the course are likely to perform
better in the examination. Whilst the activities in the examination may not be unfamiliar, candidates who have had
the opportunity to follow instructions carefully, in a variety of practical work, are likely to find it easier to organise and
complete unfamiliar activities.
Preparing the correct materials, ensuring the materials are sterilised before use to avoid any contamination of the
solution being prepared and providing the specified apparatus are essential for the success of the examination.
Overall, candidates have not improved on how to draw a plan diagram, plot a graph and prepare a table to make
comparisons. There was good discrimination between the weaker and more able candidates while the majority of
candidates showed that they were not familiar with the use of the microscope, eyepiece graticule and stage micrometer.
Comments on specific questions
1 (a) (i) Many candidates identified the correct pH. Some of the candidates did not understand the
question that focused on the starting pH. Instead, they wrote the pH after the experiment
which was acidic. That significant error may have affected the trend in results.
Answer
pH = 6.5 / 7 / 7.5
(ii) Test tubes 2 – 5: 1 cm3 glucose;

Test tubes 2 -5: 9 cm3 water;
Test tubes 2 – 5: decreasing percentage from tubes 1 to 5;
All percentages are correct as shown in the table below;
beaker volume of glucose volume of distilled water percentage
solution added/cm3 added/cm3 concentration of
glucose
1 10 0 10
2 1 9 1
3 1 9 0.1
4 1 9 0.01
5 1 9 0.001
(iii) The majority of candidates could construct a table, although the ability to identify the column
was a challenge. Candidates completed the first two columns correctly, however, most of the
candidates could not calculate the percentage concentration of glucose. Please go to the link
below for assistance.
52
https://www.mathcentre.ac.uk/resources/uploaded/c1v1c2v2.pdf
The majority of candidates could construct a table, although the ability to identify the column was a
challenge. The significant errors were by candidates who could not write pH correctly, pH is a symbol
and it should be spelled correctly. Candidates should also pay attention to drawing a closed table and
avoid using the page margins as part of the table.
Answer
ST - Single, closed table with 4 columns;
TL - left column labeled test tube/beaker;
O - Other two columns must be pH before/initial and after/final + colour;
C - Two clearly different colours for test tubes A and E
(must be in the colour range of green to yellow or orange);
(b) (i) The majority of candidates misunderstood the reason why the test tubes were left in the
water-bath for 5 minutes in step 3. The most common error was stating that the test tubes
should have the same temperature and to adjust to the new environment.
Answer
ref. to the content of test tube needing to reach required temperature;
(ii) Many of the candidates referred to the errors made by themselves when they were carrying out
the experiment instead of identifying potential sources of inaccuracy experienced as part of the
experiment.
Answer
ref. to judging colour / matching exact colours /colours very close together / exact
colours;
not on a given scale;
idea of timing not the same / different / described;
difficulty to maintain water bath at required temperature;
loss of CO2 / gas / AW;
size of drops of universal indicator vary;
(c) (i) The majority of the candidates gained two marks for ploting a suitable graph. However,
the candidate could not determine the independent variable (the factor that you change or
select) and the dependent variable (the factor that is affected and that you measure or collect the
results). The candidates could also not encircle the dots and some of the dots were too big and
some of the candidates had extra plots instead of five. Some candidates drew lines that went
beyond the points (extrapolation). Some candidates could not scale their graphs at equal intervals.
Answer
A– both axes correctly fully labelled + unit;
x– axis = temp + °C and y-axis = time to change colour + s
S – suitable scale where the graph takes up more than 50% of space.
P – plotting done with small cross or dot in circle;
L – join points with a ruler / line of best fit;
80
time taken for the hydrogen-carbonate
70
indicator to turn yellow/s
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
15 25 30 35 45
temperature/°C

53
(ii) The majority of candidates were credited for reading the correct value on their graph, with the
exception of those who could not understand the question and wrote any value. The common
error was that the candidates stated the value in minutes, degree Celsius instead of seconds.
Answer
Look at the correct value on the graph;
(iii) The majority of the candidates experienced challenges describing and explaining how
temperature affects the rate of enzyme activity. The common errors were that the candidates
referred to colour change instead of enzyme activity. The candidates could not interpret that the
question is referring to why temperature influenced enzyme activity. Although the candidates
make reference to data from the graph, data was linked to colour and length of time instead of
enzyme activity. Candidates could also not observe that the temperature increase up to 45 °C
and not beyond, as many of the candidates referred to denaturation of enzymes.
Answer
1. Ref. that as the temperature increases enzyme activity also increases / AW;
2. correct reference data;
3. At lower temperatures, molecules vibrate less /enzyme and substrate have less kinetic energy;
4. less /substrate/glucose attaches to active site/less successful collisions;
5. (so) less product/carbon dioxide is formed/less enzyme-substrate complexes formed;
OR
6. As temperature increases molecules have more kinetic energy /enzyme and substrate have more
energy;
7. more substrate/glucose fits into active site/ more successful collisions/;
8. (so) more product/carbon dioxide is formed/ more enzyme-substrate complexes formed;
(iv) The majority of the candidates are not familiar with accuracy (An accurate reading is a true
reading. For example, for your readings of volume to be accurate, then the gas syringe must
have been calibrated correctly, so that when it says the volume of gas is 8.9 cm3 there is, really
8.9 cm3 of gas in there) and reliability (this is how well you can trust your measurements.
Reliable results are ones that are repeatable. This could be affected by various factors, such
as whether you are able to take a reading at the precise time you intended to do so.
The common error was that candidates switched the two ways of taking measurements.
Answer
accuracy:
Same type of yeast;
same volume of yeast solution/glucose solution;
use of water bath to maintain temperature;
reliability:
repeat at least once more;
calculate average or mean;
2 (a) (i) The majority of the candidates could not distinguish between a plan diagram and a diagram of
cells. The most common errors were including cells/tissues in the diagram when it should have
been a plan diagram and also candidates incorrectly labeled the structure of the part of the leaf.
The candidates could also not apply the label rules; they used arrows and overlapping lines
instead of label lines. Some of the candidates are not familiar with the structure of the leaf and as
a result, they could not determine whether the slide was upside down or the right way up.
Answer
S - sharp, clear, and unbroken lines + correct shape;
O - only outline of tissues and no cells drawn + no shading + enlarged;
D - 4 layers (in right proportions) + vascular bundle divided into two;
L - 2 correct label lines to any 2 tissues: upper epidermis, lower epidermis, palisade mesophyll
and spongy mesophyll, collenchyma, cambium;

54
(ii) The majority of candidates could not calculate the width of the lumen using the value they
should have given. Many candidates have displayed a lack of real practice with the
microscope, eye piece graticule and stage micrometer. See the video link to help your learners
https://youtu.be/Te0dgiks2Bo

https://youtu.be/P90kgeb0M6k
Answer
OR
number of eye piece graticule units (A);
number of eye piece graticule units (B)
+ number of stage micrometer scale divisions (C);
(given was (D) = 0.1mm)
Any one
(C : B) x D; x A; (C x D x A);: B;
(C x A: B); x D;
(B x A: C); D;
(C x B: A); x D;
(A x B: C); x D;
(C x D: B); x A;
(ii) The majority of candidates misunderstood the question; they referred to calibration and could
not identify an error that occur when measuring the width of the lumen of a xylem vessel in line
with the eyepiece graticule (EPG).
Answer
ref. to lumen not completely circular;
only one measurement taken;
difficult to read the lines on the eye piece graticule;
difficulty in lining up the eye piece graticule with lumen;
(b) (i) Credit was awarded to candidates who have drawn a table with ruled lines separating the
columns and rows, as well as the descriptions of a particular feature for each tissue which are
opposite each other (that is, they are in the same row). The majority of the candidates
compared functions instead of observable features.
Answer
Feature Fig. 2.1 / xylem Fig. 2.2 / phloem
Differences:
Continuous tube Present Absent
Composition of wall Lignified Not lignified
Cell wall thickness thick thin
End walls/Sieve plates Absent Present
Bands (spiral, rings, reticulated Present Absent
Pits present absent
Companion cell absent present
Cell content Absent / reference to specific Present / reference to specific
organelles organelles ( cytoplasm, few
(cytoplasm/mitochondria) mitochondria)
(ii) Credit was given to a few candidates who wrote the correct answer. Many of the candidates
defined the lumen by wide narrow and continuous, although the xylem and phloem have
differences in the width and continuation of tubes.
Answer
both have a lumen/internal space/cavity, form a tube;

55
(c) The majority of candidates were awarded marks for stating the features, however, they could not
explain how the feature helped to reduce transpiration.
Answer
Feature and explanation must correlate
Feature Explanation
Thick waxy/waterproof cuticle; Provides an oily layer through which water does not easily
escape/prevent/reduces water loss through cuticle/ reflects
some light + reduces heat load and evaporation/ increased
distance + decreases rate of diffusion;
Large air spaces; Store water(vapour);
Stomata sunken / in pits/enclosed stomata; Reduces water potential gradient/ concentration gradient for
transpiration;
Increases humidity + concentration gradient to reduce water
loss
Hairs/trichomes present; Trap water vapour/layer of moist air near leaf surface and
reduce water potential gradient/concentration gradient
(between air space and atmosphere);
Multilayered epidermis Increases distance for diffusion of water vapour to cuticle;
Reduces heat load + evaporation
Stomata only present on lower/inner surface Less exposure to sunlight +reduce evaporation
Reduced number of stomata/ few stomata Few pores/openings + reduces evaporation/water loss

56
BUSINESS STUDIES
8245
Paper 1
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
This year the standard of learners’ work improved compared to last year 2021, which was the first examination for this
syllabus. It seems that most learners from most centres are well aware of the assessment objectives. The way the
answers were given, it shows that the learners are informed of the knowledge, application, analysis and evaluation.
Learners are following instructions even though, there are still a few centres which need to improve.
Analysis is still seeming to be a concern. Learners are not giving an impact to the stakeholder, some just explaining in
general or just giving the definition instead really looking at the impact on the business shareholder (workers, busi-
ness, customers, etc.)
2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS
1 (a) Fairly well answered. Some learners really score good marks here, defining merger in general but
still many of them are confusing merger and take over or either with joint venture. Merger is when
the owners of two businesses agree to join their businesses together to make one business.
Answer
Knowledge (2 x 1)
Clear understanding (2)

A merger happens when two businesses agree to go forward as a single new company (1)
rather than remain separately owned and operated (1)
OR
Merger is an agreement by shareholders and managers of two
businesses to bring both firms together under a common board of
directors (1)
with shareholders in both businesses owning shares in the newly merged business (1)
OR
When the owners of two businesses agree to join their firms (1) together to make one business (1)
Some understanding (1)
(b) Most learners could identify the type of merger which is forward vertical, however, few of them just
wrote vertical. So, the full merger is needed to get a mark.
Answer
Knowledge (1 x 1)
Application (1 x 1)
Clear understanding
Forward vertical merge (k) with Juli’s cycles a retail business in the same industry selling adult bicycles, (ap)
closer to the customer. (ap)
(c) Well answered. Many learners have an idea of advantages and disadvantages. Most learners
scored full marks as, the content is known. There are a few who compared formal with informal,
which only concentrates on the formal sector. There is no need to justify and there is no evaluation.
Answer
Knowledge (2 x 1)
Award one mark for each advantage identified.
Application (2 x 1)
Award up to two marks for relevant reference made to the business.
Analysis (2 x 1)
Award one mark for each relevant advantage analysed
Possible answers
Easy to fix accountability (k) since the authority and responsibility of all the employees have been already
fixed, inefficient employees can easily be apprehended and in this way their accountability can be fixed. (an)

57
Pre-defined work conditions and job responsibilities. (k) Get an assured and decent salary with fringe
benefits and incentives. (an) Is covered by social security for health risk, (k) and income is assured during
pregnancy/loss of employment.
No overlapping of work (k) everything moves in an orderly manner, Therefore, there is no possibility of any
work being left out or unnecessarily duplicated. (an) Formal structure stipulates who should do specific jobs.
Unity of command possible (k) It is possible to observe the principle of unity of command in view of the
presence of scalar chain of authority. (an) There is job security in formal.
Easy to get goals (k) it is easy to achieve the goals of the organisation because there is an optimum use of
all the material and human resources. (an) It is easier to coordinate different activities in the business. (k)
Stability in organisation (k) all the people work by observing rules and remain confined within the domain of
their authority (an). This leads to the establishment of a good relationship, which in turn leads to stability in
the organisation. (an)
Protected by labour laws, (k) against unfair labour practice and can join trade unions.
Application
Employees of VM-Bikes, retail business, merger proposal, environmentally friendly production, adult
bicycle, bicycle parts, owner of VM, types of bicycles
(d) This question was answered fairly well. Most learners scored good marks, as they really know the
analysis of strike and work to rule. Few learners tend to confuse work to rule with go slow as an
industrial action.
There are a few learners still repeating their analysis (advantage and disadvantage used in analysis) in the
evaluation whereby they miss marks for evaluation.
A few did not give clear recommendation.
Answer
Knowledge (2 x 1)
Award one mark for each definition.
Application (2 x 1)
Analysis (3 x 1)
Award up to three marks for explanation of both industrial actions.
Evaluation (3 x 1)
Justified decision on the most effective industrial action.
Possible answers
Strike is an industrial action in which employees totally withdraw their labour for a period of time (k) which
may lead to production stopping completely (an) and a business shutting down (an) during the industrial
action.
Work to rule is an industrial action in which employees refuse to do any work outside the precise terms of
the employment contract (k) leading to no overtime worked (an) and all non-contractual cooperation will be
withdrawn. (an) Employees are able to get their basic salary. (an)
Evaluation
A strike can compel an employer to agree to terms and conditions of employment. (ev) Strikes can lead to a
bad reputation (ev) for a business.
Work to rule will be effective because it delays the progress of work (ev) and when workers perform their tasks
exactly as they are required to do by their employment contract, it causes a lot of disruption to the business.
(ev)
Application
Retail business, adult bicycles, employees of VM-Bikes, formal sector, merger proposal, owners (Scott)
for VM-Bikes, production of bicycles.

58
2 (a) Well answered even though some learners only show some understanding. They do not include
any further explanation for a second mark, they just indicate training given to new employees. A
further mark is given if the learner writes to familiarise themselves with the business or explaining
the activities, routine, structure and so on.
Answer
Knowledge (2 x 1)

Induction training given to new employees (1) to familiarise them with the business and their role in it. (1)
Explaining the firm’s organisation structure, activities and procedures.
(b) Well answered. Most learners managed to score one mark for knowledge and a few missed out
on the application. Instead they just explained the role, which was not asked but a second mark is
given for answering in context.
Answer
Knowledge (1 x 1)
Application (1 x 1)
Clear understanding
Possible answers
Recruitment and selection (k)
attracting the best employees for the vacancy to make designer shoes. (ap)
Wages and salaries (k)
must attract and retain the right people and be sufficiently high to motivate Shawn’s Shoes employees (ap)
Industrial relations (k)
there must be effective communication between the Human Resource manager and the workforce (ap).
This may be to resolve grievances and disputes but also to put forward ideas and suggestion for
improvements in the design (ap)
Training programs (k)
involves assessing and fulfilling the training needs of employees of the future plans of the Designer shoe
business (ap)
Health and safety (k)
Shawn’s business needs to make sure that it complies with all the laws on health and safety to keep the
employees safe and motivated (ap)
Redundancy and dismissal (k)
this involves shedding employees either because the business demand for designer shoes falls (ap) or the
employees steal from the business.
Workforce planning (k)
Forecasting the need for employer in the different departments.
Application
Designer shoes, employee of SS, design, HRM of SS, leather shoes, other material used for shoes.
(c) This question was fairly to well answered. Many learners know the reasons, as the content seems
well understood by the learners. Lack of sufficient finance/capital - many learners who opt for this
have misunderstood the question. Reason the emphasis should be on why the business cannot get
money, e.g. by that time no security or little security. Banks are not keen to give the starting business
loan because of risks.
Answer
Knowledge (2 x 1)
Award one mark for each relevant reason identified.
Application (2 x 1)
Award one mark for a relevant reason to the context.
Analysis (2 x 1)
Award one mark for each relevant reason explained.

59
Possible answers
Weak business idea/business plan problems (k)
lead to low demand (an) low income (an)
Lack of managerial skills (k)
lead to a less efficiency (an) resource manager (ap) and higher average cost (an)
Lack of suitable employees (k)
cannot afford specialist/trained shoe designers, (ap)/(an) therefore, need more supervision that increases
cost (an) employees make more mistakes (an) harm business reputation (an)
Lack of sufficient finance (k)
Small firms have little security to offer banks in exchange for loans (an) and this makes obtaining finance
much more difficult (an) than for larger firms. In addition, suppliers may be reluctant to sell goods on credit
if the business has only been operating for a short time. (an) The cost of borrowing money is more expen-
sive (an) for the smaller firms than for larger firms.
Poor initial research (k)
entrepreneur does not know his target market (an) the price his target market is willing to pay (an) and
where they prefer the service delivered (an). The owner does not know who his competitors are (an).
Business fails to identify customer needs. (an)
Poor decisions (k)
lead to a loss in income (an) and a waste in resources. (an)
Tough competition (k)
tough competition can force you out of business (an) because the customer is loyal to other business. (an)
Difficulty in finding suitable and reasonably priced premises. (k)
The best locations tend to be expensive and often not affordable for smaller business. (an)
No understanding of basic business principles. (k)
We have to know something about the role of the consumer, who determines prices and costs. (an)
Size of the market (k)
If the market is not big enough to make the business liable even with good products it will not save the busi-
ness (an) as there are not enough customers. (an)
Poor marketing (k)
Not much information about the business/products to make customers aware of the products.
Poor control and planning. (k)
Controls of gross profit, stock control and the daily control of the operating expenses are usually neglected.
(an)
Application
Designer shoes, Shawn’s Shoes employees, Human Resource manager and the workforce, Designer
shoe business, leather and other materials, brand of shoes, 80 employees, started two years ago, lack of
motivation, pair of shoes quality shoes.
(d) Well answered. Even though many learners give more than two financial rewards, they end up
failing to evaluate.
Only two financial needed to be discussed here: applied and analysed. One of the rewards can be
recommended.
Some learners discussed two different financial rewards e.g. piece rate and bonus and recommend
the salary which is wrong. Learners should recount from what was discussed (e.g. piece rate or bonus).
Answer
Knowledge (2 x 1)
Award one mark for each financial reward identified.
Application (2 x 1)
Analysis (3 x 1)
Award up to three marks for analysis of each financial reward.
Evaluation (3 x 1)
Justified decision on the most suitable method of financial reward.
Possible answers
Piece rate is payments made per unit or batch of units produced. (k)
Profit sharing/bonus for staff based on the profits of the business. (k)
Performance related pay is to reward staff for above-average work. (k)
Salary annual income that is usually paid on a monthly basis. (k)
Commission is payment to each sale a person made. (k)
Time based rate is payment to a worker for each period of time worked. (k)

60
Piece rate encourages greater effort and faster working (an) but it may lead to falling quality and safety
levels (an) as workers rush to complete units.
It provides little security over pay level for example when machinery breaks down.
Requires a quality control system and this is expensive (an)
Profit sharing reduces the conflict between owners and workers (an) as everyone now has an interest in
higher profits (an).
Profit sharing leads to higher worker effort levels (an) and a greater preparedness to accept cost reduction
measures and changes that benefit the business. (an)
The business is likely to attract better recruits (an) drawn by the chance of sharing profits. However, the
reward offered is not closely related to individual effort (an). Profit sharing schemes will reduce profits
available to be paid to owners and less reinvested into the business (an).
The scheme can be costly to set up and operate (an)
Evaluation
Piece rate can be used where it is possible to measure the performance (ev) The labour cost for each unit is
determined in advance and this helps to set a price for the product. (ev)
With profit sharing the bonuses are paid out of profits, the scheme does not add to business costs (ev.)
Unlike normal increase in pay level it increase motivation which lead to business profitability.
Application
Designer shoes, SS employees, Designer shoes business, high quality, HR manager, workforce, 80
employees, started two years ago, current lack of motivation, work in small teams, owner of SS.
3 (a) Not well answered. Many learners confused the cash flow statement with the cash flow forecast.
50% just defined cash flow statement, so many learners lost marks.
Answer
Knowledge (2 x 1)

An estimate of future inflows and outflows of cash in a business. (k) Usually a monthly period. (k)
(b) Fairly answered. Candidates confused scarcity with economic problems and forget to answer in
context for the application mark.
Answer
Knowledge (1 x 1)
Application (1 x 1)
Clear understanding
She does not have enough quality coffee beans (k) to provide coffee to her customers/to satisfy the coffee
demand of the local customers. (ap)
(c) Well answered. Most learners identify the positive and negative side for growth. So the context
seems well understood.
Answer
Knowledge (2 x 1)
Award one mark for a positive effect and one mark for a negative effect of growth on Coffee Delicious.
Application (2 x 1)
Award one mark for each effect on growth in context.
Analysis (2 x 1)
Award one mark for each relevant effect analysed.
Possible answers
Positive effects
Gain from economies of scale (k) – reduction in average costs as sales increase (an)
Stronger market position (k) gives the business greater security (an) and more influence when dealing with
suppliers and distributors. (an)
61
Possibility of diversification (k) helps to spread the risks of the business by moving into new products and
new markets. (an)
Higher profits (an) by expanding the business and achieving higher sales. (k)
Increased market share (k) business gets a higher business profile and greater bargaining power. (an)
Increased power and status of owners/managers (k) which influence community projects. (an)
Negative effects
Compromising quality (k) increases your production output and may lead to a decline in quality, which can
lead to loss of sales. (an)
Communication problems (k) poor feedback to workers/branches are caused by a long chain of
command. (an)
Shortage of cash (k) expansion can be expensive (an) and can lead to a negative cash flow (an) and increase
in long-term borrowing. (an)
Loss of control/existing management may be unable to cope with problems of controlling larger operations
(k) Original owner of the business may find it difficult to adapt to being leader and manager (an) you need to
delegate management duties or divide the workloads between different locations. (an)
Increased capital requirements (k) need to pay a larger workforce (an) more overhead costs. (an)
Increased staff turnover (k) if staff are given extra work, their morale could drop (an) their productivity could
decrease (an) or they could leave the business. (an)
Diseconomies of scale, (k) leads to increase of average costs.
Application
Cash flow forecast, bank loan, coffee shops, internal growth, quality coffee, coffee beans, waiters, cake,
muffins, Ingrid/owner of Coffee Delicious, customers of Coffee Delicious, more branches.
(d) Not well answered at all. Many learners do not know the difference between market growth and market
share. Many analyses and evaluation do not answer the question. So, evaluation becomes difficult as one
gives the choice of market growth at the same time reason given as for market share or vice versa.
Answer
Knowledge (2 x 1)
Award on mark for each method’s definition of measuring the size of a business.
Application (2 x 1)
Analysis (3 x 1)
Award up to three marks for analysis of each method of measuring the size.
Evaluation (3 x 1)
Justified decision on the most effective method of measuring the size of the business.
Possible answers
Market share is the sales of a business compared, as a percentage, with the sales of the market as a
whole. (k) Larger firms may dominate sales in the market. (an) Changes in market share have a larger
impact on the performance of a business. (an) Business may not be a market leader, but still may be huge
whereas the market itself being small, a major market share does not make business big.
Market growth is the positive change in the total size of the market (volume or value) over a period of time.
(k) Measure against % sales in a market. (k) Larger business has higher sales turnover. (an) Rise in the
demand for a product in market. (an) Increase in the number of people who want to buy a particular product
or increase in the number of products sold.
Evaluation
Depends on learner’s choice
Market share is a relative measurement. (ev) If a business has a high market share, it must be among the
leaders in the industry (ev) and comparatively large. (ev) When the size of the market is small, a high
market share will not indicate a very large firm. (ev) It can be used to assess the performance, (an)
competitors and what decision needs to be taken. (an)
Market growth. The rate of growth will depend on whether the market is saturated or not. (ev) The pace of
growth depends on factors such as general economic growth, changes in consumer income, development
of new markets, taste of consumer. (ev) If product is well accepted in the market there will be a positive
growth. (e) The lower the price the more customer and vice versa, if the market demand decreases so
does the market growth. (ev)
Application
Coffee shops, internal growth, coffee, customer of Coffee Delicious, coffee beans, more branches,
owner of CD
62
3 POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS
Teachers are commended for the effort given to teach learners how to answer in context, which used to
be a challenge but now is well done.
Learners should be taught to master the question assessment objectives. They already supposed to
know if that all the questions 1 (a), 2 (a), 3 (a) are the same → 2 x 1 knowledge. 1 (b), 2 (b),
3 (b) → 1 × 1 knowledge and 1 × 1 application.
So learners should not waste time to start evaluating C questions, which just need up to be analysed.
Learners should be taught how to interpret the question well so they answer what is asked.

63
8245
Paper 2
1 GENERAL COMMENTS
The question paper was not difficult. Learners should have been able to obtain 50% of the marks allocated.
2 COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS
1 (a) The learners have attempted to answer this question quite well. They could identify the knowledge
of the impact of quality assurance.
Learners could apply the case to the question.
Only a few learners could identify the negative impact of quality assurance on the business.
Answer
Knowledge (2 x 1)
Award one mark each importance of quality assurance identified.
Application (2 x 1)
Award one mark for each relevant application to Easy Go.
Analysis (2 x 1)
Award one mark for each relevant explanation.
Possible answers
Positive
Quality assurance aids as motivation (k) involve all staff and this can promote
teamwork (an) and a sense of belonging. (an)
To set quality standards for all stages of production so that all materials and all
production phases are checked (k) before it is too late and the whole product has
been completed (an) in order to meet the need or demand of the consumer/expectation. (an)
Instilling in the whole organisation, a culture of quality (k) leads to a reduction of
costs of wastage and faulty product, (an) rejects and promotes efficiency.
To gain accreditation for quality awards (k) give a business status. (an)
There is little need for final inspection (k) thus saving the costs of final inspection.(an)
If problems occur, it is easier to trace back to where the fault occur in the
processes(k) saving future costs or problems. (an)
The responsibility for quality at various stages can be identified (k) improving
accountability. (an)
Greater opportunities for employees to take pride in their work (k) thus improving
motivation. (an)
Prevents deviation (k) assuming the quality of the process involved every time.
Customer loyalty (k) as customer is satisfied. (an)
Negative
Time consuming (k) as products need to be checked for quality at all different production stages,
increasing business cost. (an)
Challenging to implement quality assurance sometimes. (k) Sometimes it becomes difficult to imple-
ment every single process in development. (an)
Require high level of staff commitment (k) may demotivate workers to feel under pressure. (an)
Application
Durable school bags, unique range, production flow, quality control, factory
worker, inspection, designer, owner of Easy Go, scholars/learners, school bags
(b) Most learners could not identify the knowledge of operating under maximum capacity. Learners ignored the
word “under” and answers only related to maximum capacity.
Some learners misunderstood/confused the question with over maximum capacity.
Most learners did not evaluate the question and lost marks due to that.
The question wanted the learner to evaluate on both sides of operating under maximum capacity.
NSSCO Examiners Report 2022

64
Answer
Knowledge (3 x 1)
Award up to three marks for an implication for operating under maximum capacity.
Application (3 x 1)
Award up to three marks for relevant application to Easy Go.
Analysis (3 x 1)
Award up to three marks for analysis of implication for under maximum capacity.
Evaluation (5 x 1)
Justified decision made on the implication for under maximum capacity for Easy Go.
Possible answers
Operating under maximum capacity leads to high fixed costs per unit, (k) because expensive equip-
ment is idle, (an) less profit. (an).
No economies of scale this will lead to higher selling prices (an) and being less competitive in the
market. (an)
This mean that average cost increases (k) due to falling levels of efficiency. (an)
Under capacity will result in waste of resources. (an)
Pressure on the worker is reduced/released (k) there is more time to check on orders (an) hence
fewer mistakes. (an)
Under maximum capacity may not produce enough to meet the demand. (k)
Produce higher quality/quality assured (k) quality control and quality assurance department has
enough time to inspect and control the quality of (an) school bags. (ap)
Enough storage space (k) to store produced school bags (ap) saving on storage cost. (an)
Sufficient time for maintenance (k) and preventative repairs (k) employee training as machinery is
underutilised, increasing machinery reliability.
Evaluation
The negative effect of operating at under maximum capacity: if they are operating under maximum
capacity that would be wasting opportunities. (ev)
The positive effect of operating at under maximum capacity: increase in sales because the busi-
ness able to meet sudden or unexpected increases in demand or taste (ev) the production equip-
ment (ev) is available to produce extra bags needed. (ev)
Easy Go should not produce under capacity (ev) in order to gain economies of scale (ev) new
machinery can maximise production (ev) producing at spare capacity will cause Easy Go to be less
competitive, (ev) reducing its market growth. (ev)
Application
Durable school bags, scholars, unique range, flow production, factory workers, machinery
2 (a) Most learners could define what cash is but learners lost marks on the application.
Answer
Knowledge (1 x 1)
Application (1 x 1)
Cash is money in the form of notes and coins or other methods of immediate payment, (k) or Cash
is the money readily available in the business to spend, (k) by the customers for the schoolbags
bought (ap) It also includes payments by credit and debit cards as the payments are received quickly. (k)
(b) (i) Most centres could score maximum marks and only a few learners lost marks, as learners did
not put net cash flow in brackets. (negative)
Answer
Knowledge ( 1 x 1)
Analysis (1 x 1)
Application (2 x 1)
1. N$105 600
2. N$9 000
3. N$120 200
4. N$(5 600)

65
(ii) Very few learners could identify that the closing balance was negative. Most learners could indicate
how Easy Go could improve their cash flow.
Answer
Knowledge (1 x 1)
Award one mark for identifying the result.
Analyse (2 x 1)
Award up two marks for explanation of reason for negative closing bank balance.
Evaluation (3 x 1)
Award up to three marks for evaluation on how to deal with the result.
Possible answers
Negative bank balance/bank overdraft (k) because the business will spend more money (buy
expensive modern machinery). (an)
Less money flowing into the bank account (sales and rent received). (an)
Evaluation
Sale of existing assets (old machinery) increasing cash inflow (ev) which will make better use
of the capital tied up in the business. (ev)
Reduce expenses (ev) by laying off workers and replacing them with new machinery. (ev)
Increase production capacity to increase their sales, because machines are idle at this stage. (ev)
Arrange with the bank for an overdraft or short-term loan (ev) to increase flow of money into
bank account. (ev)
Attempt to increase sales to increase cash inflow of finished bags. (ev)
Easy Go can decrease outflow by finding a supplier with cheaper raw materials (ev) needed to
produce school bags. (ev)
Negotiate credit terms/delay payments to suppliers which means more cash in the business to
use. (ev)
Lease capital equipment rather than buying it with a large sum of cash. (ev)
(c) Learners defined what cash flow is instead of answering about its importance.
Learners could identify the knowledge but had a problem analysing the knowledge.
Only a few learners could evaluate the importance of a cash flow forecast.
Some learners confused cash flow statement with cash flow forecast.
Answer
Knowledge (2 x 1)
Award up to two marks for each relevant importance of cash flow forecast.
Application (2 x 1)
Award two marks for relevant application to Easy Go.
Analysis (2 x 1)
Award up to two marks for analysis of the importance of cash flow forecast.
Evaluation (2 x 1)
Award up to two marks for a justified explanation on the importance of cash flow forecast for
decision making.
Possible answer
To predict times when there might be a shortage of cash in the business (k)
help Easy Go Financial manager (ap) to be prepared for any less regular payments. (an)
To plan for foreseeable variations in cash flow (k) still have to pay cost (an)if the demand is less for
schoolbags. (ap)
To set targets in the business that might have to be adjusted. (k) A cash flow forecast can deter-
mine some of the actions within a business. (an) To show to a potential lender (k)
Lender will assess if monthly repayments will be possible by looking at the cash flow forecast (an)
Evaluation
Arrange in advance to cover the shortfall. (ev)
Cash flow forecast will help in the decision making if less cash is coming into the business. (ev)
Some activities might be delayed if they would cause a negative net cash flow (ev) or cause a
liquidity problem. (ev)

66
Lender can see if the business will be able to repay the loan. (ev)
Accurate cash flow forecast helps to ensure the business stays liquid/solvent. (ev)
It assists the financial manager to arrange an advance to cover shortfall (ev) by putting plans into
place to provide for additional finance such as overdraft. (ev) Some activities might be delayed if
they would cause a negative net cash flow (ev) or cause liquidity problems. (ev)
Through cash flow forecast, the lender can see if the business will be able to repay loan. (ev)
Application
Financial manager, schoolbags, water and electricity, material for bag, Easy Go manager.
3 This question was well answered by learners. Certain learners lost marks as they did not apply the case
in their answer.
Introduction
Most learners could not relate to what the problem was on hand, losing the in-reference mark.
Findings
Most learners could obtain full marks.
Conclusion
Most learners could summarise what they have written in findings.
Recommendation
Learners could give their choice but some could not motivate their choice with a new advantage or disadvantage
that was not mentioned in the findings.
Answer
Knowledge (5 x 1)
Award two marks for correct format and three marks for purpose and reference of specialisation.
Application (5 x1)
Award up to five marks for relevant application of advantages and disadvantages in context.
Analysis (5 x 1)
Award up to five marks for relevant explanation of advantages and disadvantages given in findings.
Evaluation (5 x 1)
Weighing up advantages and disadvantages and drawing a conclusion and
finally recommend.
Format
(To, from, date, title, introduction, findings, conclusion, recommendation)
If miss 1, then give 1 mark, if miss 2 or more zero marks. [2]
Introduction
In reference
2 marks for purpose and meaning. [3]
Findings [10]
Conclusion [3]
Recommendation [2]
Possible answers for findings may include:
Introduction
Specialisation is when Easy Go decides to concentrate on producing one product, (k) where Easy Go is good at,
(k) has a comparative advantage. (expert, more skilled) (k)
Advantages specialisation
Easy Go workforce (ap) is experts on one task stitching the bags (ap) and, therefore, perform the task more
efficiently (an) making fewer mistakes. (an)
Output is likely to rise (an) because specialisation leads to faster output. (an)
Easy Go workforce will not need to have full set of tools or equipment, therefore, the business saves cost on
equipment. (an)
An employee could easily be trained for a particular task in a short period thus the business saving time on
training. (an)
Each worker specialises in a job that suits him/her best and the worker enjoys it more job satisfaction. (an)
By doing work repetitively the workers become quicker (an) in producing comfortable school bags, (ap)
productivity increases. (an)

67
The use of specialised machinery (ap) may increase production levels and may reduce production cost. (an)
Factory workers (ap) do not have to move from one workbench to another so time is saved. (an)
Specialised workers produce good quality (an) school bags (ap) it creates customer loyalty towards Easy Go.
(an)
Disadvantages Specialisation
Workers doing repetitive work leads to demotivated workers as they become bored, (an) inefficient and do not
work hard for Easy Go. (an)
The market demands different styles and designs but it results in the production of many items of the same style.
(an)
Loss of flexibility causes problems during periods of staff absence, as workers unable to perform other tasks. (an)
Jobs become boring so quality may suffer (an) due to a lack of variety in their jobs. (an)
Loss of craft skills means workers are not challenged (an) and might lose interest. (an)
Specialised workers will find it hard to change jobs (an) if they become unemployed, leading to an increased risk
of unemployment. (an)
Repetitive movements when occupied in one task only, can lead to strain and injury. (an)
Conclusion
Specialisation will lead to a decrease in cost, (ev) result in lower selling price for schoolbags (ev) which makes
Easy Go more competitive in the market. (ev)
Recommendation
It is recommended to use specialisation (ev) because the output is faster (ev) and Easy Go can meet the
demand of its customer (ev) more easily.
Application
Advanced/specialised machinery, production department, durable/quality school bags, scholars, flow production,
unskilled factory workers, comfortable school bags, stitching/cutting school bags, division of labour, materials of
making bags, zips, cloths, straps, bag design, manager of Easy Go, owner of Easy Go, worker of Easy Go

Teachers should focus on the format of the question paper with learners.
If the answer is a negative, it is advisable to teach our learners to put the figure in brackets ( ) rather
than writing a - (minus) in front of the figure.
Teachers should focus on the verbs/key words to acquaint learners with them.
There are still some centres that did not write the format of the report. Teacher should focus on the
format of the report for learners to attain maximum marks.

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CHEMISTRY
8224
Paper 1
1 C 11 B 21 B 31 A
2 C 12 A 22 C 32 B
3 A 13 C 23 C 33 C
4 D 14 A 24 B 34 D
5 B 15 C 25 D 35 B
6 B 16 D 26 D 36 A
7 C 17 A 27 A 37 B
8 D 18 D 28 D 38 B
9 D 19 C 29 C 39 A
10 A 20 A 30 D 40 D

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8224
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
Candidates should be encouraged to keep their responses to simple questions as short and as precise as possible.
Although the quality of the English this year was impressive and students were able to give their responses in
bullet form, some candidates gave long winding lists some of which contained direct contradictions. In addition, some
candidates elect to commit their reasoning to paper, which is reasonable for ‘describe’ or ‘explain’ questions, but there
is always the risk of introducing a contradiction. For example, in Question 3 (a), ’endothermic because ∆H is greater
than zero’ was sufficient but this was followed by ‘the temperature of the surroundings increases’. Unfortunately,
contradictory statements cancel out any credit initially gained and no marks were awarded under such circumstances.
In this vein, candidates should be reminded that any working out or attempts to answer a question that candidates do
not wish the Examiner to read should be clearly crossed out.
Some candidates gave multiple responses in questions that explicitly asked for one, such as Question 1.
This is problematic because there is no rationale for the long lists. Candidates should think through their responses
and give the best possible answer rather than multiple answers and hope.
Incorrect, harsh and early rounding were major problems this year. These resulted in major inaccuracies in the
answer later. Whenever the answer is not exact, candidates are required to round off their answers to match the
accuracy in the data provided. However, as a rule of thumb, candidates may round off to 3 significant figures but only
in the last stage of the calculation i.e. for the value placed in the spaces provided for the answer.
Candidates are reminded that when they are required to give observations, they should describe what they see (or
hear or smell). Specifying the name of gas is ignored by the examiner. For example ‘brown gas’ was sufficient for
question 5 c (i), adding ‘nitrogen dioxide’ gas was not necessary but increased the risk of specifying the wrong gas.
Some candidates struggled to give the correct units to accompany their correct answer. Although no marks were lost
for omitting the unit, the use of a wrong unit was penalized. For instance, the unit that was meant to accompany ‘2’ for
volume in 2 (a) was cm3. However, a few candidates gave dm3 instead, without any conversion. Correct conversion
is permitted.
The work this year was generally very neat and tidy. However, some candidates did not completely erase their pencil
marks when they were altering their answers. This was especially prevalent in chemical equations where Examiners
could make out the final number as well as in the organic structures.
Candidates are reminded of the need to read their questions carefully. Underlining key words is generally
considered helpful. The importance of reading their answers cannot be overemphasized to ensure they make the
intended sense.
Answers should be written in the spaces provided. The space provided is usually in excess to what the candidates
require. Whenever a candidate finds that the space provided is not adequate, it usually means they are writing too
much, unless they have an unusually big handwriting. When boxes are provided for diagrams or structures, only the
final answer should be in the box. When more than one structure is provided it is difficult for Examiners to decide
which one if the final answer.
COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIOS
Question 1
This question was poorly answered. It seems many centres did not cover Organic Chemistry to the detail required for
AS Chemistry.
In this question candidates were required to choose only one substance. However, a number of candidates gave more
than one substance which is incorrect because the description provided was true for only one of the substances.

70
Question 2
(a) Well answered. However, some candidates incorrectly converted the answer to dm3 or m3.
(i) Candidates could not write the correct formula for ammonium nitrate, or balance the equation.
(ii) Only a small proportion of the Candidates could realise that all the substances formed in (b) (i)
were gaseous and correctly gave 3.5 moles as the number of moles formed. Error carried
forward was applied if the equation was clear enough.
(iii) Error carried forward was applied to some responses in which the working was shown clearly.
In some instances credit was not gained due to incorrect rounding. Harsh rounding was not
penalised in this paper.
(iv) Error carried forward was also applied. A significant proportion overlooked the need to convert
the temperature to Kelvin or the pressure to Pa or both. The other common mistake was to
give the volume calculated in dm3.
(c) Well answered.
(i) This question was generally well answered. However, there were some errors in the weaker
responses and the common error was that ammonium fertilisers are basic.

71
(ii) Problems of overuse of ammonium fertilisers were well known to most candidates. However,
some candidates elected to describe eutrophication and then failed to give a second problem.
Question 3
(a) This is the only part of the question that was accessible to most candidates. However, a significant
number of candidates added a direct contradiction and the mark could not be awarded
(b) These definitions were not well known by the candidates.
(c) (i) Most candidates did not understand the question and instead gave Hess’ law.
(ii) This was not well known by candidates. It seems centres covered Hess’ cycle involving only
enthalpy change of formation and enthalpy change of combustion, and candidates simply
memorised those two without understanding Hess’ Law and how to apply it. The attempts
made tried to use formation, which was not sufficient to get any credit.

72
Question 4
This question was generally well answered, the conditions were well known. Weaker responses lost marks because of
errors in units, such as giving 400K instead of 400°C or 200kPa instead of 200 atm
(c) (i) Well answered. The common mistake was to use square brackets used to represent the
concentrations of species and to omit the partial pressure term. Occasionally some candidates
gave the reciprocal of the correct answer. A few candidates added the partial pressure terms
instead of multiplying.
(ii) Error carried forward was applied. However, a lot of marks were lost because candidates failed
to correctly round off to 3 significant figures. In addition, candidates found the identification of
correct units challenging.
(d) Well answered but there were direct contradiction problems such as “the equilibrium position shifts
to the right and more nitrogen is formed ”
Question 5
(a) Well answered but a good number of candidates failed to get this mark. It is really disheartening to
learn that AS students could not name group 2 elements.
(b) (i) Poorly answered. Many candidates did not understand the reaction scheme. Candidates gave
wrong formulae.
(ii) Poorly answered. Many candidates could not balance the equations or give the correct state
symbols. Candidates are advised to work on their state symbols for Inorganic reactions for
these are very important.

73
(iii) Some very good answers were seen and it was not uncommon for full credit to be awarded.
(c) (i) Poorly answered. The usual mistake was to describe the flame colour for strontium ions.
Students are reminded that identifying the substance when required to give an observation not
earn them any credit.
(ii) Poorly answered. This reaction was not well known to most candidates. Only the very strong
candidates managed to get full credit.
(iii) Well answered. A significant proportion of the candidates managed to get this mark.
Question 6
This question was poorly answered and most candidates left both pages blank. The basic knowledge for Organic
Chemistry was absent.
(a) This question was accessible to the candidates who had an idea on Organic Chemistry, which was
a very small proportion. However, the candidates made numerous attempts with erasing in between,
most of which was incomplete and we struggled to see the final response.
(i) Not well known by the candidates… starting from the formula of ethane. Some candidates who
attempted the question used methane or ethene.
(ii) Generally well answered. Two marks were awarded for electrophilic addition. Only one mark
was awarded for addition. Many candidates could get at least 1 mark.
(c) (i) The candidates who attempted this question managed to get this mark.

74
(ii) Poorly answered. The candidates omitted the lone pairs, partial charges and the charges.
Candidates are advised to properly learn reaction mechanism, because there is need for
attention to detail, many small things should be in place for a single mark to be awarded.
(d) (i) Poorly answered. The candidates could not correctly name the two alcohols formed. Some
candidates knew that an alcohol is formed, named it butanol and therefore could not work out
the second product. Unfortunately butanol was not adequate for any credit.
(ii) Markovnikov’s rule is applied to identify the major product. An instruction in this question
confused the candidates and the marks were reassigned to 6 c (ii) and 6 d (iii).
(iii) Poorly answered. This was not well known. Some attempts to find the isomer of but-1-ene
were made, but they went for the chain isomer and not the positional isomer. One mark could
be scored for correctly naming whatever structure the candidates drew.

75
8224
Paper 3
General Comments
Just like in the previous year, many candidates still appeared to have limited experience of some practical skills and
some techniques. It is extremely important that candidates are exposed to practicals throughout the year.
Many candidates seemed not to be familiar at all with the Chemistry practical notes that are provided in the question
paper. They did not consult the notes when giving their observations.
While candidates seemed to carry out the practical work well, many could neither record their results to the
standard required nor cope with the calculations and questions checking their understanding of the reactions and
processes occurring. Recording of data in tables was not up to standard; in many cases data was not record-
ed in the required table format, but simply noted somewhere on the page. The data that was recorded was done
incorrectly.
Many candidates could not successfully present all their answers to the correct number of significant figures nor round
off correctly
A lot of centers did not submit their teacher (Super visor)’s results for the practical. It is very important that the
teachers submit their values for the data so that candidates’ results can be matched with those of the relevant Supervi-
sor. It is not necessary to answer the whole question paper, but just provide values for the data that had to be recorded.
Question 1
Most were familiar with the demands of Question 1, a titration-based problem.
(a) Poorly answered.

Candidates were unable to provide the correct format for the titration table. Teachers are advised to
consult the Syllabus page 36-50 (Annexe A – Assessment criteria for paper 3) for the layout of a
titration table as well as the rules for end-point values and the spread for accurate titres.
Majority of candidates had initial and final burette readings but the headings were incomplete, for example,
they would just use “Volume of L” instead of “Volume of L added/used”. Candidates are not allowed to use
the words “difference/change” when recording the titre.
Units were omitted or used incorrectly. Some candidates indicated units, but they were not correctly
separated from the quantity using either the solidus, /, or brackets, (), as recommended in the syllabus
A significant number of candidates did not record their burette readings to the nearest 0.05 for accurate
titrations. They gave their readings to either 1 decimal place or simply as a whole number
Some candidates subtracted incorrectly to calculate the final titre. They used initial volume – final volume,
and therefore ended up with a negative answer, or they did not subtract it at all.
The rough titre should not be included in any further calculations.
Accurate titres had a very large range e.g. 29.00, 30.00, 31.00. Accurate titrations should ideally not range
by more than 0.2 cm3. Many candidates demonstrated the ability to obtain concordant results and present
them as required.
Candidates should carry out at least 3 accurate titrations.
Candidates should not write any data in the marking table provided on the right side of the question paper.
This is meant for examiners’ use.

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Question Expected Answer Marks Skill
1(a) I: All the following data recorded 1 PDO
• two burette readings and titre for the rough titration (space or in a table)
• initial and final burette readings for two (or more) accurate titrations
II: Titre values recorded for accurate titrations, and 1 PDO
Appropriate headings and units in the accurate titration table
• initial / start (burette) reading / volume
• final / end (burette) reading / volume
• titre or volume used / added (not “difference”)
• unit: / cm3 or (cm3) or in cm3 (for each heading)
or cm3 unit given for each volume recorded
III: All accurate burette readings are recorded to the nearest 0.05 cm3. PDO
The requirement to record to 0.05 applies to burette readings, including 0.00 cm3 (if
this was the initial reading), but it does not apply to the titre.
Do not award this mark if: 1
• 50(.00) is used as an initial burette reading
• more than one final burette reading is 50.(00)
any burette reading is greater than 50.(00)
IV: Final uncorrected titre is within 0.10 cm3 of any previous uncorrected accurate PDO
1
titre.
Examiner rounds any accurate burette readings to the nearest 0.05 cm3, check
subtractions and then select the “best” titres using the hierarchy:
• identical titres then
• accurate titres within 0.05 cm3, then
• accurate titres within 0.10 cm3, etc.
These best titres should be used to calculate the mean titre, expressed to nearest
0.01 cm3.
Examiner compares candidate’s titre value with that of the Supervisor.
Award V, VI and VII if δ ≤ 0.20 (cm3) 1 MMO

Award V and VI if δ > 0.20 but ≥ 0.40 1 MMO
Award V, only, if δ > 0.40 but ≤ 0.60 1 MMO

The majority of learners correctly calculated the mean titre; however there were a few candidates who
included the rough titre in the mean as well, which is incorrect. The mean titre is also a reading and should
therefore be given to two decimal places. Candidates should use two or more titres for calculating the mean,
however, the range of the titres should not be more than 0.2 cm3. If no working is shown for the calculation,
candidates should show in the table with ticks or by encircling, which values they used to calculate the mean
titre.
1 (b) Candidate calculates the mean correctly.
• Candidate must take the average of two (or more) titres that are
within a total spread of not more than 0.20 cm3.
• Working / explanation must be shown or ticks must be put next to
the two (or more) accurate readings selected.
1 ACE
• The mean should be quoted to 2 dp, and be rounded to nearest
0.01 cm3.
(c) (i) Fairly well answered.

There were a few learners that either did not read the instruction for the number of significant figures or
completely ignored it. Candidates should be careful when giving their answers in scientific notation to
ensure it still has the correct number of significant figures.
Candidates did not take into account that the concentration was given in g.dm-3. They first had to
calculate the moles, which the majority failed to do.

77
(iii) Poorly answered.
Candidates failed to include the state symbols in the equation. They also could not apply a mole ratio of
1:1 for NaOH and HCl.
(iv) Very poorly answered.
The majority of candidates used the 25 cm3 of solution B instead of using the mean titre and converting
it to dm3. Most candidates did not include the dilution factor in their final calculation.
1 (c) (i) Significant figures
1 ACE
All answers in (ii)–(iv) are expressed to 3 or 4 sig. fig.
1 (c) (ii) Correctly calculates no of moles of NaOH used.
1 ACE
No. of moles NaOH = = 2.50 × 10-3
1 (c) (iii) NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
or H+(aq) + OH-(aq) → H2O(l)

1 ACE
AND
No. of moles of HCl = number moles of NaOH in (c)(ii)
1 (c) (iv) Correct expression shown (for the first step)
(two steps) 1 ACE
Concentration of HCl in C = (c) (iii) ×

Concentration of HCl in B = C 10 (25cm3 taken from 250 cm3)
Answer = (c) (iii) 10 1 ACE
Total: [13]
Question 2
The majority of candidates seemed to have managed to carry out the experiment as per instructions, but failed to
record their results as instructed.
(a) Fairly well answered.

All quantities that were expected to be in the table were clearly stated in the instructions, with correct units.
Most candidates did not record temperature to .0 or .5, which is the precision for a thermometer.
Thermometers are calibrated at 1 °C so should be read to the nearest 0.5 °C. A significant minority
of candidates recorded the readings as integers or to 0.1 °C. Some candidates incorrectly recorded
thermometer readings as 0.00 or 0.50 °C.
Candidates used the term “weight” instead of “mass”. The term “weight” is not accepted for a mass reading.
Any calculated value, such as the final mass of D used, should also be included in the table.
Candidates should give all answers to 2 – 4 significant figures.
Question Answer Marks Skill
2 (a) I Suitable tables/lists with values entered in the space provided.
• Two clearly labelled, (recorded, listed) masses (do not allow ‘weight’)
with correct units. 1 PDO
• Two clearly labelled (recorded, listed) temperatures e.g. initial and final
with correct units.
II Readings and subtraction in 2(a) and 2(c)
• Two measured temperatures recorded to .0 or .5 °C 1 PDO
• Correct subtraction.
Accuracy marks
• Recorded mass to 1 or more dp 1 PDO
• Correct subtraction
Significant figures
• Correct significant figures for question 2 (b)(i)- (d) 1 PDO

78
(b) (i) Poorly answered.
Candidates were unable to use the correct formula (q = mc∆T) to calculate the energy produced. A lot
of candidates used q = mc∆T, which is incorrect. Majority of candidates failed to use the 50 cm3 as the
mass, as per the instructions given. Instead they substituted the mass of CaO that was calculated in
(a).
(ii) Well answered.
Majority of candidates were able to use the mass of CaO to determine the correct moles.
(iii) Poorly answered
Candidates were unable to use the formula . Candidates that were able to use the formula
did not take the units into account and failed to convert joules to kilojoules.
NB – a rise in temperature indicates an exothermic reaction, which should always be accompanied by a
negative sign.
2 (b) (i) Correctly calculates heat change as follows;
1 PDO
Heat change = 50 × 4.2J of energy × temp rise in 2(a)
2 (b) (ii) Correctly calculates number of moles of CaO
1 PDO
No. of moles of CaO used =
2 (b) (iii) Correctly uses (i)/(ii) and negative sign shown

1 PDO
Enthalpy change = − (b)(i)/(b)(ii) 1/1000
(c) (i) Fairly well answered.

It appeared many candidates did not take room temperature into account as many temperature
readings were given as less than 10. Candidates also did not show the correct subtraction for the rise
in temperature and for the mass of E used in the experiment in the table.
Candidates failed to give two observations. Many gave the observation of effervescence and bubbles,
which both refer to the gas, produced, and are therefore not two different observations. Candidates
could have referred to the rate and vigor of the reaction for a second observation.
(iii) Poorly answered.
Candidates made the same mistakes as in question (b).
2 (c) (i) I Readings written in space provided
• Two thermometer readings are recorded both above 10 °C + correct subtraction.
• Two masses are recorded giving mass of CaCO3 + correct subtraction
1 ACE
II Accuracy mark
Check temperature subtractions of candidate and of supervisor.
1 ACE
Compare the [corrected] candidate’s temperature rise with the supervisor’s.
The difference is.
2 (c) (ii) Observations (two required)
Fizzing / bubbles / effervescence
AND
either solid dissolves / disappears / colourless solution formed
or 1 ACE
reaction is brisk / rapid / vigorous / violent
2 (c) (iii) Correct expression(s) for enthalpy change, with negative sign
Enthalpy change = −50 4.2 temp rise 100.1/ mass CaCO3 1/1000
1 ACE

79
(d) Moderately well answered.
Candidates were able to use their incorrect values correctly in the calculation. Majority of candidates used
the expression “products – reactants” instead of ∆Hrxn = ∆Hreactants ∆Hproducts.
2 (d) Enthalpy change correctly calculated with correct sign
Answer = (b)(iii) – (c)(iii) and to minimum 2 s.f. unless answer is an integer. 1 ACE
(e) Moderately well answered.

Some candidates referred to “temperature loss” instead of “heat loss”. Many candidates also referred to
surface area, which has no effect on the accuracy of the experiment.
2 (e) disagree, because there is no ‘frothing up’ / spitting out of reagents / no acid spray
or
disagree, because a taller cup would not (significantly) reduce heat loss 1 ACE
(f) Very poorly answered.

Most candidates were unable to give the error in a balance reading by taking the precision of the balance
used into account. Teachers are encouraged to cover errors in instruments with candidates as part of the
practical component of the subject.
2 (f) Correct single reading error (see below) and CaO has the greater % error
(Allow CaCO3 if this was the smaller mass.)
If candidate used a 1 d.p. balance for this solid, error is 0.05 or 0.1 g 1 ACE
If candidate used a 2 d.p. balance for this solid, error is 0.005 or 0.01 g
If candidate used a 3 d.p. balance for this solid, error is 0.0005 or 0.001 g
Correct calculation of % error for CaO
1 ACE
% error = 2 × (single error/mass of CaO used) × 100
Total: [15]
Question 3
Well answered. The majority of candidates were able to carry out the experiment as per instructions and give the correct
observations as per the given practical notes. However, some candidates lost marks for their descriptions of the colour
changes seen. Candidates should use the descriptions when testing for ions as given in the Qualitative Analysis Notes.
(a) (i) Candidates should be careful when giving observations, especially for gases evolved. They
should not simply name the gas, but should also give the positive test. When a gas is re-
leased, candidates should not refer to a vapour that is released, but should use descriptions
such as “bubbles, effervescence, fizzing”.
(ii) Ions identified should correspond to the observations in (a)(i). Candidates cannot simply
identify the ions as “cations and anions”. They must identify the specific ions present form their
observations. All identified ions should be given with their charges when written as symbols
e.g Mg2+ or should simply be written with the full name e.g magnesium ion (NOT iron).
(iii) Very poorly answered.

The question referred to a precipitation reaction, and therefore the state symbols should be included in
the ionic equation.
(iv) Very well answered.
Majority of candidates were able to provide a suitable safety precaution. Candidates should be careful
with the spelling of “gloves” and “goggles”. Reference to lab coats are not accepted as a safety
precaution. Candidates should be specific when identifying a precaution and should not simply answer
“wear protective gear”.

80
Chromium ion (Cr3+) Magnesium ion (Mg2+) Mark Skill
3 (a) (i) • grey-green ppt • White ppt 1 MMO
• grey green ppt soluble in excess • White ppt insoluble in excess 1 MMO
• green solution / precipitate dissolves
• grey-green precipitate insoluble in • White ppt insoluble in excess 1 MMO
excess
• effervescence / bubbling/gas evolved • effervescence / bubbling/gas MMO
evolved
• litmus paper turns blue 1
• Ammonia gas is evolved. • Ammonia gas is evolved. 1 MMO
3 (a) (ii) Cr3+ / chromium (III) ion Mg2+/ magnesium II ion 1 ACE
NO3 / nitrate or NO 2 nitrite
- -
NO3 / nitrate or NO 2 nitrite
- -
1 ACE
3 (a) (iii) Cr3+(aq) + 3OH–(aq) → Cr(OH)3(s) Mg2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → Mg(OH)2(s)

Allow ecf from cation identified Allow ecf from cation identified
1 ACE
3 (a) (iv) Safety in terms of: Safety in terms of:
• heating
• heating
• preventing inhalation of fumes
• preventing inhalation of fumes
• handling of glass 1 ACE
• handling of glass

Candidates were unable to construct a suitable table with the correct tests and positive results or observation.
The positive result should strictly be the observation that is given when the test is carried out e.g for ethanol,
the positive result should not be described as “triiodomethane is formed”, but should be given as the pale
yellow ppt. that forms when iodine and sodium hydroxide is added.
The test for ethanoic acid was fairly well answered. Majority of candidates gave the correct test and observation
with litmus paper.
3 (b) Table (rows or columns) to show test, space for expected results for both liquids with at
least one entry attempted.
1 ACE
Test and positive result for each organic chemical
Ethanoic acid
Add named carbonate / named reactive metal and fizzing / positive gas test
or 1 ACE
Use named pH indicator and appropriate final colour given
Ethanol
(Acidified) potassium / sodium manganate(VII) / KMnO4 / NaMnO4
and decolourised/ purple to colourless
Allow (acidified) potassium/sodium dichromate / K2Cr2O7 / Na2Cr2O7 and orange to green
or
ethanoic acid / other named carboxylic acid + conc H2SO4 / warm
1 ACE
and sweet / fruity smell / ester formed
Total 12
Question 1 + Question 2 + Question 3 Total = 40
[Total: 12]

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82
COMPUTER SCIENCE
8231
Paper 1
General comments
The quality of work was of an improved quality in comparison to last year. There was a steady decline in the number
of candidates who left unanswered questions. The majority of candidates’ work was well presented and legible. There
was evidence that teachers from most centres prepared their students well. There is still room for improvement in terms
of preparing candidates for all sections of the syllabus.

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Question Answer Marks
1.a 1 mark for each correct binary number
CC
1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0
46 3
0 1 0 0 0 1 1 0
D6
1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0
1.b The misconception that Hexadecimal takes less storage space was common
among candidates’ responses. Although how the data is presented on a screen
will be shorter, how the data is eventually stored in the computer’s memory will
not change.
2
1 mark for each correct bullet point
• easier for humans to read and understand
• shorter codes when written down or displayed on a computer screen.
• humans are less likely to make errors when remembering or copying codes.
1.c 1 mark for naming use to max 2
1 mark for describing use to max 2
• Defining colours in HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) 4

• intensity of the three primary colours (red, green and blue) determined by its hexa-
decimal value.
• Used in assembly languages and machine code
• makes the languages easier to understand and less error prone
• Debugging
• programmer uses hexadecimal codes to locate where error lies.
1.d 1 mark for each correct parity bit
Parity
bit
Byte1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1
3
Byte2 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1
Byte3 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0

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1.e 1 mark for naming to max 2 4
1 mark for description to max 2
Check digit
• the final digit in a code
• calculated using other digits of the code
• The receiver recalculates the check digit
• echo check.
Checksum
• algorithm used to calculate the binary values in a packet or block of data
• calculated checksum is stored together with the data and sent along with the data.
• for each block of data sent, checksum is calculated and compared with existing check-
sum.
• Non-matching checksums indicate an error.
• If an error has occurred, a request is send for retransmission.
Automatic Repeat reQuests (ARQ)

• receiving device sends acknowledgement after receiving data to sending device
• when the sending device fails to receive an acknowledgement
• sending device retransmits the data after a timeout
• process is repeated for a predetermined number of times
• until the transmitting device receives the acknowledgement.
• Accept Echo check and other correct error checking techniques

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2.a Candidates should desist from recycling words that they are asked to describe, 2
define, explain etc as no marks will be awarded for such. E.g. One cannot explain bit
streaming by using the word streaming as it is what the question expects them to
explain.
1 mark for correct explanation max 2
• a continuous sequence of bits transmitted during communication over the internet or

communication channel
• a continuous stream of bits transmitted during communication over the internet or
communication channel
No marks for recycling the word streaming

2.b.i The misconception that buffering only takes place when there is a slow connection 2
was clear. In computer terms, buffering takes place irrespective of the connection
speed. Candidates are expected to appreciate this concept.
1 mark for each correct bullet point to max 2
• to store the whole file on the smartphone

• no need to download the whole file before starting viewing/ instant playback available
• the match can be watched on demand / can record for future use or playback, pause,
fast forward
• no need to be physically present at the boxing match / cutting transport costs
• can be watched from anywhere as long as there is internet access / can watch in com-
fort of his home / office etc
Accept any other reasonable benefits
2.b.ii 1 mark for each correct bullet point to max 2 2
• streaming can be slow or stop if the speed of data transfer is low

• the smartphone has inadequate buffering capability
• the match can only be watched if smartphone has access to the internet
• viruses can be downloaded from the website / risk of hacking / phishing etc
• adverts / popups can disrupt viewership
Accept any other reasonable problems
2.c 1 mark for each correct bullet point on on-demand to max 2 4
1 mark for each correct bullet point on real-time to max 2
• Real-time bit streaming cannot be paused or fast forwarded by the user whereas these
features can be available for on-demand bit streaming
• Real time bit streaming is only available at the time of the event being shown, on-de-
mand bit streaming is available as required.

86
3.a 1 mark for correct explanation 2
1 mark for example to max 1
• a temporary and high speed storage location used for storage of addresses,
instructions or data during the fetch-decode-execute cycle.
Example
• Program Counter (PC)
• Memory Address Register (MAR)
• Memory Data Register (MDR) / (MBR)
• Current Instruction Register (CIR)
• The Accumulator (ACU) etc
3.b.i It was clear that some candidates could not appreciate that the Address bus does 2
not carry instructions but the address.
1 mark for each correct bullet point to max 2
• Part that does all the arithmetic calculations

• such addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, etc
• also does logic operations such as comparisons/decisions
• Do not accept brain of computer
3.b.ii 1 mark for each correct bullet point to max 2 2
• carries the address of a memory location

• to enable transfer of data between the processor and memory
3.c.i 1 mark 1
• Direct
3.c.ii 1 mark 1
• Immediate
3.c.iii 1 mark 1
• Indirect

87
4.a 1 mark each correct bullet point to max 3 3
• The amplitude of the wave is measured /sound wave is sampled

• At set/regular time intervals
• Each sample is stored as a binary number
• Samples are stored in order in a file
4.b It is important for candidates to read and understand questions first before answer- 2
ing. This is necessary as there is limited space on which to give answers.
1 mark for each correct bullet point on sampling rate to max 1

1 mark for each correct bullet point on sampling resolution to max 1
Sampling rate
• Increasing the sample rate means more samples per second hence more bits per
second and larger file size
• Decreasing the sample rate means fewer samples per second hence fewer bits per
second and smaller file size
Sampling resolution
• A higher sampling resolution means more bits per sample and a larger file size
• A lower sampling resolution means fewer bits per sample. a smaller file

88
5.a 1 mark for each correct bullet point on two-step security to max 2 4
1 mark for each correct bullet point on virtual tokens to max 2
Two-step security
• The use of two authentication methods
• one after another
• to ensure that the user trying to login is the authorized user.
Candidates needed to be better prepared for this question.
Virtual tokens
• a security token that installed on your device such as a smartphone, laptop or desktop
• generates a OTP (one time pin) for use to logging in.
• a digital representation of value that can be digitally traded and functions as a medium
of exchange, unit of account, or store of value
5.b.i 1 mark 1
• the accuracy, completeness, consistency and reliability of data

5.b.ii 1 mark for each correct bullet point on data verification to max 2 4
1 mark for each correct bullet point on data validation to max 2
Data verification
• the correctness of data / usefulness / preventing errors when data is copied from one
medium to another
• achieved by double checking / visual checking
• or double entry and compare two sets. If different, then data contains errors
Data validation
• checking data against a set of rules/criteria
• ensuring consistency and accuracy
• checking of data at entry to make sure it is sensible and acceptable/feasible
• format check/type-check/range check/presence check/length check/check digit

89
6.a 1 mark per correct bullet point, max 5 marks 5
• A (compression) algorithm is used

• No data is removed in the process // original file can be restored
• Repeated words (are identified) // Patterns in the data (are identified)
• and are indexed/put into a table // by example
• and are replaced with their index // by example
• and their positions are stored (in the table) // by example
• and the number of times the word/pattern appears is stored (in the table) // by ex-
ample
NOTE: Other valid methods of lossless compression can be awarded marks
6.b The typo in this question is acknowledged and the stance when marking this 5
question ensured that no candidate was disadvantaged.
1 mark for correct bullet point, max 5 marks
Sampling resolution
• A high sampling rate is needed
• … because if there are more samples
• the original sound can be represented more accurately
• Resolution
• a high sampling resolution is needed
• to make sure more bits are available for each sample
• so more levels of the signal can be captured
• which improves the detail of the recording

90
7.a 1 mark for each correctly underlined primary key 3
CLIENT (ClientID, ClientName, ClientSurname, ClientCellNumber, Cli-

entAddress)
CARS (CarID, CarMake, CarModel, Year, OdometerReading, DateBought,

PricePerDay)
RENTING (RentID, ClientID, CarID, RentDate, Duration)

7.b Candidates needed to contextualise their responses to the scenario at hand. Some 4
candidates could not score full marks because of this.
1 mark each correct bullet point

• ClientID is the Primary Key in CLIENT
• links to ClientID which is the Foreign Key in RENTING
• CarID is the Primary Key in CARS
• links to CarID which is the Foreign Key in RENTING
• No mark for generalised solution
7.c 1 mark each correct line to max 4 4
Accept any other working SQL answers
SELECT CLIENT.ClientName, CLIENT.ClientSurname, CLIENT.ClientCell-

Number,
FROM CLIENT INNER JOIN RENTING ON CLIENT.[ClientID] = RENTING.[Cli-

entID]
WHERE (((RENTING.RentDate)=”21/06/2020”));
OR
SELECT ClientName, ClientSurname, ClientNumber
FROM Client
WHERE (Client.ClientID = Renting.ClientID)
AND (Renting.RentDate = “21/06/2020”)

7.d A sizeable number of candidates could not describe how the query processor could 2
be used. All aspects of the syllabus should be covered.

• takes the execution plan // executes DB queries as input SQL text // parsing/translation/
optimizes/evaluation
• interacts with the storage manager to fetch the data from the storage or cache
• presents the data to the user (using outbound client side APIs)

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8.a There actually is an order when organising files serially; chronological order. A 2
misconception about this was common among candidates’ responses.

• serial files are not ordered on the contents of the record stored but the records are
usually stored chronologically
• in sequential files the order of the records depend on the contents of the records
e.g. the key field of each record
8.b 1 mark each correct bullet point to max 3 3
• Transaction file records are sorted on item number then

• current transaction file record is checked for item number
• Master file records are read from old master file and written to new master file until
item number from transaction file is reached
• Transaction file is used to update master file record, which is then read to new
master file
• Next transaction file record is read
• This is repeated until all the transaction file records have been used
• Rest of master file records are read from old master file and written to new master
file
Accept generalised answer of grandfather, father / son after adding current transaction
file

92
9.a This question was well answered by the majority of candidates.
1 mark each correct gate (max 4)
1 mark correct order of gates
Or
9.b 1 mark each correct pair of rows
M P S Working space A
0 0 0 0
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 0 4
1 0 0 0
1 0 1 1
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0

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10.a 1 mark for each correct bullet point for OOP, max 2 4
1 mark for each correct bullet point for a matching procedural statement, max 2
• OOP is based on real world models whereas procedural programming is based on

using a sequence of steps to solve a problem
• OOP uses models created by classes and objects whereas procedural program-
ming uses variables and subroutines/functions/procedures
• OOP is secure as it supports data hiding whereas procedural programming does
not
10.b 1 mark for correct bullet point max 2 2
• A class is a blue-print that defines the properties of a number of objects.

