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The document discusses computer networks and networking concepts. It covers topics like OSI protocol layers, network topologies, data transmission standards and protocols, error detection techniques, and media access control protocols. There are 32 multiple choice questions about these topics with detailed explanations provided.

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Shivangi Agrawal
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
19 views

CNNotes

The document discusses computer networks and networking concepts. It covers topics like OSI protocol layers, network topologies, data transmission standards and protocols, error detection techniques, and media access control protocols. There are 32 multiple choice questions about these topics with detailed explanations provided.

Uploaded by

Shivangi Agrawal
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 23

Computer Networks

1. In the following pairs of OSI protocol layer/sub-layer and its functionality, the INCORRECT pair is

A. Network layer and Routing


B. Data Link Layer and Bit synchronization  Bit Synchronization is used in Physical
Layer
C. Transport layer and End-to-end process communication
D. Medium Access Control sub-layer and Channel sharing

2. SMTP  is an application layer protocol used for e-mail transmission.


TCP  is a core transport layer protocol.
BGP  is a network layer protocol backing the core routing decisions on the Internet.
PPP  is a data link layer protocol commonly used in establishing a direct connection between two
networking.
Data Link Layer  ensures reliable transport of data over a physical to point link
Network Layer  Routes data from one network node to next
Transport Layer  Allows end to end communication between two processes

3. To send same bit sequence, NRZ encoding require


A. Same clock frequency as Manchester encoding
B. Half the clock frequency as Manchester encoding
C. Twice the clock frequency as Manchester encoding
D. A clock frequency which depend on number of zeroes and ones in the bit sequence

4. If there are 𝑛 devices (nodes) in a network, what is the number of cable links required for a fully connected
mesh and a star topology respectively
A. 𝑛*(𝑛−1)/2, 𝑛−1
B. 𝑛, 𝑛−1
C. 𝑛−1, 𝑛
D. 𝑛−1, n*(n-1)/2

5. In networking terminology UTP means


A. Uniquitous teflon port
B. Uniformly terminating port
C. Unshielded twisted pair
D. Unshielded T-connector port

UDP is ubiquitous type of copper cabling used in telephone wiring and local area networks (LANs).

6. Physical topology of FDDI is?


A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. None of the above
(Fiber Distributed Data Interface) is set of standards for data transmission on fibre optic lines in a LAN

7. Bit stuffing refers to Bit Stuffing refers to the insertion of non information bits into data.
A. inserting a 0 in user stream to differentiate it with a flag
B. inserting a 0 in flag stream to avoid ambiguity
C. appending a nipple to the flag sequence
D. appending a nipple to the use data stream

8. What frequency range is used for microwave communications, satellite and radar?
A. Low frequency:30 kHz to 300 kHz
B. Medium frequency:300 kHz to 3 MHz
C. Super high frequency:3000 MHz to 30000 MHz
D. Extremely high frequency:30000 kHz
9. A T-switch is used to
A. Control how messages are passed between computers
B. Echo every character that is received
C. Transmit characters one at a time
D. Rearrange the connections between computing equipments

10. In the Ethernet, which field is actually added at the physical layer and is not part of the frame.
A. Preamble  A physical layer header
B. CRC
C. Address
D. Location

11. The voltage ranges for a logic high and a logic low in RS-232 C standard is
A. Low is 0.0𝑉 to 1.8𝑉, High is 2.0𝑉 to 5.0𝑉
B. Low is −15.0𝑉 to −3.0𝑉, High is 3.0𝑉 to 15.0𝑉
C. Low is 3.0𝑉 to 15.0𝑉, High is −3.0𝑉 to −15.0𝑉
D. Low is 2.0𝑉 to 5.0𝑉, High is 0.0𝑉 to 1.8V

12. IEEE 1394 is related to


A. 𝑅𝑆−232
B. 𝑈𝑆𝐵
C. Firewire
D. PCI

13. The encoding technique used to transmit the signal in giga ethernet technology over fiber optic medium is
A. Differential Manchester encoding
B. Non return to zero
C. 4B/5B encoding
D. 8B/10B encoding

14. Phase transition for each bit are used in


A. Amplitude modulation
B. Carrier modulation
C. Manchester encoding
D. NRZ encoding

15. How many characters per sec (7bits+1parity) can be transmitted over a 2400 bps line if the transfer is
synchronous (1 start and 1 stop bit)?
A. 300
B. 240
C. 250
D. 275

Total bits 7+1 = 8 bits  No. of character transmitted 2400/8 = 300bps for synchronous transfer, we don’t need
start and stop bits

16. What is the maximum number of characters (7 bits + parity) that can be transmitted in a second on a 19.2
Kbps line. This asynchronous transmission requires 1 start bit and 1 stop bit.
A. 192
B. 240
C. 1920
D. 1966

19.2 Kbps  19200 bits / (7+1+1+1)  1920bps

Since it is asynchronous whenver you are sending it would require 1 start and stop bit
17. Consider a 50 kbps satellite channel with a 500 milliseconds round trip propagation delay. If the sender wants
to transmit 1000 bit frames, how much time will it take for the receiver to receive the frame?
A. 250 milliseconds
B. 20 milliseconds
C. 520 milliseconds
D. 270 milliseconds

