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Middle Tennessee State University (MTSU)
Andrea Georgiou is an associate professor and the flight
dispatch coordinator in the MTSU Aerospace depart-
ment. She earned a B.S. in Aerospace and Master of
Aerospace Education from MTSU and a PhD in General
Psychology from Capella University. Dr. Georgiou holds
an FAA Aircraft Dispatch Certificate and a Private Pilot
Certificate. She serves as an honors faculty member
and teaches a wide range of undergraduate and gradu-
ate courses including flight dispatch, aviation laws and
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Chapter 3 Aerodynamics
Cheating or Other Unauthorized Conduct................x
Test-Taking Tips...................................................... xii Lift and Drag.......................................................... 3 – 3
ATP Certificate Eligibility Requirements .................. xiii Critical Engine and VMC ........................................ 3 – 8
Knowledge Exam References.................................. xiv Maneuvering Flight.............................................. 3 – 10
Stability................................................................ 3 – 13
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Acronyms...................................................................xv
ASA Test Prep Layout............................................. xviii
Chapter 1 Regulations
Applicable Regulations.......................................... 1 – 3
The ATP Certificate............................................... 1 – 3
Flight Engineer Requirements............................... 1 – 8
Flight Attendants.................................................... 1 – 9
High Speed Flight................................................ 3 – 15
Primary Flight Controls........................................ 3 – 18
Tabs..................................................................... 3 – 23
High-Lift Devices................................................. 3 – 25
Helicopter Aerodynamics..................................... 3 – 27
Chapter 4 Performance
Engine Performance.............................................. 4 – 3
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Experience and Training Requirements............... 1 – 10
Part 135 Flight Crew Requirements.................... 1 – 17 Helicopter Systems................................................ 4 – 9
Flight Crew Duty Time Limits............................... 1 – 25 Takeoff Performance Terminology....................... 4 – 10
Flight Duty Periods........................................... 1 – 26 Calculating V-Speeds.......................................... 4 – 15
Dispatching and Flight Release........................... 1 – 35 CRJ200 V-Speeds............................................ 4 – 15
Fuel Requirements.............................................. 1 – 44 Q400 V-Speeds................................................ 4 – 15
Carriage of Passengers and Cargo..................... 1 – 47 Transport Aircraft 2 V-Speeds........................... 4 – 15
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Wind Shear.......................................................... 8 – 22
Frost and Ice........................................................ 8 – 29
Chapter 5 Weight and Balance
Icing.................................................................. 8 – 29
Center of Gravity Computation.............................. 5 – 3 Hazards of Structural Icing............................... 8 – 30
Stabilizer Trim Setting............................................ 5 – 7 Frost Formation................................................ 8 – 31
Changing Loading Conditions............................... 5 – 8
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C208 Weight and Balance................................... 5 – 12
Commuter Aircraft Weight and Balance.............. 5 – 13
Helicopter Weight and Balance........................... 5 – 24
Helicopter Weight and Balance: CG Shifts.......... 5 – 25
Helicopter Weight and Balance: Load Limits....... 5 – 27
Helicopter Weight and Balance: Lateral CG........ 5 – 29
Floor Loading Limits............................................ 5 – 30
Turbulence........................................................... 8 – 38
Arctic and Tropical Weather Hazards................... 8 – 42
Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)......... 8 – 43
The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)............ 8 – 47
Enroute Forecasts............................................... 8 – 48
Surface Analysis and Constant Pressure
Charts........................................................... 8 – 51
Reports and Forecasts of Hazardous Weather... 8 – 53
PIREPs................................................................ 8 – 56
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Chapter 6 Flight Operations
Airspace................................................................. 6 – 3 Cross References
NOTAMs (Notices to Air Missions)....................... 6 – 13 A: Question Number and Page Number.............. A – 1
Flight Plans.......................................................... 6 – 14 B: Airman Knowledge Test Report
Alternate Airport Planning................................... 6 – 17 Codes and Question Numbers................... B – 1
ATC Clearances................................................... 6 – 21
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Takeoff Procedures.............................................. 6 – 26
Instrument Approaches....................................... 6 – 28 FAA Figures
Landing................................................................ 6 – 36 Airman Knowledge Testing Supplement for
Communications.................................................. 6 – 39 Airline Transport Pilot and Aircraft Dispatcher
Speed Adjustments............................................. 6 – 42 (FAA-CT-8080-7D)
Holding................................................................ 6 – 44
Charts.................................................................. 6 – 50
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understanding, aid recall, and provide a more efficient study guide. Place emphasis on questions most
likely to be included in your test (identified by the aircraft category above each question). For example,
a pilot preparing for the ATP Multi-engine test would focus on the questions marked “ALL” and “ATM”; a
pilot preparing for the ATP Single-engine test would focus on the questions marked “ALL” and “ATS”; a
pilot preparing for the ATP Helicopter (135) test would focus on the questions marked “ALL” and “RTC”;
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and candidates for the Dispatcher certificate would focus on the questions marked “ALL” and “ADX.”
