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ATA06: DIMENSION AND AREAS

1 The reference (station 0) for all structural measurements in the X axis is located
(A, B1, B2)
A. At the rib 1 of the aircraft.
B. 100 in (254cm) forward of aircraft nose.
C. 251.2 in. (638.2 cm) forward of the aircraft nose.

2 The station number is: (A, B1, B2)

A. The distance in millimeters of a cross section from a reference point.
B. The distance in inches of a cross section from a reference point.
C. The distance in millimeters of a cross section from the A/c axis.

3 Each area is identified by: (A, B1, B2)

A. The major zones, the sub-zones, the zones.
B. The zones and sub-zones.
C. The major zones and the zones

4 Each major zone is identified by: (A, B1, B2)

A. Three digit number and two letters
B. Three digit number
C. The first digit of three digit number.

5 There are how many major zones in the aircraft? (A, B1, B2)
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10

6 Access doors and panels are identified by: (A, B1, B2)
A. The number of the zone in which the panel is located followed by a two-letter
suffix.
B. The number of the zone in which the panel is located followed by one letter
suffix.
C. A two-letter followed by the number of the zone in which the panel is located
suffix.

ATA 07 - LIFTING & SHORING

7 THE NUMBER OF JACKS USED DURING LIFTING THE ENTIRE A/C

ARE? (A,B1,B2)
A. One in the front and one under each wing
B. One in the rear (FR 80) and one under each wing
C. One in the front, One in the rear and one under each wing

8 HOW MANY POINTS ON THE STRUCTURE ARE DESIGNATED FOR THE

PURPOSE OF LIFTING THE AIRCRAFT? (A,B1,B2)
A. 3
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B. 4
C. 2

9 PREPAIRING AIRPLANE LIFTING WE NEED (A, B1, B2)

A. Open 3 access panels and install jack pads
B. Open 2 access panels only and we do not need install jack pads
C. Just install 3 jack pads

10 THE TAIL SAFETY STAY IS USED TO: (A,B1,B2)

A. Share load with the main jacks during jacking process
B. Keep the aircraft more stable during landing gear retraction/ extension tests
C. Keep the aircraft stable on jacks

11 WHAT IS CORRECT ANSWER? (B1,B2)

A. You can not lift the aircraft with jacks when the tires and the shock absorbers are
deflated.
B. You can not lift the aircraft at the forward jacking point only, with the wheels of
the main landing gear on the ground
C. You must not apply more than the safe load at each jacking point.

12 WHAT IS THE CONFIGURATION OF THE AIRCRAFT READY FOR

JACKING? (B1,B2)
A. Wheel chocks ON, Parking brake ON.
B. Wheel chocks OFF, Parking brake OFF.
C. Wheel chocks ON, Parking brake OFF.

13 BEFORE JACKING AIRPLANE WE MAKE SURE THAT (A, B1, B2)

A. Parking brake released
B. Landing gear downlock pins installed
C. Jacks are serviceable and leveled
D. All above A, B and C.

14 DISTRIBUTION OF LOAD MUST BE CLEARLY INDICATED AT? (B1)

A. Forward and wing jacking points.
B. Forward, wing and tail jacking points.
C. Tail jacking point.

15 DURING JACKING FOR MAIN LDG WHEEL CHANGE, WE CAN:

(A,B1,B2)
A. Cargo, PAX loading.
B. Gate docking.
C. Installation of the wheel chocks on the wheels of the other main LDG.

16 APPLICATION OF FLIGHT CONFIGURATION PRECAUTION IS

REQUIRED WHEN (A,B1,B2)
A. Lifting the aircraft on jacks.
B. Jacking a MLG for wheels change.
C. Lifting the aircraft at Forward Jacking Point, MLG Wheels on the Ground.
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17 BEFORE JACKING THE AIRCRAFT, PREPARE THE FLIGHT

CONFIGURATION PRECAUTION: (B1, B2)
A. Any time, even if for the wheel change.
B. If electrical power is supplied to the airplane while it is on jacks .
C. Only if APU is not started.

18 THE PURPOSE OF SHORING OF THE AIRCRAFT IS : (B1)

A. Give a support to the wing in order to release the loads on the structure.
B. Keep the aircraft more stable on jacks.
C. Both of the above.

19 IN WHICH DOCUMENT YOU WILL FIND THE DETAIL INSTRUCTION

FOR SHORING THE AIRCRAFT? (B1)
A. SRM chapter 51.
B. AMM chapter 51.
C. AMM chapter 07.

20 WHAT IS THE INCORRECT STATEMENT REGARDING JACKING

OPERATION:
A. Make sure that you operate all the jacks at the same time to keep the aircraft in the
same attitude
B. Keep the safety locknuts of the hydraulic jacks in contact with the jack collars as
you lift the aircraft.
C. Make sure that the aircraft electrical network is energized.

ATA 08 - LEVELING AND WEIGHING

21 THE MAIN PUPOSE OF WEIGHING AIRCRAFT IS: (A, B1, B2)

A. Calculate the position of the center of gravity
B. Calculate of aircraft weight
C. Know the aircraft weight for passenger loading

22 WHEN WEIGHING THE AIRCRAFT TO FIND THE OPERATING EMPTY

WEIGHT OF THE AIRCRAFT (B1, B2)
A. All the fire extinguishers, oxygen masks and safety belts must be removed
B. Engine, APU, IDG oil must refill to necessary level.
C. Hydraulic fluid must be empty

23 CONFIGURATION FOR AIRCRAFT WEIGHING TO FIND THE

OPERATING EMPTY WEIGHT: (B1, B2)
A. All the fire extinguishers, oxygen masks and safety belts must be removed
B. All tools and protection devices on the aircraft must be removed
C. Empty all of Engine, APU, IDG oil.

24 WHEN LIFTING THE AIRCRAFT FOR LEVELING (A, B1, B2)

A. You must not lift the aircraft with the safety stay.
B. The weight of fuel is applied equally on the two side of the aircraft centerline
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C. Make sure that the aircraft is stable before you lift it with jacks
D. All above

25 WHEN LIFTING THE AIRCRAFT (A, B1, B2)

A. All the doors must be closed and locked.
B. Passenger/crew door may be fully opened and locked but the cargo doors must be
closed and locked.
C. The passenger/crew doors, the emergency exits and the cargo doors are closed
and locked or fully open and locked.

26 YOU CAN WEIGH THE AIRCRAFT WITH: (B1, B2)

A. The aircraft on its wheels only
B. The aircraft on landing gear jacks only
C. The aircraft on jacks or the aircraft on its wheels or the aircraft on landing gear
jacks

27 WHEN WEIGHING THE AIRCRAFT ON JACKS (B1)

A. The aircraft must have a pitch attitude of zero deg.
B. You can do this procedure with load cells on each jack or with platform scales
under each jack
C. Make the aircraft leveling after jack up.
D. All Above

28 FOR AIRCRAFT QUICK LEVELING YOU CAN USE (B1)

A. The ADIRU or the Attitude Monitor
B. A Spirit Level in the Passenger Compartment
C. A Spirit Level in the FWD Cargo Compartment
D. All above

ATA 09 - TOWING & TAXIING:

29 WHEN THE NLG DIMENSION H IS MORE THAN 310 MM (A,B1,B2)
A. Do not tow the aircraft to prevent damage to the centering cams.
B. Do not tow the aircraft to prevent tail to ground contact.
C. Smooth and speed limited towing is possible.
Ref: AMM TASK 09-10-00 page block 201
30 IF AN ENGINE IS RUNNING (A, B1,B2)
A. You can tow the aircraft from the front only.
B. You can push the aircraft only.
C. Either tow or push is possible.
Ref: AMM TASK 09-10-00 page block 201
31 TOWING THE AIRCRAFT IS (A, B1,B2)
A. Allowed with one engine running above idle.
B. Allowed with both engines running up to idle.
C. Allowed only with one engine running up to idle.
Ref: AMM TASK 09-10-00 page block 201
32 WHAT IS THE CORRECT SEQUENCE? (A,B1,B2)
A. Install the tow bar on the tow fitting then install the tow lever safety pin
B. Install the tow lever safety pin then install the tow bar on the tow fitting.
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C. There is no specific sequence

Ref: AMM TASK 09-10-00 page block 201
33 WHAT INDICATION ON ECAM DO YOU HAVE TO CHECK PRIOR TO
START TOWING? (A,B1,B2)
A. NW STRG DISC
B. NW STRG INOP
C. NW STRG OFF.
Ref: AMM TASK 32-40-00 page block 201
34 FROM COCKPIT HOW CAN YOU KNOW THAT THE BRAKE ARE
RELEASE PRIOR TO TOWING THE AIRCARFT? (A,B1,B2)
A. Check Parking brake selector in OFF, brake pressure indication on ECAM is at 0
and confirm with GND personnel.
B. Check Parking brake selector in OFF; check all the 03 pointes are at green range
and confirm with GND personnel.
C. Check Parking brake selector in OFF; brake pressure pointes at 0 and confirm
with GND personnel.
Ref: AMM TASK 32-40-00 page block 201
35 IN TOWING CONFIGURATIONS THE SAFETY PIN LOCKS THE
CONTROL LEVER ON THE INTERPHONE BOX IN: (A, B1, B2)
A. Disengaged position.
B. Engaged position.
C. Normal position.
Ref: AMM TASK 09-10-00 page block 201

36 COMMUNICATION SYSTEM(S) TO BE USED DURING TOWING IS

(ARE)? (A,B1,B2)
A. VHF and FLT INT.
B. VHF or HF with FLT INT.
C. VHF only.
Ref: AMM TASK 09-10-00 page block 201
37 WHEN ONE TIRE IS DEFLATED ON ONE MAIN GEAR: (B1, B2).
A. The aircraft can be towed by the nose gear only.
B. The aircraft can be towed by the main gear only.
C. The aircraft can not be towed
Ref: AMM TASK 09-10-00 page block 201
ATA 10 PARKING & MOORING
38 WHEN DOING THE AIRCRAFT PARKING NOT MORE THAN 15 DAYS
(B1, B2)
A. You can do the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days one time
only.
B. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days one
time only.
C. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 15 days several
times.

39 When doing the aircraft parking not more than 12 weeks (B1, B2)
A. You can do the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks one time
only
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B. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks one
time only.
C. You can do again the procedure to park the aircraft not more than 12 weeks
several times

40 During parking period of not more than 12 weeks, which periodic ground checks
do you must perform? (B1, B2)
A. 7-day intervals and 15-day intervals.
B. 7-day intervals, 15-day intervals and 1-month intervals.
C. 7-day intervals, 15-day intervals, 1-month intervals and 3 month intervals.

41 When doing periodic ground check at 7-day intervals during parking period of
not more than 15 days or 12 weeks (B1, B2)
A. You must do a check of the hydraulic reservoir level.
B. You must do the slat/flap extension and retraction.
C. You must do engine cranking.

42 When doing periodic ground check at 15-day intervals during parking period of
not more than 12 weeks. (B1, B2)
A. You must do the engine cranking only
B. You must do the engines start and let them become stable at ground idle then do a
thrust reverser full cycle.
C. You must do the engines run-up at high power for 5 minute.

43 For a storage the aircraft with period of not more than 6 months or not more
than 2 years (B1, B2)
A. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees up
B. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees down
C. You must make sure that the THS is set to neutral position.

44 When mooring the aircraft (B1, B2)

A. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees up
B. You must make sure that the THS is set to two degrees down
C. You must make sure that the THS is set to neutral position.

45 The A330 aircraft is moored at (A, B1, B2)

A. The NLG only.
B. The NLG and MLG.
C. The MLG only.

ATA12 SERVICING:

46 When you do the Aircraft Grounding for the Refuel/Defuel Operations (A, B1,
B2)
A. Connect the ground cable to parking ground point before you connect it to the
aircraft
B. Attach the cable to aircraft first then connect to parking ground point
C. Grounding is not necessary.
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Ref.: AMM 12-34-24 PB201.

47 Safety requirements for aircraft Refueling and defueling are: (A, B1, B2)
A. Do not operate the cell phones or mobile phones inside distances for 6m from
aircraft.
B. Do not connect electrical equipment to a power source less than 15 m away from
aircraft, unless the power source has spark-proof connectors
C. Do not operate the fuel tanker/pump until you turn off the weather radar
D. All above
Ref.: AMM 12-11-28-650-801.

48 During aircraft Refueling or defueling (A, B1, B2)

A. APU starts or shutdowns are permitted.
B. An APU start is not permitted if the APU has failed to start or an automatic
shutdown has occurred.
C. A & B
Ref.: AMM 12-11-28-650-801.

49 During the refueling you must, if the ramp does not slope (A, B1,B2)
A. Move the aft NLG chocks away from the tires
B. Make sure that the chocks do not touch the MLG tires
C. A & B
Ref.: AMM 12-11-28-650-801.

50 When you do the refueling / defuelling in the Hangar (A,B1,B2)

A. The hangar doors must be closed until you have completed the refuel/defuel
procedure
B. The hangar doors must not be closed until you have completed the refuel/defuel
procedure
C. There is no requirement for hangar door
Ref.: AMM 12-11-28-650-802.

51 The maximum safety pressure for refueling is: (A,B1,B2)

A. 45psi
B. 50psi
C. 60psi
Ref.: AMM 12-11-28-650-803.

52 When you do the aircraft pressure refueling with manual control (A,B1,B2)
A. Put the MODE SELECT switch to the REFUEL position
B. Put the REFUEL VALVES switch(es) for the applicable fuel tank(s) to the OPEN
position and for the tank(s) which will not be refuelled to the SHUT position.
C. A & B
Ref.: AMM 12-11-28-650-804.

53 When you do the servicing of the Oxygen Replenishing (A, B1, B2)
A. Keep all hydrocarbons (fuels, lubricants, etc.) away from all sources of oxygen.
oxygen becomes explosive when it touches hydrocarbons.
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B. Obey these special precautions.

C. Both A & B
Ref.: AMM 12-14-35 PB301.

54 When you do Gravity Servicing of the APU Oil Reservoir

A. Make sure that the hydraulic systems are depressurized and Put the warning
notice in position on the panel 215VU to tell persons not to start the APU
B. The hydraulic systems are pressurized, do not start the APU.
C. The hydraulic systems are depressurized is necessary only.
Ref.: AMM 12-13-49 PB301.

ATA-20: STANDARD PRACTICES & DOCUMENTATION

55 Where can you find characteristics and complimentary information of the Part
Number: (B1,B2)
A. IPC or AMM
B. ASM or AMM
C. IPC or ESPM
Ref :ESPM/ introduction/ interfaces with other manuals :
The Standard Manual (SM) and the Illustrated Part Catalogue (IPC):
These manuals help the user find characteristics and complementary information (furnisher,
equivalent P/N) for the required P/N.

56 Where you can find procedure for installation of the Push Button switch: (B2)
A. AMM
B. ASM
C. ESPM
Ref: ESPM/ 20-45-22/ procedure.

57 In the AMM tasks, “WARNING” is meant: (A,B1,B2)

A. Calls attention to use of materials, processes, methods, procedures or limits which
must be followed precisely to avoid injury of death to persons
B. Calls attention to methods and procedures which be followed to avoid damage to
equipment
C. Calls attention to methods which make the job easier or provide supplementary or
explanatory information
Ref: ESPM/ introduction/ 3. Definitions:
- WARNING:
Calls attention to use of material, processes, methods, procedures or limits which must be
followed precisely to avoid injury or death to persons.

58 In the AMM tasks, “CAUTION” is meant: (A,B1,B2)

A. Calls attention to use of materials, processes, methods, procedures or limits which
must be followed precisely to avoid injury of death to persons

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B. Calls attention to methods and procedures which be followed to avoid damage to

equipment
C. Calls attention to methods which make the job easier or provide supplementary or
explanatory information
Ref: ESPM/ introduction/ 3. Definitions:
CAUTION:
Calls attention to methods and procedures which be followed to avoid damage to equipment.

59 In the AMM tasks, “NOTE” is meant: (A,B1,B2)

A. Calls attention to use of materials, processes, methods, procedures or limits which
must be followed precisely to avoid injury of death to persons
B. Calls attention to methods and procedures which be followed to avoid damage to
equipment
C. Calls attention to methods which make the job easier or provide supplementary or
explanatory information
Ref: ESPM/ introduction/ 3. Definitions:
NOTE:
Calls attention to methods which make the job easier or provide supplementary or
explanatory information.

60 The Wiring Diagram Manual (WDM) content: (B1,B2)

A. ASM & AWM
B. ASM & AWL
C. ASM, AWM and AWL
Ref: ESPM/ introduction// interfaces with other manuals:
In the WDM (AWM/ASM/AWL).

61 You can access to the Aircraft Wiring List (AWL) by: (B2)
A. Fin using the EQUIPMENT LIST or HOOK-UP LIST
B. Fin using the EQUIPMENT LIST or HOOK-UP LIST or by wire number using
the MASTER WIRE LIST
C. Wire number using the MASTER WIRE LIST
Ref: AWL/ introduction/ how to access.

62 ASM gives: (B1,B2)

A. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault
isolation
B. Wiring diagrams of the electrical installation
C. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring
Ref: ESPM/ introduction/ interfaces with other manuals.

63 TSM gives: (B1,B2)

A. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual
B. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring
C. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault
isolation
Ref: ESPM/ introduction/ interfaces with other manuals .

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64 AWM gives: (B2)

A. Wiring diagrams of the electrical installation
B. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault
isolation
C. The status of the item of equipment, semi-equipment and related wiring
Ref: ESPM/ introduction/ interfaces with other manuals.

65 AMM gives: (A,B1,B2)

A. Information required for trouble shooting is contained in the manual
B. The information required to service, repair, replace, adjust, inspect and check
equipments and systems of the A/C normally performed on the ramp or in the
maintenance hangar
C. Schematic diagrams of the electrical installation with sufficient data for A/C fault
isolation
Ref: ESPM/ introduction/ interfaces with other manuals.

ATA 21 - AIR CONDITIONING

66 AIR CONDITIONING IS ACHIEVED BY: (A,B1,B2)
A. Two packs and two recirculation fans.
B. Three packs and two recirculation fans.
C. Two packs.

67 THE PURPOSE OF THE PACK IS: (A,B1,B2)

A. To provide the full temperature regulation.
B. To provide the basic temperature regulation.
C. To provide the not temperature regulated cold air.

68 WHEN DOES THE FLOW CONTROL VALVE FULLY OPEN? (A,B1,B2)

A. If the APU load valve is open.
B. During take-off and landing phases.
C. If one engine is off.

69 WHEN DOES THE FLOW CONTROL VALVE PNEUMATICALLY CLOSE?

(B1)
A. CDS overheat detection.
B. PDS overheat detection.
C. CPNOH overheat detection.

70 WHEN DOES THE EMERGENCY RAM AIR INLET FLAP OPEN? (A,B1,B2)
A. The ram air p/b is selected ON and ditching p/b selected OFF.
B. The ditching p/b is selected ON and delta P inferior a 1 psi
C. AUTO opening when loss of both packs.

71 WHAT IS NUMBER OF OUTFLOW VALVES, SAFETY VALVES AND

NEGATIVE PRESSURE RELIEF VALVES? (A,B1,B2)
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A. One outflow valve, Two safety valve and One negative pressure relief valve.
B. Two outflow valve, Two safety valve and One negative pressure relief valve.
C. One outflow valve, One safety valve and One negative pressure relief valve.
72 WHAT IS PURPOSE OF THE NEGATIVE PRESSURE RELIEF VALVE?
(A,B1,B2)
A. To avoid over-temperature.
B. To prevent negative differential pressure.
C. To prevent positive differential pressure.

73 WHAT IS PURPOSE OF THE SAFETY VALVES? (A,B1,B2)

A. To avoid negative differential pressure.
B. To replace the outflow valve.
C. To prevent excessive differential pressure.

74 WHEN DO THE ISOLATION VALVES CLOSE? (B1)

A. If bulk cargo smoke is detected.
B. If the extraction fan fails.
C. In case of both packs off.

75 THE SUPPLY VALVE IS.... (B1,B2)

A. ......Pneumatically actuated, electrically controlled and spring loaded open.
B. ......Pneumatically actuated, and controlled and spring loaded closed.
C. ......Pneumatically actuated, electrically controlled and spring loaded closed.

76 WHICH CONTROLLER DETERMINES THE PACK TEMPERATURE

DEMAND? (A,B1,B2)
A. Pack controllers.
B. Zone controllers.
C. Bleed monitoring computers.

77 WHICH COMPONENTS ARE TIED TO THE PACK TEMPERATURE

REGULATION? (B1)
A. TCV, PTS and ram air door.
B. FCV, PTS and ram air door.
C. TCV, TAV and ram air door.

78 ON ECAM, THE PACK PARAMETERS SYNOPTIC ARE LOCATED:

(A,B1,B2)
A. On the AIR COND page.
B. On the PRESS page.
C. On the BLEED page.

79 THE TRIM AIR VALVES ARE CONTROLLED BY: (A,B1,B2)

A. The pack controllers for the basic temperature regulation.
B. Two zone controllers for the fine adjustment of temperature.
C. One zone controller for the fine adjustment of temperature.

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80 THE AIR CONDITIONING BAY VENTILATION SYSTEM IS MONITORED

BY: (A,B1,B2)
A. The Ventilation Controller.
B. The AEVC.
C. The Pack controllers.

81 THE LAVATORY AND GALLEY EXTRACTION FAN: (A,B1,B2)

A. Operates continuously in flight and on ground.
B. Operates continuously in flight only
C. Operates continuously in flight and on ground when Delta P lower than 1 PSI.

82 THE PURPOSE OF THE FLOW CONTROL VALVE IS: (A,B1,B2)

A. To adjust the flow coming form the outlet of the pack.
B. To adjust the flow going to the pack and to the trim air duct.
C. To regulate the flow going to the pack inlet only.

83 THE FUNCTION OF EACH PACK CONTROLLER IS TO ENSURE:

(A,B1,B2)
A. The air flow regulation and basic temperature controls.
B. The air flow regulation control only.
C. The fine adjustment of the temperature control only.