Round trip time = 2 * Propagation time ===>Propagation time =500/2= 250 ms


Transmission time = Message size / bandwidth ===>1000 bits / 50 kbps = 20 ms
Time to receive the frame by the receiver ===> 250 + 20 = 270 ms

18. One SAN switch has 24 ports. All 24 supports 8 Gbps Fiber Channel technology. What is the aggregate
bandwidth of that SAN switch?
A. 96 Gbps
B. 192 Mbps
C. 512 Gbps
D. 192 Gbps  24*8gbps full duplex bandwidth

19. Data is transmitted continuously at 2.048 Mbps rate for 10 hours and received 512 bits errors. What is the bit
error rate?
A. 6.9 e-9
B. 6.9 e-6
C. 69 e-9
D. 4 e-9
Bit error rate is the number of bits sent per data .
In 10 hrs , we sent 512 bit error
so in 1 sec, we can send = 0.0142 bit error.
hence error rate is 0.0142/2.048 x 10^6
6.944 x 10^-9

20. What is the bandwidth of the signal that ranges from 40 kHz 4 MHz
A. 36 MHz
B. 360 kHz
C. 3.96 MHz
D. 396 kHz
Bandwidth is defined as the difference between the highest and lowest frequencies of a given signal .
here highest frequency=4 MHZ ,lowest frequency=40 KHZ=0.04 MHZ
so bandwith=(4-0.04) MHZ =3.96 MHZ

21. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52 kHz, what is the highest frequency
A. 5 kHz
B. 10 kHz
C. 47 kHz
D. 57 kHz 5= x-52  x= 57

22. By using an eight bit optical encoder the degree of resolution that can be obtained is (approximately)
A. 1.8∘
B. 3.4∘
C. 2.8∘
D. 1.4∘
An 8-bit encoder will have a resolution of 2^8, since we know that
Resolution=2^n, where n=Number of bits in the encoder.So resolution is 1 part in 256.
Angle of resolution=(1/256)*360 D = 1.4 D, where D=Degree.
23. Suppose two hosts are connected by a point-to-point link and they are configured to use Stop-and-Wait
protocol for reliable data transfer. Identify in which one of the following scenarios, the utilization of the link is
the lowest.
A. Longer link length and lower transmission rate
B. Longer link length and higher transmission rate
C. Shorter link length and lower transmission rate
D. Shorter link length and higher transmission rate

24. Consider the following two statements.


𝑆1: Destination MAC address of an ARP reply is a broadcast address.
𝑆2: Destination MAC address of an ARP request is a broadcast address.
Which one of the following choices is correct?
A. Both 𝑆1 and 𝑆2 are true
B. 𝑆1 is true and 𝑆2 is false
C. 𝑆1 is false and 𝑆2 is true
D. Both 𝑆1 and 𝑆2 are false

25. Station𝐴 uses 32 byte packets to transmit messages to Station 𝐵 using a sliding window protocol. The round
trip delay between 𝐴 and 𝐵 is 80 𝑚𝑠 and the bottleneck bandwidth on the path between 𝐴 and 𝐵 is 128 𝑘𝑏𝑝𝑠.
What is the optimal window size that 𝐴 should use?
A. 20
B. 40
C. 160
D. 320
Window Size RTT* BW/ (Frame Size)  80*10-3 * 128*103 / (32*8)  40

26. _______ can detect burst error of length less than or equal to degree of the polynomial and detects burst errors
that affect odd number of bits.
A. Hamming Code
B. CRC
C. VRC
D. None of the above

27. An Ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE 802.3 minimum length of 64 octets is called
A. Short frame
B. Small frame
C. Mini frame
D. Runt frame

28. Which media access control protocol is used by IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN?
A. CDMA
B. CSMA/CA
C. ALOHA
D. None of the above

29. In Ethernet CSMA/CD, the special bit sequence transmitted by media access management to handle collision
is called
A. Preamble
B. Postamble
C. Jam
D. None of these

30. In an Ethernet local area network, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. A station stops to sense the channel once it starts transmitting a frame.
B. The purpose of the jamming signal is to pad the frames that are smaller than the minimum frame size.
C. A station continues to transmit the packet even after the collision is detected.
D. The exponential back off mechanism reduces the probability of collision on retransmissions.

station need not stop to listen to stuff and stations sends jamming signal if collision is detected.
31. A mechanism or technology used in Ethernet by which two connected devices choose common transmission
parameters such as speed, duplex mode and flow control is called
A. Autosense
B. Synchronization
C. Pinging
D. Auto negotiation

32. Ethernet layer- 2 switch is a network element type which gives.


A. Different collision domain and same broadcast domain.
B. Different collision domain and different broadcast domain.
C. Same collision domain and same broadcast domain.
D. Same collision domain and different broadcast domain.

33. The network protocol which is used to get MAC address of a node by providing IP address is
A. SMTP
B. ARP  IP to MAC RARP  MAC to IP
C. RIP
D. BOOTP

34. Which of the following is a MAC address?


A. 192.166.200.50
B. 00056A:01A01A5CCA7FF60
C. 568, Airport Road
D. 01:A5:BB:A7:FF:60

35. Which Project 802 standard provides for a collision-free protocol?


A. 802.2
B. 802.3
C. 802.5  TOKEN RING used in place of CSMA/CD
D. 802.6

36. Which of the following transmission media is not readily suitable to CSMA operation?
A. Radio
B. Optical fibers
C. Coaxial cable
D. Twisted pair  Wireless transceivers can't send and receive on the same channel at the same time, so they
can't detect collisions.