Prior to taking an FAA Airman Knowledge Test, all applicants must establish an FAA Tracking Number
(FTN) by creating a profile in the Integrated Airman Certification and Rating Application (IACRA) system
at iacra.faa.gov. Then visit faa.psiexams.com to register for your exam and take FAA-created practice
tests to become familiar with the computer testing platform.
It is important to answer every question assigned on your FAA Knowledge Test. If in their ongoing
review, the FAA decides a question has no correct answer, is no longer applicable, or is otherwise defec-
tive, your answer will be marked correct no matter which one you chose. However, you will not be given
the automatic credit if you have not marked an answer. Unlike some other exams you may have taken,
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there is no penalty for guessing in this instance.
The FAA exams are “closed tests” which means the exact database of questions is not available to the
public. The question and answer choices in this book are based on our extensive history and experience
with the FAA testing and airman certification process. You might see similarly worded questions on your
official FAA exam, or answer stems might be rearranged from the order you see in this book. Therefore,
be sure to fully understand the intent of each question and corresponding answer while studying, rather
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than memorizing the letter associated with the correct response. You may be asked a question that has
unfamiliar wording; studying and understanding the information in this book and the associated refer-
ences will give you the tools to answer question variations with confidence.
If your study leads you to question an answer The FAA appreciates testing experience feedback.
choice, we recommend you seek the assistance You can contact them at:
of a local instructor. We welcome your questions, Federal Aviation Administration
recommendations, and concerns—send them to: AFS-630, Airman Testing Standards Branch
Aviation Supplies & Academics, Inc. PO Box 25082
7005 132nd Place SE Oklahoma City, OK 73125
Newcastle, WA 98059-3153 Email: [email protected]
Voice: 425.235.1500 Fax: 425.235.0128
Email: [email protected] Website: asa2fly.com
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knowledge areas. If Part 135 commuter operators (as defined in DOT Part 298) are required to have
aircraft dispatchers in the future, Part 135 questions will be added to the test. The aircraft dispatcher
applicant is not required to have the flying skills of an airline transport pilot but is expected to have the
same knowledge.
If it’s been more than 24 months since you took the initial ATP FAA Knowledge Exam, we recommend
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that you prepare for the Add-On test using the “ATP Single-engine” or “ATP–Helictoper (Part 135)” test.
This will better prepare you for all questions that may be included on your add-on test.
The table below lists the number of questions and the allotted time for each test. Each question in
this book is preceded by a category. Use these categories to study the content that may appear on your
test. Study all the questions first, then refer to the following table, placing emphasis on those questions
most likely to be included on your test (identified by the test prep category above each question number).
Note: All applicants transitioning from ATP airplane and/or helicopter need to take the additional knowl-
edge test. For example, an applicant adding a helicopter rating to an existing ATP airplane certificate
will need to take the 50-question add-on test.
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The test registration process includes collection of this information: name, FTN, physical address,
date of birth, email address, photo identification, phone number, test authorization (credentials for an
individual, such as a graduation certificate for an authorized ATP certification training program [CTP]),
and previous number of test attempts.
Step 1: Create a profile using the IACRA system and login to obtain your FTN.
1. The full name, address, and FAA certificate number of the training provider authorized to conduct
the course.
2. The full name, FAA pilot certificate number, and address of the graduate.
3. The following statement: “The applicant named above has successfully completed the airline transport
pilot Certification Training Program as required by §61.156, and therefore has met the prerequisite
required by §61.35(a)(2) for the airline transport pilot airplane knowledge test.”