84 FWD AND AFT OUTFLOW VALVES OPERATE: (A,B1,B2)

A. In automatic mode only, under control of CPC's.
B. In automatic mode, or in manual mode, or in mixed mode.
C. In automatic mode only under control of the FMGEC's.

85 THE SUPPLY OF THE AVIONICS VENTILATION SYSTEM IS ENSURED

BY: (A,B1,B2)
A. The recirculation fans of the cabin ventilation system.
B. A specific blowing fan continuously powered on ground.
C. A specific blowing fan powered on ground and in flight when DELTA P lower
than one PSI.

ATA 22- AUTO FLIGHT

86 THE ALPHA FLOOR SIGNAL IS ACQUIRED FROM THE (B2):
A. Flight Control Primary Computer (FCPC).
B. Flight Envelope (FE) itself.
C. Flight Management (FM).
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- Flight envelope part.

87 BACK-UP CENTER OF GRAVITY ARE COMPUTED BY (B2):

A. Flight Management.
B. Flight Envelope.
C. Flight Guidance.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- Flight envelope part.

88 THE FLIGHT DIRECTOR (FD) BARS ARE(B2):

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A. Two bars, one for Pitch and one for Roll.

B. Two bars, one for Pitch, one for Roll, and also for a Yaw order during take-off
and landing roll-out.
C. Three bars, one for Pitch, one for Roll, and the third for Yaw axis which is always
present.
Ref: AMM 22-10-00 page block 001

89 THE AUTOPILOT (AP) DISENGAGES WITH AN OVERRIDE ON

THE(A,B1,B2):
A. Pedals.
B. Side-sticks.
C. Pedals or side-sticks.
Ref: AMM 22-11-00 page block 001

90 THE FLIGHT CONTROL UNIT (FCU) IS NORMALLY USED

FOR(A,B1,B2):
A. A long-term order selection.
B. A short-term order selection.
C. Order selection, if the guidance is managed.
Ref: AMM 22-10-00 page block 001

91 POSITION COMPUTATION, LATERAL AND VERTICAL NAVIGATION

AND PERFORMANCE, ARE FUNCTIONS OF(B2):
A. Flight Management (FM).
B. Flight Guidance (FG).
C. Flight Envelope (FE).
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 22- Flight Management part.

92 DETECTION, ISOLATION, MEMORIZATION OF AN AUTO FLIGHT

SYSTEM (AFS) FAILURE IS PERFORMED BY THE(A,B1,B2):
A. Fault Isolation and Detection System (FIDS), active in Flight Management
Guidance and Envelope Computer (FMGEC) 1.
B. FIDS, active in FMGEC2.
C. FIDS, active in FMGEC1 and 2.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- AFS general –FIDS presentation.

93 THE FUNCTION WHICH HAS FULL AUTHORITY ON THE

AUTOTHRUST IS (B1,B2):
A. Windshear detection.
B. Alphafloor acquisition.
C. Aft Center of Gravity (CG) detection.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- Flight Envelope part.

94 AUTOTHRUST FUNCTION IS DISENGAGED: (B1,B2):

A. Only automatically after a system failure.
B. Either by a pilot action or in case of a system failure.
C. Manually by pressing the A/THR P/B on the Flight Control Unit (FCU) or
automatically after a system failure.
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Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- Flight Guidance part.

95 IF NO FLIGHT DIRECTOR (FD) IS ENGAGED AND AUTOPILOT 2 (AP2)

IS ENGAGED, THE MASTER FLIGHT MANAGEMENT GUIDANCE AND
ENVELOPE COMPUTER (FMGEC) IS(B2):
A. FMGEC 1.
B. FMGEC 2.
C. FMGEC 1 and FMGEC 2.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- Flight Guidance part.

96 WHEN THE FLIGHT MANAGEMENT (FM) SOURCE SELECTOR SWITCH

IS SET TO THE "BOTH ON 1" POSITION, THE FM WHICH WORKS
IS(B2):
A. FM 1 which is the source for MCDU 1 and 2.
B. FM 1 which is the source for MCDU 1 only.
C. FM 2 which is the source for MCDU 1 only.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- Flight Management part.

97 THE BACK-UP NAV FUNCTION IS ACTIVATED(B2):

A. Through the SELECT Back-UP NAV prompt on the MCDU MENU page.
B. Through the SELECT Back-UP NAV prompt on the MCDU A/C STATUS page.
C. Automatically in case of failure of both Flight Managements (FMs) provided the
FM source selector is in the NORM position.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- Flight Management part.

98 WITH AN AP ENGAGED, PRESSING THE "PRIORITY P/B" ON A SIDE

STICK(B1, B2):
A. Disengages the AP.
B. Overrides the AP without disengagement.
C. There is no effect.
Ref: AMM 22-11-00 page block 001

99 FLIGHT MANAGEMENT AND GUIDANCE INFORMATION IS

DISPLAYED ON THE (A,B1,B2):
A. MCDU and the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) Control Panel.
B. EFIS Displays and the Lower ECAM.
C. Flight Control Unit (FCU) and the MCDU.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- AFS general part.

100 THE FLIGHT MODE ANNUNCIATOR (FMA) IS THE TOP PART OF THE
(B1, B2):
A. Upper ECAM.
B. ND.
C. PFD.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- AFS general part.

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101 WHEN THE A/THR SYSTEM IS ENGAGED, THE THRUST LEVERS: (A,
B1, B2):
A. Move automatically.
B. Never move automatically.
C. Are locked in the TO/GA position.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- AFS general part.

102 AT ANY TIME, TO DISENGAGE THE A/THR SYSTEM (A, B1, B2):
A. Push the priority pushbutton on either side stick.
B. Push the Instinctive Disconnect switch on either thrust lever.
C. Set the thrust lever to the TO/GA gate.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- Flight Guidance part.

103 ONE OF THE FLIGHT DIRECTOR FUNCTIONS IS TO(B1,B2):

A. Monitor the Auto Pilot when it is engaged.
B. Monitor the position of the control surfaces on the three axes.
C. Give nose wheel steering order during roll out.
Ref: AMM 22-10-00 page block 001

104 THE FLIGHT GUIDANCE FUNCTIONS ARE(B2):

A. Autopilot, Flight Plan and Autothrust.
B. Autopilot, Flight Director and Autothrust.
C. Flight Management, Autopilot and Autothrust.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- Flight Guidance part.

105 THE FLIGHT CONTROL UNIT MCDU IS NORMALLY USED

FOR(A,B1,B2):
A. Long-term order selection.
B. Short-term order selection.
C. Order selection, if the guidance is managed.
Ref: AMM 22-10-00 page block 001

106 WITH THE A/C IN FLIGHT, THE A/THR NOT ENGAGED, THE THRUST
LEVERS IN CLB GATE, AN ALPHA FLOOR IS DETECTED; THE A/THR
(B2):
A. Will not engage because the engines are already in CLB thrust.
B. Automatically engages but is not active.
C. Automatically engages and controls the engines with a TOGA thrust target.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- Flight Envelope part.

107 THE MANDATORY PARAMETER USED BY THE ALPHA FLOOR

DETECTION IS (B2):
A. A/C selected speed.
B. A/C weight and selected speed.
C. A/C Angle Of Attack and slat / flap configuration.
Ref: AMM 22-60-00 page block 001

108 BOTH FLIGHT DIRECTORS ARE ENGAGED (B1, B2):

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A. By pressing either FD P/B on the Flight Control Unit (FCU).

B. Automatically at system electrical power up.
C. By selecting a mode on the FCU.
Ref: AMM 22-10-00 page block 001

109 THE BRAKING/STEERING CONTROL UNIT (BSCU) (B1,B2):

A. Allows control of the Nose Wheel Steering with orders from the FMGEC.
B. Automatically disengages the AP at 80 kts.
C. Automatically disengages the A/THR at 80kts.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- AFS general part.

110 FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION CONSISTS OF(B2):

A. Speed limit computation only.
B. Speed limits, characteristic speeds computation and alpha floor detection.
C. Alpha floor detection only.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- Flight Envelope part.

111 WHEN BOTH FLIGHT DIRECTORS (FD) HAVE FAILED(B1,B2):

A. The Flight Warning Computer (FWC) triggers the MASTER CAUTION warning
and an amber message on the ECAM status page.
B. The Display Management Computer (DMC) logic generates the red FD warning
flag on each PFD.
C. It is impossible to inhibit the FDs warning manually.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 22- AFS general part.

ATA 23 COMMUNICATIONS

112 If the Captain’s Audio Control Panel is defective,… (B2)

A. …communication, using the Captain’s acoustic equipment, is no longer possible.
B. … the AMU automatically activates Transmit and Receive for VHF1 and HF1.
C. … the AMU automatically activates Transmit and Receive for VHF1, HF1 and
INT and Transmit for INT.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – AMU D/O

113 The SELCAL code Panel located: (A, B1, B2)

A. On a Selcal Code Panel, located on the Overhead Panel.
B. On the MCDU.
C. On a Selcal Code Panel in the electronics rack 800VU.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – SELCAL System Presentation.

114 The purpose of the VOICE button on the ACP is… (B2)
A. …to deactivate the squelch for the COM Transceivers.
B. …to suppress the Morse identification of the NAV Receivers.
C. …to filter the background noise for the headsets.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – ACP Presentation.

115 If both LGCIUs have failed, what is the procedure to connect the cockpit to the
SERVICE INTERPHONE JACK lines? (A, B1, B2)
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A. On any ACP (Audio Control Panel), the CAB key must be pressed.
B. The SVCE INT OVRD pushbutton on the overhead panel and the INTerphone
key on any ACP must be pressed.
C. The SVCE INT OVRD pushbutton on the overhead panel and the CABin key on
any ACP must be pressed.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – Service Interphone D/O.

116 After a DEU A or a DEU B has been replaced… (B2)

A. …the address has to be set on the DEU.
B. …the setting of the address is not necessary.
C. …the address of the DEU has to be set on the MCDU.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – DEU Connection Mount D/O.

117 The microphone signal is transmitted to the selected system (except PA) if… (B1,
B2)
A. …the desired transmission button is pressed on the ACP.
B. …the desired transmission and reception buttons are pressed on the ACP.
C. …the desired transmission button is pressed on the ACP and PTT for the
microphone is activated.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – Flight Interphone Operation.

118 The Flight Interphone Amplifier is part of the… (B2)

A. …RMP.
B. …CIDS Director.
C. …AMU.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – AMU D/O.

119 The Service Interphone Amplifier is part of the…(B2)

A. …CIDS Director.
B. …AMU.
C. …ACP.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – AMU D/O.

120 Tuning of VHF1 through RMP2…(A,B1,B2)

A. …is not possible.
B. …is possible. The SEL light comes on on RMP 1 and RMP 2.
C. …is possible. The SEL light comes on on RMP 2.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – RMP Presentation.

121 The Amplifiers of the Cockpit Speakers are located in the… (B1, B2)
A. …AMU
B. …Cockpit Speakers.
C. …dedicated ACPs.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – AMU D/O.

122 The Data Communication between the FAP and the CIDS Directors is achieved
by a… (Enhanced) (B2)
A. RS 232 Data Bus.
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B. ARINC 429 Data Bus.

C. Ethernet Data Bus.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – CIDS D/O.

123 Which consequences for the cabin when the Essential Bus supply of the CIDS
System is lost? (B2)
A. The cabin illumination switches to the full brightness.
B. The DEUs A are not powered, only PA is available.
C. No consequences at all.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – CIDS power supply configuration.

124 A SELCAL is indicated in the cockpit: (A, B1, B2)

A. By visual indication on one ACP.
B. By visual indication on all ACPs and an aural buzzer.
C. By visual indication on all ACPs.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – SELCAL Call D/O.

125 A Decoder Encoder Unit type A (DEU A)… (B2)

A. …is not able to control external NS/FSB Signs.
B. …can control up to 6 PSUs/PIUs (Passenger System and Interface Unit) via a
LVDS Bus and up to 8 Advanced Integrated Ballast Units (AIBUs).
C. …controls the ballast units with discrete signal only.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – DEU A D/O.

126 The DC SERV BUS (601, 603 PP) is not powered, only DC ESS BUS (401, 403
PP) is available. Which statement is correct regarding the CIDS? (B2)
A. All CIDS functions are available.
B. No CIDS function is available.
C. Only PA and CAB INT functions are available.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – CIDS power supply configuration.

127 The FAP contains: (A, B1, B2)

A. …Hardkeys on the display and sixteen fixed keys beside.
B. …Softkeys on the display and sixteen free-programmable keys beside.
C. …Softkeys on the display, Hardkeys and Interfaces below.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – FAP Presentation.

128 THE PRE-PRERECORDED ANNOUNCEMENT AND MUSIC (PRAM) ARE

CONTROLLED FROM THE: (A, B1, B2)
A. Programming and Test Panel (PTP).
B. Audio Module in the Forward Attendant Panel (FAP).
C. Additional Attendant Panel (AAP).
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – FAP Presentation.

129 THE COCKPIT CALLS PANEL ALLOWS: (A, B1, B2)

A. The cockpit crew gains the attention of a ground mechanic or the cabin crew.
B. The cockpit and cabin crew call for passenger announcements.
C. The crew exchange voice communications with radio stations.
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Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – Cabin and Cockpit Interphone D/O.

130 What is the purpose of the Solid state CVR ? (A, B1, B2)
A. To record radio communications during take off and landing.
B. To record crew member conversations as soon as an incident occurs.
C. To record communications and crew conversations.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – Cockpit Voice Recording Presentation.

131 THE AREA CALL PANEL (ACP) INDICATES: (A, B1, B2)
A. Ground crew calls, cockpit calls and lavatory smoke detection.
B. Ground crew calls, cockpit calls and lavatory calls.
C. Crew calls, passenger calls, lavatory calls and lavatory smoke detection.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – Cabin and Cockpit Interphone D/O.

132 WITH THE RADIO MANAGEMENT PANELS (RMP's), THE RADIO

COMMUNICATION EQUIPMENT CAN BE TUNED: (B2)
A. Any RMP can tune any radio transceiver, but there is a basic dedication.
B. Each RMP can only tune its dedicated radio transceiver.
C. RMP 1 and 2 can only tune their dedicated radio transceiver, only RMP 3 can
tune all.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – RMP D/O.

133 WHICH UNIT ALLOWS CABIN PROGRAMMING OPERATIONS ? (A, B1,

B2)
A. PIM
B. Director 1
C. DEU B
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – FAP Presentation.

134 THE AUDIO SIGNALS MUST PASS THROUGH THE: (B1, B2)
A. Audio Control Panel (ACP).
B. Radio Management Panel (RMP).
C. Audio Management Unit (AMU).
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – AMU D/O.

135 WITH AIRCRAFT ON GROUND AND BOTH ENGINES SHUT DOWN, THE
COCKPIT VOICE RECORDER IS ENERGIZED: (A, B1, B2)
A. When the parking brake is set.
B. When the GND CTL P/B is selected ON.
C. Any time there is voice communication in the cockpit.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23 – SSCVR System D/O.

136 INTEGRATED IN THE SATELLITE COMMUNICATION (SATCOM)

SYSTEM, THE HIGH POWER AMPLIFIER (HPA) FUNCTION IS TO: (B2)
A. Boost the signal to transmit to the satellite.
B. Control an electronic antenna to point its beam at the satellite.
C. Supply Aircraft Earth Station (AES) control and monitoring.
Ref.: VACBI A330, ATA 23- SATCOM Presentation.
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ATA 24 – ELECTRICAL
137 THE SUPPLY PRIORITIES FOR AC BUS 1(2) ARE (A,B1,B2):
A. External Power, then the APU Generator, then the onside IDG, then the opposite
IDG.
B. The onside IDG, then the opposite IDG and then External Power and the APU
Generator.
C. The onside IDG, then External Power, then the APU Generator and then the
opposite IDG.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation.

138 IF AC BUS 1 FAILS, THE AC ESS BUS IS SUPPLIED (A,B1,B2):

A. from AC BUS 2 automatically
B. from AC BUS 2 but must be performed manually in the flight deck.
C. No longer supplied
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation.

139 THE PROPERTIES OF THE IDG AC POWER SOURCES (A, B1, B2):
A. 115V, 400Hz, 90KVA, 3 phase
B. 115V, 400Hz, 115KVA, 3 phase
C. 115V, 400Hz, 90KVA, 1 phase
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation.

140 THE APU GENERATOR POWER IS: (A,B1,B2)

A. 90KVA
B. 50KVA
C. 115KVA
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation.

141 THE EMERGENCY GENERATOR POWER IS:? (B1,B2)

A. 90KVA
B. 8KVA
C. 5KVA
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation.

142 THE DC BAT BUS CAN BE SUPPLIED FROM:(B1, B2)

A. DC BUS 1 or batteries
B. DC BUS 2 or batteries
C. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or Batteries
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation.

143 THE AC ESS BUS IS NORMALLY SUPPLIED BY (A,B1,B2):

A. AC BUS 1.
B. AC BUS 2.
C. The Emergency Generator.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation.

144 THE EMERGENCY GENERATOR SUPPLIES(B1,B2):

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A. 115 Volts 400 Hz single phase.

B. 28 Volts DC.
C. 115 Volts 400 Hz three phases.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation.

145 THE APU BAT IS USED(A,B1,B2)

A. To supply the DC BAT BUS in case of BAT 1 and BAT 2 failure
B. To start the APU
C. To supply APU auto fire extinguishing power sources
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- DC generation.

146 THIS GROUND SERVICE SUPPLY IS PERFORMED VIA A DIRECT

CONNECTION FROM (A,B1,B2)
A. EXT PWR A only
B. EXT PWR B only
C. EXT PWR A or B
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation.
147 THE AC POWER SOURCE SUPPLY PRIORITY FOR AC BUS 1 IS AS
FOLLOWS: (A,B1,B2)
A. GEN 1 / EXT A / APU GEN/ EXT B / GEN 2
B. GEN 2 / APU GEN / EXT B / EXT A / GEN 1
C. GEN 1 / APU GEN / EXT B / EXT A / GEN 2
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation.
148 THE AC POWER SOURCE SUPPLY PRIORITY FOR AC BUS 2 IS AS
FOLLOWS: (A,B1,B2)
A. GEN 1 / EXT A / APU GEN/ EXT B / GEN 2
B. GEN 2 / EXT A / APU GEN / EXT B / GEN 1.
C. GEN 1 / APU GEN / EXT B / EXT A / GEN 2
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation.

149 THE FUNCTION NO BREAK POWER TRANSFER (NBPT) OPERATES

DURING START AND SHUTDOWN OF THE ENGINE GEN, APU GEN, EXT
PWR: (B2)
A. Only on ground
B. In flight only
C. Both on ground and in flight.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Electrical System Presentation-NBPT function.

150 IN CASE OF LOW OIL LEVEL TO BE DETECTED IN THE IDG (B1,B2)

A. A message “LOW OL LEVEL” is displayed on the Upper ECAM pages
B. No indication on both ECAM pages.
C. A message is displayed on ground on the status page of the ECAM system display
to inform the crew.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- AC generation – IDG part.

151 WITH THE TRANSFORMER RECTIFIER 2 (TR 2) LOST (B1, B2):

A. DC Essential Buses are supplied by the Essential TR, the remainder of the DC
network is supplied by TR 1.
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B. DC BUS 2 is lost, the remainder of the DC network is supplied by TR 1.

C. The BAT BUS is supplied by the batteries, Essential BUSES are supplied by
Essential TR, the remainder of the DC network is supplied by TR 1.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- DC generation – DC Generation.

152 THE AC ESSENTIAL FEED PUSHBUTTON SWITCH ENABLES THE

PILOTS TO(A,B1,B2):
A. Change the supply for the AC ESSENTIAL BUS from AC BUS 2 to AC BUS 1.
B. Isolate AC ESSENTIAL bus.
C. Change the supply for the AC ESSENTIAL BUS from AC BUS 1 to AC BUS .
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- AC generation.
153 WITH THE AIRCRAFT NOT ELECTRICALLY SUPPLIED ON GROUND,
PRESSING THE "MAN ON" P/B ON THE "EMER ELEC CONTROL
PANEL" CAUSES(A,B1,B2):
A. Activation of the EMER GEN Test.
B. Ram Air Turbine (RAT) extension.
C. Nothing to happen, RAT extension is only possible in flight.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- Emergency Elec System Ctl & Indicating

154 IN ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY CONFIGURATION (LOSS OF AC BUS 1

AND 2), EMER GEN SUPPLIES(B2):
A. AC ESS BUS and ESS TR.
B. AC ESS BUS, ESS TR and Static Inverter.
C. AC ESS BUS only, ESS TR is supplied by BAT 1.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24-AC Emergency Generation D/O.

155 THE INTEGRATED DRIVE GENERATOR (IDG) CAN BE RECONNECTED

ON GROUND(A,B1,B2):
A. After engine start.
B. Automatically.
C. After engine shutdown.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- AC Generation- IDG D/O part.

156 THE INTEGRATED DRIVE GENERATOR (IDG) FAULT LIGHT COMES

ON IN CASE OF(B1,B2):
A. High oil pressure detection and High oil temperature.
B. Overheat or low pressure detection.
C. And high rpm.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- AC Generation- IDG D/O part.

157 AT THE IDG AN EXTENDED RED POP-OUT INDICATOR (DPI)

INDICATES THAT THE IDG(B1,B2):
A. Oil filter is hot.
B. Oil filter is clogged.
C. COOLER BYPASS VALVE is closed.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- AC Generation- IDG Monitoring part.

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158 ON THE EXTERNAL POWER (EXT PWR) PANEL, WHEN THE "AVAIL"
AND 'NOT IN USE" LIGHTS ARE ILLUMINATED(A,B1,B2):
A. The External powers is plugged in and supplied to the A/C network.
B. All the external powers parameters are normal but not plugged in.
C. The external power quality is good, but not connected to the network.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- External Power Supply.
159 THE STATIC INVERTER OPERATES (B2):
A. When the Emergency Generator is supplying the Essential Network.
B. In electrical emergency configuration when EMER GEN is not available.
C. During NBPT function to be activated.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- AC Generation- Static Inverter.