37. In Ethernet, the source address field in the MAC frame is the _______ address.
A. original sender's physical
B. previous station's physical
C. next destination's physical
D. original sender's service port

38. An Ethernet hub


A. functions as a repeater
B. connects to a digital PBX
C. connects to a token-ring network
D. functions as a gateway

39. Which of the following statements is TRUE?


A. Both Ethernet frame and IP packet include checksum fields
B. Ethernet frame includes a checksum field and IP packet includes a CRC field
C. Ethernet frame includes a CRC field and IP packet includes a checksum field
D. Both Ethernet frame and IP packet include CRC fields
Ethernet Frame

40. The hamming distance between the octets of 0xAA and 0x55 is
A. 7
B. 5
C. 8
D. 6

PERFORM XOR OPERATION BETWEEN EACH BIT TO GET HAMMING DISTANCE


OXAA= 10101010
XOR
OX55= 01010101

ANS = 11111111
THEREFORE HAMMING DISTANCE=8 (no. of 1’s)

41. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?


A. Packet switching leads to better utilization of bandwidth resources than circuit switching
B. Packet switching results in less variation in delay than circuit switching
C. Packet switching requires more per-packet processing than circuit switching
D. Packet switching can lead to reordering unlike in circuit switching

42. What is the distance of the following code 000000, 010101, 000111, 011001, 111111?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Distance (also called min-distance) of a block code is the minimum number of positions in which any two
distinct codes differ. Here, min-distance occurs for the codes 2 and 3 and they differ only in 2 positions.
So, 𝑑=2.

43. Start and stop bits do not contain any "information" but are used in serial communication for
A. Error detection
B. Error correction
C. Synchronization
D. Slowing down the communications.

44. What will be the efficiency of a Stop and Wait protocol, if the transmission time for a frame is 20ns and the
propagation time is 30ns?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 40%
D. 66%

Transmission time = 20ns.


Time for ACK to reach back = 𝑇𝑇 + 𝑃𝐷 + 𝑇𝑇𝑎𝑐𝑘 + 𝑃𝐷 = 20+30+0+30 = 80𝑛𝑠.
Efficiency is the ratio of time where useful data is sent to the total time (or it is the ratio of the amount of useful
data sent to the maximum amount of data that could be sent)= 20/80 = 25%.
45. How many check bits are required for 16 bit data word to detect 2 bit errors and single bit correction using
hamming code?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
for detecting d bit error, we need d+1 bits and for correcting d bit error we need 2d+1 bits

46. A certain population of ALOHA users manages to generate 70 request/sec. If the time is slotted in units of
50 msec, then channel load would be
A. 4.25
B. 3.5
C. 450
D. 350

In slotted ALOHA we divide the time into slots and force the station to send only at the beginning of the time slot. Here
slot time is 50 ms, so number of slots in 1 second = 1/(50 X 10^-3) => 20 slots/sec

 Requests per second = 70


 Time slots per second = 20
 Channel load = No. of Requests / No. of Slots = 70 / 20 = 3.5

47. Consider a CSMA/CD network that transmits data at a rate of 100 Mbps (108 bits per second) over a 1km
(kilometre) cable with no repeaters. If the minimum frame size required for this network is 1250bytes, What is
the signal speed (km/sec) in the cable?
A. 8000
B. 10000
C. 16000
D. 20000
For collision to be detected, the frame size should be such that the transmission time of the frame should be
greater than twice the propagation delay (So, before the frame is completely sent, any possible collision will be
discovered).
So, 1250×8/(108) ≥ 2×1/𝑥
⟹𝑥= 2×104 = 20000

48. A link has transmission speed of 106 bits/sec. It uses data packets of size 1000 bytes each.
Assume that the acknowledgment has negligible transmission delay and that its propagation delay is the same
as the data propagation delay. Also, assume that the processing delays at nodes are negligible. The efficiency
of the stop-and-wait protocol in this setup is exactly 25%.
The value of the one-way propagation delay (in milliseconds) is__12___.

In stop and wait, a frame is sent and next frame will be sent only after ACK is received.

Efficiency=Amount of data sent/Amount of data that could be sent

= Amount of data sent /𝑅𝑇𝑇×106

= Amount of data sent / ( Prop. delay for data + Prop.delay for ACK + Transmission time for data +
Transmission time for ACK)×106
= 1000 × 8 / (𝑝 + 𝑝+ 1000 × 8/106 + 0) ×106

= 8 / 2𝑝 +8ms (where p is the prop. delay in milli seconds)

=4/ 𝑝 + 4 = 0. 25 (given in question)

So, 𝑝 + 4 = 16, 𝑝 = 12ms.