4. The date of issuance.
5. The signature of the authorized instructor who completed the academic portion of the course.
6. A sequential number on the certificate starting with the first four identifiers of the training provider’s
certificate number.
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Calculators with simple programma- Magnetic cards, magnetic Printouts of data must be sur-
ble memories, which allow addition tapes, modules, computer rendered at the completion of
to, subtraction from, or retrieval of chips, or any other device upon the test if the calculator incorpo-
one number from the memory; or which pre-written programs or rates this design feature.
simple functions, such as square root information related to the test
and percentages. can be stored and retrieved.
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Scales, straight-edges, protractors,
plotters, navigation computers, blank
log sheets, holding pattern entry aids,
and electronic or mechanical calcu-
lators that are directly related to the
test.
Dictionaries.
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number of questions answered incorrectly. Study these knowledge areas to improve your understanding
of the subject matter. See Cross-Reference B in the back of this book for a listing of ASCs/LSCs and
their associated questions.
Your instructor is required to provide instruction on each of the knowledge areas listed on your AKTR
and to complete an endorsement of this instruction. You must present this to the examiner prior to taking
Retesting Procedures PL
the practical test. During the oral portion of the practical test, the examiner is required to evaluate the
Applicants retesting after failure are required to submit the applicable AKTR indicating failure, along
with an endorsement (on the test report) from an authorized instructor, who gave the applicant the addi-
tional training, certifying the applicant is competent to pass the test. The original failed AKTR and retest
endorsement presented as authorization shall be retained by the proctor and attached to the applicable
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sign-in/out log. The latest test taken will reflect the official score.
Applicants retesting in an attempt to achieve a higher passing score may retake the same test for
a better grade after 30 days. The latest test taken will reflect the official score. Applicants are required
to submit the original applicable AKTR indicating previous passing score to the testing center prior to
testing. Testing center personnel must collect and destroy this report prior to issuing the new test report.
Dispatcher (ADX) retests do not require a 30-day waiting period if the applicant presents a signed
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statement from an airman holding a certificate and rating sought by the applicant. This statement must
certify that the airman has given the applicant additional instruction in each of the subjects failed, and
that the airman considers the applicant ready for retesting. However, this test requires a 30-day waiting
period for retesting if the applicant presents a failed test report without a signed statement.
The Airman Certification Standards (ACS) codes listed below represent incorrectly answered questions. These ACS
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codes and their associated Areas of Operation/Tasks/Elements may be found in the appropriate ACS document
at http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/acs.
A single code may represent more than one incorrect response.
AA.I.B.K3e
AA.I.G.K5
AA.I.D.K9
AA.II.A.K7
AA.III.B.R1
AA.IV.A.K2d
AA.VI.E.K1
Signature
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FRAUDULENT ALTERATION OF THIS FORM BY ANY PERSON IS A BASIS FOR SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION
OF ANY CERTIFICATES OR RATINGS HELD BY THAT PERSON.
ISSUED BY: PSI Services LLC
FEDERAL AVIATION ADMINISTRATION
THIS INFORMATION IS PROTECTED BY THE PRIVACY ACT. FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY.
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• Remember to bring an ATP-CTP graduation certificate (as applicable), photo I.D., the testing fee,
calculator, flight computer (ASA’s E6-B or CX-3 Flight Computer), plotter, magnifying glass, and a
sharp pointer, such as a safety pin.
• Your first action when you sit down should be to write any formulas and information you can remember
from your study on the scratch paper they will provide. Remember, some of the formulas may be on
your E6-B.
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• Read each question carefully before looking at the possible answers. You should clearly understand
the problem before attempting to solve it.
• After formulating an answer, determine which answer choice corresponds the closest with your
answer. The answer chosen should completely resolve the problem.
• From the answer choices given, it may appear that there is more than one possible answer. However,
there is only one answer that is correct and complete. The other answers are either incomplete,
erroneous, or represent popular misconceptions.
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• Answer each question in accordance with the latest regulations and guidance publications.
• If a certain question is difficult for you, tag it for REVIEW and proceed to the other questions. After
you answer the less difficult questions, return to those which you tagged and answer them. Be sure
to untag these questions once you have answered them. The review marking procedure will be
explained to you prior to starting the test. Although the computer should alert you to unanswered
questions, make sure every question has an answer recorded. This will allow you to use the available
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6. Pass an oral and flight check on the subjects and maneuvers in the Airline Transport Pilot and Type
Rating Airman Certification Standards (ASA-ACS-11).
