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Thin Lenses Questions and Answers - Physics Form 4 Topical

Revision
Questions
1. The figure below shows how a distant object is focused in a defective eye.

i. State the nature of the defect.

ii. Suggest suitable lens to correct the defect
2.
a. You are provided with a rectangular glass block, two pins and a piece of white paper.
Describe how you would use them to determine the refractive index of the glass using real
and apparent image method.
b. An object O is placed 15cm from a converging lens of focal length 10cm.
i. At what distance should a screen be placed so that a focused image is formed on it?
ii. A diverging lens of focal length 37.5 cm is placed half way between the converging
lens and the screen. How far should the screen be from the diverging leans in order
to receive a focused image?
c. Two lenses L1 and L2 placed 12cm from each other. The focal length of L2 is 4cm. An object
5mm high is placed 4cm from L1.
i. Construct a scaled ray diagram on a graph paper to obtain the position of the final
image as would be observed by a person on the right hand side of L2
ii. Determine the magnification obtained by the arrangement.
3. The figure below represents and object O placed 10cm in front of a diverging lens. F is the focal
point of the lens.

Draw rays to locate the position of the image. Determine the image distance.
4. A vertical object is placed at the focal point F of a diverging lens as shown in the figure below.

Sketch a ray diagram to show the image of the object. (3mks)

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5.
a. Describe with the aid of labeled diagram an experiment to determine the focal length of
the lens when provided with the following; an illuminated object, a convex lens, a lens
holder, a plane mirror and a metre rule. (5mk)
b. A small vertical object is placed 28cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 12cm. On the
grid provided, draw a ray diagram to locate the image. The lens position is shown. (Use a
scale: 1 cm represents 4 cm).
c. Figure below shows a human eye with a certain defect.

i. Name the defect. (1mk)

ii. On the same diagram, sketch the appropriate lens to correct the defect and sketch
rays to show the effect of the lens. (2mks)
6.
a. Figures (a) and (b) below shows diagrams of the human eye.

i. Sketch in figure (a) a ray diagram to show short sightedness. (1mk)

ii. Sketch in figure (b) a ray diagram to show how a lens can be used to correct the
shortsightedness. (2mks)
b. The figure below shows the features of a simple camera.

i. Name the parts labelled A and B. (2mks)

ii. A still object is placed at a certain distance from the camera. Explain the
adjustments necessary for a clear image of the object to be formed. (2mks)
iii. State the functions of the shutter and the parts labelled A and B (3mks)
c. A lens forms clear image on a screen when the distance between the screen and the object
is 80cm. If the image is 3 times the height of the object, determine

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i. The distance of the image from the lens. (3mks)

ii. The focal length of the lens. (2mks)
7. An image formed on a screen is three times the size of the object. The object and the screen are
80cm apart when the image is sharply focused. Determine the focal length of the lens.
8. A luminous object and a screen are placed on an optical bench a converging lens is placed
between them to throw a sharp image of the object on the screen, the magnification is found to be
2.5. The lens is now moved 30cm nearer to the screen and a sharp image is again formed.
Calculate the focal length of the lens.
9. An object is placed 16cm from a converging lens of focal length 12cm. Find.
i. Position of image.
ii. Nature and
iii. Magnification of the image.
10. An object is placed 15cm from a diverging lens and the image is formed 6cm from the lens. What
is the focal length of the lens?
11. Calculate the power of a lens whose focal length is given as 10cm.
12. Explain differences between the eye and the camera. State also the similarities.

Answers
1.
i. Short sightedness (myopia)
ii. Concave lens (diverging lens)
2.
a. Arrange the apparatus as shown below

Adjust the position of the search pin until there is no parallax. Measure A and R
Refractive index = Real depth =R
Apparent depth A
b.
i. u = 15cm, f = 10cm
1+1=1
u v f
1=1–1=1
v 10 15 30
∴v= 30 cm
ii.

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- Now for the diverging lens, V= -15cm since the image is vertical
∴ 1 = -1 + 1 (note that for concave is –ve)
v 37.5 15
V= 25 cm
c.
i. Draw rays to form 1st image due to L1. This image will be treated as the object for
L2. Use lines (Not rays to obtain the position of the final image I2 then complete the
rays as shown below.

ii. Measure height of I2 and divide by height of object

3.

4.

5.
a. - Place candle at a distance as shown below

- Adjust until a sharp image is formed

- Measure U and V and record
- Repeat this procedure for other values of u
- For each set of values find using 1/f = 1/u + 1/v
- Calculate the average value
b. - Draw one ray from top of object straight through the optical centre of the lens a
- Draw another ray parallel to the principal axis which should pass through principal axis
after refraction

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- Where they meet, draw the image.

c. Short sightedness

6.
a.
i.

ii.

b.
i. A-Diaphragm
B-Film
ii. The distance between the lens is adjusted so that the image is formed on the film
iii. - Shutter- Opens for some given time to alloy rays from the object to fall on the film
creating the image impression.
- A (Diaphragm) controls intensity of light entering the camera
- B (Film) – coated with light sensitive components which react with light to create
the impression
c.
i. Magnification = v = 3
u
Since v + u = 80
u = 80 – v
v =3
80 – v
v= 240 – 3v
v= 60 cm
ii. From above u = 20cm
1= 1 + 1 + 1 + 1
F v u 60 20
7. f= 15cm
8. f= 14.3cm
9.
i. Given information
u= 16cm
f = 12cm

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Applying 1 = 1 + 1
f u v
then 1= 1 + 1
v f u
1= 1 – 1
v 12 16
= 1 = 4 -3 = 1
v 48 48
Hence image distance = 48
ii. Nature: image is real
- Inverted
- 48 cm from the lens
- Magnified
iii. Magnification, m= v = 48 cm = 3
u 16 cm
10. Solution
Given information
v= -6 cm
u = + 15cm
Applying 1 = 1 + 1
f u v
1= 1 – 1
f 15 6
1= 2 – 5
f 30
1= – 3
f 30
1= – 1
f 10
f = -10
f= 10 cm
11. Solution
P = 1/f
P= 1 = 1
10
10 cm /100m
10
= 1÷ /100 m
= 1 x 100/10
Power = 10 dioptre (D)
12. Similarity
- Both have converging lens
- In the eye, retina act as the screen while in the camera a light sensitive film act as one

Differences
- Focal length of the eye lens is variable while that of the camera is fixed.

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Uniform Circular Motion Questions and Answers - Physics Form 4

Topical Revision
Questions
1. A light inextensible string of length L is fixed at its upper end and support a mass m at the other
end. m is rotated at horizontal plane or radius r as shown. The maximum tension the string can
withstand without breaking is 2N. Assuming the string breaks when the radius is maximum,
calculate the velocity of the mass when the string breaks, given that L = 1.25m, and m= 0.1kg.
2. The diagram below shows a mass m, which is rotated in a vertical circle.
The speed of the mass is gradually increased until the string breaks. The string breaks when the
mass is at its lowest position A and at a speed of 30ms-1. Point a is 5m above the ground.

a. Show on the diagram.