49. A bit-stuffing based framing protocol uses an 8-bit delimiter pattern of 01111110. If the output bit-string after
stuffing is 01111100101, then the input bit-string is:
A. 0111110100
B. 0111110101
C. 0111111101
D. 0111111111

here delimeter is "01111110" .....


so rule will be like this ...
at sender :- add 0 after each occurance of "011111" in input data..
at Reciever :- remove 0 for each occurance of "011111" in output.....
According to que Output string is "01111100101"
so input will be "01111100101".. (i.e - 0111110101)

50. If the frame to be transmitted is 1101011011 and the CRC polynomial to be used for generating checksum is
𝑥4+𝑥+1, then what is the transmitted frame?
A. 11010110111011
B. 11010110111101
C. 11010110111110
D. 11010110111001

frames transmitted 1101011011 generator g(x)= X^4+X+1 ORDER OF GENERATOR 4.THEN APPEND FOUR 0'S TO
THE LOWER END OF THE FRAME CRC polynomial 10011

Answer is C Put 1110 in place of 4 (0000) bits in transmitted frame

51. The maximum window size for data transmission using the selective reject protocol with 𝑛-bit frame sequence
numbers is:
A. 2𝑛
B. 2n-1
C. 2𝑛 −1
D. 2n-2

In selective reject protocol, the maximum window size must be half


the Sequence number space =2𝑛 /2 = 2𝑛−1.

For Go-back n, the maximum window size can be 2𝑛 −1.


52. Which of the following fields of an IP header is/are always modified by any router before it forwards the IP
packet?
A. Source IP Address
B. Protocol
C. Time to Live (TTL)
D. Header Checksum

Time to Live(TTL) value is decremented by 1 by each router that forwards the packet.

D) As TTL value of IP header is changed by every router, corresponding Header Checksum is recalculated based on the new
value of TTL.

53. Node X has a TCP connection open to node Y. The packets from X to Y go through an intermediate IP router
R. Ethernet switch S is the first switch on the network path between X and R. Consider a packet sent from X
to Y over this connection.

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the destination IP and MAC addresses on this packet at
the time it leaves X?
A. The destination IP address is the IP address of R
B. The destination IP address is the IP address of Y
C. The destination MAC address is the MAC address of S
D. The destination MAC address is the MAC address of Y

When packet leaves X ; uses mac address of R and IP address of Y

54. Which of the following fields is/are modified in the IP header of a packet going out of a network address
translation (NAT) device from an internal network to an external network?
A. Source IP
B. Destination IP
C. Header Checksum
D. Total Length

NAT device takes the outgoing packet and replaces the source IP address from private address pool to a IP address from its
public address pool.

Since the source IP address is changed, the header checksum will also be recalculated so that the router does not get error
while checking the header checksum.

55. Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT about the OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) routing
protocol used in the Internet?
A. OSPF implements Bellman-Ford algorithm to find shortest paths.
B. OSPF uses Dijkstra's shortest path algorithm to implement least-cost path routing.
C. OSPF is used as an inter-domain routing protocol.
D. OSPF implements hierarchical routing.

56. Consider the following statements about the functionality of an IP based router.
i. A router does not modify the IP packets during forwarding.
ii. It is not necessary for a router to implement any routing protocol.
iii. A router should reassemble IP fragments if the MTU of the outgoing link is larger than the size
of the incoming IP packet.
Which of the above statements is/are TRUE?
1. I and II only
2. I only
3. II and III only
4. II only

57. Match :-
i. Multicast Group Membership  IGMP 1
ii. Interior Gateway Protocol  OSPF
iii. Exterior Gateway Protocol  BGP 3
iv. RIP  Distance Vector Routing

58. The default subnet mask for a class B network can be


A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.0.0.0
C. 255.255.192.0
D. 255.255.0.0

59. The maximum number of router addresses that can be listed in the record route (RR) option field of an header
is___9__.

60. Consider the following statements about the routing protocols. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) and Open
Shortest Path First (OSPF) in an IPv4 network.
i. RIP uses distance vector routing
ii. RIP packets are sent using UDP
iii. OSPF packets are sent using TCP
iv. OSPF operation is based on link-state routing
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
B. I and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
E. II, III and IV only

61. Which network protocol allows hosts to dynamically get a unique IP number on each bootup
A. DHCP  Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
B. BOOTP
C. RARP
D. ARP

62. Dynamic routing protocol enable routers to


A. Dynamically discover and maintain routes
B. Distribute routing updates to other routers
C. Reach agreement with other routers about the network topology
D. All of the above

63. Which one of the following protocols is NOT used to resolve one form of address to another one?
A. DNS
B. ARP
C. DHCP
D. RARP

64. Which layers of the OSI reference model are host-to-host layers?
A. Transport, session, presentation, application
B. Session, presentation, application
C. Datalink, transport, presentation, application
D. Physical, datalink, network, transport

65. In a class B subnet, we know the IP address of one host and the mask as given below:

IP address :125.134.112.66 Mask :255.255.224.0 What is the first address(Network address)?