160 IF THERE IS NO C/B OPEN, ON THE ECAM C/B PAGE(A, B1,B2)

A. A message “NOT AVAIL” comes on
B. A message “NORMAL” appear in green
C. No message longer appear.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 24- AC CB Monitoring part.

ATA25: EQUIPMENT AND FURNISHING

161 The cockpit crew is designed for : (A, B1, B2)
A. Two crew members and two observers.
B. Three crew members and one observer.
C. Three crew members and two observers.
162 Emergency equipment is available in : (A, B1, B2)
A. The cabin.
B. The cockpit.
C. Both.
163 Which seats are electrically operated? (A, B1, B2)
A. Captain, first officer.
B. Captain, first officer, third occupant.
C. All the seats.
164 In case of failure of the electrical controls, the pilot seats can be operated : (A,
B1, B2)
A. Manually, only in the horizontal direction.
B. Manually, in horizontal and vertical directions.
C. They cannot be operated.
165 Captain and First Officer Seats are: (A,B1,B2)
A. Symmetrical and have the same function
B. Asymmetrical and have the same function
C. Have the same function and interchangeable.
166 Captain and First Officer Seats electrical control system permits (A,B1,B2)
A. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction
B. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction and adjust the backrest
C. Control the seats in vertical and horizontal direction and adjust the lumbar rest
167 The side stick armrest of Captain and First Officer seats (B1,B2)
A. Can be raised vertically and stowed behind the backrest
B. Can be adjusted the height and the tilt angle
C. Can not be fold back to a vertical position
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168 The Third Occupant seat is (A,B1,B2)

A. NOT adjustable.
B. A Folding seat
C. Identical to the pilot seats in basic structure and shape
169 The Fourth Occupant seat (A,B1,B2)
A. Is NOT adjustable.
B. Has only mechanical control for in horizontal and vertical travel.
C. Is identical to the third occupant seat
170 Which cabin panels are removable? (A,B1,B2)
A. Dado panels.
B. Sidewall panels.
C. All the panels.
171 Where are the passenger oxygen masks stored? (A,B1,B2)
A. In the seat arm rest.
B. In the overhead stowage compartment.
C. In the Passenger Service Unit.
172 Where are the cabin depressurization doors mounted? (A,B1,B2)
A. On the dado panels.
B. On the sidewall panels.
C. On the ceiling panels.
173 The wet galleys are (B1,B2)
A. not connected to the aircraft systems such as ventilation or the water and waste
system
B. Connected to the main air cabin ventilation system, the air extraction system and
the electrical power system.
C. mainly used to store the trolleys
174 What is the function of an air chiller unit ? (A,B1,B2)
A. Supply of cooled air to galley.
B. Supply of cooled air to galley or trolley.
C. Supply of cooled air to trolley or trolley compartment.
175 What is the maximum amount of air chiller units to be installed in the aircraft?
(B2)
A. 6.
B. 7.
C. 8.
176 All lavatory door can be (A,B1,B2)
A. Unlocked and open from the outside.
B. Locked from the outside
C. Unlocked from the outside using a special tool.
177 The power supply to the razor socket in the lavatory is (B2).
A. 110V and 60Hz from static inverters
B. 110V and 400Hz from service bus 2
C. 220V and 60Hz from static inverters
178 The passenger seats attached: (B1,B2)
A. With retainers in the front legs and with quick release fittings in the rear legs.
B. With retainers in the front legs as well as in the rear legs.
C. With quick release fittings in the front legs as well as in the rear legs.
179 All cabin attendant seat are (B1,B2)
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A. Folding seats.
B. Floor mounted seat
C. Wall mounted seat
180 The cockpit crew can be evacuate in case of emergency by: (A,B1,B2)
A. Escape rope, escape ladder or cockpit door.
B. Cockpit door, slide/raft or escape ladder.
C. Escape rope or escape ladder.
181 The slide/raft assembly are installed on (A,B1,B2)
A. All passenger doors
B. All emergency exit doors
C. A and B
182 Each passenger compartment door is equipped with (B1,B2)
A. Escape ladder.
B. A dual lane slide/raft.
C. A single lane escape slide.
183 The emergency exit doors are equipped with (B1,B2)
A. A dual lane slide/raft.
B. A single lane escape slide only.
C. A single lane escape slide or a dual lane slide/raft.
184 The slide/raft is installed on (A,B1,B2)
A. The door frame.
B. The aircraft structure.
C. The door frame for passenger compartment door and on the aircraft structure for
the emergency exit doors.
185 The girt bar is attached to the aircraft door seal structure when: (A, B1, B2).
A. The door is in the ARMED mode.
B. The door is in the DISARMED mode.
C. The door is in the CLOSED and LOCKED mode.
186 To read the gas pressure of the SLIDE inflation reservoir: (B1,B2)
A. By the PIMS.
B. By the direct gauge, fitted on the reservoir
C. Both A and B
187 How to check status of the SLIDE inflation reservoir (B1,B2)
A. By the PIMS.
B. By the direct gauge, fitted on the reservoir.
C. Both A and B
188 The deployment and inflation of the slide/raft unit are automatically initiated
when (A,B1,B2)
A. The door is opened in the ARMED mode from inboard.
B. The door is opened in the DISARMED mode.
C. The door is opened in the CLOSED and ARMED mode from outside or inside.
189 Inside the cargo compartments, the rapid decompression panels are installed in
(B1,B2)
A. Ceiling panels.
B. Side linings.
C. Floor panels and partition walls.
190 Which cargo compartments are equipped with a drain system? (B1)
A. All the compartments
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B. Aft and bulk cargo compartments

C. forward and aft cargo compartments
191 What is the door sill latch release lever used for? (B1,B2)
A. Loading
B. Unloading
C. Both A and B
192 The YZ-latches must be lowered manually: (B1,B2)
A. During loading operation,
B. During unloading operation,
C. During both operations.
193 When the XZ-latches are lifted, (B1)
A. The Power Drive Units behind this latch row are energized.
B. The Power Drive Units behind this latch row are turned off.
C. The Power Drive Units before this latch row are turned off.
194 Which component are not belong to transport components (B1,B2)
A. The ball mats
B. The XZ-latches.
C. Power Drive Units
195 When do you use the SPLIT function of the cargo loading system? (B1)
A. When full-width containers are loaded.
B. When half-width containers are loaded alone.
C. When half-width containers are loaded in pairs.

ATA 26- FIRE PROTECTION

196 EACH ENGINE IS PROTECTED BY THREE FIRE DETECTORS,

INSTALLED IN PAIRS AND LOCATED IN(A,B1,B2):
A. Left core, right core and pylon
B. Fan, core and pylon
C. Fan, left core and right core
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Engine Fire Protection System presentation part.

197 HOW MANY EXTINGUISHER BOTTLES AND A FIRE EXTINGUISHING

CIRCUIT IN EACH ENGINE NACELLE(A,B1,B2).
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Engine Fire Protection System presentation part.

198 THE ENGINE FIRE PUSHBUTTON IS RELEASED OUT, WHICH

CORRESPONDING VALVES ARE CLOSED (B1)?
A. HP shut off valve and LP fuel valve
B. LP fuel and Hydraulic fire shut-off valve
C. Fuel Cross feed valve
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Engine Fire Protection System presentation part.

199 FIRE PROTECTION IS SUPPLIED BY FIRE DETECTION AND FIRE

EXTINGUISHING FOR (B1,B2):
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A. The Engine, the APU and the Main Landing Gear Bay.
B. The Engine and the APU.
C. The Main Landing Gear bay only.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Engine Fire Protection System presentation, APU Fire protection
System Presentation.
200 THE ENGINE FIRE BOTTLES ARE LOCATED(B1):
A. In the air conditioning bay.
B. On the engine fan case.
C. In the pylon.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Engine Fire Protection System part.

201 THE ENGINE FIRE WARNINGS ARE(B1,B2):

A. Inhibited in take off flight phase.
B. Inhibited in take off and landing flight phases.
C. Available in all flight phases in case of fire.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Engine Fire Protection System part.

202 THE APU COMPARTMENT IS PROTECTED BY(B1,B2):

A. Two fire detector
B. One fire detector
C. Three fire detector
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- APU Fire Protection System part.

203 THE APU AUTOMATIC EXTINGUISHING ON GROUND IS CONTROL BY:

(A,B1,B2)?
A. APU FDU
B. AFECU
C. SDCU
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- APU Fire Protection System part.

204 IN THE APU COMPARTMENT, THE QUATITY OF FIRE-

EXTINGUISHING BOTTLE IS: (A,B1,B2)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- APU Fire Protection System part.

205 IN FLIGHT, THE APU FIRE EXTINGUISHING CAN BE DONE(B1,B2):

A. Automatically by AFECU computer
B. Manually by pilot
C. Both A and B
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- APU Fire Protection – System Operation in case of APU fire part.

206 WHEN OVERPRESSURE DISCHARGE INDICATOR (RED DISC) OF APU

IS DISAPPEARED INDICATES THAT FIRE EXTINGUISHING
BOTTLE(A,B1,B2):
A. Overpressure discharge.
B. Low pressure
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C. Pressure not stable

Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- APU Fire Protection – Component part.

207 THE APU AUTO EXTINGUISHING TEST IS PERFORMED(B1,B2):

A. By pressing the external FIRE P/B.
B. By pressing the test P/B on the maintenance panel.
C. By using the MCDU.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- APU Fire Protection – System Test..

208 THE CARGO FIRE BOTTLE IS DISCHARGED(B1,B2):

A. Automatically when smoke is detected.
B. Automatically after the isolation valves close.
C. By pressing the DISCH P/B on the cargo smoke panel.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Cargo Fire Protection part.

209 HOW MANY FIRE EXTINGUISHING BOTTLE PROVIDE FOR CARGO

COMPARTMENTS(B1,B2)?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Cargo Fire Protection part.

210 THE NUMBER OF DISCHARGE HEADS PER EXTINGUISHER BOTTLE

IS(B1,B2):
A. Only one, dedicated to the FWD cargo compartment.
B. One dedicated to the FWD cargo compartment and one dedicated to the
AFT/BULK cargo compartment.
C. Two, dedicated to the FWD or to the AFT/BULK cargo compartment.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Cargo Fire Protection part.

211 THE COMPUTER TO CONTROL AND PROCESS SIGNAL FROM FIRE

DETECTOR IN CABIN AND LAVATORY IS: (A,B1,B2)?
A. SDCU
B. CMC
C. FDU
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Cargo Fire Protection part.

212 IF A FIRE STARTS IN THE WASTE BIN THE FIRE EXTINGUISHER

DISCHARGES(B1):
A. Manually
B. Both A and B
C. Automatically
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Lavatory Fire Protection part.

213 THE LAVATORY WASTE BIN EXTINGUISHER PRESSURE CAN BE

CHECKED (B1):
A. Through the Central Maintenance System (CMS).
B. Through the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP).
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C. On the bottle pressure sight gage.

Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Lavatory Fire Protection part.

214 WHEN SMOKE IS DETECTED IN A CARGO COMPARTMENT, AN

AUTOMATIC ACTION IS PERFORMED(B1):
A. A fire bottle is discharged.
B. The associated cargo compartment isolation valves close.
C. The avionics ventilation extract valve opens.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Cargo Fire Protection part.

215 THE AVIONICS SMOKE DETECTORS ARE LOCATED:(B1,B2)

A. In the cockpit.
B. On the avionics air extraction duct.
C. On the air conditioning recirculation duct.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Avionic Smoke Detection part.

216 THE AVIONICS SMOKE DETECTORS ARE CONNECTED TO THE:(B1,B2)

A. Smoke Detection Control Unit (SDCU).
B. Fire Detection Unit (FDU).
C. Avionics Equipment Ventilation Computer (AEVC).
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 26- Avionic Smoke Detection part.

ATA 27-FLIGHT CONTROL.

217 WHAT ARE THE POSSIBLE MODE OF THE ELEVATOR SERVO
CONTROLS? (B1,B2)
A. Active, damping and centering.
B. Active, damping only.
C. Active, centering only.

218 HOW IS THE THS SCREW JACK POWERED? (B1)

A. By one of the three electric motors.
B. By two hydraulic motor.
C. By the three electric motors.
219 WHAT ARE THE COMMANDS RECEIVED BY THE RUDDER
MECHANICAL INPUT? (A,B1,B2)
A. rudder pedal input, RTLU input and yaw damper input.
B. rudder pedal input, and yaw damper input only.
C. rudder pedal input, rudder trim input and yaw damper input.

220 WHICH COMPUTER CONTROL THE RUDDER TRIM MOTORS? (B1,B2)

A. FCSCs only.
B. FCPCs and FCSCs
C. FCPCs only

221 WHAT IS THE AILERON SERVO CONTROL MODE AFTER A

HYDRAULIC OR ELECTRICAL FAILURE? (B1)
A. Active.
B. Damping.
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C. Centering

222 WHAT HAPPENS FOLLOWING A HYDRAULIC FAILURE IN FLIGHT?

(B1)
A. The spoiler retracts and remains retracted under pressure.
B. The spoiler retracts and is damped.
C. The spoiler extends and is re-centered.

223 CONCERNING THE WTB SOLENOID VALVES, WHICH OF THE

FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS TRUE ? (B1,B2)
A. Each solenoid is permanently de-energized in normal flight conditions.
B. Each solenoid is supplied by one hydraulic system and controlled by one SFCC.
C. Each solenoid is supplied by one hydraulic system and controlled by both SFCCS.

224 WHAT HAPPENS WHEN S/F CONFIGURATION IS 1+F AND CAS

REACHES 200 KTS. (B1)
A. flaps retract automatically to 0 and the new S/F configuration is 1.
B. flaps extend automatically because the FLRS is no longer activated.
C. The slat alpha lock function is engaged because the CAS is too high.
225 WHAT ARE THE CONSEQUENCE ON THE SYSTEM IF AN
ATTACHMENT DISCONNECT? (B1)
A. The flap are locked by the Pressure Off Brake and there is no reset in flight.
B. The flaps are locked by the Wing Tip Brakes and there is no reset in flight.
C. The flaps are locked by the Pressure Off Brake and reset in flight is possible by a
Reverse CSU selection.

226 WHAT ARE THE NECESSARY CONDITIONS FOR GROUND SPOILER

PRE-SELECTION? (B1,B2)
A. Ground spoilers armed and the throttle at idle or one throttle at reverse and the
second at idle.
B. Ground spoiler not armed and the throttles at idle.
C. The throttles at idle only.

227 THE AIRCRAFT IS EQUIPPED WITH: (A,B1,B2)

A. Slats but not Flaps.
B. Flaps but not slats.
C. Flaps and Slats.

228 A RUDDER SERVO-CONTROL JAMMING DETECTION WILL

PROCEDURE: (B1)
A. An ECAM message.
B. An ECAM message and the pop-out of an indicator on the servo.
C. No effect.

229 IF ONE HYDRAULIC SYSTEM FAILS: (B1,B2)

A. Only the roll and pitch axis are available.
B. All the three axis are available with some spoilers loss.
C. Rudder mechanical back-up is not available.
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230 THE FLIGHT CONTROL ARE OPERATED BY: (A,B1,B2)

A. electro-pneumatic actuators.
B. Electrical actuators.
C. Electro-hydraulic actuators.

231 THE BACK UP YAW DAMPER UNIT PROVIDE: (B1,B2)

A. Turn coordination only.
B. Dutch roll damping only.
C. Turn coordination and Dutch roll damping

232 HOW MANY SERVO CONTROL ACTUATORS POWER THE RUDDER

SURFACE: (A,B1,B2)
A. One.
B. Three.
C. Two.

233 THE RUDDER IS CONTROLLED ELECTRICALLY: (A,B1,B2)

A. Only.
B. And cables in case of loss of electrical power.
C. And by cable during approach and landing.

234 EACH WING HAS: (A,B1,B2)

A. One flap.
B. Two flaps.
C. Three flaps.

ATA 28 – FUEL SYSTEM

235 ON EACH AIRCRAFT WING, WE HAVE: (A,B1,B2)

A. Three fuel tanks, two feed tanks, one surge tank and one vent tank.
B. Two fuel tanks, two feed tanks, and two surge tanks.
C. Three fuel tanks, four feed tanks, and two surge tanks.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Tank Presentation part.

236 THE VENT SURGE TANK OF TRIM TANK LOCATED ON: (B1,B2)
A. The RH handside
B. The LH handside
C. Both LH and RH handside
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Tank Presentation part.
237 WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THREE FLAP-TYPE CHECK VALVES
POSITION IN THE COLLECTOR CELL?(B1,B2)
A. guide the fuel flow direct to the fuel pumps
B. give balance between RH wing tank and LH wing tank
C. fuel flow into each collector cell and prevent it from flowing out
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Fuel Feed-Engine Feed System part.

238 IN CASE OF AN APU FIRE:(A,B1,B2)

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A. The engine and APU fuel pumps are stopped.

B. The crossfeed valves are closed.
C. The APU pipe isolation valve and the APU Low Pressure (LP) valve are closed,
and the APU fuel pump is switched off.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Fuel Feed-APU Feed System part.

239 THE CROSSFEED VALVE IS:(B1,B2)

A. Normally open
B. Normally Close
C. Automatically opened during fuel transfer.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Fuel System Distribution part.

240 THE STANDBY PUMP IN EACH WING WILL OPERATED: (B1,B2)

A. Only when the main pumps become defective or are set to OFF.
B. Run continuously.
C. Only when both main pumps become inoperative.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Fuel Feed-Engine Feed System part.

241 WHICH TANK SUPPLY FUEL TO THE APU ? (B1,B2)

A. from the RH inner tank collector cell
B. from the LH inner tank collector cell
C. Both A and B.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Fuel Feed-APU Feed System part.

242 THE AFT APU FUEL PUMP WILL BE OPERATED IN CASE OF : (B1)
A. A low pressure is detected in the trim transfer line
B. A high pressure is detected in the trim transfer line
C. APU bleed start operation.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Fuel Feed-APU Feed System part.

243 AUTOMATIC GROUND TRANSFER IS DESIGNED:(B1)

A. To move the fuel between the tanks to get a specific target aircraft Center of
Gravity (CG) position.
B. To empty a fuel tank for maintenance access.
C. To move the fuel between the tanks before a refuel operation.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Trim transfer system description and operation.

244 THE PURPOSE OF THE TRIM TRANSFER SYSTEM IS TO: (A,B1,B2)

A. Burn the fuel from the trim tank.
B. Control the center of gravity (CG) position.
C. Control all transfers for engine feed.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Trim transfer system description and operation.

245 EACH ENGINE LOW PRESSURE VALVE IS CONTROLLED OPEN OR

SHUT BY THE:(B1,B2)
A. Corresponding ENG MASTER switch or FIRE P/B.
B. FCMCs or the corresponding ENG FIRE P/B.
C. Corresponding ENG FIRE P/B.
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Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Engine feed presentation.

246 THE ENGINES ARE DIRECTLY SUPPLIED BY:(B1,B2)

A. The Trim and Center Tanks.
B. The Center Tank only.
C. The Inner Tanks.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Engine feed presentation.

247 THE FUEL VENT PUSH-BUTTON SWITCH IS LOCATED:(A,B1,B2)

A. In the APU compartment.
B. In the cargo bulk compartment.
C. On the fuselage, close to the inlet APU flap.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- APU feed presentation.

248 THE OVERPRESSURE PROTECTOR BREAK :(A,B1,B2)

A. Fuel is sent overboard.
B. Fuel is drained back into the tank by the vent float valves.
C. Fuel is kept in the surge tank.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Tank, venting presentation.

249 WHEN THE TEST SWITCH ON THE REFUEL/DEFUEL PANEL IS SET TO

"LTS":(A,B1,B2)
A. Only the blue lights illuminate.
B. All panel lights illuminate and all quantity indications show "8"s.
C. Only the quantity indications illuminate.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Indicating and Management.

250 ON THE REFUEL PANEL, THE "ACTUAL" INDICATION REPRESENTS:

(A, B1,B2)
A. Actual quantity to be added.
B. Actual quantity of Fuel On Board.
C. Actual quantity required to fill all tanks.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Indicating and Management.

251 TO READ THE MAGNETIC LEVEL INDICATOR INDICATION (MLI):

(B1,B2)
A. Must start with the outboard MLIs in the outer tank then continue moving
inboard.
B. Must start with the inboard MLIs in the center tank then continue moving
outboard.
C. Can start with any of the MLIs.
Ref: AMM TASK 12-11-28-650-806 (Procedure To Use The Fuel Magnetic Level Indicators )

252 OUTER TANKS TO INNER TANKS TRANSFER USES:(B1,B2)

A. Fuel pump pressure or a jet pump.
B. A jet pump.
C. Gravity.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 28- Main transfer System.
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253 IN A330-200 THE JETTISON SYSTEM OPERATION CAN BE INITIATED:

(B1)
A. Automatically by FCMC only
B. Manually in the cockpit on the JETTISON panel only
C. During unbalance happen in two wings
Ref: Vacbi T2-A330-ATA 28- Jettison Presentation(A330-200 only).