• An object is an instance of a class.
• Example a class of birds and parrot is the object of that class.

94
11 There was an improvement in the quality of responses to the algorithm question. 8
Some candidates showed a high level of competency in the design of algorithms/
programs. Well done.
1 mark each correct line to max 8

1. Initialising of running totals
2. Input of buying price for 3 houses
3. Calculation of final value of each house
4. Calculation of net profit for each house
5. Output of net profit for each house
6. Calculation of total net profit
7. Output of total net profit
8. Appropriate use of loops
9. All inputs and outputs have suitable message or prompts
Example:
TotalProfit ← 0
FOR Index ← 1 to 3
PRINT “Please enter house price”
INPUT Price [Index]
Profit [Index] ← Price [Index] * ( 1.1  5 * 0.97 − 1)
Print “Profit for house”, Index “Is”, Profit [Index]
TotalProfit ← TotalProfit + Profit [Index]
Next Index
Print “Total profit is”, TotalProfit
If assignment is done wrongly
e.g. TotalProfit  TotatlProfit + Profit[index], penalize once and follow through

95
8231
Paper 2
General comments
Overall, there was an improvement in the quality of the candidates’ work compared to last year.
Questions that required calculations or the understanding of code were answered extremely well by some candidates.
However, candidates from some centres struggled to apply the knowledge and skills that Theme three of the syllabus
focuses on.
Candidates found questions that began with the command words ‘describe’, ‘distinguish’ or ‘explain’ more challenging.
More detail is expected from candidates and a single word or brief statement is not enough for full credit.
Precision and exactness in answers are expected and candidates should be prepared or helped to achieve this.
The standard of neatness was of acceptable standards for all candidates.

96
Question Answer Mark
1 (a) (i) A sizeable number of candidates managed to work out the output of this
question.
1
2
1 mark per correct answer

(ii) This question was well answered.
Logical error 1
1 mark per correct answer

(iii) A sizeable number of candidates could identify and correct the error in the
pseudocode which demonstrated a good grasp of written code.
Line 3
FOR Counter FROM 0 TO 3 DO
Or 2
Line 5
Amount  Amount + 1
1 mark per correct line identification
1 mark per correct correction

(b) A sizeable number of candidates needed to be better prepared for this question.
-- use of comments in program codes (annotation) e.g. Line 5 / increment
-- the amount each time a mark that is 70 or more is identified.
-- Average Mark would be a meaningful identifier name (variables, constants,
programs, functions, etc.) e.g. Line 2 variable amount is used 4
-- Formatting code into blocks e.g. place loop in own block to improve readability
1 mark per correct technique, maximum 2

1 mark per correct example, maximum 2

97
Question Comment and Answer Mark
2 (a) This question was well answered by most candidates.
-- Compiler
-- interpreter
2
1 mark for the correct answer, maximum 2 marks
Allow interpreter for first answer but not for both.
(b) A sizeable number of candidates could articulate the reasons why high-
level languages are preferred in comparison to low-level languages.
-- It saves the programmer time.

-- Program code written in high-level language is often easier for humans
to understand.
2
-- High level language tend to be more forgiving and tolerant of certain
types of errors compared to low level languages.
-- High level easier to master compared to low level.
1 mark for each correct answer, maximum 2 marks

(c) A sizeable number of candidates were better prepared for this question.
-- Assembly language is easier for humans to read;

-- A human programmer is less likely to make mistakes in assembly
language;
-- It is easier to remember the assembly instructions than the binary codes;
-- Assembly language instructions can be given labels to help readability; 2
-- Machine code is harder to learn and master
-- Machine-oriented, whereas some assembly code
-- Languages work across different operating systems
1 mark for each correct answer, maximum of 2 marks

98
Question Comment and Answer Mark
3 (a) This question was well answered.
S T U
0 0 1
0 1 0 1
1 0 0
1 1 1
1 mark for correctly completed column U

(b) Some candidates dropped off valuable marks as they struggled to trace
through the XOR gate.
U V W X Y Z
0 0 0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 0 1 0 0
4
0 1 1 1 1 0
1 0 0 1 0 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 0 0 1
1 1 1 0 1 0
1 mark for 2 correctly completed rows, maximum 4 marks

(c) A sizeable number of candidates struggled to draw the logic
circuit of the given scenario. Teachers are advised to thoroughly
assist candidates to be better prepared for such kind of questions.
1 mark for each correct input into AND gate
1 mark for both correct inputs into OR gate
1 mark for correct output from OR gate, maximum 4 marks.

99
4 (a) Boolean
1
1 mark for correct answer
(b) -- The identifier Sorted describes the purpose//role//meaning of the variable;
-- this makes the algorithm easier to understand//maintain//follow;
or
-- The identifier S does not describe the purpose//role//meaning of the variable; 1

-- this makes the algorithm harder to understand//maintain//follow;
1 mark per correct point,
maximum 1 mark
(c) Although the question was answered well by the above-average candidates, a
sizeable number of candidates struggled to score significant marks on this ques-
tion. Intense preparations are necessary for even average candidates to master
the skill of tracing through algorithms or code. Mastery of the
different techniques of presenting results is also necessary.
1 mark for column SortArray[0]correct;

1 mark for column SortArray [1]correct;
1 mark for column SortArray [2] correct only if SortArray [0]and SortArray
[1] are correct;
1 mark for Sorted column correct;
1 mark for Count column correct;
1 mark for Temp column correct;
-- allow different rows used as long as the order within the columns is clear
-- allow duplicate values on consecutive rows within a column

100
5 Unlike in the past where algorithm questions were not attempted at all, this year, there
has been an improvement in the way candidates attempt such questions and earn marks.
There is however room for more mastery of algorithm related skills by more candidates
at this level.
8 marks for pseudo-code or flowchart
Mark 1 for getting user input for the distance and storing in a variable;
Mark 2 for using a WHILE loop or similar to re-prompt for and re-assign the user input;
Mark 3 for using a correct Boolean condition with the validation structure;
Mark 4 for getting user input for the number of e-bicycles;
Mark 5 for calculating a rental fare that charges N$10 per e-bicycle rented out;
Mark 6 for calculating a rental fare that charges N$2.50 for every kilometre;
Mark 7 for outputting the rental fare based on 5 and 6 (Even if been calculated incorrectly);
Mark 8 prompting both inputs;
Example 1 (fully correct)

Distance ← USERINPUT
WHILE Distance <= 0
Distance ← USERINPUT 8
ENDWHILE
Ebicycles ← USERINPUT
Rental_fare ← 10 * Ebicycles
Rental_fare ← Rental_fare + (2.5 * Distance)
OUTPUT Rental_fare
(Mark 8 as completely correct)
Example 2 (fully correct)

REPEAT
Distance ← USERINPUT
UNTIL Distance > 0
Rental_fare ← (10 * USERINPUT) + (2.5 * Distance)
OUTPUT Rental_fare

101

102
6 A sizeable number of candidates were confusing structure chart with flow charts.
Candidates needed to be better prepared for this question. Teachers should
cover all aspects of the syllabus.
-- breaks down the entire system into lowest functional modules,

-- describe functions and sub-functions of each module of a system to a greater
detail. 2
-- partitions the system into black boxes (functionality of the system is known to the
users but inner details are unknown).
-- allows inputs to be given to the black boxes and appropriate outputs are
generated.
1 mark per bullet, maximum 2

103
7 (a) Although some candidates scored well in the question, a sizeable number of
candidates could not demonstrate the required understanding of the basic
concepts of linked lists and queues. Mastery of these concepts is expected at
this level and teachers should guide students accordingly.
1 mark for Head and Tail pointers

1 mark for 3 correct items - linked as shown
1 mark for correct order with null pointers in last node

104
(b) This question proved difficult for most candidates as they struggled to apply the
concepts being examined.
Mark as follows:
1 mark HeadPointer = 0 and TailPointer = 0
1 mark FreePointer assigned a value
1 mark Pointers [1] to [6] links the nodes together
1 mark Pointer [6] = Null

105
8 (a) (i) Candidates struggled to answer questions that required them to explain binary
search concepts throughout the this examination paper. Teachers should
prepare candidates accordingly in the future.
-- A binary search works by assuming the midpoint array contains the median
value in the array. 2
-- If it is not sorted, this assumption could be incorrect.
-- the median can be anywhere
-- cutting an unsorted array in half could mean that you cut off the value you were
searching for.
1 mark per bullet to, maximum 2
(ii) Although a decent number of candidates could explain how a serial search
works in the given context, Most candidates struggled to apply the basic
concepts of a binary search. At this level, it is expected of candidates to apply
the given context to their explanations or justifications for them to score full
marks.
STEP 1. We set a flag to indicate the first and last records. We’ll call these Low
4
and High.
STEP 2. We then work out the Middle position. We can do this by calculating:
Trunc (Low + High) / 2
In our example, (1 + 10) / 2 = 5.5. Truncated, 5.5 equals 5, so our middle

record is 5.
STEP 3. We first of all test to see if Middle equals the value we are looking for. If it
does, we got lucky! We can stop searching and report that the record has
been found.
STEP 4. If we didn’t get lucky, we then ask ourselves, is the record we are
looking for (in our case, record 7), higher or lower than the record
pointed to by Middle?
• If the record we want is above Middle, then we can discard all the records from
Middle and below. We would then have about a half of the original number of
records to search through.
• If the record we are looking for is below Middle, then we can discard all the records
from Middle and above. We would then have about a half of the original number
of records to search through.
1 mark per step, maximum 4; Maximum 2 marks if no relation to RoadNetwork val-
ues.

106
(b)
1 mark for each complete statement, maximum 4

(c) Although a decent number of candidates could explain how a serial search
works, some struggled to apply the concept to the given context.
-- Start at the first item (Grootfontein)

-- Compare with town ‘Katima Mulilo’ 4
-- If matched, report found
-- Otherwise continue to the next item in list (Katima Mulilo)
-- Continue until item found, or end of list reached… and then False returned
1 mark per bullet, maximum 4

107
9(a) A sizeable number of candidates scored well on this question.
1 mark for each correct stack, maximum 4

9 (b) (i) The mastery of concept of stacks seemed to have improved in comparison to
previous years. There is still room for improvement.
Push ( ) - Check if the stack is full (pointer = array.length/array.length+1)

-- If it is not ..
-- insert the item
-- If it is..
-- return/error that the stack is full
1 mark per bullet, maximum 2 for insert
4
1 mark for each correct stack, maximum 4
Pop( ) - Check if the stack is empty (pointer = 0/1)

-- If it is ..
-- return/error that the stack is empty
-- If it is not ..
-- return the item
1 mark per bullet, maximum 2 for remove
(ii) -- line 02
-- Include an OR with variations (e.g. Answer = “PUSH” OR Answer
= “Push” etc.)/Convert input to uppercase/lowercase and just compare to 2
equivalent
1 mark for correctly identified line number, 1 mark for correct change
(c) -- Array size defined
-- A stack pointer is used to point to the top of the stack
-- When an item is pushed, the stack pointer is incremented 3
-- When an item is popped, the stack pointer is decremented
1 mark per bullet to maximum 3

108
DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY
8256
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
This year the teachers and candidates knew what to expect and were better prepared for the exam. The syllabus
was well developed by the NIED in collaboration with CIE and was accepted by both institutions. All this was done to
upgrade the level of Education in Namibia. Therefore, the two institutions with their teams should be applauded for the
exceptional work done to improve the living standards of the Namibian Child.
Thanks, should also go to other role players like the entire Ministry of Education, Regional Offices, Schools, Commu-
nities and of course the Candidates who wrote this examination.
Very good responses were received from the centres regarding the quality and standard of the question paper. It
could be well interpreted regarding the style, language and graphics.
From the responses of the candidates on the questions, there were no problems answering the questions, although in
some cases questions were misinterpreted. However, good responses were given for most questions and candidates
could score good marks.
Evidence also shows that quite a few candidates did not have the knowledge to answer certain questions successfully
and some did not attempt certain questions. By the spread of marks, the question paper looks acceptable, but there
are some areas which needs to improve.
Section A consisted of compulsory short questions across the syllabus. In most cases candidates scored good marks,
but in some cases improvement is needed. This can only be done with more training to the teachers.
This year we had 60 candidates of which only one candidate answered the Technology Part, 16 answered the Com-
munication Part and the rest answered the Resistant Materials Part in Section B in the question paper. This section
was answered fairly well by most candidates, but better response were expected.
In 2021 only 54 candidates entered to write the exam, but in 2022 there were 60 candidates. It is our expectation that
in 2023 there will be more of an increase in the number of candidates entering to do this subject.
COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS
PART A
1. Fig. 1 shows a device used to generate electricity.
(a) Name the motion of the rotor blades.
Fig. 1
Most candidates could give the correct answer to this question. Rotary motion
Also acceptable answer would be: Clock- wise motion. [1]

109
(b) Evaluate the use of wind as a source of energy.
Some candidates did not intemperate the question correctly and gave a detailed explanation of how wind
power is used to generate electricity. No marks were awarded for such a response.
An evaluation of positive and negative aspects of wind energy was asked:
Acceptable answers would include:
 wind is not a reliable source of energy
 no electricity is generated when the wind is not blowing
 a backup power supply is needed
 it causes noise pollution and cause the death of birds
 turbines are expensive to install and have high maintenance costs
 wind is an infinite, free and renewable source of energy
 it is clean energy, no air or water pollution takes place
 it is cheap to generate electricity using wind turbines
 wind can also power windmills to pump water or turn ventilators on buildings
 sailing boats are also powered by the wind. [4]
2. Fig. 2 shows a person in a working environment.
Fig. 2
Good answers were given and some candidates scored maximum marks for the question. In some cases,
candidates referred to the PPE of the worker, but no marks were given for that answer.
 the workshop is not kept clean and tidy
 tools are not packed away in the correct places
 tools on the floor could cause tripping resulting in injury
 sharp tools in the untidy work place could cut the worker
 tools lying on the cupboard could fall and cause injury
 there is no space to work
 the work place is not safe [3]
3. (a) Explain malleability in relation to materials.

Most of the candidates scored maximum marks for is question:
The acceptable answer would include:
 A malleable metal can be deformed by hammering without breaking, cracking or fracturing. [2]
(b) Name two extremely malleable metals.

Some candidates new the correct answer, but some just guessed.
99 lead, copper, brass, zinc, tin, gold, silver and aluminium
Acceptable answers:
99 Iron and mild steel. [2]

110
4. Fig. 3 shows the driver’s seat of a car.
Fig. 3
Evaluate the ergonomics of the car seat shown in Fig. 3.
Most candidates scored good marks for this question.
99 Is high enough to be comfortable while making sure the driver has a clear view of the road.
99 Allows enough head room for the driver.
99 Back supports the drivers back all the way up to the shoulders.
99 Can be adjusted to suit the driver.
99 Has a head rest to protect the driver from a possible neck injury.
99 Is covered in soft cloth for comfort.
99 Is upholstered with foam for comfort.
99 Is shaped to give the driver a comfortable posture.
99 Has a curved back rest to keep the driver securely in position when driving.
99 Is the size and proportion right to accommodate all people
99 Is there enough space for free movement
99 A seatbelt was added for safety [4]
5 Complete the table below to compare the features of static and dynamic control systems.
Static control systems Dynamic control systems
1........................................................... 3...........................................................
........................................................... ...........................................................
........................................................... ...........................................................
........................................................... ...........................................................
2........................................................... 4...........................................................
........................................................... ...........................................................
........................................................... ...........................................................
........................................................... ...........................................................

111
Very few of the candidates scored full marks for this question. Many referred to feedback and human
interaction. Marks were not given for these answers.
Static control systems Dynamic control systems
Output depends on present value of input Output depends on the present as well as the past values of input.
Physically reliable systems Not physically reliable systems
Memory-less system Memory system
Not programmable programmable
Does not store energy Can store energy
[4]
6 Explain how recycling of materials could be used to conserve natural resources.

This question was well answered by most centres.
99 Acceptable answers would include:
99 When materials are recycled, the material is re-used, and new resources are saved.
99 If wood pallets are recycled or upcycled and furniture is made from it, then the cutting down of trees is pre-
vented and the energy used to process new logs into timber.
99 When plastic containers are recycled and new products are made from it, less new plastic is produced which
saves a lot of fossil fuel as well as energy to produce new plastic.
99 Recycling glass bottles saver the resource that glass is made of as well as the resources used to make new
bottles. A lot of energy is used to produce glass products.
99 Any metal products can be recycled whish saves the limited amount of metal deposits on earth and the
energy to mine and smelt the new metal is also saved.
99 By recycling any product, a lot of fossil fuel is saved that would have been used to produce the new raw
material in a usable form.
99 Mining is reduced which destroys the environment and biodiversity
99 Recycling reduces pollution
99 Using recycled materials makes the product cheaper
99 Less water is used to recycle materials than what is used to produce materials from raw material. [4]
PART B
7 Design and Communication

Answer (a) and (b) on the separate A3 drawing paper and (c) in the spaces provided.
Only candidates from one center answered this section.
(a) Fig. 4 shows an isometric view of a dovetail joint.
Fig. 4
(i) Draw a full-size exploded isometric view of the dovetail joint.
• All dimensions are in millimeters.
• Do not include hidden detail. [8]
Candidates answered this question well and were awarded good marks.

112
Marks are awarded for.
99 Correctness
99 Alignment
99 Accuracy
99 Line quality
NOT TO SCALE
(ii) Add f o u r d i m e n s i o n s t o S A N S r e g u l a t i o n s , t o t h e e x p l o d e d i s o m e t r i c
v i e w p r o d u c e d in (i). [4]
Some candidates did not remember to insert the dimensions.

99 Dimensions inserted
99 Correct according to the
SANS code
Render the exploded isometric view produced in (i) to indicate that the
joint is made of natural wood. [2]
NOT TO SCALE

 Shading / Rendering
 Wood grain texture

113
(a) Fig. 5 shows a wheel with a diameter of 60 mm and a locus point P.
Fig. 5
Draw the cycloid of point P as the wheel rolls without slipping, along a straight line for one full revolution.
Show all construction lines and add labels to the drawing. [14]
Some candidates answering this question got confused of the method to be followed, but some gave a
successful answer.

 The circle and path
 All construction
 Correct plotting of points
 Loci indicated in a solid smooth line
(c) Discuss the need for designers to consider physical aesthetic and cultural needs.
Candidates that answered the question gave reasonably accurate answers.
99 Designers need to design an article to please their target market.
99 Customers will not buy an article if it is not allowed in the country, or is offensive to some people.
99 In different cultures people have different tastes and beliefs and therefore will want articles to suit their
customs.
99 In some countries women are not allowed to reveal their faces or bodies in public. Revealing woman’s
clothing would not be acceptable there.
99 If the people’s culture is to be very religious, then it is important to design articles that are acceptable to
their religion.
99 In some cases the physical appearance is very important. If you are designing for small children, all the
articles cannot be pink, because the article will not be bought for boys.
99 Children prefer bright colours, but in most cases adults would like darker colour that lets something look
like quality, and classy.
99 People living in a city would also prefer classy furniture, but people living in rural areas will rather look at
quality.
99 Older people will also not like trendy and flashy clothing or furniture.
99 Houses in different cultures also look a lot different, so it is important to keep the aesthetics in line with
the surroundings and culture.
99 That is why it is important to always consider who you are designing for, because the aesthetics of a
product will determine whether it sells or not.
[8]

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8 RESISTANT MATERIALS
Most of the centres chose to answer this option.
Fig. 6 shows a garden design for an upmarket urban house.
(a) Fig. 7 shows the wooden recliner bench at the swimming pool.
Fig. 7
Use sketches and notes to show how the wheel could be fastened to the frame at X.
Most candidates scored good marks for this question. Candidates showed an acceptable method using
sketches and notes.
99 Sketches and notes indicating the measuring of a hole, then a hole being drilled and a bolt inserted to
secure the wheel. An axil with a washer and pin could also be used. [4]
(b) Fig. 8 shows part of the picket fence. The fence is made from recycled wood.
Fig. 8
(i) Describe how one of the uprights of the picket fence could be produced. You may use sketches
and notes to aid your description.
Most candidates answered this question well and were rewarded high marks.

115
Some candidates misinterpreted the question.

99 Sketshes and notes showing:
99 Marking out to the desired size.
99 Sawing of wood to the desired size.
99 Measuring and marking of bevels, and sawing bevels.
99 Sanding and smoothing.
(ii)  Finishing. (optional) [4]
(ii) Evaluate painting and oiling as finishes for the picket fence.
Most candidates could give appropriate answers to the question. Some candidates said that oil makes
the wood waterproof, which is incorrect.
Some candidates misinterpreted the question and described how to apply paint and oil.
Painting: Oiling:
 Preserves the wood well.  Preserves wood well.
 Gives a waterproof finish.  The wood grain remains visible.
 Easy to apply.  Is not waterproof.
 Durable.  Many coats have to be applied.
 Available is a variety of colours.  Re-oiling has to be done regularly.
 Limited colours available
[4]
(c) Fig. 9 shows the swinging garden bench.
Fig. 9
(i) The square section mild steel frame could be joined by welding. Justify welding as a method of
joining the frame.
Some candidates explained what welding is and how it is done. It appears as though the candidates do
not know what the word “Justify” means. Teachers are urged to consult the syllabus and explain to the
learners how the questions should be answered. To justify means to evaluate with reasoning.
99 Mild steel is easy to weld.
99 Arc welding produces a permanent joint.
99 It gives a strong joint.
99 It can be done on sight.
99 Bolting at angles would be difficult.
99 Welding gives a neat smooth finish
99 No holes are drilled in the frame that could weaken it.
99 Welding is a cheap method of joining.
[4]
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(ii) Chains could be used to connect the bench to the frame at X.
Use sketches and notes to show how the chains could be connected to the frame enabling the bench to
swing.
Most candidates answered this question well and were awarded high marks.
99Sketches and notes showed:
99An appropriate method of attaching the chain.
99Indicate the marking out and drilling of holes if bolts are used.
99Welding could also be used to attach the chain. [4]
(iii) Suggest a suitable metal for the swimming pool railings shown in Fig. 6 and justify the selection
of the metal.
Most candidates selected aluminum or stainless steel. Some indicated mild steel, which is not an
acceptable answer. The justification given for the chosen metal was appropriate in most cases.

Metal:
Stainless steel / Aluminium
Justification:
Stainless steel: Rigid / strong / Durable
Corrosion resistant
Easy to weld
No finish needed
Aluminium: Corrosion resistant

Light weight
No finish needed
Malleable [4]
(d) Fig. 10 shows the wheelbarrow used in the garden design.
Fig. 10
(i) Suggest a suitable thermo plastic for the load box and justify your choice of plastic.
Some candidates could select a suitable plastic, but most candidates could justify why the plastic would
be suitable.

Plastic: Justification:
 High Density Poly Ethaline (HDPE)  High impact strength
 Poly Vinyl Chloride (PVC)  Toughness
 Acrylonitrile-Butadiene-Styrene (ABS)  Scratch resistance
 Polytetraflouro-ethylene (PTFE)  Durable
 Nylon  Resistant to chemicals
 Hard
 Stiff
Good strength
[2]

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(ii) Justify pop riveting the plastic load box to the tubular frame of the wheelbarrow.
Most candidates could give a correct answer. Some candidates explained how pop-rivets are inserted,
in which case they were not awarded marks. We would like to urge the teachers to teach the learners
what “Justify” means.

 Pop rivets are an easy method of joining the plastic load box to the metal frame.
 Pop rivets are a fast permanent method of joining.
 Pop rivets enable riveting from one side.
 They give a neat finish
 There are no sharp edges sticking out
 They are relatively cheap [2]
(iii) Discuss different methods of forming the load box. You may use sketches and notes to aid your
discussion.
Many of the candidates could give a good description including notes and sketches of one or more
appropriate methods of forming the load box. Some candidates described compression molding, blow
molding or extrusion molding, which would not be appropriate for forming the load box.

 Process could be vacuum forming or Injection moulding.
 Sketches should be descriptive and in sequence of the production method.
 Notes must be descriptive to explain the production of the box. [8]
9 TECHNOLOGY
Only one candidate answered this question and one candidate attempted part of the question. The centre
from which these candidates came from, specialised in Resistant Materials.
(a) Fig. 11 shows a cam and follower used in a bagging machine.
(i) Complete the given graph for one complete revolution of the cam follower. [3]
Fig. 11
Candidates did not manage to draw the graph correctly.

99 Linear plot to show.

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State the direction of rotation of the cam shown in Fig. 11 so that the cam will turn without any obstruction.
Candidates could give the correct answer.

 Anticlockwise [1]
(iii) Name the type of cam that is shown in Fig. 11.
Candidates could not give the correct answer.

 Snail cam [1]
(iv) Explain why the cam can only turn in one direction.
Candidates could give the correct answer.

 If the cam turned clock-wise the cam follower would get stuck on the part where the cam follower
moves from its highest point on the cam to the lowest point on the cam.
 This could lead to ultimate failure and breaking down of the machine. [2]
(b) (i) Describe the two basic functions of any structure.

One candidate managed to give the correct answer.

 capable of carrying the load for which it was designed
 must support various parts of the object in the correct relative position
 must not topple over must not collapse [4]
(ii) List three causes of structural failure

 poor design
 fatigue
 failure of material
 failure of joint
 incorrect joint
 incorrect material used
 an over load or extreme forces [3]
(iii) State the two main types of force acting on structures.
Candidates answered it partially correctly.

 static forces (stationary forces)
 dynamic forces (moving forces)

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(c) Fig. 12 shows a stepped cone pulley system as used in the bagging machine.
By changing the V- belt to A or B, two different speeds can be obtained.
Fig. 12
(i) In which position, A or B, must the belt be engaged to provide the highest speed.
Candidates managed to give the correct answer.
 B [1]
(ii) Determine the speed of the shaft of the bagging machine with the
V- belt in position B and driver motor running at 1400 rpm. [3]

120
(a) Fig. 13 shows a line diagram of a crowbar used to lift an object.
Fig. 13
(i) Calculate the force that is required at E to just balance the crowbar.
[3]
(ii) If the force at E is 50N, calculate how much longer the long arm of the crowbar must be to balance it.
[2]
(e) A light-dependent resistor (LDR) is a resistive component found in some electrical circuits.
(i) Briefly explain the function a light-dependent resistor (LDR) used in an electronic circuit.

LDR
resistance depends upon amount of light falling on it if covered up, bulb gets dimmer if fully covered,
bulb goes out [2]

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(ii) Draw the symbol for the light-dependent resistor (LDR).
No candidate could give the right answer.
[1]
(f) Discuss how the flow of electric current is influenced by the change of resistance at various places
in a parallel and a serial circuit.
Sketches may be used to assist your discussion.
Candidates scored part of the marks in this question

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[8]

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8256
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
The syllabus was well developed by the DNEA in collaboration with CIA and was accepted by both institutions. All this
was done to upgrade the level of Education in Namibia. Therefore, the two institutions with their teams should be ap-
plauded for the exceptional work done to improve the living standards of the Namibian Child.
Thanks, should also go to other role players like the entire Ministry of Education, Regional Offices, Schools,
Communities and of course the Candidates who wrote this examination.
According to the work assessed, one could see that the candidates tried their best to be successful in this examination
with the support of their teachers and their parents.
Very good responses were received from the centres regarding the quality and standard of the question paper. It could
be well interpreted regarding the style, language and graphics.
From the responses of the candidates on the questions, there were no problems answering the questions. However,
good responses were given for certain questions and candidates could score good marks.
Evidence also show that quite a few candidates did not have the knowledge and skills to answer certain questions suc-
cessfully. This situation can only be mastered when more training is given to teachers on how to teach the syllabus
successfully. It can illuminate this situation. By the spread of marks for this question paper, it looks acceptable, but
there are a lot of areas which needs to improve.
It is our expectation that in 2023 there will be a further increase in the number of candidates entering to do this subject.
For 2021 there were 56 candidates, in 2022 there were 60 candidates.
(a) Analysis
Candidate should not write a fictional story about the reason why the product should be made. The
situation and information given in the paper may not simply be copied or repeated from the paper as an
answer.
Candidates should analyse the given problem. That means to study (something) closely and carefully,
to find the nature of the given problem by a close and careful examination, how the problem can be
solved. Appropriate factors should be considered. Candidates should think of, and record all the additional
information, like: tools, construction, materials.
(b) Specifications
Candidates may not copy the specifications given in the paper.
Generic responses must be avoided. These specifications must be relatively specific. Some candidates
stated generic specifications like “it must be safe, must look nice, etc.” Specifications must also be justified
with reasoning. A specification could look as follows: E.g. “The product must be made out of aluminium,
because it is light weight and does not corrode.”
The following points should be covered in the specification:
Functionality, ergonomics, aesthetics, materials and construction.
(c) Design solutions

Many ideas were not in line with the criteria given. Candidates should draw the ideas according to the
specifications given. Ideas should also be drawn three dimensionally. Detail should be shown in the
sketches, many explaining notes should be written. Measurements should be added. More than three
ideas should be drawn. Ideas should be adequately rendered / coloured and enhanced. The ideas should
also be evaluated.

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(d) Development of proposed solution
This is the part where most candidates lost valuable marks. In this section of the question paper the candidates
should take the chosen idea and make further detailed decisions on form, materials and construction
methods to be used in the final product. In some cases candidates did not do a sufficient development of the
final idea. This is not simply a repetition of one of the ideas recorded in the previous section. The candidates
should show processes that are to be followed in the manufacturing and also show details of construction.
Rendering / colouring should be done and measurements should be added. The development should also
be evaluated.
(e) Presentation
Most candidates just gave a single view with little or no detail or notes.
The following is expected in this question. An Isometric sketch or drawing with notes, and an
Orthographic drawing including dimensions. Additional sketches can also be added to show
construction detail. The isometric drawing or sketches should be rendered showing what the final
product should look like.
CONCLUSION
Teachers should read and implement these comments and pointers given. This will ensure a better mark for the can-
didates in future.

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8256
Paper 3
General comments
Centres must be commended for efforts deployed to ensure the completion and submission of coursework samples
from all regions/centres.
The quality of coursework for NSSCAS 2022 was generally good. There were some centres that produced coursework
that is below average. This indicates that the candidates were not correctly guided by the teacher. Regional Offices
should make sure that Examiner’s Reports are studied and recommendations drafted for implementation purposes from
the regions to the schools.
Regional Office should target schools that did not perform well and investigate what the reason is for the substandard
results. In the cases where teachers are not sure what is expected in the folders, they should be trained to ensure that
the candidates can be taught how to compile a folder correctly. On the other hand, if the teacher is not performing,
the principal and head of department at the school should be informed to continuously monitor the work done by the
teacher and the progress of the candidates on the project folders. If possible networking with DNEA, NIED and other
regions with Senior Education Officers as well as relevant stakeholders should be initiated to have teachers capacitated
and assisted on a regular basis. It appears that the common mistakes centres made during the 2022 design folder are
mainly because the learners were not taught correctly by the teacher. This makes one realise how many candidates are
penalised for poor quality work submitted because of centres who have not been putting in the much needed
efforts from the beginning of the Senior Secondary phase.
A conclusion could be drawn that Centre Reports are not studied and recommendations not implemented by
many centres.
Due to the defiant negligence by some centres, the assistance of the Regional Directors is needed to make sure
that Senior Education Officers and Circuit Inspectors study and analyse these reports and monitor that the
recommendations are implemented at schools that present Design and Technology as a subject.
Once again, Regional Offices, principals and HOD’s are pleaded to take the responsibility of ensuring that folders and
projects are monitored throughout the year in future. Towards the end of the second term the folders should be internally
moderated before the marks and samples are dispatched to DNEA for external moderation. Regional Offices must make
sure that NSSCAS schools are provided with the necessary materials and tools for candidates to build quality models.
DNEA observed that some centres’ projects were compromised by the lack of adequate resources.
Candidates who are not submitting sufficient photographic evidence is a problem when the projects have to be
moderated. There were a few cases where candidates made poor problem selections and outcomes and showed little
evidence of imaginative interpretation and creativity. The sample of work presented for moderation was suitable in most
cases and centres generally applied the assessment criteria appropriately, although, in some cases, this was not at the
correct level.
All folders must include clear photographic evidence of the artefacts, in addition to an overall view of the final product,
showing detail to support the awarding of marks.
COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC ASSESSMENT HEADINGS
Defining
Most of the candidates clearly stated the problem to be addressed but not all gave a concise Design Brief. Candidates
should be encouraged to complete adequate and relevant research in order to form a suitable knowledge base before
formulating the Brief. Only then can the specifications be listed. These specifications must be relatively specific. Many
candidates stated generic specifications like “it must be safe” or “must not be big or too small”, etc. This research does
not refer to materials and its properties. Some candidates included points of specification but of a generic nature which
could be applied to any product.
Research
Some centres research consisted of irrelevant information that was simply written in a paragraph form. This did not lead
the candidate to an idea of what the outcome of the product should be.
Candidates should do research into similar existing products as mentioned in the Design Brief and evaluate these
products regarding cost, material, etc. This section should give clear and specific requirements for the design outcome
and for the awarding of maximum marks. Then additional information regarding the processes, material and fittings
should be researched to see what is available locally.

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Conceptualising
This is where candidates can show evidence of genuine design creativity. Imaginative and innovative handling
of good range of concepts and ideas is of essence. Some candidates included a wide range of different ideas
enhanced by clearly annotated sketches. Often candidates presented a few drawings that showed too little design
capabilities and tended to follow a single concept. These ideas can be presented most successfully through sketches and
candidates should be encouraged to include everything that comes to mind. Annotations should include comments on the
construction, joining methods and materials. Then it is important that the each idea is evaluated as to how an idea might
link to the specification.
Development
In this section of the folder the candidates should take only the chosen idea and make further detailed decisions on
form, materials and construction methods to be used in the final product. Ideas should be fully developed with good
attention to detail. Candidates are expected to show deep insight and good command of related knowledge. In some
cases candidates found it difficult to apply, and in these cases the final ideas were simply a repetition of one of the
ideas recorded in the previous section. Candidates are expected to also illustrate every step of production with notes
describing the action.
In most cases the final drawings of the Design Solution were generally well-presented and gave sufficient information
with regards to the manufacturing of the product.
Presentation
Candidates were expected to show refined graphical skills including fluent freehand and precise measured drawings.
Most centres could produce drawings with good command of rendering and other enhancement which is commendable.
Centres in the top band produced excellent communication skills and had their work well managed and attractively laid
out. Some centres did not give the correct drawings.
The following is expected: An isometric drawing / sketch with dimensions and notes. (Rendered), an exploded view
(rendered) an orthographic drawing showing detailed dimensions. Then also a cutting list, other material list, a table
showing time planning and a flowchart showing the sequential steps of production.
Product realization (Control; Technical; Product)
Photographic evidence (photographic gallery) showed that some candidates were able to work on their own and able
to work at an acceptable standard of construction and finish to the extent that the end product could be used. Sadly,
some centres could not provide sufficient photographic evidence to substantiate the credibility of the folders. Some
photographic evidence is just a mere posing activity and no real action is seen which made it difficult for the moderator
to clearly distinguish various safe approaches and processes from the photos.
Notably, photographic evidence showed some candidates operating power tools (such as angle grinders) without the
required protective clothing (leather gloves, eye protection), an unsafe practise that should be discouraged.
Clear photos of the candidate doing all the processes, as well as clear photos showing the final product. The candidate
must be seen working in the pictures.
Testing and Evaluation
Most candidates included photographic evidence to show the testing of the product, which is commendable. They are,
however, encouraged to link the outcome of the original specifications and make objective judgements on the success
of their products. The section should also include suggestions for further modifications or possible future improvements.
Therefore, centres are implored to ensure that specifications are fully evaluated and tested in this section, which will
guarantee maximum marks for the candidates.
Conclusion
Even though the coursework received from the centres for NSSCAS was at a high standard in most cases, it is clear
that centres offering NSSCAS Design and Technology for 2023 as a subject need to get a unified training to standardize
the general understanding on the different sub-topics for the design folders.

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128
ECONOMICS
8246
Paper 1
1 GENERAL COMMENTS
There was a slight improvement in the answering of the question paper compared to last year. Learners could
recall and define terms, their knowledge is well mastered (economic terms) and application was good. Learners
were able to apply economic knolwedge and theory to different senarios in question paper.
Analysis was fair and learners were able to explain their answers, however, the evaluation question (Section B, 10
(e)) still needs a lot of attention.
SECTION A
Q Answer Marks Guidance

1 Well answered.
Define a demerit good and give one example. 2 Accept any correct definition
• Demerit goods are goods which seems to be socially and example of a demerit
undesirable/unhealthy/degrading/habit forming/ good.
overconsumed. (1)
• Examples of demerit goods are tobacco products, alcohol Tobacco, alcoholic drinks,
and all other addictive drugs such as heroin and cocaine. unhealthy snacks.
(1)
2 Learners confused the definition of demand with effective demand.
Define effective demand. 2 Accept any correct definition
• Effective demand refers to the willingness and (1) of effective demand.
• ability of consumers to purchase goods at different prices.
(1)
OR
• A transaction between person needing product (1) and
supplier of product needed. (1)
3 Poorly answered. Most learners could identify that demand decrease but failed to comment on
discouragement/control of demand and link it to higher prices or the spread out use over time.
Explain the meaning of rationing within the price mechanism. 2 Accept any correct explanation
• The price mechanism rations according to the ability and of rationing.
willingness to pay (1) If graph is used see that
• Where demand is higher than supply, price will rise, explanation is correct before
eliminating some consumers from the market altogether/ giving marks.
consumers will buy less. (1) Award only one mark for
• Discourage/restrict demand/spread out that use over graph without explanation.
time. (1) Any two
4 Most learners gave the formula instead of stating the definition, but they know the concept.
State how cross-elasticity of demand is calculated. 2 % Δ in QD of good A
• Percentage change in the quantity demand of product A % Δ in price of good B
(1) Award only one mark for
• divided by the percentage change in price of product B. formula.
(1)

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5 Poorly answered. Most learners defined it as the value of national income instead of total output.
However, they know that it is measured in money value.
What is meant by nominal value of national income? 3
• The nominal value of national income is the value of
national (total) output (1)
• at the prices existing in the year (at current/actual prices)
(1)
• that national income is measured. (1)
• value expressed in currency/money terms. (1)
• not adjusted with changes in inflation rate. (1) Any three
6 Well answered.
Identify the type of inflation illustrated in the diagram 1
below where the aggregate supply curve has shifted from
AS to AS1.
Cost-push inflation (1)

7 Well answered but learners gave the formula instead of the definition. Emphasising the D in total cost is
very important.
Outline the meaning of marginal costs. 2 Δ TC
• Marginal cost is the change in total costs/additional cost/ ΔQ
extra that occurs (1) when an additional/one extra unit of If formula, only one mark.
the product is made. (1)
8 Moderately answered. Learners have to focus on the price/value of currency, relative to currency of other
countries’ currency.
Define a floating exchange rate. 3 Forex market not important to
• A floating exchange rate is when the price/value of a gain mark.
country’s currency (1)
• is set in the forex market based on the supply and
demand/market forces (1)
• for the currency relative to other currencies. (1)
9 Fairly answered, but learners focus on factors that affect demand instead of consumption, for example
increase in income instead of increase in disposable income/fall in prices instead of reduction of inflation.
Outline three possible reasons for an increase in 3 Any three correct reasons (1)
consumption. mark each.
• Real wages increase/disposable income.
• A decrease in income tax rates.
• Interest rates decrease (borrowing increases).
• A decrease in the rate of inflation.
• An increase in the availability of credit and finance.
• An increase in consumer confidence.
• Sales efforts increase in advertisements.
• Anticipation of future inflation (rise in prices - lead to
shortages).
• Lack of benefits of savings/savings decrease. Any three

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SECTION B

10 (a) Well answered but learners failed to give an example.
What is meant by productivity? 3 Output must always be first.
Kn (Up to 3 marks)
• Productivity is defined as a ratio between the output Example
volume (1)
• and the input volume. (1)
• It measures how efficiently production inputs OR such
as labour and capital, are being used in an economy to
produce a given level of output. (1)
(b) Well answered, but many learners focused only on the positive effects and did not consider negative
effects.
Define capital investment and discuss the effects that 6
new technology and innovation might have on the
charcoal production industry.
Kn (1 mark)
Investment is spending on capital investment. (1) OR Accept any correct definition of
Capital investment is the expenditure of money to fund a capital investment. Examples
company’s long-term growth. (1) OR Company’s acquisition not required to earn mark. Do
of permanent fixed assets such as real estate and equipment. not accept example(s) only,
(1) because the question asks for
An (Up to 5 marks) a definition.
Positive effects
• Increased output/production of cutting of trees and Accept any correct positive
burning of charcoal. and negative effect that
• Less waste (ash to coal ratio). draws a link between capital
• Less pollution. investment and the effects
• Less bush fires. thereof on the charcoal
• More income to the workers/profits to producers. industry.
• More exports.
• Higher price for the producers and sellers (better quality Maximum 3 marks if answers
coal) due to improved value added. Up to four are listed or only one side of
the effects are discussed.
Drawbacks (negative effects)
• Less employment due to machinery (capital intensive vs NO marks if effects not linked
labour intensive). to charcoal industry.
• Deforestation and depletion of resources/non-renewable
source of energy.
• Charcoal industry releases planet-warming greenhouse
gases into the atmosphere.
• Burning wood in kilns to create charcoal and transporting
it overseas on ships generates significant amounts of
carbon dioxide etc. leading to increase in cost for safety
measures to protect workers, increase in accidents on
roads/ships.
• Negative image of charcoal industry due to huge fires and
less agricultural farmland.
• Charcoal is potentially radioactive and deadly/health
issues.
• Increase in cost (training, depreciation of machinery)
Up to four

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(c) Fairly well answered but most learners misinterpreted the question. They focused on the business
failure to supply and not the market.
Almost all learners stated lack of qualification and training as the reason for the shortage instead of
focusing on the poor working conditions, etc.
Describe possible reasons for the shortage of local 5 • Accept any correct
labour supply in the charcoal industry in Namibia. answer.
Ap (Up to 5 marks) • Maximum three marks
• Unskilled job (low status, dirty work) if reasons are listed and
• Low income not described.
• Harsh and poor working conditions/risk
• No fringe/basic social benefits (medical aid, housing etc.)
• No protection from Labour Act (social security etc) -
unregulated industry
• Destinations of farms (far from home and family)
• Poor working relationship
• Seasonal (rainy season briquettes do not dry/winter in
Europe needs lots of charcoal for heating)
• Charcoal workers are subcontractors - uncertainty of
work.
(d) Poorly answered. Learners have the background of what economies of scale is, but they did not indicate
the growth/expansion in production/scale to lead to decrease in average cost. Learners could not apply
in the context of the case study - to relate to the nature of the business.
They could not link the reason why economies of scale are restricted, therefore, lost the analysis marks.
Discuss why the benefits of internal economies of scale 5
might be restricted in the charcoal industry.
Kn (1 mark)
Economies of scale refers to when increasing production (large
scale production) leads to lower average cost. (1)
Ap (Up to 2 marks)
Factors leading to internal economies of scale and falling
average costs:
• Specialisation and division of labour. In large scale
operations workers can do more specific tasks. With little
training they can become very efficient in their task, which
enables greater efficiency.
• Technical/production efficiency. Specialised machinery
and equipment.
• Purchasing economies through bulk buying. If goods are
bought in large quantities, then the average costs will
be lower. This is because of lower transport costs and
cheaper packaging.
• Risk-bearing economies spread risks of trading. Some
investments are very expensive and risky.
• Marketing economies of scale. National advertising
campaigns and control of retailers.
• Financial economies A bigger firm can get a better rate of
interest and more sources of finance than small firm.
An (Up to 2 marks) The points in Analysis must
• Charcoal producers are not able to specialise and make be linked to the points in
use of division of labour. Many of them cut the bush and Application.
have to check the kilns.
• Charcoal producers do not have money to buy bags and
equipment in large quantities.
• Not enough capital for investing in updated technology
and buy big machines that could produce more charcoal
• Producers cannot spread risk, because it is only charcoal
production.
• Producers do not have enough collateral to borrow large
sums of money and get lower interest rates.
• Cannot invest in research and technology due to lack of
capital.

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(e) Poorly answered. Learners referred to monopolistic competition instead of perfect competition.
Learners could not show how profits are maximised in the long run in perfect competition.
Learners could not identify and explain the feature/characteristics of perfect competitive market.
The evaluation needs more attention, words like size, time, elasticity and extend must be used to gain the
four evaluation marks.
Learners failed to evaluate how the abnormal profit in the short run encourages more businesses/
competitors to enter the market until only normal profits are earned.
Namibian charcoal producers are price takers due to 8 2 marks for explanation.
a highly competitive global market. With the aid of a
diagram, discuss the extent to which Namibian charcoal
producers are likely to make super normal profit in the
long run.
An (Up to 4 marks)
How
• More competitors (charcoal producers) leads to falling
prices. (1)
• No individual firm has any influence on the market price,
ruling price determined by the forces of market demand
and the output of all firms. (1)
• Product homogenous/identical.
• Complete freedom of entry into and exit from the market.
(1)
Why
• Only normal profit in long run.
• Abnormal profit will only be a feature of perfect competition
in the short run.
• Existence of abnormal profit will act as incentive for entry
of new firms.
• Absence of barriers to entry means that the total supply in
market will rise.
• Effect of this on the existing firms is that the market price
will fall and the abnormal profit will diminish.
• MR = MC and AC < AR change to MR = MC = AC = AR.
2 marks for correct diagram:

All labels correct = 1 mark.
Indicating normal profit = 1
mark.
(2)
Ev (Up to 4 marks) Ev-L1 (1-2) for an answer

• Fall in profit from abnormal to normal profit depends on that shows some factors that
the number (size) of competitors entering the market. may change profit and output
• The ability of foreign buyers to push prices down (high levels in the long run to
supply/low quality). normal profits.
• Demand for charcoal and for how long the demand will
keep on increasing. (Time) Ev-L2 (3-4) for an answer
• The relatively price inelastic demand for charcoal, there that shows knowledge of
will still be normal profit, no substitutes for charcoal. most of the factors that may
• The production costs (rising/falling) link to the currency change profit and output
export. levels in the long run to
• Control and sustainability of the charcoal industry. normal profits.

133
(f) Well answered. Learners focused only on the role of entrepreneurship in general instead of on the modern
economy ad how it could benefit the country's economy.
Explain the role of entrepreneurship in the modern 3 All three marks can be gained
economy. from one of the points that is
An (up to 3 marks) well developed in relation to
• Entrepreneurs develop new markets by introducing new the question.
and improved products, services and technology.
• Entrepreneurs change or break the tradition or cultures of
society and reduce the dependency on obsolete methods,
systems.
• By creating new products and services, they stimulate
new employment.
• Entrepreneurship creates a huge number of entry-level
jobs that are very much important to turn unskilled
jobholders into skilled ones.
• Entrepreneurs help to increase economic growth/GDP,
national income of the country.
• Entrepreneurs also promote research and development.
They cultivate their ideas, shape them into a new form,
and turn them into a successful business opportunity.
• Entrepreneurship helps to develop and improve existing
businesses. They can come up with innovative ways to
expand and develop the existing enterprises.
• Increase exports.
• More labour than capital intensive.
• Encourage either people to start own businesses.

134
8246
Paper 2
1 GENERAL COMMENTS
The knowledge questions were answered well.
Learners struggled to apply, analyse and evaluate answers.
SECTION A

1 (a) In general, learners were able to state the three components of the Balance of Payments accounts.
Some learners, however, included the balancing item as a component, which is not correct.
State the three main components of the Balance 3 One mark for each correct component.
of Payments accounts.
Kn (3 marks)
• Current account
• Capital account
• Financial account
Explain the use of the balancing item in the 3
balance of payments.
Kn (1 mark)
• To even out/balance the difference between
exports and imports. (1)
Ap (2 marks)
• Assures that the balance across all three
components/exports and imports is zero OR that
imports equal exports. (1)
• The balancing item may be positive or negative/
is added or subtracted to or from the original
accounts balance (surplus or deficit). (1)
(c) (i) Poorly answered. Learners did not explain: that the deficit was constant, the meaning of a trade balance
and of a trend.
Few learners indicated that the deficit is lower.
“The constant deficit in the trade balance of 4 Accept any correct explanation of
Namibia has followed a downward trend in • Trade balance/Balance of Trade.
recent years.” • Constant deficit.
Explain the meaning of this statement. • A trend.
Kn (Up to 2 marks)
• The trade balance is the difference between the
value of a country’s exports and the value of a
country’s imports for a given period. (1)
• Constant deficit means the value of imports is
always/consistently greater than the value of
exports. (1)
• Trend is the general direction/pattern in which
data is moving over a period of time. (1)
An (2 marks)
• Downward trend indicates that the deficit is
lower (1) than the previous period/year. (1)

135
(ii) Learners had to carefully identify the correct figures from the bar chart.
Some learners did not clearly indicate that their answer was expressed as a deficit (-), in US$ and in
billions.
Calculate the trade balance of Namibia in 2019. 2 The complete answer = 2 marks.
Ap (2 marks) Do not split the marks for the deficit
US$ 6.4 bn - US$ 8 bn = US$ - 1.6 bn. (2) and the correct total. The total must
OR indicate a deficit (-) to be awarded 2
US$ 6 400 000 000 - US$ 8 000 000 000 = US$ -1 marks.
600 000 000
For 2 marks both the US$ and bn are
required. If either/both are missing
with an otherwise correct value of
-1.6 then award 1 mark.
If just US$ - 1.6 bn is written, then
award 2 marks.
(d) Learners failed to evaluate the success of the factors that might lead to increased exports and decreased
imports in order to correct a deficit on the current account of the Namibian balance of payments. Marks
were lost because learners explained the effect of the depreciation of the Namibian dollar (N$) on the
economy of Namibia.
Discuss how a depreciation of the Namibian 8 NOTE: in An section there should
dollar (N$) might help to correct a deficit on be reference to the positive impact of
the current account of the Namibian balance of depreciation on the current account
payments. deficit.
Kn (1 mark)
Depreciation is a decrease in the value/price of a Mark can also be awarded for fall of
currency/in relation to another currency. (1) exchange rate.
Ap (Up to 2 marks)
• Depreciation leads to cheaper exports/exports
more competitive.
• Depreciation leads to more expensive imports/
more N$ must be paid for the same amount of
products imported.
• Depreciation occurs when there is a floating
exchange rate/due to market forces of demand
and supply.
An (Up to 2 marks)
• There will be an increase in exports.
• There will be a decrease in imports.
Ev (Up to 3 marks) Ev L1 (1-2) For an answer that shows
Extent of increased exports and decreased imports some limited knowledge of why the
depends on: depreciation of the N$ might lead
• With how much did the Namibian dollar to an improvement in the current
depreciate. account deficit.
• How long will the depreciation last and deepen?
• The ability of the country to increase exports. Ev L2 (2-3) For a developed
• Depreciation improves current account on comment on how the current account
condition that combined elasticities of demand deficit might not be corrected through
for imports and exports are greater than one. a depreciation of the N$.
(Marshall learner conditions)
• Effects on current account depends on total
value and not just quantity of exports.
• Short term, demand for exports and imports
tends to be inelastic. Current account will get
worse with depreciation. Long-term demand
becomes more price elastic and current account
improves. (J-curve effect)
• Depreciation may lead to imported inflation.
Reduce competitiveness.

136
(e) Fairly well answered. Most learners were able to analyse the reasons for a fall in exports and evaluate the
impact of decreased exports on the economy of Namibia.
No marks were awarded for the appreciation of the Namibian dollar (N$) as the case clearly stated that the
Namibian dollar (N$) depreciated.
Analyse possible reasons for the reduction in 10
exports from Namibia between 2018 and 2019
and evaluate how the decrease in exports might
have affected the economy of Namibia.
An (Up to 5 marks) Up to 5 marks for analysing factors
Reasons for fall in exports that might have led to a fall in exports.
• Loss of competitiveness on global markets e.g. Factor that explains how it might have
low-quality products, outdated technology, high led to less exports. Must be a point
production cost, high prices. with a development of the point.
• Depleted resource e.g. uranium etc.
• Drought decreased production of e.g. meat.
• Decreased number of specialised industries.
• Increased rate of inflation/price level.
• Reduced quality of infrastructure.
• Increase in strikes/political unrest or reduced
productivity.
• Reduced government support/subsidies
• Increased local demand for a product and not
enough surplus to export.
• Trade restrictions (import taxes, quotas, etc.) by
other countries
• Decreased demand for exports due to
recession.
Ev (Up to 5 marks) Ev L1 (1-2) For an answer that shows
• Impact of decreased exports on economy of some knowledge of how parts of the
Namibia. economy might be influenced by the
• Employment and living standards decrease. fall in exports.
• GDP/economic growth decrease.
• Inflation and price levels. Ev L2 (3-5) For a developed evaluative
• Government income (direct and indirect taxes) comment on the extent to which the
decrease. fall in exports might have influenced
• Government spending increase on unemployment the economy.
benefits, etc.
• Balance of payments deficit.
• The extent to which the fall in exports will cause
an increase in unemployment and how much
living standards will be affected by that.
• How much money will the government lose and
how will that affect government spending on
important projects.
• The sectors that were influenced the worst (key
industries).
• The duration of the fall in exports.
• More products available for Namibian consumers
e.g. export quality fish, etc.

137
SECTION B

2 (a) Most learners received two knowledge marks for the correct definition of production possibility frontier
(PPF). Learners failed to link limited resources to scarcity and opportunity cost.
Learners who did not indicate and correctly label the points on the PPF curve (e.g. A, B, C) only scored
one application mark.
With the aid of a diagram, explain how a 8 Correct labels = 1 mark
Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) for capital Correct indication of points on the
goods and consumer goods, can be used to PPF = 1 mark
illustrate scarcity and opportunity cost.
Kn ( 3 marks)
• The PPF is a curve which shows the maximum/
various possible combinations of two goods
which can be produced (capital and consumer
goods).
• By the given resources/technologies.
• Resources/technologies are limited in supply
and this leads to scarcity and opportunity cost.
Ap (up to 2 marks)
An (up to 3 marks)
• The PPF shows a trade-off between how much
resources used to produce capital goods and
resources used to produce consumer goods.
• Opportunity cost will occur when choosing to
produce more capital goods.
• The production of consumer goods will have to
be given up/forgone (vice versa).
• The following choices will have to be made for
example:
• Producing only capital goods and no consumer
goods at A.
or
• Producing only consumer goods and no capital
goods at E.
or
• Producing more capital goods and less
consumer goods at C.
or
• Producing more consumer goods and less
capital goods at D.

138
(b) Fairly well answered. Learners analysed the policies that the government might use to reduce income
inequality. Some learners failed to distinguish between progressive and regressive taxes.
Learners did not evaluate the impact of the income distribution policies.
Evaluate policies that might be used by a 12
government to reduce income inequality.
An (Up to 8 marks)
A clear analysis of policies that might
• Increase in progressive taxation. As income
be used by government to reduce
increases, higher rates of taxes are paid.
income inequality.
• Reduction in regressive/indirect taxes for
example VAT.
• Scrapping VAT on basic necessities.
• Maximum price (price control) on basic
necessities for example maize meal.
• Increase in transfer payments for example
unemployment benefits and old age pension.
• Pay subsidies to firms to produce more merit
goods/cheaper necessities.
• Implement ways to reduce unemployment.
• Improvements in state provision of public and
merit goods such as healthcare, education,
social housing.
• Increase in minimum wage. Employed person
will be taking care of more unemployed
extended family. People will be able to buy
more necessities.
• Diversification of economy away from agriculture
to manufacturing. (This enables greater
economic development.)
Ev (Up to 4 marks) Ev-L1 (1-2 marks) For an answer
• Increase in progressive taxation may lead to that shows some limited evaluation of
more tax evasion and tax avoidance. Higher the issues that might be created by
income groups may see this as unfair. the introduced policies.
• Reduction in regressive taxes for example VAT
may lead to reduction in government revenue
and lead to less spending on measures which Ev-L2 (3-4 marks) For an answer
could reduce inequality. that shows developed evaluation of
• More transfer payments might lead to people not the issues that might be created by
willing to work. the introduced policies.
• Measures to increase employment may lead to
inflation due to a higher demand. The points in the evaluation, must be
• Improvements in merit goods and services are linked to the points in the analysis.
likely to be most effective in developing countries
e.g. many developed countries already provide
free/subsidised healthcare and education etc.
• Increased minimum wages will have no impact
on the
• unemployed, pensioners, students.
• Diversification of economy away from agriculture
to manufacturing may be difficult to do without
the right skills and infrastructure.
• Increased minimum wages may lead to
unemployment. (firms cannot afford higher
wages.)
• Increased minimum wages may lead to cost-
push inflation. (Higher wage costs.)

139
3 (a) Learners received two knowledge marks for the correct definition of consumer surplus and producer
surplus.
Many learners failed to link the maximum price to consumer surplus and producer surplus and only
showed the effect of a maximum price on demand and supply of maize meal.
Learners did not score analyses marks because they were not able to draw the dynamic diagram.
Explain the concepts of producer and consumer 8
surplus and, with the aid of a diagram, analyse
how producer and consumer surplus will change
as a result of a maximum price in the maize
meal market as implemented by the Namibian
government.
Kn (3 marks)
• Consumer surplus is the difference between
the highest price a consumer is willing to pay
and able to pay. (The value placed on units
consumed) and the price that is actually paid for
a product (market price).
• Producer surplus is the difference between the
lowest price at which a producer is willing and
able to supply (the price a supplier is willing to
accept) and the price that is actually received
for a product (market price).
• A change in the price of maize meal will affect
the consumer surplus and the producer surplus.
Ap (2 marks)
Any missing label or equilibrium

equals no marks for the static
diagram.
• Correctly drawn and labelled static diagram. (1)

• Area A is the consumer surplus and area B the
producer surplus at the equilibrium price. (1)
An (3 marks)
Up to three marks for the dynamic

diagram and corresponding
explanation of each impact of the
maximum price on consumer and
producer surplus.
Impact of maximum price (P decreases from P to P1):

• Consumer surplus changes to area ABC. (1)
• Producer surplus changes to area D. (1)
• At P1 quantity supplied will be less than at the
equilibrium price P (resulting in a shortage of
maize meal) creating a deadweight loss of area
EF. (1)

140
(b) Poorly answered. Learners discussed the impact of a maximum price on the economy of Namibia
instead of consumer welfare.
Few marks were awarded to which extent a maximum price might increase consumer welfare.
Discuss the extent to which the implementation 12 Any An point can be awarded up to
of a maximum price on products will always be 2 marks if developed sufficiently.
effective in increasing consumer welfare.
An (Up to 8 marks)
Advantages of maximum prices (3/5/4)
• It will lead to lower prices for consumers.
• Basic goods/necessities are usually regulated
by maximum prices.
• The consumer welfare of low-income groups
will increase most
• low-income group spends the biggest proportion
of their income on basic goods/necessities.
• Price controls prevents monopolies if the
supplier has monopoly power to exploit
consumers.
The disadvantage of maximum prices (5/3/4)
• It will lead to lower supply. If firms get a lower
price, there may be less incentive to supply the
goods.
• Quality of products may decrease to cut costs/
make a profit.
• A maximum price will also lead to a shortage –
where demand will exceed supply.
• A shortage may lead to queuing and rationing.
• A maximum price can lead to the emergence of
black markets
• as people try to overcome the shortage of the
goods and pay well above the market price.
Ev (Up to 4 marks) Ev-L1 (1-2 marks) for an answer
The extent to which a maximum price on products that provides limited comment on the
might increase consumer welfare: extent to which consumer welfare
• Depends on the type of product. might be affected.
• Effect on consumer welfare might be bigger on
basic goods/necessities than on luxuries. Ev-L2 (3-4 marks) for an answer
• Depends on the size of the price decrease that provides a developed comment
resulting from a maximum price. on the extent to which consumer
• A small price decrease will have a small effect welfare might be affected.
and a large price decrease will have a large
effect on consumer welfare.
• Depends on the time frame.
• In the short run the effect is likely to be relatively
smaller than in the long run.
• Depends on the price elasticity of supply of the
product.
• If the price elasticity of supply is inelastic,
the decrease in the quantity supplied will be
less, leading to a smaller shortage/if the price
elasticity of supply is elastic, the decrease in
the quantity supplied will be more, leading to a
bigger shortage.

141
4 (a) Fairly well answered. Some learners lost marks for explaining that in an open economy goods are
traded freely without trade restrictions.
Most learners indicated the four components of the circular flow of income diagram.
Learners referred to the market equilibrium (demand = supply) instead of the equilibrium in an open
economy.
Explain the term open economy and, with the 8
help of a circular flow of income diagram,
analyse how equilibrium is determined in an
open economy.
Kn (3 marks)
• An open economy is an economy where goods
and services are traded with other countries. (1)
• An open economy exports goods and services
to other countries and imports goods and
services from other countries. (1)
• An open economy consists of four
components namely households, firms, the
government and the foreign trade sector. (1)
All components should be indicated

- Households (c)
- Firms (I)
- Government (G)
- Other countries (X - M)
NO marks if one component is

missing.
An (Up to 3 marks)
• Injections (J) = investment, government
spending and export revenue.
(I + G + X). (1)
• Withdrawals (W) from the circular flow
of income = savings, taxation and import
spending. Injections and withdrawals must be
(S + T + M) (1) clearly indicated.
• The equilibrium level of national income (Y)
occurs when total withdrawals (the sum of
savings, taxation and import spending (S +
T + M)) equal total injections (investment,
government spending and export revenue. (I +
G + X)). (1)

142
(b) Poorly answered. Learners discussed the features of a market economy and a planned economy.
Learners failed to link a mixed economy to productive efficiency and allocative efficiency and could,
therefore, also not evaluate the question.
Discuss the extent to which a mixed economic 12
system is likely to deliver an optimal resource
allocation.
An (Up to 8 marks) Any An point can be awarded up to
• A mixed economy consists of the private 2 marks if developed sufficiently.
sector/private individuals/with market economy
characteristics (1) and the public sector/ Accept any correct factor that might
the government/with planned economy or might not lead to optimal resource
characteristics. (1) allocation in a mixed economy.
• The main aim of firms in the private sector is
profit maximisation (1) and the main aim of the
public sector is to provide an affordable service
to everybody/society. (1)
• Optimal resource allocation is achieved when
producing goods and services at productive and
allocative efficiency. (1) Ev-L1 (1-2 marks) for an answer
• Productive efficiency is achieved when that provides limited comment on the
producing the highest output at the lowest extent to which a mixed economic
average cost. (1) Using the least possible system delivers optimal resource
amount of scarce resources. (1) allocation.
• Allocative efficiency is achieved when using
scarce resources to produce goods and services Ev-L2 (3-4 marks)
most valued/wanted by society (1) without for an answer that provides a
wasting any resources. (1) developed comment on the extent
Ev (Up to 4 marks) to which a mixed economic system
Extent of optimal resource allocation in the delivers optimal resource allocation.
private sector (1/2/3)
• Depends on the size of the private and public
sector in the mixed economy.
• Firms in the private sector are more likely to
achieve productive and allocative efficiency than
the public sector.
• Depends on the market structure of firms in
the private sector. Depends on the level of
competition in the market. (Perfect competition,
monopolistic competition, monopoly)
• Firms operating in the perfect competitive
market structure are most likely to achieve
productive and allocative efficiency.
• Firms that do not produce at a productive and
allocative level of output will be forced out of the
market by more efficient competitors (as their
products will be too expensive.)
Extent of optimal resource allocation in the
public sector (3/2/1)
• Depends on the level of control of factors that
decrease optimal resource allocation in a mixed
economy.
• The control of negative externalities caused by
the private and the public sector.
• Measures to limit monopolies and promotion of
competition.

143
• Control of political interference and/or corruption
in the public sector to limit wastage of resources.
• More efficient use of government revenue to
limit the extent to which the government might
have to increase taxes and/or government
borrowing to fund its spending.

Subject knowledge
Learners should have the subject knowledge as indicated in the AS level syllabus.
Interpretation of questions
Questions should be read carefully to ensure learners understand what is expected of them. They should, for
example, not assume that a question is about the effect of an economic problem on the economy of a country.
Learners should answer their questions in the context of the question asked.

144
ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE
8202
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
• The candidates generally did not perform well in this paper. Many failed to understand that ‘write in your own
words’ does not mean lifting. A few candidates, however, attempted to use their own words successfully.
Some candidates could not successfully use their own words and ended up changing the meaning of the
answers. Many candidates copied their answers from the text in a careless manner, as they misspelt words
such as: “libaries”, ‘pscology’ ,‘trecks’, ‘heartstroke’, ‘special’ instead of ‘spacial’, ‘terminet’, ‘mould’/’mount’
instead of ‘mound’.
• There were also incidences of the use of pencil to respond to part 1 (multiple-choice), which should be
discouraged at all cost.
• Too many candidates failed to answer in complete, coherent and grammatically correct sentences, using
elementary punctuation such as full stops, commas, question marks, capital letters at the beginning of
sentences and full stops at the end. Many candidates made avoidable language errors in spelling and
grammar.
• An AS level candidate is expected to be able to fully understand the passage, as a whole and use higher order
thinking skills, in order to be able to comprehend the text as well as competently respond to the questions
asked. This entails the candidates utilising the given information to make inferences and read between the
lines, in order to provide correct responses to the questions asked.
• At this level, candidates are expected to use their own words and not lift answers from the reading
passages.
Comments on Individual questions
PART 1: Multiple Choice Questions
Questions 1 to 5
Questions Answers
1 C
2 D
3 B
4 D
5 B
For this part of the question, fewer candidates attained full marks.
It seemed that the majority of the candidates could either not read the question well in order to understand what was
required, or they did not pay due attention to the text in order to be able to identify the most suitable answers.
A few candidates left this part unanswered with some encircling more than one answer and failing to delete the other.
6. From paragraph 1, identify the word or phrase that means the following:
(a) including every person (1)

(b) a crucial turning point (1)
Question No Answers Marks Guidelines

6 (a) All-embracing 1 Do not accept if spelling is wrong since answers
(b) Pivotal 1 are copied from the text.

145
A sizeable number of candidates managed to identify the correct word/phrase. Some candidates added “culture” to
“all-embracing”. A few candidates wrote sentences while others were penalised for copying the words incorrectly
from the text. On the other hand, only a few candidates were able to identify the word ‘pivotal’ from the text.
7. Explain what the writer means by the metaphor, ‘Reading is…

(a) a stepladder out of poverty
(b) consider the idiom ‘can take a leaf out of that book’ and identify the idea to which the idiom refers.
7 (a) (i) Like a stepladder-reading can help a person to rise Give one mark. Language used
higher socially and economically, above poverty (1) should express rising above
poverty/climbing higher.
OR 1
(ii) Stepladder is a flight of steps to enable a user to NB: Do not accept---out of poverty
climb higher. (1)
(b) An expansion programme of reading= the improvement
of reading culture like in South Korea, Singapore and 1
Taiwan
These two questions were generally poorly answered.
(a) Most candidates opted to define the “stepladder” instead of contextualising the meaning from the text.
The majority of the candidates could not explain the idiom at all. While those who attempted to do so, ended
up giving the literal translation of the words instead of the figurative meaning.
Most candidates failed to bring forth the idea of “rising above poverty” as a ladder infers climbing up, with
many writing “way out of poverty” “step out of poverty” “move out of poverty” “take you out of poverty” or to
“fight poverty”.
(b) Candidates could only get the meaning of the idiom but failed to relate it to the idea of the “improve-
ment” of the reading culture.
8. How does Africa differ from the countries that are mentioned in the article?
8 Africa had the “problem of illiteracy” = 2 Give one mark per answer.
(a) many people could not read at all (1)
(b) and this has hampered development (1)
This question required candidates to focus on how Africa differs from the countries mentioned in the article.
Candidates’ angle and focus were mostly on other countries instead of Africa which resulted in wrong answers.
Candidates struggled to answer in their own words. Most answers were merely copied verbatim from the given
text. Most candidates failed to mention that illiteracy refers to people who cannot read or write at all. They were
also unable to express the idea of a crippled national development in their own words. Many candidates rather
gave solutions on how national development should be enhanced.
9. Using your own words, state two ways in which a poor reading culture can hamper national development.
9 (a) Religious and political leaders can have limited ideas= (“poverty 2 Any two points
of ideas”)
(b) Leaders can lack good ideas and planning= (“imagination and policies”.)
(c) Can cause conflicting resolutions or conclusions =(contradictory
decisions”)
(d) Plans that do not work (“flawed strategies”)
This question proved to be very challenging as candidates mostly lifted each word and every word from the text.
Those who tried to use their own words ended up completely changing the meaning in their answers. Very few
candidates could give a clear and meaningful answer. Most candidates struggled to draw conclusions in respect
of poor reading and its influence on national development.