i. The initial direction of the mass at the point the string breaks.
ii. The path of the mass from A until it strikes the ground at a point b.
b. Calculate;
i. The time the mass takes to reach the ground after breaking off.
ii. The horizontal distance the mass travels before it strikes the ground.
iii. The vertical velocity with which the mass strikes the ground.
3. State the principle by which a speed governor limits the speed of a vehicle.
4. The rear wheel of a certain car has a diameter of 40cm. At a certain speed of the car, the wheel
makes 7 revolutions per second. A small stone embedded in the tyre tread flies off initially at an
22
angle of 450 to the ground. Determine the initial velocity of the pebble (take π = /7)
5.
a. Explain why a pail of water can be swung in a vertical circle without the water pouring out.
b. A car of mass 1,200kg is moving with a velocity of 25m/s around a flat bend of radius
150m. Determine the minimum frictional force between the tyres and the road that will
prevent the car from sliding off.
6.
a. The fig shows the diagram of a set up to investigate the variation of centripetal force with
the radius r of the circle in which a body rotates. Describe how the set up can be used to
carry out the investigation

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b. The table shows results obtained from an investigation similar to the one in part (a)
Mass, m (g) 60 50 40 30 20
Radius, r(cm) 50 41 33 24 16

i. Plot a graph of force, F (y-axis) on the body against the radius r (in metre)
ii. Given that the mass of the body is 100g, use the graph to determine the angular
velocity.
7. A small object moving in a horizontal circle of radius 0.2m makes 8 revolutions per second.
Determine its centripetal acceleration.
8.
a. Define the term angular velocity. (1mk)
b. A body moving with uniform angular velocity found to have covered an angular distance
170 radians in t seconds. Thirteen seconds later it is found to have covered a total angular
distance of 300 radians. Determine t (3mks)
c. The figure below shows a body of mass m attached to the centre of rotating table with a
string whose tension can be measure. (This device for measuring the tension is not shown
in the figure).

The tension, T, on the string was measured for various values of angular velocity,
The distance r of the body from the centre was maintained at 30cm. Table 1 shows the
results obtained.
Table 1
Angular 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0 6.0
velocity
(rads-1)
Tension T (N) 0.04 0.34 0.76 1.30 1.96
(5mks)
i. Plot the graph of T (y-axis) against ω2
ii. From the graph, determine the mass, m, of the body given that T= mω2r − C where
C is a constant (4mks)
iii. Determine the constant C and suggest what it represents in the set up. (2mks)
9. A child of mass 20kg sits on a swing of length 4m and swings through a vertical height of 0.9m as
shown in the figure below.

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Determine the:
i. Speed of the child when passing through the lowest point.
ii. Force exerted on the child by the seat of the swing when passing through the lowest point.
10.
a. State what is meant by centripetal acceleration?
b. The figure below shows masses A, B and C placed at different points on a rotating table.
The angular velocity, ω of the table can be varied.

i. State two factors that determine whether a particular mass slides off the table or
not. (2mks)
ii. It is found that masses slide off at angular velocities ωA, ωB, ωC of in decreasing
order. (1mk)
c. A block of mass 200g is placed on a frictionless rotating table while fixed to the centre of
the table by a thin thread. The distance from the centre of the table to the block is 15cm. If
the maximum tension the thread can withstand is 5.6N, determine the maximum angular
velocity the table can attain before the thread cuts. (4mks)
11. Find the maximum speed with which a car of mass 100kg can take a corner of radius 20m if the
coefficient of friction between the road and the tyres is 0.5.
12. An object of mass 0.5kg is rotated in a horizontal circle by a string 1m long. The maximum tension
in the string before it breaks is 50N. Calculate the greatest number of revolutions per second the
object can make.
13. An astronaut is trained in a centrifuge that has an arm length of 6m. If the astronaut can stand the
acceleration of 9g. What is the maximum number of revolutions per second that the centrifuge can
make?
14. A small body of 200g revolves uniformly on a horizontal frictionless surface attached by a cord
20cm long to a pin set on the surface. If the body makes two revolutions per second. Find the
tension of the cord.
15. A circular highway curve on a level ground makes a turn 900. The highway carries traffic at 120
km/h. Knowing that the centripetal force on the vehicle is not to exceed 1/10 of its weight, calculate
the length of the curve
16. A turntable of record player makes 33 revolutions per minute. What is the linear velocity of a point
0.12m from the center?
17. An object 0.5kg on the end of a string is whirled around in a vertical circle of radius 2m, with a
speed of 10m/s. What is the maximum tension in the string?

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Answers
1. When tension is max then r= l
T= F = MV2
r
2 = 0.1 x V2
1.25
2
∴ V = 2 x 1.25
0.1
V= 5 m/s
2.
a. (i) & (ii)

b.
i. S= Ut + ½ at2
t = √(2 x 5)
10
= 1 seconds
ii. S = Ut = 30 x 1 = 30m
iii. V2 = U2 + 2as
V= √(2 x 10 x 5)
= 10m
3. Principal of conical pendulum Or principle of circular motion
4. V= ωr
But ω = θ = 2π x 7 = 14 rads-1
T 1
∴ V= 14πx 0.20
= 8.8 m/s
5. Centripetal acceleration of bucket is equal or higher than gravitational acceleration of the water.
6.
a. Keep angular velocity ω1 constant; Centripetal force provided by mg; Fix the mass m and
measure r; repeat for different values of m. Tabulate the values
b.
i. Force- Mg. Calculate and fill a column for force and another for radius in m
Plot the graph
ii. Gradient of the graph
= 0.625 – 0.1 = 1.167 N/m
0.525 – 0.075
Force F, on the body = mbω2r
Where mb = mass of the body
Mbω2 = Gradient of the graph = 1.167
ω2 = 1.167 = 11.67
0.1
ω= √11. 67
= 3.42 rads-1

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7. 2πf = 2π x 8
α = rω2 = 0.2 (16π)2
= 505.3 m/s
8.
a. Angular displacement per second.
b. In 13s, angle turned = 300 − 170 = 130 rad
∴ ω= θ/t = 130/13 = 10 rads-1
So 300 = 10
t+13
10t + 130 = 300
10t = 170
t = 17 sec
c.
i. Plot the graph which is a straight line.
ii. From T = (mr)ω2 – C and y = mx + c
Y = T, grad = mr, y = intercept = -C
∴ Obtain gradient and equate it to mr.
Where r = 0.3m, to obtain m.
iii. The y-intercept should be equated to, -C.
9.
a. Pe → Ke
∴ mgh = ½ mv2
Or v2 = 2gh.
v = √(2x 10x0.9)
v = √18 = 1.24m/s
b. F = mg + mv2
= 200 + 20 x 18
4
= 290N
10.
a. Acceleration directed towards the centre of the orbit.
b.
i. Roughness/smoothness of surface, radius of path, angular velocity/speed.
11. 10 m/s
12. 1.59 rev.s-1
13. 0.61 rev.s-1
14. 6.32N
15. 1744N
16. 0.41 m/s
17. 30N

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Floating and Sinking Questions and Answers - Physics Form 4

Topical Revision
Questions
1. State how a hydrometer may be used to test whether a car battery is fully charged.
2. Determine the density of glass that weighs 0.5N in air and 0.3N in water.
3. A mass of 120g half immersed in water displaced a volume of 20cm3.
Calculate the density of the object.
4. A solid displaced 5.5 cm3 of paraffin when floating and 20cm3. Calculate the density of the object.
5. The figure below shows a cube of a certain wood whose density is the same as that of water. The
cube is held on the surface of the water in a long cylinder.

Explain what happens to the cube after it is released.

