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Sample Admissions Written Test For MTech & PHD Question Paper2

The document details an application for admission to the M.Tech/Ph.D program at IIT Hyderabad including personal information and a written exam with multiple choice questions covering topics in mathematics, physics, and engineering.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
181 views16 pages

Sample Admissions Written Test For MTech & PHD Question Paper2

The document details an application for admission to the M.Tech/Ph.D program at IIT Hyderabad including personal information and a written exam with multiple choice questions covering topics in mathematics, physics, and engineering.

Uploaded by

Sumithra
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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December 2018 Admissions to M.Tech/Ph.

D Program
Department of Mechanical and Aerospace Engineering
Indian Institute of Technology Hyderabad
December 5th, 2018 - 10:30 am to 12:30 pm (2 hour)

Personal Information
1. Name of the Candidate :
2. Application ID :
3. Email Id :
4 Mobile number :
5. Course Applied for : M.Tech (3 Year) / PhD (Only External/Sponsored)
6. Funding Category : Institute Funded/ Externally Funded / Sponsored
7. Choice of Stream for M.Tech Program Select Options in Each Choice and Scratch Others
TFE = Thermo-Fluid Engineering 1st Choice = TFE / MAD / IDM
MAD = Mechanics & Design 2nd Choice = TFE / MAD / IDM
IDM = Integrated Design & Manufacturing 3rd Choice = TFE / MAD / IDM
8. Educational Background (10th Class (or equivalent) level and above)
Specialization Completion %,
Certificate / Degree Institute /College and Affiliated University
/ Branch Year CGPA

Was the Bachelor’s degree obtained through correspondence course / in distance education mode? Yes / No

Signature of the Applicant


Marks Obtained:
Correct Answers Incorrect Answers Not Attempted Total Marks Obtained
Correct Incorrect Unattempt

1. Select the best suitable option (a, b, c, or d) and mark in the box in front of the question.
2. Each question carries one mark. Negative marking would be used and 0.5 marks would be deducted for
wrong answer.

1. What is the value of (1 − 𝑖)6


𝜋
(a) √2 𝑖 (b) − 4 𝑖
(c) 4𝑖 (d) 8𝑖

2. Functions arccos(x) and cos(x) intersects in the range of


(a) 0- π/6 (b) π/6-π/4
(c) π/4-π/3 (d) π/3-π/2

3. 𝑡
If u(t) is unit function, r(t) is ramp function 𝛿(𝑡) is Direc delta function, find ∫0 𝛿(𝜏) 𝑑𝜏
(a) u(t) (b) r(t)
(c) u(t).r(t) (d) u(t)/r(t)

4. Evaluate ∫−∞ 𝛿(𝑡 − 𝑡0 ) 𝑒 −𝑖2𝜋𝑓𝑡 𝑑𝑡
(a) 𝑒 −𝑖2𝜋𝑓𝑡 (b) 𝑡0 𝑒 −𝑖2𝜋𝑓𝑡0
(c) 𝑡0 𝑒 −𝑖2𝜋𝑓𝑡 (d) 𝑒 −𝑖2𝜋𝑓𝑡0

5. Laplace transform of 5𝑡 3 is
5 1
(a) 𝑠4 (b) 𝑠4
30 6
(c) (d)
𝑠4 𝑠4

6. Find the solution (x,y) of equations (1/5)x = 5x=(1/2)x = 2x


(a) (0,0) (b) (1,0)
(c) (0,1) (d) (1,1)

7. Differentiation of 5x is
(a) 5ex (b) log(5x)
(c) 5x log (5) (d) x5x log (5)

8. 1 1
Evaluate ∫0 𝑥−1 𝑑𝑥 ?
(a) Undefined (b) 0
(c) ∞ (d) -∞

9. 2 3
𝑑 3 𝑦(𝑥) 𝑑 2 𝑦(𝑥)
A differential equation ( 𝑑𝑥 3
) +( 𝑑𝑥 2
) + 𝑦(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 has order of
(a) 6 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1

10. 𝑑 2 𝑦(𝑥)
General solution of a differential equation 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑦(𝑥) = 0 can be
(a) 𝐶 sin 𝐴𝑥 cos 𝐴𝑥 (b) 𝐶 cos(𝐴𝑥 − 𝜃)
𝑥 −𝑥
(c) 𝐴 𝑒 + 𝐵𝑒 (d) All of them