146
10. Give any three ways in which parents can promote their children’s ability to read from paragraph 3.
10 (a) Parents should be readers. (1) 3 Give one mark per answer up to a maximum
(b) They should read to the babies while still un of three points.
born. (1)
(c) There should be books available at home. (1)
(d) Reading should start when children are very (Any 3 of the 5 suggested)
young. (1)
(e) Reading should be incorporated into fun or into
everyday tasks. (1)
The candidates lifted whole parts from the text to complete their answers. Very few candidates tried to construct
answers which consisted of their own words.
11. In paragraph 4, what do learners mainly use their reading for, according to the author?
11. They read to score good marks in tests 1
This question was a total lift, with only a few candidates managing to use their own words.
12. According to the author, how should school libraries make use of technology?
12 (a) School libraries should provide interactive 2 Give one mark per answer.
learning (independent study)
(b) Young people should be able to access the

internet in a library
Most candidates lifted their answers from the text. Those who attempted to use their own words could not
correctly interpret the answer. Most candidates do not know the meaning of ‘interactive learning’.
13. In paragraph 5, how can community libraries become a ‘one-stop resource centre’, according to the
writer? Give three details.
13 (a) Young people should be able to study 3 Give one mark per answer up to a maximum
in the centre (1) of three marks.
(b) do online research (1)
(c) borrow traditional books from the libraries (1)
This question was challenging to most candidates as they failed to give the correct answer, even if it was lifted
from the reading passage.
14. How can community reading facilities make difficult personal circumstances more bearable?
14 (a) libraries can become a protected haven area 1 Must use own words
away from the fight at home/
(b) provide people with escape from misery
through reading
Some candidates failed to understand the question, with many providing irrelevant answers. They simply lifted
the words “safe” “space” “seek refuge” into whatever answer they gave.
15. In paragraph 6, why does the author believe that the radio is still relevant and how does he want to use it?
15 Why:” it is the medium with the largest reach in the 2 Give one mark per answer up to a maximum of
country”= (a) more people use/have access to radio two marks
than other forms of media (1)
NB: Make sure that each part of the question
How: there has to be much more reading of books is answered.
on public media= (b) Radio should transmit more
reading aloud of books to promote a reading culture.
(1)
The majority of candidates were able to identify the correct answer but, unfortunately, they could not express it in
their own words.

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SECTION B
16. You and your classmates have recently attended a bush survival course with a youth club. Your teacher
has asked you to write a report for the management of your school. Use the information from the article
to help you write that report. Share your experience with the management of your school in order to
motivate more similar experiences for all learners, by relating to:
• why you enrolled for the course;
• the knowledge and skills you required;
• why you would or would not recommend the course to others.
Your report should be between 220-260 words and you can also use your own ideas for the report.
Possible content from the article.
(a) To develop the adaptability, patience and brainpower needed to overcome the trials from adverse conditions
(b) Would like to practise staying calm
(c) Staying optimistic in difficult situations
(d) Wanted to develop a survival mind-set
Which knowledge and skills you acquired:

Knowledge/skill regarding the quenching of thirst
(e) Find a set of animal tracks and follow them
(f) Find the deepest curve of a river and start digging
(g) Keep head and shoulders covered
(h) Avoid standing pools since these may contain parasites and bacteria
(i) Do not drink salt water, blood or urine. That will dehydrate you
Knowledge/skills regarding navigation:
(j) Find a termite mound
(k) Use the sun and the direction of its movements
(I) The North Star can point you in the right direction
(m) Follow the direction of the water, as villages are often built on river banks
Why you would or would not recommend the course to others:
(n) benefits for well-being, introspection and self-knowledge
(o) may learn much from the efficiency of other participants
(p) make new friends
(q) strengthen family ties
(r) socializing around the campsite instead of loneliness in front of a screen
(s) having fun/the excitement of adventure
(t ) psychological benefits of team work
(u) any negatives would relate to the opposite of the advantages mentioned above: e.g. nature is
not a place where I want to gain self-knowledge in a technological age.

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Marking Grid for Paper 1, Section B - Directed Writing
Content
14-15 Excellent Entirely relevant, with many aspects of the mask explored.
Ideas very effectively organized, developed and presented in a form highly appropriate to
the task.
Strong sense of voice. Highly aware of audience and purpose.

12-13 Very Good Relevant, with most aspects of the task explored.
Ideas well organized, developed and presented in a form appropriate to the task.
Sense of voice. Aware of audience and purpose.

9-11 Good Mostly relevant, with the main aspects of the task explored.
Ideas, organisation and development generally clear but lacking coherence in places.
Some sense of voice. Some irrelevant material. Limited awareness of audience and pur-
pose.
6-8 Satisfactory Some aspects of the task explored.
Limited or unambitious organisation, but with some attempt at development of ideas.
Limited sense of voice. Some irrelevant material. limited awareness of audience and
purpose.
3-5 Weak Limited understanding of the task.
A few relevant ideas presented. Significantly lacking in focus and/or repetitive
Very limited sense of voice. Ideas and points weakly developed.

1-2 Poor Minimal response. Implications of the task only vaguely or not understood.
Very limited relevant content undeveloped and unstructured.
No sense of voice.
0 No relevant material presented.

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Language
10 excellent Excellent control of an extensive range of vocabulary and complex sentence patterns, with
very few minor errors.
Highly developed sense of idiom

9 Very good Highly accurate, with a few minor errors.
Very good control of a wide range of vocabulary and complex sentence patterns
Good sense of idiom.

7-8 Good Generally accurate.
Good range of vocabulary and some complex sentence patterns.
Some sense of idiom

5-6 Satisfactory Predominantly simple sentence patterns correctly used and some complex language
attempted, but with variable success.
Adequate range of vocabulary, but some repetition

3-4 Weak Persistent errors may impede communication.
Simple and repetitive sentence patterns.
Limited vocabulary
1-2 Poor Little evidence of grammatical awareness.
Inaccuracy often impedes communication.
Very limited vocabulary.

0 No relevant material presented
Most candidates scored fair marks even though some completely lifted the entire text as it is from the reading passage,
which resulted in them incurring some penalties. There were some candidates who developed the ideas taken or
copied from the text with further interesting examples and relevant knowledge of their own. Such candidates scored
marks in the top band. Some candidates presented off-topic responses such as personal experiences or what they
learnt in other subjects, such as Geography or Biology instead of being informed by the given article. The above
resulted in several candidates not scoring a mark at all. In some instances the language that they used was far too
informal for the task.
Many candidates peppered their report with a variety of idioms that they had been taught and many of these idioms
were incorrectly used.

Teachers could expose candidates to various terminologies and complete as many reading comprehension tasks as
possible. More time should be invested in sentence construction, analysing sentences from a given text and helping
learners to draw relevant conclusions from statements and sentences in the text.
Teachers need to encourage learners not only to read for the mere exercise of answering the questions, but rather to
try to understand the text, in order to draw inferences and read between the lines.
It is evident that some teachers have really tried to teach their learners to use their own words and to incorporate idioms
in their work, which is highly recommended.

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8202
Paper 2
General comments
It was once again evident that some candidates could not manage the competencies of the AS level. Candidates who
should have been on this level have managed the implications and requirements of AS level well.
Part 1 of this paper is compulsory and the majority of candidates did not understand or adhere to the requirements of
the topic. Teachers should train their learners on how to make sure what the topic implies and answer all aspects of the
question. Teachers should also focus on the specific topics that have to be covered during specific year, in order for
learners to gather as much information in that field as possible.
Some areas of particular concern: many candidates from certain centres did not stick to the word count. On this level it
is expected of candidates to be able to develop a convincing, well developed and mature plot in a concise manner and
their ability to do that, is tested. Too many candidates did not adhere to the word count. This is unacceptable and
unfair towards those candidates who adhered to the clear instruction regarding word count. They ignored the
instruction and wrote plots containing more than 500 words, which sometimes led to well-developed plots resulting in a
good mark. Teachers must teach their learners to stick to the word count. Candidates will be penalised for this in future
examinations.
Quite a number of candidates used excessive numbers of idioms haphazardly in their plots, thereby making it difficult
to comprehend their arguments. Sense of idiom implies: tone; register; purpose; style; role of the writer; sense of
conviction and the audience that should be addressed. It does not imply idiomatic expressions in general. Other
areas of concern: incomplete sentences; starting sentences with conjunctions and many candidates used the present
participle as a finite verb. The latter resulted in listing of ideas, essays with many ideas, but insufficient development.
In many cases sentence structures were problematic. Candidates on this level should have a good understanding of
word formation i.e “She sings beautiful” instead of “She sings beautifully”; incorrect punctuation; the use of contractions,
for example didn’t, using like instead of such as; confusing its/it’s, then/than, principal/principle, were/where, their/there,
gonna/going to, wanna/want to. Candidates should avoid repeating the infinitive in sentences, for example, ‘to go see
my parent’ instead of to see my parent.
Teachers have to encourage their learners to read since it was evident that many candidates lacked general knowledge
regarding the themes for 2022. This resulted in mundane and unconvincing plots. Spelling of the following words
is still problematic and must be addressed: in love, at least, in front, as well, which were all given as one word. I,
personally, think/ in my personal opinion instead of I think/according to me/in my opinion. Linking words such as
however, furthermore, moreover, in addition were used wrongly and excessively in narrative essays.
Some essays were still presented slovenly, which impedes reading and communication.
Some candidates succeeded in concluding their arguments convincingly.
Comments on individual questions
PART 1
TOPIC 1
Environment
I went undercover to expose an international animal trafficking organisation. Relate the role you played in rescuing an
endangered animal.
This was the compulsory topic all candidates had to complete. This proved to be a problematic question for the
majority of candidates. Even some strong candidates struggled to do justice to this question. A few stronger
candidates were able to provide coherent, convincing and relevant plots. Candidates were supposed to narrate on how
they infiltrated an international trafficking organisation, specifically the role of being undercover. Most candidates failed
to develop ideas on the aspect of going “undercover”. They interpreted it as hiding in order not to be seen or simply
came across it by accident, thus resulting in poor development and poor marks. Some candidates regarded animal
trafficking as a positive thing, or misunderstood trafficking, instead interpreting it as tracking organisations. Domestic
animals were also regarded as being endangered.

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PART 2
TOPIC 2:
Health
Governments should allocate the biggest potion of their budgets to health care. To what extent do you agree with this
statement?
This was a popular topic with varied success. Some candidates simply listed the advantages of giving more
money to health care. Some common ideas were: lack of proper care for patients; not enough hospitals/health care
facilities; inadequate machinery; shortage of doctors and nurses, equipment and medicine. Candidates were supposed to
elaborate on why or why not the biggest portion of the budget should go to health care. Stronger candidates successfully
agreed with the topic or could also consider the effect this could have on other sectors should health care receive the
biggest portion. They were also able to present detailed arguments with clear examples.
TOPIC 3:
Careers
A day in the life of a teacher. Relate your experiences.
This was a popular topic and most candidates did well in this question. Most candidates are well informed about a
teacher’s day-to-day activities and could develop their hardships and care for learners soundly as well as imaginatively.
Some candidates generalised on the topic and, as a result, ended up discussing the experiences of teachers in general.
Some merely listed the daily routine of a teacher. They should have creatively narrated one day in the life of a teacher.
Stronger candidates wrote well manipulated plots in a very mature way.
Topic 4:
History
International aid to assist people affected by wars, disasters or medical emergencies should not be given to governments,
but rather to aid organisations for distribution.
What are your views?
A few candidates attempted this topic with varied success. Stronger candidates were able to grasp the requirements of
the topic and some were able to consider both the advantages and disadvantages thereof. Weaker candidates did not
know the difference between sponsors/donors and aid agencies. Weaker candidates literally presented random ideas.
It was expected of candidates to argue convincingly why governments and not aid organisations should manage aid or
the other way round.
Topic 5:
The media
The day I met my Instagram/Facebook friend and how it changed my life for the better.
Tell us about that experience.
This was a popular topic. Most candidates understood the requirements of the question. However, many resolved to
focus more on the first part of the question or had lengthy discussions on what Instagram is. That resulted in little focus
on how that friend changed his/her life for the better. Candidates were supposed to focus on having met an online
friend and how that affected their lives positively. A few candidates focused on a negative experience which resulted in
a poor mark.
Positive suggestions to teachers.
• Teachers should teach grammar and language usage as a crucial component of English, concentrating on specific
problematic areas such as concord, punctuation, good vocabulary and sentence structures. They MUST teach
their learners how to develop a convincing argument and at the same time adhere to the word count. As mentioned
before, exceeding the amount of words required will result in candidates receiving lower marks.
• Encourage learners to read in order for them to gain general knowledge, which will enable them to write convincing
and sustained arguments. Teachers should offer more lessons that involve challenging vocabulary activities, since
candidates are expected to use a wide range of sophisticated vocabulary. However, they should not use it randomly
and excessively.
• Teach good paragraphing skills. Essays need to be correctly structured, with one main idea per paragraph. Good
and effective introductions and conclusions should also be encouraged. The introduction to an essay should be
distinct and separate from the rest of the plot.

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• Argumentative essays require convincing and sustained facts. It is, therefore, essential for learners to expand their
general knowledge.
• Numbers up to twenty should be written out in words. Candidates do not adhere to this rule. Numbers above
twenty and dates should be written in numerals.
• Planning is essential. If proper planning is not done, the result is always poorly developed plots and random
paragraphs or arguments.
• Emphasis should put on extensive studying of fields/topics for a specific year, according to the AS syllabus.
• Essay writing should not be neglected.
• Candidates must not create their own topics: they should just indicate the number and topic, i.e. 2. Health.

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154
ENTREPRENEURSHIP
8247
Paper 1
General comments
Many learners scored full marks in all the questions that test level AOA, but struggled with other levels, especially
AOC and AOD.
Many learners were able to give the formula of break-even points. However, they could not get the correct figure of
fixed cost due to misinterpretation of question 4.
Overall, learner’s work was satisfactory.
Section A
1 Most of the learners performed very well or answered the question correctly. Some learners confused
fair trade with credit history and some could not give the full definition or for the customer to be able to get a loan
Expected answer:
Credit bureau is a business that investigates the creditworthiness of (1) and assigns a credit rating to
clients, customers, or potential customers (1)
2 Learners did well with few errors deducted on the use of profit or loss in the definition. Some learners
were giving income as expenses as if they are calculating profit or a point where the two lines are meeting
without identifying them. Others refer to it as market equilibrium.
Expected answer:
• The point where total costs and total revenue [1] are equal [1]
• The point where there is no net profit or loss [2].
3 Most of the learners scored 2 marks on the formula of break-even point and also managed to calculate the
correct figure of contribution which was equal to selling price minus Variable cost (N$ 80 – N$30 = 50),.
However, learners failed to provide the correct figure of fixed cost. Most learners could not calculate the
correct fixed cost which was provided in the case study on weekly basis. Some learners got the correct
figure of fixed cost by using 160 units multiplied by 4 weeks as a results of using weekly fixed cost without
converting it into a full month. The correct answer was N$ 8 000 x 4 weeks = N$ 32 000 / 50 = 640 units
per month.
Expected answer:
Knowledge AOA (2)
Break-even point (BEP) = Fixed cost (1)
Selling price –Variable costs (1)
Application AOB (2)

8000 x 4 = 32000 (Total fixed cost)
32000
N$ 80 - N$ 30 (1)
= 640 units per month (1)
4 Knowledge AOA: Most learners scored maximum points as they were able to identify the benefits of
Woody CC for being a member of SACU.
Expected answer:
• Access to member country markets (1)
• Members include South Africa, Lesotho, Botswana and Namibia (1)
• Fair competition (1)
• Free trade between members of SACU/free movement of goods (1)
• Reduced trading barriers and reduced administration (1)
• Fewer import/export restrictions (1)

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Application AOB: When it comes to the application most of the learners failed to link their answers to
the case study. Instead they generalized their answers. For example, learners use viability principles as
application.
Expected answer:
• Woody CC exports to Botswana and Lesotho (1)
• Export earnings make up a large part of their income (1)
• Wood is imported from South Africa (1)
5 Knowledge AOA (2): In this component learners performed very well by identifying the correct
components of triple bottom line.
Expected answer:
• Environmentally sustainable enterprise/Planet (1)
• Financially profitable enterprise/profit (1)
• Socially responsible/People (1)
Application AOB (2)

Learners failed to apply the components of triple bottom line. Many of them use re-cycle instead of re-
use.
Expected answer:
• Woody CC re-uses and renew old school desks (1).
• Woody CC imports wood from South Africa (1)
• Woody earns large profits (1).
• They create employment for people living with disabilities (1).
6 Knowledge AOA (2): Some of the learners managed to identify the correct viable points in the case
study. Here learners confused viability with the principles of feasibility e.g. availability of raw materials or
funds or labour.
Expected answer:
• Demand/Market size (1)
• Seasonality (1)
• Competition (1)
• Cost (1)
Application AOB (2): Learners could not link the application to the point identified from the case study.
• They have very few competitors.
• Learners are increasing every year/number of schools increases every year (1)
• Furniture can be sold throughout the year
• Costs of imports are fixed at a reasonable level
• Earns large profits
SECTION B
7 (a) This question consists of Application AOB and Analysis AOC:
Application AOB (2): Required the learners to apply the impact on consumers of the enterprises claiming
to be part of Team Namibia. Most learners’ answers were correctly taken from the case study provided.
However, there were some who generalized without considering the statistical information provided in the
case study. Instead, learners failed to link to the case study details such as enterprises will lack customers
or high advertising cost. Some give the definition of Team Namibia while others provide the benefit of Team
Namibia to the enterprises.
Expected answer:
• The enterprise should have quality assurance certificate
• Goods must be made in Namibia
• 30% of Namibian enterprises are not members
• 50 enterprises that include the Team Namibia logo on their advertisements sell imported goods
• 20 complaints that goods sold by Team Namibia members are being delivered late.
Analysis AOC (3): Some of the learners score maximum of 1 out of 3 marks, of which most of them were
only managed to give: Consumers may buy poor quality goods. The rest of the answers were based on the
benefits of Team Namibia to enterprises. NB: Learners were giving answers that address a business which
register as a member of Team Namibia and not the impact on consumers buying products from enterprises
that are not members of Team Namibia such as use of Team Namibia logo , listing of the enterprise in the
directory.

156
Expected answer:
• Consumers may buy poor quality goods
• Consumers must wait for their goods/ because goods imported take a long time to arrive in the country
• Consumers who are loyal to Namibian products, do not get what they pay for
• Consumers support international business without their knowledge.
(b) This part of the question required learners to form their conclusion based on the effect of Team
Namibia on local enterprises. It assesses all the four assessment objectives; AOA, AOB, AOC and AOD.
Knowledge AOA (2):
Most of the learners score 1 out of 2 as they only listed: encourage Namibians to buy local products and
ignore the other aims of Team Namibia.
Expected answer:
Description of what Team Namibia tries to do – promote local producers (1) and ensure quality products in
the market (1) Reduce imports into the country (1), encourage Namibians to buy local products.
Application AOB (1): Well answered: Most of the learners managed to identify the use of Team Namibia
brand and logo as an application which enables them to score a point.
Expected answer:
• Use of TN brand and logo
• Listing of their enterprise in TN Directory
• Use of the TN social media/digital marketing platform
• Entry into an exhibition
• Negotiated lower advertising rates in the media
• Newsletter for TN members
• Arrange network meetings between enterprises
• Invitation to attend public events
• Assistance with conducting research
• Access to market research results from surveys
Analysis AOC (2): Learners were expected to point out the advantages of Team Namibia to members
and disadvantages of non- members. NB: these points must be explained related to the enterprises. Some
learners managed to score 1 out of 2 marks of which the majority identified gain more customers as the
correct answers. However, half of the learners scored zero because their answers were mostly based on the
answers of Application/AOB.
Expected answer:
One mark per developed point of explanation related to the local enterprise.
Non-members:
• Lose customers
• Pay higher advertising rates
• Goods are poor quality
Members:
• Have lower costs
• Gain exposure to more ideas
• Gain exposure to more opportunities
• Gain more customers/revenue
• Competitive advantage of using the logo
• Must prove they meet the criteria - are of higher quality
• Costs might be higher because you do not import goods
Evaluation AOD (5): Learners were supposed to conclude by justifying the positive and negative impacts
of Team Namibia on enterprise. Most of the learners score 1 out of 5 by providing the following answer: Sell
globally/ able to compete in the international markets. Those who got less than 1 gave answers that were
mostly based on AOB.
Expected answer:
Justified conclusion showing some positive and negative impacts of Team
Namibia on enterprises.
Examples:
• Team Namibia members will benefit from local consumer awareness (1) and thus increase their sales
volume/ larger market share (1).
• Higher profit due to low cost/ highest point (1).

157
• Opportunity for expansion (1).
• Sell globally/able to compete in the international market (1).
• Enterprises will be strictly regulated to ensure that products have met the set standard (1).
8 This question required learners to evaluate the impact of introducing fair trade practices in Namibia taking
into consideration the following:
• A definition of the term fair trade (AOA)
• Examples from an enterprise to support your answer (AOB)
• Explanations of the positive and negative effects of fair-trade practices on enterprises (AOC)
• A conclusion on the impact of fair-trade practices on enterprises. (AOD)
Knowledge AOA (1-2):
Component well answered: Most of the learners scored 2 out of 2 marks. However, few linked the
definition of fair trade to international trade. Some learners referred to fair trade as a process of
conducting the exchange of goods and services between countries with a limited tariff to buy.
Expected answer:
• Offering better trading conditions such as a fair price to suppliers (1) and fair wage to workers (1),
secure the rights of marginalised producers and workers (1).
• An arrangement designed to aid producers in developing countries to achieve sustainable trading
relationships (2)
Application AOB (3-5):

Learners were expected to identify examples of enterprises practising fair trade and indicate how they
implement it. This component was well answered as most learners scored 2 out of 3 marks. Some
learners repeat the definition of fair trade such as fair wage or low wages, transparency, less income due
to high cost.
Expected answer:
Will depend upon the examples chosen. Award an AOB mark for each point clearly related to an
enterprise/Namibia such as;
• Mud Hut trading/Penduka Trust Namibia/Karas Huisen Craft etc.
Fair trade enterprises offers:
• Competitive wages, promotes safe and secure working environment, an end to discrimination, a
reduction in child labour, a rise in organic farming, minimum price, promote sustainable development.
Analysis AOC (6-10):

Learners were expected to analyse the positive and negative impact of Namibian enterprise practising fair
trade. Most of the learners score 1 out of 5 because they repeat the points of application, benefit of joining
Team Namibia for Woody CC, as well as listing the benefits of the country in general. In addition some
learners confused fair trade with Windhoek show ground and Ongwediva trade fair.
Expected answer:
• Workers receive a better standard of living
• Suppliers receive higher incomes /profits
• Job satisfaction due to fair wages
• Allows progress
• Helps industry to establish and remain in operation
• Consumers must pay higher prices (to cover the higher costs of fair wages)
• Customers may not be willing to buy at the higher prices
• Enterprises must prove that they operate in a fair-trade way
• There are very high fees associated with fair trade certification
• Fraudulent use of the fair- trade logo
Evaluation AOD (11-15):

This component required learners to draw a conclusion by justifying the impact of fair trade: Partly
answered, few learners listed how the disadvantaged small enterprises benefitted. However, the majority
summarized the definition of fair trade and listed the points of application, for example, fair price to
producers and fair wages to workers in order to encourage customers or enterprises will gain a better
recognition since the market is large.
Expected answer:
A justified conclusion must be made on the impact of fair trade in Namibia.
• Fair trade prevents discrimination against smaller sellers and those trying to earn a living in poorer,
less developed communities (1).

158
• Buying fair trade products, you are contributing to a suitable wage and better living conditions of a
producer (1).
• Big buyers are not attracted to the fair trade model/limited customer base (1).
• Higher price is associated with fewer customers (1).
• Limited product choice (1)
Positive suggestions to teachers:
• Teachers are requested to teach the whole syllabus in order to avoid disadvantaging the learners.
• Learners must be taught how to answer questions of different levels of assessment objectives. It was observed
that most of the learners experienced difficulties in answering AOB, AOC and AOD levels.
• There is a need for teachers to explore before delivering a lessons.
• Teachers should familiarize themselves with the specification grid in the NSSCAS syllabus.
• In conclusion teachers are requested always to read and refer to the examiner’s report when teaching and
assessing. This will help them to identify the mistakes made by the learners that causes them to lose marks. For
example teachers should always emphasize those mistakes in class to avoid those types of mistakes and losing
of marks unnecessarily.

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8247
Paper 2
General comments
In addition to this general report, each centre will receive a centre-specific report for Paper 2.
Most centres showed a slight improvement compared to last year's coursework. However the performance is still below
average.
The main contributing factor for below average performance is due to learners’ poor English skills because they expe-
rienced difficulty in:
• Explaining - Explanations were not written in details. Learners just mentioned mere facts but could not link the
explanations correctly to their enterprises.
• Interpreting and answering analysis questions, therefore the learners did not do exceptionally well.
• Some learners lack basic knowledge of how to write research titles
• Most learners lack the basic knowledge of referencing sources
• Some learners could not define concepts correctly as stipulated in the SYLLABUS.
Teachers are the only people who can lay down a sound foundation to assist learners to excel. 90% of the tasks were
neatly typed. Well done.
Question 1
All learners had research titles but some titles were not reflecting the stated problems. Some learners wrote
general and unattainable research titles, e.g Investigating how to reduce global warming.
Some research titles did not lead to investigation, e.g “Global warming” or “Go Green Go Namibia”. These are not
research titles. A research title must be a phrase or question that will lead to an investigation.
Question 2
Well answered by most centres. All learners defined the Green enterprise correctly. But some learners stated two prob-
lems instead of one. The problems which the learner is trying to solve should be in line with the research title.
Question 3
(a) Some learners identified overlapping entrepreneurial opportunities (similar opportunities given in different ways)
e.g recycling tyres to make shoes as idea number one and making flower pots from tyres as the second idea.
These opportunities are related. Learners should come up with unidentical ideas. Some opportunities had
nothing to do with the problem identified. Entrepreneurial opportunities should be linked to the research title and
both must address the identified problem.
(b) Application of opportunities - Most learners failed to answer this question correctly. They defined and some
explained the opportunities rather than applying (explaining how they will operate the enterprise). They started
analysing instead of Explaining how they will apply the opportunities.
Costs and benefits – Most learners only stated the costs/benefits without analysing them. The analysis should
be detailed to enable learners to score full marks. Analysing should lead to an effect or the results thereof. Few
learners failed to make a choice of their viable opportunities
Most of those learners who made choices, failed to justify their choices using data.
Question 4
Some learners failed to give the correct definitions of the marketing mix. They opted for their entrepreneurial
opportunities. Learners should choose from the three given marketing mixes and not any other.
Examples should be developed based on the specific marketing mix. Analysis should include the benefits and costs of
the example. Most learners started analysing without applying. There was a great confusion about process as one of
the elements of the marketing mix. Most learners referred to process as the way of making a product instead of refer-
ring to process as a set of activities that result in the delivery of the product to consumers.
Some learners failed to formulate two examples to suit their chosen element of the marketing mix.

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Question 5
Most learners stated the practices correctly but failed to apply them correctly. Learners are expected to apply tech-
niques suitable for the practice. Some learners confused practices with opportunities. Most learners did not link their
answers to sustaining their enterprises, but wrote in general.
Question 6
This question was fairly answered by most learners. Learners could not explain in detail and they also failed to link it to
their enterprises. Few teachers used the wrong assessment grid to assess learners and this made it difficult to assess
learners on this specific questions.
Question 7
Most learners could not reference using APA style. Learners should use a minimum of three sources. Some
learners copied sources used as examples in textbooks.

In general, the work was neatly presented. 90% of the work was neatly typed. Well done. Teachers should encourage
their leaners to type their tasks because it is difficult to decipher the handwriting of some learners. The neat work that
was, however, presented was a joy to mark as both handwriting and following instructions made reading easy and
pleasurable.
It is imperative that teachers train learners on how to approach analysing and evaluation questions as it is a new
approach for them.
We suggest that teachers avail themselves to learners during the completion of this task to provide the necessary
guidance.
Furthermore, centres must remind learners that their course work contributes 50% to their final promotional mark. This
is to encourage learners to put effort in their task.
Teachers are advised to file all the tasks in one file, e.g if there are 20 learners at a centre they can all be filed in a 20
pocket file. There is no need for each learner to submit a separate file.
Teachers should try to familiarise themselves with and understand the use of the assessment grid in order to allocate
marks properly.

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162
FIRST LANGUAGE AFRIKAANS
8166
Paper 1
ALGEMENE INDRUKKE
Baie dankie vir die ondersteuning en leiding wat deur elke onderwyser aan die kandidate gegee is. Op hierdie vlak is
u insette ten opsigte van vakkennis en morele ondersteuning van groot waarde vir elke kandidaat. Ons het opregte
waardering daarvoor.
Die skryfstukke wat ingehandig is, is baie goed. Daar is ŉ merkwaardige verskil in die standaard van die werk ten
opsigte van die vorige jaar. Dit is opvallend dat die onderwysers die kandidate baie goed toegerus en begelei het.
Daar is ŉ definitiewe verbetering in die aanbieding van die skryfwerk. Die aanwending van taalstrukture is baie belangrik.
Dit moet altyd ingeoefen word. Taalkundig moet die werk goed versorg wees. Dit kan net gebeur indien inoefening
gereeld plaasvind. Die aanmoediging van korrekte spelling moet nooit agterweë gelaat word nie.
Die kandidate het hulle tyd vir dié sessie goed beplan.
Moedig kandidate aan om wyd te lees oor aktuele sake. Dit kan net die kwaliteit van hulle skryfwerk verhoog indien
hulle baie algemene kennis het.
Idiomatiese taalgebruik en die afwisseling van sintipes is goed en vanpas aangewend.

Dié vraestel vereis dat die skryfstukke sekere lengtes moet wees. Van die skryfstukke het nie aan die lengtevereistes
voldoen soos voorgeskryf nie en dit beïnvloed puntetoekenning. (sien nasienskema)
Die aantal woorde moet onderaan die skryfstukke aangedui word.
AFDELING A
VRAAG 1 (VERPLIGTEND)
Fopnuus veroorsaak dat ŉ mens nie altyd weet wat is waar en wat is onwaar nie. Jy is die redakteur van ŉ
aanlyn jeugkoerant en wil hierdie verskynsel krities in jou hoofartikel bespreek.
(a) Skryf die hoofartikel in ongeveer 400 woorde.

Kommentaar
Die kandidate het hierdie vraag baie goed beantwoord. Dit is duidelik dat hulle sintipes afgewissel het, die
teikengehoor reg benader het en idiomatiese taalgebruik effektief en korrek aangewend het. Dit is opmerklik
dat daar baie minder taalfoute gemaak is.
Fopnuus is ŉ relevante onderwerp en dit is krities ontleed.
Hierdie vraag is baie goed beantwoord en die inhoudelike het verras!
Puntetoekenning: goed tot uitstekend
Nasienskema
Tabel A, S1 met vlakaanduidings 0 -5 [totaal: 15]
Lengte vereistes moet nagekom word. Sou die kandidate dit nie nakom nie is dit strydig met die vereistes
volgens die sillabus.
Antwoorde kan ook die volgende of meer insluit:
• vorm van ŉ hoofartikel
• duidelike paragrafering
• enige relevante inligting oor fopnuus in gedrukte en aanlyn media
• formele aanslag en logiese ontwikkeling
• gebruik van meer formele taal, hoewel geskik vir die jeug
• gebruik van oorredingstaal
• gebruik van doelteffende argumente en motivering

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(b) Skryf reflektiewe (besinnende) kommentaar op die teks en verduidelik die rol van jou taalgebruik in
die gehalte van jou skryfstuk. Skryf ongeveer 200 woorde.
Kommentaar
Dit is baie duidelik dat die kandidate goed onderrig is in die aanbieding van hierdie vraag. Die besinnings is
uiters goed hanteer.
Puntetoekenning: baie goed tot uitstekend
Nasienskema
Tabel B S2 met vlakaanduidings 0 – 5 [totaal: 10]
Antwoorde kan die volgende of meer insluit:

• keuse van vorm, struktuur en taal
• gebruik van doeltreffende argumente en motiverende taal
• gebruik van voornaamwoorde, modaliteit en retoriese middels
• woordkeuse en sinsbou/konstruksie
• bewustheid van geriese en fomele konvensies van die doel en vorm van die taak
• ontleding van hoe hul keuses die gehoor se reaksies beïnvloed
• teikengehoor
• idiomatiese taalgebruik
• afwisseling van sintipes
• leestekens
• titel
ADELING B
VRAAG 2
Namibië is bekend vir sy gasvryheid. Jy was ŉ toeris wat met ŉ rugsak en ŉ tent deur Namibië getoer het. Vertel in ŉ
opstel van jou wedervaringe.
Kommentaar
Die gewildste keuse vanjaar. Kandidate het hierdie skryfstukke met mooi ervaringe ingekleur. Die onderwerp is goed
verstaan en mooi vertellings is aangebied.
Puntetoekenning: gemiddeld tot uitstekend
Nasienskema
Tabel C S1 met vlakaanduidings 0 – 5 [totaal: 25]
Antwoorde kan die volgende insluit of meer:

• informele taalgebruik
• beskrywende taal
• eerstepersoonsverteller
• literêre tegnieke soos figuurlike taalgebruik
• beskrywing van indrukke en ervaringe
• belewing van gasvryheid en verblyf
• duidelike paragrafeing en vloeiendheid
• duidelike verhaalstruktuur/elemente
OF
VRAAG 3
Dit is ouers se plig om hul kinders toe te rus om sosiale druk te hanteer. Skryf twee kontrasterende briewe aan die
pers (300 tot 450 woorde elk),
(a) een ten gunste van die stelling en
(b) een teen die stelling.
Kommentaar
Hierdie onderwerp was nie ŉ gewilde keuse nie. Die onderwerp spel dit duidelik uit hoe die kontrasterende stellings
gebruik moet word. Dit is belangrik dat die kandidate die onderwerp moet analiseer.

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Puntetoekenning: gemiddeld
Nasienskema

• ŉ gepaste aanhef
• styl en formaat
• duidelike paragrafering
• ŉ duidelike struktuur insluitende ŉ inleiding en slot
• ten gunste van die stelling, bv lewenservaring verantwoordelikheid met opvoeding
• teen die stelling, bv kinders is in voeling met die werklikheid
• duidelike motivering van agumente
• retoriese middels
• konsekwente register
• aanvoeling vir die gehoor
OF
VRAAG 4
Alhoewel daar die afgelope dekade groot vordering op die gebied van mediese navorsing gemaak is, het nie almal
toegang daartoe nie. Skryf ŉ webjoernaal/blog waarin jy die stelling krities bespreek.
Kommentaar
Die onderwerp is deur een kandidaat gekies en ŉ uitstekende skryfstuk is aangebied. Die feite het die standpunt bewys
en voorbeelde wat gebruik is, is goed gekies ter ondersteuning.
Puntetoekenning: Uitstekend
Nasienskema

• gepaste taalgebruik
• vorm met korrek wees (blog/webjoernaal)
• duidelike paragrafering en vloeiendheid
• kritiese evaluering van die gegewe stelling
• doletreffende argumente en motivering
• gepaste voorbeelde
• logiese ontwikkeling
• moet na feite verwys en beredenerend wees

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8166
Paper 2
Vraestel 2: Letterkunde
Baie, baie dankie aan elke onderwyser wat ekstra hard gewerk het en soveel moeite gedoen het met die onderrig van
letterkunde. Die standaard van die leerders se antwoorde was hoog. Die duidelike strukturering van die opstelle het
meestal beïndruk. Die vermoë om op die vraag te fokus is duideliker uit die antwoorde.
1 Algemene opmerkings oor die kandidate se beantwoording

Kandidate se beantwoording was werklik goed. Daar kan nog gewerk word aan die eenheid van antwoorde. Elke
antwoord behoort ’n afgeronde eenheid te vorm. Antwoorde is nog dikwels verkap, bestaande uit los dele sonder
skakeling tussen die dele of paragrawe.
Dit sal ook goed wees as julle weer kyk na die riglyne wat verlede jaar onder hierdie opskrif gegee is.
2 Kommentaar op die spesifieke vrae:
AFDELING A: POËSIE
Vraag 1: Gedigte
A Kies twee digters uit die voorgeskrewe lys gedigte. Bespreek maniere waarop die digters die 25
tema van die stad in hulle gedigte uitbeeld.
Merk volgens die kriteria in die nasienskema.
Relevante stellings wat as bewyse aangebied word, moet ook in ag geneem word.
Inhoud kan die volgende punte insluit:

• taalgebruik
• literêre tegnieke
• maniere waarop die digters die tema van die stad uitbeeld
• gebruik van aanhalings
• verwysings na ander tekste
Verskeie kandidate het hierdie vraag beantwoord. Daar word herinner aan verlede jaar se kommentaar.
Die volgende opsies moet in gedagte gehou word by die beantwoording van die vraag.
• Die eerste paragraaf vorm ’n oorkoepelende reaksie op die stadtema. Dit sou kon verwys na verskillende maniere
waarop die stad uitgebeeld kan word. Die uitgangspunt word spesifiek geneem vanuit die twee gekose gedigte
onder bespreking.
• Benadering 1: Vervolgens sou elke digter se werk afsonderlik bespreek kon word. Dit hoef nie noodwendig
vergelykenderwys gedoen te word nie. Die wesentlike perspektief moet uiteindelik belig word. Fokus ook op
tegnieke wat die digters gebruik om die stad effektief uit te beeld. Hoe raak dit die tema? Knap kandidate sou wel
in die besinnende slotparagraaf op die verskil of ooreenkoms in die tematiese benadering wys.
• Benadering 2: Die twee gedigte word telkens in afsonderlike paragrawe oor dieselfde saak bespreek. Daar kan
byvoorbeeld met die titel begin word en die funksie van die titel in elke gedig word bespreek. Die struktuur en die
funksie vir die uitbeelding van die stad sou volgende bespreek kon word. Kom telkens terug na die funksie en rol
van daardie aspek met betrekking tot die uitbeelding van die stad.
• Benadering 3: Die twee gedigte kan in elke paragraaf vergelykenderwys bespreek word. Weer eens is die funksie
van die saak wat bespreek word baie belangrik. Hoe en hoekom gebruik elke digter beeldspraak? Hoe sluit dit aan
by die spesifieke uitbeelding van die stad?

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Vraag Antwoord Punte
B Lewer indringend kommentaar op die manier waarop die digter die tema van liefde in die 25
onderstaande gedig uitbeeld ”Rooiborsduif”


• tema van liefde
• apostroof/vorm van ’n brief
• literêre tegnieke (bv. simboliek (bv. duif, son), letterlike en figuurlike, sterk visuele
uitbeelding (bv. see laat skitter, bome groen), beeldspraak en stylfigure, rym, vrye vers,
bou, afwesigheid van titel, herhaling, toon)
• gebruik van kleur
• progressie
• taalgebruik en woordkeuse
Verskeie kandidate het die vraag beantwoord. Dit is meestal goed beantwoord.
Afdeling B: PROSA
Vraag 2: Kortverhale
Geen kandidaat het hierdie vrae beantwoord nie.

A Bespreek hoe die twee skrywers van Die vader (Björnstjerne Björnson) en Omba muungu 25
(Henk Rall) die karakterontwikkeling van die hoofkarakters uitbeeld.


• maniere waarop karakters ontwikkel
• karakterisering
• verhoudings met ander karakters
• taal- en woordgebruik
• konflik
• temas
• struktuur van verhale
• vertellersperspektief
• aanhalings om stellings te bewys

167
B Lewer indringend kommentaar op die uittreksel uit Bos (Chris Barnard). Bespreek hoe die 25
skrywer spanning en afwagting skep.

• verwysing na spesifieke elemente wat spanning en afwagting skep
• taalgebruik en sinstruktuur
• spanningslyn
• konflik
• karakterisering
• ruimte en atmosfeer
• verteller
• gee duidelike aanhalings om stellings te bewys
• verskaf ook wyer verwysings
Vraag 3: Die uurwerk kantel – Marié Heese

A Bespreek die wyse waarop Marié Heese die verloop van tyd in die roman uitbeeld. 25


• ontleding van die titel
• chronologie en vertelde tyd
• literêre tegnieke
• tipografie
• vertelperspektief
• tema
• verwysings na tyd en gepaste aanhalings
• taal- en woordgebruik
• verwysings na ruimte
Verskeie kandidate het die vraag beantwoord. Antwoorde was meestal goed. Daar is omvattend oor tyd geskryf. Dit
is belangrik om die funksies van die aanbieding en benutting van tyd uit te wys.

168
B Bespreek hoe en met watter effek verlies in die onderstaande uittreksel uitgebeeld word. 25


• tema van verlies
• moederinstink
• gebrek aan punktuasie ondersteun die bewussynstroomtegniek
• innerlike en uiterlike konflik
• oorsake en gevolge,
• karakterisering
• emosionele gelaaide vertelling
• verhoudings tussen karakters
• Ander verwysings na verlies (ter inligting)
- verlies van onskuld (Trui)
- verlies van Schoongezicht
- verlies van dogter, seun, vader
- optrede van Maria telkens na verlies van ’n geliefde
- telkemale die aanbeweeg en versoening met die verlies
- hoe die laaste inskrywing aansluit by die verlies in Maria se lewe
Verskeie kandidate het die vraag beantwoord. Antwoord was bevredigend.
Neem in ag dat die aangehaalde teks die uitgangspunt is. Vandaar word wyer verwys na die res van die teks. Dui ook
aan waarom die spesifieke uittreksel belangrik is in die geheel van die roman.
Vraag 4: Roman
Wildvreemd – Carina Stander

A Bespreek hoe die skrywer spanning in die roman skep deur haar aanbieding van tyd. 25
Relevante stellings wat met aanhalings bewys is, moet ook in ag geneem word.
• ontleding van verwysings na tyd
• funksie van terugflitse
• hoe tydsaanbieding tot spanning lei
• hoe verwysings na tyd die leser help om verhaalelemente chronologies te rangskik
• verskillende perspektiewe deur verskillende ek-vertellers
• waarheid en verdigsel aansluiting by tyd
• struktuur
• verwysings na insidente
’n Minderheid kandidate het hierdie vraag beantwoord. Antwoorde was goed.

169
B Bespreek hoe en met watter effek die natuurtema in die onderstaande uittreksel uitgebeeld 25
word.
Enige relevante stelling wat as bewyse aangebied word, moet ook erken word.
• verwysings na vernieting van die natuur
• verwysings na skoonheid van die natuur
• natuurbeelde
• verwysing na bewaring
• konflik en spanning
• verwysing na ander gebeure
Verskeie kandidate het hierdie vraag beantwoord. Kandidate het in ’n redelike mate geslaag met hulle antwoorde.
Vraag 5: Drama
Kanna hy kô hystoe – Adam Small
Geen sentrum het die drama bespreek nie. Die voorgestelde antwoordmoontlikhede word nogtans aangeheg vir
diegene wat dit in die toekom sou behandel.

A Bespreek die tegnieke wat Adam Small gebruik om by te dra tot die dramatiese effek van 25
die drama.
• struktuur en bou
• bespreking van die minimalistiese verhoog/teater dekor/rekwisiete
• chronologie
• toneelaanwysings (neweteks, ongemaklike stiltes)
• dialoog
• taalgebruik en woordgebruik (bv. herhaling, retoriese vrae, onvoltooide sinne en
gedagtes)
• dramatiese elemente: temas, dramatiese ironie en motiewe
• innerlike en uiterlike konflik
B Bespreek die belang van die onderstaande uittreksel en die dramatiese effek daarvan op 25
die drama as geheel.
• bespreking van die minimalistiese verhoog/teater dekor/rekwisiete
• chronologie
• toneelaanwysings (neweteks, ongemaklike stiltes)
• dialoog
• taalgebruik en woordgebruik (bv. herhaling, retoriese vrae, onvoltooide sinne en
gedagtes)
• dramatiese elemente: temas, dramatiese ironie en motiewe
• innerlike (Kanna se gewetenstryd) en uiterlike konflik
• Kanna se ontwikkeling
• taalgebruik en woordgebruik
• kontras tussen hystoe en huis toe
• verwysing na ander gedeeltes van die drama

170
Vraag 6: Drama
My plaas se naam is Vergenoeg – George Weideman

A Bespreek hoe die dramaturg se gebruik van humor bydra tot die dramatiese effek van die 25
drama.
• bespreking van voorbeelde van humor
• uitwerking van humor op byvoorbeeld spanning, verhoudings
• taalgebruik (dubbelsinnigheid, woordspeling, beeldende taal)
• karakterisering (onder andere naamgewing, dialoog)
• gebruik van karikature
• ironie, sarkasme
Die verskeie kandidate wat die vraag beantwoord het, kon dit bevredigend doen.

B Bespreek die belang van die onderstaande uittreksel en die dramatiese effek daarvan op 25
die drama as geheel.
• humor
• opbou van spanning
• konflik
• karakterisering (onder andere naamgewing, dialoog)
• parallelle tussen diere en mense
• taalgebruik (dubbelsinnigheid, woordspeling, beeldende taal)
• gebruik van karikature
• ironie, sarkasme
• skakels met die res van die toneelstuk
Kandidate wat die vraag beantwoord het, het grootlik daarin geslaag.
3 Positiewe voorstelle
Vir nasienwerk is die memorandum soos hier ingevoeg slegs ’n voorstel vir die beantwoording van die vrae.
Dis nie die maatstaf nie. Vir nasiendoeleindes word die vlakgebaseerde nasienskema as uitgangspunt gebruik.
Daarom is dit belangrik dat elke opstel ’n duidelike en afgeronde eenheid moet vorm wat die spesifieke vraag met
genoegsame bewyse beantwoord.
Kandidate wat langer skryf en hulle tyd voluit benut, is geneig om hoër punte te kry omdat die opstelle dan meer
omvattend en uitgebreid is.
Die harde werk wat elkeen van julle gedoen het, blyk uit die antwoorde van die kandidate. Baie dankie nogmaals.
Baie sterkte en vrede vir 2023.

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172
FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH
8167
Paper 1
General
Candidates should manage their time carefully, allocating an hour for each of the paper. Candidates should also
allocate a set amount of time to: analyse the question; plan, write and edit.
“Candidates need to demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the linguistic elements and features of texts such
as part of speech/word classes, vocabulary, figurative language, phonology, morphology, rhetorical devices, voice,
aspect, tense, modality, narrative perspective, word ordering and sentence structure, discourse markers, paragraph and
text-level structure, formality/informality of tone, pragmatics.”
“Candidates should develop an intimate knowledge and understanding of the conventions and discourses associated
with the genres, styles and contexts, enabling them to respond reflectively, analytically, discursively and creatively, as is
appropriate to the task or context.”
Errors in expression, spelling, sentence construction and tense selection were prevalent in weaker answers.
Malapropisms and tautology also frequented the essays. In addition, high frequency words dominated the writing
pieces. Candidates need to be taught to express themselves more eloquently. Further grammar (relative pronouns,
homonyms (effect, affect etc.), punctuation etc.) needs attention.
Candidates should pay more attention to writing catchy introductions and conclusions.
For Question 1 (a) your Junior Mayor has asked you to write a speech which will be included as part of a
podcast in which you discuss what it means to be a good citizen of your country. Write your speech using no
more than 400 words.
The following deserved mentioning in the speech:
Indicative content:
The conventions of the speech genre had to be adhered to.
Basic conventions of a speech are:
• The greeting of the audience (This was often missing.)

• A catching introduction (introducing the main idea of the speech was expected). Candidates should be dissuaded
from writing introductions like: “My name is … Today, I would like to tell you…”
• Clear body paragraphs that discuss the different ways of being a good citizen. These need to be developed well
(Point, elaboration/explanation, example)
• The command word “Discuss” means that the style should be informative with a detailed discussion of the topic.
Candidates could have focused on the effect of being a good citizen.
• Rhetorical devices may have been added to add a persuasive element to the discussion.
• Characterisation is important.
• Candidates were expected to use modal verbs in their responses.
• Contributions to make society a better place. Many candidates merely focused on character traits like kindness,
altruism etc. Even though these are correct, they still had to be linked to the contributions such characters can
make to make society a better place.
• The fact that the junior mayor asked the speaker to write the speech
• Style: the topic and the fact that the junior mayor requested the speech expected you to write a formal speech.
However, since it was a podcast, informal speeches were acceptable.
• Focus should be on “What it means to be a good citizen of Namibia”.
There was this misconception that the junior mayor wrote the speech.
The weaker speeches, unfortunately, rather adhered to the conventions of articles with no real sense of voice.

173
It is important to note that even though speeches can be informal, high frequency words, like a lot of, things, got etc.,
should still be avoided.
Candidates will definitely benefit from proper question analysis. There was also a discrepancy in applying pronouns
and tenses which could have been avoided with proper question analysis.
1 (b) Reflective commentary

Candidates should be aware that an analysis expects them to provide examples and mention the effects
of the linguistic choices. Candidates generally struggled to use the correct jargon to refer to their linguistic
devices. In addition, examples of the devices used were not given. They also struggled to link the devices to
the effect they have on the audience and purpose. Candidates might benefit from focusing each sentence on
the following: device, example, creating (form/ structure) linked to audience and purpose.
Eg: The personification, “the canopy of leaves protected me”, reveals how the secret place instils a sense of
safety in the narrator which in turn appeal to pathos to fully engage the reader.
• Candidates’ choices of form, structure and language
• Analysis of how these stylistic choices relate to audience and shape meaning
• Candidates’ use of modality, pronouns and rhetorical devices
Candidates were expected to use the first-person and second-person pronouns
• Candidates’ awareness of generic and formal conventions of the purpose and form prescribed in
the task.
Candidates should understand how to write a speech and a podcast and link this to the purpose and form of
the task.
• Candidates’ analysis of how their choices shape audience response
• Many weaker responses identified some basic language and structural features but needed more in
the way of analysis. Often, appropriate linguistic terminology was not used, as in this example: ‘My
writing was effective because of the words I chose.’ Others did not attempt to analyse the effect of the
linguistic choices they had made, simply commenting, ‘I wrote my speech with an informal tone’. Some
candidates attempted analysis but used general phrases such as, ‘This makes the speech flow better’.
• Many included basic general commentary on the content of their speech with no relevant language or
structural points being made. Others wrote about basic things such as having written in paragraphs ‘to
make the email easier to read’ or having used commas ‘to create a list.’
• The weakest responses simply summarised the speech and some candidates wrote very little,
sometimes just a few sentences.
Section B
2 (a) The editor of a creative writing website has asked you to contribute a descriptive piece of writing
about your secret place. In your writing, create a sense of atmosphere: focus on colours, sound and
movement to help the reader imagine the scene.
Write your essay for the website, using between 600 and 900 words.
Indicative content:
• Descriptive language (describing a secret place)
• Clear paragraphing (setting, stimulation, feeling, benefit)
• Literary devices such as visual, olfactory, gustatory, auditory and tactile imagery to create atmosphere
and mood, or to relay colour display.
• A sense of voice
• Sentimentality should be created
• A clear descriptive structure focusing less on narrative
Some really creative descriptions were written by the stronger candidates. However, descriptive writing
definitely deserves more attention in class. The weaker candidates merely wrote expository essays or
narrations instead of descriptions. Needless to say, no atmosphere was created at all. There was a tendency
to focus more on how to get to the secret place rather than describing the secret place.
TENSE: rather opt for the present tense to write a descriptive essay.
PRONOUNS: Candidates were expected to write from the first-person point of view as the question requests
them to “contribute a descriptive piece of writing about your secret place.”

174
3. Your English teacher has organised a debating competition about using technology in the classroom. Write two
contrasting speeches (300 – 450 words each) about using technology in the classroom. (a) one in favour of it
and (b) the other opposing it.
Indicative content:
• An appropriate greeting for each speech
• A clear structure which includes logically sequenced paragraphs
• “For technology” in one speech, “against technology” in the opposing speech
• Rhetorical devices
Since this is a debate, candidates must know that they need to write an argumentative/persuasive speech.
Rhetorical devices are thus very important.
• Consistent register
• Juxtaposition of points
Since this is a debating competition, candidates were expected to juxtapose their arguments properly.
Of all the speeches in this debating competition, about 65% of the learners did not even greet their audience.
• Focus should be on “technology in the classroom”
Candidates often wandered off into mere generic discussions of the pros and cons of technology. Question
analysis should rectify this problem.
4. Write an article about a recent inter-school sporting event for your school magazine. Your writing should focus
on promoting a high level of competitive sports while establishing values of fair play and sportsmanship. Use
examples of the sports activities and sportspeople to support your argument. Write between 600 – 900 words.
It was disconcerting that some learners did not know what an inter-school sporting event is comprised of.
In fact, some wrote articles based on interhouse sporting events. Nonetheless, most candidates covered
the subcategories of the prompt.
Unfortunately, the article conventions were seldomly adhered to as most learners merely wrote reports or
basic expository essays, losing the essence of the article. However, good candidates wrote some really
refreshing responses to this question.
Indicative content:
Main heading
Subheading
Most learners who responded to this question had main headings and subheadings. Unfortunately, the main
headings were not very creative.
• A clear structure which included logically sequenced paragraphs
• Sense of place
• Even (type of sporting activity) needs to be clearly established.
Both the sense of place and sporting activity were usually well-established by the candidates.
Since the candidates were asked to promote, rhetorical devices were expected. However, the rhetorical devices
fell by the wayside as the candidates did not really understand what was expected of them.
• Consistent register
• Positive tone
The tone and sense of voice were often lost as many wrote merely expository essays or report in response to
this prompt.
• Sentence structures and punctuation for effect
These were seldomly used for effect.
• Clear reflection, might add some criticism
Since this is a reflection, candidates are expected to write the article in the past tense. No criticism was
detected.

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Paper 2
Key messages
• Option (A) discursive essays should analyse specific details of the text within the argument presented.
• Option (B) passage questions may usefully place the passage in the wider text as a relevant context.
General comments
The general standard was satisfactory with the large majority of candidates showing at least a sound knowledge of the
set texts. Some responses reflected mismanagement of time as several answers were incomplete. Moreover, too many
students wrote very short, basic answers. The quality of expression was sound in most cases, but there are too many
candidates that displayed expressive weaknesses which can impede communication at this level.
There were no responses on the drama As you like it, and the (A) question on the novel, All The Bright Places. Answers
reflecting a wide range of performance were seen on each of the texts attempted by the candidates.
Furthermore, there were a number of answers based on the passage questions where the candidates seemed to have
little knowledge of the textual context or understanding of its significance to the wider text. At this level of assessment,
it is fundamental to a successful answer that candidates will know their texts well and have some understanding of the
basic elements of the text in its genre. For instance, only one candidate identified the extract from Woza Albert! as
the exposition of the drama, and could write a solid answer on the significance of the extract. Therefore, without the
necessary knowledge and understanding as basis on which to build an interpretation, the essays were often generalised
and restricted and severely limited.
Moreover, candidates should always spend some time in planning their response and deciding what material is
relevant to their interpretation before beginning to write their essay. The lack of planning might lead to the opening of
an essay being too generalised and drifting into contextual speculation from which it is sometimes difficult to regain the
appropriate focus on the given task.
Assessment Objective L2 from the Literature in English syllabus states that candidates should ‘analyse ways in which
writers’ choices of language, form and structure shape meanings and effects’. Candidates attempting option (B)
passage questions often did not adhere to meeting this Assessment Objective in their responses to the given passage.
They often only wrote a narrative summary or paraphrased the extract, instead of focusing on the ways in which writers
use language, form and structure to shape meaning. This applied for those candidates attempting option (A) questions,
the discursive essay, too, since they seldom provided evidence that they are able to do this, by quoting or referring
closely to specific moments in the text. Therefore, irrespective of choosing option (A) or (B) candidates should
discuss all references in detail, focusing on the writer’s choices and exploring what for the candidate are the effects of
those choices.
Candidates responding to option (B) passage questions, who briefly place the passage within the wider work it is
selected from, often write more focused and relevant answers. Some candidates could benefit from considering this
approach, as it will give a context to their interpretation of the passage itself, as well as providing evidence of knowledge
of the text. This equally applies to passages from poetry selections as well as the drama texts.
Furthermore, rhetorical questions should be limited as a literary essay focuses on analyses of the given text. Also, any
philosophical discussions should be avoided at all times. The focus should be on the ways the writers use language,
form and style to create meaning. If a candidate starts their analysis with “In the novel/poem/drama the writer/poet/
playwright writes about…” it reflects a narrative summary of paraphrase of the given text.

Section A: POETRY
Question 1: Poems
(a) All the centres opted for poetry as one of the selected genres. Please note that poetry is optional on this
level.
Some very weak responses discussed poems from the selection which did not apparently present
prejudice – Sir Walter Scott - Soldier, Rest!, Bronté - Last Lines, Shakespeare – Sonnet 19, Cassidy – Sons,
Departing and Owen - Futility. The success of the essays based on these choices were very limited. Weak
answers chose at least one relevant poem and were often able to show some knowledge of the basic
meaning of the poems. Some implicit sense of the poetic methods to comment on the effect of prejudice
and the chosen format to support their feelings improved the responses, though in many weak essays there
was very little evidence of any appreciation of the genre or that the works were poems. Comments such as
‘In Dhakar’s poem we see that in the first stanza she hands her passport to the officer and the officer also
had a surprised reaction when going through her passport’ is a vague and unsupported comment. Also, to
list or mention imagery only, and linking it to pathos, for instance, ‘It can also be seen as organic imagery,

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as the man on the phone is shocked by her questioning, giving and appeal to pathos emotions’ tends to
be incomplete as no mentioning is made to the way in which the poet presents the shock and the effect it
creates. More competent responses made wiser choices of material to discuss with Dharker’s These are
the Times We Live in, Soyinka’s “Telephone Conversation”, Duffy’s Foreign and Hendriks’ The Migrant, the
most popular choices. Answers at this level showed understanding of the theme and were able to offer a
comparison of the chosen poems, although it is not expected, often treating each poem separately with a
summative, comparative conclusion which most often is the more effective approach. Better answers at this
level explored some of the poetic methods, often the language and the imagery, with often some relevant
context added in support of the interpretation. Good answers focused on the writing of their chosen poems,
exploring how the different choices of form, rhythm and rhyme, as well as language and imagery, enable the
poets to create different tones and emotions in the readers. Very good responses developed such points
into sophisticated interpretations of the poets’ presentations of prejudice, with apt quotations and a use of
appropriate contexts.
Answer
Responses might include the following points:
• clear understanding of the theme of prejudice-definition/application and how each poet either conforms
or deviates from it
• context
• linguistic devices (e.g. sentence structures)
• literary devices (eg repetition, antithesis, metaphors
• tone and atmosphere
• narrative voice
(b) Nearly all answers were able to explore the poem with some knowledge and understanding. Very weak
answers, however, ignored the use of the sonnet completely, as well as language usage and appeared to
be responding as to an unseen poem since almost no quotations were used, with consequent
weaknesses in understanding and the discussion. Answers in the lower levels often attempted a
paraphrase of the poem, with some able to recognise the poem’s form and use of literary devices,
although to a limited extend. Answers which were able to shape the paraphrase partly to the topic of the
question, ‘comfort’, did better at this level. Many weaker responses reflected incorrect spelling of literary
terms, such as ‘quartet’ instead of ‘quatrain’. Weaker answers would also only list literary devices, or
rely heavily on different imagery without developing the effect of these in the given text. More competent
answers showed knowledge and understanding of Duffy’s’ use of structure, “it creates a sense of comfort
as the structure of an English sonnet always stays the same” as one candidate mentioned. The more
competent answers also reflected on the melancholic but hopeful tone, with some referring to the use of
sibilance as “almost lyrical…associated with a shushing sound”, and to some extent possible
interpretations of the poem. At this level these tended to be asserted with occasional supporting
quotations, and candidates who were able to show some awareness of Duffy’s poetic choices tended
to do better. Good answers developed this further, often starting from a consideration of Duffy’s poetic
methods, for example, the use of the sonnet form, using this to lead naturally into considering the
question in more detail. Many good responses offered multiple interpretations of the poem’s meaning
and where such arguments were supported by detailed analysis of the language and imagery, the
answers were very good. These essays rose to the challenge of exploring the language, the symbols
and the imagery, often developing convincing interpretations on the strength of the analysis. More
assured and perceptive analyses considered the effects of the language and imagery in sophisticated
detail, for instance, the ‘structure of the stanza and the placement of the titular allusion in the first line
instead of the last, conveys the desperation of the character for relief from the loss’, as one suggested.
Other sophisticated answers saw the tone as soothing and melancholic, even suggesting that Duffy uses
personification and sibilance to enforce the tone, with the focus on “a sudden gift” as ‘“the minims sung
by a tree” creates the allusion to music which introduces the surprise of the woman at the unexpected
nature of the comfort. The allusion supports the emotional notes of this line as music is often a
therapeutic experience…and it described as a “sudden gift” which evinces that the emotions the woman
experiences are overwhelmingly positive, even though it is unexpected’, as one answer put it. Such
arguments were at times supported by appropriate biographical context and did very well.
Answer
Responses might include the following features:
• clear understanding of the theme and how Duffy either conforms or deviates from it
• sonnet structure and its conventions
• a clear link as to how a prayer is associated with comfort in each stanza-emphasis on the ‘stages or
alternatives to prayer
• linguistic devices (e.g. sentence structures)
• literary devices (eg repetition (anaphora), antithesis, metaphors
• tone and atmosphere
• narrative voice

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SECTION B: PROSE
Question 2: Short Stories
(a) Candidates were able to select appropriate examples of the protagonists’ feelings of guilt and their
reactions to the consequences of their actions in both stories. Some answers showed evidence of
sound use of quotation to support points made, which is important in an (a) question, although the
majority of candidates relied heavily on summarising the two stories. Moreover, many candidates
need to develop the ability to go further to develop a response to the phrase ‘ways in which’, by
commenting on the effects of language or structure in those quotations. This is much more effective
than merely listing details of the plot which illustrate feelings of guilt and reconciliation or the lack of
it. There was, though, some effective discussion of the symbol of the watermelons and the letters,
as well as some of the actions which detailed the reactions of both Mr Wills and the aunt in the
respective stories. Some also discussed ways in which the stories showed the possibility of a
coming of age, with the boy’s invading his aunt’s privacy, leading to the destruction of their
relationship, and the young boy’s realisation that stealing and destroying the watermelons were
malicious and mean. Few candidates commented on the presentation of the stories, where Deal,s
story effectively starts with the protagonist sharing his memories, developing to the climax where he
grows into a young adult who deliberately makes amends, while MacLaverty starts his story at the
deathbed of the young boy’s aunt, ending with the hope that ‘she might forgive him’.
Answer
• linguistic devices-diction related to guilt
• literary devices (e.g. personification and metaphors, onomatopoeia, emotive language)
• reference to the atmosphere and tone presented by the boys’ actions (reading the letters; stealing the
watermelon) which ultimately lead to their guilt, their disquiet in their wrongdoing/focus on forgiveness
• the narrative voice
(b) This question could not be answered successfully as the question and extract were from different stories.
Answer
• linguistic devices
• literary devices (e.g. personification)
• use of symbols and motifs
• narrative voice
• atmosphere
• tone
Question 3: J.M. COETZEE: Life & Times of Michael K
(a) Nearly every response was able to select some relevant material with which to address the task.
Weaker answers often explained the background to Michael K and retold his story, often in quite
accurate detail, though with only sporadic reference to the given task. At this level, awareness of
the importance of the settings and the different narrative voices is imperative as both techniques link
to the presentation of freedom in the novel. More competent answers explored the idea of how the
third-person narrator focuses on Michael K’s defiance of authority, his lack of being imprisoned by
kindness or violence and the inevitable longing to embrace K’s idea of freedom. Very few
candidates managed to write a successful response, often making vague statements such as
‘Michael K experienced freedom when his mother died’, instead of developing K’s feelings about
his mother’s death and how he was still bound to her and her final wish. Moreover, the way in
which Coetzee presents K’s character also links closely to the theme of freedom as he values it as
much as he values survival. This can especially be seen in the exposition of the two sides of the
title, which could have been discussed in more detail, especially in the light of K’s connection to
the earth. The ending of the novel also suggests that the only freedom K can find is in his dreams,
which leaves the reader wondering if there is only freedom in dreams.
Answer
• Presentation of protagonist
• Settings link to freedom
• Narrative voice/s
• Power of retaliation/defiance of authority
• Violence
• Relationships

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(b) Most responses were able to give at least a broad context to the passage. Weaker answers tended
to retell the events that had led to this moment in the text and showed some knowledge of
character and plot. Weak answers lost focus of the question and made no reference to the way
in which Coetzee presents the fate of the oppressed, but rather paraphrased the passage. Better
answers at this level did focus on some of the detail and were able to explain the presentation of the
surroundings in which the characters found themselves, whereas some candidates mentioned the
symbol of the stars in both the first and last paragraph. Weaker candidates only focused on
imagery and manipulated the material to suit their answers by referring to visual, auditory, Kairos
and kinesthetic imagery without developing the effect it creates and at times misinterpreting the
images. More competent answers looked at the presentation in detail, showing understanding of
Coetzee’s use of imagery and sensory devices. As one candidate noted: ‘Robert’s skepticism of the
camp is portrayed through hypophora and rhetorical questions…which demonstrate his suspicious
reasoning with and about the unethical police and military intervention which can be seen
throughout the novel.’ These were often informed by some awareness of appropriate
contexts – such as Robert’s monologue, which presents the plight of the oppressed as a universal
ordeal, using a list-like technique with the repetition of ‘then’ to highlight the ongoing plight of the
oppressed. Such ideas were developed further in good essays, where the details of Coetzee’s style
– language and inclusion of dialogue for a realistic effect, for example, were often well discussed.
Other good answers looked at his use of telling details in Robert’s monologue, such as the irony
created in ‘nothing personal’ and ‘You get a choice and you choose Jakkalsdrif’, and how these are
used to underpin the desperate plight of the oppressed, here and in the wider novel. As one
candidate mentioned ‘Irony is used to bring to light the absurdity of the fate of the oppressed
individuals as shown by a government that pretends to value their lives’ Where such analysis was
developed to consider the effects of these choices and how they might differ from reader to reader,
the answers often did very well.
Answer
• Imagery: visual, auditory
• Monologue of Robert
• Use of dialogue
• Irony of choices/help offered/ignorance of suffering
• Symbol of star – cyclical effect
Question 4: JENNIFER NIVEN: All the Bright Places
(a) There were no responses to this question.

Answer
• use of symbols and motifs
• narrative voice/s
• atmosphere
• tone
(b) There were not many responses to this question. Most answers were a narrative summary
focusing on Violet’s feelings without any reference to the ways in which Niven presents her pain and
guilt about her sister’s death. There was some acknowledgment of the use of language to present
her feelings of guilt, as well as the shorter paragraphs indicating how she views the changes she
is struggling with. The short sentences in the first two paragraphs were almost never mentioned,
neither the illogical reaction to her sister’s death which she tries to normalise while sharing her
innermost thoughts. No mention was made to the idea that her thoughts are personal and
reflective, highlighting her pain and guilt. There were very few successful responses which rely on
the close observation of the details of the writing of the passage.
Answer
• use of symbols (letter from Ryan)
• narrative voice – sad, reflecting, withdrawn
• background information setting scene
• tone

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SECTION C: DRAMA
Question 5: WILLIAM SHAKESPEARE: As you like it
(a) There were too few responses to this question to make a general comment appropriate.
Answer
• Appearance versus reality
• Use of attire
• Interlinkage between love and gender
• Assist in revealing characters’ true nature
• literary devices
• humour
• different types of love
(b) There were no responses to this question.