A. 125.134.96.0  AND operation with mask and IP address


B. 125.134.112.0
C. 125.134.112.66
D. 125.134.0.0
66. How many bits internet address is assigned to each host on a TCP/IP internet which is used in all
communication with the host?
A. 16 bits
B. 32 bits
C. 48 bits
D. 64 bits

67. Which of the following fields of an IP header is NOT modified by a typical IP router?
A. Check sum
B. Source address
C. Time to Live (TTL)
D. Length

68. What is routing algorithm used by OSPF routing protocol?


A. Distance vector
B. Flooding
C. Path vector
D. Link state

69. The process of modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing
device is called
A. Port address translation (PAT)
B. Network address translation (NAT)
C. Address mapping
D. Port mapping

70. Which of the following is TRUE about the interior gateway routing protocols − Routing Information Protocol
(𝑅𝐼𝑃) and Open Shortest Path First (𝑂𝑆𝑃𝐹)
A. RIP uses distance vector routing and OSPF uses link state routing
B. OSPF uses distance vector routing and RIP uses link state routing
C. Both RIP and OSPF use link state routing
D. Both RIP and OSPF use distance vector routing

71. What is IP class and number of sub-networks if the subnet mask is 255.224.0.0?
A. Class 𝐴, 3
B. Class 𝐴, 8
C. Class 𝐵, 3
D. Class 𝐵, 32

72. IPv6 does not support which of the following addressing modes?
A. Unicast addressing
B. Multicast addressing
C. Broadcast addressing
D. Anycast addressing

73. Consider the following three statements about link state and distance vector routing protocols, for a large
network with 500 network nodes and 4000 links.
[S1]: The computational overhead in link state protocols is higher than in distance vector protocols.
[S2]: A distance vector protocol (with split horizon) avoids persistent routing loops, but not a link state
protocol.
[S3]: After a topology change, a link state protocol will converge faster than a distance vector protocol.

Which one of the following is correct about 𝑆1, 𝑆2, and 𝑆3?
A. 𝑆1, 𝑆2, and 𝑆3 are all true.
B. 𝑆1, 𝑆2, and 𝑆3 are all false.
C. 𝑆1 and 𝑆2 are true, but 𝑆3 is false.
D. 𝑆1 and 𝑆3 are true, but 𝑆2 is false.
74. In the diagram shown below, 𝐿1 is an Ethernet LAN and 𝐿2 is a Token-Ring LAN. An 𝐼𝑃 packet originates
from sender 𝑆 and traverses to 𝑅, as shown. The links within each ISP and across the two ISPs, are all point-
to-point optical links. The initial value of the TTL field is 32. The maximum possible value of the TTL field
when 𝑅 receives the datagram is ___26____.

There are 5 routers, So Network Layer will be visited 5 times and 1 time on the destination
So, TTL =26

75. Host A (on TCP/IP v4 network A) sends an IP datagram D to host B (also on TCP/IP v4 network B). Assume
that no error occurred during the transmission of D. When D reaches B, which of the following IP header
field(s) may be different from that of the original datagram D?
i. TTL
ii. Checksum
iii. Fragment Offset
A. i only
B. i and ii only
C. ii and iii only
D. i, ii and iii
Whenever an IP packet is transmitted, the value in Time to Live (TTL) field will be decremented on every single hop. Hence,
TTL is changed on every hop.
Now, since TTL changes, hence the Checksum of the packet will also change.
For the Fragmentation offset, A packet will be fragmented if the packet has a size greater than the Maximum Transmission
Unit (MTU) of the network. Hence, Fragmentation offset can also be changed.

76. A IP packet has arrived in which the fragmentation offset value is 100, the value of HLEN is 5 and the value
of total length field is 200. What is the number of the last byte?
A. 194
B. 394
C. 979
D. 1179

Header Payload
An IP packet looks like this.
Header Length = 5∗4=20
So, Payload = 200−20=180
Fragmentation offset = 100∗8=800
The last byte would be 180+800th = 980𝑡ℎ but since we number everything from 0 in computer science, it'll be 979th

77. A supernet has a first address of 205.16.32.0 and a supernet mask of 255.255.248.0. A router receives 4
packets with the following destination addresses. Which packet belongs to this supernet?
A. 205.16.42.56
B. 205.17.32.76
C. 205.16.31.10
D. 205.16.39.44
AND operation on ip and mask gives supernet address. 205:16:32:0 is class C
Default subnet is 255:255:255:0 supernet mask is 255:255:248:0
Apply bitwise AND b/w options and mask

78. Consider an enterprise network with two Ethernet segments, a web server and a firewall, connected via three
routers as shown below.

What is the number of subnets inside the enterprise network?


A. 3
B. 12
C. 6 Calculate no. of paths coming from Routers 2+3+2=7 -1 (Common)  6
D. 8

79. An organization is granted the block 130.34.12.64/26. It needs to have 4 subnets. Which of the following is
not an address of this organization?
A. 130.34.12.124
B. 130.34.12.89
C. 130.34.12.70
D. 130.34.12.132
130. 34. 12. 01 000000
NID NID NID NID HID
26 bit NID. HID is 6 bits.
So hosts possible = 64.
Divide into four subnets => 16 per subnet.
So, last octets: .64 to .79, .80 to .95, .96 to .111, .112 to .127 makes D out of range

80. An IP packet has arrived with the first 8 bits as 01000010. Which of the following is correct?
A. The number of hops this packet can travel is 2
B. The total number of bytes in header is 16 bytes
C. The upper layer protocol is ICMP
D. The receiver rejects the packet

The header length of packet must be 20 bytes but here is less so packet rejects

81. Lightweight Directory Access protocol is used for


A. Routing the packets
B. Authentication  main idea of LDAP is to keep in one place all info of user
C. obtaining IP address
D. domain name resolving
Easier to maintain by network administrators

82. The broadcast address for IP network 172.16.0.0 with subnet mask 255.255.0.0 is
A. 172.16.0.255
B. 172.16.255.255
C. 255.255.255.255
D. 172.255.255.255

83. One of the header fields in an IP datagram is the Time-to-Live (TTL) field. Which of the following statements
best explains the need for this field?
A. It can be used to prioritize packets.
B. It can be used to reduce delays.
C. It can be used to optimize throughput.
D. It can be used to prevent packet looping.