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11 A tank was fitted with three pipes P, Q and R. P and Q are filling pipes and R is an emptying
pipe. P and Q can fill the tank in 8 hours and 9 hours respectively. R can empty the tank in
18 hours. P, Q and R are opened at 5 a.m., 6 a.m. and 7 a.m. respectively. At what time will
the tank be full?
(a) 9:00 am (b) 9:30 am
(c) 8:30 am (d) 10:00 am

12. In a certain room there are 4 boys, 4 girls and 8 chairs. In how many ways can the boys and
girls be seated such that each of them is seated in a different chair and boys and girls sit
alternately?
(a) 1440 (b) 1152
(c) 576 (d) 432

13. In the following series, two wrong numbers are given out of which one differs by a margin
of 1 i.e., +1 or -1 and the other with a greater margin. From the choices, choose the number
that is differing by the greater margin. The first number and the last number in the series
are always correct.
5, 10, 25, 50, 120, 170, 290
(a) 10 (b) 25
(c) 50 (d) 120

14. A four digit number not less than 4000 and less than 7000 has the following features
(i) It is a multiple of 5
(ii) Both its two middle digits are between 4 and 7, both inclusive
How many possible values can the number take?
(a) 10 (b) 25
(c) 50 (d) 120

15. The units digit of 5151 x 5252 x 5353 x 5454 is


(a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 4 (d) 2

16. The price of sugar decreases by 20%, by what percent must the consumption of sugar
increase in order to have the expenditure on sugar increase by 5%?
(a) 12.5 % (b) 31.25 %
(c) 22.22 % (d) 16.66 %

17. In a rhombus ABCD, the diagonals meet at (5, 7). If the equation of the side AB is 3X + 4Y + 9
= 0, then equation of CD is
(a) 3X + 4Y + 14 = 0 (b) 3X + 4Y + 19 = 0
(c) 3X + 4Y - 95 = 0 (d) 3X + 4Y + 113 = 0

18. SCD, TEF, UGH, ____, WKL


(a) CMN (b) UJI
(c) VIJ (d) IJT

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19. How many triplets of prime numbers can be formed such that the terms of the triplet
are in arithmetic progression?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) More than 3

20. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate
in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
(a) 6.25 (b) 6.5
(c) 6.75 (d) 7

21 For the problem shown in Fig.1 what is the magnitude of frictional force at the interface
between the mass and the inclined wall.

θ
m
F
g

1 𝜋
Assume 𝐹 = 𝑚 = 𝑔 = 1, 𝜇 = , 𝜃 =
2 4
Fig. 1
−1
(a) √2 (b) √2
(c) 1 (d) 2

22 During the operation of the slider crank mechanism shown in Fig 2, the pin of the crank
completely breaks releasing the crank. How many degrees of freedom does this system have
after the pin breaks?

β
pin ω
θ

Fig. 2
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

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23. A taut string under tension 𝑇 is shown in Fig.3. What is the deflection of the string? Assume
𝑇 = 𝐿 = 𝐹 = 1 and 𝑎 = 0.2. Further assume small deformations.
F

Fig. 3
(a) 0.2 (b) 1
(c) 0.1 (d) 0.16

24. For the system shown in Fig.4. calculate the natural frequency (cycles/sec). Assume 𝑙1 =
𝑙2 = 𝑚1 = 𝑚2 = 1, 𝑘𝑡 = 4, 𝑘 = 5, and a=0.2.
l1 l2
a m1 m2

kt
k
Torsional
spring

Fig. 4
1 (b) 𝜋
(a) 2𝜋
1
(c) (d) 𝜋 2
𝜋

25. The ship shown in Fig.5 needs to be held steady in the water using a rope and a pole
anchored to the ground. The ship exerts a tension of 𝑇1 = 12392 on the rope. If the tension
𝑇2 on the other side of the rope needs to be 1 .i.e., (𝑇2 = 1), how many times the rope should
be rotated around the pole? Assume the coefficient of friction between the rope and the
pole to be 𝜇 = 0.5.