Answer
• literary devices (metaphor)
• structure
• humour
• pretence and disguise
• different stages of life
Question 6: PERCY MTWA, MBONGENI NGEMA and BARNEY SIMON: Woza Albert!
(a) Almost every response had sufficient knowledge of the text with which to address the task. The
main focus of almost every essay was on the use of different languages (macaronic text),
ignoring the second part of the question in which they needed to state how it contributed to the
dramatic effect of the play. Weaker answers tended to summarise the drama in connection to the
era it portrayed, often with good detail and some relevant personal response. Better answers at this
level showed some understanding of the playwrights concern with the language of the oppressed
versus those who are in power as all the songs are freedom songs sung in Zulu, and the language
of the oppressor being Afrikaans. Others considered how the different languages added humour
and flattery, both survival techniques the oppressed had to employ. More competent answers linked
the different languages to other concerns, such as derogative attitudes, for example, with many
referring appropriately to the Apartheids Era as a dark part of South Africa’s history. Good answers
looked in detail at the methods and their effects, particularly the language and the speed in which
the scenes and language changed, so as to cover more than a dozen different scenes, all of equal
importance. Other good answers reflected on the use of Afrikaans and Zulu throughout with the
dramatic text providing translations, linking it to the role of the media and the effort to accommodate
international audiences, to create sympathy from those who were suffering because of the system.
Very good responses were alive to the dramatic tensions created through the use of Afrikaans
words such as ‘bobbejaan’ which ‘clearly demonstrated the absurdity and political commentary’ as
one stated, as well as the way ‘Mtwa, Ngema and Simon reveal the awful truth to a horrified
audience.’ or, as one wrote ‘Zulu is used in the play to show a depth of emotion…. when blacks
enter in an argument, or recall fond memories or talk of hope and change, it flows from their spirit.’
Where such interpretations were supported by precise and relevant quotation the answers often did
very well.
Answer
• identify and analyse the linguistic or literary devices
• speed of delivery of words
• humour and flattery
• authoritarianism
• secure justification of arguments
• satire
• oppression
• importance of class/hierarchy
• absurdity of the entire apartheid system

180
(b) In response to the question few candidates were able to place the passage into the context of
the wider text, recognising it as the first scene where the political landscape is set, although most
answers showed at least some knowledge and understanding of the significance of the passage.
There were, however, some very weak answers which struggled with relating basic knowledge
and tended to either summarise the extract, often with little direct reference to the passage, or to
paraphrase the passage in detail. Better answers at this level showed understanding of the stage
directions, ‘Pulls Mbogeni by his track-suit’ which ‘supports the violence enforced on those who
were without power’ as one stated. Sounder answers considered the symbol of the pass and the
way Percy interrogates Mbongeni as setting the scene against which the play will develop, as well
as the conversations Percy has with the audience, to show the arrogance of the white policeman to
assume the audience will feel the same. Good answers analysed the use of the words ‘chuckling
collusively’ to explain the dramatic effects being created and the method to include the audience
even against their will. Others looked closely at the effect of the language especially in the
derogative Afrikaans words which ‘clearly shows that whites had a disdain for blacks’ as one stated
when Percy addresses Mbongeni, and the way Mbongeni would humble himself by using words of
praise. Well informed answers focused on how this first scene, sets the scene for Morena’s arrival
as the circumstances are bleak and depicts ‘a broken system, as blacks were expected to learn
Afrikaans to be more desirable workers’ as one stated. Those who could blend their contextual
points with a grasp of the dramatic methods in the exposition often did very well.
Answer
• exposition: setting the scene for the audience
• tone: offensive, patronising
• identify linguistic devices
• police brutality
• erasure of the black man’s identity/pass
• stage directions
• attitude
• satire/mockery/caricature/ridicule/scorn
• lack of work opportunities
• poverty
• white supremacy/black inferiority
Positive suggestions to teachers

• Teachers should discourage students to use superfluous expressions such as “astute lexis”, “palpably presented”,
“vividly uses anaphora” or “clearly uses lexis” These expressions are arbitrary and does not constitute a personal
response.
• Whenever a reference is made to literary techniques such as the structure of the poem, rhyme and rhythm, or
pathos and ethos, it is imperative that the student gives a reason why it is important.
• Teachers should instruct students not to start their answers with a quote. It is better to teach students to start their
writing with a solid thesis statement, which they then continue to prove by using strong points, evidence and
analysis.
• It is important to note that one should not quote chunks, neither should quotes be “tagged on”. It is important to
develop any reference made to the text.
• Also note that when analysing an extract or poem, it is imperative to focus on the entire text. If a poem has four
stanzas, the importance of all the stanzas in relation to the task need to be discussed. Moreover, when answering
the (b) part of the question paper, candidates should not rely heavily on parts outside the given extract.
• It is not necessary at this level to explain literary devices. Rather discuss the effect created by the specific image
than wasting time to give a definition of it.
• Lastly, teach the candidates to refrain from counting words. There is no word limit and it wastes valuable time.

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182
FIRST LANGUAGE GERMAN
8168
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
This was the second written external examination under the new syllabus. During the first examination session two
candidates wrote this paper, and in 2022 there are three candidates. Having attended a very thorough standardization
session with Cambridge last year, the teachers marking this time round were fully equipped.
In this paper in Teil A, Aufgabe 1 is compulsory. This question consists of two parts, (a) and (b). The article for the school
newspaper about the school offering a soup kitchen as from next year was managed successfully by all the candidates.
The marker sometimes wondered whether two of the candidates had fully understood the term soup kitchen, though.
Two candidates provided a good reflective commentary (b) on their own written work stemming from (a), but the third
candidate wrote a far too short reflection. The trend of delivering differential quality in (a) and (b) was not observed this
year as the language skills differed immensely among the candidates.
Thereafter, the candidates are offered three options in Teil B. One topic has to be answered. Two candidates chose
Aufgabe 2 and one Aufgabe 3. Aufgabe 4 was not considered by any of the candidates, most probably because they
found the contents of Aufgabe 2 and 3 more appealing to them. Aufgabe 2 was actually a descriptive essay about
the day the grandparents moved to an old age home. Candidates had to express their feelings of that day and share
positive memories. Both candidates managed this topic well, one showcasing excellent language skills. However, the
other one did not reach the number of words by quite a margin. The third candidate lacked a bit of depth in his speeches
about the industrial development of his city. The candidate coped well with the format.
For this examination session, the format, was not difficult to the candidates, as well as the time frame of two hours,
twice for 600 to 900 words altogether for Aufgabe 1 and then one for Aufgabe of Teil B. Candidates seemed to be well
prepared for the time frame, although one candidate really seemed to struggle with the number of words that had to
be written. Paragraphs were observed. The use of vocabulary, more complex sentences and the structuring of the
arguments were presented on different levels. Learners have to be encouraged to “stick to the topic”, although the new
syllabus allows for a wide range of arguments. Learners should also be guided in providing depth for their arguments.
It was pleasing to see that all three candidates did their planning.
The subject German First Language was written during the second week of the examination session. Languages are
practical subjects and with all the other subjects being written in English. Thus writing German early, the greater are
the chances of them demonstrating “weaker” language skills. Writing the paper in the second week should have been
much appreciated.
The mark scheme is incorporated in this report to guide the teachers for future preparation and marking guidelines.
(See the attached mark scheme).
Teil A
Aufgabe 1
Der Redakteur / die Redakteurin ihrer Schülerzeitung hat Sie gebeten, einen Artikel zu dem Thema Suppenküchen
zu schreiben. Eine Suppenküche für die bedürftige Gemeinschaft soll nämlich im kommenden Jahr an Ihrer Schule
angeboten werden.
(a) Schreiben Sie einen Artikel mit treffendem Titel für Ihre Schülerzeitung. Schreiben Sie etwa 400 Wörter.
(b) Schreiben Sie einen reflektierenden Kommentar zu Ihrem eigenen Artikel, in dem Sie erklären,
wie Ihre sprachlichen Entscheidungen dazu beigetragen haben die im Teil (a) gestellte Aufgabe zu
erfüllen. Schreiben Sie etwa 200 Wörter.
Allgemeine Richtlinien des Erwartungshorizontes sollten beachtet werden. Es folgen nur die spezifischen Richtlinien zu
den einzelnen Fragen. Hier muss vermerkt werden, dass diese möglichen Antworten nicht vollständig sind, und jegliche
anderen sinnvollen Punkte anerkannt werden sollten.

183
Aufgabe 1 (a)
• Titel, evtl. Untertitel
• relevante Informationen zu Suppenküchen / Sinn und Zweck
• Gründe für und gegen die Einführung von einer Suppenküche an der Schule
• Erwartungshaltung an die Suppenküche, z. B. sind alle Schüler beteiligt, wo kommen die Zutaten her, u. Ä.
• evtl. soziales Stigma nennen
Aufgabe 1 (b)
• Wahl der Form, der Struktur und der Sprache des Kandidaten / der Kandidatin
• Analyse dessen, wie die Wahl der stilistischen Aspekte sich auf die Zielgruppe bezieht und Bedeutung erzielt
• Gebrauch von Pronomen und rhetorischen Mitteln erläutern
• Wahl und Gebrauch der strukturellen Aspekte erläutern
• Welche Vorgehensweise hat der Schüler / die Schülerin gewählt und diese dann erläutern
• Hat der Schüler / die Schülerin sprachlich die Zielgruppe erreicht
Teil B
Aufgabe 2
Schweren Herzens muss sich Ihre Familie dazu entscheiden, die Großeltern in ein Altersheim zu geben. Erzählen Sie
von der Atmosphäre an dem Tag, als der Umzug stattfindet. Schildern Sie parallel mit Ihren Gefühlen die Erinnerung
an vergangene, unbeschwerte Tage mit den Großeltern. Schreiben Sie 600 bis 900 Wörter.
• Titel
• beschreibende Sprache
• klare Abschnitte
• spezifische Situation skizzieren, z. B. Gründe für den Umzug
• Parallelen und Unterschiede zwischen Gegenwart und Vergangenheit (evtl. Nostalgie, Schuldgefühle)
• Stimmigkeit, Atmosphäre, Gefühle, z. B. Bedauern, Erleichterung, Gehässigkeit, finanzielle Überlegungen
• Reaktion von betroffenen Personen schildern
Aufgabe 3
Die Verwaltung Ihrer Region hat vorgeschlagen, die industrielle Entwicklung stark voranzutreiben. Dieser Vorschlag
wird von den Bürgern heftig diskutiert.
Schreiben Sie zwei Ansprachen an die Mitbürger Ihrer Stadt, die sich vom Inhalt her widersprechen. Die eine Ansprache
plädiert für die industrielle Entwicklung, die andere dagegen. Jede Ansprache sollte zwischen 300 und 450 Worten lang
sein.
• ein angemessener Gruß
• Vorteile: z. B. Arbeitsbeschaffung (u. a. Jugend bleibt vor Ort), Verbesserung der Infrastruktur, Lebensstandard,
finanzieller Aufschwung, Investitionen, internationales Interesse, Globalisierung (Import, Export), u. Ä.
• Nachteile: z. B. Umweltschäden (Luft, Wasser, Lärm), Zerstörung von Habitat, Stressfaktoren, Verkehrs- und
Strukturprobleme, soziale Übel (Alkohol, Gewalt), soziale Entfremdung (Gefahren für die Großfamilien), u. Ä.
• Gegenüberstellung der Gegenargumente, wenn zutreffend
Aufgabe 4
Schreiben Sie einen Blogeintrag, in dem Sie versuchen, Ihre Freunde davon zu überzeugen, zu einer Demonstration
für die Gleichheit der Geschlechter zu gehen. Schreiben Sie zwischen 600 und 900 Wörtern.
• eine angemessene Form des Blogs soll eingehalten werden
• Titel
• passende Einleitung
• potentielle / überzeugende Argumente für die Gleichheit bringen, z. B. Menschenrechte, gleiche Chancen auf
verschiedenen Ebenen (u. a. Gehalt, Ausbildung, Anstellung, Aufstiegschancen), Verankerung in der Verfassung,
auch Männer profitieren von der Gleichheit u. Ä.
• durchgehend passendes Register

184
8168
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
This was the second written external examination under the new syllabus. During the first examination session, two
candidates wrote this paper, in 2022 there are three candidates entered. Having attended a very thorough cross
language marking standardization session(First languages English Afrikaans, German) in 2021 with Cambridge 2021,
the markers for both components were well-equipped with the necessary marking and assessment skills.
In the Literature paper, candidates are presented with twelve questions. The examination question paper consists
of three sections. Section 1 offers an A and a B question with regard to the prescribed poems. Section 2 offers
six questions, two questions (A and B) covering the prescribed short stories, two questions (A and B) covering “Die
verlorene Ehre der Katharina Blum” and two questions (A and B) covering “Homo Faber”. From these six questions
only one could be answered. Section 3 offers the candidates four questions. The first two (A and B) cover the drama
“Der gute Mensch von Sezuan” and the other two (A and B) cover the drama “Die Physiker”. From these four questions
the candidates could answer one. Altogether candidates have to answer two questions, coming from two different
sections. Each answer has to be between 600 and 900 words in length, although the question paper does not specify
it specifically to allow for a creative approach. The A questions in each section are without any text extract, whereas all
the B questions have an extract of the prose, drama, short stories or poem. Two candidates coped well with the length
of the answers, while one candidate was very brief in the answering attempt, with too little information in the content.
Paragraphs were observed, this time around, however sometimes less successful.
Two candidates choose to answer question A of the short stories, where candidates had to judge about the “Todesurteil”,
while comparing the two short stories “Trockendock” and “Gottesurteil”. One candidate reduced the comparison to own
religious perception and thus restricted the analysis to “Gottesurteil” while ignoring the theme “Todesurteil”. The other
candidate showed great insight into the two short stories and presented a thorough analysis.
One candidate choose section B of the short stories, “Die Probe” but had difficulties to formulate the arguments and
thus was very brief with her analysis. The atmosphere of danger and subsequently relief has been observed but could
have been substantiated with more reference to the given text extract. The end of that essay was quite abrupt, without
further in depth arguments, thus gave the impression of incompleteness.
For the second question to be answered from a different section, all candidates opted for the drama “Die Physiker”.
The strongest candidate opted for section B and successfully incorporated the instruction to establish the “absolute
Schlüsselrolle” into a structured and lively argumentation. He substantiated all his arguments to the given extract. The
other candidates based their arguments onto the “Verantwortung der Wissenschaftler”, while the weakest candidate
only wrote an extremely brief answer with only a general reference to the context of the drama. The third candidate
concentrated mainly on retelling the story with hardly analyzing the contents.
In general, it can be said that two candidates were well prepared for the questions they choose, while one candidate
struggled to grasp what was expected. German First Language was written during the second week of the examination
session. Languages are practical subjects and with all the other subjects written in English, the German learners have a
greater chance of demonstrating “weaker” language skills. Writing the paper in the second week could have been much
appreciated. It was lively and refreshing to mark, although the handwritings were a challenge.
Please, see the attached mark scheme with possible answers that serve as a guide during marking.

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Teil A: LYRIK
Frage 1 Gedichte
Frage Antwort Note

A Wählen Sie zwei Gedichte aus Ihrer vorgeschriebenen Liste zur Thematik „Liebe“. Vergleichen 25
und analysieren Sie, wie diese zwei von Ihnen gewählten Gedichte die Wichtigkeit der Liebe in
unserer vergänglichen Welt sehen und interpretieren.
Antworten der Schüler/Schülerinnen könnten folgende Punkte enthalten:

• literarische Stilmittel erkennen und beschreiben
• zentrale Inhalte der beiden Gedichte benennen
• zentrale Aussagen der beiden Gedichte benennen
• die Relevanz der beiden Gedichte für das persönliche Leben
• einen Vergleich / Kontrast zwischen den Gedichten treffen
• breitere Referenzenbringen, wenn möglich, bzw. relevant
• die Vergänglichkeit der Liebe/der Welt erkennen
• einen Vergleich treffen zwischen den Dichtern und wie sie das gleiche Thema behandelt
haben
• einen ganzheitlichen Ansatz nehmen
• eine sichere Begründung der gebrachten Argumente
Zum Beispiel Galilei - Thomas Brasch
Frage Antwort Note

B Analysieren Sie, wie der historische Widerruf von Galilei in dem folgenden Gedicht beurteilt 25
wird, und untersuchen Sie, inwiefern diese Thematik auch noch für unsere heutige Zeit
relevant ist.

• sprachlicher Aufbau des Gedichts
• Gliederung der Strophen
• Stilmittel erklären
• sprachliche Mittel erwähnen
• wie wird der zentrale Konflikt beschrieben, nämlich der Widerruf
• Einfluss der Kirche und die Macht der Mächtigen
• Vergleich zur heutigen Zeit treffen, z. B. Verschwörungstheorien, Gruppenzwang,
der Druck sich anpassen zu müssen, Konflikt / Unterdrückung der freien
Meinungsäußerung
• Braschs zentrale Aussage
• sich auf das Reimschema beziehen

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TEIL B: PROSA
Frage 2: Kurzgeschichten
Das Trockendock - Stefan Andres und Das Gottesurteil - Heinz Risse
Frage Antwort Note

A Erörtern Sie, wie die Schriftsteller von Das Trockendock (Stefan Andres) und Das 25
Gottesurteil (Heinz Risse) in ihren Werken die Thematik vom „Todesurteil‟ erfassen.

• sprachliche Mittel benennen
• Arten der Atmosphäre beschreiben
• einen Vergleich zwischen den Autoren treffen und wie sie ihre Geschichte entwickeln,
z. B. die Überraschungseffekte, die Perspektiven
• wie das Todesurteil in den beiden Geschichten präsentiert wird
• evtl. wie gerecht die Todesurteile sind
• die Chance, dem Todesurteil zu entgehen
• evtl. historischer Hintergrund im Zusammenhang mit den Todesurteilen
• Spannung beschreiben
• eigenen Bezug zu den Geschichten herstellen
• breitere Referenzen bringen
Die Probe - Herbert Malecha
Frage Antwort Note

B Äußern Sie sich zu dem Auszug von Die Probe von Herbert Malecha. Erörtern Sie, 25
inwiefern die Atmosphäre von potentieller Gefahr und der darauf folgenden Erleichterung
effektiv dargestellt wird.
Antworten der Schüler/Schülerinnen könnten folgende Punkte enthalten

• kurze inhaltliche Zusammenfassung
• literarische Stilmittel beschreiben
• die Atmosphäre der Gefahr und der Erleichterung detailliert beschreiben
• die Orte der Handlung beschreiben
• wie die Spannung entwickelt wird
• die Reaktion der verschiedenen Charaktere auf die “Gefahr”
• die Haltung des Hauptcharakters am Ende der Konfliktsituation
• eigene Meinung zu der Geschichte äußern

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Frage 3: Roman: Die verlorene Ehre der Katharina Blum - Heinrich Böll
Frage Antwort Note

A Erörtern Sie, welche Personen (nicht mehr als drei) Böll in Die verlorene Ehre der 25
Katharina Blum sehr positiv darstellt. Geben Sie Gründe für Ihre Auswahl.

• Bölls Schreibstil und von ihm verwendeten stilistischen und sprachlichen Mittel
erwähnen (evtl. mit Beispielen)
• Wie Böll die Hauptpersonen charakterisiert, z. B. Katharina Blum, Hubert und Trude
Blorna, Else Woltersheim, Dr. Hiepertz, die Polizistin Pletzer?, Ludwig Götten?
• persönliche Auswahl begründen (mit Beispielen)
Frage Antwort Note

B Erörtern Sie anhand des folgenden Textauszugs aus Bölls Die verlorene Ehre der 25
Katharina Blum, mit welchen Folgen die ZEITUNG in das Leben von Katharina Blum und
ihr Umfeld eingreift.

• Einordnung desTextauszuges
• Die unterschiedlichen Stilmittel, die Böll verwendet hat, z. B. kürzere Sätze, nicht so
protokollarisch
• andere literarische Mittel erwähnen
• evtl. orthographische Mittel erwähnen
• Folgen des Eingreifens der Zeitung auf Katharina, z. B. die zerstörerische Wut
Katharinas (sie wird sogar zur Mörderin) allmähliche Apathie Katharinas, u. Ä.
• Folgen des Eingreifens der Zeitung auf ihr Umfeld, z. B. Schwierigkeiten der Blornas,
Tod von Katharinas, Mutter. Ehekrise der Hiepertz, Katharina als Zielscheibe für
perverse Telefonanrufe und Briefe u. Ä.
• breitere Referenzen bringen.
Frage 4: Roman: Homo faber – Max Frisch
Frage Antwort Note

A Erörtern Sie, wie in Frischs Homo faber das Leben und Sterben von Menschen in Walter 25
Fabers Umfeld sein Handeln und Denken beeinflusst.

• stilistische Merkmale, die Frisch bei seiner Charakterbeschreibung verwendet
• die wichtigsten Personen in Fabers Umfeld
• ihr Einfluss auf Faber (Hanna, Sabeth, Joachim), vielleicht auch Ivy, Professor O und
seine Frau
• spezifische Beispiele für:
• Hanna (keine Abtreibung, Auftreten als Übermutter)
• Sabeth (mit Bezug auf ihr Leben und Sterben)
• Joachim (Selbstmord)

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Frage Antwort Note
B Erörtern Sie anhand des folgenden Textauszugs aus Frischs Homo faber, wie Walter 25
Fabers Verständnis von Frauen und seine Einstellung zu ihnen Hanna dazu bringt, ihn zu
verlassen.

• Einordnung des Textauszuges (Chronologie – 20 Jahre bevor er Sabeth kennenlernt)
• relevante Äußerungen über Fabers Einstellung zu Frauen im Textauszug, z. B. Hanna
ist empfindlich, sprunghaft, eine Kunstfee, Schwärmerin, neigt zum Hysterischen, u.
Ä. – subjektive Sichtweise Walter Fabers, seine unbedachte Wortwahl mit Bezug auf
die Schwangerschaft und die mögliche Heiratsverpflichtung
• inwiefern sind diese Äußerungen typisch für seine allgemeine Einstellung
• Einstellung und Verhältnis zu Sabeth evtl. erwähnen
• persönliche Stellungnahme zu Hannas Entscheidung, Faber zu verlassen und das
Kind zu haben
• breitere Referenzen
Abteilung C: DRAMA
Frage 5 Die Physiker - Friedrich Dürrenmatt
Frage Antwort Note

A Erörtern Sie, wie Dürrenmatt in Die Physiker das Thema „Die Verantwortung der 25
Wissenschaftler“ behandelt und welche literarischen Mittel er verwendet, um seine
Aussage wirksam zu gestalten.
Bezeichnender Inhalt:
Beurteilen Sie nach den Kriterien im Erwartungshorizont. Die nachstehenden Punkte
dienen nur als Hinweise und zur Illustration und sind nicht vollständig erschöpft. Jegliche
anderen passenden / treffenden Punkte sollten zugunsten des Schülers / der Schülerin
bewertet werden.

• Darstellung der Verantwortung der Wissenschaftler, z. B. an Folgen der
Erfindungendenken, Verantwortungsgefühl und –bewusstsein haben, ethisch richtig
handeln (Möbius)
• Kontrast zwischen der Realität und Möbius’ ethischer Einstellung aufzeigen
• persönlicher Ansatz, wie Verantwortungsbewusstsein effektiv ausgeübt warden kann
• Verwendung literarischer Mittel, z. B. Komödie, Ironie, “Zufall”, u. Ä.
• evtl. Bezug auf mögliche bedrohliche Erfindungen
• evtl. eigene Meinung zu dem Theaterstück formulieren

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Frage Antwort Note
B Untersuchen Sie, inwiefern der folgende Textauszug aus Dürrenmatts Die Physiker eine 25
absolute Schlüsselstellung in diesem Theaterstück einnimmt.

• Einordnung desTextauszuges
• Warum ist e seine Schlüsselstelle?
• zentrale Aussage dieser Schlüsselstelle, z. B. “erzwungener” Aufenthalt in der
Irrenanstalt, Verantwortungsbewusstsein der Physiker,
• War es die richtige Entscheidung? mit ausführlicher Begründung, z. B. die Folgen
• Entscheidungen der in diesem Auszug genannten Charaktere
• Inwiefern ist die Menschheit von diesen Entscheidungen betroffen?
• Evtl. einepersönlicheMeinungzumTheaterstück
Frage 6 Der gute Mensch von Sezuan – Bertolt Brecht
Frage Antwort Note

A Erörtern Sie, wie Brecht den Verfremdungseffekt in seinem Werk Der gute Mensch 25
von Sezuan benutzt und geben Sie Beispiele, wie diese Darstellung zur dramatischen
Wirkung des Theaterstücks beiträgt.

• Erklärung, was der Verfremdungseffekt ist
• Brechts Gründe / Absichten für die Verwendung des Verfremdungseffekts
• welche sprachlichen und stilistischen Mittel Brecht für seinen Verfremdungseffekt
einsetzt, z. B. Anlehnungan den (griechischen) Chor, Reflektionen des Wasserträgers
Wang, Lieder und Kommentare, Erscheinung der Götter, Ansprachen an das
Publikum
• wie dramatische Wirkung erzielt wird, z. B. Doppelcharakter Shen Te / Shui Ta,
terrorisierende Shin, die schmarotzende Gastfamilie, die offensichtliche Armut, typisch
menschliche und unethische Charakterzüge, Brechts theoretische Erklärungen
Frage Antwort Note

B Untersuchen Sie den folgenden Textauszug aus Brechts Der gute Mensch von Sezuan im 25
Zusammenhang mit dem ganzen Theaterstück und zeigen Sie, wie er Shen Tes Dilemma
skizziert.

• Einordnung des Textauszuges
• Charakterisierung der drei Personen (Die Shin, Shu Fu, Shen Te) in dem Textauszug
• Charakterisierung anderer Hauptpersonen,(z. B. Yang Sun, die achtköpfige
Gastfamilie, die Tischlerfamilie, usw.) und wie sie helfen, Shen Tes Dilemma
aufzuzeigen
• Beschreibung des Dilemmas von Shen Te (sie will gut sein, wird aber ausgenutzt), z.
B. durch ihre Opferwilligkeit, ihr Zurückstellen der eigenen Bedürfnisse, ihre Naivität
im Kontrast zu Shui Ta, Entschuldigung der Fehler / Schwächen der anderen
• persönliche Meinung zum Dilemma von Shen Te

190
FIRST LANGUAGE KHOEKHOEGOWAB
8190
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
There is an improvement in the answering of the question paper as the candidates can express with examples the style
of the author and the effectiveness of the indicative language given.
• Candidates are unable to get through their ideas or expressions as they struggle with the spelling of words, and this
causes confusion between what the candidate wrote and what is understood by the marker.
• The candidates do not fully understand the question in Part B, where they were expected to write a short piece
closely related to the original texts.
• Despite being mentioned in the examiner’s report, the candidate still answers Part A in a poem form or in very short
sentences, with no analysis provided.
• Some candidates are wasting time answering questions that do not require examples (mostly about 50% from one
center). Punctuation marks are used by the author in the texts; however, there is no link between how the author
uses the punctuation marks to bring forth his message to the readers and how it contributes to his style of writing.
• Some candidates are unable to effectively explain the difference between formal language and informal language
used by the author, even when reference is given in the reading texts, and give inappropriate explanations such as
“it is formal because the author does not use swear words.”
• Some candidates understood the first question to give the introduction in the first paragraph and the message
of the author in the last paragraph, which made the candidates forget to link the purpose of the writer with the
information given in the texts but instead re-wrote the last and first paragraphs of the given texts.
• Candidates do not consider the marks allocated to the questions, especially in the (a) questions, where some of the
candidates’ work was very short and showed very little appreciation of the author’s work.
• A few candidates were unable to finish the last question (b), and some skipped question 1 (a) with the thought of
coming back to it later but due to time couldn’t finish the question.
1 (a) This question was compulsory. This was an informal narrative reading piece. It consists of two parts:
(a) the candidates were required to comment on the style and language of the author to convey her
point of view.
(b) A directed writing task to write a portion of a speech for students beginning on the first day of their final
year. (Grade 12s).
Very few candidates understood that the author’s point of view was that she didn’t support the idea of
dreams and was using her examples to convince the readers. which was her point of view.
Most candidates were able to understand and analyze the effect that the author was creating.
However, some candidates only understand and list the indicative content in the reading texts without
explanation as to why the author uses them and how it contributes to his message.
Some candidates wrote the answer of part a in a poem format and thus used short sentences in which it
changes the meaning of indicative language used and the purpose of the author.
(b) Most of the candidates wrote the speech very well, to the extent that some of the candidates used their own
idioms to motivate the learners to study.
Here is an example of an exceptional speech from a candidate in this response:
“Dreams are like balloons; they don’t last.” It’s good to dream. As human beings, we have beautiful dreams,
but our laziness kills them. This life that we are living is not as we imagined; it has a lot of good and bad.
Next year you will be out of school and will only have your dreams to carry along with you, but don’t just be
dreamers; be doers.

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• Seriously, we can be dreaming and saying, “I would like to be a principal or a president.” All this is only possible
if you work on it. There is nothing in this world that you can achieve with hard work and a little pain.
• Some candidates did not understand this question very well and wrote a summary of a speech that they were
once given at their school or copied the reading text’s speech as their own answer.
• Some candidates wrote the speech fully, while it only required them to write any part of the speech; this
resulted in a few not finishing their chosen question (b) part.
2 (a) This was the most popular question about Nguvei’s accident. It consists of two parts: (a) The candidates were
required to comment on the style and language of the author to convey the risk and uncertainty of life. (b) a
directed writing task to write the next chapter of the novel, in which the husband gets the news.
This question was well answered, as most of the candidates could link and understand the style of the author
by explaining the reasons for the use of certain words and phrases to portray the danger of the city and the
uncertainty of life.
A few candidates did exceptionally well as they could touch on the relationship of the husband and wife in
relation to the use of certain idioms and reference the author’s work in the original texts.
(b) Most candidates understood and did exceptionally well in this question; some candidates added other
characters to support the husband during this time that were not originally part of the reading texts.
Some candidates continued to include the emotional strength of the couple to build on a beautiful ending that
could relate to the support of Upi in their storyline by this father, which showed candidates understood the
significance of emotions by the author in the texts.
However:
• Some candidates misunderstood the question and wrote a dialogue between the husband and either
hospital staff or the people on the scene. Once again, misinterpretation of questions causes candidates to
score low marks; they should be encouraged to understand what is expected from a question before they
start answering the questions by identifying key words.
• Some candidates as mostly done at the (b) question by some rewrote the original texts by the author.
• Some candidates for the novel’s continuation wrote about a second accident involving the husband or the
death of Nguvei, leaving Upi an orphan. Although the learners could write about any ending of their choice
and choose any sequence of the story, we should encourage our learners to always think positively and
to consider the information given in the texts as an aid to completing the given task. (Nguvei’s love for her
husband of ten years, as well as the fact that they only had Upi, which was a problem for the in-laws: as
a result, some candidates are writing for death and an unhappy ending.)
3 (a) This story was about the eccentric librarianan descriptive piece of writing: This part had two questions.
(a) The candidates were required to comment on the style and language of the author to convey the
impression of an unusual but well-liked person. (b) a directed writing task to write part of the newspaper
article that the principal wrote for the school’s newspaper.
Only a few candidates choose to answer this question.
• Most of the candidates could understand how the author presented the librarian and could clearly give an
analysis on the use of the indicative content or language used.
• Some candidates were unable to connect the author’s descriptions to the manner or purpose that aimed
to provide clarity on the librarian as a worker. Some completely misunderstood the aim or message the
author was trying to bring forth, e.g., that the librarian was hated by the students at the school and that
she was let go for this behavior.
(b) Most candidates from the few that chose this question could write a touching newspaper article about
the librarian, using characteristics and reasons why she will be missed.
As with other B questions, some candidates rewrote the original texts and simply added the phrase “from the
principal’s desk.”
Some candidates wrote a letter to the newspaper and not a newsletter but expected content could be seen in
the letter.

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Even though the Advance Subsidiary level is offered for the second time, candidates have put forth their best performance.
We are cognizant of the difficult circumstances that surrounds us and wish to express our gratitude to all the teachers
that tirelessly ensure that candidates are prepared well for the examination. Well done!
The Senior Education Officers and Head of Departments should ensure that the teachers are assisted in the interpretations
and implementation of the suggested recommendations. Necessary workshops are further recommended to train
teachers on how candidates should attempt examination questions at the required level.
The examiners should train the candidates to ensure that where a hint is given in questions, candidates should restrict
their answers to those details that support the hint instead of dwelling on general responses on language and style.

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8190
Paper 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
There is an improvement in the writing of Paper 2: Continuous Writing responses compared to previous years. The
majority of the candidates could respond positively in both:
Section A: Imaginative Writing (Narrative/Descriptive)
Section B: Writing for an audience (discursive/argumentative)
• Some of the candidates’ language used in their writing created specific language effects on the marker or reader as
they used a variety of figurative language in descriptive or narrative writing and rhetorical devices to explain, argue,
or persuade in discursive or argumentative writing.
• The candidates could express themselves freely by using a wide range of language effects effectively.
• Most of the centers chose almost all of the questions to answer because they understood and knew what was
expected at each one, with the exception of Question 8, which was the least chosen.
• Teachers and candidates should consider the length of the writing piece (essay), as it may limit the facts and
information required to help you obtain more marks; candidates lose marks if they do not provide enough facts and
information.
Most of the candidates could understand and answer the question paper—most of the questions to the best of their
knowledge and abilities—although a few of them have limited vocabulary and could not express themselves very well.
2. COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS
SECTION A:
1 In this question, the candidates were given an opening sentence to start their story with and create an atmosphere
of excitement and character in their writing. At last, the famous guest made a grand entrance.
• This question was well chosen by about 20 candidates because it was simple to read, understand, and respond
to. However, few of the candidates were able to use the given opening sentence to begin their story with it and
only used it in the middle of their story, and it could link up with the story despite creating an atmosphere of
excitement and character for both the famous guest and the audience.
• Others who used it correctly attempted to use language effects to appropriately describe the famous guest and
to engage the interest of audiences by describing how the audience reacted (character), including the famous
guest.
• Few of the other candidates did not really try to describe the famous guest in the story and just used it as an
opening sentence or a topic. They could not create an atmosphere of excitement and character for both the
famous guest and the audiences.
• Identifying the type of famous guest is also a challenge for some of the candidates, as they may choose anyone
they know rather than someone who has made significant contributions to his or her country, community,
school, education, town, village, etc., which may limit the length of the story and or required information.
2 In this question, the candidates were required to write a descriptive piece about a market day and focus on people,
setting, and sound(s), which will help the reader to imagine the scene in their writing.
• This question was well selected by majority of candidates who understood it and responded well to it.
• Some of them were present on this specific day/market day to do shopping together with their family members
and could relate it from their experience, while other candidates used their imagination to describe the day.
• Some of the days were peaceful and others chaotic – robberies (shoplifting), scums were present, police,

194
ambulance sounds (sirens), weather described.
• Different types of people, settings, and sounds that were present or could have been seen, heard, and felt were
identified and described.
• Other candidates who did not do well in this question could not describe the people, setting, and sounds, or
did not demonstrate in full, and could not describe the event itself—what was sold, who was selling (business
owners), who was buying (customers), etc.
• Selecting a type of market day: Some of the market days selected are small (villages or farms) or big (towns or
cities). Supermarket Day, end of the month shopping day, Black Friday, auctions, trade fairs, etc.
3 (Two contrasting Diary Entries)

In this question, the candidates were required to write two contrasting diary entries: The first one is by a student on
his or her last day at secondary school; the second one is by one of his or her teachers, who knows him or her very
well, on this last school day. They must create a sense of mood and character in their writing.
• This question was also selected by about 30 candidates because they could read, understand, and know what
was expected of them; some of them wrote it for themselves.
• The format and structure for writing this type of writing piece is somewhat difficult for candidates to follow.
• Some of the candidates who chose this question did not know how to write a diary. The format of the diary:
should it include topic, dates, day, time, place, and people involved?
4 (Isolated hut)
The candidates were asked to write a descriptive piece called “The Isolated Hut.” They must focus on its
structure and surroundings to help the reader imagine it.
• This question was selected by about 18 candidates, although it was easy to understand and know what to write
about, and some of the candidates did not know what a hut looked like.
• It was well described by some of the candidates: the material used to build it, how it was built, where it was
built, how strong or weak it was, and their cultural backgrounds.
• It was written as narratively or descriptively as the authors were present—a scary day and the surroundings
were well described to my imagination. The ones who saw and knew about a hut did it very well in their
descriptions.
• Some of the other candidates could not described the structure of the hut itself and they only describe its
surroundings
SECTION B: WRITING FOR AN AUDIENCE
5 (An official letter)

In this question the candidates were asked to write a letter to the principal of their school and suggest how students
could make a big contribution to the teaching of Khoekhoegowab at the school. They must create sense of
optimism and enthusiasm.
• This question was selected by about ± 45 candidates, :
• The candidates were familiar with the format and structure of this type of letter, as well as the school principal’s
responsibilities and duties at the school.
• They could indicate the two postal addresses: sender and receiver, salutation, introductory sentence or
heading, etc.
• Some of them could communicate in writing with the principal or other high-ranking officials or people and
could speak the official language.
• Others simply wrote as they would when writing or communicating with anyone else—respect should be shown
at all times.

195
• Some of the candidates could give well-deserved facts on the status of Khoekhoegowab in schools and among
teachers and how it could have an impact on the language itself, learners, communities, and the school’s
attire—persuasive facts were given.
6 (Column to magazine)
The candidates were required to write a column called “Overcoming Boredom” for a popular magazine for teenage
readers. They must create a sense of creativity and excitement.
• This question was also selected by ± 30 candidates:
• The majority of the candidates could identify the problem’s causes, effects, and solutions. They could create a
sense of creativity and excitement by showing the causes of boredom (laziness), how it effects individuals, and
how to overcome it by giving exciting, persuasive ideas.
7 (Contrasting letter to editor/newspaper)

The candidates were asked to write two contrasting letters to a newspaper: one letter argues that all local languages
should be accepted for official business; the other letter argues that only English should be accepted for official
business.
• This question was selected by ± 27 candidates.
• It was well answered by the candidates, although the format and structure were a challenge. Persuasive and
argumentative facts were demonstrated for both letters to show the importance of these languages and/or why
another language is or is not important.
• Strong sense of voice to engage the interests of readers was used with fluent expressions.
• Some of the candidates did not demonstrate to such an extent to persuade me why English should be used as
the official business language. It is also critical to inform students about the significance of different languages
used in their country, towns, villages, farms, and schools, as well as English internationally.
• The format of this type of letters to be emphasized to let the candidates know how to write this letter.
8 (A voice over script)

The candidates were required to write part of a voice-over script for a promotional film entitled “Having Fun While
Learning New Skills After School” and create a balance between having fun and learning new skills.
• Only two candidates selected this question.
• This question seems to be very difficult for the candidates, as only two could attempt to answer it. One candidate
did it somehow well, while the other one found it difficult to write it.
• The format and structure are the main issue to write about a voice over script part.
• Most of the schools are not training or teaching the candidates about this type of writing, and there is no
example of it in the textbooks (no KKG textbooks on this level).
• Some of the candidates who wanted to, maybe, choose it thought of the given film, which they had never read
about or watched, “Having fun while learning new skills after school,” and decided not to select it.

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POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS FOR TEACHERS:
• The candidates will be able to demonstrate most of the skills required in their written responses to this question
paper if the teachers train them well with the content of the marking scheme or grid, explaining each band with its
bullet points.
• The examples of candidates’ written work in the classrooms can be used to show and explain to them why they
obtained that mark, etc.
• Candidates should be taught how to express himself/herself when addressing various people: friends, family
members/parents, officials: teachers, principals, etc. (formal and informal writing—letters)—allow candidates to
write various types of letters to various types of people/officials.
• Frequent Spelling Errors: Here, teachers should try to practice the spelling of words with the candidates after
each piece of written work that has been marked, no matter what type of task it is. This makes it very difficult to read
and understand what is written, and it takes time to figure out what the candidate is writing about.
• Previous years’ question papers must be used by the teachers to try to teach the candidates how to interpret
different questions, as learners only understand one part of the question and just start to answer the questions.
• The teachers must also try to train the candidates on how to identify keywords in different types of questions.
• Teachers must attempt to collect various types of articles and texts based on previous years’ examination paper
questions from regional and national based question papers and allow candidates to read, summarize, and answer
the questions in the question papers.

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198
FIRST LANGUAGE OSHIKWANYAMA
8191
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
Performance
It was an immense pleasure to observe the good language skills and grammar usage exhibited by the candidates from
some centers. Some candidates displayed a better display of good use of figurative language through their sensitive
and discriminating awareness of language and style. This was the second examination to be taken by candidates, and
there is a slight improvement in their performance compared to the 2021 examination. Metwalemo omuhongwa na
ulike oludi lokaleshwa, ndele to yelifa elalakano lomunyoli wokaleshwa opo shi yelifile omutali kutya omuhongwa oku
na eudeko lokaleshwa. Thank you for all your efforts!
Passages
The three passages (persuasive, narrative, and descriptive) on which the questions were set were well understood by
the majority of candidates who sat for the examination. Of the two optional (elective) questions, Question 3 appeared
to be the most popular. It was interesting to note that this question seemed to be more popular among the candidates,
possibly due to the librarian's personalities. Question 2 was also attempted by a significant number of candidates.

Question 1
This question consists of two parts, parts (a) and (b). Part (a) requires the candidates to comment on how the author
uses language and style to convey his point of view, while part (b) is a directed writing task that requires the candidates
to write one part of the speech based on the writer’s original speech.
(a) In response to this question, candidates had to display, through good use of language and style
similar to that of the passage, their knowledge and understanding of the passage as well as the
authors’ intentions. This was a persuasive passage that was written in a formal, persuasive, and
relaxed mood. The author uses a variety of strong, persuasive vocabulary.
Candidates who performed better were the ones who figured out that the author’s aim of the passage was
to persuade students to work hard and achieve their goals rather than have unrealistic dreams. They should
not be afraid or overconfident. They should be aware of their good fortune and contribute to society.
Candidates must be able to identify words and phrases that persuade and reassure readers throughout the
passage and link them to quotations that underline the author's point of view in order to give a strong response
to this question.
Ovahongwa opo va nyamukule mondjila epulo eli vo va mone oitwa yomupondo, ova pumbwa okukufa
mo elaka nomushingo wa longifwa komushangi oo tau kwatakanifa oshikalimo shokaleshwa nepulo.
Ovahongwa inava teelelwa va tofe elaka noku li luka kondadalunde, ndele nava kufe mo ashike oitumbula
yelaka ei tai nyamukula epulo.
Weak: Ovahonga inava teelelwa va nyamukule ngaashi tashi shikula:

Omushangi okwa eta po oshinyolwa shaye pautendo vale, vamwe ovaxupi. Okwa longifa oileshifo, ngaashi
oitwa, oipulifo, eendada dakula komatameko omatumbulo osho yo oiingidifo. Okwa longifa oityadina
noityadinalela. Okwa longifa mo omakupilikwatumbulo, omapulotumbulo, nomalombwelotumbulo osho yo
omakumininwatumbulo.
Strong: Ovahongwa ova teelelwa va nyamukule epulo eli momukalo ngaashi ou tau shikula:
Omushangi okwa longifa oshipopiwamayele eshi ta ti, ino shuna omutwe moipeta. Apa omushangi ota tu
ovalihongi omukumo vaha mbadapale nokusholola mwaasho va hala okupondola meenghalamwenyo davo,
ndele ve lihonge va mana mo alushe nokulitungila ouumbo, vo va shiive kutya limwe lomomafiku onava ka
ninge ovanamake meenghalamwenyo davo.
In English this could be one of the best answer for the candidates. "The author gives a speech in an
attempt to persuade students who have completed their studies and to address the false beliefs that they
have about life after graduation. The writer’s speech is full of concerns, and he contradicts other speakers
who say, "Follow your dreams." Listen to your thoughts. Change the world. "Make certain that you are
199
remembered." When you pay attention to all of these things, they are things that other speakers tell you, but
this speaker refutes them. The speaker posed a rhetorical question, "What do dreamers do?" as a way to
oppose dreams while giving clarity that you will stare at the sky, but nothing will change your situation, but
your own hard work pays off. The speaker points out clearly that in dreams you will own cars and succeed
in many things, but these will only be in your own head. That is why he says, "Dreams are good, but they are
just dreams."
For Question 1 (a), centers should prepare candidates to establish a general point of view, which the author
tries to convey. Candidates should then try to find supporting details and ideas from the passages that
support this point of view.
(b) The original passage is a speech to the higher institutions of learning students that are about to
graduate. Candidates were asked to write any part of the speech directed to the grade 12s at the
beggining of their academic year.
A few candidates were able to write good text-based speeches in which they only selected a portion of a
speech as required, but the majority of candidates chose to write an entire speech. Some candidates also
opted to write speeches that were too general and not based on the passage.
Didilika: Ngeenge omuhongwa okwa pulwa a nyamukule oshitukulwa shimwe shoshinyolwa ngaashi
oshitukulwa shoshipopiwa, ina pumbwa okushanga epopifo nokutambula ko ovapwilikini veendodo da
yooloka ndele na holole ashike oshitukulwa shoshinyolwa osho kondadalunde kutya Etwalemo, Olutu, ile
Exulifo.
Question 2
This question consists of two parts, (a) which requires the candidates to comment on how the way the author uses
language and style to convey the risk and uncertainty of life while (b) is a directed writing which requires candidates to
write the beginning of the chapter in the novel, in which the husband receives the news and rushes to the hospital. Their
answers were supposed to be based closely on the style and language of the original extract.
similar to that of the passage, their knowledge and understanding of the passage and the author's
intention, which is to convey the risk and uncertainty of life.
Ovahongwa okwa li va teelelwa va shange elaka nomushingo opo va holole onghalo inai teelelwa noya
nyika oshiponga okudja mokahokololo.
In response to this question, most candidates only picked irrelevant phrases or expressions from the
passage that had no relation to the question.
Candidates who performed better in this question were the ones who figured out the author’s aim of the
passage was to convey the risk and uncertainty of life.
Weak: Ovahongwa inava teelelwa va nyamukule ngaashi tashi shikula:

Omushangi okwa longifa elaka la kola mokatendo okativali ta longifa oitya ihe shiivike kukeshe umwe ngaashi
pondingandinga yoshilando osho yo oipopiwamayele ngaashi, ongudi i shi okuyaamenwa. Osho e shi longifa
opo a koleke elaka laye loo li kale lihe shi lanafangwa. Omushangi okwa longifa yo eyeletumbulo uha pandula
novake osho e shi longifa eshi a li ta hokolola oukwatya womushamane waNguvei. Omushangi ina longifa
nande elaka lanafangwa ndele okwa longifa elaka la fikama pomufika wopombada, lo ola tova, notali nyuwifa
omatwi ovaleshi. Okwa longifa yo omushingo nawa, elaka laye li li melandulafano nawa, lo oli uditike ko.
Mokaleshwa omo tuu omu omwa holoka oshitumbula apa omushangi a ti “Omwenyo ihau tulwa pokakangwa
eshi osha hala okutya omwenyo womunhu ihau danaukwa nao. Omushangi okwe shi longifa a holole kutya
omunhu okwa pumbwa okufila oshisho omwenyo waye noku u kelela monghalo ya nyika oshiponga molwaashi
omwenyo womunhu ngeenge wa kana kau na vali apa tau di. Eshi okwe shi longifa a honge ovaleshi kutya
nande etitano olo kwa li liyadi omalipyakidilo nomwenyo womunhu okwa li tau dulu okuwila moshiponga,
ovanhu okwa li tava kendabala okuliamena nokushuna komaumbo oku ku na eameno.
(b) Candidates were asked to write the beginning of the next chapter in the novel, in which the husband
receives the news and rushes to the hospital. Their answers were supposed to be based on closely
the style and language of the original extract.
Most candidates failed to get the general message of the passage. Some candidates indicated that Nguvei
passed on, but according to the passage, she did not die.

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Question 3
This question consists of two parts: (a), which requires the candidates to comment on how the writer uses language and
style to convey the impression of an unusual, but well-liked person; and (b), which is a directed writing task that requires
the candidates to write a part of the article based on what the principal wrote in the school magazine about the librarian
who left the school.
similar to that of the passage, their knowledge and understanding of the passage and the author's intentions.
Candidates were asked to comment on how the writer uses language and style to convey the
impression of an unusual but well-liked person.
In response to this question, most candidates only focused on the unusual characters of the
librarian, but they ignored the likeable characters of this person.
Weak: Ovahongwa inava teelelwa va nyamukule ngaashi tashi shikula:
Omatumbulo noutendo ove li melandulafano nove na omadilaadilo mawa. Outendo kave fike pamwe she
likwatelela komikweyovelishe, ngasshi okatendo okatitatu nokatine. Okatendo katine oke na omikweyovelishe
dishona omanga katitatu ke na omikweyovelishe dihapu. Ouyelele wa yandjwa mehokololo owa yela nou
uditike, navali itau fiile omuleshi omalipulo shaashi omushangi okwa holola kutya konima eshi omunailonga
womongulumambo a dja po, ovanhu ova li va hafa ashike kombinga imwe ova li tave lipula kutya olyelye vali
te va popifa nomatumbulo efiku.
Omushangi okwa shambulwa kokupopya kwaye eshi ta holola kutya “oku hole okulongifa oitya i na omulyo,
kouhapu wounokotya, oko ngaho komulyo weendjovo daye”. Eshi otashi holola kutya oha popi eendjovo di na
ongushu, notadi hokwifa okupwilikina. Ovahongwa otave lihongo mo sha mwaasho ta popi, nohava kala yo
va shambukwa kwaasho tashi di mokanya kaye kounhongo. Omushangi ota holola yo kutya “oitya yaye ohai
kunguluka ngomulonga.” Hano ta popi ta twaalele, oitya ya landulafana nawa note mu yelekanifa nomulonga
ngeenge tau kunguluka pehe na olufuwo.
(b) Candidates were asked to write a part of an article that the school principal wrote for the school
magazine based on the librarian’s unusual and good characters who left the school.
Most candidates provided the general characteristics of the librarian instead of getting the answers
from the passage, and most of them concentrated on the unusual characters and overlooked the
good characteristics of the librarian.
Some candidates have used vulgar language when analyzing the passage.
In order for the candidates’ responses to be awarded in the top band, they should be able to:
• Show perceptive appreciation of the content and ideas (nava ulike eudeko lomoule kombinga
yoshikalimo nomadilaadilo omushangi)
• Relate content consistently to: structure, purpose, genre and style (Na dongokonone oshinyolwa a tala
noukeka, nghene elaka nomushingo wa nwefa mo oshikalimo)
• Show excellent understanding of the nuances of language: repetition, rhetorical devices word choices
etc. (Nava holole eudeko lomoule, omayooloko nomalityo oitya, eendululo, omapulo ouretori, ehoololo
loitya naikwao ihapu).
• Clearly express the intention of the author (nava ulike elalakano lomushangi)
• Analyze text with sensitive and good discriminating awareness of language and style to create effect (va
konakone noukeka opo va ulike nghene elaka la nwefa mo oshikalimo)
Use quotations and references effectively and appropriately (nava longife omaumbangi taa di mokaleshwa)


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Ovahongi nava honge ovahongwe okushanga outendo ve li nawa, nava hongwe etopolo loitya.
Ovahongi nava honge ovahongwa va kale ve shi okushoneka oifimanitwa moinyolwa yavo.
Examiners should educate candidates that marks are awarded based on quality but not quantity.

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8191
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
• This was the second Grade 12 AS Level examination to be written, and there was a slight improvement compared
to the previous year's examination. Judging from the expectations in the syllabus, the candidates' performance was
generally satisfactory.
• The majority of the candidates could understand and answer the questions better; however, there were some of
them who could not understand the questions very well.
• Orthography was the biggest challenge; candidates do not know the spelling of words.
• Most of the candidates answered in general instead of according to the key words.
• Some candidates wrote short essays, and a few wrote too long essays.Some people proposed unrealistic ideas.
• Some candidates misinterpreted the questions.
Section A
1 This question was chosen by most candidates; most answered the question satisfactorily; however,
some could not create an atmosphere of excitement and character. Teachers should prepare their
learners to create a sense of excitement, character, etc. when they are writing this kind of writing.
Most of the candidates only describe their family members who came to visit them instead of giving full
details of the special guest, for example, the president, ministers, famous musicians, etc.
Ovahongwa nava holole eholokepo lomweenda tashi hololwa koinima ngaashi: oikutu oyo a li a djala, omilongelo
odo a enda nado, oshipopiwa nosho tuu.
Nava holole yo onghalo omo ovakwashiwana va li ta eta mo oinima ngaashi: tava kuwilile, tava pandula omake,
tava nhuka nosho tuu, she likwatelela koludi noukwatya womweenda.
2 The majority of the candidates had chosen this question and they answered it very well. However some
candidates did not understand the question very well.
Ovahongwa vamwe ova shanga eshiivifo lopaipindi, omanga vamwe ova hokolola ofandifa yomafiku mahapu,
vamwe ova shanga momukalondjikilile noitashi yandje efano la yela komuleshi ngaashi epulo la pula.
Candidates were expected to give the following:

• Ofandifa yefiku limwe alike a kwatela mo oinima ngaashi ei tai shikula apa:
• Ovakufimbinga ngaashi: Ovalandi novalandifi.
• Onhele (oukwatya wonhele nghene ya li) ngaashi: eetenda, outala nosho tuu.
• Omalinyengo ovakufimbinga ngaashi: elongifo lomambako, etopifo lomabalona, ekondjelo loilandifomwa
kovalandi.
3 This question was the least liked by candidates, and they did not know how to write contrasting pieces;
hence, the question proved to be challenging to all the candidates. It was evidently clear that the candidates
were not about contrasting pieces. There is a need for teachers to teach learners how to write contrasting pieces.
• Ovahongi nava deulile ovahongwa omutungilo womondjila womushangwafiku.
4 This was the most chosen question, candidates could really enjoy writing about the isolated hut, they
described its structure, surroundings that made their writing appealing to the reader. However, some
candidates could not answer this question properly.
• Ovahongwa vamwe ponhele yokuhokolola omutungilo noukwatya wokaumbo, ova hokolola omunhu
kondadalunde a li a hepa ndee ta ka kufwa ko koludalo laye.
• Vamwe ova hokolola she likwatelela keyeletumbulo ( omutima wamukweni okalongo ke lilile)

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Section B
5 Most candidates chose this question but could not suggest "how students could make a big contribution
to the teaching of that specific language." Candidates were more focused on how teachers and the
principal could make such contributions; as a result, candidates scored low marks. Candidates could
not identify problems and suggest possible solutions to the problems; instead, some candidates directed
the suggestions to fellow learners instead of the principal, and some gave the advantages of having
Oshikwanyama as a subject as it serves as a requirement for admission to international universities.
• Write a formal letter to their school principal in which they give suggestions on how to improve the performance
of Oshikwanyama First Language at their school. In their writing they were expected to create a sense of
optimism (etwomukumo) and enthusiasm (noupenda), e.g:
• Debating competitions;
• Library well equipped with newspapers and Oshikwanyama books which include grammar and figurative
language books;
• Awards for both teachers and learners;
• Host cultural day at school whereby learners will give speeches in Oshikwanyama, writing poems, essay
competitions, wear their cultural attires, bring cultural food, invite cultural leaders or language experts to
educate learners on the importance of Oshikwanyama as a First Language;
• Extra lessons for Oshikwanyama for learners who are struggling.
6 This was one of the most popular questions; candidates could suggest different ways to make boring
situations more entertaining in their daily lives. Most candidates created a sense of creativity and excitement
for teenagers. However, few candidates had any knowledge or understanding of who their audiences are,
so they ended up focusing on either small kids, parents, or youth in general.
They were expected to include points such as:
• Participate in different sport activities.
• Watching TV, listening to the radio, reading newspapers, story books and magazines.
• Use social media, e.g , Facebook, Twitter, TikTok, etc
• Visit elders to listen to old stories
• Take part in choirs
• Visiting the library
• Take a walk
• Do exercises etc.
7 Most candidates chose this question. The question was fairly understood; however, candidates could not
provide sufficient facts to support their arguments. Candidates failed to give convincing ideas or points on
why local languages should be accepted for official business and/or why only English should be accepted
for official business.
In the first letter that argues why local languages should be accepted for official business, candidates gave
the importance of local languages in general, i.e., valuing your local language indicates that you respect
your culture, it helps learners perform well at school, and it helps them become prominent community members.
Candidates were expected to write to a newspaper, including the following:

• To make communication easier e.g. in hospitals, courts, banks etc.
• To accommodate all people in official discussions.
• To value your identity.
• To create job opportunities etc.
In the second letter that argues that only English language should be accepted for official business, candidates only
indicated the importance of English as a subject in school.
Candidates were expected to write to a newspaper, including the following points:
• To avoid tribalism.
• To strengthen the communication/connection between countries easier.

204
8 Very few candidates chose this question. Candidates lack knowledge on how a voice over should be
written. Many were finding it difficult to write about “having fun while learning new skills”. Some candidates
reported and some narrated instead of writing a proper voice over.
The candidates were expected to answer as follows:
• Write part of a voice over script for a promotional film entitled: Having fun while learning new skills after
school.
• In their writing, they supposed to create a balance between having fun and learning new skills.
Omuhongwa ota dulu okuhokolola okaana ka ya pokapale ketanga ke ke lihafife, taka dana nounona vakwao, take
lihongo eemhango dipe kokudja opo oka ka ninga omudanitanga.
Okaana otashidulika ka kale taka te owela ke lihafife ndee taka ningi omunawino momwaalu. Nosho tuu

• Teachers should teach candidates to read and understand the whole question because in most cases candidates
read part of the question and start answering thus resulting in losing marks.
• They should train candidates how to identify keywords in different types of questions.
• The marking grid should be used to train the candidates on the expected standard and on how section (Section A
imaginative writing and Section B writing for an audience) should be answered.
• Candidates should be exposed to a variety of reading materials so that they can be able to respond to longer piece
questions and make their writing interesting and full of vocabulary.
• Practical exposure to questions should be done at centres so that candidates could be familiar with writing two
contrasting pieces for one question.
• In conjunction with the syllabus and other relevant Oshikwanyama materials plus Oshikwanyama orthography
latest edition should be used to avoid unnecessary grammatical errors.
• Candidates should be trained to write the correct orthography, e.g: yambula and not hambula, okulipyakidila and
not okulipwakidila, onu and not onhu.
• Teachers should train their candidates on all different types of tasks that they are likely to be asked in Section A and
Section B, respectively.
• Teachers should caution candidates to use figures of speech correctly. E.g. mbishi meumbo mwa tomwa,and not
meumbo mwa tomwa mbishi.
Centres and teachers are applauded for their hard work amidst strenuous circumstances and limited resources.
Thank you for all your efforts!

205
206
FIRST LANGUAGE OSHINDONGA
8192
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
Performance
It was an immense pleasure to observe the good language skills and grammar usage exhibited by the candidates from
some centers. Some candidates displayed a better display of good use of figurative language through their sensitive
and discriminating awareness of language and style. This was the second examination to be taken by candidates, and
there is a slight improvement in their performance compared to the 2021 examination.. Mefalomo omulongwa na ulike
oludhi lwokaleshwa, nde ta yelitha elalakano lyomunyoli gokaleshwa opo shi yelithile omutali kutya omulongwa oku na
euveko lyokaleshwa. Thank you for all your efforts!
Passages
The three passages (persuasive, narrative, and descriptive) on which the questions were set were well understood by
the majority of candidates who sat for the examination. Of the two optional (elective) questions, Question 3 appeared
to be the most popular. It was interesting to note that this question seemed to be more popular among the candidates,
possibly due to the librarian's personalities. Question 2 was also attempted by a significant number of candidates.
Question 1
This question consists of two parts, parts (a) and (b). Part (a) requires the candidates to comment on how the author
uses language and style to convey his point of view, while part (b) is a directed writing task that requires the candidates
to write one part of the speech based on the writer’s original speech.
similar to that of the passage, their knowledge and understanding of the passage as well as the
authors’ intentions. This was a persuasive passage that was written in a formal, persuasive, and
relaxed mood. The author uses a variety of strong, persuasive vocabulary.
Candidates who performed better were the ones who figured out that the author’s aim of the passage was
to persuade students to work hard and achieve their goals rather than have unrealistic dreams. They should
not be afraid or overconfident. They should be aware of their good fortune and contribute to society.
Candidates must be able to identify words and phrases that persuade and reassure readers throughout the
passage and link them to quotations that underline the author's point of view in order to give a strong response
to this question.
Aalongwa opo ya yamukule mondjila yo ya mone iitsa yomupondo, oya pumbwa okukutha mo elaka
nomuhingo gwa longithwa komunyoli ngono tagu kwatakanitha oshikalimo shokaleshwa nepulo. Aalongwa
inaya tegelelwa ya tothe elaka noku li luka kondandalunde, ihe naya kuthe mo owala iitumbula yelaka
mbyoka tayi yamukula epulo.
Weak: Aalongwa inaya tegelelwa ya yamukule ngaashi tashi landula:

Omunyoli okwe eta po oshinyolwa she pautendo uule, wumwe uufupi. Okwa longitha iileshitho, ngaashi
iitsa, iipulitho, oondanda oonene komatameko gomatumbulo osho wo iingidhitho. Okwa longitha iityadhina
niityadhinalela. Okwa longitha mo omakupikwatumbulo, omapulotumbulo, nomalombwelotumbulo osho wo
omakwiininwatumbulo.
Strong: Aalongwa oya tegelelwa ya yamukule epulo ndika momukalo ngaashi nguka tagu landula:
Omunyoli okwa longitha oshipopiwamayele sho ta ti, ino shuna omutse miipeta sho ta tsu aailongi omukumo
yaaha mbandapale nokusholola mwaasho ya hala okupondola moonkalamwenyo dhawo. Aluhe yi itungile
uugumbo, yo ya tseye kutya limwe lyomomasiku onaya ka pondole sha moonkalamwenyo dhawo.
In English this could be one of the best answer for the candidates. "The author gives a speech in an
attempt to persuade students who have completed their studies and to address the false beliefs that they
have about life after graduation. The writer’s speech is full of concerns, and he contradicts other speakers
who say, "Follow your dreams." Listen to your thoughts. Change the world. "Make certain that you are
207
remembered." When you pay attention to all of these things, they are things that other speakers tell you, but
this speaker refutes them. The speaker posed a rhetorical question, "What do dreamers do?" as a way to
oppose dreams while giving clarity that you will stare at the sky, but nothing will change your situation, but
your own hard work pays off. The speaker points out clearly that in dreams you will own cars and succeed
in many things, but these will only be in your own head. That is why he says, "Dreams are good, but they are
just dreams."
For Question 1 (a), centers should prepare candidates to establish a general point of view, which the author
tries to convey. Candidates should then try to find supporting details and ideas from the passages that
(b) The original passage is a speech to the higher institutions of learning students that are about to
graduate. Candidates were asked to write any part of the speech directed to the grade 12s at the
beggining of their academic year.
A few candidates were able to write good text-based speeches in which they only selected a portion of a
speech as required, but the majority of candidates chose to write an entire speech. Some candidates also
opted to write speeches that were too general and not based on the passage.
Ndhindhilika: Ngele omulongwa okwa pulwa a yamukule oshitopolwa shimwe shoshinyolwa ngaashi
oshitopolwa shoshipopiwa, ina pumbwa okunyola epopitho nokutaamba ko aapulakeni yoondondo dha
yooloka.
Question 2
This question consists of two parts, (a) which requires the candidates to comment on how the way the author uses
language and style to convey the risk and uncertainty of life while (b) is a directed writing which requires candidates to
write the beginning of the chapter in the novel, in which the husband receives the news and rushes to the hospital. Their
answers were supposed to be based closely on the style and language of the original extract.
similar to that of the passage, their knowledge and understanding of the passage and the author's
intention, which is to convey the risk and uncertainty of life.
Aalongwa oya li ya tegelelwa ya shange elaka nomuhingo opo ya holole onkalo inayi tegelelwa noya nika
oshiponga.
In response to this question, most candidates only picked irrelevant phrases or expressions from the
passage that had no relation to the question.
Candidates who performed better in this question were the ones who figured out the author’s aim of the
passage was to convey the risk and uncertainty of life.

Omunyoli okwa longitha elaka lya kola mokatendo okatiyali ta longitha iitya yaaha shiwike kukehe gumwe
ngaashi pondingandinga yoshilando osho wo iipopiwamayele ngaashi, ongudhi yi shi okweegamenwa.
Shoka e shi longitha opo a koleke elaka lye lyo li kale lyaahe shi lyanathangwa. Omunyoli okwa longitha
wo eyeletumbulo waaha pandula noyaka shoka e shi longitha sho a li ta hokolola uukwatya womusamane
gwaNguvei. Omunyoli ina longitha nando elaka lyanathangwa nde okwa longitha elaka lya thikama pomuthika
gopombanda, lyo olya toya, notali nyuwitha omakutsi gaaleshi. Okwa longitha wo omuhingo nawa, elaka lye
li li melandulathano nawa, lyo oli uvitiwe ko.
Strong: Aalongwa oya tegelelwa ya yamukule epulo ndika momukalo ngaashi ngu tagu landula:
Mokaleshwa omo tuu muka omwa holoka oshitumbula mpoka omunyoli a ti “Omwenyo ihagu tulwa
pokakangwa shoka sha hala okutya omwenyo gomuntu ihagu dhanwa nago. Omunyoli okwe shi longitha
a holole kutya omuntu okwa pumbwa okusila oshimpwiyu omwenyo gwe noku wu kelela monkalo ya nika
oshiponga molwaasho omwenyo gomuntu ngele wa kana kagu na we mpo tagu zi. Shika okwe shi longitha
a longe aaleshi kutya nande etitano ndyoka kwa li lyu udha omaipyakidhilo nomwenyo gomuntu okwa li tagu
vulu okugwila moshiponga, aantu oya li taya kambadhala okwiigamena nokushuna komagumbo hoka ku na
egameno.
(b) Candidates were asked to write the beginning of the next chapter in the novel, in which the husband
receives the news and rushes to the hospital. Their answers were supposed to be based on closely
the style and language of the original extract.
Most candidates failed to get the general message of the passage. Some candidates indicated that Nguvei
passed on, but according to the passage, she did not die.

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Question 3
This question consists of two parts: (a), which requires the candidates to comment on how the writer uses language and
style to convey the impression of an unusual, but well-liked person; and (b), which is a directed writing task that requires
the candidates to write a part of the article based on what the principal wrote in the school magazine about the librarian
who left the school.
similar to that of the passage, their knowledge and understanding of the passage and the author's intentions.
Candidates were asked to comment on how the writer uses language and style to convey the
impression of an unusual but well-liked person.
In response to this question, most candidates only focused on the unusual characters of the
librarian, but they ignored the likeable characters of this person.

Omatumbulo nuutendo oye li melandulathano noye na omadhilaadhilo omawanawa. Uutendo kawu thike
pamwe shi ikolelela komikweyovelise, ngaashi okatendo okatitatu nokatine, okatendo okatine oke na
omikweyovelise omishona. Uuyelele wa gandjwa mehokololo ogwa yela nogu uvitike, niishewe itagu thigile
omuleshi omaipulo oshoka omunyoli okwa holola kutya konima sho omuniilonga gwomongulumambo a za po
aantu oya li ya nyanyukwa ashike kombinga yimwe oya li tayi ipula kutya olye we te ya popitha nomatumbulo
esiku.
Strong: Aalongwa oya tegelelwa ya yamukule epulo ndika momukalo ngaashi ngu tagu landula:
Omunyoli okwa shambulwa kokupopya kwe sho ta holola kutya “oku hole okulongitha iitya iile yi na omulyo
- kuuwindji wuuntokotya, oko ngaa komulyo woohapu dhe”. Shika otashi holola kutya oha popi oohapu dhi
na ongushu, notadhi hokitha okupulakena. Aalongwa otayi ilongo mo sha mwaashoka ta popi, nohaya kala
wo ya shambukwa kwaashoka tashi zi mokana ke kuunongo. Omunyoli ota holola wo kutya “iitya ye ohayi
kunguluka ngomulonga.” Ano ta popi ta faalele, iitya ya landulathana nawa note mu elekanitha nomulonga
ngele tagu kunguluka pwaahe na oluthuwo.
(b) Candidates were asked to write a part of an article that the school principal wrote for the school
magazine based on the librarian’s unusual and good characters who left the school.
Most candidates provided the general characteristics of the librarian instead of getting the answers
from the passage, and most of them concentrated on the unusual characters and overlooked the
good characteristics of the librarian.
Some candidates have used vulgar language when analyzing the passage.
In order for the candidates’ responses to be awarded in the top band, they should be able to:
• Show perceptive appreciation of the content and ideas (naya ulike euveko lyomuule kombinga
yoshikalimo nomadhilaadhilo gomunyoli)
• Relate content consistently to: structure, purpose, genre and style (Na vongokonone oshinyolwa a tala
nuukeka, nkene elaka nomuhingo gwa nwetha mo oshikalimo)
• Show excellent understanding of the nuances of language: repetition, rhetorical devices word choices
etc. (Naya holole euveko lyomuule, omayooloko nomaityo giitya, eendululo, omapulo guuretori,
ehogololo lyiitya niikwawo oyindji).
• Clearly express the intention of the author (naya ulike elalakano lomunyoli)
• Analyze text with sensitive and good discriminating awareness of language and style to create effect (ya
konakone nuukeka opo ya ulike nkene elaka lya nwetha mo oshikalimo)
• Use quotations and references effectively and appropriately (naya longithe omaumbangi taga zi
mokaleshwa)
POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO EXAMINERS


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Aalongi naya longe aalongwa okunyola uutendo wu li nawa, naya longwe etopolo lyiitya.
Aalongi naya longe aalongwa ya kale ye shi okushoneka iisimanitsa miinyolwa yawo.
Examiners should educate candidates that marks are awarded based on quality but not quantity.