6. A right angled solid of dimensions 0.02m by 0.02m by 0.2m and density 2,700kg/m3 is supported
inside kerosene of density 800kg/m3 by a thread which is attached to a spring balance. The long
side is vertical and the upper surface is 0.1m below the surface of the kerosene.
i. Calculate the force due to the liquid on the lower upper surface of the solid.
ii. Calculate the up thrust and determine the reading on the spring balance.
7. A solid copper sphere will sink in water while a hollow copper sphere of the same mass may float.
Give a reason for this.
8. A uniform plank of wood is pivoted at its centre. A block of wood of mass 2kg is balanced by a
mass of 1.5 placed 30cm from the pivot as shown.

i. Calculate the distance X

ii. When the same block of wood is partially immersed in water, the 1.5kg mass need to be
placed at 20cm from the pivot to balance it. Calculate the weight of the water displaced.
9. A block of glass of mass 250g floats in mercury. What volume of the glass lies under the surface of
the mercury? (Density of mercury is 13.6 x 103).
10. When a piece of metal is placed on water, it sinks. But when the same piece of metal is placed on a
block of wood, both are found to float. Explain this observation.
11.
a. State the law of floatation. (1mk)
b. The figure below shows a simple hydrometer.

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i. State the purpose of the lead shots in the glass bulb (1mk)
ii. How would the hydrometer be made more sensitive? (1mk)
iii. Describe how the hydrometer is calibrated to measure relative density. (2mks)
c. The figure below shows a cork floating on water and held to the bottom of the beaker by a
thin thread

i. Name the forces acting on the cork. (3mks)

ii. Describe how each of the forces mentioned in (i) above changes when water is
added into the beaker until it fills up. (3mks)
12. The ball B shown below has a mass of 12kg and a volume of 50litres. It is held in position in sea
water of density 104 kgm-3 by a light cable fixed to the bottom so that 4/5 of its volume is below the
surface determine the tension in the cable.

13. A balloon of volume 1.2x107 cm3 is filled with hydrogen gas of density 9.0 x 10-5/g/cm3. Determine
the weight of the fabric of the balloon.
14. A boat whose dimensions are equivalent to those of a rectangular figure of 5m long by 2m wide
floats in fresh water. If this boat sinks 10cm deeper as a result of passengers climbing on board,
determine the total weight of these passengers.
15. One fifth of the volume of an iceberg stands above the water surface. If the density of the
seawater is 1.2g/cm3, determine the density of iceberg.
16. A hydrometer of mass 10g is placed in paraffin of density 0.8g/cm3. Determine the length of the
paraffin if its bulb has a volume of 4cm3 and its stem has a cross section area of 0.5 cm2
17. An object of mass 50g floats with 20% of its volume above the water surface as shown below. The
tension in the string is 0.06N.

a. Calculate the up thrust experienced by the object.

b. Volume of water displaced.
c. The density of the object
d. What would happen if the string was cut?
18. A piece of marble of mass 1.4kg and relative density 2.8 is supported by a light string from a
spring balance. It is then lowered into the water fully. Determine the up thrust.
19. The block of wood of mass 80g is pulled just below the water surface by a piece of copper of

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density 9 g/cm3 using a string of negligible weight. What is the mass of the piece of copper?

20. If the body weight 1.80N in air and 1.62N when submerged in a liquid of relative density 0.8, find
a. the volume of the solid.
b. The density of the solid

Answers
1. Place it in the acid and read at the level of the acid surface. In a fully charged car battery, should
read 1.25.
2. Volume of glass = Volume of water displaced
= (0.2 ÷ 103) kg
g
Mass of glass = 0.5/g
Density of glass = m/v
= 0.5 ÷ 0.2 x 1
g g 103
= 2.5 x 103 kg/m3
= 2500 kg/m3
3. Volume of the object = Volume of water displaced
Density of object = Mass = 120 = 3 g/cm3
Volume 40
4. Mass of paraffin = Mass of solid = vol x dens
= 5.5 x 0.8 = 4.4g
∴ Density of solid = Mass = 4.4 = 0.22g/cm3
Vol 20
5. Metal is denser than water. Metal and the piece of wood have a general density (combined
density) less than that of water and floats just below the surface.
6.
i. Lower surface of solid
P = gh
Force = P x A = gh x A
= 800 x 10 x 0.5 x 4 x 10-4
= 0.96N
Upper surface of solid.
Force = P x A = gh x A
= 800 x 10 x 0.1 x 4 x 10-4
= 0.32N
ii. Upthrust = 0.96 – 0.32 = 0.6N
Weight of the solid = Density x Volume x g
= 2.7 x 103 x 0.2 x 10-4 x 4 x 10
= 2.16
Balance reading = 2.16 – 0.64
= 1.52N
7. Solid copper is denser than water hence the solid sphere sinks, weight is greater than upthrust.

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Hollow sphere experiences an upthrust equal ti its weight so it will float/density of hollow sphere is
less than that of water i.e. volume of water displaced is a lot more than the weight of the sphere.
8.
i. Clockwise moments = Anticlockwise moment.
2.0g x = 1.5g x 30
2x = 45
x = 22.5cm
ii. Down force:
M x 22.5
= 20 x 1.5
M = 30/22.5 = 1.33Kg
Upthrust = 0.67Kg.
Therefore weight of water displaced = 6.7N
9. Weight of block = Weight of mercury displaced or law of floatation.
0.250 Kg = V x 13.6 x 103
V= 0.25 = 1.838 x 10-5m3 = 18.38m3
13.6 x 103
10. The weight of the metal is more than he upthrust but the metal block together with wood displace
their own weight (upthrust) hence the two float in water
11.
a. A floating body displaces its own weight of the liquid on which it floats.
b.
i. To enable the hydrogen float upright.
ii. Float hydrometer on water and on liquid of known density in turn and mark
levels/divide proportionally and extend on either side.
c.
i. Tension, upthrust, weight.
ii. As water is added, upthrust tension increases weight remains unchanged as water
is added.
12. 296N
13. 14.52 kg
14. 1000 Kg
15. 0.969 g/cm3
16. 17cm
17.
a. 0.56N
b. 70cm3
c. 0.7143g/cm3
d. It would move up until it displaces its own weight.
18. 5N
19. 3.33g
20.
a. 22.5cm3
b. 8g/cm3

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Electromagnetic Spectrum Questions and Answers - Physics Form 4

Topical Revision
Questions
1. State one-way of detecting ultra violet radiation.
2. Arrange the following radiations in order of increasing wavelengths.
Ultraviolet Gamma Rays
Radio Waves Infra Red
3. Name two types of electromagnetic radiations whose frequencies are greater than that of visible
light.
4. Calculate the wavelength of the KBC FM radio waves transmitted at a frequency of 95.6 mega
hertz.
5. The chart below shows an arrangement of different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Complete the table.
Type of Radiation Detector Uses
Ultraviolet Photographic paper, fluorescent
material, phototransistor
Radio waves Balanced thermometer Warmth sensation, making toast
Radio waves Communication

6. Arrange the following in order of increasing frequency. Visible light, infrared radiation, x-rays, u.v.
radiation, radio waves.
7. State the difference between X-rays and gamma rays in the way in which they are produced (1mk)
8. Other than a photographic film state one other detectors of
i. X-rays
ii. UV,
iii. Visible spectrum
iv. Infra-red radiations
9. State 3 uses of infra- red radiation.
10. Name two properties of ultra-violent radiation.
11. State the origin of all em-radiation from radio waves to x-rays.
12. State where Gamma rays originate.
13. State one common property for electromagnetic waves and state one use of microwaves and one
for ultraviolet radiation.
14. State one common properties for electromagnetic waves and state one use of microwaves and one
for ultraviolet radiation.
15. Name the radiation represented by A.
Radio, Infrared, visible, A- rays, Gamma Rays
16. Complete the table below to show the name and use of some types of electromagnetic radiation.
Type of radiation Use
Sendng Information to and from satellites
Normal Photography
Producing shadow pictures of bones
Gamma rays