7. Have a Commercial Pilot Certificate or foreign or military equivalent.
8. For an ATP–Airplane Multi-Engine or an ATP obtained concurrently with an airplane type rating,
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receive a graduation certificate from an authorized training provider certifying completion of an ATP
certification training program specified in §61.156 before applying for the knowledge test.
9. For an ATP certificate with an airplane category and class rating, have at least 1,500 hours of total
time as a pilot that includes at least:
a. 500 hours of cross-country flight time.
b. 100 hours of night flight time.
c. 50 hours of flight time in the class of airplane for the rating sought.
d. 75 hours of instrument flight time, in actual or simulated instrument conditions.
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e. 250 hours of PIC time.
10. For a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating, have 1,200 hours pilot time including:
a. 500 hours cross-country flight time.
b. 100 hours night time, at least 15 hours in helicopters.
c. 200 hours in helicopters including 75 hours PIC time.
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d. 75 hours of actual or simulated instrument time with at least 50 hours in flight and 25 hours PIC
time in helicopters.
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FAA-H-8083-15 Instrument Flying Handbook
FAA-H-8083-16 Instrument Procedures Handbook
FAA-H-8083-21 Helicopter Flying Handbook
FAA-H-8083-25 Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge
Visit asa2fly.com for these and many more titles and pilot supplies for your aviation endeavors.
Visit asa2fly.com/TPATP for reader resources useful to airline transport pilots and aircraft dispatchers.
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AFM aircraft flight manual
ESHP equivalent shaft horsepower
AGL above ground level
ETA estimated time of arrival
AIRMET airmen’s meteorological information
ETOPS extended range twin-engine operations
ALD available landing distance
FAF final approach fix
ANU
ARFF
ARTCC
ASDE-X
ASOS
ASR
ASSC
airplane nose up
Model X
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aircraft rescue and firefighting
Air Route Traffic Control Center
Airport Surface Detection Equipment–
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LOC localizer (ILS) PIREP pilot report
LPV localizer performance with vertical POH pilot’s operating handbook
guidance
PPH pounds per hour
LTE loss of tail rotor effectiveness
PRM precision runway monitor
MAC
MAP
MAWP
MDA
MEA
MEL
METAR
MFD
mean aerodynamic chord
manifold pressure
missed approach waypoint
minimum descent altitude
minimum enroute altitude
Minimum Equipment List
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aviation routine weather report
multi-function display
psi
RA
RAFC
RAIM
RCAM
RCLS
REIL
pounds per square inch
resolution advisory
Regional Aera Forecast Center
receiver autonomous integrity monitoring
runway condition assessment matrix
runway centerline lighting system
runway end identifier lights
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REL runway entrance lights
MGT measured gas temperature
RFFS rescue and firefighting services
MHA minimum holding altitude
RFM rotorcraft flight manual
MLS microwave landing system
RIL runway intersection lights
MOA Military Operating Area
RNAV area navigation
MOCA minimum obstacle clearance altitude
RNP required navigation performance
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VASI visual approach slope indicator
VDP visual descent point
VFR visual flight rules
VHF very high frequency
VOR
WAAS
WW
ZFW
Visual Route (MTR)
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VHF Omnidirectional Range
VORTAC VOR-TACAN navigation system
VOT
VR
VOR Test Facility
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a reference for further study. Some questions include an explanation for the incorrect answers for added
clarity. When you encounter a difficult question, find the LSC or ACS code in Cross-Reference B, and
then look for material relating to the subject description within the given reference(s). Refer to Cross-
Reference B for more information on how to use LSCs or ACS codes for effective studying.
Answers to each question are found at the bottom of each page.
EXAMPLE:
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Four aerodynamic forces are considered to be basic because they act upon an aircraft during all flight
maneuvers. There is the downward-acting force called WEIGHT which must be overcome by the
upward-acting force called LIFT, and there is the rearward-acting force called DRAG, which must be
overcome by the forward-acting force called THRUST.
Category rating. This question may be
found on tests for these ratings.*
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ALL, ATM, ATS, ADX, RTC
8201. (Refer to Figure 14.) The four forces acting on an
See the Airman Knowledge Testing
airplane in flight are
Supplement at the back of the book.
A— lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
B— lift, weight, gravity, and thrust. Question and answer choices
C— lift, gravity, power, and friction.
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Lift, weight, thrust, and drag are the four basic Explanation
aerodynamic forces acting on an aircraft in flight.
(PLT235, AA.III.A.K1) — FAA-H-8083-25
Code line. FAA LSC and ACS codes in
Answer (B) is incorrect because the force of gravity is always the same
number and reacts with the airplane’s mass to produce a different
parentheses, followed by references
weight for almost every airplane. Answer (C) is incorrect because for further study.
weight is the final product of gravity, thrust is the final product of power,
and drag is the final product of friction. Power, gravity, and friction are
only parts of the aerodynamic forces of flight. Incorrect answer explanation.
Reasons why answer choices are
incorrect explained here.
* Note: The FAA does not identify which questions are on the different ratings’ tests. Unless the wording of a question is pertinent to only one
rating category, it may be found on any of the tests.
ALL = All operations ATM = Multi-engine operations
ATS = Single-engine operations ADX = Dispatcher RTC = Rotorcraft
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Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI) 2 – 23
Global Navigation 2 – 29
Approach Systems 2 – 30
GPS 2 – 37
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Automatic Dependent Surveillance – Broadcast (ADS-B)
Airport Lighting and Marking
Approach Lighting 2 – 54
2 – 44
2 – 43
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Inoperative Equipment
A certificate holder’s manual must contain enroute flight, navigation and communication procedures,
including procedures for the dispatch, release or continuance of a flight if a required piece of equipment
becomes inoperative.
When any required instrument or equipment in an aircraft is inoperative, the airplane cannot be flown
unless that aircraft’s Minimum Equipment List (MEL) allows such a flight.
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating IFR in controlled airspace shall report to ATC immedi-
ately any malfunction of navigational, approach or communications equipment that occurs in flight. The
report must include:
• Aircraft identification;
• Equipment affected;
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• Degree to which the capability of the aircraft to operate IFR in the ATC system is impaired; and
• Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.
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Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or
equipment
A— to be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an
aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed.
B— to be inoperative anytime with no other
documentation required or procedures to be
followed.
C— to be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a
large airplane to a maintenance base without
further documentation from the operator or FAA
controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as
practical any malfunction of navigational, approach or
communication equipment that occurs in flight. (PLT356,
AA.VI.E.K1) — 14 CFR §91.187
Answer (A) is incorrect because any malfunction of approach equip-
ment must be reported in flight, not by a written report. Answer (B)
is incorrect because, although another type of instrument approach
may be executed if permission is granted by ATC, any malfunction
of approach equipment should be reported.
(PLT405, AA.II.A.K2c) — 14 CFR §91.213 controlled airspace shall report to ATC as soon as
practical any malfunction of navigational, approach or
communication equipment that occurs in flight. (PLT162,
ATM, ATS, RTC
AA.VI.D.K3) — 14 CFR §91.187
9380. What action is necessary when a partial loss of
Answer (B) is incorrect because, although you have experienced a
ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in con- communications failure, it is only a partial one. You still have one
trolled airspace under IFR? operational VHF radio and all other radios are working normally, so a
squawk of 7600 is not needed. Answer (C) is incorrect because you
A— Continue as cleared and file a written report to still have an operable VHF radio for communication, so monitoring of
the Administrator if requested. a NAVAID is not needed. The only pilot action required is notification
B— If the aircraft is equipped with other radios to ATC of the problem.
suitable for executing an instrument approach, no
further action is necessary.
C— Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
Answers
9407 [A] 9380 [C] 9381 [A]
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Answer (A) is incorrect because any malfunction of a navigational
plane becomes inoperative, which document required
radio should be reported, no matter how slightly it may affect the under 14 CFR Part 121 dictates whether the flight may
conduct of the flight. Answer (C) is incorrect because, although this continue en route?
may be a common practice among the air carriers, the regulations
require notification to ATC of the malfunction. A— A Master Minimum Equipment List for the
airplane.
B— Original dispatch release.
ATM, ATS, RTC
flight director, flight recorder and cabin differential pressure. Pitot input is required for all those systems
except for cabin differential pressure. The usual source for these non-flight instruments is the auxiliary
pitot-static system. See Figure 2-1.