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8192
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
• This was the second Grade 12 AS Level examination to be written, and there was a slight improvement compared
to the previous year's examination. Judging from the expectations in the syllabus, the candidates' performance was
• The majority of the candidates could understand and answer the questions better; however, there were some of
them who could not understand the questions very well.
• Most of the candidates answered in general instead of according to the key words.
• Some candidates wrote short essays, and a few wrote too long essays.Some people proposed unrealistic ideas.
• Some candidates misinterpreted the questions.
Section A
1 This question was chosen by most candidates; most answered the question satisfactorily; however,
some could not create an atmosphere of excitement and character. Teachers should prepare their
learners to create a sense of excitement, character, etc. when they are writing this kind of writing.
Most of the candidates only describe their family members who came to visit them instead of giving full
details of the special guest, for example, the president, ministers, famous musicians, etc.
Aalongwa naa holole eholokopo lyomuyenda tali hololwa kiinima ngaashi: iikutu mbyoka a li a zala,omilongelo
ndhoka a enda nadho, oshipopiwa nosho tuu.
Naa holole onkalo moka aakwashigwana ya li ngaashi oya li taa ligola, taa hakele omake, taa nuka nosho
tuu shi ikwatelela koludhi nuukwatya womuyenda.
2 The majority of the candidates had chosen this question and they answered it very well. However, few
candidates did not understand the question very well.
Aalongwa yamwe oya nyola etseyitho lyiipindi. Aalongwa yamwe oya hokolola ofanditha yomasiku ogendji,
noyamwe oya nyola momukalondjigilile na itashi gandja ethano lya yela komuleshi.

• Ofanditha yesiku limwe alike a kwatela mo iinima ngaashi mbika tayi landula mpaka:
• Naya kwatele mo aakuthimbinga hol. Aalandi naalandithi
• Ehala( uukwatya wehala nkene lya li) hol.ootenda,uutala nosho tuu.
• Omainyengo gaakuthimbinga hol. Elongitho lyomambako, etopitho lyomabalona, ekondjelo lyiilandithomwa
kaalandi.
3 This question was the least liked by candidates, and they did not know how to write contrasting pieces;
hence, the question proved to be challenging to all the candidates. It was evidently clear that the candidates
were not about contrasting pieces. There is a need for teachers to teach learners how to write contrasting pieces.
• Aalongi naa dhewulile aalongwa omutungilo gomondjila gomushangwasiku.
4 This was the most chosen question, candidates could really enjoy writing about the isolated hut, they
described its structure, surroundings that made their writing appealing to the reader. However, some
candidates could not answer this question properly.
• Aalongwa yamwe peha lyokuhokolola omutungilo nuukwatya wokagumbo, oya hokolola omuntu
kondandalunde a li a hepa e ta ka kuthwa ko koluvalo lwe.
• Yamwe oya hokolola shi ikwatelela keyeletumbulo ( omutima gwamukweni okalongo ki ili)

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Section B
5 Most candidates chose this question but could not suggest "how students could make a big contribution
to the teaching of that specific language." Candidates were more focused on how teachers and the
principal could make such contributions; as a result, candidates scored low marks. Candidates could
not identify problems and suggest possible solutions to the problems; instead, some candidates directed
the suggestions to fellow learners instead of the principal, and some gave the advantages of having
Oshikwanyama as a subject as it serves as a requirement for admission to international universities.
• Write a formal letter to their school principal in which they give suggestions on how to improve the performance
of Oshindonga First Language at their school. In their writing they were expected to create a sense of optimism
(etsomukumo) and enthusiasm (nuupenda), e.g:
• Debate competitions should be held.
• Library well equipped with Oshindonga resources that give more information on grammar and figures of speech.
• Awards both teachers and learners.
• Host cultural activities in schools and give learners platforms to give presentations in Oshindonga, writing
poems, essay competitions, wear their cultural attires, bring cultural food, invite cultural leaders or language
experts to educate learners on the importance of Oshindonga as a First Language.
• Extra lessons for Oshindonga should be given to learners who are struggling.
6 This was one of the most popular questions; candidates could suggest different ways to make boring
situations more entertaining in their daily lives. Most candidates created a sense of creativity and excitement
for teenagers. However, few candidates had any knowledge or understanding of who their audiences are,
so they ended up focusing on either small kids, parents, or youth in general.
Candidates were expected to include points such as:
• Participate in different sport activities.
• Watching TV, listening to the radio, reading newspapers, story books and magazines.
• Use social media, e.g. Facebook, Twitter, Tiktok etc.
• Pay visit to elders and listen to old stories
• Take part in choirs
• Visit libraries
• Take a walk
• Do exercises etc.
7 Most candidates chose this question. The question was fairly understood; however, candidates could not
provide sufficient facts to support their arguments. Candidates failed to give convincing ideas or points on
why local languages should be accepted for official business and/or why only English should be accepted
In the first letter that argues why local languages should be accepted for official business, candidates gave
the importance of local languages in general, i.e., valuing your local language indicates that you respect
your culture, it helps learners perform well at school, and it helps them become prominent community members.
Candidates were expected to write to a newspaper, including the following:

• To make communication easier e.g. in hospitals, courts, banks etc.
• To accommodate all people in official discussions.
• To value your identity.
• To create job opportunities etc.
In the second letter that argues that only English language should be accepted for official business, candidates only
indicated the importance of English as a subject in school.
Candidates were expected to write to a newspaper, including the following points:
• To avoid tribalism.
• To strengthen the communication/connection between countries easier.
8 Very few candidates chose this question. Candidates lack knowledge on how a voice over should be
written. Many were finding it difficult to write about “having fun while learning new skills”. Some candidates
reported and some narrated instead of writing a proper voice over.
The candidates were expected to answer as follows:
• Write part of a voice over script for a promotional film entitled: Having fun while learning new skills after
school.
• In their writing, they supposed to create a balance between having fun and learning new skills.
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e.g. Omuntu e hole omaudhano a ya pokapale ketanga e ki inyanyudhe nokonima e ti ilongo oompango
dhetanga nokwa ka ninga omudhanitanga
Omuntu ka kala haka dhana uuholo ki inyanyudhe nokonima okwa ningi omunawino mOmwaalu.

• Teach candidates to read and understand questions wholly because in most cases candidates read part of the
question and start answering thus resulting in losing marks.
• Train candidates how to identify keywords in different types of questions.
• The marking grid should be used to train the candidates on the expected standard and on how section (Section A
imaginative writing and Section B writing for an Audience) should be answered.
• Candidates should be exposed to a variety of reading materials so that they can be able respond to longer piece
questions and make their writing and interesting and full of vocabulary.
• In conjunction with the syllabus and other relevant Oshindonga materials plus Oshindonga orthography latest
edition should be used to avoid unnecessary grammatical errors.
• Candidates should be trained to write the correct orthography e.g ndjoka and ndyoka, itsakidhila instead of
ipyakidhila, okaana instead of okanona
• Teachers should caution candidates to use figures of speech correctly i: e megumbo mwa tselwa mbishi instead
of mbishi megumbo mwa tselwa, gwamululu oti ipelwa instead of gwelulu oti ipelwa
• Teachers should train their candidates on all different pieces of writing that are likely to be asked in Section A and
Section B, respectively.

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214
FIRST LANGUAGE OTJIHERERO
8193
Paper 1
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
Performance: This one was the second examination to be taken as NSSCAS First Language Otjiherero. The
performance of candidates was slightly poor when compared with the first examination. A number of centres could not
satisfactorily meet the expectations of the syllabus. This is regrettable given the fact that this year was not as strenuous
as last year. It was clear from the candidates’ responses that some centres put little or no effort to prepare candidates for
this demanding exams. Those centres and teachers who put more effort in their teaching and learning are applauded!
Exceptional responses: This year saw some responses that were so exceptional – presented in such an excellent
manner. Those centres and teachers are applauded for their hard work.
Passages: It appears that the three passages (persuasive, narrative and descriptive) on which the questions were set
were understood by the majority of the candidates who set for the examination. Of the two optional (elective) questions,
Question 2 appeared to be the most popular although a number of candidates also attempted Question 3 as well.
Although Question 2 was the most popular, candidates performed weaker when compared to Question 3.
1 (a) As with last year, this question asked candidates to comment on how the author uses language and
style to convey her point of view generally. The question does not have a hint (scaffolding). Again,
candidates made some relevant comments but in most cases these comments did not relate or point
to a general message or author’s point view, e.g. dreaming is not enough, action is necessary; do
not be unrealistic, do not be afraid or overconfident; be aware of your good fortune and contribute to
society. Those candidates who could establish the author’s point of view with supporting details with
relevant quotations scored good marks. An unacceptable high number of candidates still wrote in a
fragmented manner with quotes that were not useful, some copied whole parts from the passage …
and lost marks.
The following are excerpts from strong and weak answers:
Weak: Omutjange wa ungurisa eraka epore okuraisa poo okuyandja oumune we, nu we pe raisa
nao indu tji ma tja “kohapo ovandu tji mave hungire omahungi ohamukwao na inga, potuingi
ve ku raera oviṋa vyounongo nu mbi ṱuna komitima vyavo tjiri. Eye wa porisa eraka mbo
okuraisa kutja indi ehungi ndi eye ma yandja otja koumune we.
“Ovo ve hwiririka omeho meyuru nave twa po ozondando ave zeri nave hungire na zo
nokuhina ondjandero”. Imba omuhingira wa yandja oumune we ohunga nda tja ovarote ve
ungura tjike kokutja oturoto twao tu yenenisiwe. Eye wina wa raisa kutja kaaruhe omundu
tji me kupe okahungi ohunga nomaturungiro woturoto twoye kaaruhe omundu tji ma hungire
owatjiri nu we peraisa nao tja tja “Katjo? Me heye kutja, ooviṋa ooOpra na Bill Gates mbi va
ungura kutja ve toṋe, katjo? Kako!”
Strong: Omutjange ma yandja eyandjwahungi ama kondjo okuzuvisa ovahongwa imba mba mana
omerihongero omuano wapeke nokukondja okuisamo inga omeripura poo omuano omuvi
mbu ve riraera ohunga nomuinyo kombunda yomerihongero. Meraka romutjange mwe
ura ongendo nomapitasaneno ku na ovayandjahungi imba mbe tja, “kongorera oturoto
twoye, puratena kourizemburuka woye, rundurura ouye, tjita kutja u zemburukwe”. Ooviṋa
ovahungire ovengi mbi ve ku raera, posiya omuhungire ngwi wa pataṋisa oviṋa mbi. Eye
wa pura epuriro ku ku hi nokuundjirwa eziriro, indi tja tja, “Tjii ovarote ve ungura tjike?”
otjomuano warwe wina wokupirukira omarotero inga ama yandja omakahururiro omakahu
kutja mo hwiririke omeho meyuru posiya kape na tjiṋa tji matji yenene okurunduruka
nokuhina ove omuini tji mo ungura oukukutu. Omutjange me pe raisa kutja moturoto
ovihauto nomatuurungiro moviṋa ovingi mo kara na wo posiya ovyo mavi rire oviṋa motjiuru
tjoye omuini, opu ma tjere “oturoto otuwa nungwari ngundee otwo oturoto uriri”.
For Question 1 (a), centres should prepare candidates to establish a general point of view which the author
tries to convey. Then, candidates will try to find supporting details and ideas from the passages which

215
(b) Candidates were asked to write a part of a speech at a school for students starting Grade 12 on the
first day of their last year in school. This question was well-attempted by a number of candidates:
• Those candidates who carefully selected information from the passage, reworked it and reused it in
another form scored good marks.
• A significant number of candidates lifted huge chunks from the passage, not taking into account the fact
that the setting has changed in the question and lost a lot of marks.
Strong: Ma mu uharisiwa nawa vahongwa vondondo oitja-12. Ngu ma hungire omuyozikwa Veeta
Kandiimuine. Ami me mu minike nohange norusuvero nu wina memuyakura nawa posikore
yetu ndji.
Ovengi veṋu mekambura kokutja munenyando nu wina munemuma tji mweya mba nai
kotjikando otjitenga. Ovengi vetja aruhe kutja u tuurunge kongorera oturoto twoye nukara
nongamburiro move omuini. Me kambura kokutja eṋe mu nongamburiro mweṋe oveni nu?
Ami tjee nde ee nangarasi mondondo oitja-12 omundu kohepa omerikurameno nomerizirira
pupeṱapi. Imba vandu vandje ye hepwa! Omundu imba uso okupita motjikotji tjoye orimunine
avihe okahu nokuhina ondira poo omburuma. Enyando ii otjomitanda nungwari nyanda nu
u tjize. Ondondo oitja-12 i imwe omundu purirongerisira okuhupa mouye wa katjiri ouye
wovipo noviwonga. Ouye wouwa nouvi, ouye ounamuinyo. Ami hiri mba okumupa emuma
posiya vandu vandje tjimuri mondondo tjimuna ndji eyaro nomeritongamisiro kambiri eziriro
esemba moruveze ndwi. Me tjiwa kutja imba muri pura kokutja kapena tjimuhepa okuhita
ohambo nomahoro. Otji peri avihe muna vyo posiya kombunda yarusenina ma muka kwa pi
tjimwa nyanda moruveze ndu.
Weak: Omundu auhe poo ene nai ovahongwa tji maya kosikore pengara otjiṋa tjimwe tjitji muyeta
kosikore nu oko okurira omuningandu. Nu ove pondondo pu weya mba kono ndjiraere
kokutja kono ruroto ndu rota kutja uvanga okukarira ye moruyaveze. Otjomuhongwa rota nu
o mana okurota ngandu ndi oruroto twoye atuhe tji twa rire owatjiri, Nakaura oruroto twoye
nawa nu rira omutjite orurire omurote urire ngwa hakongorere oruroto roye okutara kutja
uvanga okukarira ye. Okumuraera kutja rota ngwi kakutja okurota urire nokuhina okurihonga
vahongwa okuungura oukukutu okukutjita kutja pekare otjiṋa. nu tji wa ungura oukukutu
ove omuningandu; kara nondangu onyingi move omuni omuni kutja oviṋa avihe oruveze
ohamukwa naindi wayenenisa nu moyenene nu moyenene okukarya popatonga pu perya
ombahe. Embo esenina okongwi okutja rira omurote omuwa nu tjita oruroto roye kutja
rire owatjiri.
Candidates should be prepared to carefully look at the audience and purpose of a speech and how to
re-use any language from the original passage.
2 (a) Candidates were asked to comment on the way the author uses language and style to convey the
risk and uncertainty of life. This one was the most popular of the optional (elective) questions.
Unfortunately, only a limited number of candidates who attempted it, produced good answers. The
key concepts in the question: risk and uncertainty proved to be extremely abstract. Candidates could
not see the excitement at the beginning of the extract as a build-up (forebodings, premonition) to a
tragedy underlying the risk and uncertainty of life. They only read the passage on surface value and
could henceforth not produce well-rounded answers.

Weak: “Eyuva ora Virindi wongwe ya Nambura momukutu mbu ri kavangarutjindo wa kozosara.”
Omutja wa ungurisa omambo nga etjo matangero raritjatano okuyeta ohambwarakaṋa
mehungi komurese. “Oro onḓura pevau rongondi ndji ya po rumwe.”eye wa ungurisa
omambo nga okusasaneka oritjetano nu wina okuyeta okaperendero komurese. Omutjange
wa kondjo pumayenene okuyeta okaperendero movarese ongaro ndjiri po motjihuro po
ovina mbi mavi kaenda po motjihuro indu tja ungurisa omambo nga. “Otjivepo movandu tjiri
kombanda tji mo sasaneke nondjumaneno ndja ri ko ovivike mbyakapita. Omutjange wa
ungurisa eraka eundikwa nu nda tongo tja ungurisa omambo nga “otjimbandwangoma”.
Strong: Omutjange ma yandja okaperendero poo omuze wa indi ehungi kutja ovarese ve ka yende
komurungu nokuresa kutja mu indi ehungi hapo muna tjike? Omutjange tjima tja “Omuinyo
womundu kau tji na nḓengu nandarire yokaparwa. “Eye ma yandja ouripura ouingi ku imba
ovarese kutja hapo nu kwazu ora Virindi wongwe ya Nambura pe ri nawa hi?

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Omutjange ma vanga okuturaera ohunga nomukazendu ngwari nomunyaṋutima. Eye
ma paturura ounongo wovarese kutja ondjoroka i yeta oruhoze momundu auhe. Ingwi
omusukona ngwi wa ri nondjoroka yokutja koye kuna omukandi kongwatero, neye aa ungura
pu ma yenene ma yaruke konganda. Omutjange ma seturura oukahu kutja omukazendu
ngwi eye wari moruhuro, orusuvero rwe kuna omurumendu we rwari orungi okumupata
pomeho. “Tji me ripura nomurumendu we mamu ya ondjoroka momutima we.” Omutjange
wina ma vanga okuraera ovarese kutja ovasuverasane mba ovandu va pamwe mondjoroka,
menyando na motuveze otuwa. Posiya wa kapendura e muma movarese pakatjera “eye tjiri
u sokutjiwa ounanḓengu we kape na mbya sere okumukendisa.”
Again it is reiterated that where a hint is given in questions, candidates should focus their answers to
those details that support the hint instead of dwelling on general responses on every small detail on
“language and style”.
(b) This question proved to be accessible to many candidates. Candidates were asked to write the
beginning of the next chapter in the novel, in which the husband gets the news and goes to the
hospital. The nature of the task (a continuation of the story) made it difficult for many candidates to
use the passage that they read. Weak answers were those:
• Which still focused on Nguvei and the scene of the accident.
• Which missed key details in the passage on which to build their continuation of the passage, e.g. the
relationship between the husband and wife; the fact that they had a three-year-old boy, Upi; the festive
mood at their house and relative affluence …
Strong answers were those:

• Which focused on Kapanda (mentioned his name instead of ‘Nguvei’s husband’): his reaction to the
news, his way to the hospital and the way he behaved there.
• Which were very descriptive in detailing Kapanda’s reaction and feelings.
Strong: Kapanda nambano wautu okurukutura otja ngwa kamburwa iyomburuma. Wahimwa
kutja ngautire pi. Otjimaende ama pura onesa omapuriro omengi ngehinakuvatera. Nu
tjimayendere etuwo eye otjimaende amazu omukazendu we tjimauru mu indi etuwo.
Tjimautu okupaturura etuwo otjimamunu ozonesa tjizakovere omukazendu we. Nu

waravaera eraka rimwe romapindi uriri nu inḓa ozo nesa azehumburuka kombandaye.
Watuwa kovipate vyozombete tjandje nambano matjiti tjimuna okanatje okaṱiṱi. narire tjapura
tjinene opuye.” Onesa imwe mbo tjimanga aiziri naitja “eye wakamburwa iyomburuma uriri”.
Weak: Omurumendu wa Nguvei otjomundu ngunwa omeva wamururu oviṋambi kena pevizuva oiri
ndjo na moruveze ndo nawina ingwi Nguvei iyahakwa kapari omundu rive ngwa kuramene
kokutja eye umwii.
Momakotokero womurumendu okuza kozombuharwa otjavarura omusuverwa we ama

ndangovasi nani rumwe wahiti otjirongo okeri meya. Kombunda yozoiri katjondumba otja
sekama okukapaha omukazendu.
It is stressed here again that it is imperative for candidates to know the type of writing they are dealing
with e.g. persuasive, descriptive or narrative. That will assist them when writing a directed writing
task as the task should be closely to the original. This passage had both descriptive and narrative
elements, but a significant number of candidates mainly continued the writing in a narrative form.
3 (a) Candidates were asked to comment on how the writer uses language and style to convey the
impression of an unusual but well liked person. This one was not the most popular of the optional
(elective) questions, but it was the most well-attempted of the two. A number of candidates attempted
it and produced good answers. Candidates could easily spot instances of being unusual (strange)
from the passage and that the librarian was liked especially towards the end of the passage. Most
candidates could not fully grasp the meaning behind “… she refused to accept the common, lazy idea
of what the term ‘librarian’ meant: a grey, conventional, rather boring person”. They thought she was
grey, conventional and boring for she was a librarian!

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Strong: Eye wina kwazu omundu woruravayo nungwari eye tja ya kosikore yarwe overihonge na
wina ozomitiri posikore yokombanda ndji va temisirwe i okutja ovo ma ve pendurwa i waṋi
nembo reyuva. Ovo vari nomuhihamwatima wokutja tjiri omukazona wavo wombuniko
ohimise ngwi ketjipo rukwao posikore yavo, omutjange o pa zu okuungurisa omambo nga
“… eye wa twaerera omitima tjiva vyetu”. Omutjange ngwi wina ma raisa okutja noondarire
okutja ombuniko yomundu poo omeritjindiro womundu omahimise “omundu au omundu
kovandu”.
Weak: Omutjange uazerekarere omungure wondjiuo womambo. “Mba harere ondengero yapeke
komuungure womondjuwo yomambo posikore yetu yokombanda. Membo rimwe omundu
mo yenene okumuhandjaura otja “omuhimise”. Okandu okakuze kovina mbi ungurwa
omuano umwe aruhe nao okaurise kovandu wina. Omundu “omuzeu nu osoto” uo zondjise
ndarimbarere. Eye wavazewa moruhindo kumai. Mauhepa omeri tyakaneno waNdjambi.
Aruhe aa tja “Moro verihonge!” okutja otjaavemutara. Eye aave mu zuvire mozohanga
tjimahongo orondu arokoha wari noruravayo. Eje omuzerua ndu.
(b) This question asked candidates to write part of an article in the school magazine (as the principal)
about the librarian when she leaves the school. The question was well-attempted by many candidates
and the passage provided the much needed scaffolding. A number of candidates however did not
take into account that this was the principal writing and in the school magazine for that matter! They
went on to describe the librarian as strange and untidy. These candidates were obviously not
rewarded for that.
Weak: Tji himise otji tonga mise. Omundu ngo tji ri ngahupire puno vandu nongaro ye ndjo
ongendise. Omuungure posikore yetu yokombanda omundu omuhazerwa ndu.
Eye omundu omukukutu ngu hasere okuhupira mokati koverihonge. Oukukutu we kamuna
orusuvero nu nomutima omusupi. Omapindi we tjiri omuyamburukise kotjiwaṋa. Omundu
ngu noruravayo nomambo ondundu motjinyo. Omuungure wondjuwo yomambo ngwi una
ozondjambu movandu.
Eye kape na umwe ngu va nyandere kumwe, nuwina eye uri zara otjomuungu womozondjira
popengi eye uritjinda otjo mundu nguna ouzeu omomwinyo. Munao ozondjise ze omundu
kona kutara omundu tji mokatemwe kutja eye hupira moruveze ndwasana pi.
Strong: Osikore yetu ya pandjarisa otjihenḓe ku ku nanenwa ouṱoropora. Tjotjiri ouripura wandje
kaa woye. Oturoto twandje kaa toye wina. Omundu auhe u vanga mba pu ma munu kutja
pe mu yenene. Otjitjari ove muungure wetu womondjuwo yomambo! Posiya kamaatu tu
kazemba ouwa woviungura vyoye muatje wovanatje woyetu ovaingona. Noopao kokutja
muza mbanḓe mu yaruka mbanḓe oviungura vyoye kamaa vi yenenisiwa oupupu. Osikore
yetu osemba tjinene tara tji ya mwine ouṋingandu okukara nomuungure womondjuwo
yomambo epatje ngu ha urwa – aruhe ngu ma tuvatuva uri otjetwangoma. Moma pitisiro
ngu ma ye ya matu ku paha rukwao muingona. Rukwao mo mapitisiro ngu ma ye ya matu
kara nokaruveze oku ṋanga omuheṋendu wetu ngwe twesa ngwi kokutja me ye ku rongerisa
ingwi ngwa ya rukire mu ye koviungura vye oviwa mbya ri na vyo.
Me yarukire po noviṋa mbi mba raisa ombura ndja zu ko nu meraka retu kutja ngatu ungure vi nambano mongondjero
yokutja ovanatje vetu ve kare nondoṋeno
1. Rutengatenga orapota ndji ngai haamenwe otjepu ariyerike rombongarero yotjirihongwa kutja oposikore oini,
opondondo yozosikore nḓa kutwa kumwe poo kutja opondondo yorukondwa.
2. Ombongarero yotjirihongwa ndji ngai tare mouṱenḓune mbu ri po nu i zikamise o Plan of Action ku maku ungurirwa
ndji nomayuva Due Dates.
3. Otjiṋa tjimwe tji tja munika momahongero nomerihongero woverihonge pondondo yo-AS okwo ngwi okutja ozomiṱiri
ze pereitekera overihonge uriri, tj. “tji maku zu nyamukurira komaungurisiro weraka nomiano vyokutjanga okuraisa
… nana omikoka kehi yomuano eraka mbu ra ungurisiwa tjazumba arire mbi wa nyaturura tji mo tjanga”. Mu
sokutara pamwe kutja (i) ovi oviṋa mbyo tji mavi raisa … nokutja (ii) mave twa po vi momatjangwa. Ngave ungurire
metuwo romahongero mu tare pamwe.

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4. Overihonge ngave pewe orapota ndji wina kutja ve hungirire ko ku na Miṱiri. Omarorero woposikore, nge pwikirwa
ozombapira zomarorero tjimuna ndji, kaye nombatero ndoovazu mba overihonge kave hongerwe poo kave
hongerwe nawa. NB. Omiṱiri ndji ha yenene okupura ombapira yomarorero yondondo oyo ndji i honga okutja
ngunda kai ya pwira okuhonga ondondo ndjo.
5. Otja kosirambesa ehungi ndi etenga aruhe mari rire ezuvise (epoporore), inga oyevari maye yenene okurira
kutja ehandjaure poo eserekarere. Okutja overihonge ve sokukara amave ripura nao rukuru ave ha karira
ovokutambatamba.
6. Kape vatere overihonge okutja “omutjange ma ungurisa eraka ekande, oukahu …” ndoovazu eye ke na imbwi
ouhatoi ouzuvakwa na wina kutja oro ri nongeṋena yatjike okuraisa mbi mbya tamunwa mepuriro.
7. Pa ri otjivarero otjingi tjoverihonge mba kakatera komaungurisiro woviraise vyokuresa opuwo – nangarire mbi
hi na indji onḓengu ovyo ndji vya weza ku indi ehungi. Ngamwa epuriro arihe opuwo nambano mari yende amari
rire epuriro ku ku ha undjirwa eziriro!
8. Okuhepa kutja mwa zuva kutja: “pondondo yo-AS, ovarorwa kave sokutetera (list) oviṋa mozombureta (bullets)
kaparukaze”. Wina mwa zuva kutja ave tjanga kutja: Omaungurisiro weraka peke, tjazumba arire Omiano
vyomatjangero peke. Nga rire eziriro rimwe embomba nda haṋewa moutukondwa. Arikanee ohoṋi nondondo
yokehi omurorwa wo-AS okuhina okuhaṋa eziriro re moutukondwa. Eziriro ngari hungame OTJIZO tji tja yandjwa
mepuriro, a rire okunyamukurira koviṋa kotjimwetjimwe: ngari rire OTJIMUMBUMBWA.
9. Oviungura vyo-AS vi sokumanuka momakweze yevari nga omatenga – oruveze orusupi! Okutja ngatu ute rukuru,
atu ka temba kozosikore zomayuva womasuviro. Wina katu nokutjiwa oviṋa mbi rityakaṋa momakaendisiro
wotjiungura tjomahongero tjimuna omutjise mbwi mbu ri mo.
10. Me mu zerire po omaunguriro omawa kutja tu kapite pomaunguriro wo-2021 nu tu ṱizire ondondo yomahongero
wOtjiherero kombanda otja aruhe.

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8193
Paper 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
• This was the second Grade 12 AS examination to be taken and there was a slight improvement compared to
previous year examination. Judging from the expectations in the syllabus, the performance of the candidates was
• The majority of the candidates could understand and answer the questions exceptionally well, however, there were
some of them who could not understand the questions very well.
SECTION A
1. This question was chosen by most candidates, most answered the question satisfactory, however, some
could not create the atmosphere of excitement and character. Teachers should prepare their learners to
create a sense of excitement, character etc., when they are writing these kind of writing.
2. The majority of the candidates chose this question and they really gave detailed description of people,
setting and sounds which helped to answer the question better.
3. This question was the least favoured by candidates and they did not know how to write contrasting pieces
hence the question proved to be challenging to all the candidates, it was evidently clear that candidates
were not well-versed in writing contrasting pieces. There is a need for teachers to teach learners how to
write two contrasting pieces.
4. This was the most chosen question, candidates really enjoyed writing about the isolated hut, they described
its structure, surroundings that made their writing appealing to the reader.
SECTION B
5 Most candidates chose this question but could not suggest ‘’how students could make a big contribution to
the teaching of that specific language”. Candidates were more focused on how teachers and the Principal
could make such contributions, as a result, candidates scored low marks. Candidates could not identify
problems and suggest possible solutions to the problems.
6 This was one of the most popular question; candidates could suggest different ways of how to make
boring situations more entertaining in their daily life. They created a sense of creativity and excitement.
7 This question was chosen by most candidates, the question was well understood, however, candidates
could not provide sufficient facts to support their arguments.
8 This question was the least chosen question. It was very clear that candidates were not taught what a
‘’voice over ‘’ is. Candidates were finding it difficult to write about “having fun while learning new skills”.

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3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS
• Teachers should teach candidates to read and understand the whole question because in most cases candidates
read part of the question and start answering thus resulting in them losing marks.
• Give candidates training on how to identify keywords in different types of questions.
• The marking grid/scheme should be used to train the candidates on the expected standard and on how section
(Section A imaginative writing and Section B writing for an Audience) should be answered.
• Candidates should be exposed to varieties of reading materials so they can be able to answer longer piece
questions, make their writing interesting and with a rich vocabulary.
• In conjunction with the syllabus and other relevant Otjiherero materials plus Otjiherero orthography latest edition
should be used to avoid unnecessary grammatical errors.
• Teachers should train their candidates on different types of tasks that are likely to be asked in Section A and Section
B, respectively.

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FIRST LANGUAGE RUKWANGALI
8194
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
The candidate’s overall performance was better than it was the previous year. This can be inferred from how satisfactorily
they responded to the the questions. Despite some inevitable challenges, the candidates this time around approached
the questions differently and appropriately, it was noted during marking questions (a). was the most common one
in which candidates displayed the most improvement. The candidates were able to express their opinions, provide
references, and provide well-explained justifications for their decisions about particular language features. Before
attempting to respond to questions, the majority of candidates demonstrated that they comprehended the passage.
However, during the marking process, difficulties also showed themselves in the candidates’ responses. But even with
all of this, we will fall short of our job if we don’t acknowledge the teachers who helped the candidates become capable
of handling this enormous burden. Consequently, we thank all of the teachers.

Epuro 1
There were two sections to this question: part (a) and part (b). The candidates were required to write a speech for part
(b) and part (a), in which they were asked to remark on the speaker’s use of language and style to present her viewpoint.
The candidates’ responses to the particular portion of the question are discussed in the paragraphs below.
(a) The author’s use of language and writing style to explain his viewpoint was the basis for the candidates’
answers to this question. In contrast to the previous exam, where candidates were only able to
choose language features and list them without commenting on the impact the specific language
features made as used by the author, in this exam, candidates were able to formulate a statement,
quote, and provide reasons to support their quotes.
Here is an example on how the candidates attempted to answer the question: Mutjangi kuna kukorangeda
varesi asi va hepa kurugana eyi lina kuuyunga ezwi lyokomutjima ,awo hena narunye va hepa ku yi tura
moyirugana,eyi kuna ku yi likida apa ana kuuyunga asi: “Purakena ezwi lyoge lyokomutjima” Eyi kuna
kusanseka asi muntu narunye kukara nomazwi gavali aga aga mu tantere asi rugana yuma yongandi,nye
limwe asi siga yininke oyo. This type of response falls into the category of those that all candidates were
anticipated to provide since it includes everything that is required by the question, which asks them to comment
on the author’s use of language and style in advancing his viewpoint. Numerous candidates achieved band
five status because they were able to make accurate claims and back them up with quotations that they then
justified in terms of the language’s effect.
There were some candidates who could provide a statement and a quote in support of it but were unable to go
into great depth as to why the author chose to employ that particular linguistic device for example Mutjangi kwa
ruganesa epuro lyoretolika “Yisinke eyi ava rugana varoti wononzodi?” Epuro eli mupuli kapi ana kundindira
elimbururo. Vakandidate ava kwa va ndindilire ngano va singonone asi morwasinke ga ruganeserere epuro
lyoritolika mutjangi ndi muuyungi.Konda pwazene zelike asi kapi ana kundindira elimbururo kapi zinakara
nononkondo zikumopeke sitambo seyi lina hara epuro. Literally, this would read as follows: What does the
dreamer do? the author posed as a rhetorical question. They were required to provide justifications for how, in
their perspective, the rhetorical question is causing a scenario in the audience. There were some candidates
who chose a figure of speech but didn’t explain its effects in the context in which it was employed; instead,
they just stated what it meant. A sample of what some candidates wrote is provided below.: “Ame kwa kere
simbungu mpili ngomu ya kere asi kapisi hepero” Instead than describing the impact this expression has in the
context in which it was employed by the author, some candidates discussed what it means. The candidates
were required to explain why the character described in the text believed he was a scared mouse in this
situation. Overall, compared to last year, the majority was able to respond to this question quite well. This is
an obvious improvement.
(b) For this question, the applicant was supposed to draft a speech that would be delivered to
candidates in grade 12 as they began their last year of school. The requirement that candidates
base their responses on the original text was one of the most crucial elements. Even while some
of the candidates did a good job of crafting the speech, some of it contained unnecessary details,
particularly the lengthy introduction that came before the speech’s actual focus on the subject. That
explains the non-following of instruction. Here is what the candidates wrote: “Mpandu kompito
ezi nina gwana komugendesi gelikwamo. Vanekuto namuvenye one muna kara apa. Varongwa

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namuvenye one muna kuvareka harade zeni zomurongo 12.Edina lyange nyame….” Eyi kapi ya
kara hepero asi vakandidate va vareke siuyungwa kumwe noruha oro runa tumburwa ,morwa
edinkango mepuro kuna kuvapura va tjange ruha rwene rwene rosiuyungwa, mpili ngomu yina kara
asi hepero va vareke nononkango ngamoomu: Ame kuna ku ka gava makorangedo kovarongwa
namuvenye one muna kuvareka harade zomurongo na12.Varongwa kuna kuvandindira epuro eli
va tjange yooyo vana va pura,omu vana kuruganesa nonkango davene ,nye magano gosireswa
sontundiliro ga hepa kumoneka mo. Eyi yina kutanta yeyi asi varongwa va hepa kudiva maruha
gosiuyungwa ngamoomu: Etwaromo,ntjimatjima,ntani ehageso. Mepuro eli varongwa kwa va
ndindilire va tjange ntjimantjima zelike.Vana hepa kumbahamena ko yo lina kundindira epuro
kukwama edinkango lina kara mo.
There were candidates who accomplished everything exactly as expected, and it is impossible to avoid
giving them and their teacher credit for it.
Malimbururo ngamoomu tupu nkare ga moneke moyitjangwa yovarongwa:

Magano gomutjangi mosireswa:
• Kurota kapi a ku tanta Yuma-kurugana yiyo yomulyo.
• Wa ha likumbagera:wa ha tjira,wa ha kara nehuguvaro lyokupitakanena
• Kara ono diva erago lyoge nokukambeka ko Yuma konkarapamwe
Yitumburwa yokutunda mosireswa yina kara asi kuvhura va yi tumbure vakandidate.Mudemeneno

gomuuyungi
• Nampili ngamoomu evango lyopaveta siuyungwa sendi rorunzi ngasi kara pahasikwamo(nye karuwo
tupu,sirongwa sokuhova ,siga nzodi.
• Siuyungwa sinayuka vapurakeni(Diworoka asi ove kapisi muntu ogu nava vhura kuhadera hena,ngesi
ove kuna li sikamene pwanyaamoge mouzuni.Ove munerago sikwata mawoko gavali.
• Yiruwo yimwe kwa ruganesa eraka lyesemeneno(Ove kwa ku gazara asi tayi ka ku tompoka mouzuni)
• Mapuro golitolika nomalimbururo(mouhunga,hawe,yisinke ava rugana varoti.
• Etataneso lyenene lyopayengwerero,Etamburo lyomagano ga hana uhunga.(Awo narunye tava
kutantere…)
• Udivi wamwene,yiruwo yimwe kuzoresa(Ame kwa gazarere,kwa ku teura nge?/Ove kuvhura kurara
porugorongwa nokulira ngomu na lilire.
• Erugururo lyenkondopeko(Rota,,Rota nokurota,rota nonzodi dononene)
• Nontanto dimwe dononsupisupi denkondopeko(Kwama nzodi zoge,purakena ezwi lyoge lyokomutjima)
• Etumbwisofano (Ame kwa kere simbungu)
• Vantu vene vene kw ava ruganesa ngosihonena(Oprah naBill Gate).
• Nomuzaro domankondopeko(Sitetu senesene,elihameseromo,vantu wononkondo)
• Malisigo(Kara murugani kapisi muroti.)
Yisewe nonombuyungofano
• Ove kuna kututura nzira zeparu lyoge(Ove kuna kara nehuguvaro lyeparu lyoge.
• Ngwendi eme(Eme kapi a li kara siruwo)
• Kwato eziukiro lyonyanya(Etarururo lyovarongi)
• Ove kuna kuteura nge(Kuna kusinda nge)
• Kuna kara nomudigo gomunene(Ntambo zokutamekera)
Epuro 2
(a) Similar to the last, mandatory question, candidates were asked to discuss the language and
style employed to communicate the risk and unpredictability of life. Many candidates made
an effort to respond to this question. Their responses revealed an advancement in their
understanding of this this question. Here is an illustration of how they responded to this
question, and it is correct: “”Mutjangi kuna kuvareka ngesi :kapisi nkenye utano nye googena
mautano omu nkenye muntu a li zuvhu asi ana kara nelimba lina pama’mutjangi kuna tamba asi ou
utano sinzi sovarugani vana tambura tambura nkenye eyi vana hara kuranda tava randa vana kara
nye nombware hamutjekera manyami zelike”. Melimbururo eli maruha nagenye gana hepwa mo ge li
ngamoomu tupu yina fwaturuka mepuro lyo(a) asi yisinke ya fira kukara melimbururo lina ngamoomu
esingonono, enoworotemwinino kumwe nenkondopeko. Eyi yiyo vana kundindira valimburuli
monontengenekolimbururo dawo. The candidates who were able to respond in such way were
thus placed in the upper band 5, which was the result. There were some candidates, though, who
struggled to provide a satisfactory response, and as a result, they received low grades. In contrast
to other candidates who could recognize features of language but presented them incorrectly, these
individuals could only identify language features and could not explain them further.
Yitumburwa yimwe yokuvhura kumoneka moyitjangwa yovakandidate.

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a.Mpi
• Momaruhatjango gavali gokuhova,mutjangi kwa hetakanesa malisigo goruhafo rwaNguvei
rwemepata,kumwe noruhafo romongurova zoutano zontundiliro zosiponga.
• Momaruhatjango gatatu gokuhulilira mutjangi kwa nkondopeka hararasi zosiponga,maudona gaso
kumwe neyi vana kurugana ko vantupeke.
Ruhafo rwepata
• Kembo koutjiliro wompepo kouvando wokamanya.
• Sipito sosinene sezuva lyehampuruko
• Mukwawo gokuhuguvara.
• Ngundi zoukorero.
• Muligavelimbili noruhafo moyiruwo yoyiwa.
• Diworoka erago lyoge.
Ntundiliro zosiponga.
• Vamahaka tava nyangauka ngomakangakodi.
• Eparu kwato mulyo lipitakane sitji sakaparu.
• Nkenye gumwe mongenderera a tengure kembo.
• Kwa kambadarere mositata vana kulikoha.
Hararasi zosiponga
• Kwa mu memwine(Ezoneso erongikido lyenene)
• Kuhenduka ehudi lyenene(Ezoneso erongikido lyenene)
• Kofa za mu toonene
Eyi va rugene ko vantupeke

• Mbunga kwa pongere (Mokaruwo tupu)
• Mapiyagano/epirokudivilisa(Magazaro ta ga rugana siruwo nasinye)
• Nkenda (Ruhepo rwendi)
• Vahakuli kwa tetukire)
Yisewe nonombuuyungofano
• Sitata sepemburo(makuruhafa mositata sosinene)
• Kapi a yi horoka (rumpugukwa)
• Malimba gana pama(Ezuva lyetamburo nonzambi)
• Mosiruwo sosinunu(Usimbu usimbu)
• Ngehewo vana ponyo(kugenderera usimbuusimbu)
• Ngonzahe zimwe zeparu(Eparu siponga)
(b) In response to this question, the candidates were asked to describe how the husband finds
out about his wife’s injury and travels to the hospital in the first paragraph of the following
chapter. There were several candidates who wrote well, and it was relevant to the section. Some
candidates, however, interpreted the question incorrectly and instead chose to write a conversation
between the messenger and the victim’s husband. The discourse lacked the necessary details to
demonstrate that the candidate possesses knowledge that is relevant to the original text. Therefore.
This indicates that candidates fail to make note of the question’s primary notion, which is conveyed
by the question’s keywords. Here is what the candidates were required to write in their responses.
Siuyungwa
Varongwa kapi vana kuvandindira asi va tjangurure yooyo yina kara mosireswa nye kuna kuvandindira
mokuruganesa magano ganyaamwawo aga gana kuliza kumwe nombudi zina kara mosireswa sontundo.
Magano ag ava gava mosireswa mukandidate kuvhura nye kugaruganesa ngwendi ganyaamwendi pokugatura
mononkango danyaamwendi. Mulimburuli apa ana hepa nye kutara asi epuro yisinke lina hepa kwina yiko
na demenena mosiuyungwa sendi. Kuvhura kuvareka nonkango zimwe ezi zina kulikida asi ta ka hamena
koyiha yongandi mosiuyungwa sendi, nye ga ha mbahamena ko unene,ana hepa kugwira mositambio sendi.
Epuro 3
(a) The candidates here were also expected to comment on the language and style to convey the
impression of an unusual but well-liked person. Some candidates produced a good piece of the answer.
As expected, the candidates’ responses can be seen in the following sample: “Somuhowo mutjangi kwa
ruganesa etumbwisofano(mbohwa)yipo a singonone nkareso noukaro womupungulinobuke. Etumbwisofano

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eli kwa li ruganesera mo,morwa age kapi ga hara kutambura magano aga ga kara po” Nsene o tara
montanto ezi to mono mo maruha nagenye ga hepwa mekumbururo keraka nompi,ngamoomu esingonono,
etemwinino kumwe nenkondopeko. Elimbururo eli lina sikisa mo yinakugwanesa po yomu lya fira kukara
elimbururo.
Nampili ngoso simpe koveli vamwe wovakandidate ava va dilire kusikisa mo kulimburura epuro,nye kwa
tumbagura tupu yitja oyo ya gendera mosireswa,nehuguvaro asi ngano va vhure kunkondopeka asi ngapi
omu eraka lya vhura kuguma etunturo lyoyikara yomuntu gombohwa ogu hena simpe va hara,nye yiyo va
hagera poopo. Valimburuli kwa va ndindilire ngano va tamunune momunene sitambo sawo sehoroworo yitja
yina.Varongwa va hepa kudiva momagano gawo asi morwasinke muuyungi gongandi ana kuruganesera
mbuyungo zongandi mositjangwa sendi. Simpe hena varongwa va hepa ngano kudiva nombuyungofano odo
vana horowora yip ova gave malimbururo gouhunga.
Yitumburwa yimwe eyi ngano ya fira kumoneka moyitjangwa yovakandidate.
Mutjangi ana kulikida asi mupungulinobuke mbohwa ntani kwa mu hara.

Nompepo/kwa mu hara
• Mbohwa
• Varongwa kugazara asi age muntu gonompepo.
• Muntu ogu ga diva yoyinzi kuvapitakana.
• Age kwa mu fumadeka
• Nohuki da hana divilisa
• Kugenderera (ngendeso zositambo)
• Kudwara yomavara mavara eyi a yi tetura vantu.
• Kutendauka
• Kuruganesa nonkango dononde nomukumo
• Nga uyunga kuuyukilira
• Nga uyunga kutendagana
• Kuliteka usimbu
• Kwa kere nompangera.
• Yiruwo yimwe nga likida umbondo
Kwa mu here
• Age kwa kere muntu ogu va fumadekere.
• Vantu ava ngava dili kumukwata egano kwa kere woudwa.
• Kwa kwete siruwo mokumukwata egano asi muntu musinke.
• Rugendeso rwendi kureta sitetu
• Maruvara gendi nga ga likasa momeho govantu.
• Vantu ngava purakene apa nga uyunga.
• Vantu ngava lizuvhu asi g ava pitakana.
• Kwa humisire tjange vetu wovanzi.
• Vantu ngava menyamenya koukaro wendi ntani kwa mu tambwire.
• Awo kwa mu pere Edina lyokumurundumuna lyombili.
• Awo kwa limbilirwe apa ga dirukire.
Yisewe nonombuyungofano
• Mukwamakwami gweyi yosikurusanare (kapi nga moneka nawa)
• Muntu gonompepo
• Nohuki dendi nga di porokere pevango nalinye. (umbondo)
• Nali nipi(nga tampura nontambo dononde)
• Ga tu humisa tjange (Ga tu funda)
• Kutendauka (Ezwi lyenene lyosikorama)
• Kumukasera (kusenenekeda)
• Ngwendi gonyambi(sizaruke)
• Kwa mu sese (Edina lyokurundumuna)
• Kwa twere nomutjima detu (ngatu mu rongora)
(b) For this question, candidates were asked to write an article about the school’s former librarian.
The majority of the candidates did well and were able to generate quality written works. However, several
candidates misunderstood the question and instead produced a speech, a letter, or an autobiography instead
of an article.
Below is what was expected to be included in the answers of the candidates:

• A description of the librarian’s behavior during her tenure at the school before she moved, as shown in
the article.
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• The description should include the way she dresses, her hairstyle, the way she expresses herself, her
mood, and how she was admired by fellow workers and candidates.
It should also be highlighted that the markers encountered the following incorrect word spellings during
marking. These are some of the topics that should have been covered in earlier grades. Listed below are a
few of the typos. The first words are those that are misspelled, while the second words are those that should
have been written by the candidates.
nese - nsene
ipo - yipo
ngango - nkango
malizovhu - malizuvho
kulikadi - kulikida
nsizi - sinzi
sihorwa - sihora
kuwara - kupira sinka
navha - nava
vura - vhura
tuna mu mesa - kuna ku mu rongora
nsanso - nsonso
mazwe - mazwi
kouhagero welima - kehagero welima
nhena - hena
mpindi - mpili
ufumwa - mfumwa
enye - nye
kuvura - kuvhura
wakwetu - vakwetu
vo - wo
tjesa - kulikira
mpandura - pandura
pevu - pevhu
divure - di vhure.
Sihorwa - sihorokwa
Kulikadi - kulikida
Navha - nava
Nsanso - nsonso
Nonkanko - nonkango
Mazwe - mazwi
Kouhagero welima- kehagero elima
Nhena - henaufumwa-mfumwa
Makorangedo gamwe gomulyo.
Varongi va hepa pwa vene kuresurura ngendesorongo,awo va kambadare kuziseununo. Va hepa hena simpe kudiva
nomuzaro doyigwedokokorekeso yipo va koreke pauhunga mosiruwo sawo sedeuro kumwe nerongikido varongwa
vawo va ka tjange makonakono gekehagero lyomulyo. Varongwa va hepa kuvakorangeda yipo va rese nkenye apa
nekwatogano eyi vana kuresa. Madinkango aga Eraka noMpi varongwa va hepa narunye kugadiva eyi gana kutanta
kukwama mapuro. Esi sirugana sovarongi mokufwaturura mademeneno nomandindiro gosirongwa. Varongwa narunye
va hepa. kuvadiworokesa yina hamene esipiro. Varongi va hepa kutarurura esipero kwankenye yirugana vana kupa
varongwa. Yitjangwa yiwe ngamoomu nombilive,noaritikeli,yiuyungwa nayimwe ngoso va heap ku yi ronga nawa yipo
varongwa va dive nawa maruha gayo.
Hulilira tatu ruganesa mpito ezi tu pandure varongi mononkambadarro dawo mokudeura varongwa vawo. Simpe
varongi vana heap kurugana unene.Nsene hepero vana heap kulihamesera momalideuro gelifufungururo.

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8194
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
In comparison to the last exam of 2021, there were good and varied responses from candidates across questions,
hence the paper was fair overall. Essays that stood out used specific language and reasoning that addressed the
difficulties stated in various instances. Grammar was the major problem, and poorly constructed essays with few
examples typically featured bad word choice and poor sentence structure.
The majority of the essays submitted by candidates were the appropriate length, and some candidates wrote a lot since
they had plenty of time. This suggests that they were effective time managers. Every component of essays is evident
in their writing. Some of the candidates lacked the skills necessary to write a conclusion. Despite finishing their essay,
they concluded it with a series of straightforward claims that did not address the topic.
It is crucial to back up claims with examples that are both pertinent and specific. There were a lot of instances that
are too broad and unrelated to the topic. Some wrote without sufficient facts. The most frequent calamity in both
good candidates’ essays and weaker candidates’ essays is misspelled words. Punctuations were misused. Stronger
candidates clearly showed in their essays that they had done a lot of reading and had chosen their examples carefully.
Section A: Imaginative writing (YITJANGWA YELITUNGIROKAFANO)
Question 1
Tjanga etameko lyesanseko lina kuvareka nontanto zina kukwama ko: Hulilira mugenda gekuto ga divikwa ta
hwilire noukeka. Metjango lyoge totesa po mpepo zesinganyeko noyikara.
This was one of the most difficult questions. Several candidates choose to answer this question. The few who did
well on this question were able to comprehend the question, describe the well-known guest, and concentrate on the
entryway e.g varongwa kuna kusimwitira omu mugenda ana kuhwilira mevango omu vanapongo vantu, sinzi sawo kuna
kulipyata valipuragere nsene sili yige sili nawa nawa. Varongwa ava awo kwa demenene moomo mevango vana kara
nomugenda makura.
While those who struggled with this question only generalized on a tale of a familiar and unfamiliar visitor, even outside the
venue, which was not part of the competency measured, for example: Varongwa vamwe kuna kusimwitira siuuyungwa
somugenda ntani mutupu mukaro gesinganyeko. Yangesi kapi yina ku li za nepuro, epuro alyo kuna hara mu candidate
a limburure tupu kuhamena mugenda gadivikwa omu ana kuhwililira noukeka. Munona a sanseke etameko lyelike ga
ha za mo momunene dogoro momu ana ku ka pwaga hena mevango.
Question 2
Tjanga sitjangwa sopasingonono sina hamene kezuva lyerandeso Yuma. Mositjanga soge demenena kovantu,
evega, kumwe nonomuhagaro edi na di vhura kuvatera varesi woge nkumwe va litungire kafano kuhamena sihorokwa.
Many candidates chose this question, and the majority of them did well. The terminology was well-structured, and the
ideas were arranged in a logical manner. Due to the fact that their school has been hosting entrepreneurs’ days every
year, it appears that the majority of candidates answered this question. With the experiences they had been having,
they already knew what to write.
Even though the majority of candidates answered this question correctly, a small number of them misread it and made
advertisements and speeches. Some candidates were entirely oblivious to the surroundings and sounds, concentrating
exclusively on the people. There were several candidates who chose to write about the event’s planning rather than
the actual event itself.
Question 3
Tjanga matjango gavali gokulisiga mobuke zoyihorokwa yankenye ezuva (nonkando di sike ko 250- 300 nkenye
simwe). Sitjangwa sokuhova sikare somunona kuhamena ezuva lyendi lyokuhulilira posure zoSecondere; souvali
sagumwe govarongi vendi ga mu diva nawa nawa, kezuva lyendi lyokuhulilira posure. Mositjangwa soge totesa po
malizuvho noukaro.
Some candidates chose to answer this question, and it was fairly answered. Candidates that performed better on this
subject produced a diary in which they described their final day of school from dawn to evening while writing in the
first person. The several incidents they were involved in that day served as vivid instances of the mood:vanona vana

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simwitire kuhamena omu vana ku lirekera novakwawo, omu vana ku li pa mauhwi, vamitili vawo omu vana ku va rekera
kuhamena eparu lyepe nava ka tameka konyima zomalirongo. Simpe vana singonona omu vamwe vana kulira kehafo
ano vamwe kun a kudimbagera nonsumo domalirekero.
The weaker candidates prepared a speech using the collective attitude of all candidates on their final day of classes.
e.g: varongwa kuna simwitire kuhamena omu ava kara varongwa posure, eyi ava rugana. Ngano kwalivyukilire pwa
mwene kuhamena elizuvho lyendi mezuva lyendi lyokuhulilira posure nomu ga lizuvhire.
Some failed to put themselves in the position of the teacher and write about a particular learner who is receiving his or
her final grade. Some candidates failed to follow the right essay format from the introduction to the conclusion. Ideas
are not organized. Vamwe kuna kusimwitira simpe pwamwene omu ana kusingonona nomitili eyi dina kurugana mezuva
lyovarongwa lyokuhulilira, yina karaasi ngano kuna litura gwendi yige murongi ana kutjanga kuhamena murongwa
gwendi ogu gadiva nawa ana kara posure ezuva lyendi lyokuhulilira, ntani elizuvho lyendi ngomuongi komurongwa
gwina.
Question 4
Tjanga sitjangwa sopasingonono vana kutumbura asi Sindunda sa ndjukumana selike. Mositjangwa soge demenena
kontungiso zaso, kumwe neyiya sikundurukida, yipo o vatere varesi woge va vhure kulitungira efano lyaso.
Most candidates who answered this question in this area did well. They can explain the structure that was specified
in the question. They are able to provide readers with a more comprehensive understanding of this structure through
their writing, including how it is built, what it looks like on the interior and exterior, from a distance and up close, as well
as the surroundings. They utilize appropriate vocabulary to describe this humorous dwelling or space, and their ideas
are grouped clearly.
The less impressive candidates gave names and descriptions of the building’s owner as well as their lifestyle.
Section B: KUTJANGERA VAPURAKENI
Question 5
Tjanga mbilive zina vyuka komukuronasure gosure zeni, omu ono kufwaturura makwatesoko govarongwa aga naga
vhura kuwapukurura ndongeso zoRukwangali. Mositjangwa soge likida mo mukaro gezedagwiro neharo.
Few candidates responded to this question, and some performed well while others did not. Stronger candidates’
comments include information on how candidates can contribute to the Rukwangali teaching process. Some people
claimed that candidates had to question their parents about particular words used in Rukwangali courses. To help them,
they must arrange additional classes with Rukwangali experts. They have to decide which themes in Rukwangali are
difficult for them, ask other teachers in their neighborhood for help, and then report to their teacher once they are back
at school. They added that they should receive messages from their Rukwangali tutors.
Contrarily, weaker candidates wrote that they would complain to the principal about lazy teachers rather than make
recommendations about how they could improve the teaching and learning process in Rukwangali. narrating a tale of
a certain teacher from your school.
Question 6
Saitunga zoposiruwo za fumana zovaresi wovadinkantu za kupura o tjange sintokorwa vana kutumbura asi Egusopo
elizuvhomukuma. Singonona asi ngapi novhura kusinta ukaro womukuma ukare wosihafesa sosinene meparu lyoge
lyankenye ezuva. Mositjangwa soge likida mo etotesopo Yuma kumwe noruhafo.
The vast majority of candidates selected this question In this question, the majority of them performed admirably.
They have a tremendous talent for turning a depressing situation into one that is happy-making. The bulk of the
examples provided to describe what to do when you’re bored were good attempts, as seen by their relevance. some
candidates struggled to make logical arguments or provide information on how to pass the time. They were merely
making generalizations.
Question 7
Tjangera kosaitunga nombilive mbali (nonkango di sike pokatji ko-250_300 nkenye zimwe). Mbilive zimwe zi
pameke pakonda asi maraka nagenye ava ruganesa nonukunda va heap kugatambura mokugaruganesa moyiviyaka
nayinye yopaveta; ano ezi nkwawo zi tatanese pakonda asi Ruingilisarwelike nava tambura moyiviyauka yopaveta.
Despite the fact that the majority chose this question, each letter had convincing justifications. Contrary to the first
letter, the second letter received fewer responses from candidates that included facts, but nevertheless had important
comments that demonstrated the candidates’ high level of thought. Those who performed poorly on this question
struggled to articulate why all official activities should be conducted in their mother tongue. Some people ran to

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conclusions because they were unable to provide further information in the second letter.
Question 8
Tjanga ruha rwene rwene rositjangwa sezwipitisiro sihorokwa sina tamba ezeruropameko lyofilima vana tambura
asi: Ku pwira moudano siruwo sooso ove kuna kulirongera mo maunongo gomape, nsene zina pwaga sure.
Mositjangwa soge tulisa po ehetekano mokatji kelihamesero moudano kumwe nelirongo maunongo.
This question was answered by only two candidates, which indicates that the majority of them are illiterate in voiceover
writing. Those who chose this question struggled because they were perplexed. They created a speech and dialogue
rather than a voiceover.

• The teachers deserve praise for the excellent effort they did in preparing the candidates.
• Candidates should be taught how to select the question’s main theme and any subtopics that need to be
addressed in their written responses. Sihonena: nsene epuro kwa kupura kusingonone, murongwa a ruganese
unene nonsingoninkangodina. Moomo mepuro lyokusingonona a tare edi olyo vana mupura.
• Candidates should be given the marking scheme so they can understand it and know what is expected of them
when writing. They must prioritize: Mutungo
Edemeneno
Ndunganesoraka
yidivisoreseso
• Candidates should be encouraged to consistently employ connecting words in their essays since they help connect
ideas that are conveyed in various paragraphs.
• Teachers should advise candidates to avoid using English words when writing in Rukwangali and to use official
words rather than slang ones.
• Teachers should instruct candidates on how to handle questions 3 and 7. When writing the second essay, several
candidates start to lose concentration.

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FIRST LANGUAGE RUMANYO
8195
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
The majority of candidates performed well on Question 1, which was a required question, and they demonstrated a clear
comprehension of their assignment and a strong ability to communicate it. Some candidates did, however, nonetheless
exhibit a lack of knowledge of language style application.
Candidates who chose questions 3 and 2 encountered significant difficulties in all areas of the (a) and (b) questions
because they were unable to provide accurate and high-quality answers as needed
In questions 2a and 3a, the majority of candidates reproduced the passages instead of focusing on their fundamental
comprehension by examining the author’s intention as well as pointing out the language and style and how it affects
the reader.
The majority of candidates in questions 2b and 3b were unable to adequately demonstrate their understanding of either
question. For instance, in question 2b, where candidates were required to write the first paragraph of the following
chapter of an incident in which the husband receives news and rushes to the hospital where the wife was taken after
an accident, candidates were unable to continue the novel and instead ended up copying the same text. Additionally, it
was noted that several candidates only partially or completely responded to the question, which suggested that either
they were unsure of how to approach the subject or that there was not enough time.
A portion of an article about the librarian leaving the school that the principal writes for the school magazines Instead
of producing an article, candidates interpreted the question incorrectly and instead wrote a speech or copied the piece
verbatim. It was also noted that some candidates produced excessively long responses, which were superfluous
because they didn’t even attempt to address the issue. This typically occurred in (b) questions where the word count is
only intended to be between 120 and 150.
COMMENT ON THE SPECIFIC QUESTION
Question 1
It is clear from their responses that many candidates were able to apply their knowledge and expertise to question 1.
Given that it was a mandatory question, candidates benefited since the passage’s content and the language used to
communicate it were both fair and straightforward, allowing them to demonstrate their knowledge of and understanding
of the author’s point of view.
Lipuro kwa kalire shi “Kumburura omo a rughanita mutjangi liraka narupe a tape mbudi yendi vashongwa va li limburulire
nawa lipuro lino, nampiri ngoli mpovali shimpe vamwe ovo va neghediro ugcoro wamaghano kovyo va vhura kutjanga
ntani va kalire naligcondo mukurughana ovyo vyawapero. Vashongwa kwa damaghurlire mo tupu vidimburlito vyaliraka
nakuviyara enengoli kapi vavi fwaturura ashi morwarwanke avi rughanitira mutjangi ntani nakunegheda omo vi vhura
kuguma vavaruli. Vashongwa vamwe mulivango lyakutjangurura ntanto omo va rughanita olyo liraka, vavo kunovora
mo tupu ndjoyo nkango makura kuyifwaturura, nani ngoli ndi kudamuna ntanto nayintje omo a rughanita mutjangi liraka
narupe makura kuvi fwaturura a tante ashi vinke vina kutanta kutwara mulighano lyamutjangi.
(b) Vashongwa mulipuro lino kwava pulire va tjange ruha rwashighamba osho a tapile mughambi ghumwe
ogho a ghambitire vashongwa vavape muntambondunge ya ro naviri muliyuva lyavo lyakuhova
mumwaka waupe.
Since the task is familiar to them and they virtually daily experience it in their communities, the majority of
candidates did produce a piece of speech in response to this topic.
Vashongwa vavangi va kambadalire kulimburura lipuro lino munaruwa omo va kumbururlire ko mumarupe
ghakukushuva-shuva ntani padjuni makumbururo padjuni kumonayika muvirughana vyavashongwa vamwe
mukutapa lighano lyene-lyene lyamushivarura omo va demenena nanongo kulirughanitorakadjuni. Vya
moneka mo shimpe virughana vimwe omo vashongwa va vhulire kutjangurura tupu ukalimo washitjangwa
mulivango lyakurughanita lighano, rudi rwaliraka ntani narupe vyamushitjangwa muvirughana vyavo. Kughupa
ko vyo shingi shavashongwa kulipuro lino ndjo lyava pire hasha vitwa.

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Question 2
Most candidates chose question 2, and many of them gave subpar answers. It appears that the candidate’s duties
(responses) there was misinterpretation in the context of the passage. The comments from the candidates caused
some confusion.
(a) Lipuro lino kwa kalire shi “kumburura kundjira omo a rughanita mutjangi liraka narupe mukutapa
mbudi yendi kuhamena viponga namahudi ghamuliparu. Vashongwa kapi va kwatire lighano lipuro
lino, kapi va neghedire liyuvhoka lyavo kuhamena ovyo vavapulire, ntani kapi va vhulire kukumburura
ko omo a rughanita mutjangi liraka narupe. Vashongwa vamwe kutjangurura tupu vyamushivarura
hana kunegheda liyuvho ko lyavo nakutapa ko uyivi wakuhamena kovyo vana va pura. Shimpenka
mwa monikire lidamauro tupu lyankango odo vana dimburura ashi ndi ndyo liraka olyo a rughanita
mutjangi mulivango lyakutjangurura ntanto nayintje omo lina hamene olyo liraka mposhi vi yuvhike.
Vashongwa vamwe kwa yalire tupu nkango daliraka hana kudifwaturura. Vasho ngwa ndi kwavhulire
ngoli kudemenena malimbururo ghavo paviponga namahudi ghamuliparu ovyo a negheda mutjangi
mushitjangwa ntani nakufwaturura ngoli liyuvhoko lyavo omo avi rughanita mutjangi ntani namurupe munke.
(b) Lipuro lino kapi va li limburura nawa vashongwa “write the beginning of the next chapter in the novel
in which the husband gets the news and goes to the hospital”. Vashongwa kapi va vhulire kutwikira
shishoro kwa shino nalighano lyakutamekera opo ayi wanine mbudi mukafumu ghunya kuhamena
lihudi olyo lyawanino mukamali wendi. Kuna kumoneka shi vashongwa shingi shavo kapi va li
yuvhire nawa lipuro lino, ovyo vya renkitiro vamwe va tjangurure shitjangwa nakushitimuturura, ano
vamwe kutwikira mukutjanga vyapeke yira kutundilira opo shashorokire shiponga dogoro paka vi
yuvha mukafumu mbudi, ano nko kushghera mpopo.
Kwa monikire nka shi vashongwa vamwe kapi va manine kutjanga. Kushaghekera pakatji vyamadu-madu
tupu. Ovyo vina kuneghedo shi kapi va kalire nalighano mwakutwikira ntani nopo vatamekera. Vamwe
vavasheshu kwa tjangire mayuvhito omo vna kupukurura nkarapamwe kuhamena lihudi olyo lyashorokiro
ano vamwe ntjangwa tumwa omo va pukurulire mukafumu wa mukamali ghunya awanino lihudi, shimpe nka
vamwe kwa tjangurulire shitjangwa ano mumalimbururo ghavo kapi va ghambaghulire mo ovyo vavapulire,
ano vina kara ngoli hepero shi vashongwa vana nyanda ngudu uyivi wavitjangwafupi.
Question 3
Most candidates chose question 2, and many gave bad answers to it. According to what is apparent, in the candidate
tasks (responses) there was a misinterpretation of the passage context. The comments from the candidates were quite
ambiguous.
(a) Vashingwa kapi va vhulire kulimburura nawa lipuro lino. Kuna kumoneka shi kapi va mangurukire
mukudimburura ovyo vava pulire mulipuro. Vashongwa kwava pulire va kumburure omo mutjangi
a rughanita liraka narupe mukutapa likuyuvho lyendi kuhamena muntu wakudira kukonekita ngoli
vamuhore ngundu. Nampiri ngoli mpovali mo vavasheshu ovo va kambadaliro mukudimburura ko
hasha ntani va ka lire nalighano kovyo vava pulire, nakufwatururako kadidi vamwe kudimburura tupu
vidimburulito vyaliraka makura kuviyara nakufwaturura ko kadidi. Vashongwa vamwe kapi va vhulire
kufwaturura liraka olyo a rughanita mutjangi mukushingonona murwana unya, ovino navyo mbyo vimwe
vyarenkitiro vashongwa vamwe va tjangurure tupu shitjangwa vamwe vatjangurure tupu shitjangwa
hana kuneghe da likwatoghano lyalighano lyamutjangi kwa dimburulire mo nka shi vashongwa vamwe
shimpe kwa tjangulire tupu shitjangwa kumwe nakutjindja/ kutapa makulimbonkango ghankango
daliraka odo a rughanitire mutjangi. Vamwe kapi va vhulire kutikita mo shirughana kutjanga tupu
ukahe walipepa naukalimo wamadu-madu. Ovino mbyo vya renkitiro vashongwa va dire kuwana
vitwa nawa-nawa.
(b) Lipuro lino shingi shovo va li limburulire kapi vyava tompokire. Lipuro lino kwakalire weno shi
vashongwa ndi va tjange shitjangwa kuhamena mukeverelimbapira ogho a dirukire pashure.
Mumalimbururo ghava shongwa ovo va wanine ko vitwadjuni hasha mwa monikire likwato ghano
lyashivarura naukalimo omo va vhulire kunegheda lifano lyashirughana osho vava pulire (Shitjangwa).
Vashongwa va vhulire kutwenya ura mo twangandi yira ukaro wendi omo kava mutjangururanga
mulipuko, ntani omo a gumine liparu lyovo ka rughananga navo kumwe navashongwa. Vashongwa
vamwe hasha va vhulire kushimba lighano lyashivarura nakulirughanita munkango danaghumwavo.
Ovo va kaliro shi kapi vana kuvhura, vavo kwanegheda ligcondo mumalimbururo ghavo vamwe kutjanga
tupu tuntanto twamadu-madu ano vamwe kwalishuvire lipuro hana kugumako. Shingi shavashongwa vano
kwakombanitire unene vitwa.
Nkangopuko odo va dimburulire muvitjangwa vyavashongwa.
Lipuko

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Vura – Vhura
Kuruwana – Kurughana
Lihano – Lighano
Mara – Enengoli
Likuyuvo – Likuyuvho
Dokoro – dogoro
Mbilindi – Mpirindi
Mayuvha – Mayuva
Kughova – kuhova
Kushimpa – Kushimba
Kufura – Kuvhura
Kuterera – Kuteregherera
Vashongi va vhulire kudeghura vashongwa kuhamena omo va limburura mapuro gha lipuropepa lino. Shinene po
lipuro lya (a) vavashonge ashi vinke nawa-nawa ovyo va hepa kunegheda mumalimbururo ghavo. Vakwate lighano
lyamutjangi nakudimburura liraka olyo a rughanita mposhi valitjange nakufwatururako shi morwanke ana li rughanitire
ntani murupe munke ana li rughanita.
Lipuro lya (b) kehe pano vashongi va deure vashongwa vitjangwafupi ntani weni omo va shimba liraka narupe oro
a rughanita mutjangi mboshi rughambo rwamumalimbururo ghavo ruyuvhike yira mbudi yamu shivarura, ene ngoli
nakutjangurura shi nani ngoli pamwe kuvhura tupu kughupa mu vimwe nakuvifwaturura mwanaghumwavo.