17. Give one important use of each of the following em-waves.

i. Microwaves
ii. Infrared

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Answers
1. Using a photocell/a fluorescent screen; photographic plate; also paper smeared with Vaseline or
quinine sulphur.
2. Gamma rays, Ultraviolet, Infrared, Radio waves.
3. Ultra violets rays, X-rays, Gamma rays.
4. v = f x wavelength.
= v = 3.0 x 10ms-1
f 95.6 x 106s-1
= 3.14 m
5.
i. Killing germs, vitamin D synthesis, fluorescent lamps/screen/signboard, vehicle reflectors,
paints etc.
ii. Infrared radiation.
iii. Radio receiver.
6. Radio waves, Infrared, Visible light, U-V radiation, X-rays.
7. X-rays are produced from changes in energy from electron jumps in the shells of an atom while
gamma rays are produced from energy changes in the nucleus of atoms.
8.
i. Scintillation tube, Geiger muller tube etc.
ii. Fluorescent materials, paper smeared with Vaseline etc.
iii. Eye, photometer.
iv. Skin, blackened thermometer etc.
9. Warmth sensation, cooking, drying clothes etc.
10. - They cause fluorescent.
- They all travel at 3 x 10-8m/s.
- They are part of em-spectrum and can travel through vacuum.
- Transverse
11. Electron jumps/ energy changes in electron structure of atoms.
12. Energy changes in the nucleus of atoms.
13. - They all travel at 3 x 10-8m/s.
- All transverse.
- Can be plane polarized.
- They can travel through vacuum.
14.
a. Radio waves, infrared, visible light, U-V radiation, X-rays.
b. Microwaves are used in cooking.
c. Ultraviolet are used in fluorescent paints.
15. X-rays.
16.
i. Radio waves
ii. Visible light.
iii. X-rays
iv. Treatment of cancer (radio therapy), detection of fault in manufacturing industry,
sterilization/killing germs.
17.
a. Cooking
b. Drying objects.

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Electromagnetic Induction Questions and Answers - Physics Form 4

Topical Revision
Questions
1.
a. The free ends of a coil are connected to a galvanometer. When the north pole of a magnet
is moved towards the coil, the pointer deflects towards the coil, the pointer deflects
towards the right as shown. State with reason the behaviour of the pointer in the following
cases.

i. The north pole of the magnet is held stationary near p.

ii. The south pole of the magnet is made to approach the coil from Q.
b. Two coils T and S are wound on a soft iron core as shown. T has 1000 turns while S has 600
turns and resistance of 100Ω

Calculate the maximum current measured by the ammeter.

2. Calculate the peak value of an alternating current which has a root mean square value of 3.0A.
3. A large sub station transformer is used to step down voltage from 11,000V to 450V.
i. Determine the ratio of the turns in the primary to secondary coils.
ii. How is the efficiency of this transformer ensured?
iii. State one function of the core in a transformer.
4. A generator produces a peak voltage of 220v. What is the root mean square value of this voltage?.
5. Name any two ways by which a transformer loses energy.
6. The figure below; Represents a transformer connected to an ac source and a resistor R.

Compare the magnitudes of the:

i. Voltages Vp and Vs
ii. Currents Ip and Is

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7.
a. State the laws of electromagnetic induction.
b.
i. A researcher studying the behaviour of step up transformer made the following
observation. ‘More joules per coulomb and fewer coulombs per second at the
output than at the input terminals’. Explain why the observation does not imply a
violation of the principle of conservation of energy.
ii. A transformer of 480 turns in the primary coil used to connect a 9-volt a.c. electric
device to a 240V a.c. mains power supply. Calculate the number of turns in the
secondary coil
8. What causes electromagnetic damping in a moving coil galvanometer?
9. State how Eddy Currents are reduced in a transformer.
10. A transformer in a welding machine supplies 6 volts from a 240V mains supply. If the current used
in the welding is 30A. Determine the current in the mains.
11. A hair drier is rated 2500W, 240v. Determine its resistance. (3mks)
12.
a. State Lenz's law of electromagnetic induction. (1mk)
b. The figure below shows a simple microphone in which sound waves from the person talking
cause the cardboard diaphragm to vibrate.

i. Explain how a varying current is induced in the cell when the diaphragm vibrates.
(3mks)
ii. State two ways in which the induced current (i) above can be increased. (2mks)
c. A transformer with 1200 turns in the primary circuit and 120 turns in the secondary circuit;
it produces heat at the rate of 600w. Assuming 100% efficiency, determine the:
i. Voltage in the secondary circuit. (2mks)
ii. Current in the secomdary circuit. (2mks)
iii. The current in the primary circuit. (1mark)
13. An ac flows in a resistor of 100Ω. If the peak value of the voltage across the resistor is 60V.
Calculate.
a. The rms. Voltage
b. The rms. Current
c.
14. A student designed a transformer to supply a current of 10A at a potential difference of 60V to a
motor from an A.C mains supply of 240V. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, determine the;
a. Power supplied to the transformer
b. Current in the primary coil.
15. An immersion heater rated 300W is used continuously for 45 minutes per day. Calculate the cost
per week at 60cts per unit.
16. A radio transmitter directs pulses of waves towards a satellite from which reflections are received

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10 millisecond after transmission. Determine the distance of the satellite from the radio
transmitter. (Speed of radio waves= 3 x 108ms-1)
17. An electric bulb with a filament resistance 300Ω is connected to a 2v main supply, determine the
energy dissipated in 2 minutes.
18. A 50w bulb is used continuously for 36 hours. Determine the cost of energy consumed at a cost of
Kshs. 2 per unit.
19. The diagram in the figure below shows an arrangement that may be used to investigate how
electromagnetic force varies with current. Explain how the arrangement may be used for this
investigation.

Answers
1.
a.
i. No deflection: no change of magnetic flux cutting across the coil.
ii. The deflection is in the same direction. A south pole is created to oppose the
incoming south. It is the same as north approaching the opposite end.
b. Assuming 100% efficiency.
Ns = Ip but Is = V = 250 = 2.5A
Np Is R 100
Is = 1000 x 2.5
600
= 4.2A
2. Imax = √2 x 3
= 4.24 A
3.
i. Np = 1000 = 24.4
Ns 450
ii. Cooling it, core made of material of low retentivity and it is laminated, proper winding to
reduce magnetic flux loss.
iii. Concentrate and reduce loss of magnetic flux.
4. Vr.m.s. = 220/√2
= 155.6V
5. - Hysteresis loses.
- Copper loses.
- Iron loses.
6.
i. Ns = Vs = 5
Np Vp 6
ii. Is = 6
Ip 5