T1
µ

T2

Fig. 5 (Top View)


(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) 4

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26. Select the correct equations of motion for the system shown in Fig. 6
x1 x2

k1
m1 k3 m2

k2

Fig. 6
(a) 𝑚1 𝑥̈ 1 + (𝑘1 + 𝑘2 )𝑥1 + (b) 𝑚1 𝑥̈ 1 − (𝑘1 + 𝑘2 )𝑥1 + 𝑘3 (𝑥1 − 𝑥2 ) =
𝑘3 (𝑥1 − 𝑥2 ) = 0, 𝑚2 𝑥̈ 2 + 0, 𝑚2 𝑥̈ 2 − 𝑘3 (𝑥2 − 𝑥1 ) = 0
𝑘3 (𝑥2 − 𝑥1 ) = 0
(c) 𝑚1 𝑥̈ 1 + (𝑘1 + 𝑘2 )𝑥1 − (d) 𝑚1 𝑥̈ 1 + (𝑘1 + 𝑘2 )𝑥1 + 𝑘3 (𝑥2 ) =
𝑘3 (𝑥1 − 𝑥2 ) = 0, 𝑚2 𝑥̈ 2 + 0, 𝑚2 𝑥̈ 2 + 𝑘3 (𝑥1 ) = 0
𝑘3 (𝑥2 ) = 0

27. The boundary conditions for the free-free beam shown in Fig.7 are
Free Free
boundary boundary

Fig. 7
(a) Slope and bending moment (b) Shear force and bending moment are zero
is zero at both ends at both ends
(c) Slope is not zero at both ends (d) Slope is zero at both ends but bending
but bending moment is zero moment is not zero

28. For the same dimensions and material properties, which boundary condition gives the
maximum stiffness for the beam?
(a) Cantilever (b) Fixed-pinned
(c) Pinned-pinned (d) Fixed-fixed

29. Fig 9 shows a shaft of length L with area of cross section A welded at its base and subjected
to a torque T at a distance of ‘a’ from its base, the bending stress at the root of the shaft is
a

T
L

Fig. 9
𝑇 𝑇
(a) 2𝑎𝐴
(b) 𝑎𝐴
𝑇 (d) 0
(c) 𝐿𝐴

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30. Consider a cantilever beam of length 𝐿, elastic modulus 𝐸 and moment of inertia 𝐼. A force
acts at the mid span. The deflection at this location is 𝛿 and rotation is 𝛼. What is the rotation
of the free end?
(a) 0 (b) 𝛼
(c) 2𝛼 𝛼𝐿
(d) 2 + 𝛿

31. In turning taper on half the length of a job 300 mm long, the tailstock was offset by 4 mm.
What is the taper produced?
(a) 1 in 300 (b) 1 in 37.5
(c) 1 in 150 (d) 1 in 75
32. Half center is used during
(a) Taper turning (b) Straight turning
(c) Facing (d) Threading
33. The term ‘kaizen’ refers to
(a) Feedback (b) Continuous Improvement
(c) Small change (d) Product proving
34. Pitch line thickness of a gear can be measured by
(a) Slip gauge (b) Gear tooth venire
(c) Combination gauge (d) Pitch indicator
35. Which of the following is the softest
(a) Austenite (b) Ferrite
(c) Perlite (d) Bainite
36. CO2 welding is an example of
(a) MIG (b) TIG
(c) MAG (d) PAW
37. Drop is caused by
(a) High sulphur content (b) Very hard ramming
(c) Too low pouring (d) All of the above
temperature
38. DIN standard is mainly followed in
(a) Germany (b) UK
(c) USA (d) India
39. MPI and DPT are examples of
(a) Chemical testing (b) Destructive testing
(c) Non-destructive testing (d) None of the above
40. Carburizing, nitriding and Carbo-nitriding are examples of
(a) Direct hardening (b) Diffusion hardening
(c) Flame hardening (d) Selective hardening

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41. Consider a 12.7 mm diameter sphere made of pure copper. It is at a uniform temperature
of 660C when it is inserted into a stream of air at 270C. After 69 seconds, the temperature of
the sphere drops to 550C. Assuming that the temperature of the sphere remains spatially
uniform throughout the cooling process, calculate the heat transfer coefficient. Density of
copper is ρ = 8933 kg/m3; Cp = 389 J/kg K; thermal conductivity of copper k = 398 W/m K.
(a) h = 15 W/m2 K (b) h = 55 W/m2 K
2
(c) h = 35 W/m K (d) h = 85 W/m2 K