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8195
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
The majority of the candidates’ writing has seen an improvement in terms of spelling, orthography, and the usage of
proverbs and idioms. Section A had the most improvement, when candidates showed strong narration and description
pieces.
Some of the candidates’ work still contains misinterpretations of the questions. Candidates are recommended to
thoroughly read the questions, comprehend them, and submit all of the necessary information.
The majority of the candidates’ work on the subjects they selected was very generic. Candidates are urged to base their
writing on a specific issue rather than what they believe typically occurs.
Some candidates selected subjects on which they could not adequately and efficiently write. Candidates are urged to
select a topic they can write on and demonstrate that they have a solid understanding of.
Candidates’ writing is sloppy and difficult to read. Candidates are urged to write clearly and legibly, with lines that are
full, not too small that it is difficult to see or read, and not too big letters with needless spaces between words that are
only three or four words long.
Section A: Imaginative writing
Question 1
Write the opening of a story that begins with the following sentence: At last the famous guest made a grand
entrance. In your writings create an atmosphere of excitement and character.
Few candidates chose this question, unfortunately. The majority of candidates who selected this question provided
subpar responses.
• Weaker candidates wrote about a family member who went abroad to study, and when they returned, everyone
was happy and threw a celebration for them.
• Some authors depicted the reactions of the villagers in their stories about someone who had long since left the
village but had unexpectedly returned to see family members.
The majority of candidates did not begin with the provided opening line; instead, some chose to put it in the
story’s midsection, while others did so toward its conclusion.
• Some candidates ignored the renowned person in favor of the crowd’s response and excitement (There was
nothing about a famous person).
• Some candidates focused their entire essay on the venue and meal preparation, only beginning to hint at the
attendees’ anticipation in the final paragraph.
Question 2
Write a descriptive piece about a market day. In your writings focus on the people, setting, and sound, (s)
which will help your reader to imagine the scene.
• This question was chosen by more candidates. Most of the candidates who chose to answer this question did so
fairly.
Strong candidates defined the market day and were able to convey a few specific details about the crowd, the
environment, and the sounds.
Only a few candidates choose to write a story essay as opposed to a descriptive essay.
In contrast to what the question asked, weaker candidates explained the significance of the market day, who
typically participates in the market day, and what is typically sold on that day.

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• Some candidates only mentioned how the venue was decorated, skipping over the individuals there and the
ambient noise (s).
Some candidates created a narrative that was centered on a single character and detailed what that character
did on a particular day.
Question 3
Write two contrasting diary entries (between 250 – 300 words each). The first one is by a student on his/her
last day at secondary school; the second is by one of his/her teachers who know him/her very well, on this
last school day. In your writing create a sense of mood and character.
• More candidates selected this question. The majority of candidates who selected this question were able to
provide fair responses.
• Few candidates choose to answer this question. The majority of candidates who selected this question gave bad
responses.
• Candidates who were less qualified described two separate incidences that happened to a teacher and a pupil on
separate days.
• Some candidates provided a biography of a student who was leaving the school, including the person’s
birthplace, upbringing, educational background, etc.
• Some candidates’ essays sounded like fairy tales because they told epic tales about candidates in general and
how others were amazed by the fortitude they mustered that day.
Question 4
Write a descriptive piece called The isolated hut. In your writing focus on its structure and surroundings to
help your reader imagine it.
• Only a small number of candidates selected this option. The majority of candidates who selected this question gave
bad responses.
Strong candidates provided descriptions of the hut’s structure, including its shape, the materials used to construct
it, its color, etc. The candidates, however, omitted to describe the area around the hut.
Weaker candidates created a tale that described the strange things the house performs to visitors.
• Most candidates offered directions on how to construct a hut so that it looks appealing instead of describing the
house based on its construction and surroundings.
Some candidates wrote to clarify the difference between a square thatched house and an unadventurous round
hut.
Section B: Writing for an audience
Question 5
Write a letter to the Principal of your school in which you suggest how candidates could make a big contribution
to the teaching of (the specific language) at your school. In your writing create a sense of optimism and
enthusiasm.
• More candidates selected this question. The majority of candidates who chose to answer this question did so fairly.
Strong candidates created a professional letter, but they failed to use the right language register and writing style.
Weak candidates instead wrote a letter of complaint to the principal about a particular teacher who does not do
enough for a particular language subject, threatening to fire both the principal and the teacher for failing the school,
rather than offering suggestions on how candidates could significantly contribute to the teaching of a specific
language at their school.
Weak candidates wrote an essay to express their dissatisfaction with the system for not allowing some foreign
languages to be taught in schools.
• In order to improve Rumanyo F. L. at the school, weak candidates provided the principal and teachers directions
without involving the pupils.

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Question 6
A popular magazine for teenage readers asked you to write a column called Overcoming boredom. Give an
account of how you make boring situations more entertaining in your daily life. In your writing create a sense
of creativity and excitement
• Only a small number of candidates selected this option. Most candidates who selected this question gave it poor
answers.
Weaker candidates submitted a poorly written essay that lacked a title, introduction, substance, or conclusion and
was instead composed of a long string of disjointed paragraphs.
• A few candidates composed something that sounded and looked like a speech. The opening statement welcomed
the audience before continuing with some advice.
• Weaker candidates encouraged teens to engage in drug, alcohol, and sexual activity.
Question 7
Write two letters (between 250 – 300 words each) to a newspaper. One letter argues that all local languages
should be accepted for official business; the other letter argues that only English should be accepted for
official business
• Very few candidates chose this option. Most candidates who chose to answer this question did it in a decent
manner.
• Two pieces of writing from strong candidates covered every area of the question. The less qualified individuals,
however, were unable to distinguish between language used in formal business communication and language
used in school.
• Strong candidates produced two letters that contrasted one another, but some candidates did not make an
argument for the official status of English vs local languages. Candidates only debated over one language; in
one letter, they outlined the benefits of having English as an official language in Namibia, while in the other, they
disagreed and did not include any local languages.
Question 8
Write part of a voice over promotional film entitled: Having fun while learning new skills after school. In your writing
create a balance between having fun and learning new skills.
• No candidates opted for this question
POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO THE TEACHERS

• Teachers are recommended to encourage candidates to select the themes so they have a notion of what to write
rather than randomly choose one that they don’t fully grasp or about which they have no prior knowledge.
• Teachers are urged to instruct candidates on how to write a variety of essays.
• In order to prevent candidates from providing insufficient replies, teachers are encouraged to teach their candidates
to evaluate, identify the keywords, and respond appropriately to the question.
• When teaching language usage, emphasis should be placed on punctuation, spelling, sentence building, idioms,
and phrases.
• Teachers should encourage candidates to stick to the prescribed word length.
• Acquaint candidates with a range of diverse texts.
• Teachers are urged to instruct candidates on various letter types (format of a letter).
• Teachers are urged to instruct candidates on how to compose two completely different pieces of writing.
• Teachers are urged to counsel candidates against producing work that promotes sexual relationships, the use of
alcohol, or drug misuse.
• Teachers are encouraged to advise candidates to use idioms and proverbs that DO NOT contain abusive language
(extremely offensive and insulting) in their writings.

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FIRST LANGUAGE SETSWANA
8196
Paper 1
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
• The examiner should encourage candidates to read the passages carefully so that they can connect the passage’s
message when answering the questions.
• The examiner should train the candidates on the format of the paper. Some candidates did not write for the length
specified in the question paper.
• The examiner should collect more passages and train the candidates on what is expected of them when answering
the questions.
• The examiner should familiarize himself with the mark grid as Question 1 (a) is assessed in two parts. Knowledge
and understanding get 10 marks, then analysis of style and language effects Both are worth 10 points, for a total
of 20 points.
1 (a) The passage is from a speech given to students who are about to graduate and leave university. The
candidate needs to write about what the message of the speaker is: knowledge and understanding,
and how the author conveys it or makes his or her argument (an analysis of language effectthor
conveys it or makes his or her argument (an analysis of language effect).
Sekai Mokwadi o bolelela baithuti ba ba tsamaelang go ya Yunibesithi gore ba solofela eng mo lefatsheng la
boammaruri le botlhokwa jwa go lora gore ke eng. Le go tsweletsa ditoro tseo go fitlha di diragala.
The candidates focused more on style and language, ignoring the message of the passage, which is
knowledge and understanding.
Some examples of points go tswa mo temeng.
Setaele
- Kwa ntle ga lefelo la semmuso,
- E tletse manganga e ama dintlha tse eseng nnete (ba nna ba le bolelela…)
- Batho ba nnete ba dirisitswe e le sekao. (Opera le Bill Gates)
- Manane a go gatelela (go kgatlha thata, go tlhwaafala, batho ba ba maatla )
- Dipharologano (nna modiri e seng molori)
Maele le puo e e bofitlha
- O kgabisa botshelo jwa gago ka mebalabala (tshepo ka botshelo jwa gago)

- Jaaka di baluni (dibaluni ga di nne sebaka )
- Kwa tshimologong ya thothobudu (tshimologo, go sena ditshwanelo)
- Go ititaya sehuba, go ya go atlega (le tswelelo pele)
- Boitumelo le boiketlo ntlheng tsotlhe (dikhumo tse dintsi le monate)
(b) Some candidates try their level best to base the answer closely on the style and language of the
original text, while other candidates change the message of the text.
Sekai sa baithuti ba ba fetotseng diteng tsa tema ba ile ba kwala jana ...
• Fa o tsena kwa kholegeng o lebala sengwe le sengwe o tshimolola go tshela botshelo jwa gago jo bo
monate go se ope yo o go tshwenyang. Go sena morutabana yo o go itayang
Instead of writing positive points like some of the candidates who mentioned them.
• e.g. So keep your feet on the ground. Live normal life, let your parents support you, go out now and
again with your friends and above all keep a sense of well being. You will end up rounded by sensible

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person, able to contribute to the society. And if you fail embrace failure but try again. Hold on to your
dreams.
2 (a) The question was difficult for the candidates. It was poorly answered by most candidates by ignoring
the knowledge and understanding of the passage.
Some of the correct hints for these questions:

• The author tells a story about an accident so that readers feel that life is risky
and uncertain. He paints a picture of happiness by describing a fortunate person.
Nguvei is planning a party for her husband, who brings her joy. She seems sensible.
• The accident is very sudden and unexpected, but it seems to happen because Nguvei is happy
and thinking about the evening’s party and not paying attention. It is not a disaster at first—the
truck misses her by inches, and there is no fatal accident. Nguvei is safe, but the author creates
another risk when a suit case flies off the truck and hits her.
Dintlha tsa mokwadi ke tse:
Setaele
• Mo ditemeng tsa ntlha tse pedi mokwadi o fapaanya boitumelo jwa Nguvei mo gae ka monate wa
bosigo jwa Labotlhano le tlhagiso ya kotsi.
• Mo ditemaneng tsa bofelo tse tharo mokwadi o gatelela kotsi e e nnileng ka tshoganetso, ditlamorago
tsa yone le maikutlo a batho ba bangwe.
Dintlha tse mokwadi o di dirisitseng go supa dikotsi le go tlhoka tshepo mo botshelong.
 Boitumelo mo gae
- Moletlo wa matsalo o mogolo
- Mokapelo yo o tshepegang
- Seikokotlelo sa botshelo
- Ga gona lebaka la go ngongorega
- Lenyalo la dingwaga tse di lesome
- Goora motho ke kwa tshirelesego e gone.
 Ditlamorago tsa kotsi ya tshoganetso

- Ya mo fosa go le go nnye
- Go tila kotsi e e masisi
- Ka ponyo ya leitlho
- Tshoganyetso
- O iteilwe ke sutukeisi
 Maikutlo a batho ba bangwe

- Babogedi ba phuthagana ka bonako (mo metsotsong).
- Kutlobotlhoko.
- Ba thuso ya potlako ba leka ka natla go mmusetsa mo seemong gore a tshele.
- Go batla go itse (ba ngamola ditsebe tsa bone).
• Maele le Puo e e bofitlha

- Motse mogolo wa diponepone (motse mogolo o o kgatlhisang / itumedisang).
- Dino tse re sekang re di fitlhelela (tse re senkang re kgona go di reka).
- Seikokotlelo sa gagwe (motshepegi / motshegetsi).
- Ka tlhaloganyo ya gagwe e ne e gopotse kwa gae (a akantse kwa gae).
- A lebogele ditshegofatso tsa gagwe (leboga).
(b) Some of the candidates answered it well, whereas others wrote the continuation with incorrect
information, saying Nguvei’s suitcase fell on top of her and her husband rushed her to the hospital,
only to realize that Nguvei was already dead. The husband was devastated because Nguvei left her
three-year-old child behind, and she will grow up without her mother.
Instead of continuing the story like this: “Kapandra is a calm man, proud of his wife,” He does not like
her being out in the center of town after dark — especially on payday Friday — but after ten years,
he knows she is a sensible businesswoman as well as a thoughtful wife and mother. She has always
been a pillar of strength for him. They say she might be suffering from shock, but they aren’t sure.
He leaves Upi with the neighbors and rushes to the hospital. The policeman meets him. She stepped
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out, the truck missed her, and it didn’t stop. The driver probably didn’t realize... She is fortunate, a
paramedic declares as they move forward. “We gave it everything we had, but it’s stable now.” You
could even visit her and talk to her.
3 (a) The candidates’ answers lack knowledge and understanding. The candidates should understand the
content and ideas in the text.
The candidates were supposed to mention points like: “The person was unusual.” Describe her as a
monster with funny hair and a loud voice who frightens everyone, even the teachers, and makes all
the students quiet when she comes to the class. People felt inferior to her and smiled at her behavior,
accepting her. They gave her a friendly nickname. They were very disappointed when she left.
 Sekai sa Setaele
Go sa tlwaelesega
- Pharologanyo
- Go sa itsiwe o se naga
- O ne ana le maitemogelo a kwa godimo go feta a bone
- Meriri e tlhakatlhakane
- O ne a apara diaparo tse di mebalabala
- O ne a bua ka tlhamalalo
- O ne a bua thata
- O ne a buela kwa godimo
Go ratiwa thata
- O ne a tlotliwa thata
- Go ne go tsaya sebaka go mo tllhaloganya
- Batho ba ne ba lebelela kwa godimo fa a bua.
- Batho ba ne ba leka go mo fetola ka botlhale
- Ba ne ba moreta
 Maele le Puo
- Bosetlha (go bolaisa bodutu)
- Ba mokolobeditse (go reta)
- O fentse bontsi jwa rona (re fentswe)
- Go rata go dirisa mafoko a maleele
- O kare legadima le iteile (sengwe se se gakgamatsang, go na le kgogedi)
- A tsamaya (jaaka lesole)
(b) Some candidates began their answers with passage points but ended with ideas that did not appear
in the passage. For example, the principal wanted to fire her due to her unusual behavior. He was
happy when she left school.
Some candidates tried their best to answer this question using ideas from the passage.

• The examiner should familiarize himself or herself with the syllabus.
• The examiner should give the candidates a lot of exercise in different passages and train them how to connect their
answer when answering question (a) of all questions.
• The examiner should also train the candidates on how to answer question (b). As a continuation, the candidates
should base their answer closely on the style and language of the original extract.
• The examiner should teach the candidates not to go off topic. The candidates should have a good range of
appropriate vocabulary and expressions suitable for the task. using fluent and accurate expression or language.

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8196
Paper 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
Candidates should be taught a wide range of language that can be used to attract the reader’s attention; that is, a
language that is imaginative and can engage the reader, and that language should be used properly.
Technical errors such as in orthography (diphoso tsa mokwalo), frequent spelling (mopeleto o o fosegileng), grammatical
structures (thutapuo e e diphoso), and absent punctuation (matshwao a mokwalo) must be taught thoroughly so that the
ability to achieve effects can be achieved.
Candidates should be better prepared to answer questions, with a greater emphasis on what the question requires.
Candidates are advised to always read and understand all the questions on the question paper in order to have a good
topic to write about.
1 No candidate attempted this question. The question needed the candidate to write a story that begins
with this sentence: “At last, the famous guest made a grand entrance.” The fundamental elements of the
story are the opening sentence and the atmosphere of excitement and character that are supposed to be
created. The story was supposed to show the character of the most famous person, the audience, or the
narrator. The introduction had to show what happened, when it happened, and where it happened. The
description of the reactions of people must be shown: sekai go opa diatla, go kua le go duduetsa.
2 This question was answered by 60% of the candidates. The candidates were supposed to write a descriptive
piece about a market day. The focus was to be on people, setting, and sounds that would help the reader
imagine the scene. The piece is supposed to engage the audience by creating mental pictures for the
reader. There should be an appropriate structure with a high level of technical accuracy. Candidates have
technical errors and inadequate language use, which limit their ability to achieve effects. The appropriate
approach to the task should also be considered.
3 20% of candidates attempted this question. The candidates were expected to write two contrasting diary
entries about a student who is in his or her last days at secondary school and about one of his or her
teachers who knows him or her very well on this last school day. The focal point of the question is two
contrasting diary entries that create a sense of mood and character with a mature expression and high
level of technical accuracy.
4 20% of candidates selected and answered this question. The question required a candidate to write
a descriptive piece about “the isolated hut.” The writer was supposed to focus on the structure and
surroundings of that hut, which would help the reader imagine it. The language used should be imaginative
to create specific events. The piece should be fluent, with a strong voice and an appropriate structure.
The candidates’ structure is in place though it lacks some consistency. Sekai sa ntlo e go ka kwalwang ka
yone ke e e pokang, ya motsetse le ya badimo.
SECTION B: WRITING FOR AN AUDIENCE (Discursive/argumentative)
5 60% of candidates attempted this question. The question needed the candidates to write a letter to the
principal of their school. The purpose of the letter is to suggest how students could make a big contribution
to the teaching of Setswana at their school. In this letter, a sense of optimism and enthusiasm have to be
conveyed in a fluent, mature style. A tightly controlled structure was to be used in order to develop ideas
in a logical and effective manner. The candidate must come up with suggestions on how students could
contribute to the teaching of Setswana. Go dira diterama, go ikwalela maboko, dikgaisano tsa ngangisano,
go ithuta ka bonosi kwa motlobong wad ikwalo le dikgaisano dipe fela tse di ka dirwang are some examples.

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6 20% of candidates answered this question. The candidates answered the question well; they expressed
how they entertain themselves when they are bored. They discussed go opela, bina, beraka tiro e ntsi,
tlotla, le ditsala, and go ja nala. The candidates were supposed to write a column called “Overcoming
Boredom” in a teenage magazine. The focus was to be on how they can make a boring situation more
entertaining in their daily lives, taking into account the creation of a sense of creativity and excitement.
A candidate should discuss the ways in which they can entertain themselves when they are bored. The
candidates should engage the audience with a wide range of language and rhetorical devices.
7 0% of candidates attempted this question. The candidate was expected to write two letters to a newspaper.
The other letter should argue that all local languages should be accepted for official business, and the
other letter should argue that only English should be accepted for official business. In the letters, the
candidate should argue fluently, expressing himself or herself in an appropriate form. There should be a
firm argument with strong points, which will engage the audience with the strong points.
8 20% of candidates selected this question. The question required a candidate to write part of a voice-over
script for a promotional film entitled “Having fun while learning new skills after school.” There should
be a balance between having fun and learning new skills. The candidates who answered this question
performed on average. There was a clear focus on relevant form and content, with some appropriate
sense of audience and some sense of voice. The use of language to explain and persuade was attempted.
The candidates were supposed to write an interesting script in an appropriate format with a high level of
accuracy.
• Thank you, teachers, for the patience you have shown in guiding the candidates throughout the year.
• Teachers are advised to give more writing pieces to learners and focus on what the question wants.
• Learners should be advised to read extensively in order to improve their knowledge.
• Teachers should share their knowledge and benchmark themselves against other first language teachers in the
school or region.

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242
FIRST LANGUAGE SILOZI
8197
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
• Many candidates were able to demonstrate their comparative understanding of the text analysis goal. In creating
their piece of writing directed writing, they used language phrases and features while making comments on
language and style.
• Many candidates were able to understand the texts – in Q1, 2, 3 (a) (b) they used some language expressions
from the text to support their case for analysing the author’s intention.
• Few candidates’ responses were solely based on the figure of speech only. Sometimes they were unable to
explain them.
• Even though some candidates wrote essays that were excessively long and exceeded the word limit, many
candidates were still able to reply favourably.
Question 1
(a) By analysing the text with the help of quotes from the original text the strong candidates demonstrated
their knowledge and comprehension. The author uses language and style to motivate the candidates.
Most of the candidates were attempting to be positive with the topic of ‘Dream and dream big dreams’.
They were able to reference the author’s compelling arguments which supported the validity of his
advice for candidates.
The weaker candidates wrote longer responses with unnecessary content, coming up with and offering their
own advice out of context, without using the information from the text. Due to the mixture of all these their
responses were extensive. Instead of focusing on the writer’s main point, some choose to interpret with words
rather than sentences.
(b) Strong candidates gave thoughtful responses to this question. They answered a question using
their understanding of the vocabulary and writing style they utilized. They were aware that it was the
primary component of speech, but they still needed to demonstrate their ability to write with purpose.
Weak candidates, on the other hand, sought to compose the entire speech, from the introduction to
the conclusion, without taking word restriction into account. The author's central point-that we must
work hard in life in order to achieve what we want in the end—never appeared in their writing.
QUESTION 2
(a) This was the most challenging question, and only a small number of candidates appear to have
understood what was required of them. Few people could use the author's style and vocabulary
correctly; Nguvei was the text's major character, and the author's use of language spoke to the
unpredictability of life. They weren't particularly strong candidates who could persuade in reaction to
the text, but others may try using somber language, which took hold right after the positive ideas of
happiness and made Nguvei's outlook on life doubtful.
The majority of candidates were unable to identify the author's principal theme or how it related to the protagonist
of the narrative. Only a few lightning details, such as the paramedic's observations of the scene and the
ambulance's quick transport of Nguvei to the hospital, allowed them to completely rewrite the narrative. They
did not use language expressions or language identification to support their arguments when they analyzed
the story, such as "ambulance off from the scene like an arrow from a bow."
(b) Most candidates did not adequately respond to this question either. The following chapter was
supposed to open the story. Candidates could continue by just concluding that Nguvei had passed
away. They were unable to get enough points with this conclusion since there was insufficient proof
of content reuse to support their essay writing. There was a lot of information left out of the account
that needed to be added in order to address the loving relationship that was shown in the original text
between Nguvei and her husband, Mr. Kapanda, and his emotions as well as other arrangements for Upi.

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Question 3
(a) Most candidates were successful in earning decent marks on this question. It was clear that they
were able to select a sizable number of language usages for analysis in order to support their case
for the librarian's admirable character among the school's candidates.
The majority of qualified individuals were able to provide feedback on the idiomatic phrases and linguistic
elements employed in the text. For example, saying "Her hair was generally all over the place" simply means
that the lady's untidy hair was a result of her hurried walking style. Overall though, the response was good.
(b) The majority of candidates were confused by this magazine article. Since it was from the school principal
and was meant to be formal, it was not an everyday letter. It was intended to take the language into
account and to omit certain problematic elements. The principal's praise and encouraging remarks
were meant to be taken into account. She was nonetheless cherished and missed by numerous
candidates, despite the fact that some aspects of her character were unacceptable. In the candidates'
articles, this ought to have been disclosed.

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8197
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
• Candidates were able to use proper language (Grammatical Structure).
• Candidates managed to incorporate idiomatic expressions in their pieces of writing.
• They were clearly indicating sections, and question numbers that they were choosing.
• Their work was neat and clear with good handwriting.
• Quite a number of submissions self-penalised on the grounds of rubric infringement: some responses were
appreciably short of the word limit.
COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS.
KALULO YA A: Kuňola kabuikupuleli (Kutalusa/Kukandeka)
1 Ňola makalelo alikande lelitateka ni pilelo yetwi: “Kwamafelelezo mueňi yatompeha atoesha.” Haunze
uňola ubupe mayemo anyakalalo ni mukwa.
Question: Write the opening of a story that begins with the following sentence: “At last the famous guest made a
grand entrance.” In your writing create an atmosphere of excitement and character.
The majority of candidates submitted finished stories. Some candidates gave comments that fell short of fully
achieving the goal of building tension and drama. For instance, weaker candidates had less emphasis and weren't
entirely consistent with the relevant form and substance. Weaker candidates were unable to distinguish between
a famous guest and a regular visitor.
Stronger candidates were able to respond in accordance with the question's structure. They spoke in a way
that might have a specific impact on the reader, using either descriptive or narrative language as needed. They
demonstrated creativity in their writing and applied a creative approach to the subject. They spoke with maturity,
fluency, and consistency. While most of the stronger candidates could describe a famous guest, they could employ
a creative concept of what happened after the famous guest arrived. This allowed them to generate an atmosphere
of excitement and character in their writing. They used a range of strategies, including the first-hand accounts of
a prominent guest.
2 Ňola likande lakutalusa kuamana ni lizazi lamusika. Haunze uňola utomame fasibaka, sicaba ni mulumo
kutusa mubali wahao kunahana senesiezahala.
Question: Write a descriptive piece about a market day. In your writing focus on people, setting, and sounds, which
will help your reader to imagine the scene.
Only a few candidates provided narrative comments; the majority concentrated on descriptive responses and
successfully described contrasted scenes.
Stronger candidates concentrated on the market's mood and provided information in stark contrast. In their writings,
they placed a lot of emphasis on characters, scenery, and sounds that could aid the reader in picturing the situation.
Weaker candidates could make generalizations about their thoughts rather than paying attention to the given
guidelines like people, setting, and sounds. Some candidates might lose concentration and end up producing
narrative rather than descriptive essays in their responses.
3 Ňola zepeli zebapanywa zabuka yakatiso yakazazi (manzwi amwahalaa 250-300 yeňwi ni yeňwi). Yapili
ki yamuituti yena muňi kalizazi lahae mafelelelzo lakuba kwasikolo; yabubeli ki yayomuňwi wamaticele
bahae, yamuziba hahulu, kalizazi leo lamafelelezo. Haunze uňola ubupe zibo yamaikuto ni mukwa.
Question: Write two contrasting dairy entries (between 250-300 words each). The first is by a student on his/her
last day at secondary school; the second is by one of his/her teachers who knows him/her very well, on this last
day. In your writing create a sense of mood and character.
As long as the writing's primary purpose remained descriptive, the organization of descriptions inside the narrative
framework was frequently beneficial. Stronger candidates were better at capturing feelings and personalities since
they had creative ways to approach their final day of secondary school. The majority of more qualified candidates
wrote in an engaging manner. The last day of school was an intriguing time to involve teachers who are familiar
with the student. This made it possible to examine the candidates' attitudes more closely.
The weaker candidates had lost their bearings and were able to claim that there was still one more school day to
go. Instead of the teacher speaking about their experiences with the learner, other candidates could speak directly
about the teacher.

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4 Ňola likande lakutalusa latoho yetwi: Katungu kakaikunguzi. Haunze uňola utomame fasibupeho
sakona, zekapotolohile kutusa mubali wahao kuli akabeye mwamunahano.
Question: Write a descriptive piece called: The isolated Hut. In your writing focus on its structure and surroundings
to help your reader imagine it.
Stronger candidates rationally arranged their arguments in a clear structure. In order to assist the reader, visualize
the hut and its surroundings, they produced descriptive essays. Weaker candidates were unable to describe the
solitary hut's surroundings and structure. They were merely narrating. This limited the sensation of voice. Although
the expression was apparent, it might not have flowed naturally and there were often technical inaccuracies
(grammatical structure, frequent spelling mistakes and orthographical errors, and absent punctuation.)
KALULO YA B: Kuňolela Bateelezi (Kukanana/Kuambolisana)
5 Ňola liňolo leliya kuyomuhulu wasikolo ilimo ufitisa likakalezo zahao kamo baituti bakona kuhuliseza
mulutelo wapuo ya Silozi fasikolo sahao. Haunze uňola ubupe zibo yasesitahisizwe ni susumezo.
Question: Write a letter to the principal of your school in which you suggest how candidates could make a big
contribution to the teaching of Silozi at your school. In your writing create a sense of optimism and enthusiasm.
Stronger candidates were able to write about their personal experiences with language education, which led to
some impassioned and sincere ideas (Silozi). Regarding Silozi's teachings, some insightful and interesting remarks
were made. Weaker candidates were unable to provide specific recommendations for how they could support the
teaching of Silozi in classrooms. Instead, candidates were limited to criticizing the teachers for the events taking
on at their school. For instance, "English is used by the teachers in Silozi lessons." As a result, the structure might
not be entirely clear and the argument or development might be weak.
6 Magazini yezibahala hahulu yebalwa ki babanca bakukupile kuňola kalulo yebizwa Kupunyuha bulutu. Ufe
mitala kamo uka fetulela linako zabulutu kuli libe zekatulusa bupilo bwakazazi. Haunze uňola ubupe zibo
yabuikezezo ni nyakalalo.
Question: A popular magazine for teenage readers asked you to write a column called Overcoming Boredom. Give
an account of how you will make the boring situation more entertaining in your daily life. In your writing create a
sense of creativity and excitement.
This question received few responses from candidates. Stronger candidates were able to approach the assignment
thoughtfully, and in an appropriate manner, while capturing interest and speaking with authority. They also displayed
a clear comprehension of the task's style and purpose. They were able to describe how they added humor to
mundane events in their daily lives. Optimism and enthusiasm were fostered by them. Candidates who were less
intelligent were unable to comprehend the question since they could only concentrate on ways to pass the time
when they were bored.
7 Ňola maňolo amabeli (manzwi amwahalaa 250-300 yeňwi ni yeňwi) aya kubamutende. Liňolo leliňwi
lihanyeze kuli lipuo zasikiliti kaufela liswanelwa kuamuhelwa kusebeliswa mwalipisinisi; leliňwi lona
lihanyeze kuli ki puo yasikuwa feela yeamuhelwa kusebeliswa mwalipisinisi.
Question: Write two letters (between 250-300 words each) to a News Paper. One letter argues that all local
languages should be accepted for official business; the other letter argues that only English should be accepted
Stronger candidates were able to present more sophisticated arguments. They could go further and provide
compelling arguments for why only English should be recognized for official business in addition to stating more
forcefully why other regional languages should be permitted. Weak candidates might not respond well, and
sometimes the right framework might be in place but not always be consistent. It could be uneven or hesitate in
and out of focus. For instance, they might attempt to react more effectively in the first letter and then contradict
themselves once more in the second letter
8 Ňola kalulo yamanzwi atahisizwe kuli aitusiswe hakubalwa filimu yetwi: Kuitabisa inge uituta zenca
kasamulaho wasikolo. Haunze uňola ubupe tikanyo mwahalaa kuitabisa ni kuituta lika zenca.
This question was chosen by a very small number of candidates, making it difficult for the rest of the candidates
to react appropriately. Stronger candidates have demonstrated a thorough comprehension of the task's style and
goal. A voice-over script for a commercial titled "Having fun while learning new skill after school" could be provided.
After school, they managed to strike a mix between fun and skill development. The demands of the necessary
question were difficult for weaker candidates to meet. For instance, in their papers, they were unable to relate
to the movie and instead could only concentrate on their own concepts of pleasure, which resulted in a lack of
attention on the task.

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• Teachers are encouraged to use previous question papers and specimen papers for a good and excellent layout
of piece writing.
• Teachers are also encouraged to follow what is required from the syllabus.
• Teachers are also encouraged to teach orthographic writing.
• Teachers are encouraged to read the examiner’s reports.
• Teachers are encouraged to use a marking grid whenever they mark any piece of writing in schools.
• Teachers are encouraged to assist candidates in schools on how to develop ideas in a logical and effective manner.
Candidates should always be reminded of the importance of structuring responses so that the purpose is clear.
• Teachers should give candidates to practice writing time-limited tasks to a specific word limit.
• When preparing for section B: Kuňolela bateelezi (Writing an audience), candidates should be encouraged
to a wide variety of newspapers and magazine articles, both print and online, as background preparations.
Candidates should be exposed to the tone, register, and format of magazine articles, newspaper correspondence,
speeches and voiceover scripts.

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248
FIRST LANGUAGE THIMBUKUSHU
8198
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
The majority of candidates appeared to have engaged the questions 1 and 3 passages rather well. There was a
noticeable level of clear information and precise knowledge in 1a–b and 3a–b compared to 2a–b for the majority of
individuals who understood the passages and articulated themselves pretty effectively.
A few responses in the question box were left blank, which is a relatively rare occurrence. These most frequently occur
toward the end of the script; possibly there wasn’t enough time, but it’s also possible that there was too much writing on
the (a) questions (usually 2-3 complete pages), which is mainly superfluous.
On some candidates, there was a clear distinction between questions that needed attentive reading of the passages
and questions that used their own words when commenting on the language and style of the Thimbukushu. In several
cases, neither job was precise or clear enough to receive full credit.
One of the reasons that marks weren’t given for (b) questions was that people copied (or “lifted”) content to fully respond
to the question. In particular, 2b, which was first selected by a small number of people and received bad performance
from the majority, falls within this category.
On all questions, there was a propensity to use excessive word count. The (a) questions are acceptable, but not all
three pages of them. And absolutely not acceptable with (b) queries, particularly a whole page or page and a half for
120–150 words? This was largely done for those who copied and over-copied words instead of using it themselves.
Some people used excessive creativity and reworded the same sentences..
COMMENT ON THE SPECIFIC QUESTIONS
Question 1
On both of these questions, the majority of candidates did rather well. They received points for understanding at least
a majority of the passage. The speech in the paragraph was delivered to candidates who were about to graduate and
leave college. The candidates were required to write about the speaker’s arguments regarding “dreaming,” which
included: dreaming is not enough-action or work is required, don’t be unrealistic-don’t be fearful or overconfident, be
aware of your good fortune, and contribute to society.
(a) The format of the question may have made it easier for the majority of candidates to understand that
they needed to “comment on how the author uses language and style to convey her point of view,”
which is exactly what they did. However, several candidates resorted to simply reading the paragraph
carefully in order to spot the linguistic cues and extract them without explaining their significance
(meaning achieved with it). A candidate might use the simile “like balloons” as an example without
specifying what he or she meant or was referring to.
Less credit was given as a result. They needed to state something like, “Dreams are like balloons in that
they do not last, as is always the case without action,” in order to get a good grade. Language analysis
and the meaning are present. The candidates that received higher grades did this in order to perform well.
Additionally, excessive writing was noted because several candidates wrote three pages or more when it
wasn’t necessary. It ultimately forced them to write some unnecessary linguistic elements.
(b) The question was ‘a speaker deliver a speech at school, for candidates starting grade 12 on the first
day of their last year in school. Write part of the speech. The limit of words is 120-150. This was not
observed by most candidates. Because it was a speech and this is what most candidates experience
virtually daily (morning briefing) and in the community, most candidates did incredibly well with this
question in particular (during community meetings). Most of the passage’s sentences were taken,
and they were reused admirably. For example, “if dreams were that good without labour, everyone
would have graduated from school, so quit dreaming in class and read more.” This was said by one
successful candidate
Question 2
This question was avoided by the majority of candidates. The reason why the few who chose it performed poorly is
probably because tha they did not grasp it, which left them with little room to speak more intelligently. The number of
candidates who attempted it and did well on it was quite low. This was an account of an unexpected turn in unsettling
luck. The atmosphere alternates between anticipation and dread from the outset, and then a shocking tragedy occurs.

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(a) The question asked readers to “comment on the author’s use of language and style to depict the
unpredictability of life.” Candidates didn’t seem to notice this (had little comprehension of all of this),
therefore they didn’t realize how the author used language to control readers’ emotions. The majority
of candidates simply made comments about how full stops were used and how paragraphs were
used without any justification for their purpose, which appeared to indicate a lack of knowledge and
resulted in lower grades. Candidates who wanted to perform better had to exhibit an abrupt change
in even terrifying circumstances. The atmosphere alternates between anticipation and dread from the
outset, and then a shocking tragedy occurs.
(b) Sadly, a really terrible response was given to this question. “Write the opening of the next chapter in
the story, in which the spouse receives the news and goes to the hospital,” was the assignment. This
is one of the instances when less passage language was recycled and more emphasis was placed
on the language and writing style of the original text. Most candidates continued the story by directly
quoting the paragraph, which rendered the writing largely irrelevant. In order to succeed, candidates
had to describe the husband’s surprise, if Nguvei had woken up, and the expected course of events
after that. This question was difficult for some candidates to begin and/or complete. To elicit emotion
in their work, they are meant to do this.
Question 3
The majority of candidates fared reasonably well, however some excessive writing and incomplete answers were
nonetheless noted (b). This blog was about odd individuals. That was something the candidates needed to realize,
which most of them did.
(a) The majority of candidates who answered the question were successful because they began by
stating that the individual was odd but liked. Comment on how the author employs language and style
to provide the sense of a unique but likeable individual, according to the question. The message of
unusual and well-liked aspects was grasped and well spotted along with the language that reveals
it, like “happy to be accepted, caught the eye,” which were well used and resulted in the awarding
of good marks. This was in addition to the same observation of form, such as paragraphs and
punctuation marks comments by a few who got less credit.
(b) The majority of candidates who chose this question also did reasonably well; nevertheless, they were
the ones who were unable. The question was, “The librarian leaves the school, and the principal
writes about her in the school magazine. Write a section of the article. The passage’s sentences like
“she could be strict, she talked exactly, and she was well respected” were able to be reused on the
article because to this question. Candidates who did this but managed to talk favourably and refer
to a departing person as the principal fared well. However, this did not need to be exploited (to be
overused), as a select few candidates did. Some people were unable to complete it. These two
incidents reduced the candidates’ credibility.

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8198
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
• Overall the question paper seems to be easier than the 2021 examinations.
• Candidates did not pay attention to the keywords in each question before answering.
• Orthography seems to be a problem with some candidates when writing their essays.
• Avoid contradicting points, when contrasting two (2) pieces of writing.
• Candidates must plan their essays, before attempting to write.
• Question 7 seems to be sensitive to the candidates because some of them appear to speak a language that is not
widely accepted nationally. By listening to the manner the candidates were crafting their essays, some candidates
were moved.
COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS:
SECTION A
1 This question was selected by at least 18% of the candidates. The majority of candidates scored poorly
because they were telling a tale about a well-known character who entered the room.
2 The majority of candidates chose this question. This question was answered by 67% of the candidates.
The question appeared to be simpler than the others in Section A. Most candidates did a great job
describing the market day in their essays, taking into account the participants, environment, and sounds.
However, other candidates failed to even understand which tense should be used when writing the essay,
which caused them to receive low marks.
3 Just 6% of the candidates even tried to respond to this question. The majority of candidates scored
poorly because they were unable to properly write a diary entry. Even to divide the first section, which is
supposed to be his or her own entry, and the second section, which is for the teacher to write about the
student’s final day of secondary school.
4 Only 9% of candidates selected this question. Because they merely described “The isolated hut” in their
answers, the majority of candidates received lower grades.
SECTION B
5 Only 16% of candidates selected this option, and it looked to be one of the more difficult questions because
candidates were drafting conversational letters as opposed to professional ones. Even when speaking to
the principal, they didn’t think to use proper terminology. Some even voiced complaints about the teachers
instead of offering the principal suggestions for language-improvement initiatives (Thimbukushu).
6 6. 24% of candidates selected this question. The majority of candidates who responded to this question
fared well because they fully explained how to make mundane circumstances in daily life more fascinating.
7 Most candidates selected this question. A minimum of 58% of the candidates received good grades.
for the reason that they were comparing the two letters. Some candidates did, however, lose points for
indicating that they would favor the usage of the local tongue in both letters. They barely mentioned
English at all in the second letter.
8 Only 2% of the candidates selected this question, although in general, all of the candidates found it
challenging because they found it difficult to write well. All of the candidates were writing stories rather
than scripts for voiceovers.

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• By highlighting significant words in each and every question, teachers must show candidates how to read the
questions.
Every day, teachers must include orthography into their lessons.
The usage of tenses, idioms, metaphors, and comparable and other components of parts of speech must be taught
to the candidates.
• Teachers need to practice using punctuation a lot because candidates often appear to lack the necessary knowledge.
• The structure of an essay must be taught to candidates by their teachers; some essays must include a title,
introduction, body, and conclusion. The candidates are required to write one concept in each paragraph.
• Teachers are still urged to instruct candidates on how to write creatively and for an audience.
• If the candidates want to compose an excellent piece of writing, they must be provided copies of the marking grid
and instructions on what to write. Or if they wish to join a renowned band.
• Teachers are urged to correct candidates who use the incorrect words in Thimbukushu and encourage them to use
the right ones. The incorrect and appropriate terms in Thimbukushu as a first language are listed below:
Wrong words written by candidates – Correct words in Thimbukushu

• Podiyo, podyo – podigho
• gha – agha
• dhi, di – edhi, edi
• wini – fundu, myaghedha
• kushwayitha – kushwaghitha
• mumukweyo/mumurayini – mumutete
• yi – eyi
• kutwikera – kutwara kughutho
• ruhafo – yishamberera, yinyanyuka
• yagho – yawo (kutambithera hanu)
• yoyi eshi – yoyishi
• twe, thine – atwe, ethi ne
• yiruwana – yirughana
• hanagho – hanawo (kutambithera hanu)
• thipatera – thipangero
• kadi – mbadi
• Ruhingirisha – Thihingirisha

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GEOGRAPHY
8233
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
The learnersʼ performance is decreasing as the years are increasing, as learners only have the knowledge but cannot
apply their knowledge to questions presented to them. The question paper was of moderate difficulty and learners could
not really cope with the questions as they misinterpreted the questions, did not know how to explain the knowledge they
had and to apply it to the questions. Learners do not have analytical skills and misinterpreted questions, especially the
command words that they need to take note of when answering questions. The areas with specific problems were seen
throughout all the sections and teachers should address these problems based on the comments on specific questions.
1 (a) What term is used for X as shown on the hydrographs?

Most learners scored one 1 out of 1. Teachers should continue exposing learners to diagrams of hydrographs
and learners should be able to identify or fill in its components.
Expected answer
Lag time [1]
(b) Describe the differences between the discharge shown in 2015 and that of 2005.
Most learners scored 2 out of 4 marks. Learners should be taught how to describe the shape of a hydrograph.
Common errors noted were the terms ‘bigger or smaller lag time; being used while it is wrong. Short or longer
are the terms to be used.
Expected answer
1A has a longer lag time , while 1B has higher peak discharge
1B has steeper rising limb, while 1B has steeper recession (falling limb) [4]
(c) Explain how the change in land use has affected the river discharge.
Most of the learners scored 2 out of 5, because they did not base their answers on the two hydrographs
provided in the question paper which shows land use for a natural, and land use for pasture land where
vegetation has been removed. Learners failed to identify the factors that affect the river discharge. E.g.
interception, infiltration, surface runoff, (all the processes that take place in the hydrological cycle) and how
they affect the river discharge positively and negatively.
Expected answer
The replacement of woodland by pasture has led to a reduction in interception
Hence interception storage (via leaves, stemflow canopy storage) (dev)
This slows the passage of water to the soil surface and reduces overland flow (quick flow) (dev)
Infiltration is greater under woodland
The water progresses to the river by throughflow and groundwater flow rather than overland flow(dev)
Flooding may increase
Especially during the transition period/decrease later/although in drier years increase when animals removed
more than average pasture (dev)
Hence the effect on the pattern of discharge seen in the hydrograph. If only interception is mentioned (i.e.
no effects of flows) give up to 3 marks maximum. [5]
[10]

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2 (a) Describe the variation in temperature shown in Fig. 2.
Most of the learners scored 1 out of 2. Learners were expected to use the information provided to describe
how different the temperature in the urban area is from the rural area. Learners failed to use the data provided
and could not describe how the temperature differed.
Expected answer
The temperature rises some 5ºC from the lower lying rural area to the centre of the urban area
The temperature then declines less steeply from the town centre to reach about 1ºC in the further rural area
(NE).
Urban areas have higher temperatures than rural areas
Urban areas’ temperatures vary/lower between the outskirts of the urban areas and the CBD/Temperature
increases towards the CBD
Credit comparisons of temperature and distance to a maximum of 1 mark [2]
(b) Explain why there are differences in temperature between rural and urban areas.
Most learners scored 2 out of 4. Most of the learners referred to overpopulation as the main reason why
anthropogenic heat generation is high in urban areas instead of ‘denser population’ or larger populations’.
Learners also confused absorption and reflecting properties of materials within urban areas.
Expected answer
In urban areas there are more artificial surfaces than rural areas/rural more natural surfaces
Hence buildings in urban areas absorb more radiation than vegetation
This is then reradiated back to the atmosphere at night creating the urban heat island effect
Some heat is also released by denser populations and their activities
More air pollution in urban areas than rural areas / anthropogenic heat generation
These activities generate more heat/more dust/more condensation nuclei in urban areas
The chemical composition of air is different between urban and rural areas [4]
(c) Describe and explain two differences in climate, other than temperature, between rural and urban areas.
Most of the learners scored 2 out of 4 marks for stating variation in wind speeds in rural and urban areas, but
lost marks for other climatic elements not mentioned. Learners were supposed to have written about all the
other elements of climate such as atmospheric pressure, evaporation, relative humidity, cloud cover, wind
speed, rainfall.
Expected answer
Urban areas have decreased wind speeds through greater friction but some tunnel effects giving locally
increased speeds/rural may have higher wind speeds/urban areas may have more calm periods than rural
areas
Urban areas have lower Relative Humidity as warm air holds more moisture/limited evapotranspiration and
water bodies/rural has higher Relative Humidity
Urban areas have thicker/more frequent cloud cover than rural areas
Mean annual precipitation total/and the number of days with rainfall is greater in urban areas than rural
areas
More hygroscopic nuclei and uplift from heating giving rise to precipitation in urban areas
More thunder and lightning/hail in urban areas than in rural areas
More fog is in summer/winter in urban areas than rural areas
Pollution and photochemical fogs.
If candidates only describe one difference maximum 2 marks can be rewarded.

They should either make comparative statements or state urban and rural as separate to attain the marks.[4]
[10]

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3 (a) Give the water content and range of velocities that are associated with
Learners lost marks due to not adhering to the instructions. Instead of giving the range of velocities, learners
gave vague responses, such as low velocities and high velocities without using any data, which cost them
marks.
Expected answer
(i) debris flow.

Between 1 cm per second and 9 -10 m per sec, high water content.
(ii) rock falls.
Between 1 m per sec 100 m per sec, low water content. [2]
(b) Describe the nature of solifluction and explain under what conditions it occurs.
Learners mostly scored 2 out of 4. They mostly earned marks for describing the nature of solifluction but
could not explain the conditions under which it takes place.
Expected answer
Nature of solifluction:
Solifluction is the slow slope movement (between 5 cm and 1 m a year)
Materials have high water content (usually derived from seasonal thawing) Res. 1
Conditions under which solifluction occurs

Associated with cold climates
Occur under periglacial conditions/where vegetation cover is limited
In winter season both the bedrock and regolith are frozen
In summer, the surface layer thaws and acts like impermeable rock
Surface melt water cannot infiltrate downwards/temperatures are too low for much effective evaporation
Topsoil will soon become saturated
Topsoil will flow as an active layer over the frozen subsoil and rock (3) [4]
(c) Describe soil creep and explain why it occurs at such low velocities.
Learners scored 2 out of 4 as they demonstrated a poor understanding of the word ‘velocity’. They
repeatedly wrote that soil creep is a slow movement and it occurs at low velocities.
Expected answer
Soil creep is the very slow gradual down slope movement of soil under gravity (+_1cm/ year). Some will
ascribe it to the process of heave whereby particles are lifted by frost action at an angle to the slope and fall
back upon melting. Others may cite general slow viscous movement or slippage that is insufficient to bring
about shear or slope failure. Maximum 2
It is slow because of:
Low angle of slopes/about 5º/ gentle slopes
Cohesion of materials on slopes
Slopes covered with vegetation/in humid areas Res. 2 [4]
[10]
4 (a) Compare the systems shown in Figs 4A and 4B.

Most of the learners could score 3 out of 4 for comparing the two agricultural systems. Teachers should
continue exposing learners to different inputs, processes and outputs of different types of farming.
Expected answer
Inputs, processes (scale) and outputs should be compared:
Extensive has fewer inputs than commercial/ e.g. energy
Extensive has smaller inputs than commercial/e.g. less capital
But there are exceptions, such as extensive uses more land
Extensive has fewer outputs/e.g. intensive produces raw materials and/or waste
Extensive has smaller outputs/e.g. food is a fraction of the intensive
Extensive process is much smaller than that of intensive commercial
For two separate descriptions without comparison, maximum. 2.
For just lifting from the diagram, maximum. 2 [4]

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(b) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of extensive subsistence farming.
Learners scored 2 out of 6 marks as they failed to give comprehensive explanations on both the advantages
and disadvantages of the two farming systems. They used the inputs as they are in the previous question,
but did not explain them in full. They gave answers like ‘it uses less capital’ which needs to be explained.
Expected answer
Advantages may include:
It is cost effective / Low cost system in that it does not require the huge investments and implements are
easy to acquire and mostly not expensive
Does not require the hiring of labour/family works on farm, therefore, money is not spent on labour
A ready source of employment as labour does not require any specialised skills or high level of education
Is a source of food supply for the family/local population in that some of the basic staples are available
Efficiency in terms of inputs against outputs as that little input with little outputs
Little damage to the environment – and little waste/do not make use of large machinery, etc. /little pollution
Disadvantages may include:

Low outputs – little spare to sell, etc., therefore they do not contribute much to national production
Needs a lot of land, therefore keeping small numbers of animals only is recommended
Pasture mostly after/during rainy season so if rainfall is below average it may lead to great losses to the
people
Because of low outputs farmers do not have financial profits
Farmers cannot take advantage of an increase in demand for their produce as their output is constantly low
Labour intensive
If either advantages or disadvantages clearly missing, maximum ratio can be 2/4 or 3/3/ 4/2 [6]
[10]
5 (a) Describe the relationships shown between the two variables.

Most of the learners scored 2 out of 5 marks. They could only relate the relationship between the world’s
fresh water and world population but could not describe their ideas with reference to data and the continents,
causing them to lose marks.
Expected answer
One possible approach to the resource is:
% population more than % water in three regions: N America, S America, and Oceania
Biggest disparity in South America
Two HICs countries
% population less than % water in three regions: Europe, Asia, and Africa
Biggest difference in Asia
Two LICs countries
Variable percentages and disparities (examples and % evidence) maximum 3 [5]
(b) Outline the arguments in favour of hydro-electric power (HEP).

Most of the learners scored 3 out of 5. Learners misinterpreted the question by giving disadvantages of setting
up an HEP plant and listed the siting factors of HEP plants. Learners wrote ‘collapsing causes flooding’, loss
of agricultural land, instead of stating the positive side that supports the developments of HEP plants.
Arguments (plural) include:

Non-polluting (air)/does not produce emissions/seen as environmentally friendly
Does not contribute to global warming
Greatest current energy potential amongst renewable
Competitive running costs/once the scheme is operative, the natural, continual, renewable flow of water
makes its electricity cheaper than that produced by fossil fuels
Has flexibility to meet changes in demand
May be part of multi-purpose scheme e.g. flood control/recreation/tourism/water for commercial farming
projects
A maximum of 3 marks if only one argument, well-developed. [5]

[10]

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6 (a) Describe the pattern of energy consumption shown in Fig. 6.
Most of the learners scored 1 mark out of 6 only. They compared without considering the two highest
percentages and the comparison was done in general. Learners had to use data and be specific on what
they were comparing.
Expected answer
HICs / NE Europe, N North America– medium to high / 1.5 and over
NICs – medium / 1.0 – 1.5
LICs / Africa, Asia – Low/0 – 1.0
Northern areas (global north-south divide) high/1.0 - > 2.0
South – low to medium / 0 – 1.0
Anomalies:
Saudi Arabia (South) – high/6.0 +
Spain Italy/Spain (North) – lower than HICs
Africa mostly low/0 - 1.0/exception Algeria/ Saudi Arabia [4]
(b) Suggest reasons for the pattern you have described.

Many Learners scored 2 out of 6. Learners lost marks for just stating that energy is consumed in High income
countries due to development without mentioning the type of development, e.g. economic, technological,
agricultural or industrial developments.
Expected answer
Differences in economic development
Differences in Industrial development
Differences in focus in primary, secondary, tertiary sectors
Differences in amount of fossil fuels available
Differences in technological development
Differences in capital available/purchasing
Differences in population totals/growth
Differences in recording of energy usage
LICs uses energy sources that are normally not counted under energy sources/LICs uses organic materials
e.g. wood/animal dung.
Award marks for development of facts for maximum 2
General suggestions of reasons with no link to pattern of energy in (a) maximum 2 [6]
[10]
7 (a) Compare the categories and sizes of the male and female responses for the two highest percentages
shown in Table 1.
Most of the learners scored 1 out of 3 as they lacked the skill to compare. Most just lifted from the figure
without comparing the percentages of the 2 highest categories. Many lacked the skill to find the contrast for
the second category. Learners also just compared problems in general, without using the categories given,
e.g. role or men, which was wrong.
Expected answer
Both have affordability/high cost top
M 37.9%, F 40.1% / 2.2 % difference
Different on second highest / contrasting statement
M hard life, 28.9% but F loneliness 29.4%
For response without data support or no units maximum 1 [3]
(b) Give two reasons why reliable information about the problems migrants experience may be difficult
to obtain in a survey.
Most of the learners scored 1 out of 2 as they correctly stated the truthfulness, lies, willingness or fear of the
respondents.
Expected answer
Any two reasons acceptable,
may be drawn from the broad areas of survey design,
survey conduct and the nature of response e.g.
Issues of respondents’ understanding
Truthfulness / biased

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Fear
Sensitivity of the topic / not comfortable with the topic
Unequal number in migrant targeted areas
Education level of migrant
Unequal distribution of migrants across cities
Unwillingness [2]
(c) Explain the main causes behind the discrimination which many rural migrants in cities experience.
Some learners misinterpreted the question as asking them to give reasons why international migrants face
discrimination in their destination countries/receiving countries. Common wrong answers were xenophobia,
but the question was on what is behind the causes of discrimination against rural immigrants in cities
Expected answer
Rural migrant may be naïve, poor or have few skills / low social economic status/weaker financial ability/
literacy and other skills.
Therefore vulnerable to exploitation or maltreatment
Therefore dominated by power players/employers/landlords/local leaders/corrupt officials
Normally there is social distancing between new arrivals and residents
Some refugees or outcasts - maltreatment
Urban residents may perceive migrants a threat to their jobs/income
Migrants may not be able to buy houses, therefore, start/stay in informal settlements
These settlements perceived as lowering prices of surrounding existing urban areas
Differential treatment at work, places of religions as they are perceived as “incomers”/strangers,
Migrants may settle in an area dominated by a different tribe/religion
Language barriers [5]
Any relevant explanation as why the migrants are discriminated against.

[10]
8 (a) Give the value of P, the natural increase rate for the urban areas.
Most of the learners scored 1, as they could calculate P.
Expected answer
19.8 - 5.9 = 13.9 (per 1 000, but not needed for the mark) [1]
(b) Describe and explain briefly the relationship between infant mortality and birth rate suggested by the
information in Table 2.
Most of the learners scored 1 out of 3 because they completely misinterpreted the question. Instead of giving
the relationship between the birth rate and infant mortality rate, they compared the percentage of birth rate and
infant mortality rate for the areas national, urban and rural by just lifting data from the table. Learners lacked
the skill to show the relationship; they just defined birth rate and infant mortality rate without describing the
relationship between the two variables.
Mark on overall quality.

Description
The data shows that the two are related positively, so the higher the IMR,the higher the BR/The lower the IMR
the lower the BR
Explanation
The classic explanation is that where IMR is perceived as high: parents have more children to ensure the
survival of some and thus a labour force, an heir, security in old age, workers on a farm, where IMR is
perceived as low: parents are more educated on contraceptive use and are able to afford inoculations /
vaccinations of preventable diseases, afford clean water supply and improved sanitation.
For explanation only maximum 2 [3]
(c) Explain why the death rate in rural areas of many LICs, is significantly higher than the death rate in
their urban areas.
Most of the learners scored 2 marks out of 6, as they could tell why death rate is higher in urban areas, but
could not provide explanations for these reasons.

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Expected answer
A range of factors in all four dimensions interact to bring this about, for example
(Social)
Low levels of literacy and education
Larger family sizes
More aged population structure
Healthcare may be distant and low level (dev)
Shortage of medicine, few doctors
Traditional society
(Economic)
lower average household incomes
Little investment in housing and infrastructure
A largely subsistence economy
Malnutrition / poor diets
(Environmental)
Use of unprotected water sources / shortage of clean water (dev)
Spread of water borne diseases e.g diarrhea, cholera
Lack of sanitization systems
Incidence of hazards
(Political)
Dominance of urban elites influences investment priorities
Governmental structures
Limited aid and NGO activity, spread thinly
Better quality answers may be distinguished by the use of examples other than Africa by the awareness of
counter-arguments e.g. rural food production or less polluted environments; and by sense of judgements on
how improvements and minor changes may have significant differences an death rates, rather than an answer
suggesting ‘bad everything’. [6]
[10]
9 (a) According to Fig. 7, from which zone is pick up the weakest and in which zone is set down the strongest?
Most of the learners scored 2 marks as they could identify which zone was the highest/weakest from the
diagram.
Expected answer
The urban fringe (zone 3) (1) the rural area (zone 6) (1) [2]
(b) Why might set down and new settlement in zone 4 be limited?
Learners mostly scored 1 mark out of 3 for the identification of greenbelts. Learners should be taught thoroughly
the morphology or urban settlements in HIC’s and LIC’s to be able to come up with such conclusions.
Expected answer
For the recognition that it is a greenbelt (1)
A greenbelt is land encircling a town or city which is designated by planners, (1) in which building is restricted
and where land is conserved for agriculture and recreation (1).
If the concept is not known and other factors are appealed to e.g. land may not be as attractive or as cheap
as further away from the city maximum 2 [3]
(c) With reference to a city which is experiencing counter urbanisation, suggest reasons why many
residents wish to leave the urban area.
Most of the leaners scored 2 out of 5 marks, as they did not provide a named city. Learners have the
knowledge, but fail to relate the knowledge to a specific city.
Possible answers:
Increasing house prices / poor quality housing in urban areas/rural areas provide larger houses with more
land for cheaper prices
Traffic congestion in urban areas
Air pollution / low environmental quality in urban areas
Crime rates higher in urban areas
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Social changes in urban areas
Collapse of inner city industries resulted in large- scale unemployment/a cycle of decline and deprivation in
those areas
Noise pollution in urban areas/aspiration of a quiet country life/want to live in clean quiet areas
Rising demand for second homes and earlier retirement
Improvements in rural transport infrastructures/increased car ownership have allowed a greater freedom of
choice when people choose where to live.
Jobs created (due to technology) in rural areas/the growth in Information Communication Technology
(E-mail, Fax, Video-conferencing) has allowed further freedom as people can home from work
2 maximum for reason connected to surrounding area
3 maximum for reason connected to city
Maximum 2 if no mention is made to a specific city/detail
A holistic answer focusing on the city’s negative externalities, economic decentralization would be sufficient.
[5]
[10]

Learners have most of the knowledge they need to have, the task of the teacher is to teach the learner how they can
apply their knowledge to questions.
This can be done through debates in class, giving learners case studies to read or going online, (YouTube, google, Tik
Tok or any social media) to show learners different examples of different aspects in Geography.
Teachers should teach learners how to answer questions by breaking down the questions with learners so learners
can get examples from them.
Teachers should take note of words such as ‘ impacts, consequences, effects, influences’ as these words have to be
discussed on both sides, like positive and negative, advantages and disadvantages.
Teachers should not just teach from the textbook; they should be creative and do some research to develop their
learners high order thinking skills.

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8233
Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of learners᾽ work was the same as the previous year.
The difficulty level of this paper was difficult; learners were not able to cope because they do not know how to answer
different level questions and how to apply the knowledge they have to these questions.
Learners do not read question carefully to understand the questions and the parts of questions that need to be answered.
Learners still list facts instead of writing full sentences, developing their answers.
Learners have the knowledge, but struggle to apply their knowledge.
Learners misinterpret questions; they only answer for objective A, not B and C. Learners are not reading the questions
carefully.
In specific sections, learners struggled with was Section A and C. The learners did quite well in Section D.
1 (a) (i) Define the terms interception and stemflow.

Most of the learners scored 2 out of 4. Most learners who earned 2 marks, referred to rainfall being
caught by plant leaves. Learners struggled more with stemflow, understanding that it is water that flows
down the trunks not through the trunks or vegetation.
Learners incorrectly referred to stemflow as the flow of water through the stem.
E.g of incorrect answer stemflow is the flow of water through the stem.
Expected answer
Interception is the trapping/taking in of precipitation
By vegetation (leaves, branches etc.) (2)
Stemflow is the flow of water from precipitation down trunks, stems of plants etc
to reach earth’s surface. (2) [4]
(ii) What is meant by the term water balance in a drainage basin?
Most learners of scored 1 out of 3.
Most learners earned a mark for defining water balance as the inputs and outputs of water in a drainage
basin.
Learners did not describe water surplus and deficit.
Example of a wrong answer: Water balance is when rainfall is equal to evaporation.
Water balance is an expression of the inputs/outputs of the hydrological system in a drainage basin/the
state of equilibrium in the drainage basin between the inputs and outputs
It is expressed in terms of precipitation, run off, evapotranspiration and storage. It can be most easily
expressed as the equation P = Q +E +/- S
When precipitation inputs exceed evapotranspiration loss, there is a positive water balance
When evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation it creates a (temporary) negative water balance [3]
(b) Using simple sketch hydrographs, explain how a change in land use in a drainage basin from woodland
to urbanisation may affect river discharge.
Most learners scored level 2 marks understanding the basic components of the hydrograph.
Most learners understood the concept that natural surfaces are replaced with impermeable surfaces and
could understand that infiltration decreases and surface runoff increases, but could not explain further how it
will affect river discharge. Many learners were able to draw a hydrograph, but did not draw 2 hydrographs to
reflect the changes that would occur with the change in land-use. Learners failed to explain the changes that
would occur.
Limited answer: when land surface changes more run off less infiltration.
Diagrams or a diagram of storm hydrographs should be employed to show the change from a relatively
gentle discharge curve for wooded land use to the steeper curve of urbanisation
Lag time is thus diminished/reduced as interception is lost and the more permeable surfaces are increasingly
replaced with impermeable concrete
This gives rise to more surface (or canalised) flow which will reach the channel more quickly
Giving rise to a steeper rising and falling limbs on the discharge curve
Less soil water storage as there is less infiltration

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Less groundwater storage as there is less percolation
Less throughflow to rivers basins
Less groundwater/baseflow to river basins
(1 – 3) marks: General and basic knowledge of a hydrograph. General changes to hydrograph.
(4 – 6) marks: Changes to hydrograph explained/providing reasons for the changes focusing on change
from woodland to urbanized land use.
(7 – 8) marks: Changes and influence on river discharge explained in detail and clearly indicating
change in river discharge.
Without the diagram candidates can only attain 4 marks maximum. The explanation should, however, be
very clear. Candidates have to give explanations in order to attain marks. [8]
(c) How can the abstraction and the storage of water by humans affect flows and stores within a
drainage basin?
Majority of learners scored level 1. Learners were able to give examples of how water is abstracted and
stored, but could not explain how it affects the flows and the stores. Learners struggled to explain how these
actions influence all the surface and underground flows and stores in a drainage basing. Eg. Infiltration,
percolation, soil moisture, throughflow, groundwater flow, underground water storage, surface storage.
Wrong answer: Humans abstract water from the river and store water in dams for later use.
Stores and flows were affected negatively.
Abstraction occurs not only directly from channel flow (irrigation, water supplies etc.) but also from groundwater
sources through wells, boreholes, etc.
The former will affect discharge levels whilst the latter will affect water tables, baseflow and ultimately
channel flow.
Storage will be seen largely in terms of reservoirs.

These increase surface storage, regulate channel flow, ironing out flood peaks etc.
It also deprives water from reaching the lower parts of the catchment (e.g. Nile, Colorado etc.).
Evapotranspiration rates may also increase as may groundwater supplies in part of the catchment and
decrease elsewhere.
(1 – 4) marks: Weaker answers will concentrate almost exclusively on descriptions of the activities of
abstraction and storage rather than the effects.
(5 – 7) marks: More moderate answers will deal more with human interference but will be aware of
some system change
(8 - 10) marks: Good answers will consider these elements in terms of changes to stores and flows.

262
An answer where only abstraction or storage is mentioned a candidate can only score 4 marks
maximum. Candidates must also indicate both surface and underground flows and stores as well
as how they are negatively and positively affected in a drainage system to attain full marks. Using
examples could be credited up to 2 marks. [10]
[25]
2 (a) (i) What is meant by the term urban heat island?

Most learners scored 1 out of 5.
Learners were only able to say the temperature is higher in built up areas. Many learners understood
that buildings absorb heat during the day but failed to say that they radiate heat causing the increase in
temperature.
Wrong answer: The city will become hotter.
Under calm conditions, temperatures are highest in the more built-up city centre
Decrease towards the suburbs and open countryside
Daytime temperatures are, on average higher
Night-time temperatures may be higher as dust and cloud act like a blanket to reduce radiation/
buildings give out heat like storage radiators
Mean winter temperature is higher
Mean summer temperature may be higher
Mean annual temperature is higher than surrounding areas [4]
(ii) Briefly describe one effect that atmospheric pollution may have upon urban climates.
Most learners earned 1 mark for the climate change. Learners were able to mention change in urban
climate but struggled to link it to atmospheric pollution.
Wrong answer: Global warming causes the temperature in cities to be higher.

Acid rain will form.
Airborne diseases form because of pollution.
Temperature/Radiation and sunshine:

Greater scattering of shorter-wave radiation by dust
But much higher absorption of longer waves
Hence more diffuse radiation with considerable contrasts
Dust, etc. absorb and reflect much of insolation in winter
Less sunshine reaching the earth’s surface
Much more dust particles/large quantities of gaseous and solid impurities
More sulphur dioxide/more nitrogen oxide
More hydro-carbons/more carbon dioxide
Higher surface temperatures/higher day-time/higher night-time temperature Higher mean summer/
winter temperatures
Relative humidity:
Increase in dust particles/gaseous/solid impurities
Increased temperatures
Warmer air holds more moisture
Higher relative humidity
Local wind distribution:

Heat island effect may cause local thermals
Reduces the wind chill factor
Generate considerable small-scale turbulence/eddies
Distribute pollutants over larger areas
Distribution of cloud cover/precipitation:

Increased amounts of gaseous/solid impurities
More sulphur dioxide/nitrogen oxide
More hydro-carbons/carbon dioxide
Larger number of condensation nuclei/hygroscopic nuclei
More convection currents
More cloud formation/precipitation
Atmospheric pressure- linked to temperature and cloud cover and wind.

One effect = 3 [3]

263
(b) With the use of diagrams, explain how the earth’s atmosphere is heated by solar radiation.
Most learners scored level 2 for this question. They were able to name the different factors on the figure
they drew. Learners were able to draw basic figures showing incoming solar radiation and longwave
radiation.
Wrong answer: The sun strikes more at the equator than at the poles, so heating the equator more than
the poles.
Essentially a diagram showing the six factor ‘day model’:
Incoming solar radiation
Reflected Solar radiation
Energy absorbed by the surface
Sensible heat transfer
Long wave terrestrial radiation
Latent heat transfer and
Absorption of heat through greenhouse effect, etc.
Level marking:
(1 – 3) marks: Basic knowledge of different factors. Naming factors.
(4 – 6) marks: Describing how factors influence the heating of the atmosphere. At least 3 must be described.
(7 – 8) marks: Describing in detail how factors heat the earth’s atmosphere.