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7.
a.
i. Lenz’s law – The induced current flow is a direction such as to oppose the change
producing it.
ii. Faraday’s law – Whenever there is change in magnetic flux linked to a coil, a
current/e.m.f. is induced whose magnitude is proportional to the rate of change of
the flux (refer from A.F. Abbot)
b.
i. Energy is neither created nor destroyed. Joules per coulombs means voltage and
coulombs per second is current. If at the input V is high and I low then output
should have low V and high I so that V1I1 = V0I0.
ii. Ns = Vs = Ns = 9v ∴ Ns = 18 turns.
Np Vp 480 240v
8. Eddy current/self induction.
9. Lamination of the core.
10. Vs = Ip Ip = Vs x Is = 9 x 30 = 1.125A
Vp Is Vp 240
2 2
11. P=V R = 240 = 23.04Ω
R 2500
12.
a. The induced current flows in such a direction that its magnetic effect opposes the change
producing it.
b.
i. As the diaphragm vibrates, it causes the coil to move back and forth in the
magnetic field cutting the field lines; this causes a current to be induced in the coil
which causes a varying current flow.
ii. Increasing number of turns in the coil increasing the strength of the magnet.
c.
i. Vp = Np
Vs Ng
400 = 1200
Vs 120
Vs = 40V.
ii. Ps = Pp = 600 W
Is = 600 = 15A
40
iii. Ip = 600 = 1.5A
400
13.
a. 42.43V
b. 0.42A
c. 18w
14.
a. 750w
b. 31.25A
15. 94.5 cts
16. 3 x 106m = 3000km
17. 1.6w
18. Sh. 3.60

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Mains Electricity Questions and Answers - Physics Form 4 Topical

Revision
Questions
1. What current will a 500Ω resistor connected to a source of 240V draw?
2. Name a device used to change light energy directly into electrical energy.
3. When a current of 2.0A flows in a resistor for 10 minutes, 15000 Joules of electrical energy is
dissipated. Determine the voltage across the resistor.
4. An electric bulb rated 40W is operating on 240v mains. Determine the resistance of its filament.
5. An electric heater rated 240V, 3000V is to be connected to a 240V mains supply, through a 10A
fuse. Determine whether the fuse is suitable or not.
6. A 60W bulb is used continuously for 36 hours. Determine the energy consumed, giving your
answer in kilowatt hour (kwh)
7. How many 1000W electric irons could be safely be connected to a 240V mains circuit fitted with a
13A fuse?
8. Find the maximum number of 75W bulbs that can be connected to a 13A fuse on a mains supply of
240V.
9. Determine the cost of using an electrical iron box rated 1500W, for a total of 30 hours given that
the cost of electricity per kwh is Kshs. 8.
10. State Ohm’s law.
11. Electrical energy costs Kshs. 1 per Kwh unit. Find the cost of using an electric heater of power 1.5
Kw for a day.
12. The figure below represents part of the main circuit

i. Explain why it is not advisable to fix a fuse on neutral line.

ii. Explain why there are fuses of different rating in the distribution box.
13. Calculate the power of a devise which has a p.d of 250V applied across it when a current of 0.5A
passes through it.
14. An electric iron box is rated 2500W and uses a voltage of 240V. Given that electricity costs Kshs.
1.10 per Kwh, what is the cost of using it for 6 hours?

Answers
1. I = V/R
= 240 A
500
= 0.48 A
2. Solar (photo) cell.
3. Power = Energy used
Time taken

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Power = Current x Voltage

∴ 15000 = 2 x v
10 x 60
∴V= 15000 = 150
2 x 10 x 60 12
Voltage across resistor = 12.5V
4. P = V2/R
40 = 240 x 240
R
R = 240 x 240 Ω
40
= 1440Ω
5. Current in the heater = P/V = 3000/240 = 12.5A
Fuse not suitable since current exceeds the fuse value.
6. E = Pt
= 60 x 36 x 60 x 60J
E in Kwh = 60 x 36 x 60 x 60 KWh
1000 x 60 x 60
= 2.16 KWh
7. (No. of irons) x 1000 = IV
No. of irons = 13 x 240 = 3.12
100
=3
8. Maximum power = VI
= (240 x 13)W
No. of 75W bulbs = 240/75 x 13
= 3120/75
= 41.6
Maximum number bulbs = 41
9. No. of kwh = 1500kw/1000 x 30 Kwh
= 45Kwh
Cost = Kshs. (45 x 8)
= Kshs. 360/-
10. Current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to potential difference across its ends
provided temperature and other physical quantities remain constant.
11. No. of Kwh = (1.5 x 24)Kwh
= 36Kwh
Cost = No. of Kwh x price per Kwh
= (36 x 1) = 36Kwh.
12.
i. When a fault occurs on an electrical appliances damage will still be done since current
flows through the “live”
ii. There are different circuits and each carries a different amount of current.
13. Power = current x voltage.
= (0.5 x 250)W
= Kshs. 125W
14. Energy dissipated in 6hrs = (2.5 x 6)Kwh
Cost = Kshs. (15 x 1.10)
= Kshs. 16.50

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Cathode Rays and Cathode Ray Tube Questions and Answers -

Physics Form 4 Topical Revision
Questions
1. State two differences between the cathode ray tube (CRT) of a T.V and the cathode ray
oscilloscope (CRO)
2. Distinguish between a photon and a quantum.
3. How does the energy of ultra violet light compare to that of yellow light given that the energy E of
a wave frequency f, is given by E = hf, where h is plank’s constant?
4. A photon has an energy of 5x10-19J. Calculate the wavelength associated with this photon.
5. The control grid in a cathode Ray Oscilloscope (CRO) is used to control brightness of the beam on
the screen. How is this achieved?
6.
a. The figure below shows the features of a cathode ray tube.

i. Name the parts labelled A and B. (2mks)

ii. Explain how the electrons are produced in tube. (2mks)
iii. State two functions of the anodes. (2mks)
iv. At what part of the cathode ray tube would the time base be connected? (1mk)
v. Why is a vacuum created in the tube? (1mk)
b. The graph in the figure below was obtained on a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO) screen
when the output of an a.c generator was connected to the input of the CRO. The time-base
calibration of the CRP was set at 20 milliseconds per centimeter and the y- gain at 5 volts
per centimeter.

i. Determine the pick voltage of the generator. (2mks)

ii. Determine the frequency of the voltage. (3mks)
iii. On the same grid, redraw the graph for the same voltage when the time base
calibration is set at 40 milliseconds per centimeter and the 7-gain at 10 volts per
centimeter. (Show at least one complete cycle). (2mks)
7. The control grid in a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO) is used to control the brightness of the beam
on the screen. Explain how this is achieved.
8. State and explain three uses of main parts of a CRT in an oscilloscope.

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9. Sketch the picture seen on the screen of a cathode ray oscilloscope when the oscilloscope is
adjusted so that the spot is in the middle of the screen and the output terminals from a
transformer connected to the mains are connected across the Y-plates.
10. The diagram shows the screen of a cathode ray tube, and behind it the position of the X and y
plates which deflect the electron beam. The beam forms a spot on the screen.

a. Draw a labelled diagram showing a side view of the cathode ray tube.
b. How is the brightness of the spot controlled?
c. The “X-shift” control on the front of the cathode ray oscilloscope moves the spot sideways
on the screen. What kind of voltage direct, alternating or zero) does it apply to:
i. The X plates
ii. The Y plates
11. The ‘time–base’ voltage normally applied to the X-plates in a RCO varies with time as shown.

i. Describe the motion of the spot when the time-base is on.

ii. Illustrate on the diagram above what is seen on the screen if an alternating voltage is
applied to the Y-plates with the time-base on.
iii. State two uses of the CRO.

Answers
1. CRT
- Produces 625 times per second
- Has two time bases
- forms an image.
- Deflection is caused by magnetic field.
- displays pictures.