Altimeters compare the sea level pressure setting in their window with the outside air pressure sensed
through the static system. The difference is displayed as the altitude above sea level. Part of the preflight
check is to verify the accuracy of the altimeters. An altimeter should be considered questionable if the
indicated altitude varies by more the 75 feet from a known field elevation.
The altimeter setting used by pilots is always the station pressure of the reporting station corrected
to sea level. Station pressure is the actual pressure at field elevation.
True altitude is the actual height of the aircraft above sea level. This is the same as indicated alti-
tude when standard temperatures exist. When the temperature is warmer than standard, true altitude
is higher than indicated altitude. When the temperature is colder than standard day conditions, just the
opposite is true. Corrected altitude (approximately true altitude) can be calculated but it is neither practical
Answers
9386 [B] 9387 [C] 8278 [C]
nor useful to do so in most situations. When setting an altimeter, a pilot should just use the appropriate
altimeter setting and disregard the effects of nonstandard atmospheric pressures and temperatures.
Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the altimeter is set to standard sea level pressure
of 29.92" Hg. Density altitude is used in aircraft performance computations. It is pressure altitude cor-
rected for nonstandard temperatures. If the temperature is warmer than standard, density altitude will
be higher than pressure altitude.
The local altimeter setting is used when flying below FL180 and the altimeter is 31.00" Hg or less.
Special procedures apply when the local pressure is more than 31.00" Hg because most altimeters can-
not be set higher than that. In the United States, all altimeters are set to 29.92" Hg when climbing through
FL180. Caution: outside the United States the transition altitude is often something other than FL180.
A common reason for altimeter errors is incorrect setting of the altimeter. If the setting in the altimeter
is higher than the actual sea level pressure, the altimeter will read higher than the actual altitude. If the
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setting is too low, the altimeter will read lower than it really is. As a rough rule of thumb, the magnitude of
the error is about 1,000 feet for each 1" Hg that the altimeter is off. For example, if the altimeter is set to
29.92" Hg, but the real sea level pressure is 30.57" Hg, the altimeter will read about 650 feet lower than
the actual airplane’s altitude (30.57 – 29.92 = .65" Hg = 650 feet). In this example, the airplane would be
650 feet higher than the indicated altitude.
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The airspeed indicators compare pitot pressure with static pressure and display the difference as
indicated airspeed. This indicated airspeed equals the aircraft’s actual speed through the air (True Air-
speed) only under standard day conditions at sea level. Under almost all flight conditions, true airspeed
will be higher than indicated airspeed because of the lower ambient pressures at altitude.
The Machmeter displays aircraft speed as a percentage of the speed of sound. For example, an
aircraft cruising at a Mach number of .82 is flying at 82% of the speed of sound. The Machmeter works
in a manner similar to the airspeed indicator in that it compares pitot and static pressure, but these inputs
are corrected by an altimeter mechanism.
If a pitot tube becomes blocked, the airspeed and Mach indicators will read inaccurately. If pres-
sure is trapped in the pitot line, the airspeed will read inaccurately high as the aircraft climbs, low as it
descends, and will be unresponsive to changes in airspeed. The airspeed indicator acts as an altimeter
because only the static pressure changes. This situation occurs in icing conditions if both the ram air
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inlet and the drain hole of the pitot tube become completely blocked by ice.
If the pitot tube is blocked but the static port and the pitot drain hole remain open, the indicated
airspeed will drop to zero. The drain pitot tube drain hole allows the pressure in the pitot line to drop to
atmospheric and therefore there is no differential between the static and pitot pressures.
Pitot tubes and static ports are electrically heated to prevent ice formations that could interfere with
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proper operation of the systems. They are required to have “power on” indicator lights to show proper
operation. In addition, many aircraft have an ammeter that shows the actual current flow to the pitot and
static ports.
Since the magnetic compass is the only direction-seeking instrument in most airplanes, the pilot must
be able to turn the airplane to a magnetic compass heading and maintain this heading. It is influenced
by magnetic dip which causes northerly turning error and acceleration/deceleration error. When north-
erly turning error occurs, the compass will lag behind the actual aircraft heading while turning through
headings in the northern half of the compass rose, and lead the aircraft’s actual heading in the southern
half. The error is most pronounced when turning through north or south, and is approximately equal in
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degrees to the latitude.