254 IN A330-200 THE JETTISON SYSTEM OPERATION CAN BE STOPPED:

(B1)
A. Only by pushbutton in the cockpit
B. Only by FCMC
C. Manually or automatically through the FCMC.
Ref: Vacbi T2-A330-ATA 28- Jettison Presentation(A330-200 only).
ATA29: HYDRAULIC POWER
255 In normal operation the Hydraulic system are powered by (A,B1,B2)
A. Engine Driven Pumps (EDPs)
B. EDPs (Engine Driven Pumps) and EMDP (Electrical Motor Driven Pumps)
C. Engine Driven Pumps for Green and Yellow systems, Electrically Driven Pump
for Blue system

256 Which hydraulic system is supplied by the two engine pumps. (A,B1,B2)
A. The Green
B. The Blue
C. The Yellow.
257 All three reservoirs are filled (A,B1,B2)
A. From the Green ground service panel.
B. From the Blue ground service panel.
C. From the Yellow ground service panel.
258 In which case will the Ram Air Turbine automatically pressurize the green
system during flight? (A,B1,B2)
A. Failure of engine 1 or 2.
B. Low level in yellow and blue reservoirs.
C. Low level in green and blue reservoirs.
259 The RAT automatically extends in flight, when the aircraft speed is higher than
100kts, in case of : (B1,B2)
A. Failure of engine1 and 2.
B. Low level in green reservoirs.
C. Low level in blue and yellow reservoirs.
260 When does the Ram Air Turbine is automatically extended? (B1,B2)
A. In flight, above 100 kts in case of both Blue and Yellow RSVR LO LVL.
B. In flight, above 100 kts in case of both Green and Yellow RSVR LO LVL.
C. On the ground, in case of both Green and Blue RSVR LO LVL.
261 How is the Green system normally pressurized? (A,B1,B2)
A. By one electric pump.
B. By one engine pump and one electric pump.
C. By two engine pumps.
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262 From where are the hydraulic fire shut-off valves operated ? (B1,B2)
A. The HYD control panel.
B. The FIRE control panel.
C. The GND HYD service panel.
263 Green engine fire shut-off valves are closed when (B1,B2)
A. Reservoir low level.
B. Engine fire pushbutton switches released.
C. Both A and B.
264 The hand pump, which is used for operating the cargo door is located on:
(A,B1,B2)
A. The Green ground service panel.
B. The Blue ground service panel.
C. The Yellow ground service panel.
265 From where are the leak measurement valves operated? (B1,B2)
A. The HYD control panel.
B. The GND HYD service panels.
C. HYD maintenance panel
266 The leakage measurement valves are closed: (B1)
A. On ground only.
B. In flight only.
C. Both A and B
267 A leak measurement valve is positioned in each circuit upstream of (B1)
A. Secondary flight controls.
B. The primary flight controls.
C. Landing gear and Brake system
268 In case of engine failure under certain conditions, the electric pump of which
system can operate automatically (B1)
A. The Green and Yellow system
B. The Blue system only
C. The Blue and Yellow system
269 In the event of low pressure, the Priority Valve cuts-off hydraulic pressure to
which of the following? (B1)
A. Primary flight controls.
B. Secondary flight controls.
C. Heavy load users.
270 Which hydraulic system supplies the Constant Speed Motor/Generator
(CSM/G)? (A,B1,B2)
A. Blue system.
B. Yellow system.
C. Green system.
271 A blue system pipeline is identified by : (A, B1, B2)
A. A blue band and number 1.
B. A blue band and number 3.
C. A blue band and number 2.
272 Provided being selected IN, The Electric pump "FAULT" illuminates amber in
case of: (B1,B2)
A. RSVR LO LVL, RSVR LO AIR PR or RSVR OVHT
B. ELEC PUMP OVHT or ELEC PUMP LO PR
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C. Both A and B
273 RAT can be manually deployed (A,B1,B2)
A. At any time.
B. In flight only.
C. In ground only.
274 In OVHT condition "FAULT" light remains on (B1,B2)
A. As long as the OVHT is present.
B. Until system is reset.
C. Until pushbutton switch is released OUT.
275 For reservoir indication on ECAM page, OVHT appears AMBER if (B1,B2)
A. The return HYD fluid temperature at the LP manifold is > 950C.
B. The HYD fluid temperature at the downstream of the pump is > 950C.
C. The return HYD fluid temperature at the entry of the reservoir is > 950C.
276 System pressure on ECAM page become ARMBER when (B1,B2)
A. <1450PSI
B. <1750PSI
C. <3000PSI
277 Engine driven pump LOW PRESSURE when P/B Sw ON and pump deliver
pressure (B1)
A. <1450PSI
B. <1750PSI
C. <3000PSI
278 To what value is the reservoir pressurized with air? (B1,B2)
A. 65 psi.
B. 40 psi.
C. 22 psi.
279 What type of electrical pump is fitted to the green system? (B1)
A. Two stage spur gear pump.
B. Single stage variable displacement type.
C. Two stage booster and twin variable displacement type.
280 Which of the following emergency conditions will deploy the ram air turbine?
(B1,B2)
A. Failure of engine 1.
B. Loss of AC BUS 1.
C. Low level in G and Y reservoirs.
281 Green engine fire shut-off valves are automatically closed by the HSMU in case
of (B1,B2)
A. Engine 1 or 2 fires
B. Green reservoir low level.
C. Green reservoir OVHT
282 The green system is equipped with (B1,B2)
A. One fire valve controlled by engine 1 fire pushbutton.
B. Two fire valves; they are simultaneously controlled by engine 1 fire pushbutton.
C. Two fire valves, they are respectively controlled by engine 1 and engine 2 fire
pushbuttons.
283 During the LDG extension and low level of the green reservoir is detected,
HSMU will (B1)
A. Close the ENG 1 and ENG 2 fire shut-off valves immediately.
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B. Be inhibited to automatically close the engine fire shut-off valves.

C. Close ENG 2 fire shut-off valves only to make sure the LDGs are extended
completely
284 When EDP pushbutton switches on the overhead panel (245vu) is OFF (B1).
A. The pump is stopped, system is depressurized.
B. A solenoid valve isolates the pump from the Engine in the depressurized mode.
C. A blocking valve isolates the pump from the hydraulic system in the
depressurized mode.
285 In flight the green electric pump is automatic running for 25 seconds when one
Engine failure and (B1).
A. LDG selector selected UP
B. LDG selector selected DOWN
C. Slat/Flap handle not at neutral
286 The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) is a variable pitch, two blade unit located in
(A,B1,B2)
A. In the LH belly fairing.
B. The number 4 flap track fairing on the right wing.
C. The number 4 flap track fairing on the left wing.
287 For Green system, the pressure transducer and the pressure switches that give
information for the flight control system are installed on (B1)
A. The HP manifold.
B. The HP filter manifold.
C. The delivery line of the engine driven pump.
288 The green ground service panel located in (A, B1, B2).
A. The left aft section of the belly fairing.
B. The right forward section of the belly fairing.
C. The left forward section of the belly fairing.
289 On ground, when the green reservoir quantity has decreased down to 17 l ,
which warning is generated by SDAC on the ECAM E/W display (B1)
A. G SYS LEAK
B. G RSVR LO LEVEL
C. G RSVR UNDERFILLED
290 In flight, when the green reservoir quantity has decreased down to 17l , which
warning is generated by SDAC on the ECAM E/W display (B1)
A. G SYS LEAK
B. G RSVR LO LEVEL
C. G RSVR UNDERFILLED
291 Where is the yellow system engine driven pump located? (A,B1,B2)
A. Eng 1.
B. Eng 2.
C. Eng 1+2.
292 When will the Yellow electric pump run automatically on the ground? (A,B1,B2)
A. During cargo doors operation.
B. Only with engine 2 running.
C. During main landing gear doors operation.
293 The Yellow ground service panel located in (A, B1, B2)
A. The left aft section of the belly fairing.
B. The right forward section of the belly fairing.
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C. The left forward section of the belly fairing.

294 In flight the Yellow electric pump is automatic running when Engine 2 failure
and (B1)
A. Slat handle not at neutral
B. LDG selector selected UP
C. LDG selector selected DOWN
295 In flight, ENG 2 failure and the HSMU automatically energized the Yellow
electric pump to support flaps operation (B1,B2)
A. For 25 seconds.
B. Until last ENG shutdown.
C. Plus 10 second time delay.
296 RAT stow panel located in (A,B1,B2)
A. The Blue ground service panel.
B. The Green ground service panel.
C. The Yellow ground service panel.
297 The telescopic lever for operate the cargo door hand pump can be found at
(A,B1,B2)
A. The Blue ground service panel.
B. The Green ground service panel.
C. The Yellow ground service panel.
298 Where is the blue system engine driven pump located? (A,B1,B2)
A. Eng 1.
B. Eng 2.
C. Eng 1+2.
299 In which mode does the blue electric pump operate? (B1,B2)
A. Automatically in case of engine 1 failure.
B. Only manually.
C. Manually or automatically.
300 The Blue ground service panel located in (A, B1, B2).
A. The left aft section of the belly fairing.
B. The right forward section of the belly fairing.
C. The left forward section of the belly fairing.
301 What is the purpose of the leak measurement solenoid valve? (B1)
A. To give priority to the primary flight controls in flight only.
B. To cut-off hydraulic power to isolate the hydraulic system of the flight controls.
C. To provide independent control of the hydraulic supply of the components in the
LH wing, RH wing or AFT fuselage.
302 Where is the forward recovery tank located? (B1)
A. In the blue hydraulic compartment.
B. In the green hydraulic compartment.
C. In the yellow hydraulic compartment.
303 Where does the slat Power Control Unit drain into? (B1,B2)
A. The FWD recovery tank.
B. The AFT recovery tank.
C. The green hydraulic return line.
304 Where does the CSM/G and flap Power Control Unit drain into? (B1)
A. The FWD recovery tank.
B. The AFT recovery tank.
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C. The green hydraulic return line.

305 Must the hydraulic reservoirs be depressurized before filling? (A,B1,B2)
A. Yes. For filling, the hydraulic reservoir is always required to be depressurized
B. No. For filling, the hydraulic reservoir is always required to be pressurized
C. Yes, using special tools.
306 What is the main function of the restrictor? (B1,B2)
A. To limit the pressure from the hand pump.
B. To protect the system against overpressure.
C. To limit thermal expansion of the fluid.
307 What happens when the filling filter is clogged? (B1,B2)
A. The fluid is stopped; filling is impossible.
B. The fluid bypasses the filter elements.
C. The filling pressure has to be increased.
308 What are the manual depressurization valves provided for? (B1)
A. Individual reservoir depressurization.
B. Depressurization of related air pressure unit.
C. Hydraulic system depressurization.
309 What is the purpose of the pressure reducing valve? (B1,B2)
A. To reduce the pressure.
B. To regulate the pressure.
C. Both A and B.
310 On the Blue HYD GND service panel. what do the two air pressurization units
provide pressure to? (B1)
A. One to the Blue reservoir, the second to the Yellow and Green.
B. One to the Green reservoir, the second to the Blue and Yellow.
C. One to the Yellow reservoir, the second to the Green and Blue.
311 The reservoir pressurizing system is supplied in normal operation by (A,B1,B2)
A. An LP source from the pneumatic system.
B. High pressure air, bled from engine 1 compressor.
C. Two ground connectors located on the blue ground service panel.
312 Which hydraulic supply pressure is required to carry out the ground leak test?
(B1)
A. Engine driven pump.
B. Only Ground service cart.
C. Electric pump providing a minimum of 2850 psi.
313 What happens when you release the guarded leak measurement switch to OFF?
(A,B1,B2)
A. The manual selector valves open.
B. The leak measurement valve opens.
C. The leak measurement valve closes.
314 Which Hydraulic system is used for RAT retraction (A,B1,B2)
A. The Green hydraulic system.
B. The Blue hydraulic system.
C. The Yellow hydraulic system.
315 After the electric pump is stopped due to OVHT is detected, how can we restart
it again? (B1,B2)
A. By reset RCCB and manually selected ELEC ON pushbutton.
B. By Waiting until OVHT disappears and reset the system in overhead panel.
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C. Waiting until OVHT disappears and the reset system C/B.

ATA 30: ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

316 SLATS PROTECTED BY HOT AIR SUPPLIED FROM THE PNEUMATIC
SYSTEM ARE: (B1,B2)
A. Three inboard leading edge slats
B. The 4 outboard slats of each wing
C. All the slats.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Wing anti-ice protection.
317 HOW IS THE WING ANTI-ICE VALVES CONTROLLED AND
OPERATED? (B1,B2)
A. Pneumatically controlled and electrically operated
B. Electrically controlled and operated
C. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Wing anti-ice protection.

318 HOW MANY WING ANTI-ICE VALVE IN EACH WING?(B1,B2)

A. 2 valves
B. 3 valves
C. 1 valve.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Wing anti-ice protection.

319 IN CASE OF LOSS OF ELECTRICAL POWER SUPPLY OR LACK OF

PRESSURE:(B1,B2)
A. The Wing anti-ice valves close.
B. The Wing anti-ice valves open.
C. The Wing anti-ice valves half open.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Wing anti-ice protection.

320 CAN YOU OPERATE THE WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM ON GROUND?

(B1,B2)
A. No, you can operate the system in flight only
B. Yes, but for a limited time of 30 secs
C. Yes, for an unlimited time
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Wing anti-ice protection.

321 HOT AIR USED FOR WING ANTI-ICED IS TAKEN FROM? (A,B1,B2)
A. Aircraft pneumatic system.
B. Bleed from either engine 1 or 2.
C. Directly from the main engine compressors.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Wing anti-ice protection.

322 HOT AIR IS SUPPLIED TO EACH ENGINE AIR INTAKE FROM:(A,B1,B2)

A. The High Pressure (HP) compressor
B. The pneumatic system
C. From HP when engine thrust in idle level and from IP when engine thrust in
FLX/MCT level.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Engine Air intake anti-ice protection.
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323 THE ENGINE AIR INTAKE ANTI-ICE VALVE IS:(B1,B2)

A. Pneumatically operated, electrically controlled
B. Pneumatically controlled and electrically operated
C. Electrically controlled and operated
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Engine Air intake anti-ice protection.

324 IF THE ENGINE AIR INTAKE ANTI-ICE SOLENOID VALVE LOSS OF

ELECTRICAL POWER, IT WILL BE :(B1)
A. Closed
B. Opened
C. no thing happen.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Engine Air intake anti-ice protection.

325 THE TAT PROBE IS HEATED: (A,B1,B2)

A. in flight only
B. On ground only
C. when the outside temperature is greater than 0°C
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Probe ice protection.

326 THE HEATING OF PITOT PROBE IS:(A,B1,B2)

A. Operated in flight only
B. Low on ground and normal in flight
C. Operated when the Outside temperature is below than 00C.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Probe ice protection.

327 THE WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE IS OPERATED:(B1,B2)

A. Manually by crew member.
B. When temperature outside to be detected below 00C
C. Automatically at first engine start-up and stops at last engine shut-down
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Window anti-ice and defogging.

328 TWO WINDOW HEAT COMPUTERS (WHC) OPERATE :(A,B1,B2)

A. One active, one hot standby
B. fully independent.
C. One active and one standby.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Window anti-ice and defogging.

329 FOR THE WINDSHIELD, THE HEATING LEVELS ARE:(B1,B2)

A. Low on ground and normal in flight.
B. Low in flight and normal on ground.
C. Normal on ground and high in flight.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Window anti-ice and defogging.

330 EACH WIPER IS CONTROLLED:(A,B1,B2)

A. By a pushbutton.
B. By a three position rotary selector.
C. Automatically in accordance with the weather conditions.
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Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Windshield Rain protection.

331 THE WATER ICE PROTECTION SYSTEM IS CONTROLLED:(B1,B2)

A. Automatically.
B. By a pushbutton in the cockpit.
C. By a pushbutton on the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP).
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Portable & Waste water ice protection.

332 THE POTABLE AND WASTE WATER ICE PROTECTION SYSTEM IS

CONTROLLED:(B1,B2)
A. By two Anti-Ice Control Units.
B. By two Ice Protection Control Units.
C. From the overhead panel.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Portable & Waste water ice protection.

333 EACH SLIDE ATTACHMENT FITTING (SAF) HAS:(B1,B2)

A. One electrical heater.
B. Two electrical heaters.
C. Three electrical heaters.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 30 – Escape slide locking mechanism ice protection.

ATA 31: INDICATING/RECORDING

334 In normal operation… (A, B1, B2)

A. …all DMCs (Display management unit) are activated.
B. …DMC 1,2 active, DMC 3 standby.
C. …DMC 1 active, DMC 2 hot standby, DMC 3 backup.

335 Which computer creates cruise page? (B1, B2)

A. DMC
B. FWC
C. SDAC

336 In case of both FWCs fault, which computer create Fault Message? (B1, B2)
A. Fault Messages are not created.
B. SDAC.
C. DMC.

337 What happen if one FWC inop? (B1, B2)

A. Only haft of Master Warning/Caution lights come on in related side.
B. No consequence at all.
C. All Master Warning/Caution lights go off.

338 The recording system comprise… (A, B1, B2)

A. …DFDRS
B. …ACMS
C. …both DFDRS and ACMS.

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339 The ACMS function is dedicated in: (A, B1, B2)

A. MCDUs 2 and 3.
B. MCDU 1.
C. All MCDUs.

340 The DMCs: (A, B1, B2)

A. … comprise EFIS and ECAM parts in each DMC.
B. … comprise ECAM part in DMC 1; EFIS part in DMC 2 and 3.
C. … comprise ECAM part in DMC 1 and 2; EFIS part in DMC 3.

341 THE ELECTRONIC FLIGHT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM (EFIS) FUNCTION

DISPLAYS: (B2)
A. The short term flight information on the Navigation Display (ND) and the
medium/long term flight information on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) main
zone.
B. The short term flight information on the PFD and the medium/long term flight
information on the ND main zone.
C. All the information shown on the PFD.

342 THE FLIGHT WARNING SYSTEM (FWS) COMPUTES: (A, B1, B2)
A. Warnings, cautions, procedures, memos/limitations and A/C system synoptic
pages.
B. Warnings, cautions, flight phases, procedures and A/C system synoptic pages..
C. Warnings, cautions, flight phases, memos/limitations and procedures.

343 CRITICAL FLIGHT DATA ARE STORED IN: (B2)

A. A Flight Data Recorder (FDR), a Quick Access Recorder (QAR) and a Virtual
QAR (VQAR) if installed.
B. Only one FDR whatever the configuration.
C. Two FDR's, and a QAR if installed.

344 ELECTRICAL CLOCK DATA IS USED: (A, B1, B2)

A. For flight management, maintenance, recording purposes and crew information.
B. For maintenance purposes, only.
C. Only to inform the crew about date and time during flight.

345 IN NORMAL CONFIGURATION, THE ELECTRICAL CLOCK DISPLAY

AND OUTPUT ARE SYNCHRONIZED: (B2)
A. On an external time reference received from the Air Data/Inertial Reference Units
(ADIRUs).
B. On an external time reference received from the Multi-Mode Receivers (MMRs).
C. On an internal time reference generated by the clock itself.

346 THE TAIL STRIKE INDICATION ALERT IS GENERATED BY: (B2)

A. The Flight Warning System (FWS).
B. The Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM).
C. The Tail Strike Indicators directly.

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347 WHEN A WARNING OR CAUTION OCCURS, A MESSAGE APPEARS ON

THE: (A, B1, B2)
A. System Display (SD).
B. Engine/Warning Display (EWD).
C. Status display.

348 THE STATUS PAGE DISPLAYS: (A, B1, B2)

A. Memo messages.
B. Operational status messages.
C. Warning messages.

349 PART OF FWC FUNCTIONS IS TO CONTROL THE ATTENTION

GETTERS AND: (B1, B2)
A. Forward aural alerts generated by the Display Management Computer (DMC) to
the loudspeakers.
B. Generate aural alerts and synthetic voice messages.
C. Forward aural alerts generated by the System Data Acquisition Concentrator
(SDAC) to the loudspeakers.

350 THE MAINTENANCE POST FLIGHT REPORT (PFR) INCLUDES THE

LIST OF THE: (A, B1, B2)
A. ECAM warning messages only.
B. Fault messages only.
C. ECAM warning messages and fault messages.

351 ON THE ENGINE/WARNING DISPLAY (EWD), A WARNING MESSAGE

APPEARS ON THE: (A, B1, B2)
A. Upper area.
B. Left memo area.
C. Right memo area.

352 THE ONLY FUNCTION AVAILABLE FOR A TYPE 3 SYSTEM MENU IS:
(B1, B2)
A. The LAST LEG REPORT.
B. The TEST (RESET).
C. CLASS 3.

353 THE COMPUTER WHICH IS THE HEART OF THE DIGITAL FLIGHT

DATA RECORDING SYSTEM (DFDRS) IN AN ENHANCED
CONFIGURATION IS THE: (B2)
A. FDIMU (Flight Data Interface and Management Unit).
B. FDIU (Flight Data Interface Unit).
C. SSFDR (Solid State Flight Data Recorder).

354 THE MAINTAINANCE POST FLIGHT REPORT CAN BE PRINTED: (A, B1,
B2)
A. In flight.
B. In flight and on ground.
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C. On ground only.

355 SYSTEM PAGES ARE DISPLAYED ON THE: (A, B1, B2)

A. Upper ECAM.
B. Lower ECAM.
C. Captain ND.

356 THE ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT SYSTEM (EIS) COMPRISES SEVERAL

SYSTEM COMPUTERS; THESE COMPUTERS ARE: (A, B1, B2)
A. Display Management Computer (DMC) 1, 2, 3; Flight Warning Computer (FWC)
1, 2; System Data Acquisition Concentrator (SDAC) 1, 2.
B. DMC 1, 2, 3; FWC 1, 2; SDAC 1, 2 AND THE CFDIU.
C. DMC 1, 2, 3; FWC 1, 2; SDAC 1, 2, 3.