CRO
- Produces 25 lines per second
- Has one time base
- displays waves
- forms a spot on screen
- Deflection is caused by electric field.
2. Photon – particle of light energy.
Quantum – Packet of energy.
3. Ultra violet has a higher energy than yellow light.
4. E = hf = hc
λ
λ = 6.63 x 10-34 x 3 x 108
5 x 10-19

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λ = 3.978 x 10-7
5. Low negative voltage is applied on control grid, which controls the number of electrons reaching
the screen.
6.
a.
i. A – Grid
B – Filament
ii. Filament heats cathode electron boil off cathode (theremionic emission)
iii. - Accelerating
- Focusing.
iv. Across X-plates.
v. to reduce collision with air molecules that could lead to ionization.
b.
i. Height = 4cm
Peak value = 4 x 5 = 20V
ii. 2 wavelength = 16cm
T = 8 x 20 x 10-3
= 0.16s
F = 1/T = 1/0.16 = 6.25Hz
iii.

7. Low negative voltage is applied on control grid, which control the number of electrons reaching the
screen.
8.
i. Electron gun – produces direct electrons.
ii. Deflecting system – deflecting the beam to necessitate the study of external circuit.
iii. Fluorescent screen – to display the pattern being studied.

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X - Rays Questions and Answers - Physics Form 4 Topical Revision

Questions
1.
a. For a given source of X-rays, how would the following be controlled.
i. Intensity
ii. The penetrating power
iii. The exposure to patients
b. An accelerating potential of 20kv is applied to an X-ray tube.
i. What is the velocity with which the electron strikes the target?
ii. State the energy changes that take place at the target.
2. Explain why X-rays are appropriate in study of the crystalline structure materials.
3. Name the metal used to shield X-rays operators from the radiation. Give reasons why it is used.
4. An X-ray tube is operating with an anode potential of 10kV and a current of 15.0 mA.
a. Explain how the
i. Intensity of X-rays from such a tube may be increased.
ii. Penetrating power of X- rays from such a tube may be increased
b. Calculate the number of electrons hitting the anode per second.
c. Determine the velocity with which the electrons strike the target.
d. State one industrial use of X-rays.
5. State the properties of X-rays, which makes it possible to detect cracks in bones.
6. State one difference between hard X-rays and soft X-rays. (1mk)
7. A target was bombarded by electron accelerated by a voltage of 106 V. If all the K.E of the
electrons was converted to X-rays, calculate:-
a. The K.E of the electrons
b. The frequency of the photons emitted.
8. An X-rays tubes gives photons of 5.9 x 10-15 J of energy. Calculate:-
a. The wavelength of the photons.
b. The accelerating voltage
c. The velocity of the electrons hitting the target.
9. If accelerating voltage in an X-ray tube is 40kV, determine the minimum wavelength of the emitted
X-rays. (Electronic charge = -1.6 x 10-19C, planks constant = 6.6 x 10-34 Js, velocity of
electromagnetic waves = 3.0 x 108ms-1)
10. State the purpose of cooling fins in the X-ray tube.
11. X-rays are produced by a tube operating at 1 x 104V. Calculate their wavelength. (Take h= 6.6 x
10-34 Js, e= 1.6 x 10-19 C, c= 3x108ms-1)
12. State and explain the effect of increasing the EHT in an X- ray tube on the X-rays produced.

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Answers
1.
a.
i. Heater current or Filament current
ii. Anode Potential or operating potential
iii.
Covering with protective materials where X- rays are not required
Minimize exposure time as much as possible
Reduce no of exposures as much as possible
b.
i. ½ MeV2 = eV
V= √(2eV)
Me
= √2 x 1.76 x 109 x 20 x 103
= 6.39 x 107 m/s
ii. KE- Heat or internal energy and energy of x- rays or radiation.
2. X- rays have wavelengths of the order of the lattice spacing; and therefore they can be diffracted;
(Diffraction due to short wavelengths of x- rays). In calculation the atomic separation is equal to
slit separation- or grating separation. Lead because it is very dense, has high atomic mass.
3. Lead. It has a high atomic mass hence very dense. This enables it to stop or absorb X-rays
4.
a.
i. Increase the filament current
ii. Increase the anode potential
b. Q= it = 15 x 10-3 A x 1 is = 15 x 10-3C
Electron charge = 1.6 x 10-19 C
No. of electrons in 15 x 10-3C
= 15 x 10-3 = 9.38 x 1016 e/s
1.6 x 10-19
c. ½ mv2 = ev
V= √2eV
Me
(2 x 1.6 x 10-19 x 10 x 103)½
9.1 x 10-31
= 5.9 x 107 m/s
d. - Detecting flows/ fault in metals or other structures
- Quality control of manufactured items e.g. tyres, thickness of sheets, Paper.
- Analysis of gem stones
5. Highly penetrating in matter
6. Hard X- rays are more penetrating than soft X- rays due to their higher frequency.
7.
a. 1.6 x 10-13 J
b. 2.424 x 1020Hz
8.
a. 3.35 x 10-11m
b. 36,875V
c. 1.3 x 1016 m/s
9. 3.1 x 10-11m.
10. The fins are used to cool the copper rod which conducts heat away from the target when electrons

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hit the target

11. K.E on input = e.v
= 1.6 x 10-19 C x 1 x 104V
= 1.6 x 10–15 Joules
Energy of x- rays is hf
Where f= c
λ mm
hc = 1.6 x 10-15 Joules
λ mm
λ mm = 6.6 x 10-34 x 3 x 108
1.6 x 10-15
λ mm = 1.24 x 10-10 m
12. Hard x- rays produced higher EHT results in faster electrons hence higher energy x- rays.

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Photoelectric Effect Questions and Answers - Physics Form 4

Topical Revision
Questions
1. Light of frequency 5.5x 1014 Hz is made to strike a surface whose work function is 2.5ev. Show that
photoelectric effect will not take place. H= 6.6 X 1034Js
2. Photoelectrons emitted by illuminating a given metallic surface constitute a “photocurrent”. What
is the effect of increasing the intensity of the illumination of the magnitude of the photocurrent?
3. The diagram below shows a photocell in action

i. The photocell is either evacuated or filled with an inert gas at low pressure. Give one
reason for this
ii. What is the function of the resistor R in the circuit?
iii. State one reason for using a particular radiation such as ultraviolet for a given photocell.
iv. Explain how the set-up shown in the diagram may be used as an automatic switching
device for a burglar alarm.
4. A monochromatic beam of radiation is directed on a clean metal surface so as to produce
photoelectrons. Give a reason why some of the ejected photoelectrons have more kinetic energy
than others.
5.
a. Describe with the aid of a labelled diagram an experimental set-up for observing the
photoelectric effect.
b. The table shows the relationship between the wavelength of a radiation falling on a surface
and the energy, k of the emitted electrons.
λ (m) × 10-7 1.0 1.5 1.0 0.5
-19
K(J) × 10 10 13 20 40

i. Plot a graph of energy k(Y-axis) against the frequency, f, of the incident light.
ii. Determine the work function of the surface used (h=6.663 x 10-34Js)
6. Name a device used to convert light energy directly into electric energy.
7. Electrons emitted from a metal when light of a certain frequency is shone on the metal are found
to have a maximum energy of 8.0 x 10-19 J. If the work function of the metal is 3.2 x 10-19 J,
determine the wavelength of the light used.
8. The figure below shows ultra violet light striking a polished zinc plate placed on a negatively
charged gold leaf electroscope.