A minimum of 5 factors described with use of diagram.
A diagram correctly labelled with at least five descriptions of these mentioned can be awarded 8 marks.
Incorrect labelling cannot be awarded any marks.
Without the diagram candidates can only attain 4 marks maximum. [8]
(c) Explain how winds can influence the distribution of global rainfall and vegetation growth.
Most learners scored level 1, understanding the link between rainfall and vegetation.
Learners were not able to understand how winds in the tri-cellular model distribute rainfall globally. Learners
had to link the amount of rainfall with the different types of vegetation regions they were taught in grade 11
namely: tropical rainforests, tropical deserts and tropical savannahs.
Wrong answers: wind uproots vegetation
Wind contributes to dispersion of seeds
Wind blows away clouds.
In the Equatorial regions – ITCZ forms

264
Trade winds cross warm, tropical oceans
Forms low pressure system with intense convectional rainfall/rainfall throughout the year
Tropical rainforests form/rainforest vegetation
Dense vegetation/forest growth evergreen vegetation 5º N and S of Equator
As rising air cools/uplift ceases/air moves away from Equator/horizontal transfer by trade winds
Further cooling/increase density/diversion causes the air to slow down and subside/Hadley Cells forms
30º N and S of Equator create the sub-tropical High Pressure belt/system
Giving clear skies and dry stable conditions
Very little rain/precipitation/desert areas
Very little vegetation/grassland areas (5º to 15º N and S)/drought resistant vegetation/etc. occurs
Air is further diverted pole wards/warm south westerlies form
This air collects moisture as it crosses sea areas
The warm winds meet cold Arctic air at the polar front/60º N and S
Form an area of Low Pressure and the rising limb of Ferrell Cell
The resultant unstable conditions produce unstable conditions/lower pressure systems
With heavy cyclonic rainfall with mid-latitude depressions
Forming deciduous forest/fewer species of trees than rainforest/with seasonal growth
Some of the rising air travels towards the poles
This air lost it is heat/descends and forms a stable area of High Pressure
These are the cold easterlies/Polar Cell
This dry/cold air produces little rainfall/snow, etc./precipitation is light throughout the year
Coniferous forests/taiga grows in this area
Generally limited vegetation growth
In order to gain 8 – 10 marks candidates have to cover the major pressure systems with associated rainfall/
precipitation and vegetation occurrence in the different vegetation regions.
Candidates will probably score:
(1 – 4) marks: Show a vague notion of the distribution of winds (e.g. Trades, westerlies etc.) but little
appreciation of either their generation or role in influencing rainfall and vegetation.
Confusion of local and global.
(5 – 7) marks: Use the Hadley cell to illustrate the impact of wind on rainfall and vegetation distribution.
Some confusion between local and global, so may introduce land –sea breezes, etc.
(8 – 10) marks: Show an awareness of how the tri-cellular model is driven by solar radiation and how it transfers
heat excess to areas of deficit. Some awareness of how winds occur, but a concentration on
global rainfall and vegetation distribution.
If candidates only discuss rainfall results, they can only score 6 marks maximum. [10]
[25]
3 (a) Given that coal is heavy, wasteful and polluting, suggest reasons for its continued importance globally
as a source of energy.
Most learners scored 3 or 4 out of 7. Learners were able to describe the value of coal globally still today.
Some learners were able to explain why coal is still used in comparison to renewable energy.
Learners were able to give basic reasons for the importance of coal.
Wrong answer: e.g. coal is a renewable energy source.
Coal is easy to use
Coal is available everywhere.
Coal is cheap.
Reasons were supposed to have been given for answers to be credited.

There are many reasons, which include:
Coal is plentiful (large reserves);
Relatively cheap to extract;
Cheapest fossil fuel;
Can be stockpiled;
Is spread throughout the world;
Is not vulnerable to geopolitical risks (unlike oil);
Is a cost-effective means to generate electricity;
265
Makes a moderate technological demand.
Other factors include inertia and government choices.
Credit simple reasons 1 and developed reasons 2 to the maximum.

Double development for 1 reason can be awarded. [7]
(b) Outline, and suggest reasons for, recent changes in the consumption of fossil fuels and renewable energy.
Most learners scored level 1. Learners were able to answer the basic advantages and disadvantages of fossil
fuels and renewables. Learners were able to give general reasons for the changes in usage of fossil fuels
and renewable energy, but learners did not refer to a change which they should support with their reasons.
Learners did not say whether the energy source increased or decreased.
Wrong answers: not indicating whether fossil fuels and renewable energy sources were increasing or
decreasing.
Fossil fuels are renewable and will be used for a long time.
Renewable energy is available anywhere.
Renewable energy is free.
Much depends on the scale at which candidates choose to respond.
In many countries the proportion of fossil fuels is decreasing, and of renewables increasing.
This may hide an increase in the absolute use of fossil fuels.
The energy mix is also changing, for example, with less use of coal and more use of gas, such as LNG,
liquefied natural gas.
A response may include nuclear energy as either (or omit it).
Reasons may be social, economic, environmental and political.
Contemporary emphases include concerns about carbon emissions and global warming, resource depletion
and energy security.
Mark on overall quality, bearing in mind three bands of marks and levels of response: 1–3, 4–6 and 7-8.
[1 – 3] Marks
General change(s)/not specifying whether for fossil fuels or renewable energy consumption.
Some general reasoning for changes.
[4 – 6] Marks
2 Changes that include both fossil fuels and renewable energy: ratio: 2:1
1 Reason for each change or 2 reasons for changes in general
[7 - 8] Marks
Credit 4 changes that include both fossil fuels and renewable energy: ratio 2:2/3:1 with at least 1 reason for
each change or 2 comprehensive reasons for 2 changes.
However, these changes must be for both fossil fuels and renewable energy. [8]
(c) Assess the environmental impacts associated with the development of two or more renewable
energy resources.
Majority of learners scored in level 2, learners were able to give the negative impacts of renewable energy
sources. Learners, however, struggled to explain the positive environmental impacts. Not just the fact that
it is environmentally friendly but the impact that has. Assess means learners need to refer to positive and
negatives.
Wrong answers: Nuclear can cause accidents.

Wood fuel is damaging the environment.
Renewable energy causes less pollution.
Renewable energy is more environmentally friendly.
HEP dam can be used as a tourist attraction
Attention is more often given to the positive environmental impacts of renewables as alternatives to polluting
and depleting non-renewable energy resources, than to the negative impacts.
Award candidates who know of the counter-arguments in environmental terms, such as,
HEP e.g. flooding land, methane production, instability, ecosystem loss
Wind e.g. visual impact, mountains and coasts, impact on birds
Tidal e.g. disruption of estuaries as habitats, silting

266
Negative environmental impacts may be found for all types including solar, geothermal, biofuels etc.
Nuclear, although conditionally renewable, is not acceptable.
The assessment may be in positive/negative or cost/benefit terms and relate to energy needs, local
populations, environmental quality, land-use, etc.
[0 – 4] marks: Make one or more basic points about energy, maybe defining ‘renewable’ and/or ‘impacts’
weakly. Take a descriptive not an evaluative approach. Fragmentary and note-form
responses remain in L1.
[5 - 7] marks: Develop a response of satisfactory to good quality. Cover one renewable well and the
other(s) less so, or deal with all in a restricted manner. Show sound but limited knowledge
and suitable but limited assessment.
[8 - 10] marks: Provide a perceptive assessment of environmental impacts, based on detailed knowledge of
the chosen renewables and good conceptual understanding.
If candidates only discuss one environmental effect they can only score 4 marks maximum, given that they
assessed both positive and negative impacts. Positive and negative impacts do not have to be balanced as
most candidates will focus more on the positive impacts. [10]
[25]
4 (a) Describe and explain the factors that influence the supply of water.
Most scored 4 out of 7. Most learners were able to describe factors leading to supply of water.
Wrong answers: a higher population demands more water.
Sandy soil infiltrates more water.
Water is very salty for human consumption.
Candidates are free to approach the question as they choose, making best use of the material they have.
The stress is on explaining how factors that are physical (e.g. climate, drainage, geology, etc.);
Economic (e.g. technology, transport, capital investment, etc.);
social (e.g. population size, culture, ownership of water supplies etc.); and
political (e.g. government schemes, treaties, water wars, etc.) influence the quantity and quality of water
supply. Indicators of response may include attention to water quality, a ‘big picture perspective’ or detailed
and contemporary exemplar support. There is scope here for wide ranging answers which may not cover all
the factors equally or which may focus on a few in depth.
Exemplar answers:
Geology: Areas where water is stored/ areas of aquifers and ground water have less surface water available
Areas where rocks are impermeable, water remains on the Earth’s surface in rivers, so more surface water
is available
Where rocks are permeable (e.g. sandstone) water can infiltrate into the ground and either be moved by
underground river systems or be stored
Climate: areas with low rainfall/low groundwater supplies/few lakes or rivers/generally arid conditions water
is not readily available/ or vice versa
Drainage: Areas with many surface rivers will have more water available than countries/areas with very little
surface rivers
Rivers: areas where rivers move large quantities of water from where it falls towards the seas and lakes will
have more water available
River systems can dry up in arid areas, so can be unreliable as sources of water
Pollution: areas with plenty of water but pollution make it unsafe to use/untreated sewage and waste water
from factories have less water available
Groundwater usually cleaner, although pollutants can affect/although difficult/expensive to extract could have
more water available
Over-abstraction: can cause ground water levels to be falling and water to become scarcer
Limited infrastructure: areas that have dams/water storage schemes may have more water available
Pipelines can be used to move water safely for more water available/sealed pipelines reduce the potential
for leaks/pollution – more water available
Areas which do not have these pipelines in place will suffer from water scarcity
Pipelines can be expensive to lay/water pumps too
267
Water pumps can be fitted with transmitters that send text messages if the devices break down (e.g. Kenya)
could assist with more water available
Development: HICs may have more water available as these country can provide more water to people
through means of transportation/storage/technology/etc.
LICs may not be able to provide water through these measures and, therefore, less water available/people
in these countries may also not be able to afford the payment for basic water provision and, therefore, go
without it
Political: Many rivers run through different countries e.g. the Nile.
Seizing dams is a powerful way of controlling water – leading to either more or less available
Other factors not mentioned must be considered during standardisation/or conferenced with PE.
Credit simple explanation 1 and developed explanation 2 to the maximum.
Double development for 1 explanation can be awarded [7]
(b) With the help of one or two examples, describe and explain how water quality may be improved.
Most of learners scored level 1. Learners were able to describe several measures on how to improve water
quality, but failed to incorporate examples as requested by the question. Examples should be developed on
and not just mentioned. Learners were confused between water quality and water quantity.
Wrong answers: Areas have higher rainfall meaning more water.

Water is being purified – without giving an example.
Candidates are free to use the examples(s) they have and may refer to freshwater or saltwater, or both of
them.
Water quality may be improved in a number of ways, which may be conceived broadly as:
Reducing pollution, eliminating dumping and minimising release of hazardous chemicals and materials,
halving the proportion of untreated wastewater
Increasing recycling and safe reuse of water
Protect and restore water-related ecosystems, including mountains, forests, wetlands, rivers, aquifers and
lakes
Expand international cooperation and capacity-building support to LICs in water and sanitation related activities
and programmes
Including water-harvesting, desalinisation, water efficiency, wastewater treatment, recycling and reuse
technologies
Support and strengthen the participation of local communities for improving water and sanitation
management
Achieve environmentally sound management of chemicals and all wastes throughout their life cycle in
accordance with agreed international frameworks
Significantly reduce the release to air, water and soil to minimise their adverse impacts on human health and
the environment
Ensure conservation and sustainable use of terrestrial and inland freshwater ecosystems and their services
In particular forests, wetlands, mountains and dry lands in line with obligations under international
agreements
Introduce measures to prevent the introduction and significantly reduce the impact of invasive alien species
on water ecosystems, by controlling and eradicating the priority species
Upgrade wastewater infrastructure in fastest growing cities as they are outdated and not designed to meet
local conditions
Implement regulations and enforcement guidelines for usage of water and wastewater
Have multijurisdictional approaches to make different implementations viable
Develop governmental offices to monitor and govern performances of different sectors of the economy’s water
usage and wastage
Regularly collect data from the existing water provision systems
Technology development, transfer, adoption, dissemination and integration of scientific with indigenous and
local knowledge
268
Have investments to reverse the decline of hydrologic observation networks, including water quality
monitoring
Have innovative financing of wastewater infrastructure of facilities
Have economic valuation to understand the costs and benefits of wastewater management to justify investment
policies and financial mechanisms
Levels of response
[0 – 3] Marks
Candidates discuss in general attempts such as recycling, reusing, of water and the building of dams/
storage of water without examples of specific attempts
[4 – 6] Marks
Candidates discuss with relative insight using at least one example of ways how water could be made
available in different countries/areas. These ways should include at least two aspects of financing/physical
provision/technological development or improvement locally
[7 – 8] Marks
Candidates uses 2 or more examples with discussion on at least 3 different attempts. These attempts
should be not just locally but also internationally
An answer where no reference is made to examples, candidates can only score

3 marks maximum. [8]
(c) Why do attempts to prevent water pollution often fail?

Most learners scored Level 1 giving basic reasons why water pollution attempts fail. Many learners only
referred to causes of pollution. Learners needed to explain why the attempts did not work.
Wrong answers: Agricultural fertilisers cause water pollution.

People use rivers as their basic water source.
Attempts to prevent water pollution fail for a number of reasons (social/behavioural, economic, physical
and political). Any approach and examples may be taken. Credit realistic accounts which do justice to the
interaction of factors and the likely complexity of most situations.
The term water pollution allows, but does not require, the consideration of both fresh water and salt water
(marine environments).
[1 – 4] marks: Struggle to deal with the question set or to select and apply their material suitably. Make
one or more basic observations about failure, perhaps sweeping in character. Make a
response which is more descriptive in approach than explanatory.
[5 – 7] marks: Make a response of overall sound quality which may be good in parts but which remains
partial. Demonstrate limited knowledge of specific attempts and/or limited understanding of
factors and/or limitations of explanation (skills, structure and language).
[8 – 10] marks: Provide a high quality explanation of the role of different factors in the failure of attempts
to prevent water pollution. Convince by overall perspective and the handling of evidence,
whilst not producing a fully comprehensive argument. [10]
[25]
5 (a) (i) Give the meaning of the term international migration.

Most learners scored 1 mark, failed to indicated that the migration is permanent or for 1 or more years.
Learners do know that it is a movement of people over a national or international border or boundary.
The movement of population/people Res 1

Across national borders or from country to country for more than one year/to live/reside/to settle [2]

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(ii) Describe briefly the character of one example of international migration you have studied.
Most learners scored 2 out of 5. They were able to give push or pull factors.
Wrong answers: People migrate for better sanitation and housing

People migrate for better entertainment.
Example of an Expected answer:

Syrian crisis has caused over ( size/scale) 5 million (Who) Syrians to go by boat or walk (How) to
countries such as Greece (where) in search of basic human rights (Pull factor) and to flee from the war
(Push factor) in their country. They moved there involuntarily (type of migration) due to the war. They
are further in search of jobs and education facilities.
Elements of the expected answer:

Example must fall within above definition e.g. not tourism or visits.
Mark on impression, looking for conceptual background e.g. forced/voluntary, and detail on
(Where) source, destination;
(Who) scale, people;
(Why) push/pull factors;
(When) date,
(Duration) residence/return;
(How) means, mode [5]
(b) Describe the main political barriers to international migration.

Most learners scored level 1. Learners were rather referring to the difficulties/obstacles of migration instead
of the political barriers. Learners were supposed to describe what will stop a person from moving to another
country, but can be overcome. E.g. not having a passport will be a barrier if you do not have it to move to
another country. Once you apply for a visa to go to another country, and it is denied, you will not be able to
move there.
Wrong answers: Visas take long to obtain.

Documentation is very difficult to get.
War prevents people from migrating
Xenophobia.
They may be emigration (exit) e.g. China, North Korea or immigration (entry) e.g. the USA and the famous –
to candidates – green card.
They may be formal (visas, permits, EU citizenship) or general e.g. the nature of the regime, incidence of
civil war, persecution of minorities, enmity between governments, the security situation etc.
(1 – 3) marks: General knowledge/description of political barriers.
(4 – 6) marks: Political barriers explained discussing at least one barrier in detail. Or discussing several
barriers briefly. Lack examples.
(7 – 8) marks: A full answer considers more than one type of barrier and offers exemplar support.
For a one barrier response (probably visas involved) Max 5 marks if only one barrier is discussed in detail.
An answer where no reference is made to examples, candidates can only score 4 marks maximum. [8]
(c) To what extent do you agree with the statement that economic migration is usually beneficial to both
sending and receiving countries?
Most learners scored level 2 understanding the benefits and disadvantages of sending and receiving
countries. Learners did not access all the sides to cover both sending and receiving countries᾽ benefits and
disadvantages. Learners did not state whether they agree to a full extent, to a certain extend or to no extent
at all.
Wrong answers: The sending country now has less people and less pressure on resources.
Higher crime rates in receiving countries.
Economic migration relates to employment, the international labour market and the prospect of betterment.
Good assessment should focus on ‘usually’.
Sending countries may benefit (reduction in unemployment, remittances, taxes, enhanced skills on return) or
be disadvantaged (brain drain, brawn drain, loss of entrepreneurs and leaders, investment in education “lost”
etc.)

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Receiving countries may benefit (filling job vacancies unattractive to nationals e.g. Caribbean migration to UK
postwar, German gastarbeiter; gaining skills and perspectives e.g. IT consultants, doctors) or suffer (flooding
job market, EU labour circulation and benefit applications, perception of putting locals out of a job etc.).
Candidates will probably:
[1 - 4] marks: Make an answer which is essentially descriptive rather than evaluative. Show limited or
wrong understanding of economic migration and little knowledge of examples. Fragmentary
and note-form responses remain in L1.
[5 - 7] marks: Demonstrate suitable understanding of some aspect or aspects of the issue, show
knowledge of some example(s), make a partial assessment. Responses which cover only
sending or receiving countries or only benefit (or cost) remain in this level.
[8 - 10] marks: Provide a good assessment, which is quite balanced sending/receiving and benefit/
disadvantage. Have a strong conceptual understanding of economic migration and a variety
of examples to support their work. [10]
[25]
6 (a) (i) Give two reasons for the intense competition for land near the centres of towns and cities.
Majority of learners scored 0. Learners had to explain the competition for land with regards to business,
not individual people.
Wrong answers: People want to live close to the shops and entertainment.
In essence there is: a limited amount of space;
Demanded by many potential users; larger sphere of influence, most accessible part of town, all
transport routes converge here, it is the centre of the settlement, most profitable part of town to a large
threshold population.
Which is highly desirable in terms of its economic potential, cf. bid-rent [2]
(ii) What evidence may be seen in the urban landscape of this competition for central space?
Most scored 1 mark, mentioning the high rise building. Learners just described general characteristics
of urban areas: they should describe in the context of urban landscape.
Wrong answers: high level of traffic congestion

More pedestrians.
Maximal use of plots (reserve 1),
Commercial shops grouped together. E.g. found in malls or commercial parks
High-rise buildings/multi storey/use of basements/underground parking
Decked transport systems and the absence of uncompetitive users
E.g. low density housing
Limited presence of others such as open space or vacant lots.
Credit may also be given for evidence such as fast building schedules or any other valid observation/
example that may be seen in the urban landscape that has not been credited earlier
For a ‘flight’ response (i.e. users get out to cheaper, peripheral locations) maximum 2.
A full answer considers more than one change with exemplar support [5]
(b) Using examples, describe the attempts that have been made in High Income Countries (HICs) to
control the spread of urban areas.
Most learners scored level 1. Learners struggled to understand this question. The question asked about
attempts to control the spread of urban areas, also known as urban sprawl.
Wrong answers: developing rural areas with more services.

Increasing the price of land and property.
It is likely that candidates will respond with the two elements: of the green belt and, beyond it, the building of
overspill towns and new towns. This combination has been used in many cities to manage urban growth and
protect rural environments and could constitute a full answer.
Other valid observations may be made, e.g. in relation to the granting and withholding of planning

271
permission; the use of brownfield not Greenfield sites, etc.
(1 – 3) marks: Basic general knowledge of attempts with brief description
(4 – 6) marks: Attempts described and explained with understanding. One attempted discussed in detail.
(7 – 8) marks: A full answer considers more than one attempt and offers exemplar support.
Max 5 marks of only one attempt is discussed.
An answer where no reference is made to examples, candidates can only score 4 marks max. [8]
(c) Choose one rural settlement or rural area which is undergoing change. How positive are the changes
that have taken place there recently?
Most learners scored level 2, were able to describe changes to a rural area. Not all learners developed
descriptions to state to which extent it positively influenced the lives of people.
Wrong answers: Havanna in Windhoek.

Informal settlement receiving basic water supply.
Learners only stating that hospitals were built, but did not show the positive changes – now people do not have
to travel far distances to see the doctor.
The syllabus allows the study of a rural area in a LIC or a MIC, so some diversity of context may be seen from
those undergoing urbanisation, either proximate (land-use competition, shanty growth) or distant (emigrants,
remittances) to the counter urbanisation/reurbanisation experienced in MICs. Not treating the settlement/
area as homogenous, and recognising positive or negative impacts on different groups of people is especially
creditable.
(1 - 4) marks: Unable to develop this convincingly, either lacking detailed knowledge of an example or the
requisite skills in assessment. Take a descriptive approach in which the link to change may
be tenuous.
(5 - 7) marks: Provide a limited assessment, lacking development or detailed exemplar support, but
showing a reasonable appreciation of recent changes for the chosen case, area in two or
more dimensions.
(8 - 10) marks: Make a perceptive assessment of the change(s) experienced, with detailed support from the
chosen area, in at least two dimensions (social, economic, environmental, political).
An answer where no examples or a rural settlement/area is not chosen candidates can only score 4 marks
maximum.
If a candidate writes about more than one rural area the best answer on one rural area is to be marked and
the rest to be ignored. [10]
[25]
7 (a) (i) Name the feature found at 24º 52' 58" S and 29º 16' 08" E.
Most learners got this question correct.
Reservoir (Do not accept the symbol of the feature) [1]
(ii) Give the location of the Police Station in Leeufontein (southeastern corner of the map).
Most learners scored 1 out of 2. Did not give correct seconds.
24º 59' (48 - 52") S and 29º 23' (48-52") E
All correct - 1 incorrect = 2 marks
2 incorrect – 3 incorrect = 1 mark
4 or more incorrect = 0 marks [2]
(b) Give the direction from the railway station to the clinic in Marble Hall.
Most learners got 1 mark
NNW [1]

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(c) (i) Measure the length of the National Route N11 in the south-western part of the map.
You will gain credit for your calculations.
Most learners got a mark for method, but incorrectly measured the distance.
213 mm/21.3 cm (21.0 to 21. 6 cm)
213 x 0.05 km/213 x 50 m
10.65 km/10650 m [3]
(ii) Calculate the gradient from spot height 1048 (24º 51' 50" S and 29º 16' 50" E) and spot height
864 (24º 52' 22" S and 29º 19' 50" E).
You will gain credit for your calculations.
Most learners could work out vertical interval.
VI = 1048 – 864 m =184 m
HT = 96 mm x 50 m = 4800 m
Gradient = 184 / 4800
1: 26.087 [4]
(d) Describe the site and situation of the fishing research centre (Laeveldse Vissersnavorsingstasie)
found at 24º 53' 15" S and 29º 21' 20" E on the map.
Most learners scored 3 out of 4 marks.
Wrong answers: Along a river

Close to transport routes
Close to tracks and hiking trails.
On lower lying land/almost flat
With gentle slopes/appropriate reference to a contour/estimated height
Res 1 for description of site.
Large open space – future expansion
Water furrows/water tower on site
Water supply from Perennial Rivers
Named rivers as inflow or outflow
Secondary road – communication
Few other roads – local communication
Buildings – workers live close by
Farms surrounding area – fresh produce
Away from large settlements where risk of disturbance to operations/tampering is at a minimum

Maximum 2 if listing [4]
(e) Describe the main physical features and drainage patterns along the Olifantsrivier.
Most learners scored 2 marks for this question. Most of them were just listing, instead of giving a description
of the natural and physical features of a river and did not read that the question asked for features ‘along’ the
river. Learners were not able to identify the drainage pattern.
Wrong answers: Olifants River is a perennial river

Variable width.
Has islands in the river.
Drainage pattern
Dendritic drainage pattern (res 1)
River:
Tributaries flowing into the river/non-perennial river
Non-perennial water
Perennial water
Perennial river flowing into the river - Mosesriver
Lower lying / gentle sloping land/ floodplain
Row of trees
All human and natural physical features that can be seen along the river should be credited. (Max 4) [5]
Maximum 2 if listing
(f) Describe and explain the occurrence of agriculture shown on the map.

273
Most learners scored 2 out of 5. They could describe furrows that are being used for irrigation. Learners
had to give a description of where the agricultural land is found on the map and explain why it is found there.
Wrong answers: cultivated land was mostly found on the northern part of the map.
Cultivated land is next to the river.
Generally on lower lying land/gentle slopes – easier farming
Away from higher lying land/steeper slopes – difficult to farm
At the feet of higher lying land – protected against winds, etc./easier to farm
Mostly away from Perennial River/perennial water - possible flooding
Only small areas close to Perennial Rivers – protection against flooding
Close to furrows/canals – irrigation
Close to secondary roads – distribution
Close to other roads/tracks – possibly use by farmers and workers
Away from secondary roads/arterial routes – pollution (sound/air/etc.)
Away/next to build-up areas – workers close to farmed areas [5]
Res. 2 marks for explanation. If listing maximum 2.

[25]

Learners have to know and understand the different action words: describe, explain, assess.
Teachers should expose learners to different case studies and real life examples which they are able to incorporate.
Teachers should educate/ show learners the different levels for marking so that they understand how to answer a
question in full to be able to attain full marks.
Learners should learn how to develop statements through critical thinking and analyzing questions, breaking
questions up and dividing them into the parts that need answering.
Teachers should take note of questions that include two elements that need to be satisfied. Questions that have
words like influence, impact, consequences.
Teachers should always teach learners the positive and negative issues on content and try to develop a learner’s
high order thinking skills by analyzing both sides and asking for the learner᾽s contributions. This can be done through
classroom debates.
Learners should understand the specific syllabus objectives and be able to answer them as a question. Each aspect
of an objective must be covered.
Learners should be taught how to apply their knowledge to object C questions.

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HISTORY
8234
Paper 1
GENERAL COMMENTS
The question paper was slightly challenging compared to the one for 2021. Most learners opted to answer questions
1, 2 and 3. The majority of the learners scored good marks in questions 1, 3 and 5. Most learners still struggle with
questions (b) and (c). It is advisable to discourage learners to desist from focusing their attention on specific topics only
as it denies them the benefit of answering questions set from other parts of the syllabus. For part (b) questions learners
generally recognised the need to identify causal factors, and a few were able to offer at least some explanation of the
part that one or more of these factors played in explaining a specific event. The best answers went on to identify links
between these factors and could often establish some order of relative importance between them. It is worth mentioning
that the majority of the learners produced detailed descriptions of events but provided very little explanation. A question
that says ‘Explain why’ requires learners to identify some important reasons for an event or action and say why they
are important.
For part (c) questions, a handful of learners were able to offer some explanation of events. Most recognised the need
to consider different possibilities and made some effort at providing details to support different interpretations of events.
Good responses included detailed knowledge of the topics and were characterised by carefully considered and well-
supported analysis of alternative perspectives. The best responses contained a clear judgement/argument that is
focused, balanced and supported by evidence.
The weakest responses were often the result of confusion over the requirements of the question, they were characterised
by factual inaccuracy and inadequate factual support.
Teachers and Tutors are advised to adequately cover the entire syllabus during the teaching-learning process. Do not
separate the specific objectives from the specified content as the two complements each other.
SECTION A: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS, 1919 - 1939.
1 (a) Describe the actions of the League of Nations during the Bulgarian dispute of 1925. [5]
Most learners did not understand this question as they mostly focused their attention on
describing the dispute than the actions the League of Nations took.
Level 1: One mark for each relevant point identified.

e.g. The League ordered Greece and Bulgaria to stop fighting.
A committee of enquiry was sent to investigate the matter. [1-2]
Level 2: One mark for each relevant description.

e.g. The League of Nations ordered both sides to stop fighting and withdraw, and threaten
sanctions when the Greeks appeared reluctant to obey.
A League enquiry later found Greece to be at fault and imposed a fine. Both sides obeyed the
League’s orders and accepted the enquiry’s findings. [3-5]
(b) Explain why German withdrawal from the Disarmament Conference in 1933 caused problems for the
League of Nations. [8]
Poorly answered. Most of the learners confused the military terms of the Treaty of Versailles with that of the
Anglo-German Naval agreement of 1935. The learners focused on the verdicts of the Treaty of Versailles
or how unfair it was for the allies to ask Germany to disarm while other countries were rearming, instead of
focusing on the actions Germans took after withdrawing from the disarmament conference which challenged
and exposed the League of Nations’ weaknesses, which then eventually led to the overall failure of the League
of Nations.
Level 1: General answers with no specific contextual knowledge

e.g. It weakened the League. [1]
Level 2: Identifies reasons

Hitler introduced German rearmament program.
It led to German withdrawal from the League of Nations.
Germany started forming alliances with other aggressive powers.
Many countries started increasing their armed forces. [2-4]
(One mark for each point)

275
Level 3: Explain one reason
e.g. The German departure from the Disarmament Conference was followed by its massive
military build-up, in violation of the Treaty of Versailles which had limited all defeated powers
arms as a way of ensuring peace. As maintaining peace was one of the main reasons for
the League they needed to be seen to be active in this role to maintain respect. (5) This also
had the further problem that the League was supposed to uphold the Treaty of Versailles and
its lack of action in this matter helped contribute to it being seen as useless. Other countries
could see the League was not interested or capable in doing its job. (6) [5-6]
(An extra mark to be awarded for a developed explanation)
Level 4: Explains two reasons

e.g. The withdrawal from the Disarmament Conference allowed Hitler an opportunity to form
alliances with other aggressive powers such as Italy, Japan and USSR. For example, the Rome-
Berlin Axis with Mussolini further undermined the power of the League because Italy had been
a permanent member, and enabled Hitler to achieve his aim of Anschluss with Austria. (7) In
seizing Austria, Hitler broke the treaties of St. Germain and Versailles which the League was
supposed to uphold and the lack of action further exposed the weaknesses of the League in the
1930s. (8) [7-8]
(One mark for each explanation with an extra mark available for more developed explanations to
a maximum of 8 marks, eg 6 marks for 2 basic explanations, 7 marks for one of the explanations
having good detail, 8 marks for both explanation offering good detail)
(c) “The Locarno Treaties played the most important role in reducing international tensions in the 1920s.”
How far do you agree? Explain your answer. [12]
Fairly answered. However, most learners failed to explain the role of the Locarno Treaties in reducing
international tensions in the 1920s. The same was observed with the other factors such as the Dawes plan,
Kellog-Brian Pact, League of Nations. etc.
Level 1: General answers with no specific contextual knowledge.

e.g. Agree/disagree [1]
Level 2: Identifies reasons on one side

e.g. Germany finally accepted the borders with France and Belgium that were laid out in the
Treaty of Versailles.
Germany accepted that the Rhineland would remain a demilitarized zone.
France and Germany agreed to settle any future disputes through the League of Nations
OR
e.g. Under the Kellogg-Briand Pact the signatories condemned war as a means of solving
international disputes.
At the Washington Conference, USA, Britain, France and Japan agreed to limit the size of their
navies.
The USSR and Germany re-established diplomatic relations in the 1922 Rapallo Treaty. [2-3]
Level 3: Identifies reasons on both sides

(One mark for each examples) [4]
Level 4: Explain reasons on one side only

e.g. The Locarno Treaties were regarded as a great step towards preserving peace in Europe and
improving Franco-German relations by removing some of the mistrust between two countries.
By these treaties, France, Belgium and Germany agreed to respect the borders between their
countries and promised not to go to war against each other except in self-defence. (5) It showed
that nations of Europe were ready to put behind them the bitterness and hatred of the war years
and that a new spirit of reconciliation had been born in Europe. This is a clear indication that the
Locarno Treaties were an important attempt at improving international cooperation. (6)
OR
e.g. Another attempt at collective security was the signing of the Kellogg-Briand Pact in 1928.
The Pact declared that war should be used as an instrument of national policy and condemned it
as a means of settling international disputes. This marked the high point of international relations
in the 1920s. (5) Kellogg and Briand persuaded 65 countries to sign the Pact, including Italy and
Japan. This only goes to show how seriously the Pact was regarded and how successful it was
in promoting world peace. (6) [5-8]

276
Level 5: Explain reasons on both sides

One mark for each explanation with an extra mark available for more developed explanations
to a maximum of 10 marks. [9-10]
Level 6: Explain with evaluation how far

A valid conclusion is clearly answering the question, using the balanced evidence they have
presented in the essay to explain how far they agree or disagree with the statement, marks to
be awarded on the quality of the conclusion. [11-12]
2 (a) Describe the terms of the Anglo-German Naval agreement of 1935. [5]
Poorly answered. Most learners’ answers showed lack of content. In a nutshell, learners did not have a clue
about the Anglo-German Naval agreement.
Level 1: One mark for each relevant point identified

e.g. The Anglo-German Naval Agreement was signed in response to Hitler’s rearmament
program.
The Agreement guaranteed Britain that Hitler was not going to increase his military beyond the
fixed ratio thus allowing British to expand her naval military dominance in Europe. [1-2]
Level 2: One mark for each relevant description

e.g. The Anglo Naval Agreement fixed a ratio of the German navy to be 35% of the total of
the British navy.
The Anglo-German Naval Agreement was the beginning of a series of arms limitation
agreements that were made to limit German expansionism [3-5]
(b) Explain the reasons why Germany and Italy got involved in the Spanish Civil War. [8]
Fairly answered. Most learners reached L2/4 but failed to explain the reasons/factors identified.
Level 1: General answer

e.g. They were allies. [1]

e.g. Both Germany and Italy wanted to support Spanish fascists.
It was an opportunity for Hitler to fight communism.
At the same time it was also an opportunity for Hitler to save time to try out his new armed
forces.
It brought Italy and Germany closer together.
Mussolini wanted to enhance Italian prestige [2-4]
(One mark for each relevant point)

e.g. Germany got involved with the Spanish War because it had an aggressive foreign policy
and the war gave the chance to train soldiers as well as test equipment. Hitler ignored armed
forces restrictions at Versailles and had recently recruited a lot of new soldiers who needed war/
battle experience. He also had a lot of new planes such as the Messerschmidts to test. (5) Hitler
also had new tactics to test such as carpet bombing. New tanks, such as the Panzer, and tactics
for them were also developed to use different tanks for different battle situations. These needed
testing too. [5-6]
Level 4: Explain two reasons

e.g. Italy got involved in the Spanish Civil War because Mussolini saw a chance to improve his
position, after success in Abyssinia, to show he was someone who could lead Italy back to its
former greatness and develop its role as one of the main powers in Europe after disappointment

277
at the Paris Peace Conference. (5) It also gave him the opportunity to ally with other fascist
leaders and develop his relationship with Hitler as they worked together in a common goal.
Franco, Hitler and Mussolini were all right wing leaders and they all wanted to see the communists
defeated. (6) [7-8]
(c) “The Munich Agreement destroyed the League of Nations.” How far do you agree? Explain your
answer. [12]
Poorly answered. Learners failed to explain how the Munich Agreement destroyed the League of
Nations. They focused more on Hitler’s Foreign Policies.
Level 1: General answer with no specific contextual knowledge

e.g. Agree/disagree. [1]

e.g. The Agreement was made outside of the League of Nations
It undermined the League by appeasing Hitler at the expense of another member.
It undermined the moral authority of the League
OR
e.g. The Japanese invasion of Manchuria in 1931 challenged the authority of League
In Abyssinia the League failed to show strength by imposing limited sanctions and this
damaged the League’s reputation.
The treaties it had to uphold were seen as unfair and further undermined the League. [2-3]

(One mark for each point) [4]

e.g. The Munich Agreement undermined the authority of the League and encouraged further
German aggression. After only a few months Hitler invaded the rest of Czechoslovakia and both
Britain and France as key members of the League did nothing. (5) This further damaged the
reputation of the League in the sense that countries lost faith in the League and its ideals. (6)
OR
e.g. The weaknesses of the League had already been exposed in Manchuria where Japan
carried out an act of aggression by invading a Chinese province. Again the League failed to take
decisive action taking a year to produce the Lytton report and failing to take any assertive action
against Japan. (5) This encouraged Mussolini to take action in Abyssinia as he realised that the
League lacked authority and power to enforce its decisions. The League was thus powerless to
do anything in response to Japanese aggression and encouraged other nations to use violence
to resolve disputes with neighbouring countries. (6) [5-8]

278
Level 5: Level 4 + Explain reasons on both sides
Level 6: Explains with evaluation of how far

3 (a) Describe the terms of the Atlantic Charter of 1941. [5]

Poorly answered. Only some learners could recall and identify the terms of the Atlantic Charter. Most
learners confused the Atlantic Charter with the Yalta and Potsdam conference.

e.g. The Big Three agreed to end the war against Germany, and Germany to pay reparations
Division of Germany into four zones
Free elections should be held in Poland
Free election in Eastern Europe
USSR to join USA to defeat Japan
Formation of the United Nations [1-2]

e.g. The decision to divide the defeated Germany into four occupational zones was taken, each
zone to be administered by one of the Allies; USA, the USSR, Britain and France.
The Western border of the USSR to shift westwards into Poland. In return, Poland was
allowed to shift its western border western wards into defeated Germany.
An international organisation (UN) to be created and replace the League of Nations to ensure
world peace [3-5]
(b) Explain how the USA tried to limit the spread of Communism in Europe from 1945 to 1950. [8]
Fairly answered. Most learners could identify and explain the strategies that the USA used to
contain the spread of Communism. (The Truman Doctrine, Marshall Aid and NATO)

e.g. USA gave help [1]

e.g. The Truman Doctrine was introduced
The Marshall Plan was adopted.
The Berlin Airlift was introduced to supply West Berlin
The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) was formed [2-4]
Level 3: Explains one reason

e.g. Truman hated communism and was concerned about the spread of communism in Europe
so he developed the Truman Doctrine that was also known as containment. (5) It was adopted
to support nations in danger of communist take-over with economic and military aid. The USA
started with helping Greece who had been supported by the UK but they could no longer afford
to do so. (6) [5-6]

e.g. The USA and her allies realized that they needed an alliance to limit the spread of communism
after events of the 1940s such as the Berlin Blockade where the near miss of actual war had
been worrying. They met in Washington and signed an agreement to work together. (7) The
Berlin Blockade almost led to a physical war between USA and USSR. At the height of the
crisis, the Western powers met in Washington and signed an agreement to work together. The
new organisation they formed in April 1949 was known as the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
(NATO). This was a military alliance of defence against the Soviet threat in Europe. The Parties
agreed that an armed attack against one or more of them in Europe or North America shall be
considered an attack against them all. (8)

279
having good detail, 8 marks for both explanation offering good detail) [7-8]
(c) “Neither side emerged the winner from the Cuban Missile crisis.” How far do you agree? Explain your
answer. [12]
Poorly answered. Most learners focused on story telling instead of answering the question. Most of them
failed to explicitly explain how the two Presidents (USA and USSR) dealt with the Cuban missile crisis.
Level 1: General answer with no specific contextual knowledge.

Level 2: Identifies reasons on one side (responsible)

e.g. The USSR won because they maintained influence in Cuba/Cuba remained an ally.
The USSR won because the USA had to live with a communist country in its ‘back yard’.
The USA won because they got the missiles removed.
OR
War had been avoided and that was good for everyone/both sides.
Both leaders appeared like peacemakers.
The hotline was installed to prevent further problems in the future this was good for both.
Both countries learned that a direct confrontation was unlikely to be successful. [2-3]


e.g. Neither side was the winner because both countries had been scared about how easy
another war could have been started and that with nuclear weapons that war could have had
really bad results. This meant that a hotline was set up between the White House and the
Kremlin to link the two countries directly, to allow for future negotiations. (5) It also led to a
thawing of relations meaning that the Nuclear Test Ban Treaty was signed in 1963 to limit tests
and was an important step forward in trying to prevent a nuclear war. (6)
OR
Kennedy and the USA came out as the winners so one side did win. Kennedy came out of the
crisis with a greatly improved reputation because he had successfully stood up to Krushchev and
made him back down, Krushchev had turned his boats around and Kennedy could easily say this
was him winning. (5) This was important because after the failure of the Bay of Pigs operation
Kennedy needed to look strong and experienced and his successful handling of the crisis made
the USSR more wary of provoking the USA. (6) [5-8]

Level 6: Explains with evaluation of how far.

presented in the essay to explain how far they agree or disagree with the statement, marks to be
awarded on the quality of the conclusion.
This question asks whether it is valid for one to claim a victory OR whether the crisis ended with
no clear winner, a stalemate. It is not asking for candidates to identify/explain which side won.
Whilst it is understandable how some candidates might read the question that way and this can
be accepted they are to be limited to the bottom mark of levels 3, 5 and 6. [11-12]
4 (a) Describe the reforms made under glasnost. [5]

Poorly answered. Only few learners attempted to answer this question. Those that attempted could not
even identify but define the term glasnost.

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Level 1: One mark on each point
e.g. Glasnost reform is a policy introduced by Gorbachev in Russia.
He increased freedom of press. [1-2]

e.g. Gorbachev opened the way for political and economic reforms by allowing people
to discuss the problems and solutions meaning that solutions didn’t just come from the
Communist Party.
Gorbachev refused to support Communist Leaders in Eastern Europe by force, he wanted the
openness to lead to conversations about improving their countries under communism. [3-5]
(b) Explain how the USA responded to Gorbachev’s reforms. [8]

Poorly answered. Most learners lacked the content. They could not identify reasons how USA responded to
Gorbachev's reforms.

e.g. He made changes [1]

e.g. He increased USA’s military strength.
He met Gorbachev in Geneva
He signed the International Range Nuclear Force Treaty. [2-4]

e.g. Reagan recognised that Gorbachev’s reforms showed he was a very different Soviet leader,
ready to deal with problems in the USSR instead of ignoring them. Reagan and Gorbachev met
at Reykjavik in 1986 to try and reduce arms but even though they collapsed it was a sign that
the USA was prepared to respond to the reforming USSR in a peaceful way. (5) Although these
talks collapsed because Reagan wasn’t yet prepared to give up his Strategic Defence Initiative
there was success when the success of these talks was used to agree the Intermediate Range
Nuclear Forces Treaty in 1987. (6) [5-6]
Level 4: Explains two or more reasons

e.g. In the USA Reagan had started his presidency determined to win the Cold War but after
Gorbachev came to power Reagan saw he could change his approach and win not through
increasing weapons but by decreasing them. The talks to reduce weapons had been known as
Strategic Arms Limitation Talks (SALT) but Reagan wanted to significantly reduce arms, not just
limit them and insisted the name be changed to Strategic Arms Reduction Talks (START). This
underlined the difference in approach by the USA. (7) The process was started in Switzerland
and continued at Reykjavik, then Washington and Moscow and the process was finally finished
by George Bush in 1992 showing the change in approach that even a change in president didn’t
stop the easing of relationships. (8) [7-8]
(c) “Demand for democracy led to the fall of communism in Eastern Europe.” How far do you agree?
Explain your answer. [12]
Poorly answered. Learners lacked the content. Teachers should pay more attention on the Cold War
content.


e.g. Solidarity gained democratic reform and set an example to other communist countries. At
a demonstration for democracy East German soldiers refused to fire on protestors showing the
strength of support for it in October 1989.
In Czechoslovakia there are huge demonstrations for democracy and the government agreed
to change in November 1989.

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In December 1989 the communist dictator Ceausescu is overthrown because the people want
democracy.
OR
Economic reform in the USSR led to collapse of the communist economy across the region.
People didn’t want democracy as much as an end to communism and Gorbachev ended the
Brezhnev Doctrine.
Countries didn’t want to be controlled by the USSR any longer, they wanted independence
more than they wanted democracy.
Gorbachev wanted the USSR and other countries to want to be communist, he underestimated
the opposition to communism. [2-3]
Level 3: Identifies reasons for both sides

Level 4: Explain one reason on one side

e.g. Events in Poland showed how strong the demand for democracy was and how that strength
of feeling could be used to work against communist control. Solidarity started with a list of
21 demands that included things like freedom of speech. This movement grew and gained
enough power to force the government to agree to free elections in June 1989. This was the
start of the fall of communism showing that the demand for democracy was an important factor
ending communism in Easter Europe. (5) The real reason this factor is important though is
the example set by Solidarity in showing it was possible to end communist control in Eastern
Europe peacefully, without the violence that had been seen in Hungary in the 1950s. Once other
countries saw what Poland had done, and it gave them hope and led to events like the attacking
and dismantling of the Berlin Wall, an important symbol of communist control. (6)
OR
It was not the demand for democracy that led to the fall of communism but the actions of
Gorbachev. He introduced reforms such as perestroika which aimed to restructure the USSR
both economically and politically. When countries in the Soviet bloc saw this they wanted reform
too. They used the signs that Gorbachev wanted to see reform to demand change and were
successful in ending communist control in their country because of this. (7) These demands
were successful because Gorbachev ended high spending in defence and made it clear he
was withdrawing Soviet troops. As soon as he did his communist governments lost their threat,
especially when the troops of their own nations refused to act against protesting countrymen, like
in East Germany. (8) [5-8]
Level 5: Explains reasons on both sides

Level 6: Explains with evaluation of how far.

presented in the essay to explain how far they agree or disagree with the statement, marks to be
awarded on the quality of the conclusion. [11-12]

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SECTION B: NAMIBIAN HISTORY
5 (a) Describe the work of the Commonwealth in relation to Namibia after 1990. [5]
Poorly answered. Most learners failed to interpret the question correctly. They failed to identify and describe
the work of the Commonwealth in retention to Namibia after independence (1990).

e.g. It continues to help Namibia build a culture of learning and performance.
It promotes knowledge through learning and sharing.
The commonwealth propagates environment sustainability in Namibia.
It also propagates respect and understanding for cultural differences to its members.
It also promotes gender equality. [1-2]

e.g. The Commonwealth Secretariat has been and continues to give Namibia technical help on
cybercrime law and policy.
It continues to help the Namibian government on the sustainable development of its mineral
resources.
Its main aim was to build a culture of learning which it was able to achieve by encouraging
respect and understanding amongst its members and establishing scholarships for Namibians
[3-5]
(b) Explain the effect being a member of the United Nations (UN) had on Namibia up to 1995. [8]
Poorly answered. Learners misinterpreted the question. They focused more on the UN’s role during the
liberation struggle.
Teachers should coach their learners to focus on the time frame covered by the question.

e.g. To benefit
For the sake of security [1]
Level 2: Identifies reasons (one mark for each identification)

e.g. Raising the international standing/respect of Namibia.
For Namibia to become a close UN development partner
Providing active support to the international community through the UN
To support/aid the UN’s noble aim of maintaining peace and security by taking part in the UN
peacekeeping missions
For Namibia to be allowed an opportunity to promote, respect and fulfil its human rights
obligations globally and in the country [2-3]

e.g. Joining the UN had a big effect on Namibia by showing that it shared the UN’s aims. The
UN Charter is about maintaining peace and this informed Namibia’s foreign policy, giving it the
prime objective of promoting prosperity through peace. This was an important point because
people in the Namibian government had been part of the armed struggle for independence and
it was important to show the world they now wanted to end fighting. (5) It was not just foreign
policy that was informed by the UN Charter but also the constitution because Namibia’s support
of international cooperation, peace and security is founded in the constitution, it is an important
part of the founding of the state and this shows the effect the UN had on Namibia. (6) [5-6]

e.g. Joining the UN has had an important effect on Namibia by helping it build on the respect it
had for human rights, because they wanted equal rights for black people, by giving it a formal
structure to use. For example Namibia fulfilled its obligations towards the Convention on
the Rights of the Child by immediately ending the system that restricted education for black
children. (7). It can also be seen in the way they have supported the CEDAW/Convention on the
Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women) by quickly creating a Department for
Women Affairs after independence. (8) [7-8]

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(c) “Namibia implemented the United Nations (UN) conventions on Human Rights to the best of their
ability.” How far do you agree? Explain your answer. [12]
Poorly answered due to a lack of contextual knowledge. Teachers should focus on the content of Namibian
History-Post independence.


e.g. Namibia ratified the convention against torture and other cruel, inhuman or degrading
treatment or punishment.
Namibia has ratified the International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial
Discrimination (ICERD)
The Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC)
The Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD)
OR
e.g. Namibia does not obey all conventions to the full extent. The rights of persons with
disabilities are not executed to the full extent.
Women were still not protected against inequalities such as polygamy and land owning rights
as a widow. The rights to Migrant Work workers under the convention has not been agreed/
ratified. [2-3]


e.g. Namibia has done all it can to implement the UN convention on Human Rights as shown
by the way it has worked to put the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination
against Women (CEDAW) into effect. For example, it has stopped inequality for women on
marriage in the Marriage Persons Equality Act of 1994 allowing them to own property. (5) Namibia
has also tried to increase women’s involvement in government and business through affirmative
action the acts such as the Local Authorities Act and/or the Traditional Authorities Acts which
insisted on women’s involvement. (6)
OR
Although Namibia has signed and ratified many of the aspects of the UN Convention for Human
Rights it cannot be said to have done all it can because they have not done all they could in certain
areas. For example action for the Convention on the Rights of Person with Disabilities (CPRD)
have not been given government priority so people with disabilities weren’t given state help such
as providing wheelchairs. Simple things like this would have signaled the new government’s aim
to look after disabled people. (7) In addition to this their rights at law were not promoted so that
disabled people didn’t feel as though they could use the law to help them gain equality either by
prosecuting individuals or larger organisations. (8) [5-8]

Level 6: Explain with evaluation for how far.


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6 (a) Describe the Southern African Development Community’s (SADC) vision. [5]
Poorly answered. Instead of describing the vision of SADC, learners focused more on the aims of SADC
and advantages of Namibia being a member of SADC.

e.g. The vision of SADC is one of a common future within a regional community that will ensure
economic well-being.
Improvement of the standards of living and quality of life.
To ensure peace and security. [1-2]

e.g. To achieve sustained Economic Growth and Sustainable Development so that people in
the region have better living standards and employment opportunities.
To deepen the integration agenda of SADC with a view to accelerating poverty eradication in
Southern Africa.
To support the socially disadvantaged through regional integration
To build on democratic principles and equitable and sustainable development. [3-5]
(b) Explain the effect that being a member of SADC had on Namibia up to 2000. [8]
Poorly answered due to lack of contextual knowledge.

e.g. In a good way [1]

e.g. Namibia has achieved economic benefits expected from Regional Integration such as
having access to a larger market.
Namibia have benefited through intra-regional trade and investment flows.
Namibia has also seen an increased transfer of technology and experience through regional
integration.
Namibia has benefited by cooperating with other member states on the issues of peace and
security within SADC.
Namibia benefited through improvements of infrastructure such as the construction of roads
linking the country to other member states. [2-4]

e.g. The establishment of the Walvis Bay corridor has resulted in improved infrastructure such as
roads, promoting the smooth movement of goods, people and services across the region (5). To
ensure that such benefits are felt throughout the region, SADC is now creating 17 other transport
corridors since these are critical in supporting socio-economic integration by opening up markets
and promoting increased trade and investment. (6) [5-6]
Level 4: Explain two or more reasons

e.g. Being part of SADC has had a positive effect on Namibia’s economy and its people
because it has provided the country access to a larger market and an opportunity to sign regional
agreements to facilitate the movement of goods and services within SADC, thereby creating a
competitive market that has helped to enhance the country’s global competitiveness. (7) For
this to be realized Namibia signed the SADC Trade Protocol in 1996 which came into force
in January 2000. The Protocol aims to eliminate obstacles to the free movement of goods,
services, capital and labour and improve the region’s economic performance and international
competitiveness. Therefore, the gradual elimination of tariff and non-tariff barriers made it easier
for traders to market their goods across borders, for manufacturers to source inputs regionally
and add value to their products. (8) [7-8]

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(c) “By 2000 political reforms brought the most benefit to Namibians.” How far do you agree? Explain
your answer. [12]
Poorly answered, learners misinterpreted the question. The evidence gathered points to a lack of
appropriate contextual knowledge on Namibia's post independence history.


e.g. National reconciliation has helped the country to achieve a considerable degree of internal
stability that was needed after the protracted liberation struggle.
The policy frame work and building of regional and local capacity for decentralization have made
it easier for the rural and urban poor people to access public goods such as health services and
education.
The political reforms has seen Namibia’s entry into the global economy as an active member of
the international community with robust trade and diplomatic relations.
The policy of Affirmative Action that was also adopted shortly after independence has largely
removed the inherited inequity in access to opportunities in a once divided society.
OR
e.g. The politics of land have yet to be adequately integrated into a national comprehensive
and long-term poverty eradication strategy.
Namibia continues to be a country with huge income inequality, and the black majority remains
excluded from education, resources and capital due to institutionalized inequalities and
tuberculosis
Political reforms has been accompanied by the politically and morally disconcerting rise in
unemployment.
The politics of reconciliation and the attendant nation building project have failed to address
past and present injustices and have not significantly contributed towards the building of a
human rights culture.
(One mark for each point) [2-3]


e.g. National reconciliation has undoubtedly played an important role in overcoming the
immediate political, racial and ethnic tensions of the past. The policy of national reconciliation
has contributed to creating a society that is largely in harmony and peace with itself which the
nation so badly needed after independence. (5) The policy has opened a new way for people to
live together in peace while sharing their democratic values, attitudes, languages, etc. (6)
OR
e.g. By the end of the first decade of the 2000s, Namibia was characterized as a rich country
with poor people.
Therefore by 2000 Namibia continued to be a country with huge income inequality and the
black majority remained excluded from education, labour, resources and capital. (7) This clearly
shows that poverty and underdevelopment remained a daunting challenge for social and human
development in Namibia. (8) [8]

to a maximum of 10 marks [9-10]
Level 6: Explain with evaluation for how far.


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Paper 2
GENERAL COMMENTS
Generally, the question paper was fair. This paper, which tests the interpretation and evaluation of sources, requires
learners to address in a valid way the particular skill or concept demanded by each question. It is advisable to make sure
that learners obtain the skills to answer this paper. Most learners scored good marks in questions 1 and 5. Learners
were better at interpreting sources, rather than comparing or evaluating them. Learners sometimes made inappropriate
points of comparison. They claimed similarities for points which were not actually similar and differences for points
which were not different. If the comparisons cannot be properly validated, they cannot be credited. The comparisons
should be focused on the question. At this level, learners must provide contextual knowledge and evaluate the sources
to explain why there are differences and similarities. Most learners still struggle with the evaluation questions.
Teachers and Tutors should put emphasis on the following: Choices must be made where necessary, e.g. surprised
and not surprised, agree and disagree, etc. Learners must not use words in the sources to make valid inferences
or assertions but should infer from sources, and then back up why they think this with a quote (if the source is
written) or detail (if it is a visual source). For that, inferences, assertions and purposes must be accompanied by
support from the sources. The level of contextual knowledge was good, though some responses would have benefited
from remembering that contextual knowledge is never tested in isolation in this paper. It has to be used to help answer
the questions. Overall, scripts displayed low confidence in questions requiring evaluation of the sources. Testing of
reliability must receive a lot of attention. Please,reach out to others who know and consult the examiners' reports
from previous years. When testing the source for reliability, the following four elements must be addressed: the
author, the date, the audience and the purpose. While many learners did well in response to Question 5, there were
still some who did not use the sources as the basis of their answer. Similarly, those who grouped the sources together
and made general comments about the statement generally neglected to engage with the content of each source.
Better responses used the sources to both support and disagree with the given statement. There are two bonus marks
available in this last question for assessing or reassessing the reliability of any two sources. Every year more learners
lose marks on this part of the paper than any other.
To improve for 2023:
1 Make sure that learners possess the skills for this question paper to avoid catastrophic results.
2 Answering these questions well requires learners to make good use of three elements: their knowledge,
the sources and the information provided about the provenance of the sources. These elements need to
be used together. Learners need to be able to use their knowledge and understanding of the period they
have studied to interpret the sources. This, with good use of the provenance of the sources, should then
be used to directly address the question.
3 Knowledge is not rewarded for its own sake. It only has value in these answers when it is used by
learners to say something better about the sources.
4 When required to compare sources, learners should avoid summarising each source in turn and then
asserting that they agree or disagree. Comparisons need to be made point by point. Some preparation is
needed to answer these questions well. Therefore, teach learners how to find similarities and differences
in sources without paraphrasing and copying them.
5 Learners should be taught on how to use the correct support, e.g. the support should fit well with the
valid inferences made.
6 Teachers must practice in class with the learners on how to perfect a purpose. The purpose is the
intention of the author.
7 The usefulness and less usefulness of sources needs more practice in class. What can the source show
that is helpful for us to understand something verses what the source fails to show that’s important and
should be shown (mainly the content of the sources). The less useful side can be answered better if one
looks at the shortcoming(limitations) of a source.
8 Teachers/Tutors need to work on evaluation questions to prepare the learners e.g. Question 4 on
surprise and not surprise. The answer should discuss content, provenance, and your own knowledge.

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9 What is surprising is not definite, there is no clear answer/outcome. The content in one source is not the
same as in the other.
10 What is not surprising is not unknown. In fact, the content of one source is the same as in the other source.
11 Teach your learners on how to make a comparison between the sources to bring out the surprise and not
surprise parts.
12 To answer the last question, learners should follow the same principle as for ordinary level by making a
choice and copying a sentence or phrase that fits with their choice. This question contains a statement
and learners are asked to explain whether the sources support the statement. The key is to understand
that the question is about the sources as evidence in relation to the statement, and not just about the
statement itself. Learners need to refer to the sources individually and explain how each one does or does
not support the statement.
13 The evaluation (Testing of Reliability) of any two sources of your choice is still needed for the two extra
bonus marks. It must be in line with the last question.
Consider the following for testing the reliability of a source:

Author: From where/the origin of the source/reasons why (purpose) the author published the source.
Date: When it was published by then and why (purpose)?

Audience: For whom it was meant and why (purpose)?
NB: This question doesn’t need Contextual knowledge, Cross-reference and a summary at the end. Candidates
that use a Y/N instead of Yes/No will be penalised.
Question 1
Most learners could score good marks. They could mostly outline the similarities but failed to bring out the
differences. Most learners failed to use the correct support from the sources and did not provide proper contextual
knowledge and evaluation to reach the highest level.
Learners were proficient in finding similarities but needed to go beyond saying what they saw to offer differences.
They should infer from the sources to uncover these. For example, A suggests the Tsar pity people whereas B shows
he acted brutally towards them. The differences are clearly present but need to be going beyond simply repeating what
can be copied from the sources.
Learners need to use the wording of the question as a guide. In this case, the question asked for the views of how
the Tsar survived the 1905 Revolution. There is clearly a signpost to look for more than just pro-Tsar views and many
learners missed that direction. They ended up making life more difficult for themselves not just in missing an opportunity
to focus on what could be found in B but made the mistake of identifying similarities, or more often differences, that
were not ‘like for like’, for example, “A speaks about new strikes in schools while B is about: “The morning of the 9th:
the crowd in Stranstnaya Square is attacked by the dragoons.” These are not comparable points nor are they answering
the question.
Many learners failed to identify valid differences in this way but there were a few learners that could. For example, the
learners that wrote about Source A outlines “the willingness of the Tsar to give in to people’s demands whereas Source
B outlines the violent approach of the Tsar’s regime.
Learners needed to focus their contextual knowledge or evaluation on the question to explain why similarities or
differences existed. This means that contextual knowledge needed to be focused on how the Tsar survived the 1905
Revolution and in evaluating sources cross referencing is unlikely to be valid as it is unlikely to explain why similarities
or differences were present.
1 Study Sources A and B.

Compare and contrast how the Tsar survived the 1905 revolution. Use the sources and your knowledge to explain
your answer. [9]
Level 1: No valid source use / describes sources/no comparison [1]
Level 2: Valid comparison with similarity(ies) AND/OR difference(s) with no source support

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Valid comparisons include but are not limited to: [2-5]
Similarities
Both Source A and B consider using violence.
Both sources show that people opposed the Tsar’s rule.
Both sources show the Tsar is autocratic.
Both sources show the country was lawless/anarchy.
Both are contemporary reflections.
Both identify popular discontent.
Differences
Source A shows the Tsar being reasonable and compromising while Source B just shows violence
A is a personal but private account, B is intended to encourage further revolution and is therefore
public and focuses on repression.
A is a considered reflection about what could be done while B recounts facts.
The sources are from ideologically opposed authors (Tsar is autocratic/supports monarchy; Lenin is a
Marxist).
B suggests the government was totally behind the use of force while A suggests some doubt (Witte
for instance).
A shows God’s guidance was asked for.
B shows the government relied on its own strength to defeat the masses
A shows the Tsar listening to his advisors
B shows the Tsar opts for extreme measures
Marks should reflect the quality of the answer at this level and could be based on the number of
similarities/differences identified.
Level 3: Valid similarity (ies) AND/OR difference(s) with source support [6-7]
e.g. Both Sources A and B consider using violence as Source A says ‘to find an energetic soldier and
crush the rebellion by sheer force’ and Source B shows ‘artillery fire opened on the barricades and
the crowds in the street’.
Source A shows the Tsar being reasonable and compromising as it says ‘the other way out would be
to give the people their civil rights, freedom of speech and press’ while B just shows violence as it says
‘for several days the volunteer fighting units wage a stubborn guerrilla battle against the troops’.
Higher marks to be awarded according to quality of support and explanation. They could also be
based on the number of similarities and differences given. Top mark only for similarity AND difference
with support.
Level 4: Similarity AND difference with source support and evaluation AND/OR contextual knowledge
[8-9]
e.g. Level 3 plus in 1906 the Tsar appointed Petr Stolypin as Prime Minister and his aim as to achieve
stability by representing the revolutionaries and introducing reforms to improve people’s lives e.g. land
reforms.
The Moscow uprising, between 7 and 17 December 1905, was the climax of the 1905 Russian
Revolution. Thousands of workers joined in an armed rebellion against the Tsar’s government for
better socio-democratic conditions.
Question 2
The question was not answered very well mainly because of a lack of contextual knowledge, skills and the ability to
think outside the box.
Many learners managed to reach a purpose which are not specifically linked to 1906.
Those who reach Level 4 were only a few.

Only a few could reach level 5 because they provided proper contextual knowledge. The lack of proper Contextual
knowledge is very much evident.

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Give attention to:
Learners should be advised to focus on details of the source or provenance. In this case to reach the higher levels of
the mark scheme they needed to focus on a purpose for 1906 and use valid contextual knowledge to recognise that
the cartoonist criticise the Tsar’s rule as corrupt despite the reforms of Stolypin. He just looks to improve the lives of the
middle class and the rich while ignoring the needs of the masses. The cartoonist wants people to put more pressure
on the Tsar to stick to his word.
Candidates should also be aware that evaluation and the purpose is going hand in hand with contextual knowledge
to answer this question. The views/intentions of the author are the same as the purpose for producing the cartoon,
this same author has a specific audience in mind to convey his message in exchange for a reaction. The only part
that needed to explain is the date and this can only be done with suitable contextual knowledge. This means that the
purpose and evaluation are not separate entities but function together with the help of suitable contextual knowledge
to reach the highest level of this question. The use of support at face value from the cartoon must be encouraged
especially when the caption doesn’t give much away.
2 Study Source C.
Why was this cartoon allowed to be published in 1906? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your
answer. [9]
Level 1: No valid source use/describes the source [1]
Level 2: Identifies message [2-3]

e.g. Show the middle class and rich people supported the Tsar.
Show that more people should support the Tsar because their ‘betters’ supported him.
Show that those in charge supported the Tsar so he must be a good leader.
Show that only those who benefited under the Tsar supported him.
Show the Tsar only cared about the support of the rich.
The Tsar discriminated against the poor
Marks to be awarded on quality of answers and this could be based on number of messages identified
or presence of source support.
Level 3: Identifies a purpose not specifically linked to 1906 [4-5]

e.g. Make people understand the Tsar was only working for the rich and that more reforms were
needed.
Make people understand more reform was needed because the Tsar only looked after the rich.
Make people support those who wanted more reform/changes for the workers and the peasants
because only rich benefited under the Tsar.
Marks awarded as level 2 but substitute purpose for message.
Level 4: Identifies a purpose specifically linked to 1906 [6-7]

Purpose should be linked to the Fundamental Laws and valid purposes include:
Make people understand the Tsar had only made reforms that suited him and the rich people.
Make people support the demand for further reform that benefited all people, not just the rich.
Marks awarded as level 2 but substitute purpose for message.
Level 5: Purpose AND specific contextual knowledge [8-9]

Purpose plus an explanation of how the Fundamental Laws were reforms that made no real difference
to the running of the country and most people’s lives meaning that many involved in political protest
still needed support to make more far reaching reforms, reforms that would take power from the rich.
Criticism remain autocratic.
Marks awarded for quality of explanation or contextual knowledge.
Question 3
The question was answered moderately well. Many candidates could explain the usefulness and or less usefulness of
the sources but could not reach the last level due to the lack of valid contextual knowledge and evaluation. There was
an improvement in many candidates’ explanations which enabled them to reach a purpose in Source D but the learners
still failed to bring out the usefulness and less usefulness of a cartoon.
Many learners misinterpret Source C. A lot of work needs to be done on the less useful side. Teachers/tutors must
work on the choices because many learners made wrong choices and quoted wrong information from the sources as
support. The support must fit with the valid assertion(s) made. Learners must learn to bring out the strengths/clarity of

290
sources: this identifies the usefulness of the sources. The less usefulness of sources comes from the limitations of
those sources, e.g. things that cannot clearly be answered e.g. in Source C what is the name of the satirical magazine?
Where was the cartoon published and by whom? Who was the author of Source D? etc. A lack of valid contextual
knowledge made it difficult for the learners to score good marks. The evaluation of historical source(Testing of
Reliability) remains a problem. Teachers/Tutors should teach the learners on how to test the reliability of a source in a
more coherent manner The mark scheme suggests the inclusion of three main items in the answer:
(a) Why did the author publish this? Here, a learner need to analyse the context of time and place of the author and use
that to deduce the reason for that publication.
(b) What is the spirit or big message of the publication? Here, a learner deduce the central idea the author is trying to
convey.
(c) What is the desired effect on the audience? By audience, one could mean the public, the media or politicians etc.
What does the author want them to do? How does the cartoonist want them to feel? NB: State also if the source is
reliable/not reliable and useful/not useful.
3 Study Sources C and D.

Which source is more useful as evidence of the Tsar’s grip on power after 1905? Use the sources and your
knowledge to explain your answer. [10]
Level 1: No valid source use/describes the sources [1]
Level 2: Undeveloped provenance [2]

e.g. C is a primary source and D is a secondary source
Level 3: Uses only one source [3-5]

e.g. C is useful it shows the limitations of the 1905 revolution. (3) The source clearly shows that the
Tsar was still popular in Russia as he enjoyed the support of the middle class people. The cartoonist
might be an outsider which can make the source more objective.
Marks awarded on quality of explanation/source support.
Level 4: Uses both sources [6-8]

E.g. As above plus… D is also useful because it provides details on how the Tsar failed to effectively
deal with the revolution, it shows he was not acting with fairness (6) because it says “the Tsar has
destroyed forever the popular conception of himself as the father of the people.” (7). The Tsar will not
survive another Revolution.
Level 5: Uses both sources AND contextual knowledge AND/OR evaluation [9-10]
E.g. C is more useful because it shows a view from after the 1905 in Russia. Whilst it does not
actually show the Tsar’s grip on power it does demonstrate that he did still have some support, from
rich people and middle classes. (9) It also fits with my knowledge that the middle classes were satisfied
with the changes and were, at first, happy to have a Duma with no power. (10)
OR
D is more useful because whilst it was written immediately after Bloody Sunday, before the revolution
took hold, the way the Tsar came to be seen is accurately depicted here. (9) The increase in threat to
Nicholas’ grip on power started with this event because he showed himself to not care about the poor,
he had no interest in being their ‘father’. (10)
Question 4
Overall the learners did not well in answering this question. Most failed to compare the sources and opted rather to treat
the sources in isolation. A few learners could identify and address at least one side e.g. surprise and not surprise with
valid assertions with support. Most copy the correct support between the sources but fail to provide a valid assertion.
Less than five learners could reach levels 5 and 6. It is evident that nobody could properly compare the sources and
test the reliability of both sources to explain why Sources D and E are surprising or not surprising.
This question is asking learners to consider which source is more trustworthy, which source is likely to be a more accurate
reflection of the reason(s) why the Tsar survived the 1905 revolution. It is a more complex question than that asked in
Question 3 because learners, in order to be successful, need to have, at the forefront of their minds, the provenance and
for these sources they needed to utilise their contextual knowledge to access beyond Level 3. Learners could simply
use content, a simple approach could be taken, the view that different reasons were given so one must be surprising
or they could take the view that they were both not surprising. As above, there was not necessarily a ‘right answer’,
learners simply needed to compare the sources and offer an answer using evidence.
Clues were present in the provenance to point candidates towards being able to evaluate the sources by giving them
the information that Source D was targeted towards the world to criticise the Tsar’s actions as inhuman and that it will
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cause his downfall and that Source E was the memoirs of Sergei Witte who was part of the core circle of the Tsar’s
top leadership who just wanted to defend their actions of 1905 by only addressing it in 1921, four years after the Tsar’s
rule, when the Bolsheviks under Lenin was in charge, maybe to safe his own life. Learners needed to decide how this
affected their view of the information in the sources and decide, therefore, which was more likely to be surprising/ not
surprising but too many failed to successfully compare the content in the sources.
NB: in a nutshell: What is surprising is when the information in both sources is not the same, there are question marks
over events, there are forms of contradiction, etc. What is not surprising in the sources is when the information
in both sources correlates/corresponds and is logical. Therefore, learners must explain why the information is
surprising and not surprising. Knowing this shows again how important contextual knowledge is in analysing
and interpreting sources. Evaluation (Testing of Reliability) remains a problem. Teachers/Tutors need to teach the
learners to address their Testing of Reliability more structurally e.g.
Author: … : and why… “
Date: When ….. and why …”

Audience: For whom …. and why …?
NB: State also if the source is reliable/not reliable and surprising /not surprising.
4 Study Sources D and E.