357 THE INFORMATION FOR THE SYSTEM SYNOPTICS OF THE SYSTEM

PAGES IS ACQUIRED BY THE: (B2)
A. Display management Computer (DMC) only.
B. Flight Warning Computer (FWC) only.
C. System data Acquisition Concentrator (SDAC) and FWC or directly by the DMC.
ATA32: LANDING GEAR
358 Which gear wheels are fitted with carbon disk brakes? (A,B1,B2)
A. Main gear wheels.
B. Nose gear wheels.
C. Main and nose gear wheels.
359 Which hydraulic system powers the nose wheel steering? (A,B1,B2)
A. Green system.
B. Blue system.
C. Yellow system.
360 Landing Gears and doors are electrically controlled and hydraulically operated
by (A,B1,B2)
A. The Blue hydraulic system.
B. The green hydraulic system.
C. The Yellow hydraulic system.
361 A hydraulically operated pitch trimmer on each bogie beam (B1)
A. Damps the movement of the bogie beam when the aircraft moves on ground.
B. Ensures the bogie beam return to normal position when the landing gear is free of
the runway surface (tilt position).
C. Both A and B
362 In the LDG panel, the green triangle comes on when (A,B1,B2)
A. The corresponding gear is locked down.
B. The corresponding gear is in Uplocked position.
C. The corresponding gear is not locked in the selected position
363 When the rudder pedal disconnect pushbutton is pressed, (A,B1,B2)
A. The rudder control by the pedals is disconnected.
B. The nose wheel steering control by the pedals is disconnected.
C. The steering handwheels control is disconnected, the nose wheel steering only
control by the pedals.
364 The towing warning Fault light comes on red when (A,B1,B2)
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A. The rotation angle limits of the Nose Landing Gear have been exceeded during
towing operations.
B. The aircraft is towing with the towing control lever is not in towing position.
C. The towing electrical box is failure.
365 Can the LDG door uplock be mechanically opened (A,B1,B2)
A. Yes, for free fall extension.
B. Yes, for ground door opening.
C. Both A and B
366 Landing gear doors are: (A,B1,B2)
A. All hydraulically operated only.
B. Hydraulically and mechanically operated.
C. Electrically operated.
367 By what is the normal landing gear operating sequence controlled? (B1,B2)
A. Either LGCIU in turn.
B. Both LGCIUs simultaneously
C. Hydraulic sequence valve.
368 By what is the landing gear system powered? (A,B1,B2)
A. Green system.
B. Blue system.
C. Yellow system.
369 Can we move the landing gear control lever to UP position when aircraft on
ground? (B1)
A. No, except when the LGCIUs and Green system are deactivated
B. No, an interlock mechanism prevents unsafe retraction when landing gear is not in
flight condition
C. Yes, but the retraction sequence is inhibited by LGCIUs when the shock
absorbers are compressed
370 Which conditions cause the LGCIU to remove the solenoid-operated BAULK
mechanism and let the LG control lever can be moved to UP position (B1)
A. Nose gear shock absorber extended and Nose wheel steering centered
B. LH RH bogie trail angle with gear locked down
C. Both A and B
371 Which unit gives the landing gear position to ECAM display? (A,B1,B2)
A. Either LGCIU in turn.
B. Both LGCIUs simultaneously.
C. LGCIU 1 only.
372 When is the hydraulic circuit depressurized after retraction? (B1,B2)
A. As soon as the last door is closed.
B. As soon as the calibrated airspeed is below 280 kts.
C. As soon as the calibrated airspeed is above 280 kts.
373 The safety valve is energized to open when (B1,B2)
A. The gear is selected down and speed is below 280 kts.
B. The calibrated airspeed increases above 280 kts.
C. The gear is selected down.
374 The FREE FALL system operated: (B1,B2)
A. Electrically.
B. Electro-mechanically.
C. Mechanically.
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375 What happens when the Free Fall Extension selectors are set to DOWN? (B1)
A. The cut out and vent valves operate.
B. The safety and vent valves operate.
C. The bypass and vent valves operate
376 During Free Fall Extension operation, what is the purpose of the CUT OUT
valve? (B1)
A. It connects the landing gear system to the green hydraulic return.
B. It connects the landing gear system to the blue hydraulic supply.
C. It connects the landing gear system to the green hydraulic supply.
377 Can The free Fall Extension system be operated with aircraft not electrically
powered (B1,B2)
A. Yes, the electrical actuators are supplied by the hot busses.
B. No, the electrical actuators are supplied by DC essential bus (4PP)
C. Yes, the system operates mechanically
378 During free fall extension, if one motor or its power supply of the electrical
actuator fails (B1,B2)
A. The other motor will drive the actuator with haft speed.
B. The other motor will drive the actuator to full travel with normal speed.
C. The other electrical actuator will drive the output shaft with haft speed.
379 After the FREE FALL extension can we operate the landing gear system (B1,B2)
A. No, a cut out valve isolates the whole landing gear system from the green
hydraulic supply.
B. Only Nose wheel steering system is available.
C. Yes, after reset LGCIUs on overhead panels.
380 After a Free Fall Extension, how the normal landing gear hydraulic system be
restored: (B1,B2)
A. By setting the toggle selectors on the panel 312VU to "RESET".
B. By setting the toggle selectors on the panel 312VU to OFF.
C. By reset the LGCIUs on overhead panels.
381 The normal braking system is powered by (A,B1,B2)
A. The green hydraulic system.
B. The blue hydraulic system.
C. The yellow hydraulic system.
382 The alternate braking system is powered by (A,B1,B2)
A. The green hydraulic system.
B. The blue hydraulic system.
C. The yellow hydraulic system.
383 The parking brake is actuated and supplied by (A,B1,B2)
A. The green hydraulic system.
B. The blue hydraulic system or two accumulators.
C. The yellow hydraulic system.
384 When does the "DECEL" light in Automatic Braking come on? (B1)
A. When the AUTO BRAKE pushbutton is selected.
B. When the AUTO BRAKE pushbutton is "OFF".
C. When the deceleration value is correct.
385 When does the control function changeover between two systems of the BSCU
occur? (B1)

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A. Each time the landing gear is set to "DOWN" or in case of sequencing system
failure.
B. Each time the landing gear is set to "UP".
C. When the first engine runs or in case of sequencing system failure
386 Where does the hydraulic fuse stop the flow? (B1)
A. Downstream of the normal servovalves.
B. Upstream of the normal servovalves.
C. Downstream of the normal selector valve.
387 The triple indicator is not indicated during: (B1,B2)
A. Normal brake
B. Alternate brake
C. Parking brake
388 What indications does the triple gage provide? (A,B1,B2)
A. Green hydraulic and accumulator pressure.
B. Blue brake hydraulic and accumulator pressure.
C. Only left and right brake pressure.
389 By what system is the parking brake powered? (A,B1,B2)
A. Green system hydraulic plus 2 accumulator.
B. Yellow hydraulic system plus 2 accumulators
C. Blue hydraulic system plus 2 accumulators.
390 Where is the parking brake pressure indicated? (A,B1,B2)
A. ECAM.
B. Triple indicator.
C. No indication.
391 For the parking brake system, which sentence is TRUE: (B1,B2)
A. When the "PARK BRK" is set to "ON", it is necessary to press the pedals.
B. When the "PARK BRK" is set to "ON", it is not necessary to press the pedals.
C. When the "PARK BRK" is set to "OFF", it is necessary to press the pedals.
392 With the parking brake ON, how long is the pressure required to be maintained.
(B1,B2)
A. The pressure in the brakes is required to be maintained for a duration of 8 hours at
205 bars (3000 psi)
B. The pressure in the brakes is required to be maintained for a duration of 12 hours
at 175 bars (2540 psi)
C. The pressure in the brakes is required to be maintained for a duration of 24 hours
at 175 bars (2540 psi)
393 Which component changes the electrical signals to a temperature indication on
the ECAM display? (B1,B2)
A. The braking and steering control unit (BSCU).
B. The brake temperature monitoring unit (BTMU)
C. The chromel-alumel temperature sensors
394 By what is the Nose Wheel Steering powered? (A,B1,B2)
A. Green system.
B. Green or blue system.
C. Yellow system.
395 The Nose Wheel steering can be achieved by: (B1,B2)
A. Rudder pedals - Handwheels - Auto pilot.
B. Rudder pedals.
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C. Handwheels and rudder pedals.

396 What is the maximum Nose Wheel Steering angle when using the pedals or
under autopilot control? (B1,B2)
A. 65°.
B. 15°.
C. 6°.
397 After gear gravity extension, (B1)
A. The Nose wheel steering is lost.
B. The Nose wheel Steering is recovery when the ground speed is less than 10 knots.
C. The nose wheel steering by the pedals is disconnected.
398 Up to what speed will the rudder pedals provide a maximum of 6 degrees
steering angle? (B1,B2)
A. 15 knots.
B. 30 knots.
C. 40 knots.
399 What is the function of the bypass valve? (B1)
A. To isolate the steering actuator service lines from each other.
B. To supply the steering actuator service lines from each other.
C. To isolate the steering actuator return lines from each other.
400 What is the function of the swivel selector valve in the Nose wheel steering
system (B1)
A. To isolate the green hydraulic pressure from the system when the nose landing
gear is retracted.
B. To supply the green hydraulic pressure to the system when the nose landing gear
is retracted.
C. To connects the system to the green return line when the nose landing gear is
extended.
401 After take off how the nose wheel returns to the centered position. (A,B1,B2)
A. By an internal cam mechanism.
B. By the steering servovalve that isolate the hydraulic pressure from the steering
actuator.
C. By the swivel selectorvalve that isolate the green pressure from the system when
the NLG is retracted.
402 The green pressure supplies the steering servovalve when: (B1,B2)
A. The aircraft speed is below 100 kts and The shock absorbers are compressed
B. One engine is running and The towing lever is in normal position,
C. Both A and B.
403 Where is the tire pressure indication displayed? (A,B1,B2)
A. On a tire and brake indicator.
B. On ECAM.
C. No indication.
404 The function of the Tire Pressure Indicating System (TPIS) is (A,B1,B2)
A. To supply pressure information, for each tire, to be displayed on the ECAM.
B. Warnings when pressure in one or more tires does not agree with the specified
pressure.
C. Both A and B.
405 The Tire Pressure Indicating System (TPIS) triggered the warning for flight
crew when: (A, B1, B2).
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A. The absolute pressure of any tire is lower than a given value.

B. The pressure difference between 2 tires installed on the same wheel axle is above
a given value.
C. Both A and B.
406 The pressure information that displayed on the ECAM, for each tire, is supplied
by (B1,B2)
A. TPIC (Tire Pressure Indicating Computer)
B. BSCU (Braking and Steering Control Unit)
C. LGCIU1 (Landing Gear Control and Interface Unit 1)

ATA 33: LIGHT

407 THE CABIN LIGHTING SYSTEM:(B2)

A. Is controlled and monitored by In Flight Entertainment (IFE) system.
B. Is always controlled and monitored directly from the various activation devices.
C. Is a fully controlled and monitored Cabin Intercommunication Data System
(CIDS).
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cabin light.
408 THE WHOLE CABIN LIGHTING IS CONTROLLED FROM:(A,B1,B2)
A. The Circuit Breaker panel 2000 VU.
B. The CIDS FAP.
C. Any attendant station.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cabin light.
409 WHAT IS PURPOSE OF THE INTEGRATED LIGHT?(A,B1,B2)
A. illuminates the overhead panel
B. illuminates the glareshield and center instrument panel
C. Illuminates all the instruments and panels in the cockpit
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cockpit light.
410 WHAT HAPPEN WHEN YOU SELECT THE ANN LT SWITCH TO "TEST"
POSITION?(A,B1,B2)
A. All annunciator lights on overhead panel come on
B. All annunciator lights come on and 8's up in all LCD
C. All annunciator lights changes it status
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cockpit light.
411 WITH THE INTERIOR DOME LIGHT SWITCH IN "STORM" POSITION,
THE DOME AND MAIN INSTRUMENT PANELS LIGHTS COME ON :(B2)
A. at full brightness
B. at 10% brightness
C. at 50% brightness
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cockpit light.
412 THE EMERGENCY LIGHTING SYSTEM CAN BE CONTROLED FROM:
(B2)
A. Cockpit only.
B. Cockpit and Cabin (FAP).
C. FAP only.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cabin light.
413 THE SYSTEM TEST FUNCTION ON THE PROGRAMMING AND TEST
PANEL (PTP) IS USED TO TEST:(B1,B2)
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A. The emergency lighting battery only.

B. The emergency lighting system only.
C. The emergency lighting battery and the emergency lighting system.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cabin light.
414 THE SIGNALS TO ACTIVATE THE AUTOMATIC DIM FUNCTION FOR
THE FWD ENTRANCE AREA LIGHTS ARE:(B2)
A. Cockpit door open and Landing Gear not compressed.
B. Cockpit door open and engines running.
C. Cockpit door open and No Smoking/Fasten Seat Belt (NS/FSB) signs switched to
ON.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cabin light.
415 ALL THE EMERGENCY LIGHTS ARE SUPPLIED FROM THE EPSU
BATTERIES WHEN:(A,B1,B2)
A. The EMER light switch is in the ON position and the DC Essential Bus is
supplied.
B. The EMER light switch is in the ARM position and the DC Essential Bus fails.
C. The EMER P/B on the Forward Attendant Panel is pressed.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cabin light.
416 WHICH SITUATION THE LOGO LIGHTS ARE ILLUMINATED?(B2)
A. NAV & LOGO toggle switch in position 1 or 2 plus the MLG compressed or
flaps extended.
B. NAV & LOGO toggle switch in position 1 or 2.
C. the MLG compressed or flaps extended.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Exteral light.
417 WHEN THE RWY TURN OFF SWITCH SET TO ON POSTITION, RWY
TURN OFF LIGHTS WILL BE COME ON:(B2)
A. When the nose landing gear is retracted
B. When the Nose landing gear is downlocked
C. Flat and slat extension
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Exteral light.
418 WHEN THE "LAND" LIGHT SELECTOR SET TO "ON" POSITION:(B1,B2)
A. The landing lights are fully extended
B. Extends the landing light which automatically comes on when fully extended..
C. The landing light comes on.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Exteral light.
419 THE STROBE LIGHTS SELECTOR SET TO "AUTO", STROBE LIGHTS
FLASHING IF:(B1,B2)
A. The shock absorbers are not compressed.
B. The shock absorbers are compressed.
C. Flap and slat extension.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Exteral light.
420 ON GROUND, THE WING AND ENGINE SCAN LIGHTS SWITCH ON AND
THE RH OR LH MID PASSENGER DOORS IS OPEN:(B2)
A. The corresponding engine scan lights fully brightness operate
B. The corresponding engine scan lights do not operate
C. The corresponding engine scan lights dim to 50% brightness
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Exteral light.

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421 THAT EXIT LOCATION AND MARKING SIGNS ARE AUTOMATICALLY

SWITCHED TO ON IN CASE OF:(B2)
A. Slat and flap fully extension
B. Landing gear extend and downlocked.
C. An excessive cabin depressurization.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cabin light.
422 CONTROL LIGHT IN CARGO COMPARTMENT CAN BE CONTROLLED
BY:(B1,B2)
A. a switch located in the cabin area
B. a switch located in the cockpit area
C. a toggle switch located inside each cargo compartment
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cargo light Presentation.
423 IN THE ENHANCED CABIN INTERCOMMUNICATION DATA SYSTEM
(CIDS), THE PURPOSE OF THE "LAV MAINT" P/B ON THE FLIGHT
ATTENDENT PANEL (FAP) IS TO:(B1,B2)
A. Set the lavatory light to full brightness whatever the lavatory door position is.
B. Test the lavatory light.
C. Switch off the lavatory light power supply for removal/installation.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cabin light.
424 WITH ENGINES RUNNING AND THE COCKPIT DOOR OPEN, THE FWD
LEFT ENTRY LIGHT:(B2)
A. Increases to 100%.
B. Dims to 50%.
C. Dims to 10%.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cabin light.
425 WHEN THE LAVATORY DOOR IS LOCKED:(A,B1,B2)
A. Lavatory lighting intensity increases to 100%.
B. Lavatory lighting dims to 50%.
C. Lavatory lighting dims to 10%.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cabin light.
426 THE SWITCHES TO CONTROL THE AVIONICS COMPARTMENT
LIGHTING ARE LOCATED:(B2)
A. Both in the Nose Landing Gear bay.
B. One in the avionics compartment and one in the cockpit.
C. Only in the cockpit.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 33-Cargo and service light.
ATA 34 NAVIGATION

427 The standby navigation system comprises: (A, B1, B2)

A. Standby altimeter, metric altimeter, standby airspeed, standby compass and
standby horizon.
B. Standby altimeter, metric altimeter, standby airspeed, standby compass, standby
horizon and DDRMI (Digital Distance Radio Magnetic Indicator).
C. Standby altimeter, standby airspeed, standby compass and standby horizon.

428 Which part provides Wind speed, Ground speed, Wind direction parameters?
(B2)
A. ADR part.
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B. IR part
C. ADR and IR parts.

429 What happen when the ADR pushbutton is released out? (A, B1, B2)
A. The associated ADR output is disconnected.
B. The ADR system is de-energized.
C. The ADR system is reset.

430 The ON BAT indicator in ADIRS Mode Selector Unit comes on when: (A, B1,
B2)
A. One or more ADIRUs are supplied by aircraft batteries.
B. For 5s during power up test.
C. Both A & B.

431 The ADIRU 3 get TAT (Total Air Temperature) signal from: (A, B1, B2)
A. Captain TAT probe.
B. F/O TAT probe.
C. Captain and F/O TAT probes.

432 The TAT (Total Air Temperature) and SAT (Static Air Temperature)
parameters indicated crosses in the lower part of System Display when: (B2)
A. ADR1 fault.
B. ADIRU1 is not align.
C. In case of failure or when NCD (Non Computed Data) information is received
form ADR1.

433 In the Radio Navigation Back Up Mode: (B2)

A. RMP1 can be used to tune the VOR1, DME1, ILS1 and ADF1.
B. Any RMPs can be used to tune the VOR1, DME1, ILS1 and ADF1.
C. Only RMP3 can be used to tune the navigation systems.

434 The function of ILS are: (A, B1, B2)

A. Provide G/S (Glide Slope) and LOC (Localizer) indication on PFDs.
B. Provide G/S (Glide Slope) and LOC (Localizer) indication on NDs.
C. Provide G/S (Glide Slope) and LOC (Localizer) indication on PFDs and NDs.

435 The Multi Mode Receiver system comprises: (A, B1, B2)
A. One G/S antenna; one LOC antenna and two MMR units.
B. One G/S antenna; one LOC antenna; two GPS antennas and two MMR units.
C. Two GPS antennas and two MMR units.

436 In normal operation, the Marker part is used on: (B2)

A. VOR1
B. VOR2
C. Both VORs.

437 The LRRA (Low Range Radio Altimeter) indication on PFDs when: (B2)
A. Aircraft height less than 2500 ft.
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B. Aircraft height equal 2500 ft.

C. Aircraft height less than or equal 2500 ft.

438 Where can you control the brightness of the Weather Radar image? (A, B1, B2)
A. In the EFIS control panels.
B. In the EFIS switching panels, the outer knob of each ND potentiometer.
C. In the EFIS switching panels, the inner knob of each ND potentiometer.

439 The functions of ATC transponder are: (A, B1, B2)

A. Provides the traffic controllers with aircraft identification and altitude data.
B. Send the information for TCAS operation only.
C. Provides the attitude data to ground controllers.

440 How can you do the self-test of EGPWC (Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning
Computer)? (A, B1, B2)
A. By activated via the MCDU on the ground.
B. By momentarily pressing the GPWS/G/S pushbutton switches.
C. By momentarily pressing the GPWS/G/S pushbutton switches, or activated via the
MCDU on the ground.

441 Automatic direction finder (ADF) data is sent: (B2)

A. To the PFDs and NDs through the Display Management Computers (DMCs).
B. Directly to the NDs and Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic Indicator
(DDRMI).
C. To the NDs through the DMCs and directly to the DDRMI.

442 ALL THE AIR DATA MODULES ARE IDENTICAL AND

INTERCHANGEABLE (PITOT AND STATIC): (A, B1, B2)
A. Yes, they know their function by pin programming.
B. No, they are not interchangeable.
C. Yes, but the ADIRU must be reprogrammed.

443 THE AOA SENSORS SEND INFORMATION DIRECTLY TO: (B2)

A. The ADR part only.
B. The IR part only.
C. The ADR and IR part.

444 A WATER DRAIN IS FITTED TO: (A, B1, B2)

A. All pitot lines.
B. The standby static lines.
C. All pitot and static lines.

445 ON PFD, AIRSPEED, MACH NUMBER, BAROMETRIC ALTITUDE ARE

PROVIDED FROM THE: (B2)
A. Air Data Reference (ADR) part.
B. Inertial Reference (IR) part.
C. PITOT PROBES and STATIC PORTS directly.

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446 AIR DATA MODULES (ADM) SUPPLY PRESSURE INFORMATION TO

THE AIR DATA/INERTIAL REFERENCE UNITS (ADIRU'S) FROM: (A, B1,
B2)
A. All Pitot probes and Static ports.
B. The Pitot probes only.
C. The Static ports only.

447 THE WEATHER RADAR (WXR) IMAGE IS DISPLAYED ON THE: (A, B1,
B2)
A. PFDs.
B. NDs.
C. PFDs and NDs.

448 THE RADIO ALTIMETER TRANSCEIVERS ARE LOCATED IN THE: (B2)

A. AFT Cargo Compartment.
B. AFT Avionics Rack.
C. FWD Avionics Rack.

449 THE TRAFFIC COLLISION AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (TCAS)

COMPONENTS ARE: (B2)
A. Two antennas, one TCAS computer and one TCAS/Air Traffic Control (ATC)
control panel.
B. Two antennas, two TCAS computers and one TCAS/ATC control panel.
C. Four antennas, two TCAS computers and two TCAS/ATC control panels.

450 THE ENHANCED GROUND PROXIMITY WARNING SYSTEM (EGPWS)

ALERTS ARE: (A, B1, B2)
A. Visual, aural warnings and the terrain hazards display on NDs.
B. Visual and aural warnings.
C. Aural warnings only.