The acceleration/deceleration error is most pronounced on headings of east and west. When accel-
erating, the compass indicates a turn toward the north, and when decelerating it indicates a turn toward
the south. The acronym ANDS is a good memory aid:
A accelerate
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N north
D decelerate
S south
No errors are apparent while on east or west headings, when turning either north or south.
ALL ALL
9174. Which pressure is defined as station pressure? 9173. If the ambient temperature is colder than standard
A— Altimeter setting. at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude
B— Actual pressure at field elevation. and pressure altitude?
C— Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level. A— They are both the same, 31,000 feet.
B— True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet.
The pressure measured at a station or airport is “sta- C— Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.
tion pressure” or the actual pressure at field elevation.
(PLT166, AA.I.A.K13) — AC 00-6 True altitude is indicated altitude corrected for the fact
Answer (A) is incorrect because altimeter setting is the value to that nonstandard temperatures will result in nonstan-
which the scale of a pressure altimeter is adjusted to read field dard pressure lapse rates. In warm air, you fly at a true
elevation. Answer (C) is incorrect because station barometric pres- altitude higher than indicated. In cold air, you fly at a
sure reduced to sea level is a method to readily compare station
pressures between stations at different altitudes. true altitude lower than indicated. Pressure altitude is
the altitude indicated when the altimeter is set to the
E
standard sea level pressure (29.92" Hg). In the United
ALL States, altimeters are always set to 29.92" Hg at and
9164. What is corrected altitude (approximate true above 18,000 feet. This question assumes the differ-
altitude)? ence between the pressure altitude and the indicated
A— Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. altitude (local altimeter setting) is not significant enough
B— Indicated altitude corrected for temperature to reverse the effects of the temperature. (PLT023,
variation from standard.
ALL
9173-1. When the temperature is -20°C at 15,000 feet
indicated, you know that
A— altimeters automatically compensate for
M
subject to additional adjustments. temperature variations.
B— the altimeter is indicating higher than true
altitude.
ATM, ATS, RTC C— the altimeter is indicating lower than true altitude.
9099. When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard
A— effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures The ISA for 15,000 feet is -15°C. When the temperature
and pressures. is colder than standard, the altimeter will indicate higher
SA
B— corrections for static pressure systems. than true altitude. (PLT023, AA.I.D.K3) — AC 00-6
C— corrections for instrument error.
Answers
9174 [B] 9164 [B] 9099 [A] 9173 [B] 9173-1 [B]
ALL ALL
9172. If the ambient temperature is warmer than stan- 9163. En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly.
dard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter set-
to pressure altitude? ting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the
A— Lower than pressure altitude. altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate
B— Higher than pressure altitude. upon landing?
C— Impossible to determine without information on A— 585 feet.
possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. B— 1,300 feet.
C— Sea level.
Pressure altitude is the altitude indicated when the
altimeter is set to the standard sea level pressure (29.92" One inch of Hg pressure is equal to about 1,000 feet of
Hg). Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for altitude. In the United States, altimeters are always set
nonstandard temperature. A warmer than standard to 29.92" Hg at and above 18,000 feet. If the altimeter
temperature will result in a density altitude higher than is not reset when descending into an area with a local
E
the pressure altitude. (PLT023, AA.I.D.K3) — AC 00-6 altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg, an error of 650 feet will
Answer (A) is incorrect because density altitude is higher when result (30.57 – 29.92 = .65 = 650 feet). If the altimeter
air temperature is warmer than standard. Answer (C) is incorrect is set lower than the actual setting, it will read lower
because density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non- than the actual altitude. (PLT166, AA.I.D.K3) — AC 00-6
standard temperatures. Pressure altitude is based on a standard
pressure atmosphere at a particular altitude, and inversion layers Answer (A) is incorrect because 585 feet is the result of subtract-
at lower levels have no effect on pressure altitude. ing 65 feet rather than subtracting 650 feet. Answer (B) is incorrect
ALL
9813. Given
the pressure altitude of 1,000 feet opposite an air airspeed will not change in level flight even when actual
temperature of 10°C. airspeed is varied by large power changes. During a
climb the airspeed indication will increase. During a
2. The density altitude shown in the window is 650 feet. descent the airspeed indication will decrease. (PLT128,
You can also answer this using an electronic flight com- AA.I.D.K3) — AC 91-43
puter, such as the CX-3. Select Altitude from the CX-3 Answer (A) is incorrect because indicated airspeed will decrease in
FLT menu. (PLT005, AA.I.D.K3) — AC 00-6 a descent. Answer (C) is incorrect because indicated airspeed will
remain at the same value during level flight.