84. What is the primary purpose of a VLAN?


A. Demonstrating the proper layout for a network
B. Simulating a network
C. To create a virtual private network
D. Segmenting a network inside a switch or device
Network architects set up VLANs to provide the network segmentation services traditionally provided only by
routers in LAN configurations.

85. On a LAN ,where are IP datagrams transported?


A. In the LAN header
B. In the application field
C. In the information field of the LAN frame
D. After the TCP header

86. The network 198.78.41.0 is a


A. Class A network
B. Class B network
C. Class C network  192: 0:0:0 to 223:255:255:0
D. Class D network

87. The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used for


A. Finding the IP address from the DNS
B. Finding the IP address of the default gateway
C. Finding the IP address that corresponds to a MAC address
D. Finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address

88. Range of IP Address from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 are


A. Reserved for loopback
B. Reserved for broadcast
C. Used for multicast packets
D. Reserved for future addressing

89. IEEE 802.11 is standard for


A. Ethernet
B. Bluetooth
C. Broadband Wireless
D. Wireless LANs

90. If there are five routers and six networks in intranet using link state routing, how many routing tables are
there?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 11
Routers have routing table only. So 5 routing table each having 6 entries.

91. When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address does the router look at?
A. Port
B. IP
C. Physical is MAC address associated with Data Link layer
D. Subnet mask

92. The subnet mask 255.255.255.192


A. extends the network portion to 16 bits
B. extends the network portion to 26 bits
C. extends the network portion to 36 bits
D. has no effect on the network portion of an IP address
The sub-net of Class C which has 3 networks and 1 host.
3-Networks each network of 8-bits i.e 8+8+8=24
Default sub-net mask for Class C is 255.255.255.0/24
128 64 32 16 8 4 2 1
11000000
128+64=192
192 is written as 11000000 which has 2 sub-nets and remaining all hosts.
255.255.255.0/24+2 = 255.255.255.192/26

93. In the IPv4 addressing format, the number of networks allowed under Class 𝐶 addresses is:
A. 214
B. 27
C. 221
D. 224

We have 32 bits in the IPV4 network


Class A = 8 network bits + 24 Host bits
Class B = 16 network bits + 16 Host bits
Class C = 24 network bits + 8 host bits
Class D (multicast)
Now for Class C we have 3 bits reserved for the network id.
Hence remaining bits are 21. Therefore total number of networks possible are 221.
Similarly in Class B we have 2 bits reserved.
Hence, total number of networks in Class B are 214.
And we have 1 bit reserved in Class A, therefore there are 27 networks.

94. Assume that source S and destination D are connected through two intermediate routers labeled R. Determine
how many times each packet has to visit the network layer and the data link layer during a transmission from
S to D.
A. Network layer – 4 times and Data link layer – 4 times
B. Network layer – 4 times and Data link layer – 3 times
C. Network layer – 4 times and Data link layer – 6 times
D. Network layer – 2 times and Data link layer – 6 times
95. Which of the following is NOT true with respect to a transparent bridge and a router?
A. Both bridge and router selectively forward data packets
B. A bridge uses IP addresses while a router uses MAC addresses
C. A bridge builds up its routing table by inspecting incoming packets
D. A router can connect between a LAN and a WAN

Router uses IP and Bridge uses MAC addresses

96. Which of the following statements about IPv4 fragmentation is/are TRUE?
A. The fragmentation of an IP datagram is performed only at the source of the datagram
B. The fragmentation of an IP datagram is performed at any IP router which finds that the size of the
datagram to be transmitted exceeds the MTU
C. The reassembly of fragments is performed only at the destination of the datagram
D. The reassembly of fragments is performed at all intermediate routers along the path from the source to
the destination

97. TCP client P successfully establishes a connection to TCP server Q. Let N𝑃 denote the sequence number in
the SYN sent from P to Q. Let N𝑄 denote the acknowledgement number in the SYN ACK from Q to P. Which
of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
A. The sequence number N𝑃 is chosen randomly by P
B. The sequence number N𝑃 is always 0 for a new connection
C. The acknowledgement number N𝑄 is equal to N𝑃
D. The acknowledgement number N𝑄 is equal to Np + 1

TCP always starts connection with an initial sequence number that is randomly generated in the range of available
sequence numbers, to avoid conflicts with delayed packets from previous sessions.