451 THE ENHANCED GROUND PROXIMITY WARNING SYSTEM (EGPWS)

COMPUTER PROCESSES DATA FROM: (B2)
A. ADIRU 1, ADIRU 2, RA 1, RA 2, ILS 1, ILS 2, FMGEC 1, FMGEC 2.
B. ADIRU 1, RA 1, ILS 1, FMGEC 1.
C. ADIRU 1, ADIRU 2, ADIRU 3, RA 1, ILS 1, FMGEC 1.
ATA35: OXYGEN
452 The oxygen system consists of : (A,B1,B2)
A. The crew oxygen system and the passenger oxygen system.
B. The crew oxygen system, the passenger oxygen system, and the portable oxygen
system.
C. The crew, the passenger, the portable and the emergency oxygen system.
453 What indicates an overboard discharge? (A,B1,B2)
A. Warning on the oxygen control panel.
B. An amber "OXY" legend on the ECAM page.
C. A yellow indicator on the fuselage.
454 Oxygen system is discharged overboard through a safety port when (A,B1,B2)
A. Overpressure in the HP source (HP press. > 2500 Psi)
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B. Overpressure in the LP system (LP press. > 175 Psi)

C. Both A and B
455 The crew oxygen system is supplied from (A,B1,B2)
A. The chemical oxygen generators
B. The fixed high pressure oxygen cylinders.
C. The portable high pressure oxygen cylinders with continuous flow type masks.
456 Can the cylinder pressure be checked on an unpowered aircraft? (A,B1,B2)
A. Yes, on the direct reading pressure gage.
B. No, only when the ECAM is powered.
C. Yes, providing the batteries are installed.
457 What is the ECAM indication when the pressure in the cylinder is 1499 Psi?
(B1,B2)
A. 1499 (green).
B. 1499 (green value, amber underline).
C. 1499 (amber).
458 The "REGUL LO PR" legend appears amber on the ECAM DOOR/OXY page
when (B1,B2)
A. The LP pressure is lower than 50 psi.
B. The LP pressure is lower than 400 psi.
C. The LP pressure is lower than 1500 psi.
459 When the NORMAL/100% selector is set to 100% (B1,B2)
A. The user breathes a mixture of cabin air and oxygen on demand.
B. The user breathes pure oxygen at all cabin altitudes.
C. The user breathes undiluted oxygen starting from a cabin altitude of 30,000 ft
(9,144 m).
460 What does the OXYGEN ON flag indicate? (B1,B2)
A. The regulator functional test has been performed.
B. The piston valve is open.
C. There is a failure in the system.
461 when the mask is stowed inside the box. the regulator will be supplied by oxygen
pressure: (B1,B2)
A. Only when the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET button is pressed.
B. Yes, at any time.
C. No, when the door is closed, the piston valve shuts off the mask oxygen supply.
462 When the TEST/EMERGENCY knob is turned to the EMERGENCY position,
(B1,B2)
A. Continuous oxygen overpressure is supplied to the mask
B. The user breathes pure oxygen without overpressure at all cabin altitudes.
C. The regulator automatic provide oxygen overpressure when cabin altitude above
30,000 ft
463 The operation of the mask microphone enable when (B1,B2)
A. Any time.
B. The mask is supplied by oxygen pressure.
C. The TEST/EMERGENCY knob is turned to the EMERGENCY position.
464 What do you test by pressing the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET control
button? (B1,B2)
A. Leaks in the harness.
B. Leaks in the regulator.
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C. Operation of the emergency system.

465 In which position should the oxygen cylinder valve be to perform the crew
oxygen system distribution leakage test? (B1,B2)
A. Open.
B. Close.
C. Does not matter.
466 The passenger mask containers are located (A,B1,B2)
A. Above passenger seats and above each attendant seat.
B. In the lavatories & galleys ceilings.
C. Both A and B
467 The chemical oxygen generator supplies a flow of low pressure oxygen for
(A,B1,B2)
A. A minimum time of 15 minutes.
B. A minimum time of 10 minutes.
C. A maximum time of 15 minutes.
468 The passenger oxygen system is activated: (A, B1,B2)
A. Automatically only.
B. Automatically or by the crew.
C. With a special tool.
469 The passenger masks are presented automatically when (A,B1,B2)
A. the cabin altitude is higher than 14 000 ft
B. MASK MAN ON pushbutton is pressed by flight crew
C. Both A and B
470 When does the FAULT light on the TIMER RESET pushbutton come on?
(B1,B2)
A. If the latch assemblies of the containers have not been supplied.
B. If there is a failure of one SWITCH OFF relay.
C. If there is a failure of both SWITCH OFF relays.
471 The chemical oxygen generator has been used is identified by. (A,B1,B2)
A. An indicator turning from pink to blue.
B. An indicator turning from blue to pink.
C. An yellow indicator.
472 What happens when the MAN ON pushbutton is pressed? (B1,B2)
A. SYS ON indicator light stays off, TMR RESET switch FAULT light stays off,
B. SYS ON indicator light comes on, TMR RESET switch FAULT light stays off,
C. SYS ON indicator light comes on, TMR RESET switch FAULT light comes on
473 In case of failure of the container door opening system, how to open it (A, B1,
B2).
A. A manual release tool allows mechanical opening of the door
B. by pressing again the MASK MAN ON pushbutton more than 5 seconds
C. By momentarily pressing the TIMER RESET pushbutton on the maintenance
panel.
474 The protective breathing equipment are located: (A,B1,B2)
A. In the cockpit, only.
B. At the cabin attendant stations, only.
C. In the cockpit and at the cabin attendant stations.
475 The flight crew protective breathing equipment supplies oxygen to a crew
member if there is (A,B1,B2)
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A. A fire.
B. An emission of smoke and/or noxious gas.
C. Both A and B
476 The cabin attendants portable oxygen system supplies (A,B1,B2)
A. Oxygen to the cabin attendants.
B. First aid oxygen for the passengers.
C. Both A and B
477 The cabin attendants portable oxygen system comprises : (A,B1,B2)
A. High pressure oxygen cylinders with continuous flow type masks.
B. Protective breathing equipment.
C. Both A and B
478 Does the portable high pressure oxygen cylinders equip with a rupture disk?
(B1,B2)
A. No, it is installed only on the crew oxygen system
B. Yes, to protect the cylinder from overpressure. The disk breaks at a pressure of
2700 psi (186bar).
C. No, a pressure regulator reduces the pressure between 35 psi (2.4 bar) and 86 psi
(6 bar)

ATA 36-BLEED SYSTEM

479 AT LOW ENGINE SPEED, BLEED AIR IS TAPPED FROM: (A,B1,B2)
A. the intermediate pressure stage (8th stage).
B. the intermediate and high pressure stage (8th or 14th stage).
C. the high pressure stage only (14th stage).
480 AT NORMAL ENGINE SPEED, DURING CRUISE, BLEED AIR IS TAPPED
FROM: (A,B1,B2)
A. the intermediate pressure stage (8th stage).
B. the intermediate and high pressure stage (8th or 14th stage).
C. the Auxiliary Power Unit bleed.
481 THE GROUND AIR SUPPLY IS OBTAINED FROM: (A,B1,B2)
A. Two HP connectors on the RH side near the crossbleed valve.
B. One HP connector on each engine starter line.
C. Two HP connectors on the LH side near the crossbleed valve.
482 THE OVERPRESSURE VALVE: (B1)
A. is pneumatically controlled and operated.
B. is electrically controlled and operated.
C. prevents reverse flow in the system.
483 FOLLOWING AN OVERPRESSURE HEADING TO CLOSURE OF THE
OVERPRESSURE VALVE, THE VALVE IS RE-OPENED BY: (B1)
A. operating a manual override on the valve
B. automatic reset after A/C on ground and engines stopped.
C. Automatic operation as soon as the pressure drops sufficiently.
484 THE ELECTRICAL CLOSING OF THE HP VALVE IS ACHIEVED BY:
(B1,B2)
A. energization of a solenoid from the ENG BLEED p/b or the BMC.
B. De-energization of a solenoid from the ENG BLEED p/b or the BMC
C. Operation of an electrical motor according to BMC logic.

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485 EACH PRESSURE REGULATING VALVE(PRV) IS ELECTRICALLY

CLOSED WHEN: (A,B1,B2)
A. The corresponding HP valve is regulating.
B. One of two corresponding adjacent engines is started.
C. The APU bleed valve is open.
486 THE HPV IS CONTROLLED CLOSED BY THE BMC: (A,B1,B2)
A. At the same time as the PRV or during A/C descent.
B. When the HP stage pressure is higher than 35 PSI.
C. When the HP stage pressure is lower than 35 PSI.
487 THE INTERMEDIATE PRESSURE CHECK VALVE NORMALLY
PROTECTS THE IP STAGE FROM REVERSE FLOW WHEN: (A,B1,B2)
A. APU bleed is selected ON.
B. The pressure regulating valve is closed.
C. The high pressure valve regulates.
488 THE HIGH PRESSURE VALVE CLOSURE IS ACHIEVED: (B1,B2)
A. Pneumatically or electrically by a solenoid.
B. Electrically only by means of a solenoid.
C. Electrically only by means of an electrical motor.
489 THE HIGH PRESSURE VALVE IS: (B1)
A. A pneumatically operated regulating valve.
B. A pneumatically operated shut-off valve only.
C. An electrically operated regulating valve.
490 When the THS(Thermostat Solenoid) is not energized, the PRV(pressure
Regulating valve): (B1,B2)
A. Pneumatically closes whatever the configuration of the system.
B. Pneumatically fully opens whatever the configuration of the system.
C. Regulates the pressure when the IP(Intermediate Pressure) stage supplies the
system.
491 FOR THE PNEUMATIC SYSTEM CONTROL, THERE IS: (A,B1,B2)
A. Only one BMC(Bleed Monitoring Computer) for the system.
B. One BMC for each engine.
C. Two BMC for each engine.
492 THE THC(THERMOSTAT CONTROL) IS EQUIPPED WITH: (B1)
A. One solenoid for the shut-off function.
B. One solenoid for temperature setting.
C. Two solenoids for control by cockpit and BMC.
493 WHAT IS PURPOSE OF THE PRV ASSOCIATED WITH THE THS?
(A,B1,B2)
A. It regulates the temperature for pneumatics users.
B. It regulates the pressure for pneumatics users.
C. It regulates the pressure and temperature for pneumatics users.
494 WHAT PRESSURE IS INDICATED ON THE PNEUMATIC PART OF THE
ECAM BLEED PAGE? (B1,B2)
A. The regulated pressure measured downstream from the precooler.
B. The transferred pressure measured downstream from the HPV.
C. The regulated pressure measured downstream from the HPV.
495 WHAT HAPPENS TO THE CROSS BLEED VALVE IN AUTO MODE WHEN
A PNEUMATIC LEAK OCCURS? (A,B1,B2)
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A. It opens
B. It regulates
C. It closes
496 WHAT HAPPENS TO THE APU BLEED VALVE WHEN A LH LEAK
OCCURS? (A,B1,B2)
A. It opens
B. It regulates
C. It closes
497 WHY DOES THE APU BLEED VALVE NOT OPEN WHEN A LH WING OR
PYLON LEAK OCCURS? (A,B1,B2)
A. Because the Cross Bleed Valve is open.
B. In order to protect the surrounding area.
C. In order to protect the right hand bleed system.
ATA38: WATER AND WASTE
498 The potable water system can be serviced: (A,B1,B2)
A. With electrical power.
B. Without electrical power.
C. Both A and B
499 In flight, the water tanks are pressurized by. (A,B1,B2)
A. The pressurized air comes from the bleed air system.
B. The ground air pressure supply system or a compressor is installed (optional).
C. Both A and B
500 The potable water quantity is displayed on (A,B1,B2)
A. The Programming Indicating Module.
B. On the water tanks.
C. Both A and B
501 Waste water from the lavatories and galleys is (A,B1,B2)
A. Drained overboard via two heated drain masts.
B. Drained to the waste tank.
C. Used for rinse the toilet.
502 How can a leak in a lavatory be isolated? (A,B1,B2)
A. By depressurizing the water tank.
B. By setting the manual water shut-off valve of the lavatory to the closed position.
C. The Vacuum System Controller will open the filling line drain valve
automatically.
503 With electrical power connected, what happens when the water level inside the
tank reaches the preselect quantity? (A,B1,B2)
A. The filling line drain valve opens and the AFT fill/drain valve closes.
B. The FWD and AFT fill /drain valves close and the forward drain valve opens.
C. The FWD and AFT fill /drain valves close.
504 How many water service and drain panels are fitted on the aircraft? (A,B1,B2)
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
505 Where is the main water quantity indication located? (A,B1,B2)
A. On the Programming and Indicating Module.
B. On the forward water service panel.
C. On the aft water service panel.
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506 Which service panels are used to drain the water system? (A,B1,B2)
A. Forward.
B. Aft.
C. All three.
507 Can preselection keys are used to preselect the water quantity during refilling
(A,B1,B2)
A. No, preselection of water quantity is only available when the water service panel
door is closed
B. No, in this case you must select the water quantity only at the water service panel
C. Yes, it doesn’t matter
508 When the water service door is open, the Water service door microswitch
(B1,B2)
A. The quantity indication and the preselection system are energized.
B. The quantity indication and the preselection system are de-energized.
C. The electrical power to the air compressor (if installed) is supplies.
509 The preselection control unit when the water quantity has reached the
preselected level. (B1,B2)
A. Closes the fill/drain/overflow valve in the corresponding tank.
B. Closes the shut off valve in the corresponding tank.
C. Both A and B.
510 The pressurization of the potable water tanks is achieved by: (A,B1,B2)
A. The aircraft pneumatic system only.
B. The compressor only.
C. The aircraft pneumatic system or a ground air pressure supply.
511 From which sources are the water tanks normally pressurized in flight? (B1,B2)
A. The aircraft pneumatic system.
B. An optional electrical compressor.
C. The water service panel.
512 Which component prevents overpressure in the water tanks? (B1)
A. The pressure switch.
B. The shuttle valve.
C. The pressure reducing and relief valve.
513 Water heater is automatically switch off in case of: (A,B1,B2)
A. Low level quantity in the heater
B. Low inlet line pressure
C. Both A and B
514 In which case need to manually reset by pushbutton is located under the top
cover of the water heater. (B1,B2)
A. Overtemperature protection.
B. Low level quantity protection
C. Low inlet line pressure protection
515 The shut-off valves close automatically in flight when (B1,B2)
A. The water quantity in the related tank is 5% or less.
B. The water quantity in the related tank is 15% or less.
C. The water quantity in the related tank is 25% or less.
516 Where the VSC is located (B1,B2)
A. In avionic compartment.
B. In the Aft cargo compartment.
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C. In the bulk cargo compartment

517 The waste water from the galley and lavatory is: (A,B1,B2)
A. Carried into the waste tanks.
B. Discarded overboard through a unique FWD heated drain mast.
C. Discarded overboard through a FWD and an AFT heated drain mast.
518 Which systems prevent a permanent air leakage of the cabin air when the waste
water is drained overboard ? (B1,B2)
A. The forward and aft Drain Masts.
B. The check valves fitted on the lines.
C. The diaphragm type Drain Valves.
519 Waste water disposal is achieved in flight. (A,B1,B2)
A. By gravity.
B. By differential pressure.
C. By differential pressure and gravity action.
520 Waste water disposal is achieved on ground. (A,B1,B2)
A. By gravity.
B. By differential pressure.
C. By differential pressure and gravity action.
521 Which type of drain valve are installed on the waste water system (B1)
A. Float valve.
B. Drain stop valve.
C. Both A and B
522 The waste water Drain Masts are electrically heated (A,B1,B2)
A. On ground only.
B. In flight only.
C. On ground and in flight.
523 How is the complete toilet system monitored? (B1,B2)
A. By a Vacuum System Controller.
B. By a Vacuum Generator.
C. By a Flush Control Unit.
524 To help flushing of the toilet bowls, water is supplied from the (A,B1,B2)
A. Waste water of the lavatories and galleys
B. Potable water system.
C. Both A and B.
525 Toilet operation is sequenced by (A,B1,B2)
A. A Flush Control Unit.
B. A Vacuum System Controller.
C. A Vacuum Generator.
526 The level balancing valve(s) is/are controlled by (B1,B2)
A. A handle located in the aft cabin.
B. A handle located in the waste tank.
C. The Programming and Indicating Module.
527 When does the vacuum generator run? (A,B1,B2)
A. On ground only.
B. On ground and at low altitude
C. In flight only.
528 The vacuum generators generate the necessary vacuum: (A,B1,B2)
A. To drain the waste tanks.
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B. When the differential pressure between cabin and atmosphere is insufficient.

C. All the time.
529 Which device inhibits vacuum generator operation? (B1,B2)
A. Flush Control Unit.
B. Vacuum System Controller.
C. The Waste Level Sensors
530 How is the waste material transported to the Waste Holding tank? (A,B1,B2)
A. By the vacuum created inside the tank.
B. By water flushing and gravity effect.
C. By water pressure action.
531 What controls the waste Level Balancing in flight? (B1)
A. The Vacuum System Controller controls the Level Balancing automatically.
B. A control handle operated by the cabin crew.
C. A control switch located in the PIM (Programming and Indicating Module)
532 To rinse the toilet bowl and facilitate evacuation of waste during the Flush
Cycle, the system uses (A, B1, B2).
A. Waste water from galley.
B. Waste water from lavatory.
C. Fresh water from the potable water system.
533 The Flush Control Unit controls and monitors (B1,B2)
A. The flush valve.
B. The water valve and the flush valve.
C. The water valve, the flush valve and the vacuum generator.
534 The Vacuum System Controller inhibits vacuum generator operation when
(A,B1,B2)
A. The altitude is above 16,000 ft.
B. The altitude is less than 16,000 ft.
C. Aircraft in flight
535 The Vacuum System Controller inhibits toilet use during (A,B1,B2)
A. Balancing.
B. Ground servicing.
C. Both A and B
536 During servicing, toilet use is inhibited by automatic deactivation of (A,B1,B2)
A. The Flush Control Units.
B. Vacuum Generators.
C. Both A and B
537 Where is the waste quantity displayed? (A,B1,B2)
A. On the PIM.
B. On the toilet service panel.
C. On both panels.
538 The "LAV INOP" warning is displayed on the Programming and Indicating
Module (B1,B2)
A. When the waste level sensor detects a "tank full" condition.
B. When the waste service door is open.
C. During waste level balancing.
539 When the toilet service door is open (A,B1,B2)
A. The "LAV INOP" warning is displayed on the Programming and Indicating
Module
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B. The WASTE SERVICE DOOR OPEN message is displayed on the Programming

and Indication Module.
C. The WASTE SERVICE DOOR OPEN/LAVS INOP message is displayed on the
Programming and Indication Module.
540 During waste balancing (A,B1,B2)
A. The message "LAVS INOP BALANCING" is displayed on the PIM.
B. The message "PERFORM WASTE BALANCING" is shown on the PIM.
C. The "LAV INOP" warning is displayed on the Programming and Indicating
Module
541 How to reset the Vacuum System Controller after a fault has occurred.(B1,B2)
A. By the reset pushbutton switch on the circuit breaker panel 5005 VE, located in
the ceiling in between the two aft passengers doors.
B. By the reset pushbutton switch on the overhead panel, located in the cockpit.
C. By the reset pushbutton switch on the VSC, located in the bulk cargo
compartment.

ATA 45- OMS

542 THE CMS (CENTRAL MAINTENANCE SYSTEM) IS COMPOSED OF:
(A,B1,B2)
A. Two CMCs and two FWCs (Flight Warning Computer).
B. Two CMCs and all aircraft system BITEs.
C. Both A and B.
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 45 – CMS Presentation.
543 THE CMCS CENTRALIZE AND MEMORIZE WARNINGS GENERATED
BY:(A,B1,B2)
A. Flight Warning Computers (FWCs)
B. All failure messages produced by the BITE function integrated in the A/C
computers.
C. Both A and B
Ref: Vacbi A330-ATA 45 – CMS Presentation.
544 THE TEST WHICH ENABLE THE MAINTENANCE STAFF TO CHECK
THAT THE SYSTEMS ARE SAFE FOR FLIGHT AND ENABLE
TROUBLESHOOTING CALL:(B1,B2)
A. System tests
B. Cyclic test
C. Power-up test.
Ref: Vacbi A330 – T2 - ATA 45 – CMS Presentation.
545 WHICH TEST GENERATE STIMULI TO VARIOUS COMMAND DEVICES
SUCH AS ACTUATORS OR VALVES?(B1,B2)
A. Power-up test
B. system tests
C. specific tests
Ref: Vacbi A330 – T2 - ATA 45 – CMS Presentation.
546 NORMALLY, TWO CMCs OPERATE :(B1,B2)
A. Number one is active, number two is in hot standby.
B. Number two is active, number one is in hot standby.
C. Both CMCs are active
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS Presentation.
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547 THE CMS OPERATES IN TWO MODES:(B2)

A. Normal mode and interactive mode.
B. Ground and flight mode.
C. ON or OFF mode.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS Function.
548 HOW MANY MCDU CAN BE USED TO ACCESS THE CMS SYSTEM
SIMULTANEOUSLY?(A,B1,B2)
A. One only
B. Two
C. Three.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS Architecture
549 WHICH MODE OF CMS WHICH IS AVAILABLE ON THE GROUND
ONLY, THE CMS ALLOWS THE OPERATOR TO RETRIEVE TROUBLE-
SHOOTING DATA AND TO INITIATE TESTS.?(B2)
A. Normal mode
B. Interactive mode
C. Both A and B
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS Function.
550 WHICH TYPE SYSTEMS CAN MEMORIZE FAILURES THAT OCCURRED
DURING THE LAST 64 FLIGHTS?(A,B1,B2)
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS Function.
551 WHICH TYPE SYSTEMS CAN ONLY MEMORIZE FAILURES FROM THE
LAST FLIGHT?(A,B1,B2)
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS Function.
552 THE CLASS FAILURES HAVE AN OPERATIONAL CONSEQUENCE ON
THE CURRENT FLIGHT IS:(A, B1,B2)
A. class 1
B. class 2
C. class 3
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS-Failure Classification.
553 IF A FAILURE OCCURS WITHIN A SYSTEM, THE BITE WILL SEND A
FAILURE MESSAGE TO THE CMCS CALLED:(B1,B2)
A. external failure
B. independent failure
C. internal failure
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS Function.
554 THE BITE OF EACH SYSTEM INTERFACING WITH THE AFFECTED
SYSTEM WILL SEND A FAILURE MESSAGE TO THE CMCS CALLED:
(B1,B2)
A. internal failure
B. independent failure
C. external failure
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Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS Function.

555 ON THE POST FLIGHT REPORT COCKPIT EFFECTS, THE WARNING
TO BE PRESENTED WITH "NOT DISPLAYED" ADDED TO THE
MESSAGE THAT MEAN:(B1,B2)
A. This warning is generated during roll-out phase
B. This warning is generated during a flight phase inhibit.
C. This warning is generated during take-off phase.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS- CMS operation in normal mode.
556 THE AVIONICS CONFIGURATION REPORT ENABLES ACCESS TO THE:
(B2)
A. Equipment configuration report, Diskette configuration report and Configuration
change report.
B. Diskette configuration report, MCDU configuration reports and servicing reports.
C. Diskette configuration report, Servicing reports and Equipment configuration
reports.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS Avionics Configuration Reports .
557 THE CONFIGURATION CHANGE FUNCTION IS DESIGNED TO:(B1,B2)
A. Validate only the database number or the software reference changes through the
Central Maintenance System (CMS).
B. Validate the part number, the database number, or the software reference changes
through the CMS.
C. Validate only the software reference changes through the CMS.
Ref: Vacbi A330 - ATA 45 – CMS Avionics Configuration Reports .