Answers
9172 [B] 9813 [B] 9163 [C] 9080 [B]
If both the ram air input and the drain hole are blocked, If the pitot tube becomes blocked but pressure is not
the pressure trapped in the pitot line cannot change and trapped in the pitot lines, the indicated airspeed will drop
the airspeed indicator may react as an altimeter. The to zero since the pitot pressure will be approximately
airspeed will not change in level flight even when actual equal to the static pressure. (PLT337, AA.VII.A.K6) —
airspeed is varied by large power changes. During a AC 00-6
E
climb the airspeed indication will increase. During a Answer (B) is incorrect because the airspeed indication will drop if
descent the airspeed indication will decrease. (PLT337, only the ram air input is blocked. Answer (C) is incorrect because
AA.VII.A.K6) — AC 91-43 the pressure in the airspeed line will vent out through the hole and
the indication will drop to zero.
Answer (B) is incorrect because the airspeed indicator will show an
increase (not decrease) with an increase in altitude. Answer (C) is
incorrect because differential pressure between the pitot tube and
ATM, ATS, RTC
9082. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the
pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indica-
Answers
9081 [A] 9082 [A] 9222 [A] 9934 [C]
E
The vertical speed indicator is depicted using con-
ventional analog presentation. Turn coordination
is shown using a segmented triangle near the top
of the attitude indicator. The rate-of-turn indicator
appears as a curved line display at the top of the
Figure 2-2. A typical primary flight display (PFD)
the PFD.
Answers
8206 [A] 9769 [B]
ALL ALL
9769-1. Automated flight decks or cockpits 9853-1. In advanced avionics aircraft, proper automa-
A— improve basic flight skills. tion management requires
B— decrease the workload in terminal areas. A—relying on flight management systems to navigate
C— sometimes hide errors. in order for the pilot to perform other tasks.
B—a thorough understanding of how the autopilot
Automation can make some errors more evident and interacts with other systems.
hide others. (PLT524, AA.I.E.K2) — FAA-H-8083-6 C—the pilot to refrain from monitoring the automation
after initial programming.
ALL Advanced avionics offer multiple levels of automation,
9769-2. When flying an aircraft with electronic flight from strictly manual flight to highly automated flight.
displays (EFDs), risk increases No one level of automation is appropriate for all flight
A— if the pilot expects the electronics to enhance situations, but in order to avoid potentially dangerous
E
flight safety and remove pilot error. distractions when flying with advanced avionics, the
B— when the pilot expects the equipment to pilot must know how to manage the CDI, the navigation
malfunction on occasion. source, and the autopilot. It is important for a pilot to
C— if the pilot believes the EFD will compensate for know the peculiarities of the particular automated system
lack of skill and knowledge. being used. (PLT104, AA.I.F.K3) — FAA-H-8083-25
— FAA-H-8083-6
ALL
9830. Automation has been found to
PL
Automation has been shown to erode some flying skills
when they are not kept proficient. (PLT524, AA.I.E.K2)
9853. When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable B— have proven to increase safety in operations.
operations closer to personal or environmental limits, C— may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.
A— greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved.
B— risk is increased. Risk management is the last of the three flight man-
C— risk is decreased. agement skills needed for mastery of the advanced
avionics aircraft. The enhanced situational awareness
Advanced avionics can sometimes have a negative and automation capabilities offered by a glass flight
effect on pilot risk-taking behavior, where more informa- deck vastly expand its safety and utility, especially for
tion results in pilots taking more risk than they might personal transportation use. At the same time, there is
be willing to accept without the information. Advanced some risk that lighter workloads could lead to compla-
avionics should be used to increase safety, not risk. cency. (PLT104, AA.I.A.R3) — FAA-H-8083-2
(PLT104, AA.I.A.R3) — FAA-H-8083-6
Answers
9769-1 [C] 9769-2 [C] 9830 [B] 9853 [B] 9853-1 [B] 9854 [A]
9855 [C]
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