After reading Source D, does Source E surprise you? Use the sources and your knowledge to explain your
answer. [10]
Level 1: No valid source use/describes the sources [1]
Level 2: Undeveloped provenance [2]

e.g. D is from a US newspaper, E is from a Russian nobleman in the Tsar’s government who,
though present during the events, was writing much later about them.
Level 3: Surprised/not surprised using content of source only [3-4]

e.g. I am surprised by the suggestion of the peasants wanting the Tsar (‘people’s Tsar’) or that the
government did not know what to do and was indecisive (‘government was in a state of uncertainty’) as
based on Source D the Tsar repressed the people with brutality and the government showed firmness
in dealing with the revolution.
I am not surprised because of the desire for greater freedom (the reforms of Alexander II) and more
land, the state of confusion or ferociousness of the rioting. I am surprised because Source E is from
a supporter of the Tsar.
Marks awarded on quality of answer.
Level 4: Evaluates D but no use of content from E [5]

e.g. The place where D comes from makes it more surprising because it comes from the day after
events on Bloody Sunday and gives an account that does show similarities with the account of 7 years
later, describing a big change in how the government was viewed. (9) However, it is less surprising
as it comes from a newspaper report in the United States. The US were supporters of democracy, not
old fashioned autocratic leaders like the Tsar so they would not write anything supporting his system of
government. (10)
OR
The provenance of C makes it more surprising because this is a member of the government admitting
that the government completely failed and you would not expect him to admit this. (9) However, it is
not surprising because it is the truth but told at a time when the Tsar had re-gained control in addition
to this Witte was known to think the Tsar had not gone far enough with reform and would not allow his
members to published during his lifetime because of this. (10)
Level 5: Compares the sources and evaluate one or both [6-8]

e.g. as above + Source E is reliable because it was published by the supporter of the Tsar and might have
witnessed what happened in Russia during the Tsar’s government when peasants were demanding for
the restoration of their rights.
Level 6: Compares the sources and evaluates both [9-10]

Convincing explanation why one is surprised or not surprised.

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Question 5
Overall this was answered very well, and many learners achieved high marks on this question by carefully explaining
how a number of the sources could be seen as providing convincing evidence that the Tsar survived the 1905 Revolution
only through violence, while others said the he did not survive the 1905 Revolution only through the use of violence.
The most successful answers examined the sources one by one and explained how the content of each supported or
disagreed with the given hypothesis. Some learners would have improved their answers by making it clear whether
the source under discussion supported or disagreed with the given statement. Learners should avoid grouping the
sources together and making assertions about them as a group; this rarely worked well. Good responses also avoided
summaries of the sources and generalisations about source type. The best responses included genuine evaluation
based on a source’s purpose, rather than simple statements involving bias or undeveloped provenance. Some learners
brought in contextual knowledge and cross-reference in their answers which is not needed.
Only a few learners could answer the Testing of Reliability correctly.

5 Study all of the sources.
“The Tsar survived the 1905 Revolution only through the use of violence.” How far do the sources support this
statement? [12]
Level 1: No valid source use [1-3]
Level 2: Use sources to support OR reject the statement [4-6]
Level 3: Uses sources to support AND reject the statement. [7-12]

Yes - A, B, D & E
No – A, B, C, D & E.
NB: Evaluation must be related in answering e.g. Something about the Tsar’s methods to stay in
power.
• NOTE: Up to 2 bonus marks may be awarded for evaluation of the reliability of sources (no more
than 1 mark per source) [12]
• Sources used must be referred to by letter, provenance or by direct quote from the sources
TR-Example:
o One source = [1]
o Two sources = [2] maximum mark for TR awarded = 2 marks
SOURCE A
No: It makes me sick to read the news!
Explanation: This shows the weak and absent-minded personality of the Tsar that he could not act/rule when
there was a pressure situation.
No: Nothing but new strikes in schools and factories, murdered policemen, Cossack and soldiers, riots, disorder,
mutinies.
Explanation: The Tsar was looking for advice from his mother to hide his insecurities/evilness.
Yes: Nothing but new strikes in schools and factories, murdered policemen, Cossack and soldiers, riots, disorder,
mutinies.
Explanation: The Tsar was looking for advice from his mother to justify his harsh actions.
Yes: There were only two ways open: to find an energetic soldier and crush the rebellion by sheer force.
Explanation: He weighs his options to use violence to establish law and order.
Yes: There would be time to breathe then but, as likely as not, one would have to use force again in a few months;
and that would mean rivers of blood and in the end, we should be where we had started and no possibility of progress
achieved.
Explanation: He justifies his actions that constant violence is needed to keep law and order.
No: The other way out would be to give the people their civil rights, freedom of speech and press, also to have all laws
confirmed by a State Duma (a constitution).
Explanation: He opted for peace to give in to people’s demands to restore order.

No: Witte defends this very energetically.

293
Explanation: He shows signs of listening to advice from his leadership to introduce reforms to bring peace
to the country.
No: He says that while it is not with risk, it’s the only way out at the present moment.
Explanation: To introduce reforms is the only way to restore peace in the country.
No: He and Alexei Obolensky [the Education Minister] drew up the Manifesto.
Explanation: He allows his Ministers to work independently to work on reforms to restore peace.
No: We discussed it for two days, and in the end, invoking God’s help. I signed.
Explanation: He was willing to take part in discussions and ask for higher help to do the right thing for the
better of his people.
SOURCE B
Yes: The morning of the 9th: the crowd in Stranstnaya Square is attacked by the dragoons.
Explanation: The Tsar’s troops used violence against the people to put them off from striking against the
Tsar’s government.
Yes: Evening: the Fiedler building is raided.
Explanation: The Tsar’s troops used violence against the people to put them off from striking against the
No: Tempers rise.
Explanation: People were unhappy with the Tsar’s violent response to their peaceful demonstration.
No: The unorganised street crowds, quite spontaneously and hesitatingly, set up the first barricades.
Explanation: The crowds by setting up barricades show that they themselves will not shy away from using
violence.
Yes: The unorganised street crowds, quite spontaneously and hesitatingly, set up the first barricades.
Explanation: The crowds set up barricades to protect themselves against the Tsar’s violence.
Yes: The 10th: artillery fire is opened on the barricades and the crowds in the streets.
Explanation: The Tsar’s troops used brutal force against the people to scare them from striking against the
No: Barricades are set up more deliberately and no longer in isolated cases, but on a really mass scale.
Explanation: It shows violence means is being used by the people to defend themselves against the troops’
brutality or to show they are serious about change in the country.
Yes: Barricades are set up more deliberately and no longer in isolated cases, but on a really mass scale.
Explanation: This shows that the crowd just wanted to protect themselves against the brutality of the Tsar’s
soldiers while voicing their grievances at the same time.
Yes: The whole population is in the streets; all the main centres of the city are covered by a network of barricades.
Explanation: This shows that the crowd just wanted to protect themselves against the brutality of the Tsar’s
soldiers while voicing their grievances at the same time.
No: The whole population is in the streets; all the main centres of the city are covered by a network of barricades.
Explanation: The Tsar only respond to people’s protests to save his regime.
Yes: For several days the volunteer fighting units wage a stubborn guerrilla battle against the troops, which exhausts
the troops and compels [Governor-General of Moscow] Dubasov to beg for reinforcements.
Explanation: This shows that the crowd challenges the Tsar’s soldiers and leaves the soldiers with no other
choice but to use utter violence.
No: For several days the volunteer fighting units wage a stubborn guerrilla battle against the troops, which exhausts
the troops and compels [Governor-General of Moscow] Dubasov to beg for reinforcements.
Explanation: This shows that the crowd challenges the Tsar’s soldiers to use utter violence to restore order

294
and facing resistance from the people who might have realised that violence is the only way to make the Tsar
listen to their grievances.
Yes: Only on December 15 did the superiority of the government forces become complete, and on December 17 the
Semyonovsky Regiment [sent from St. Petersburg to Moscow] crushed Presnya District, the last stronghold of the
uprising.
Explanation: The Tsar’s troops used his troops to supressed revolts.
Source C
NB: Choice, Valid Inference, Support (Surface detail or the caption) and an explanation.
Example: Choice – Support or Reject the statement

• VI = No: This shows that the Tsar treated only the middle class and the rich very well while the
poor and needy are treated badly.
Caption/Surface detail (support) = Cartoon depicting the Tsar as only popular with the middle class
and rich from a satirical magazine that did not always support the Tsarist government published in
1906.
The Tsar’s hands are stretched over the people like his giving them something or to bless/protect them.
Explanation: The Tsar ignored the demands of the poor and needy, he only focus on the needs of the already
advanced class because he might felt that they were the only ones that can challenge his leadership, to keep
them quiet is to look after their interest.
Source D
Yes: On such a day, if ever, it was the duty of the Russian Autocrat to prove himself a man and a Monarch- every inch
a king, Nicholas II has not done that, and by his failure, he has dealt a more serious blow to the principle of Tsardom
than all the revolutionaries in Russia have yet dealt it.
Explanation: By using violence against the people, the Tsar loose the respect of the people.
No: On such a day, if ever, it was the duty of the Russian Autocrat to prove himself a man and a Monarch- every inch a
king, Nicholas II has not done that, and by his failure, he has dealt a more serious blow to the principle of Tsardom than
all the revolutionaries in Russia have yet dealt it.
Explanation: This doesn’t show the Tsar used violence to stay in power, people might have lost faith in him
already because they did not like the way he run the country.
Yes: For by his conduct yesterday, the Tsar has destroyed forever the popular conception of himself as the father of
the people.
No: For by his conduct yesterday, the Tsar has destroyed forever the popular conception of himself as the father of the
people.
Explanation: This doesn’t show the Tsar used violence to stay in power, people might have lost faith in him
already because they did not like the way he run the country.
Yes: Never again will he be the popular conception of himself as the father of his people.
Yes: Never again will he be the popular conception of himself as the father of his people.
Yes: Never again will he be regarded as the fount of justice and mercy, the righteous Sovereign, perhaps misled by evil
counsellors, but longing to do the right thing, if he only knew where the right lay.
Yes: What will be the outcome of the day of blood which St. Petersburg has just gone through there is no man may
dare to say.
Yes: But this at least is certain, that among the dying people there died a great idea- the people’s idea of their Tsar.

295
Explanation: By using violence against the people, the Tsar loose the respect of the people and cause them
to retaliate.
No: That sacred image has been broken by the fire of Vladimir’s savage soldiery.
Explanation: People lost faith in him because Lenin stood up to him and this show to people that the Tsar is
not untouchable.
Yes: The Tsar has shattered his own icon.
Explanation: The Tsar damaged his credibility by using violence against the protestors and with that he
drives a wedge between himself and the people.
No: The Tsar has shattered his own icon.
Explanation: The Tsar damaged his credibility by not addressing the people’s grievances earlier and by only
look after the interest of the already well off as clearly visible in Source C and with that he drives a wedge
between himself and the poor people.
Source E
Yes: At that time the country was in a state to complete and universal confusion.
Explanation: The strikes and violent reactions from the Tsar’s troops caused chaos.
No: At that time the country was in a state to complete and universal confusion.
Explanation: The civil servants were caught off guard by the revolution because it was the first time that a
strike of such a magnitude rocks Russia which caused them not to know how to react properly.
Yes: The Government was in a state of uncertainty, and when the revolution boiled up furiously from the depths, the
authorities were completely paralysed.
Explanation: The violence of the Tsar’s troops caused the whole country to dysfunction.
No: The Government was in a state of uncertainty, and when the revolution boiled up furiously from the depths, the
authorities were completely paralysed.
Explanation: This show that it was violence against the Tsar that brought his administration to a standstill.
Yes: They either did nothing or pulled in opposite directions so that the existing regime and its noble standard bearer
were completely swept out of existence.
Explanation: This show people resisted the Tsar’s rule after he used violence.
No: They either did nothing or pulled in opposite directions so that the existing regime and its noble standard bearer
were completely swept out of existence.
Explanation: The Tsar’s own government official betray him by not doing their work and in the end he got the
blame for everything that went wrong.
No: The rioting grew more fierce, not daily but hourly.
Explanation: The crowd use violence against the Tsar’s regime.

Yes: The revolution came out openly on the streets and assumed a more threatening character.
No: The revolution came out openly on the streets and assumed a more threatening character.
Explanation: The crowd use violence against the Tsar’s regime.

Yes: The majority of the Russian people, the peasantry, were anxious to increase their land holdings and to do away
with the unrestrained arbitrary actions on the part of the higher landed class and of the police throughout the extent of
its hierarchy, from the lowest gendarme to the provincial governor.
Explanation: People wanted to resist the Tsar’s rule because of violence by his officials. This show that the
Tsar survived the 1905 Revolution because his officers protect him by using violence.
No: The majority of the Russian people, the peasantry, were anxious to increase their land holdings and to do away
with the unrestrained arbitrary actions on the part of the higher landed class and of the police throughout the extent of
its hierarchy, from the lowest gendarme to the provincial governor.

296
Explanation: This doesn’t show the Tsar used violence, it was more the people that wanted to change the
status quo.
Yes: The peasant’s dream was an autocratic Tsar, but a people’s Tsar.
Explanation: Some people loved the violent nature of the Tsar because it was the only language that they
understand.
No: The peasant’s dream was an autocratic Tsar, but a people’s Tsar.
Explanation: The peasants opted for a strict Tsar but one who cares for his people.
NB: If the candidate only gives a choice with a quote without an explanation= L1/1 [50]

297
298
MATHEMATICS
8227
Paper 1
Key Messages
Learners who displayed good algebraic skills coped well with this paper. An alarming number of learners are not up to
standard for Paper 1’s work; specifically, the algebraic execution of the work.
Learners must be informed that if the question requires to show/prove something, the conclusion must always be
stated again and they should not start with the quoted answer.
It is important that candidates understand how to approach the “hence” part of a question.
Calculator and arithmetic skills are not up to standard.
General comments
If learners use the additional page, they should indicate it on the question or delete the wrong work.
The standard of work in this examination was good for the able candidates, but the weaker learners’ work was not
well executed. In general, the work was done neatly and clearly. The marks ranged from 0 to 74.
The majority of learners showed their working. Working can score marks, even if a final answer is wrong.
Although the formulae are given, quite a number of candidates were careless in using them correctly. Teachers must
ensure learners get used to the formula sheet before the examination.
It seems that all candidates were able to finish in time. The weaker learners just left open questions after question.
Comments on individual questions
Question 1
Learners were very careless with their signs of the terms although this work is done on OL, learners still struggled with
it.
Question 2
(a) Was answered extremely well, but in part (b) candidates still did not follow the “hence” instruction:
candidates have to realize the relationship between x and . Many did not realize that y = -2 is not valid.

299
Question 3
Candidates struggle to apply the binomial expansion. Although the formula is provided, learners wasted a lot of time
calculating their terms instead of the term in x3 as required.
Question 4
The majority of candidates were able to find the critical solutions, but did not apply ∆>0 correctly.
When an inequality results into an answer between the two critical values the answer must be written not as two
separate inequalities.
Question 5
Fairly well answered.
(a) Although formulae are given, some candidates did not use them and careless expansion of brackets
resulted in wrong answers.
(b) Some learners did not realize to start with r = 3, then r = 4 etc, but overall well answered. Common
wrong answer seen due to wrong calculator usage was .
Question 6
(a) Poorly answered.
(b) Learners did interchange x and y, but did not know how to get rid of ln. A common answer was:
(c) Learners who did not know their shapes and used the table method struggled to sketch neat shapes
and the domain was not taken into consideration as well. The majority did not consider any asymptote lines.

300
Question 7
Poorly answered. Learners tried to use ∆ = 0, because the line is a tangent. They did not realize the curve is not a
parabola.
Question 8
(a) Poorly done. A common wrong approach was that learners took θr = 60.
(b) Well answered, except that the A = 225 was omitted.

301
Question 9
(a) Again the given identities on the sheet were not converted correctly. Learners should state clearly
the quoted answer.
(b) Learners did get sin x = -0.5 or sin x = 2, but did not apply the CAST-rule correctly or gave a negative
angle as an answer. Others gave more than two answers.
Question 10
(a) and (b) fairly well answered. Take note that the y– intercept with trigonometric graphs is not
necessarily the “c” value.
(c) Poorly answered. Equation should start with “y = ……”

302
Question 11
(a) Learners either misinterpreted “position vector” wrongly as unit vector or magnitude, otherwise it
was well answered. Those who did not realize that started by using .
(b) Well answered
Question 12
The whole question was extremely poorly answered.
(a) The relationship between r and h was problematic. Many calculated a volume instead of finding the
required expression.
(b) Again a volume quantity was calculated and they did not realize that the rate of change is a deritative

303
Question 13
Although f′(x) was given, learners differentiated to find the equation and used the equation of a straight line to find the
equation of the curve.
Question 14
(a) Well answered
(b Fairly well answered. Those who struggled did not know the volume expression for a solid rotated
about the x -axis. Others substituted the limits wrongly by substituting the larger value before the
smaller value.

304
8227
Paper 2
General Comments:
The paper was of a similar standard to that of last year. The marks ranged between 0 and 75.
It was clearly noticed that a significant number of the candidates who entered this syllabus without a solid algebra
foundation, struggled to cope with the majority of topics. Many candidates struggled with basic Ordinary Level
competencies, like the factorisation of trinomials and basic exponential laws.
It should be noted that the emphasis in AS is more on the method and the mathematical process than on the final
solution. Complete methods should be shown at all times.
Candidates must make sure to delete work that they do not want to be marked at the specific question. It was often
seen that a candidate approached a problem in two or three different ways, without deleting any of the work. It was also
often seen that questions were replaced on the additional pages, without deleting the work at the original question. In
these cases, the work at the original question was marked.
Candidates should be discouraged to work in pencil first and then to rewrite their work in pen. They often do not copy
the pencil properly and some accuracy is lost after the pencil is erased. In addition, it is more work and can result into
candidates not finishing the paper.
Centres must NOT provide any additional papers to candidates. Candidates do their work on these papers and then
just copy the answers, which results in the loss of all the marks for the specific question.
7
It is advised that answers should be left exact where possible. An answer of πð is exact and is preferred above the
6
decimal version of 3.66519… . Candidates should be encouraged only to round their final answer. This prevents the
loss of accuracy caused by premature rounding, especially in the Trigonometry questions.
It was noted that some candidates used calculators that can differentiate and integrate. Candidates who use these,
must be taught to show all the steps of their working. No marks are awarded if only answers are given.
Most candidates took care to show their working, which allows them to gain marks for correct methods even when
their answers are wrong. However, candidates should be encouraged to show complete methods, especially when
they are asked to prove a quoted answer. It should be emphasised that “SHOWN” is NOT an acceptable conclusion.
Candidates may NOT work backwards from the quoted answer.
Candidates should realise that questions are structured in an attempt to help them. The earlier parts of a question are
often used in subsequent parts. The word “HENCE” is an indication that the previous answer must be used in order to
solve the specific question. Candidates must be taught how to interpret questions of this nature. . It should be noted
that none of the questions in this paper read “…hence, or otherwise, ….” If the “…. or otherwise….” is seen it is an
indication that the previous answer should assist the candidate to solve this question easier, but there are other (more
complicated) methods that could be used.
More care should be taken in the classroom with the mathematical notations and the teaching of the relevant terminol-
ogy. Teachers and learners should not only concentrate on the final answer, but also on the accuracy of the mathemati-
cal writing. For example, it was often extremely difficult to decide whether a candidate meant sin2x or sin 2x.
Teachers should please not create their own abbreviations, similar to those used in social media language, that
candidates are allowed to use in class. They should be taught that they may not use these abbreviations in any formal
mathematics assessments.
Teachers should take more care in the teaching of degrees and radians in class. It is not advisable to teach
candidates to work only in degrees and then to convert the answers to radians. Candidates must learn how to change their
calculator settings from degrees into radians.
Candidates should be taught with formula sheets in class. They should know which formulas will appear on the formula
sheet and which formulas they need to study by heart. It was very often seen that formulas, derivatives and integrals
appearing on the formula sheet were quoted wrongly.
Candidates should take care NOT TO CHANGE the given variable, i.e., q on the question paper cannot be changed to
x or A. If the formula sheet is used, the variables used on the formula sheet must be replaced for the relevant unknown
of the specific question.

305
Many candidates were very careless with the rounding instructions throughout this paper. It is always advisable to write
the complete answer, before they attempt to round.
Most candidates finished the paper. It was clear that some centres did not complete the syllabus for theme 2.
Comments on specific questions:
Question 1
(a) Well answered. Sadly, it was often seen that candidates chose only one of the two correct solutions.
It was also occasionally seen that the final answer was wrongly written as an inequality.
Teachers should take more care to teach the candidates when to test their answers. Candidates should
realise, that it is only necessary to test their answers if the absolute value of not equal to a constant.
(b) Poorly answered. Most candidates ignored the instruction of “hence” and started the question from
the beginning again.
Sadly, it was also seen that those who opted to redo the question, lacked the basic knowledge of exponential
laws and very often wrongly expressed 3 × 5y as 15y.
Candidates should be taught the conversion from exponential form to log form. It is expected
that y = ax should be converted to x = logay in one step at this level.
Question 2
Well answered. Teachers should take more care when disguised quadratics are taught. ex = x cannot be used as a
suitable substitution, as x is already used in the question. Another variable like ex = k must be used.
1
A common mistake resulting from this was that x = 8 and x = , which then wrongly lead to conclusions that x = 8 ln 2
1 2
and x =
2 ln 2.
It was often seen that candidates wrongly used e2x = 8, instead of ex = 8. Many candidates also failed to make ex the
subject of the formula from 2ex – 1 = 0. They only reached the stage where 2ex = 1 and then wrongly introduced ln on
both sides. It could be done, but then the appropriate log-laws had to be used. ln 2 + x ln e = ln 1, which would lead to
x = – ln 2 as a solution. It is advisable, however, to make ex the subject of the formula first, before it is converted from
exponential form to log-form.
Another common error was that the solution of ex = 0.5 was often seen as impossible to solve. Candidates must be
taught that ex > 0, not ex > 1.
1
Many candidates correctly reached the stage where x = ln 8 and x = ln , but they failed to realise that 8 = 23
1 2
and = 2 – 1 and that they only had to use their basic log-laws to reach the expected solutions of x = 3 ln 2
2
and x = – ln 2.

306
Question 3
(a) This question was poorly answered. It was often seen that candidates lacked the basic knowledge
that y = 0 for the x-intercept and wrongly made x = 0 instead.
Once again, many candidates wrongly used the substitution of sin x = x, instead of sin x = k or any other
1
variable. This resulted in a common wrong answer of x = – , instead of
1 2
sin x = – .
2 1
Some of the candidates who correctly reached the stage of sin x = – , failed to realise that they only
2 1
needed to work in the second quadrant, as A is the first solution where sin x = – and x > 0. Very common
wrong 2
solutions were − sin−−11  − 1  in their calculators. Another common

, where the candidates wrongly used sin
 
 2
−1  1 
wrong answer seen was , resulting from the correct use of sin
sin −1   . The mistake these candidates
2
made, was that they did not realise that they actually needed to work in the third quadrant. Once again, this
showed the lack of the basic knowledge of the Ordinary level syllabus.
(b) Poorly answered. There was no reason to use double angles in this question. Many candidates used
double angles and wrongly thought that they differentiated already. They clearly did not realise that
the use of double angles is just an alternative way to write 2 sin2x, not a way to differentiate.
Candidates could easily have used the chain rule to differentiate 2sin2x = 2 (sin x)2. These candidates would
first differentiate the bracket to 2 × 2 (sin x)1 = 4 sin x and then differentiate the sin x to cos x, resulting in
the correct derivative 4 sin x cos x. Alternatively, the product rule could very successfully be applied. These
candidates just wrote sin2x = 2 sin x × sin x and then used the product rule to differentiate to 2 sin x cos x + 2
sin x cos x.
Many candidates only succeeded to differentiate 7 sin x successfully to 7 cos x in this question.
It should be noted that the substitution of the angle must be clearly shown. The answer was asked exact,
so candidates were not allowed to convert their answers to decimals.
(c) Extremely poorly answered. A very common misconception was to just change 2 sin2x to 1 – cos 2x
and only integrate these two terms, instead of the full given expression. The question was structured
in this way to assist the candidates to realise that they needed to change the given expression to
a form that they can integrate first, before they attempted to integrate. It was shocking to see how
many candidates did not succeed to make 2 sin2x the subject of the formula from the given formula in
the formula sheet. Once again, it was seen quite often that the variables were changed form x to A.
Candidates should be taught that they need to convert the variable on the formula sheet to the given
variable immediately.

307
It was also seen, once more, that candidates were under the impression that if they do the conversion to
double angles, that they integrated already. They did not realise that by using double angles, they only
wrote 2 sin2x in an alternative form, which still need to be integrated.
It should be emphasized, that the substitution of both boundaries must be seen. It was seen often that
candidates wrongly presumed that the substitution of a 0, resulted in 0.
Question 4
(a) Well answered. Most candidates successfully wrote down the two required equations and also
solved them successfully.
It needs mentioning, that f(– 3) = 0 was very often not seen. These candidates did not realise that the
remainder is 0 if x + 3 is a factor.
It was also occasionally seen that candidates used f(– 1) = 6, instead of g(– 1) = 6. Another mistake that
occurred regularly was f(3) = 0 and f(1) = 6.
Many candidates started off very well, but then made careless arithmetic mistakes and / or struggled to do
the very basic simultaneous equations.

308
(b) Moderately answered. A very common mistake was to calculate f(x) – g(x), instead of the required
g(x) – f(x). Many candidates also show a shocking lack in algebraic skills and could not expand the
negative into the brackets successfully.
Many candidates successfully found the expression 2x2 – 11, but sadly did not realise that it is a quadratic
expression, with the minimum value if x = 0.
Question 5
(a) Moderately answered. It should be noted that this is a “show” question. The answer is quoted, so
candidates may not skip ANY steps (or do two steps in one) in the establishment of the answer.
Many candidates did not realise that they needed to use the product rule to differentiate the given
1 1x
expression first. A very common mistake was 6 x × e 3 as the only term seen, instead of the requested
3
1 1x 1
x
6 x × e 3 + e 3 (6) when the product rule is used correctly.
3
It is advisable that the x is changed to a p once the derivative is equated to 20. It could also be done at a
later stage, as long as all the x-values are changed to p-values at the same stage.
1
x
Many candidates had difficulty making e3 the subject of the formula. Those who failed to divide the
20 10
equation by 2 first, also struggled to show properly how they simplify to . Many of those who
2p +6 p+3
1 1
x p 10
managed to make e 3
the subject of the formula successfully, failed to convert e 3 = correctly from
p+3
20
exponential form to log-form. Many tried unsuccessfully to convert into log-form.
2 6
(b) Extremely poorly answered. The minority of the candidates realised that they first needed an
equation equal to zero before they could attempt to test for a change of sign. The first step before
 10   10 
they can test for a change of sign had to be to write 3ln  0 or p − 3ln 
− p = =0.
 p+3  p+3
The few candidates who realised that they needed to do this step first, very often did not give the answers
to 3 significant figures or better. This resulted in a loss of marks. Answers were often not given correct to 3
significant figures.
(c) Moderately answered. Many candidates correctly calculated P2 = 2.02003 and P3 = 2.06745. It was
seen, however, that candidates were not familiar with the notation and omitted 2.02003 as a solution,
which resulted in the loss of all the marks.
It was noted that some teachers still do not teach the candidates the proper use of their calculator to do this
question. It is totally unnecessary to write down the substitution of each of the values into the equation for
every iteration. It is extremely time consuming and also leads to premature rounding errors.

309
In numerical solution questions, the answers to all the iterations should be written down to 5 decimal
places (required in this question). None may be left out or erased.
It should be noted that this iteration approached the given solution from two sides. Candidates must
continue to write down all the iterations, till it stabilises at the required accuracy (3 d.p. requested in
this question). In the case of this question 8 or 9 iterations was the minimum required. It was seen that
candidates did not realise that they did enough iterations to conclude with the solution and just abandoned
the question after 9 or 10 iterations.
Question 6
(a) Moderately answered. It was sadly seen quite often that candidates failed to calculate the value of
R = 3, only doing so when they realised that they needed it in part (b). It should be noted that 9 is
natural number and could not be left in root form.
2 5
A common mistake in the calculation of α was to use tan α = , instead of the correct tan α = . It was
5 2
shocking to see how many candidates did not adhere to the rounding instruction of 2 decimal places. It
should be emphasised again, that it is to the candidate’s advantage to always write the full calculator display
first, before rounding is attempted. The candidates who did this, could get the mark for the angle, as their
answer was seen more accurate that the requirement. It was occasionally seen that candidates did not read
the question properly and calculated their α-value in radians.
(b) (i) Moderately answered. Many candidates did not realise that they needed to work in two
quadrants. Care should be taken when candidates are taught how to deal with compound
angles. They should realise that they could not just subtract the final answer from the solution
of the first quadrant from 180° to find the solution to the angle in the second quadrant.
It was also often seen that candidates used the general solution in this question and did not realise that
some of their solutions are outside the given domain. This resulted in the loss of an accuracy mark.
(ii) Extremely poorly answered. The minority of the candidates realised that it was tested in this
question that they know that the minimum value of sin (θ + 48.19°) = – 1 and that the maximum
value of sin (θ + 48.19°) = 1.

310
Question 7
(a) Poorly answered. Many candidates did not seem to be familiar with the concept of double angles.
Common wrong notation seen was 1 2 x = 2 x . It seemed as if they have the misconception that
sin sin
cosec 2x means cosec times 2x. Many candidates did not know the basic identities that they
needed to study in order to convert cosec 2x to sin 2x and cot 2x to tan 2x. The variables were also
very often changed from x to A, which caused candidates to lose all their marks in the question.
It is advisable that candidates should be taught to convert all the unknowns to sin x and
cos x only when they attempt to simplify trigonometry identities. The candidates who used the conversion
1 , generally struggled to prove the identity successfully.
cot 2 x =
tan 2 x
(b) Extremely poorly answered. Very few candidates realised that part (a) of this question should have
helped them to simplify the given expression to a single term that could be integrated. The angle of
cosec 4x + 4 cot 4x was double of those given in part (a), with the result that it could be replaced
by cot 2x from the identity that was proven already.
Many candidates did not realise that they had to change the given expression to a single term first and
attempted to integrate the terms separately. Teachers should take care to explain to candidates that there is
not product, quotient or chain rule that they can use in integration.

311
Question 8
Moderately answered. It was sadly seen that many candidates struggled to answer this question successfully, though
a very similar question was asked in the final examination of 2021.
Many candidates did not realise that the expression will integrate to ln(3x – 5). More care should be taken in the
teaching of integration in theme 2 to make candidates aware when the expression integrates to a ln and when not.
It should be noted that the use of brackets in this question was of extreme importance. It was often wrongly seen that
ln 3(2a) – 5 – (ln 3a – 5) was simplified to ln 6a – ln 3a.
The use of log-laws was also poorly executed. It was too often seen that ln(6a – 5) – ln(3a – 5) is wrongly written as
ln(6a − 5)  6a − 5 
instead of the correct ln  .
ln(3a − 5)  3a − 5 
As in trigonometry, many candidates did not understand the concept of ln. They treated it as a variable that can be
divided by. This resulted in another common mistake where
ln(6a – 5) – ln(3a – 5) = ln 13 wrongly simplified to 6a – 5 – 3a + 5 = 13 . Many candidates did not realise that ln is
4 4
just a log with a different base and struggle to apply their basic knowledge of the Ordinary level syllabus correctly.

312
Question 9
(a) Poorly answered. Candidates did not understand the basic concept of the domain of logarithms.
According to the definition, log A is only defined if A > 0. This is the concept that was tested in this
question. Many candidates wrongly concluded that a = 4, referring to the first integer value in the
given domain. x = 3 is the equation of the asymptote of the graph, hence the a value that was required.
(b) (i) Extremely poorly answered. Once again, candidates failed to convert from log-form to
exponential form successfully. As stated before, candidates must be taught that if logab = d,
the ad = b . A common wrong answer seen was 2x – 3, from the misconception that log2x can be
replaced by 2x in the inverse.
It should be noted that that the y in the final answer must be replaced by f –1(x) to score full marks.
(ii) Poorly answered. The minority of the candidates realised that by taking the inverse, the x- and
y-values are interchanged, i.e., the domain and range are interchanged.
Some candidates realised this, but wrongly wrote the range as x > a, instead of
y > a. It should be noted that the candidates could use any wrong value they found in part (a) in this
question correctly and still score the mark.
(c) It seems that the notation of compound functions still presented some candidates with difficulty,
although it is part of the Ordinary Level syllabus. Some candidates still thought that they needed to
multiply the two functions with each other, instead of applying the principal of compound functions.
(i) Poorly answered. Many candidates attempted to find the inverse of gf. They misunderstood
the notation that the solution of f – 1(3) must be substituted into g(x).
(ii) Moderately answered. Most candidates could reach the stage where they evaluated
fg(1) = log2(– 2), but struggled to explain why it cannot be evaluated. The easiest reason
would be to just refer to the domain of f(x) found in part (a). Candidates should please not use
any made up abbreviations that they use in school that is not commonly known. Candidates
needs to realise that they can only write down the word undefined or non-real, instead of trying
to write a sentence in which the mathematical meaning is not clear. It should be noted that
log2(– 2) is an expression and the reason could not refer to 2y > 0.
Maths error or no answer or not applicable are not accepted explanations.
Another common mistake was to state that logs cannot be negative. Logs of any fractions are negative.
Log of a negative value cannot be evaluated and that is a valid reason.
As candidates needs to explain the significance of their answer, they could not just write log2(3 – 2 – 3)
without any simplification and then conclude with their reason.

313
Question 10
(a) Moderately answered. There was no need to convert the double angles before they could be
differentiated. Once again, the conversion was often confused with differentiation.
Sadly, it was a common occurrence that the q was replaced by a x or A, resulting in the loss of all the marks
as the given variable was changed. All the derivatives were on the formula sheet and could be used directly.
Teachers should take more care in the way the candidates display their work. 5 cos θ was often
differentiated and wrongly written down as 5 – sinθ, rather than 5(– sin θ) or – 5 sin θ.
It was occasionally seen that candidates differentiated correctly, but made the mistake of
changing signs if they substitute it into the formula for dy . Another common mistake was to simplify
dx
. These candidates did not realise that there are two
terms in the denominator and therefore, the negative signs cannot be cancelled out.
(b) Poorly answered. Very few candidates knew how to deal with the instruction that the tangent is
parallel to the y-axis. They did not realise that any line parallel to the y-axis does not have a
x-change. This means that the denominator of the derivative is equal to zero.

314
PHYSICS
8225
Paper 1
1 A 11 A 21 C 31 C
2 D 12 C 22 C 32 D
3 C 13 D 23 D 33 B
4 A 14 B 24 A 34 D
5 B 15 D 25 B 35 A
6 B 16 A 26 B 36 D
7 C 17 C 27 C 37 B
8 C 18 D 28 B 38 C
9 A 19 B 29 C 39 C
10 D 20 C 30 A 40 A

315
8225
Paper 2
Key messages
• Candidates should be encouraged to read the command words used in each question carefully. For example,
“state and explain” indicates that an explanation is required as part of the answer. In this case it is essential that
candidates avoid giving only a statement without any supporting explanation.
• Candidates should be encouraged to learn precisely certain definitions, laws and principles. The omission of a
single key word can lead to marks not being awarded if it is an important part of a definition.
• Candidates should avoid prematurely rounding interim answers within a calculation as this can lead to the final
answer given on the answer line being incorrect.
• Candidates should use the number of significant figures in the question data as a guide to the number of significant
figures required in the final answer. In the vast majority of cases a minimum of two significant figures is appropriate
for the final answer.
• It is important that candidates present the steps in their calculations in a clear and logical way. They should
explicitly state the subject of any equation. If an equation is rearranged, the new subject should also be stated. This
will allow any correct working to be credited even when the final answer is incorrect.
• Many questions at AS Level require candidates to perform unit conversions, for example from mm2 to m2 or from
g to kg. Errors due to incorrect unit conversions can add up over a number of different question parts and make
a significant difference to the final mark for the paper. Candidates should continually practise converting between
units when performing calculations.
• In ‘show that’ questions, all the steps in the solution must be shown. Full credit cannot be awarded if key steps,
such as the rearrangement of an equation, are not shown.
• Candidates should be encouraged to write their responses only in the answer spaces provided. If part of a response
is unavoidably written elsewhere in the answer booklet, it should be clearly labelled so that the Examiner knows
which question it belongs to.
• Many candidates answered in pencil first and had to rewrite everything. This is very wasteful of valuable time.
Many candidates did not have enough time to rewrite answers and were not awarded any marks for answers written
in pencil. Many candidates also did not have enough time to erase the pencil answers, which made it very difficult
to read and could result in marks being lost.
• Candidates should be advised to never round given numerical values.
• It is important that candidates practice answering questions that are of the same standard as those in the examination.
Working through past papers is a way of achieving this.
GENERAL COMMENTS
A wide range of marks were awarded on this paper. There were some question parts that were deliberately very
challenging in order to discriminate between stronger candidates. Other question parts were very straightforward to
ensure that weaker candidates had opportunities to score marks.
There was no evidence of well-prepared candidates lacking time to complete the question paper.
Many candidates had difficulty in calculating numerical values. Frequently, the method and substitution were correct but
the final answer demonstrated a lack of calculator skills. Candidates should be encouraged to consider whether any
answer is physically reasonable, rather than just accepting a calculator answer as being correct.

Question 1
(a) Most candidates found this part of the question to be straightforward. Weaker candidates wrongly
indicated that C for Coulomb is the base unit of electric charge.
The most common mistake was to identify the coulomb as a base unit.

316
Mark scheme / expected answers
K
acceleration
force / weight / tension
A.s
(b) (i) The vast majority of responses were correct.
Weaker candidates described the magnitude as mass.

Scalar: A quantity which has magnitude and no direction
Vector: A quantity which has both magnitude and direction
(b) (ii) This question was only accessible to the better candidate.
The majority of candidates could not add the given vectors head to tail to do the calculation using the first
method shown in the mark scheme below. The second method expected candidates to use resolution
of vectors, were the horizontal and vertical components are used to construct 2 equations that need to
be solved simultaneously. This proved to be challenging which underlines the fact that candidates that
also take mathematics have an advantage. Most candidates wrongly accepted that a simple right angled
triangle can be used.
(b) Many candidates could recall 2 of the 3 formulae (ρ = m/V and w = mg) that had to be used. The
majority of the candidates could not calculate the volume of the cylinder correctly as they were unable
to do the conversions correctly and many candidates just multiplied the diameter with the height. A
common error was to directly substitute the value of the volume without showing how that value had
been calculated. Another common mistake was to give the mass as the answer for the weight. Due
to premature rounding candidates did not end with the correct answer.

317
Question 2
(a) The appropriate symbol equation was usually given. Candidates however did not show all the steps.
Candidates should be encouraged to show all the steps in their calculations, especially when the
question uses the command word ‘show’. A minority of candidates did not attempt a response to this
part of the question.
(b) Candidates needed to recognise that the final velocity of the ball has the opposite sign to the initial
velocity of the ball. These opposite signs had to be considered when determining the change in
momentum of the ball.
The direction that was asked must be related to the scenario given. Just a minus or plus sign is not
enough.
(c) Stronger candidates were able to give a clear and succinct explanation in a few lines of writing.
Some candidates gave inappropriate responses that included either the instant when the ball hit the floor or
the period when it was moving with constant (terminal) velocity. This was unnecessary because the question
instructed the candidates to consider only the time interval when the ball was moving downwards through air.
Most candidates realized that thermal energy is also involved. However, candidates also needed to explicitly
explain the energy conversion in the ball. Some candidates only implied the energy conversion instead of
giving an explicit explanation.

gravitational potential E  Kinetic E + heat
ANY TWO FROM:
- (loss in P.E) due to decrease in height
- (gain in K.E) due to increase in velocity
- increase in Thermal energy / heat due to work against friction or air resistance
Question 3
(a) 1.7.1 of the syllabus clearly states the following - “describe an experiment to determine the Young
modulus of a metal in the form of a wire”.
Candidates should be encouraged to study the experiments they need to be able to describe as this is an
easy way to score marks. When describing an experiment it can only done with a well labelled diagram.

318
(b) (i) Most answers were correct, but sometimes candidates made a power-of-ten error by not
converting the unit of the cross-sectional area from mm2 to m2.
(b) (ii) Power-of-ten errors caused by wrongly interpreting the prefixes of the units given was a
common mistake.
(c) The correct formula was given, but mistakes were made with conversions.
A common mistake was that 16.0 cm and 80 N was substituted where the question clearly asks for the
strain energy stored for an extension of 12.0 cm.

319
Question 4
(a) The vast majority of answers were correct.
The weaker candidates referred to constructive and destructive interference and used the term amplitude
instead of displacement.

When two or more waves meet / overlap / interact / superpose
resultant displacement
is the sum of the individual (displacement)
(b) (i) Power-of-ten errors caused by wrongly interpreting the prefixes of the units given was a
common mistake.
(b) (ii) This question was usually answered correctly.

Separation: increased
Brightness: Less bright
(c) Many candidates could not calculate the area. A common mistake was that the diameter was used
instead of the radius. The weaker candidate could not recall the formula and just used the power and
divided it by the diameter
Question 5
It is evident that many centers did not do this topic in detail.
(a) The vast majority of answers were correct.

The weaker candidates used words like cell / object / circuit / loop / conductor / component instead of
junction or node.
The sum of the currents entering a junction is equal to the sum of current leaving it
(b) (i) This question was usually answered correctly.

The minority of candidates added an extra lightbulb or showed a short circuit by adding extra lines.
(b) (ii) This question was challenging to candidates.

Again the minority of candidates added an extra lightbulb or showed a short circuit by adding extra lines.

320
(c) (i) Most candidates recalled the wrong formula for electric power dissipated in the battery. It was
evident that candidates did not understand the term dissipated. Only one formula is correct here.

P = I2R = (3)2 x 1.5 = 13.5 (W)
(c) (ii) This question was only well answered by the stronger candidates. Only the stronger candidates
could obtain the correct electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cell that was now connected into the
circuit. A common mistake was to assume that the potential difference given is the potential
difference across the light bulbs. Many candidates appeared to be unfamiliar with the principle
that the internal resistance of the battery causes a voltage drop.
(c) (iii) There seemed to be a large number of candidates who were unaware that the required charge
of an electron was available on the formula page.
Question 6
Many candidates stated that β – particles emit electrons, which shows that the language is not understood.
fast moving electrons / positrons
(b) (i) This question was very well answered.

a = 10
b=5
(b) (ii) This question was very well answered. The minority of candidates could not spell neutrino.

neutrino
(b) (iii) A large proportion of the weaker candidates needed to have a better knowledge of the quark
changes that occur during beta decay in order to successfully answer this part of the question.

up quark changes to a down quark
(c) A common mistake was that candidates calculated the force of the electron in the electric field and
gave this as the answer for acceleration. Another common mistake was that candidates used the
mass of the proton when calculating the acceleration of the electron.

321
8225
Paper 3
GENERAL COMMENTS
While the overall standard of the NSSCAS 8225 Physics Paper 3 for 2022 was similar to that of the first cohort of 2021,
the candidates’ performance, on average, appeared to be to better, compared to the 2021 cohort. This is impressive and
centres are commended for the enormous efforts that they have put in to prepare the candidates. In particular, there is
an improvement in the manner in which candidates’ applied the Mathematical requirements as specified in the NSSCAS
Physics syllabus (NSSCAS Physics syllabus, page 5). Similarly, there is also an improvement in the preparation of
candidates regarding ANNEXE A: Assessment criteria for Paper 3 (Advanced Practical Skills) as stipulated on page 31
to page 39 of the 8225 Physics syllabus. It was evident from the responses of the candidates that, compared to their
2021 counterparts, there is an improvement in their exposure to advanced practical skills (manipulation, measurement
and observations; presentation of data and observation; analysis, conclusion and evaluation).
The general standard of the work done by the candidates was good, and there were many excellent scripts. Candidates
did not seem to be short of time and both questions were attempted by most candidates. Candidates demonstrated good
skills in the generation and handling of data but could improve by giving more thought to the analysis and evaluation of
experiments.
The Supervisor’s Reports from many centres included useful details about difficulties encountered in the experiments
and any help given to candidates. This information is useful to the Examiners who can take it into account when
marking candidates’ work. When this information is provided, candidates who have recorded readings that are outside
of the expected range can still be given credit where appropriate.
Key messages
• Candidates need to remember to state their recorded measurements to the precision of their measuring instruments.
For instance, a metre rule (with the precision of 1 mm) is used for measuring the length L in 1 (a) and (c) and the
height H1 and H2 in 2 (a) (i), (ii) and (c). These need to be recorded to the nearest 1 mm (0.1 cm; 0.001 m).
Similarly, a stopwatch is used for measuring the time in 1 (b) and (c) and the period T of the oscillations in 2 (b) and
(c). The time measurements taken should be recorded to the nearest 0.1 s or 0.01 s.
• Candidates should then be encouraged to undertake repeated readings (at least two) especially if a time is asked
for example time t in 1 (b) and (c) and period T in 2 (b) and (c). Each raw reading should have the same degree
of precision (number of decimal places). In the event of determining the period of an oscillation such as in 2 (b)
and (c), candidates should measure the time for several oscillations (ideally in the range of 5 to 20 oscillations and
repeat this measurement.
• In answering Question 2, candidates should be reminded that limitations and suggestions for improvement must
be focused on the experiment. General points such as ‘avoid parallax error’ or ‘use more precise measuring
instruments’ or ‘use better apparatus’ or ‘use a camera / video / electronic method’ or ‘use a fiducial marker’ will
not gain credit without further detail. As candidates take measurements, they should ask themselves ‘why is this
measurement difficult to take?’ and then ‘is there a better method I could use to take this measurement accurately?’
1 (a-b) Many candidates recorded the value of L that was in the expected range.
Answers were generally provided to the correct precision (nearest mm) e.g. 70.0 (cm). Candidates who
were not awarded credit often gave their answers (or raw data seen) to the nearest cm. Candidates need
to remember to state their recorded measurements to the precision of their measuring instruments, in this
case it is expected that 70 cm be recorded as 70.0 cm (to the nearest mm).
A good proportion of candidates were able to determine an accurate value for the time t by taking repeated
readings and determining the average. Candidates who took only a single reading of time could not be
awarded credit.
(c) M1 Table of results [1 mark]

An adequate number of candidates were awarded credit for the column headings, stating the quantity and
correct unit. One common error was the stating of the unit for t2 as s instead of s2. Another common error
was in omitting either the unit or the separating mark for one or more of the columns. The heading and the
unit should be separated by a solidus or by using brackets around the unit.

322
M2 Successful collection of data and observations [4 marks]
Most candidates were able to collect six sets of values of L and t without assistance from the Supervisor. A
minority of candidates collected more results. A few candidates collected five or fewer. In a few cases the
trend was incorrect.
M3 Range and distribution of readings [1 mark]

It was expected that candidates adjust P so that the range, as specified in the question, is 40.0 cm ≤ L ≤ 120.0
cm. A few candidates had values for L which was less than 40.0 cm or more than 120.0 cm. Candidates are
encouraged to use the full limit possible with the apparatus provided and to conform to any additional guidance
provided, where appropriate.
M4 Consistency of presentation of raw readings [2 marks]

Most candidates correctly recorded their raw values for L to the nearest 0.1 cm and t to the nearest 0.1s or
0.01s. A small number of candidates chose to record all L values to the same number of significant figures
and so incorrectly omitted the decimal place to account for the change from two digits to three digit L values
e.g. recording L values as 100cm, 110cm, 120 cm to the nearest cm. Since this is measured data, it was then
not consistent with the precision of the metre rule. Similarly, they also recorded smaller t values to 3 decimal
places which was not consistent with the precision of the stopwatch.
M5 Consistency of presentation of processed / calculated data [1 mark]

A fair share of candidates recorded their calculated values for t2 to the correct number of significant figures,
i.e. to the same number of significant figures as (or one more than) the number of significant figures in the raw
values of t. Some candidates either stated too many or too few significant figures, or aimed to be consistent
in their use of decimal places at the expense of significant figures. This often increased the amount of scatter
in the results plotted on the grid.
M6 Calculations of other quantities from raw data [1 mark]

Most calculations of were correct. A small number of candidates made rounding errors.
(d) (i) M1 Graph layout [1 mark]

The best graphs had scales chosen to give simple intervals (using ratios of 1, 2 or 5 to a 2 cm square) as
well as making good use of the available grid area, and each axis was labelled with the plotted quantity.
Candidates could improve by ensuring scales (in either the x or y direction) are chosen to spread out
plotted points to occupy the whole of the graph grid, rather than points being squashed into a small part
of the grid. Compressed scales (where the plotted points occupy less than 5 1 large squares in the y or
5
less than four large squares in the x direction) were often seen and also did not gain credit. This may
have arisen because of the candidate’s perceived need to start the graph at the true origin. Candidates
are encouraged to use the false origin where appropriate. A few weaker candidates set the minimum
and maximum reading in the table to be the minimum and maximum of the graph grid, leading to time-
consuming work plotting and using the scales. Awkward scales (e.g. based on 3 or 12) cannot be
awarded credit and it was very common for candidates using such scales to make further mistakes with
subsequent read-offs. Some candidates used irregular / non-linear / random scales. These could not be
given credit, and often the data could not be awarded credit for quality either because the error was often
in the region of the plotted points. Candidates should be encouraged to set up their graphs to make them
easy to work with in later parts of the question i.e. gradients and y-intercepts.
M2 Graph plotting of points [1 mark]

Plotting of points small crosses generally produce the clearest plotted points as long as the pencil is sharp.
The use of large dots (with diameter greater than 1 mm) is not awarded credit because the accuracy of
their position cannot be judged. A significant number of candidates plotted points carefully using a sharp
pencil. Candidates need to draw points with a diameter equal to or less than half a small square (1 mm).
They can improve by carefully checking that points are plotted in the correct position. If a point seems
anomalous, candidates should be encouraged to check the plotting and to repeat the measurement if
necessary. If such a point is ignored in assessing the line of best fit, the anomalous point should be
labelled clearly, e.g. by circling the point. There is no credit specifically for identifying an anomalous point,
so candidates should be reminded that they do not need to identify an anomalous point if they do not think
they have one. Any data recorded in the table must be plotted on the graph.
M3 Graph quality [1 mark]

Quality The quality of the candidates’ data was judged by the scatter of points about a straight-line
trend. In the some cases this was good and so credit was awarded. Some candidates lost marks
because of a negative trend. A mark was awarded for a positive trend of points.

323
(ii) Good candidates drew suitable lines of best fit which had a balanced distribution of points
either side along the entire length. In some cases, a stray point was apparently ignored without
explanation. If such a point is to be ignored in assessing the line of best fit, the anomalous point
should be labelled clearly (e.g. by circling the point). Candidates should not ignore more than
one point in this way. Some candidates were not awarded credit for their line because of using
a short ruler and having to extend their line to cover the range of their plotted points. Kinks,
hairy, feathery, breaks and joins in the line are often apparent in such cases and are penalised.
Some candidates joined the first and last points on the graph or any three points on a straight
line regardless of the distribution of the other points. Others joined the plotted points from point
to point with a ruler, forming zig-zag patterns. There should always be a balanced distribution of
points either side of the line along the entire length. Candidates should be encouraged to draw
the line according to the positions of the plotted points, and not to force the line through the origin.
(iii) Some candidates used a suitably large triangle to calculate the gradient, gaining credit for correct
read-offs, and substituted into ∆y / ∆x. Candidates need to check that the triangle for calculating
the gradient is large enough (the hypotenuse should be greater than half the length of the line
drawn). Other candidates needed to check that the read-offs used were within half a small
square (1mm) of the line of best fit and show clearly the substitution into ∆y ∆x (not ∆x ∆y ). The
equation, if used, m(x – x1) = (y – y1) should be shown with substitution of read-offs. There
were many instances of incorrect read-offs, and many candidates would benefit from double-
checking their read-offs. Instead of read-offs, some candidates used table points that were
not on their line and this was not credited. Many candidates were able to correctly read off the
y-intercept at x = 0 directly from the graph, but a large number of candidates incorrectly read off
the y-intercept when there was a false origin where x was not starting at 0. Some candidates
correctly substituted a read-off into y = mx + c to determine the y-intercept. Others needed to
check that the point chosen (if it was from the table) was on the line of best fit drawn.
(e) This question was poorly answered. Many candidates were able to recognize that C = y – intercept.
However, a large proportion of candidates falsely assumed that the question was the same as some
in previous papers where both constants are equal to the gradient and y-intercept respectively and
consequently could not be awarded credit. It was expected that candidates equate gradient to 1 2a
(gradient = 1 a) and therefore a = gradient x 2. Some candidates presented their answer to only one
2
significant figure and were not awarded credit. Most candidates who scored 1 out of 2 marks scored
the mark for both correct units.

324
Answers to Question 1

1 (a-b) Value of L in the range 68.0 cm to 72.0 cm (to the nearest mm). 1
Evidence of repeated measurements of t to determine average t. 1
1 (c) M1 Table of results 1
Column headings for L, t and t2
Each column heading must contain a quantity and a unit.
The presentation of quantity and unit must conform to accepted scientific convention,
e.g. L / cm; t / s; t2 / s2
M2 Successful collection of data and observations 4
Six sets of readings of L and t with correct trend and without help from supervisor
scores 4 marks, five sets scores 3 marks, four sets scores 2 mark, three sets scores
1 mark, less than three sets score no mark.
M3 Range and distribution of values 1
All 6 values of L in the range 40.0 cm ≤ L ≤ 120.0 cm.

Lmax - Lmin ≥ 50 cm
M4 Consistency of presentation of raw readings 2
Consistency:
All values of raw L must be given to the nearest mm
All values of raw t must be given to nearest 0.1 s or 0.01s.

M5 Consistency of presentation of processed / calculated data 1
Significant figures: significant figures for every value of t2 same as, or one greater
than, the s.f. of t as recorded in table.
M6 Calculations of other quantities from raw data 1

values of t2 calculated correctly.

(d) (i) Graph layout (axes): 1
sensible scales must be used, no awkward scales (e.g. 3:10)
scales must be chosen so that the plotted points occupy at least half the graph grid in
both x and y directions
scales must be labelled with the quantity which is being plotted
scale markings should be no more than 1 large squares (2 cm) apart
Graph plotting of points: 1

all observations must be plotted on the grid.
diameter of plotted points must be half a small square (no blobs)
plots must be accurate to within half a small square in both x and y directions
Graph quality: 1
all points in the table must be plotted (at least 5) for this mark to be awarded.
Trend of points must be positive.
(d) (ii) Graph trend line (line of best fit): 1

judged by balance of all points on the grid (at least 5) about the candidate’s line.
There must be an even distribution of points either side of the line along the full length
one anomalous point is allowed only if clearly indicated (i.e. circled or labelled) by the
candidate
lines must not be kinked or thicker than half a small square

325
(d) (iii) Interpretation of graph – determination of gradient: 1
the hypotenuse of the triangle used must be greater than half the length of the drawn
line
method of calculation must be correct
both read-offs must be accurate to half a small square in both the x and y directions
Interpretation of graph – determination of y-intercept: 1
Either
correct read-off from a point on the line substituted into
y = mx + c or an equivalent expression
e.g. y - y1 = m (x - x1), with read-off accurate to half a s square in both x and y directions
Or
intercept read directly from the graph, with read-off at t2 = zero, accurate to half a small
square in y direction
(e) Drawing conclusions – determining values of constants: 1
a equal to candidate’s gradient × 2, and C equal to candidate’s intercept, and values
are not written as fractions.
Drawing conclusions – determining units of constants: 1
unit for a is correct and consistent with value e.g. cms-2
unit for C is correct e.g. m
20

326
2 (a)(i-ii) The ruler provided to make the measurements had a precision of 1mm. Many candidates were
able to accurately measure and record H1, H2 and (H1 - H2) to the nearest mm. To improve, some
candidates need to record values to the nearest mm (e.g. 400 mm; 40.0 cm, 0.400 m) rather than
to the nearest cm and other candidates need to resist the temptation to add extra zeros to their
readings (e.g. recording 40.0 cm incorrectly as 40.00 cm).
(iii) A satisfactory number of candidates are familiar with the equation for calculating percentage
uncertainty and gave an uncertainty in (H1 - H2) in the range that is deemed reasonable for this
experiment. Some candidates made too small an estimate of the absolute uncertainty in the
value of (H1 - H2) by choosing to use the smallest division on the ruler, typically 1 mm, or too
large an estimate, typically 2.0 cm. Some candidates repeated their readings and correctly
gave the uncertainty in ( ) as half the range, while other candidates did not halve the range
when using this method. Some candidates made mistakes with conversions for example
dividing the absolute uncertainty which is in mm by measured values which are in cm, this
often led to ‘power of ten’ errors.
(iv) Many candidates correctly calculated q to the appropriate number of significant figures,
correctly rounded. Some candidates truncated their answers instead.
(v) Candidates found it difficult to justify the number of significant figures they had given for the value
of q with reference to the number of significant figures used in their m, g or (H1 - H2).
(b) Most candidates stated values of T with the correct precision and showed evidence of repeats of more
than one set of oscillations. Many candidates did not repeat sets of oscillations. Some candidates
were not awarded credit because they did not state the number of oscillations they were timing and
provided a final answer outside the permissible range.
Candidates should be encouraged to look back at their answers and ask themselves whether they are
realistic: a time of 6 s for one period is very long, for example. Some candidates provided a single value
of T without any working.
(c) Most candidates recorded second values of H1, H2 and (H1 - H2), q and T which were comparable to
the values taken in 2 (a).
(d) (i) Most candidates were able to calculate k for the two sets of data, showing their working clearly.
A minority of candidates incorrectly rearranged the equation algebraically or inadvertently
substituted the wrong values. Other candidates chose to round, giving their final answer to only
one significant figure.
(ii) The stronger candidates calculated the percentage difference between their two values of k,
and then tested it against a specified numerical percentage uncertainty as a criterion, commonly
using 10%, 20%. Some candidates omitted a criterion, or gave a general statement such as ‘this
is valid because the values are close to each other’ or ‘strongly supported’ without any working,
which could not be accepted. Occasionally candidates gave a contradictory statement such as
‘my results do not support this relationship as my % difference is less than 10%’.
(e) For both the limitations and improvements, candidates are advised, where appropriate, to state
both the quantity being measured, example time t, height H1, H2, and the reason for any uncertainty.
Many candidates gave partial statements in one or more of their responses and so were unable to
gain credit for these.
A good answer, for example, would be ‘there is an uncertainty in t because it is difficult to start the stop
watch and release the mass at the same time’: a difficulty is identified and the candidate specifies which
measurement is affected.
For the limitations, the majority of candidates recognised that calculating two values of k is insufficient to draw
a valid conclusion. Some candidates incorrectly linked the lack of k values to accuracy whereas others gave
insufficient statements such as ‘two k values are not enough’. Careful use of language was needed here as
some candidates stated two readings were not enough to ‘conclude the experiment’ (which means in effect, to
end the experiment) instead of meaning to reach a conclusion or candidates referred to taking results rather
than drawing a conclusion.
A significant number of candidates recognised that it was difficult to measure T because the mass was
oscillating both vertically and horizontally (was not oscillating in one plane). There were many good answers
referring to the difficulties in measuring the heights H1 and H2. Very few candidates gave an acceptable
reason for uncertainty in H1 and H2 due to the zero error of the metre rule on the bench.

327
Many candidates gave general statements such as ‘the ruler does not start at zero’. For improvements, many
candidates correctly suggested taking more readings and plotting a graph. Other good answers include using
a video which was well explained in terms of measuring time e.g. a stopwatch in view of the camera and film
played back or count frames.
Credit is not given for suggested improvements that could be carried out in the original experiment, such as
‘repeat measurements’, ‘do more readings to get an average value’, ‘zero the stop watch before you take the
next reading of T’. Unrealistic solutions were also not given credit, e.g. ‘robotic arm’ or ‘mechanical hand’ to
hold and release the wooden block / mass hanger or other electronic methods without sufficient details.
Vague or generic answers did not gain credit such as ‘too few readings’ (without stating a consequence). The
key to this section is for candidates to identify genuine problems associated with setting up this experiment to
obtain specific readings. Candidates are then encouraged to suggest practical solutions that either improve
technique or give more reliable or accurate data. Clarity of thought and expression separated stronger
candidates from those less prepared to deal with practical situations. Candidates should be encouraged
to write four different limitations (relating to the different measurements undertaken or approaching them
chronologically) stating how these difficulties impact on the experiment. Candidates should then try to think of
associated solutions that address each of these limitations.
Answers to Question 2
2 (a) (i) Successful collection of data and observations 1
H1 to the nearest mm
2 (a) (ii) Successful collection of data and observations 1
H2 and (H1 – H2) to the nearest mm

2 (a) (iii) Estimating uncertainties: 1
Percentage uncertainty in (H1 – H2) = 2 mm – 10 mm

Correct method to determime percentage uncertainty, e.g.
value of uncertainty
×100
their actual value
OR
If repeated readings have been done, then the uncertainty can be half the range (but not
zero if the values are equal) if the working is clearly shown.
2 (a) (iv) Using the correct number of significant figures in calculated quantities: 1
Answer and appropriate number of significant figures.
2 (a) (v) Justifying the correct number of significant figures in calculated quantities: 1
Justification for s.f. in 2 (a) (iv) linked to s.f. m, g and (H1 – H2).
2 (b) Successful collection of data: 1
Evidence of repeated timings for a number of oscillations.
Quality of data: 1
Value of T in the appropriate range such as (0.60 s – 2.00) or similar.

328
2 (c) Successful collection of data: 1
measurement of 2nd raw H1 (to the nearest mm) and comparable to or approximately
equal to H1 in 2 (a) (i)
AND
measurement of 2nd H2 (to the nearest mm) and comparable to or greater than H2 in
2 (a) (ii) AND
calculation of (H1 – H2) comparable to or less than (H1 – H2) in 2 (a) (ii)
Calculation of q 1
Quality of data: 1
Determination of T
2 (d) (i) Drawing conclusions – determining values of constants; 1
Two values of k calculated correctly.
2 (d) (ii) Drawing conclusions – determining values of constants; considering whether experimental 1
data supports a given hypothesis, and making predictions:
Valid comment consistent with calculated values of k, testing against a criterion
specified by the candidate.
Example:
If the % difference in k values is greater than 10%, the results do not support the
suggested relationship. Since the % difference between k values is 17%, the results do
not support the suggested relationship.
OR
If the % difference in k values is greater than 20%, the results do not support the
suggested relationship. Since the % difference between k values is 17%, the results
support the suggested relationship.

329
2 (e) (i) Identifying limitations: 4
A two readings or two k values are not enough to draw a valid conclusion
B parallax error in measuring H1 and H2 / in taking reading from the metre rule
C difficult to measure height due to ruler does not start at zero at bench / rubber band
is curved at the bottom/ rubber bands are of different lengths when placed together on
the retort stand.
D Bands are not necessarily vertical (so difficult to measure height)
E difficult to measure T due to difficulty to determine one complete oscillation
F false height due to how the bands are aligned.
G difficult to release pendulum / mass and start stop watch at the same time
H ruler had a zero error on the bench
2 (e) (ii) Suggesting improvements: 4
(ideally, each of the suggestions in this part should match the limitations identified in (i))
A Take many sets of readings and plot a (straight line) graph (of the results) or compare
k values
B get eye level perpendicular to protractor /
C use a clamped metre ruler and take reading at top and bottom, then subtract to get
H1 and H2
D use a material which can be more vertial such as a string instead of rubber bands /
place vertical ruler next to band.
E use motion sensor placed under masses / detailed use of electronic method of
determining time / period
F measure H using different sides of the band and calculate average
G Use of video camera if explained in terms of measuring time, e.g. stopwatch in view
of the camera and film played back or count frames.
H measure zero error and subtract from the ruler reading
20
In order to prepare learners well for the 8225 Physics Advanced Practical Skills Paper 3, it is important to bring to the
attention of the learners that ANNEXE A: Assessment criteria for Paper 3 (Advance Practical Skills) which is outlined in
the NSSCAS 8225 Physics syllabus from page 31 to page 39 plays a pivotal role in this regard. This is the annexe in
which the assessment skills are specified as to which skills the paper advanced practical skills focus on (i.e. manipulation,
measurement and observation; presentation of data and observations; analysis, conclusion and evaluation). This is the
case in the NSSCAS Physics course as well as the two other cognate NSSCAS subjects (i.e. Chemistry and Biology).
It is exciting to know and to bring to the attention of the learners that the mark scheme for Paper 3 is already included
in the syllabus (see page 32). It is also important to expose the learners to the basic practical skills using for example
the NSSCAS Physics specimen question paper and materials as specified in ANNEXE A4 (page 37). Once the learners
have this expose, they will be at ease to apply the skills to any advanced practical skill they are faced with and they will
have the confidence to tackle the practical. This in turn will also prepare learners to be able to finish the two questions
comfortably in the two hours without struggling to use some of the basic apparatus such as stopwatches. Lastly, many
centres are commended for the enormous efforts they put in to prepare the 2022 NSSCAS Physics cohort as there is
generally an improvement in the candidates’ responses in comparison the their 2021 counterparts.

330

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REPUBLIC OF NAMIBIA

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, ARTS AND CULTURE

DIRECTORATE OF NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS AND ASSESSMENT

REPORT ON THE EXAMINATIONS

AFRIKAANS SECOND LANGUAGE

ART & DESIGN

DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY

ENGLISH SECOND LANGUAGE

FIRST LANGUAGE AFRIKAANS

FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH

FIRST LANGUAGE GERMAN

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

FIRST LANGUAGE OSHIKWANYAMA

FIRST LANGUAGE OSHINDONGA

FIRST LANGUAGE OTJIHERERO

FIRST LANGUAGE RUKWANGALI

FIRST LANGUAGE RUMANYO

FIRST LANGUAGE SETSWANA

FIRST LANGUAGE SILOZI

FIRST LANGUAGE THIMBUKUSHU

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Mar 31 Capital 20 000 (1)

Sep 30 Balance 260 000

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

143 680 143 680

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

Analysis of Cash and Cash Equivalents

Calculation of vehicles (219 140 + 45 400 – 89 010 + 8 000) [18]

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

Inventory 73 200 – 70 380 = 2 820

Interest on mortgage 128 000 x 16%

Provision for doubtful debts 13 270 – 1 270 x 4%

640 – 480 = 160

Rent received 2 000 x 12 = 24 000

Purchases 1 500 x 2/3 = 1 000 cost price

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

Investments 8 400 (1)

Current Assets 95 836

Owner's equity 470 404

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

1 (a) Very well answered, especially (i) and (ii).

Loss-share: Jell 6 450 (12 900)

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

Interest on capital: Bean: 200 000 x 12/100 x 12/12 = 24 000

(e) Fairly well answered.

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

Equipment 100 000 (1)

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

Issued share capital

(c) Fairly well answered.

NSSCAS Examiners Report 2022

October 200 @ 1 100 240 1 083,33 (1) 40 @ 1 000 = 40 000,00