ATA 46 – INFORMATION SYSTEM

558 An ATC message is indicated in the cockpit by means of… (A, B1, B2)
A. …two ATC message lights.
B. …two master caution lights.
C. …a buzzer only.

559 How can you check the frequency used by VHF 3 for data transfer of the ATSU?
(B2)
A. By pressing of the RMP 3 transfer key.
B. By selection of the VHF 1 Data Mode page.
C. By selection of the VHF 3 Data Mode page.

560 Is it possible to tune VHF 3 from the MCDU ATSU menu? (B2)
A. No.
B. Not in voice mode, in data mode only.
C. Yes, from the ATSU COMM menu.

561 How can the DCDUs (Data link Communication Display Units) be tested? (A,
B1, B2)
A. By a test button on the DCDUs.
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B. By the system test from the CMS/ATIMS menu.

C. The annunciator light test triggers the DCDU test.

562 In case of a message from the ATC station, the aural alert is generated…(A, B1,
B2)
A. …by the Flight Warning Computer.
B. …by the Air Traffic Services Unit.
C. …by the Audio Management Unit.

563 What is the purpose of the ATC COMM Pushbutton on the MCDU? (A, B1, B2)
A. To establish ATC communication.
B. To access the ATC communication log.
C. To access the ATSU ATC menu.

564 THE PURPOSE OF THE AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE UNIT (ATSU) "COMM
CONFIG" MCDU FUNCTIONS IS TO: (B2)
A. Initialize and activate the on-board peripherals functions and services.
B. Initialize and activate Airline Operational Control (AOC) hosted applications.
C. Initialize and activate the air-ground communications functions and services.

565 ONE OF THE FUNCTIONS CARRIED OUT THROUGH THE AIR TRAFFIC
SERVICE UNIT (ATSU) "VHF3 VOICE DIRECTORY" MCDU PAGE IS TO
SHOW: (B2)
A. And activate a voice frequency.
B. An ordered list of authorized service providers usable for data communications.
C. The ATSU Router Status of the on board peripherals.

566 THE OPERATIONAL TEST OF THE AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE UNIT (ATSU)
IS USED TO: (B2)
A. Test the voice mode only.
B. Check the ATSU router configuration only.
C. Check the ATSU router configuration and to test the voice mode.

567 THE MANDATORY PARAMETERS REQUIRED FOR THE

INITIALIZATION OF THE AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE UNIT (ATSU)
ROUTER ARE: (B2)
A. A city pair identification, an aircraft registration number and a valid scan mask.
B. An aircraft registration number, a valid airline identification and a valid scan
mask.
C. An aircraft registration number and a valid scan mask only.

568 ONE OF THE FUNCTIONS CARRIED OUT THROUGH THE AIR TRAFFIC
SERVICE UNIT (ATSU) "MAINTENANCE" MCDU MENU IS TO: (B2)
A. Indicate an ordered list of authorized service providers usable for data
communications.
B. Test the link between the communication media and a ground network.
C. Verify the communication status of the ATSU.

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569 THE AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE UNIT (ATSU) IS INTERFACED WITH THE
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT SYSTEM (AFS) FOR: (B2)
A. Cabin administrative data exchanges.
B. Flight operational data exchanges.
C. Communication data exchanges.

570 THE SYSTEM USED IN PRE-FUTURE AIR NAVIGATION SYSTEM (PRE-

FANS) CONFIGURATION TO EXCHANGE DATA BETWEEN AIRCRAFT
AND GROUND SYSTEMS IS THE: (B1, B2)
A. Aeronautical Telecommunications Network (ATN).
B. Aircraft Communication Addressing and Reporting System (ACARS) network.
C. Avionics Data Communication Network (ADCN).

571 THE AIR TRAFFIC AND INFORMATION MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

(ATIMS) BUILT IN TEST EQUIPMENT (BITE) FUNCTION IS ENSURED
BY THE: (B1, B2)
A. Central Maintenance Computer (CMC).
B. Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU).
C. ATSU and the Datalink Control and Display Unit (DCDU).

572 THE UPLOADING OF THE ATSU (AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE UNIT)

SOFTWARE PACKAGE IS POSSIBLE: (A, B1, B2)
A. In flight and on ground.
B. On ground only, through the Data Loader.
C. In flight and on ground for the uploading of all AOC (Airline Operational
Control) applications.

573 THE "ATC MSG" INDICATOR LIGHTS ARE USED FOR: (A, B1, B2)
A. Crew awareness for message transmission.
B. Crew awareness for frequency tuning prior to message reception.
C. Crew awareness for message reception.

574 THE ATSU (AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE UNIT) FUNCTION WHICH

PROVIDES TRANSMISSION OF DATA TO THE AIRLINE IS CALLED: (B2)
A. ATS Facilities Notification (AFN).
B. Controller Pilot Data Link Communication (CPDLC).
C. Airline Operation Control (AOC).

575 THE CHECK OF THE AIRLINE OPERATIONAL CONTROL (AOC)

SOFTWARE PART NUMBER IS DONE THROUGH: (B1, B2)
A. The Airline Operational Control (AOC) CONFIGURATION page.
B. The LAST LEG REPORT page.
C. The SPECIFIC DATA page.

576 THE ROUTER INITIALIZATION PROCEDURE PROVIDES THE AIR

TRAFFIC SERVICE UNIT (ATSU) WITH: (B2)
A. The Aircraft Registration Number (ARN) and the VHF3 Scan Mask.
B. The VHF3 Scan Mask and both Airlines IDENT.
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C. The ARN, the VHF3 Scan Mask and both Airlines IDENT.

577 TO CONTROL THE VHF DATA RADIO (VDR) 3 SWITCHING BETWEEN

VOICE AND DATA MODE, THERE ARE DISCRETE INTERFACES
BETWEEN THE: (B2)
A. Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU), VDR3, and the MCDU.
B. ATSU, VDR3, the Radio Management Panel (RMP) and the MCDU.
C. ATSU, VDR3 and the RMP.

ATA 49-APU
578 WHICH COMPUTER SUPERVISES ALL OPERATIONS OF THE APU?
(A,B1,B2)
A. The ECU (Electronic Control Unit).
B. The APUC (Auxiliary Power Control Unit).
C. The BMC (Bleed Monitoring Computer).
579 WITH THE APU BLEED VALVE OPEN, RELEASING THE MASTER
SWITCH WILL CAUSE THE APU TO SHUT DOWN: (A,B1,B2)
A. Immediately.
B. Only after the cool down period has elapsed.
C. Never, the APU bleed valve must be shut manually before shut down.
580 THE APU PROVIDES: (A,B1,B2)
A. Hydraulic & Pneumatic power.
B. Hydraulic & Electric power.
C. Pneumatic & Electric power.
581 FROM WHERE CAN AN APU EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN BE
PERFORMED? (A,B1,B2)
A. refuel / defuel panel, external power control panel and APU fire pushbutton.
B. refuel / defuel panel and blue hydraulic service panel.
C. The APU cannot be shutdown form outside the aircraft.
582 WHAT IS THE FUEL FLOW SIGNAL USED FOR? (B1)
A. Fuel schedule during starting.
B. Fuel schedule during on speed operation.
C. Indication in the cockpit.
583 IN WHICH CASE DOES THE ECB SHUT DOWN THE APU? (B1,B2)
A. Low oil pressure or low oil level.
B. High oil temperature or low oil level.
C. High oil temperature or low oil pressure.
584 WHICH COMPONENT FROM THE OIL SYSTEM IS CONTROLLED BY
THE ECB? (B1)
A. The air/oil separator
B. The de-oiling solenoid valve
C. Scavenge filter clogging
585 WHICH COMPONENT HAVE A VISUAL POSITION INDICATOR? (B1)
A. Bleed load valve and IGV actuator
B. Surge control valve and IGV actuator
C. Bleed load valve and Surge control valve
586 DOES THE APU SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATELY WHEN THE MASTER
SWITCH IS SET TO OFF? (A,B1,B2)
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A. Yes, in all cases

B. No, in all cases
C. No, after a delay, if bleed air was used
587 WHAT IS THE APU GOVERNED SPEED? (A,B1,B2)
A. 99/100
B. 100/100
C. 101/100
588 TO SHUTDOWN THE APU, THE ECB: (B1,B2)
A. Simulates an over speed signal
B. Simulates an over temperature signal
C. Simulates an over load signal
589 WHEN WILL LOW OIL PRESSURE CAUSE AN APU SHUTDOWN? (B1)
A. On ground only
B. In flight only
C. Both
590 WHICH COMPONENT REGULATES THE AIRFLOW TO THE
PNEUMATIC SYSTEM? (B1,B2)
A. The bleed load valve.
B. The inlet guide vanes.
C. The surge control valve.
ATA52: DOORS
591 The passenger/crew doors are opened (A, B1, B2)
A. Outwards and forwards, parallel to the fuselage.
B. Outwards and upwards from the fuselage.
C. Inwards and upwards.
592 The door seal around the door is inflated through holes when (A, B1, B2)
A. Aircraft in flight only
B. The cabin is depressurized.
C. The cabin pressure is available.
593 Which component maintains the door parallel to the fuselage? (A, B1, B2)
A. Two guide arms
B. By the support arm.
C. The guide rollers.
594 The door does not moving when in the fully opened position by (A, B1, B2).
A. the rubber door buffer
B. The door stay mechanism.
C. two locking hooks located on the upper edge
595 In "ARMED" mode, the arming mechanical linkage (A, B1, B2)
A. Fixes the girt bar to the floor structure.
B. Secures the girt bar to the door.
C. Lets the girt bar can move freely between the door and the door floor.
596 The red flashing light located below the viewing prism window: (A, B1, B2)
A. Indicates the ARMED configuration of the evacuation system.
B. Warns the operator that the cabin is still pressurized.
C. Indicates the LOCKED condition of the door.
597 The white light located below the viewing prism window: (A, B1, B2)
A. Indicates the ARMED configuration of the evacuation system.
B. Warns the operator that the cabin is still pressurized.
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C. Indicates the LOCKED condition of the door.

598 When does the damper and emergency cylinder work as a damper? (A, B1, B2)
A. When the arming lever is in "DISARMED" position.
B. When the door is fully closed.
C. When the arming lever is in "ARMED" position.
599 How is the inner handle released when the door frame is in contact with the
frame? (B1)
A. By the lifting shaft.
B. By the lowering shaft.
C. By the locking shaft.
600 The gear box allows (A, B1, B2)
A. The outer handle does not move when the inner handle is operated.
B. The inner handle does not move when the outer handle is operated.
C. The outer handle move simultaneously when the inner handle is operated.
601 All the support arms are (B1, B2)
A. Interchangeable.
B. Symmetrical between LH and RH passenger door and not interchangeable.
C. Symmetrical between LH and RH passenger door and interchangeable if they are
in the same side.
602 Which component keeps the passenger door stays in the lifted position when it is
open (B1, B2)
A. The lifting shaft
B. The lowering shaft.
C. The door stay mechanism
603 When does the safety pin lock the arming lever? (A, B1, B2)
A. In ARMED position.
B. In DISARMED position.
C. Both A and B
604 What happens when you open the door from outside in ARMED mode? (A, B1,
B2)
A. The system is automatically disarmed.
B. The white light comes on.
C. The escape slide deploys.
605 Why must the cylinder safety pin be installed? (B1)
A. To prevent activation of the percussion mechanism.
B. To lock the cylinder in the extended position.
C. To secure the door in "DISARMED" mode.
606 Each passenger door is equipped with: (A,B1,B2)
A. One mechanical indicator.
B. Two electrical indicators.
C. Two mechanical indicators.
607 How many emergency exit door are installed on the A330 aircraft (A, B1, B2)
A. Two.
B. Four.
C. Six.
608 The FWD and AFT cargo door: (A,B1,B2)
A. Are identical in design and in operation, but not in size.
B. Are identical in size and in operation, but not in design.
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C. Are identical only in operation.

609 The pump handle is: (A,B1,B2)
A. Used for closing only, even with or without electric pump.
B. Used for assisting the hydraulic system.
C. Located in the green hydraulic ground service panel.
610 The FWD and AFT cargo doors are opened ( A, B1, B2)
A. Outwards and forwards, parallel to the fuselage.
B. Outwards and upwards from the fuselage.
C. Inwards and upwards.
611 What does the red flag indicator show? (A, B1, B2)
A. The hooks are not correctly fully latched.
B. The latching handle has been operated.
C. The corresponding hook is not locked.
612 What does the green light fitted near the manual selector valve indicate? (A, B1,
B2)
A. The yellow hydraulic pressure is available to operate the door.
B. The door is fully opened & locked.
C. The door is correctly unlatched & unlocked.
613 In the cargo door, behind the flapper door , a red light flashes when (A, B1, B2)
A. There is a residual pressure in the cabin.
B. The hooks are not locked.
C. The door is unlatched
614 The power to operate the cargo door actuation system is supplied by (A, B1, B2)
A. The Green hydraulic system.
B. The Blue hydraulic system.
C. The Yellow hydraulic system.
615 The latching handle operates (A, B1, B2)
A. The hooks which secure the door to the door frame.
B. The latching shaft to secure the hooks in the latched position.
C. A locking shaft which secures the latching shaft when the hooks are closed.
616 Locking handle operates (A, B1, B2)
A. A locking shaft which secures the latching shaft when the hooks are closed.
B. The hooks which secure the door to the door frame.
C. The latching shaft to release or lock the hooks.
617 Can we operate the cargo door without the electrical power (A, B1, B2)
A. Yes, by using the hand pump
B. Yes, by using the mechanical driven device
C. No, the yellow electrical pump is only way to operate the cargo door.
618 How many person are required for manually operate the cargo door (A, B1, B2)
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
619 What is the interlock mechanism installed for? (B1, B2)
A. Avoid locking before latching (correct sequencing).
B. To prevent latching shaft rotation and latching handle returning to the closed
position when cargo door is opened.
C. Maintain the ten indicator flags in the door opened position.
620 Why is the actuator opening chamber pressurized when closing the door? (B1)
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A. For internal leakages.

B. To extinguish the green light on the control panel.
C. To prevent the door from falling down when the actuator unlocks.
621 Which valve control the normal or manual mode for hydraulic operation of the
cargo door? (B1)
A. The electric selector valve
B. The manual selector valve
C. The double check valve
622 For cargo door operation (A, B1, B2)
A. The door sill latches (of the cargo loading system) must be in LATCHED position
B. The door sill latches (of the cargo loading system) must be in UNLATCHED
position
C. The door sill latches position is not effected.
623 During normal operation of the cargo door (A, B1, B2)
A. The Yellow system leak measurement isolation valve is automatically controlled
shut
B. The Yellow system motor valve block of the Flap PCU is latched in off.
C. Both A and B
624 During manual operate of the cargo door (B1, B2)
A. The electric selector valve is energized.
B. The electric selector valve is de-energized.
C. The electric selector valve is not affected.
625 The Bulk cargo door is opened (A, B1, B2)
A. Outwards and forwards, parallel to the fuselage.
B. Outwards and upwards from the fuselage.
C. Inwards and upwards.
626 The bulk cargo door latch assembly located on (A, B1, B2)
A. The lower edge.
B. The upper edge.
C. Both sides.
627 The Bulk cargo door can operate from (A, B1, B2)
A. Outside only.
B. Inside only.
C. Both A and B
628 When does the cabin pressure red light flash? (A, B1, B2)
A. When the cabin is pressurized.
B. When the outer or inner handle is lifted up and the cabin is pressurized.
C. When the door is disarmed, the engines are not running and the differential
pressure is too high.
629 Which proximity sensor is not used for escape slide indicating? (A, B1, B2)
A. Door frame proximity sensor.
B. Locking shaft proximity sensor.
C. Arming lever proximity sensor.
630 The residual cabin pressure red light comes on (B1, B2).
A. When all the engines are not running and the parking brake is applied and the
cabin residual pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars.
B. When engines are not running, the slide is disarmed and the cabin residual
pressure exceeds 2.5 mbars.
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C. When engines are not running, the slide is armed and the cabin residual pressure
exceeds 2.5 mbars.
631 What is displayed on the DOOR ECAM page when the cargo door is fully
opened? (B1, B2)
A. Door fully opened.
B. Nothing.
C. Door not closed.
632 When is the electrical selector valve supplied? (B1, B2)
A. When the locking handle proximity sensor is NEAR and the sill latches are up.
B. When the latching shaft proximity sensor is NEAR and the sill latches are up.
C. When the latching shaft proximity sensor is NEAR and the sill latches are down.
633 The Door & Slide Control System consists of : (A,B1,B2)
A. Proximity switches and a proximity Switch Control Unit,
B. A pressure switch and an Autonomous Standby Power Supply Unit.
C. A and B
634 The functions of the DSCS are : (A,B1,B2)
A. Door and Escape Slide Indicating and Warning, Residual Cabin Pressure
Detection and Indicating,
B. Cargo Doors Electrical Control and Indicating.
C. A and B
635 The white light on the door illuminates if (A,B1,B2)
A. The inner handle is lifted with the arming lever in ARMED position.
B. The inner handle is lifted with the arming lever in DISARMED position.
C. The outer handle is lifted with the arming lever in ARMED position.
636 The door operation starts as soon as : (A,B1,B2)
A. The door is unlatched, and the selector is set to the open or close position.
B. The cargo loading sill latches are raised,
C. A and B
637 In case of loss of aircraft electrical power. Can the cabin pressure warning
system is working? (B1,B2)
A. Yes, The ASPSU (Autonomous Standby Power Supply Unit) provides power to
the PSCU
B. Yes, The PSCU connected with the hot bus
C. No, the PSCU need the aircraft DC power supply to generate the warning
638 The cockpit door is: (A, B1, B2)
A. An armored and bulletproof door made with one mechanical latch electrically
released.
B. An armored and bulletproof door made with three mechanical latches electrically
released.
C. An armored and bulletproof door made with three mechanical latches
mechanically released.
639 The cockpit door is locked: (A, B1, B2)
A. Automatically when it is closed and the aircraft is powered.
B. Automatically when the aircraft is in flight.
C. Manually by the crew only.
640 In normal mode, incase of no response from the pilots, at a request to entry in
the cockpit by the cabin attendant crew: (A, B1, B2)
A. The cockpit door remains closed.
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B. The cockpit door opens automatically after a defined time.

C. The cockpit door can be open by the cabin attendant crew.
641 When the emergency mode is activated from the keypad with the cockpit door
toggle switch in norm neutral position: (A, B1, B2)
A. All the latches remain locked and the access is not possible from the cabin.
B. All the latches are unlocked and the access is possible from the cabin.
C. All the latches will unlock automatically after a preset time delay.
642 A locked cockpit door: (A, B1, B2)
A. Can be opened from the cabin side at all times.
B. Can be opened from the cockpit side at all times.
C. Cannot be opened from the cockpit side.
643 You can access the avionics compartments from: (A, B1, B2)
A. The cockpit and the outside.
B. The cockpit, the outside and the cabin.
C. The cockpit, the outside, and the forward cargo compartment.

ATA 71/80 - POWER PLANT – GENERAL & ENGINE STARTING

ATA 71

644 “PW 4168” MEANS: (A,B1,B2)

A. Engine is rated at max thrust of 41680 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C.
B. Engine is rated at max thrust of 68000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C.
C. Engine is rated at max thrust of 40000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C.
645 ENGINE FAN COWLING SYSTEM INCLUDE: (A, B1, B2)
A. FWD, MIDDLE and AFT cowls.
B. FWD and AFT cowls with the upper FWD part is fix.
C. FWD and AFT cowls with the upper AFT part is fix.
646 EACH AFT FAN COWL HALF SHALL BE HOLD OPEN BY: (A, B1, B2)
A. 1 rod
B. 2 rods
C. 3 rods

647 WHERE ARE THE PAMB PORTS LOCATED? (A, B1, B2)
A. Forward fan cowls
B. AFT fan cowls
C. On the inlet cowl.

648 WHERE CAN YOU FIND THE TRANSCOWL LOCKING SYSTEM

INDICATORS? (A, B1, B2)
A. On the FWD fan cowls
B. On the AFT fan cowls
C. On the REV cowls
649 THE V GROOVE IS FOUND: (A, B1, B2)
A. On the intermediate case
B. On the AFT fan cowls
C. On the Air intake cowl

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650 THE FORWARD LOWER ENGINE MOUNT ATTACHES TO THE

ENGINE’S: (B1)
A. Intermediate case.
B. Fan case.
C. Thrust reserver doors.

ATA 72 – ENGINE PW 4168

651 THE PURPOSE OF ENGINE COWL LOAD SHARING IS TO: (B1)
A. Prevent blade rubbed at high power and AOA operation.
B. Create correct fan flow through out the engine
C. Attach the engine core to pylon.
652 THE BEARING IS SUBJECTED TO HIGH TEMPERATURE CONDITION
AND NEED TO BE COOLED DOWN BY BUFFER AIR: (B1)
A. Number 1
B. Number 2
C. Number 3

653 FEATURES OF PW 4168 ENGINE ARE: (A, B1,B2)

A. Triple spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio.
B. Two spools, radial flow, high fan bypass ratio.
C. Two spools, axial flow, high fan bypass ratio.

654 WHICH SEGMENT OF THE SPINNER CONE IS (ARE) DE-ICED BY AIR?

(B1)
A. The front cone.
B. The rear cone.
C. Both.

655 THE ENGINE INTERMEDIATE CASE IS: (A,B1,B2)

A. The primary structural component of the engine.
B. Used mainly to separate fan and core flow
C. Used mainly as engine major equipments holder.

656 AERODYNAMIC STATION 2.5 MEANS: (B1,B2)

A. LPC Outlet guide vanes exit.
B. Fan Outlet guide vanes exit.
C. LPT exit.

657 THE HAND CRANKING DRIVE CONNECTS TO? (A,B1,B2)

A. LP rotor.
B. HP rotor.
C. Both LP and HP rotors.

ATA 73 – ENGINE FUEL AND CONTROL.