98. Consider the three-way handshake mechanism followed during TCP connection establishment between hosts
𝑃 and 𝑄. Let 𝑋 and 𝑌 be two random 32-bit starting sequence numbers chosen by 𝑃 and 𝑄 respectively.
Suppose 𝑃 sends a TCP connection request message to 𝑄 with a TCP segment having SYN bit =1, SEQ
number =𝑋, and ACK bit =0. Suppose 𝑄 accepts the connection request. Which one of the following choices
represents the information present in the TCP segment header that is sent by 𝑄 to 𝑃?
A. SYN bit =1, SEQ number =𝑋+1, ACK bit =0, ACK number =𝑌, FIN bit =0
B. SYN bit =0, SEQ number =𝑋+1, ACK bit =0, ACK number =𝑌, FIN bit =1
C. SYN bit =1, SEQ number =𝑌, ACK bit =1, ACK number =𝑋+1, FIN bit =0
D. SYN bit =1, SEQ number =𝑌, ACK bit =1, ACK number =𝑋, FIN bit =0

99. Checksum field in TCP header is


A. ones complement of sum of header and data in bytes
B. ones complement of sum of header, data and pseudo header in 16 bit words
C. dropped from IPv6 header format
D. better than md5 or sh1 methods

100. The persist timer is used in TCP to


A. To detect crashes from the other end of the connection
B. To enable retransmission
C. To avoid deadlock condition
D. To timeout FIN_Wait1 condition
The persist timer is used for protecting the TCP from being in a deadlock situation that could occur if the
following window size update from the receiver is lost, and the sender is not able to send more data until it
receives a new window size update from the receiver.

101. UDP header - 16 bits


102. MAC address: 48 bits
103. IPv6 next header: 8 bits
104. TCP Sequence No.: 32 bits

105. What is the maximum size of data that the application layer can pass on to the TCP layer below?
A. Any size
B. 216 bytes - size of TCP header
C. 216 bytes
D. 1500 bytes

Its transport layers responsibility to divide data in to fragments/ packets. Application layer need not worry about it.

106. An ACK number of 1000 in TCP always means that


A. 999 bytes have been successfully received
B. 1000 bytes have been successfully received
C. 1001 bytes have been successfully received
D. None of the above

107. Consider the following statements. State TRUE


A. TCP connections are full duplex
B. TCP has no option for selective acknowledgement
C. TCP connections are message streams

108. Which of the following socket API functions converts an unconnected active TCP socket into a passive
socket?
A. connect
B. bind
C. listen
D. accept

109. The protocol data unit for the transport layer in the internet stack is
A. Segment
frame=dll datagream=network
B. Message
segment= transport
C. Datagram
message=application layer are the PDU in stack
D. Frame

110. Which algorithm is used to shape the bursty traffic into a fixed rate traffic by averaging the data rate?
A. Solid bucket algorithm
B. Spanning tree algorithm
C. Hocken helm algorithm
D. Leaky bucket algorithm

111. The transport layer protocols used for real time multimedia, file transfer, DNS and email, respectively
are
A. TCP, UDP, UDP and TCP
B. UDP, TCP, TCP and UDP
C. UDP, TCP, UDP and TCP
D. TCP, UDP, TCP and UDP

112. Which of the following transport layer protocols is used to support electronic mail?
A. SMTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. UDP  Every e-mail message sent is an SMTP transfer.

113. The TCP sliding window


A. can be used to control the flow of information
B. always occurs when the field value is 0
C. always occurs when the field value is 1
D. occurs horizontally

114. Silly Window Syndrome is related to


A. Error during transmission
B. File transfer protocol
C. Degrade in TCP performance
D. Interface problem

115. Consider a 𝑇𝐶𝑃 connection in a state where there are no outstanding 𝐴𝐶𝐾s. The sender sends two
segments back to back. The sequence numbers of the first and second segments are 230 and 290 respectively.
The first segment was lost, but the second segment was received correctly by the receiver. Let 𝑋 be the
amount of data carried in the first segment (in bytes), and 𝑌 be the 𝐴𝐶𝐾 number sent by the receiver.
The values of 𝑋 and 𝑌 (in that order) are
A. 60 and 290
B. 230 and 291
C. 60 and 231
D. 60 and 230

X 290-230  60bytes Y ACK Number = 1st packet was lost so; 230 seq no. is returned.

116. Consider the following statements about the timeout value used in TCP. State TRUE?
A. The timeout value is set to the RTT (Round Trip Time) measured during TCP connection
establishment for the entire duration of the connection.
B. Appropriate RTT estimation algorithm is used to set the timeout value of a TCP connection.
C. Timeout value is set to twice the propagation delay from the sender to the receiver.

117. A layer-4 firewall (a device that can look at all protocol headers up to the transport layer) CANNOT
A. block entire HTTP traffic during 9:00𝑃𝑀 and 5:00𝐴𝑀
B. block all ICMP traffic
C. stop incoming traffic from specific IP address but allow outgoing traffic to the same IP address
D. block TCP traffic from a specific user on a multi-user system during 9:00𝑃𝑀 to 5:00 AM

118. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?


A. TCP guarantees a minimum communication rate
B. TCP ensures in-order delivery  Sequence no. allows in-order delivery
C. TCP reacts to congestion by reducing sender window size
D. TCP employs retransmission to compensate for packet loss

119. Packets of the same session may be routed through different paths in:
A. TCP, but not UDP
B. TCP and UDP
C. UDP, but not TCP
D. Neither TCP nor UDP

Routing happens in Network layer and hence has no dependency with the the transport layer protocols TCP and
UDP.