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Explain the following observation

i. The leaf of the electroscope falls.
ii. When the same experiment was repeated with a positively charged electroscope, the leaf
did not fall.
9. The work function of a certain material is 3.2 ev. Determine the threshold frequency for the
material. (1 electron volt (eV) = 1.6 x 10-19 and planks constant H= 6.62 x 10-34Js)
10. State what is meant by the term accommodation as applied to the human eye. (1 mk)
11. The graph in the figure below shows the variation of photoelectric current with applied voltage
when a surface was illuminated with light of a certain frequency.

Use this information in the figure to answer questions a and b.

a. On the same axes, sketch the graph of when light of higher intensity but same frequency is
used to illuminate the surface. (1 mk)
b. Explain your answer in a above . (1 mk)
12. Calculate the energy of a photon of red light and ultra-violet light
(λR = 7.0 x 10-7m: λv = 4.0 x 10-7m)
13. The wavelength of light from a sodium lamp is 5.9 x 10-7m. A 200W sodium vapour has an
efficiency of 40%. Calculate:
a. The energy of one quantum of sodium light.
b. The number of quanta emitted in one second
14. The threshold frequency for potassium is 5.37 x 1014 Hz. When the surface of potassium is
illuminated by another radiation, photoelectrons are emitted with a speed of 7.9 x 105 m/s
Calculate:
a. The work function for potassium
b. The k.e of the photoelectrons
c. The frequency of the second source
15. Explain the term “work function”
16. A metal has a work function of 2eV. Calculate the threshold wavelength of the metal given that e=
1.6 x 10-19C and h= 6.63 x 10-19C and Me = 9x 10-31kg.

Answers
1. Energy (incoming) = hf = 6.6 x 10-34 x 5.5 x 1014
= 3.63 x 10-19 J
= 3.63 x 10-19 = 2.27 eV
1.6 x 10-19
This energy is less than work function hence no photoelectric emission.
2. Higher photocurrents or more photoelectrons produced.

i. Reduce/ prevent collisions of electrons with air molecules and hence increase current
ii. Control/ limit current, lowers current
iii. The energy of the radiation must be greater than the work function of the emitting surface.
iv. Current flows when uv falls on the cathode; interruption of the uv beam cuts off the circuit:
use with relay to switch on a second circuit with alarm.
4. Electrons ejected from inside the metal lose more energy on the way out while those on the

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surface require very little work function to be removed.

5.
i.

ii. Work function is given by = hfo

fo is the x- intercept in the graph fo (from graph)
= 1.2 x 1015
Φ= 6. 63 x 10-34 js x 1.2 x 1015
= 7.95 x 10-19
6. Solar cell (photovoltaic); Photocell/ photo electric cell
7. hf = hfo + ½ mv2
Energy of photon (hf) = w.f + k.e
= 3.2 × 10-19 + 8.0 × 10-19
= 11.2 × 10-19
f=c
λ
hc
/λ = 11.2 × 10-19
λ = 3.0 x 108 x 6.64 x 10-34
11.2 x 10-19
= 1.76 x 10-7m
8.
i. Photo – electric effect takes place releasing the extra electrons.
ii. The electrons released are attracted back by the positive charge.
9. hf0 = 3.2 x 1.6 x 10-19 J
6. 62 x 10-34
f0 = 7.76 x 1014Hz
10. The process of the eye lens being adjusted to focus objects at various distances
11.
a.

b. - The higher the intensity

- Implies greater number of electrons and hence
- Higher saturation current
12. ER = 2.83 x 10-19J; 4.95 x 10-19J

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13.
a. 3.37 x 10-19J
b. 2.37 x 10-20J
14.
a. 3.56 x 10-19J
b. 2.84 x 10 -19J
c. 9.7 x 1014Hz
15. This is the minimum amount of work required to free an electron from a metal surface
16. No = hf0
f0 = w0
h
= 2.0 x 1.6 x 10-19 Hz
6.63 x 10-34
= 4.85 x 1014 Hz
λo = V/f
= 3.0 x 108 ms-1 Hz
4.85 x 1014s-1
= 6.2 x 10-7m
17. eV = ½ meV2
V2 = 2ev
Me

= 1.3 x 107 ms-1

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Radioactivity Questions and Answers - Physics Form 4 Topical

Revision
Questions
1.
a. What is meant by the following terms:

i. Radioactive decay
ii. isotope.
b. The table shows how the activity (disintegrations per minute) of a sample of carbon-14
varies with time (in years).
Time 0 2500 5000 7500 10000 12500 17250 20000
(grs)
Disintegr 15 11 8 5 4.0 3.2 1.6 1.2
ation/min

i. Plot a graph of activity against time (x-axis).

ii. Estimate the half-life of carbon-14 from the graph.
c.
i. Draw a labeled diagram of a Geiger- Muller tube.
ii. Explain how it detects radioactive particles/rays.
d. State one use of radioactivity in each of the following;
i. Medicine
ii. Agriculture.
iii. Radon gas 222 86Rn decays by emission of α particles. Show by use of an equation
the transformation of the gas.
iv. Give two uses of cobalt - 60 as a Radioactive source.
2. One of the isotopes of Uranium has a half life of 576 hours.
i. Complete the table to show how the mass varies with time from an initial mass of 1280 mg.
Time (Hours) 576 1152 1728 2304
Mass (mg)

ii. Explain whether the mass of the isotope will eventually reduce to zero.
3. State two factors that determine the extent of the damage to the body cell caused by the radiation
from radioactive substances.
4. How many neutrons does the nuclide 235 92U contain?
5. Name the quantities, which must be measured so as to determine the half-life of a radioactive
sample whose half-life is known to be a few hours.
6. Explain why α particles are more ionizing than β particles.
7. A radioactive carbon -14 decays to Nitrogen by beta emissions as shown.

Determine the values of x and y in the equation.

8. Alpha particles are more ionizing than Beta particles. Give one reason for this.
9. In a sample there are 5.12 x 1020 atoms of Krypton 92 initially. If the half-life of Krypton is 3.0s,
determine the number of atoms that will have decayed after 6s
10. Cobalt 60 is a radioisotope that has a half-life of 5.25 years. What fraction of the original atoms in

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a sample will remain after 21 years.

11. A nucleus is represented by 107 32x
State the number of neutrons in a nucleus.
12.
a. The figure below shows the path of radiation from a radioactive source after entering a
magnetic field. The magnetic field is directed into the paper and is perpendicular to the
place of the paper shown in the figure below.

i. Identify the radiation.

ii. Give a reason for your answer in (i) above
b. Below is a nuclear reaction

i. Identify the radiation K.

ii. Determine the values of X and Y.
c. The figure below shows a device for producing metal foils of constant thickness. Any
change in the thickness can be detected by the Geiger tube and recorded by the Geiger
cooler. The pressure exerted by the roller is then adjusted to keep the thickness constant.

i. State the change in the metal foil that will lead to a decrease in the Geiger counter
reading.
ii. Give a reason for your answer in (c) (i) above.
iii. State the change in the roller pressure that should be made as a result of this
decrease in the Geiger counter reading.
iv. Give a reason for your answer in (c) (iii) above.
v. Explain why a source emitting (alpha) particles only would not be suitable for this
device.
vi. Explain why a radioactive source of a half-life of 1,600 years is more suitable for
use in this device than one of half-life of 8 minutes.
13. The following is part of a radioactive decay series.

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Determine the values of a and b.