658 SWITCHING BETWEEN THE A/C 28VDC AND PMA POWER SUPPLIES
TO FADEC IS DONE: (B1,B2)
A. Manually thru the FADEC GND PWR pushbutton.
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B. Automatically by the ECU.

C. Automatically by the both ECU and EIU.

659 THE ENGINE CONTROL UNIT IS SUPPLIED BY A DEDICATED

GENERATOR ON THE ENGINE: (B1,B2)
A. When the start sequence is completed
B. When N2 is greater than a certain % value.
C. If the aircraft is in flight.

660 FADEC POWER DE-ENERGIZATION OCCURS: (B1, B2)

A. At any time after related master lever has been selected OFF
B. 5 min after FADEC GND selected if not in CMS menu mode
C. On GND when secondary EXT power source is connected.

661 HOW IS THE SERVO FUEL HEATER CONTROLED? (B1)

A. By the thermal start
B. Electrically by EEC
C. Pneumatically using Ps3 pressure

662 THE THERMAL POP OUT INDICATOR ON THE SERVO FUEL HEATER
HOUSING GIVES A VISUAL INDICATION OF: (B1)
A. Failure of the oil control valve or its thermostat.
B. Servo fuel filter is bypassed.
C. Fuel heating is ON.

663 THE PURPOSE OF THE FUEL PUMP BYPASS VALVE IS TO: (B1)
A. Reduce the temperature of engine fuel, oil and IDG oil during high power
operation
B. Reduce the temperature of engine fuel, oil and IDG oil at all power operation
C. To warm up the engine fuel, oil and IDG oil during low power operation

664 THE FUEL PUMP BYPASS VALVE BYPASSES: (B1)

A. FMU return flow from entering IDG FOC core
B. FMU return flow from entering Engine FOC core
C. Both A and B

665 HOW IS THE FUEL PUMP BYPASS VALVE CONTROLLED? (B1)

A. Electrically by EEC at N2 above 70% to 75 %
B. By Fuel pressure
C. Pneumatically using Ps3 pressure

666 HOW IS THE FUEL OIL COOLER BYPASS VALVE CONTROLLED? (B1)
A. By the thermal start
B. Electrically by EEC
C. By Fuel pressure

667 IF AN EEC OUTPUT DRIVE FAILURE OCCURS: (B1,B2)

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A. The primary channel remains in control of all outputs except the group in which
the function failed
B. Overall channels switching over from active to standby.
C. Affected channel generate another output signal.

668 ENGINE OVERSPEED PROTECTION IS ENSURED BY: (B1)

A. N2 Overspeed governor which mechanically keeps the speed not exceeding the
limit
B. Overspeed solenoid which minimize the fuel flow to combustion chambers
C. EEC which commands the FMU torque motor to further close position

669 HOW IS THE WIRING FOR EACH EEC CHANNEL IDENTIFIED? (B1,B2)
A. Channel A is Blue; Channel B is Green; Yellow is thermal couples
B. Channel A is Green; Channel B is Blue; Yellow is thermal couples
C. Channel A is Blue; Channel B is Green; Yellow is airframe circuits

670 THE EEC DATA ENTRY PLUG: (B1,B2)

A. Is matched to the EEC.
B. Is matched to the engine.
C. Has the engine serial number stamped on it.

671 THE EEC NORMALLY OPERATES IN THE: (A, B1, B2)

A. N1 mode.
B. N2 mode.
C. EPR mode.

672 THE SERVO FUEL HEATER: (A, B1, B2)

A. Heat metered fuel to the injectors.
B. Cool engine oil for the gearbox.
C. Prevent ice from contaminating torque motors and servos.

ATA 74 – IGNITION SYSTEM.

673 EACH ENGINE EQUIPPED WITH? (A,B1,B2)

A. One ignition system with two igniters.
B. Two ignition systems, each has two igniters.
C. Two ignition systems with two igniters.

674 WHICH COMPONENTS BELONG TO ENGINE IGNITION SYSTEM?:

(A,B1,B2) (Ref page 358 Training doc)
A. ERU, Exciters, cable leads, Igniters
B. Exciters, cable leads, Igniters
C. EIVMU, Exciters, cable leads, Igniters

675 DURING MANUAL START: (B1) (Ref page 360 Training doc)
A. One Igniter is supplied, automatic alternation between two igniters is done by
EEC
B. Ignition will have to be cut off manually when N2 reach certain speed.
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C. Ignition is cut off automatically when N2 reach certain speed.

676 IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CASE, ONLY ONE IGNITER IS

SUPPLIED? (B1) (Ref page 360 Training doc)
A. During AUTO RESTART
B. During MANUAL START
C. None of the above

677 WHICH STATEMENT IS NOT CORRECT REGARDING WARNING

SHOULD BE TAKEN PRIOR TO GET CONTACT WITH THE IGNITION
SYSTEM? (A,B1, B2) (Ref AMM task 71-00-00-860-823 and 74-00-00-200-801)
A. The ignition system usually operates when the engine starts but the
ignition system can also operate when the engine is not operated
B. After IGN system has been used wait several minutes before removal
components.
C. After removing IGN cable, wait several minutes before ground its terminal.

678 BECAUSE OUTPUT VOLTAGES FROM THE EXCITER BOX CAN BE

DANGEROUS, IT IS RECOMMENDED THAT THE EXCITER HIGH
TENSION LEAD SHOULD: (A,B1, B2) (Ref AMM task 71-00-00-860-823 and 74-
00-00-200-801)
A. Be touched against s grounded engine part.
B. Never be disconnected.
C. None of the above.

679 THE EEC CONTROL ELECTRICAL SUPPLY TO IGNITION SYSTEM

THROUGH? (B1,B2) (Ref page 360 Training doc)
A. ERU
B. EIVMU
C. Directly

680 THE IGNITION TEST FROM MCDU IS (B1) (Ref page 365 Training doc)
A. Audible test
B. Done with engine motoring
C. Testing both Igniters at the same time

ATA 75 – AIR SYSTEM

681 BEFORE AND DURING INITIAL ENGINE START: (A,B1,B2) (Ref page 307
Training doc)
A. The 2.5 bleed valve should be closed.
B. The 2.9 bleed valve should be closed.
C. The 2.5 and the 2.9 bleed valve should be open.

682 THE 2.9 BLEED VALVES ARE: (A,B1,B2) (Ref page 317 Training doc)
A. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
B. Electrically controlled only
C. Pneumatically operated only
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683 THE 2.9 BLEED VALVES ARE: (A,B1,B2) (Ref page 317 Training doc)
A. Opened by spring load and closed by Ps3.
B. Opened by Ps3 and closed by spring load.
C. Opened by Ps3 and closed by 9th stage air.

684 STATOR VANE ACTUATOR RIGGING IS CHECKED WITH THE

ACTUATOR POSITION(S): (B1) (Ref page 322 Training doc)
A. Full open.
B. Full closed.
C. Full open and full closed.

685 WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SYSTEM NOT OPERATED BY FUEL

MUSCLE PRESSURE? (B1)
A. 2.5 bleed system
B. VSV system
C. 2.9 bleed system
686 THE LPT OR HPT TCC AIR SHUTOFF VALVES HAVE REMAINED
CLOSED WHEN THEY SHOULD BE OPEN AND NO FAULT MESSAGES
WERE GENERATED BY THE EEC. THIS PROBLEM IS MOST LIKEKY TO
BE: (B1) (Ref page 329 Training doc)
A. Failure of the EEC alternator.
B. Failure of the TCC air valve control linkages or cables.
C. Loss of Pf pressure to the LPT and HPT air shutoff valves.

687 DURING TAKEOFF: (B1) (Ref page 332 Training doc)

A. Both TCC air shutoff valves should be open.
B. Both TCC air shutoff valves should be closed.
C. The LPT TCC air shutoff valves should be closed and HPT TCC air shutoff
valves should be partly closed.

688 THE TCC AIR SHUTOFF VALVES ARE: (B1) (Ref page 328 Training doc)
A. Rigged full open.
B. Rigged full closed.
C. Not rigged.

689 FEED BACK TO EEC FROM TCC SYSTEM ARE TAKEN AT: (B1, B2) (Ref
page 329 Training doc)
A. TCC actuator
B. TCC valve
C. Cable linkage system

690 TCC ACTUATOR IS ACTUATED BY? (A,B1, B2) (Ref page 329 Training doc)
A. Fuel pressure Pf
B. Air pressure Ps3
C. Electrically by EEC powered motor

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691 TVBC VISUAL POSITION INDICATORS CAN BE FOUND ON THE: (B1)

(Ref page 338 Training doc)
A. 2.9 bleed valves.
B. 2.5 and stator vane actuators.
C. TVBC air valves.

692 HOW IS THE TVBC VALVE POSITION MONITORED? (B1, B2) (Ref page
338 Training doc)
A. By electrical feedback to EEC.
B. By Thermal couple feedback to EEC
C. No feedback to EEC

693 TVBC AIR VALVE ARE: (B1) (Ref page 329 Training doc)
A. Open only during cruise.
B. Open only during takeoff.
C. Spring-load open and pneumatically closed.

694 THE STAGE AIR USED FOR TURBINE VANE AND BLADE COOLING
SYSTEM IS: (B1) (Ref page 339 Training doc)
A. 6th .
B. 9th.
C. 12th.

695 WHICH AIR IS USED BY NACELLE CORE COMPARTMENT COOLING

SYSTEM AS COOLING MEDIA: (A,B1,B2) (Ref page 344 Training doc)
A. Fan Air
B. Ambient air
C. Both Fan Air and Ambient air

696 NCC VALVE IS ACTUATED BY? (B1,B2) (Ref page 329 Training doc)
A. Fuel pressure Pf
B. Air pressure Ps3
C. Electrically by EEC powered motor

697 THE NCC VALVE CLOSED IN CASE: (A,B1,B2)

A. Fire push button released out
B. Ps3 pressure is available at the valve
C. On ground

698 ARE THE IGNITION LEADS COOLED? (A,B1,B2)

A. No, it is not necessary
B. Yes, by Ps3 air pressure
C. Yes, by fan air.

699 THE IGNITER PLUGS ARE COOLED BY: (A,B1,B2)

A. Pf servo fuel.
B. Fan air.
C. None of the above.
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ATA 76 – ENGINE CONTROL

700 WHAT IS THE POSITION OF THE LP FUEL SHUT OFF VALVE IF

RELATED ENGINE MASTER LEVER AT OFF AND THE A/C
ELECTRICAL POWER IS NOT ENERGISED? (B1, B2) (Ref page 353 Training
doc)
A. Valve open.
B. Valve close.
C. Valve stays at the last position as the A/C de powering.

701 IF YOU HAVE TO REPLACE THE ENGINE FUEL PUMP FILTER,

SHOULD YOU DO IT WITH? (B1, B2) (Ref page 353 Training doc)
A. Related engine master lever at OFF and the A/C electrical power is not energized
thus no C/B opening is required.
B. Related engine master lever at OFF and the A/C electrical power is energized and
appropriate C/Bs opened.
C. Related engine master lever at ON and the A/C electrical power is energized.

702 WHEN THE ENGINE MASTER CONTROL SWITCH IS SET TO "OFF"?

(A,B1, B2) (Ref page 353 Training doc)
A. The fuel Low Pressure (LP) Valve and the High Pressure Fuel Shut-Off Valve
(HPSOV) close.
B. Only the HPSOV closes.
C. The LP Valve closes first and the HPSOV closes when the fuel pressure is low.

703 HOW IS THE FUEL LP VALVE CONTROLLED? (A, B1, B2) (Ref page 353
Training doc)
A. By the Master lever or Fire P/B SW
B. By the EEC and the Master lever
C. By the EEC and Fire P/B SW

704 SWITCH OVER BETWEEN EPR AND N1 MODE COULD BE DONE? (A, B1,
B2)
A. Manually or automatically
B. Manually
C. Automatically

ATA 77 - ENGINE INDICATION.

705 THE ENGINE THRUST MODE LIMIT IS DISPLAYED ON? (A,B1,B2) (Ref
Page 207 Training Doc)
A. The lower ECAM engine page.
B. The E/WD.
C. Both lower ECAM engine page and the E/WD.

706 THE N1 INDICATION IS? (A,B1,B2) (Ref Page 214 Training Doc)
A. Displayed on ECAM ENG page
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B. Generated by the N1 speed sensor which is integrated in the P2.5/P2.5 probe

C. Not displayed in EPR mode

707 EPR IS THE RATIO OF? (A,B1,B2) (Ref Page 206 Training Doc)
A. P4.95/P2
B. P2/P4.95
C. T2/T4.95

708 P2 PRESSURE SIGNAL: (B1,B2)

A. Are supplied directly to EEC at the bottom pressure connection.
B. Are supplied to EEC as digital electronic signal.
C. Are supplied to EEC from ADIRS computers.

709 HOW ARE THE P2 AND P4.95 SENT TO EEC? (A,B1,B2) (Ref Page 208
Training Doc)
A. Directly routed to EEC pressure ports
B. Converted at each pressure sensors an routed electrically to EEC
C. A is correct for P2 and B is correct for P4.95

710 N2 ROTOR SPEED INFORMATION IS SUPPLIED BY? (B1,B2) (Ref Page 218
Training Doc)
A. N2 sensor attached to the gearbox
B. A winding of the PMA
C. N2 probe which produces the magnetic field across the HPT coupling gear teethes

711 EXCEEDANCE OF N2 SPEED WILL BE INDICATED BY? (B1,B2) (Ref Page

221 Training Doc)
A. A red cross (+) indication next to the digital indication
B. A red mark will appear on the N2 speed scale.
C. A red ribbon on the N2 speed scale will flash

712 NAC TEMP INDICATION IS NOT DISPLAYED ON ECAM ENG PAGE?

(B1,B2) (Ref Page 223 Training Doc)
A. During engine start where the starter valve position will take place
B. When the actual NAC temp is less than 230 degree C
C. When ENG fire warning is activation

713 THE ENGINE THRUST INDICATED ON ECAM VIA WHAT PARAMETER?

(A,B1,B2)
A. EPR
B. N1 speed.
C. N2 speed

ATA 78 – ENGINE THRUST REVERSER.

714 TO OPEN THE THRUST REVERSER COWL DOORS: (A,B1,B2)
A. The fan cowl doors must be open and the thrust reverser deactivated.
B. First open the V-band latch and then open the other latches.
C. An external hydraulic source is needed.
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715 TO MANUALLY DEPLOY THE TRANSLATING COWL YOU MUST USE A

SPEED WRENCH TO: (A,B1,B2)
A. Turn the thrust reverser locking actuators.
B. Turn the manual drive assembly.
C. Deactivate the Translating Cowl Locking System (TLS).

716 THE TRANSLATING COWL SLEEVES (B1) (Ref Page 382 Training Doc)
A. Are mechanically independent from each other
B. Are mechanically link together
C. Is a single unit

717 THRUST REVERSERS ACTUATORS ARE POWERED BY? (A,B1,B2) (Ref

Page 386 Training Doc)
A. Green hydraulic system for engine 1 and Yellow system for engine 2
B. Blue hydraulic system for engine 1 and Yellow system for engine 2
C. Green hydraulic system for engine 1 and Blue system for engine 2

718 THE LOCKING PROXIMITY SWITCH WHICH SEND THE T/R

FEEDBACK TO EEC ARE ON? (B1, B2) (Ref Page 382 Training Doc)
A. Center and lower actuators
B. Center and upper actuators
C. Upper actuator only

719 THE T/R POSITION FEEDBACK IS SENT TO EEC FROM? (B1, B2) (Ref
Page 385 Training Doc)
A. The two proximity switches on 2 actuator of each sleeve
B. LVDT on each upper actuator
C. LVDT on each TLS actuator

720 THE THRUST REVERSER MANUAL DRIVE ASSEMBLY IS INSTALLED

ON:(A,B1,B2)
A. The feedback actuators.
B. The lower locking actuators.
C. All the locking actuators.

721 THE T/R TRANSLATING COWL LOCKING SYSTEM (TLS) IS

UNLOCKED BY THE:(B1,B2)
A. Electronic Engine Control (EEC) when A/C on the ground.
B. Engine Interface and Vibration Monitoring Unit (EIVMU), depending on altitude
condition.
C. Flight Control Primary Computers (FCPCs) when the Throttle Resolver Angle
(TRA) and radio altitude conditions are met.

722 THE T/R TRANSLATING COWL LOCKING SYSTEM (TLS) IS operated by?
(B1, B2) (Ref page 394 Training doc)
A. 115 VAC motors
B. Hydraulic pressure
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C. Electrical supply from the EEC to TLS motors

723 “REV INHIBITED” APPEARS ON THE ENGINE WARNING DISPLAY

(EWD) WHEN THE:(B1,B2)
A. Reverser is blocked in the stowed position by maintenance action.
B. Reverser is blocked in the deployed position by maintenance action.
C. The thrust reverser has level 1 fault.

724 BLANK OFF THE HYDRAULIC RETURN LINES OF THE ISOLATION

VALVE IN THRUST REVERSER SYSTEM COULD RESULT IN (B1) (Ref
Page 386 Training Doc)
A. Reservoir Low Quantity Warning of the related hydraulic system
B. Actuators unlocked
C. Speed discrepancy between two sleeves movement

ATA 79 - ENGINE OIL SYSTEM

725 WHAT IS (ARE) THE INDICATIONS IN CASE OF METALLIC PARTS IN

THE COMMON SCAVENGE OIL PIPE? (A,B1,B2) (Ref Page 139 Training
Doc)
A. Only a popped clogging indication on the electrical chip detector indicator.
B. An ECAM warning and a popped clogging indication on the electrical chip
detector indicator.
C. There is no indication.

726 WHAT DOES THE ENGINE AIR/OIL HEAT EXCHANGER VALVE

REGULATE? (B1) (Ref Page 139 Training Doc)
A. The engine oil flowing through the heat exchanger
B. The flow of fan air crossing the heat exchanger
C. The flow of ram air crossing the heat exchanger.

727 WHICH FILTERS IN THE OIL SYSTEM HAVE ASSOCIATED “FILTER

CLOG” MESSAGES ON THE ECAM? (A,B1,B2)
A. Pressure Scavenge and Scavenge strainers.
B. Pressure only.
C. Scavenge only.

728 WHEN THE PRIMARY OIL FILTER BECOMES CONTAMINATED, THE

FIRST TO OCCUR IS THE? (B1) (Ref Page 139 Training Doc)
A. Oil filter bypass valve opens to send oil through the secondary filter.
B. Oil filter bypass oil to the last chance strainers.
C. Oil pressure trim orifice opens to permit more oil to bypass.

729 THE ENGINE AIR/OIL HEAT EXCHANGER VALVE IS SPRING-LOADED:

(B1) (Ref Page 152 Training Doc)
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A. Open and P3 air pressure closed.

B. Open and Pf servo fuel pressure closed.
C. Close and Pf servo fuel pressure opened.

730 THE NUMBER 3 BEARING BREATHER RESTRICTOR VALVE IS? (B1)

(ref page 168 training doc)
A. Pneumatically controlled and operated
B. Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
C. Electrically controlled and operated

ATA 80:

731 IF STARTER AIR VALVE SOLENOID IS INOPERATIVE? (A,B1,B2)

A. You can not start the engine.
B. You can still start the engine using manual start sequence.
C. You can only start engine by operating the SAV manually.

732 WHAT IS THE BEST WIND DIRECTION FOR ENGINE STARTING?

(A,B1,B2)
A. Side wind.
B. Tail wind.
C. Front wind.

733 STARTER (A,B1,B2) (ref. AMM 12-13-80)

A. Is filled with Specific lubricant
B. Is filled with Engine oil
C. Uses oil comes from common engine oil system

734 WHICH IS USED AS THE MUSCLE PRESSURE TO OPEARTE THE

STARTER VALVE? (B1) (Ref Page 367 Training Doc)
A. Fuel pressure
B. A/C bleed system pressure
C. Oil pressure

735 THE STARTER SPEED SENSOR IS USED TO? (B1) (Ref Page 368 Training
Doc)
A. Automatic control the starter to disengage
B. Control starter re-engage speed
C. Cut off the Starter Valve after starting phase.

736 STARTOR CUT-OUT IS AUTOMATIC WHEN ENGINE N2 SPEED

REACHES: (B1) (Ref Page 377 Training Doc)
A. Idle N2
B. Around 45% N2
C. Overspeed
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737 FOR STARTER-ASSISTED IN FLIGHT STARTS, THE STARTER AIR

VALVE SOLENOID: (B1) (Ref Page 368 Training Doc)
A. Pulses to modulate airflow to the starter.
B. Magnetically locks closed.
C. Magnetically locks open.

738 HOW THE EEC CONTROL THE STARTER AIR VALVE? (B1, B2) (Ref Page
370 Training Doc)
A. Directly
B. Through the Air valve solenoid
C. Through the EIVMU and ERU

739 THE STARTER VALVE CAN BE CONTROLLED ? (A,B1,B2) (Ref Page 370
Training Doc)
A. Electrically and directly by the EEC
B. Manually from override device
C. Pneumatically using muscle pressure from EEC pressure panel

740 WHICH COMPONENTS BELONG TO THE ENGINE STARTING SYSTEM?

(A,B1,B2) (Ref Page 366 Training Doc)
A. Starter, speed sensor, starter air valve, starter air valve solenoid
B. Starter, starter air valve, starter air valve solenoid
C. Starter, speed sensor, starter air valve

741 IN CASE OF EIVMU FAILURE, ENGINE CONTROLS ARE STILL

SUPPLIED TO THE EEC THROUGH: (B1) (Ref page 376 Training doc)
A. Another Engine Interface Vibration Monitoring Unit (EIVMU).
B. Another engine Electronic Engine Control (EEC).
C. The alternate discrete system.

742 WITH AN INVALID EIVMU, DRY CRANK CAN? (B1) (Ref page 376 Training
doc)
A. Not be done.
B. Be done only if FADEC GND PWR is selected on.
C. Be done through alternate start logic.

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