42. A thick walled stainless steel pipe has inner diameter of 20 mm and outer diameter of 40
mm. It is being electrically heated so as to provide a uniform heat generation rate of 10 6
W/m3. The outer surface of the pipe is insulated. Water flows through the pipe at 0.1 kg/s.
If the inlet temperature of water is 200C, what is the required pipe length if the desired outlet
temperature of water is 400C? Thermal conductivity of stainless steel is 15 W/m.K; specific
heat of water Cp = 4.18 kJ/kg.K; thermal conductivity of water is 0.617 W/m.K; viscosity of
water is 803×10-6 N-s/m2; Prandtl number of water is 5.45.
(a) 3.8 m (b) 8.9 m
(c) 17.3 m (d) 24.7 m

43. An astronaut inside the International Space Station seeks to boil water for his cup of tea. He
has placed a lidded iron beaker filled with 300 ml of water over a magnetic hot plate that is
electrically heated and delivers 100 Watts of heat to the beaker. The air pressure inside the
space station is 1 atm., but it is a zero gravity environment. When compared to an identical
water boiling contraption placed at sea level on earth, which of the following is true:-
(a) Water in the space station (b) Water will fail to boil in the space station
will boil twice as quickly as and the electric heater will burn out.
that on earth.
(c) Water in the space station (d) Water in both the space station and on
will boil twice as slowly that earth will boil at the same time.
on earth.

44. Two spheres, each 1.3 m in diameter, weighs 5 kN and 13 kN respectively. They are
connected by a short rope and placed in water. What is the tension (T) in the rope?
(a) 1.7 kN (b) 0 kN
(c) 3.9 kN (d) 0.4 kN

45. Which of the following velocity fields satisfy conservation of mass for incompressible planar
flow?
(a) u = 3xt, v = 3yt (b) ) u = xy + y2t, v = xy + x4t
(c) u = 4x2y3, v = -2xy4 (d) u = 4x, y = 4y

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46. Water flows from section 1 to section 2 of the pipe shown in the figure. Flow velocity at
section 1 is 2 m/s and the pressure is 300 kPa. Total head loss from section 1 to section 2 is
3 m. Determine the water pressure at section 2.

(a) 690 kPa (b) 537 kPa


(c) 426 kPa (d) 260 kPa

47. A military aircraft with 8000 kg mass lands at 350 km/hr. The pilot deploys a braking
parachute with 10 sq. metre area and a drag coefficient of 1.42. Estimate the time needed
to slow the aircraft to 200 km/hr.
(a) 7 seconds (b) 5 seconds
(c) 11 seconds (d) 16 seconds

48. Consider a simple ideal Rankine cycle. If the condenser pressure is lowered while keeping
turbine inlet state the same, which of the following will occur,

(a) the turbine work output (b) the amount of heat rejected will decrease.
will decrease.
(c) the cycle efficiency will (d) the moisture content at turbine exit will
decrease. decrease.

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49. It is commonly recommended that hot foods be cooled first to room temperature by
simply waiting a while before they are put into the refrigerator to save energy. Despite this
common-sense recommendation, a person keeps cooking a large pan of stew three times a
week and putting the pan into the refrigerator while it is still hot, thinking that
the money saved is probably too little. But he says he can be convinced if you can show that
the money saved is significant. The average mass of the pan and its contents is 5 kg. The
average temperature of the kitchen is 230C, and the average temperature of the food is 950C
when it is taken off the stove. The refrigerated space is maintained at 30C, and the average
specific heat of the food and the pan can be taken to be 3.9 kJ/kg·0C. If the refrigerator has
a coefficient of performance of 1.5 and the cost of electricity is Rs. 10 per kWh, determine
how much this person will approximately save a year by waiting for the food to cool to room
temperature before putting it into the refrigerator.
(a) Rs. 40,000 (b) Rs. 40
(c) Rs. 4000 (d) Rs. 400

50. Which air standard cycle has the same four thermodynamic processes as the ideal Rankine
cycle?
(a) Stirling cycle (b) Diesel cycle
(c) Brayton cycle (d) Otto cycle

FROM THIS POINT ONWARD SPACE IS PROVIDED FOR ROUGH WORK

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