14.
a. A nucleus of an element X of atomic mass 238 and atomic number 92 decays by emitting 8
alpha particles and 10 beta particles and finally forms a nucleus of an element y. Write the
equation of the reaction.
b. Each of the following sentences describes a particular radiation from different radioactive
source. In each case name the type of radiation described and give a reason to support
your choice.
i. The radiation is not affected by either a magnetic or electrostatic field.
Type or radiation.............
Reason..........................
ii. The radiation is emitted from 238 - U when it decays to 234 90U
Type or radiation.............
Reason..........................
iii. The radiation is very strongly deflected by a weak magnetic field.
Type of radiation.............
Reason..........................
15. The half-life of a certain radioactive substance is 57 days. Explain the meaning of this statement.
16. The figure below shows a Geiger Muller (G.M.) tube.

i. Give the reason why the mica window is made thin.

ii. Explain how the radiation entering the tube through the window is detected by the tube.
iii. What is the purpose of the halogen vapour?
17. Balance the nuclear reaction equation below.

18. Given that 5g of cobalt-60 is kept in a laboratory and it has a half-life of 5 years.
Calculate its mass after 15 years.

Answers
1.
a.
i. Radioactive Decay – spontaneous disintegration of the molecules and atom or
emission of or α or β accompanied by release of energy and readjustment of the
nuclide.
ii. Isotope: Is a nuclide, which has same no. of proton but different atomic mass, same
atomic number but different mass number, same chemical behavior but different
properties.

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b.
c.
i.

ii. -When an alpha or beta particle or gamma ray enters the tube through the mica
window, they ionize the gas inside the tube.
-The electrons produced are accelerated by the central electrode and in turn they
produce more electrons by collision.
-This avalanche of electrons forms a pulse of current, which, after amplification, is
used to operate a rate meter or counter.
-If a small loud speaker is connected a click will be heard every time a particle or
gamma photon enters the tube.
d.
i. Medicine: Deep penetrating gamma rays are used in the treatment of cancerous
growth.
ii. Agriculture: To determine the age of plant material and the movement of minerals
implants.
2.
i.
Time (Hours) 576 1152 1728 2304
Mass (mg) 640 320 160 80

ii. It will be zero

3. -Dosage
-Type of radiation
-Penetrating power
-Part of body exposed
4. 235 – 92 = 143 Neutrons
5. -Mass of that radioactive material
-Time taken to reduce to half
6. α Particles doubly charged and attracted electrons more.
α More massive i.e more momentum and not easily deflected
7.

14 = x + 0 thus x = 14
6 = 7 + y thus y = -1

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8. α - particles doubly charged and attract electrons more.

α more massive i/e more momentum and not easily deflected.
9. After 3s number decayed
½ x 5.12 x 1020 = 2. 56 x 1020
Next 3s number decayed
= ½ x 5.12 x 1020 = 2.56 x 1020
∴ Total number decayed
= (1.28 + 2.56) x 1020
= 3.84 x 1020
10. No of T½ = 4
Thus fraction = (1/2)4 = 1/16
11. Number of neutrons = 107 – 32 = 65
12.
a.
i. Beta particle (β – particle)
ii. A force is to the center of the circle implying negatively charged (Fleming’s L HR
(etc)
b.
i. Alpha particle ( particle)
ii. X- 88
Y – 228
c.
i. Increase in thickness
ii. Increase in thickness reduces the number of radiations reaching the Geiger tube.
iii. Increase roller pressure
iv. Increase in roller pressure squeezes/ presses/ compresses metal sheet more
reducing thickness of the foil coming out of them.
v. Alpha particles have low penetration power and so will not pass/ very few will pass
though sheet.
vi. If a half life is short, decay rate reduces very fast with time and so this sudden
change may be mistaken a shaving resulted from increase in thickness OR would be
detecting as change in thickness of foil, so longer half- life is more suitable
13. a= 234
b= 82
14.
a.

b.
i. Gamma rays- not charges
ii. Alpha particles: mass number decreases by 4 and atomic number decreases by 2
iii. Beta particles: easily deflected because they are light and carries little charge.
15. The substance takes 57 days to reduce its remaining mass by half.
16.
i. Alpha particles are weak in penetrating solid. So it has to be thin to allow enough alpha
particles to enter for ionization to take place.
ii. It causes ionization of the gas inside. The +ve ions move to the –ve plate and –ve ions

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move to the +ve terminal. This causes a flow of charge which is amplified and then fed to
the counter.
iii. It controls the extent of ionization without causing avalanche flow of charge.
17.

18. Year Amount

0 5
5 2.5
10 1.25
15 0.625
The mass will be 0.625g

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Electronics Questions and Answers - Physics Form 4 Topical

Revision
Questions
1. Sketch curves to show the variation of current and time as displayed on the CRO in each of the
diagrams below

2. State the majority carriers for a p-type semi conductor.

3.
a. Using examples explain the difference between a semiconductor and a good conductor.
b. A radio repairer wishes to use an ammeter to detect a faulty diode. With the aid of a circuit
diagram describe how he will go about this task.
4. p- type and n-type semiconductors are made from a pure semiconductor by a process known as
“doping”.
i. What is doping?
ii. Explain how the doping produces an n-type semiconductor.
5. Sketch a current-voltage characteristic of a junction diode with a forward bias.
6. Using the components symbols shown in the figure below, sketch a series circuit diagram for a
forward biased diode.

7.
a. Distinguish between semiconductors and conductors
b. Give an example of a semiconductor and one for a conductor.
8. In the circuit below, when the switch s is closed, the voltmeter shows a reading.

When the cell terminals are reversed and the switch is closed, the voltmeter reading is
zero. Explain these observations.
9. What is meant by Donor Impurity in semiconductors.
10. You are provided with a diode, a resisitor R, an a.c source of low voltage and connecting wires. In
the space provided, sketch the circuit diagram for a half-wave rectifier and indicate the terminals
where the output voltage v0 may be connected. (2mks)
11. Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semi-conductors.
12. The diagram below shows a rectifier circuit for an alternating current (a.c) input.

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i. Describe the rectification process.

ii. Draw the traces of the signal obtained on CRO connected across QS and PR.

Answers
1.

2. Positive holes
3.
a. Semi- conductor- conducting is by holes
Conductors- Conducting is by electrons.

Examples
Semi conductors - silicon
Conductor – copper, tin, iron
b.

Connect diode and check whether current flows reverse terminals of diode and check
again.
If it doesn’t conduct at all or it gives equal deflections when reversed, then it is spoiled. It
should give deflection when connected in one way and not the other.
4.
i. Introducing group III or V ( impurities to group 4 elements to improve their conduction
ii. The group V elements form covalent bonds with the semiconductor atoms using 4 electrons
each. Thus an electron is left free for conduction.
5.

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6.

7.
i. Semiconductors are from group 4 while conductors are from group 1,2 or 3.
Semiconductors poor conductors at low temp and improves conduction as temp increases.
The conductors are good conductors at low temp and increases resistance with increase in
temp.
ii. Semi- conductors- Germanium, silicon
Conductor – copper, silver, aluminum, etc.
8. - Diode is forward – biased: current flows
- Diode- reverse- biased; no current flows.
9. Is the atom introduced into the semiconductor (doping) to provide an extra electron for conduction
10.

11. Intrinsic semiconductors are pure materials which conduct electricity under suitable conditions like
increase in temperature.
Extrinsic semiconductors are materials that have been fitted with impurities.
12.
i.

During the first half-cycle, D1, and D4, are forward biased while D2, and D3, are reverse
biased. The path of the current is thus AQPRSB. During the second half-cycle, diodes D2,
and D3, become forward biased while D1 and D4, are reverse biased. The path of the
conventional current is then BSPRQA.

Notice that during both half-cycles, current flows through the load resistor R, in the same
directions.

ii.

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