120. Which one of the following uses UDP as the transport protocol?
A. HTTP
B. Telnet
C. DNS
D. SMTP Where quick response is needed, there UDP is preferred.

121. Suppose two hosts use a TCP connection to transfer a large file. Which of the following statements
is/are FALSE with respect to the TCP connection?
A. If the sequence number of a segment is 𝑚, then the sequence number of the subsequent segment is
always 𝑚+1.
B. If the estimated round trip time at any given point of time is 𝑡 sec, the value of the retransmission
timeout is always set to greater than or equal to 𝑡 sec.
C. The size of the advertised window never changes during the course of the TCP connection.
D. The number of unacknowledged bytes at the sender is always less than or equal to the advertised
window.
1.False : because in tcp every byte is numbred and header contains the sequence number of 1st byte so sequence number in
2nd packet will be the next sequence number of last bit in 1st packet.

3.false: adv value in tcp header is dynamically changed by receiver each time.

122. Consider the following statements regarding the slow start phase of the TCP congestion control
algorithm. Note that cwnd stands for the TCP congestion window and MSS window denotes the Maximum
Segments Size:
State TRUE?
A. The cwnd increases by 2 MSS on every successful acknowledgment
B. The cwnd approximately doubles on every successful acknowledgment
C. The cwnd increases by 1 MSS every round trip time
D. The cwnd approximately doubles every round trip time

123. Assuming that for a given network layer implementation, connection establishment overhead is
100bytes and disconnection overhead is 28bytes. What would be the minimum size of the packet the transport
layer needs to keep up, if it wishes to implement a datagram service above the network layer and needs to
keep its overhead to a minimum of 12.5%. (ignore transport layer overhead)
A. 512bytes
B. 768bytes
C. 1152bytes
D. 1024bytes

transport layer wants to keep an overhead to a minimum of 12.5%


So 12.5% of x = 128
12.5/100∗𝑥=128
𝑥= 128*100 / 12.5  1024 bytes

124. Consider socket API on a Linux machine that supports connected UDP sockets. A connected UDP
socket is a UDP socket on which connect function has already been called. Which of the following statements
is/are CORRECT?
A. A connected UDP socket can be used to communicate with multiple peers simultaneously.
B. A process can successfully call connect function again for an already connected UDP socket.

125. Consider a TCP client and a TCP server running on two different machines. After completing data
transfer, the TCP client calls close to terminate the connection and a FIN segment is sent to the TCP server.
Server-side TCP responds by sending an ACK, which is received by the client-side TCP. As per the TCP
connection state diagram (RFC 793), in which state does the client-side TCP connection wait for the FIN from
the server-side TCP?
A. LAST-ACK
B. TIME-WAIT
C. FIN-WAIT-1
D. FIN-WAIT-0

126. Consider a long-lived TCP session with an end-to-end bandwidth of 1Gbps (= 109 bits per second ).
The session starts with a sequence number of 1234. The minimum time (in seconds, rounded to the
closet integer) before this sequence number can be used again is ____34_____.

232 *8 / 109  34.35 sec  34 to 35

127. Which of the following functionality must be implemented by a transport protocol over and above the
network protocol?
A. Recovery from packet losses
B. Detection of duplicate packets
C. Packet delivery in the correct order
D. End to end connectivity
128. A user starts browsing a webpage hosted at a remote server. The browser opens a single TCP
connection to fetch the entire webpage from the server. The webpage consists of a top-level index page with
multiple embedded image objects. Assume that all caches (e.g., DNS cache, browser cache) are all initially
empty. The following packets leave the user's computer in some order.
i. HTTP GET request for the index page
ii. DNS request to resolve the web server's name to its IP address
iii. HTTP GET request for an image object
iv. TCP SYN to open a connection to the web server
Which one of the following is the CORRECT chronological order (earliest in time to latest) of the packets
leaving the computer?
B. (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
C. (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
D. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
E. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

The standard sequence of operations when trying to reach a server are as follows.
Device checks with local DNS server to identify the destination IP address.
Since HTTP uses TCP network protocol, it has to setup a link with the webserver, hence it sends a syn packet to the
server's IP that was resolved using DNS query.
After a TCP connection has been established, The host would request for an index of the webpage using the HTTP
GET command.
Based on the Index recieved, Host would make further requests to get the other information that it made the
connection for.

129. What is WPA?


A. wired protected access
B. wi-fi protected access
C. wired process access
D. wi-fi process access

130. Which protocol suite designed by IETF to provide security for a packet at the Internet layer?
A. IPSec  Internet Protocol Security
B. NetSec
C. PacketSec
D. SSL

131. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving
that information, then it is called
A. DNS lookup
B. DNS hijacking
C. DNS spoofing
D. None of the mentioned

DNS hijacking mislead the user to a different website than the one he or she attempted to reach.
in DNS spoofing, the user is cheated of the URL he or she is trying to reach. He or she is directed to a lookalike
fraudulent website.
DNS lookup is the process by which a DNS record is returned from a DNS server.
This is like looking up a phone number in a phone book - that is why it is referred to as a "lookup". Interconnected
computers, servers and smart phones need to know how to translate the email addresses and domain names people
use into meaningful numerical addresses. A DNS lookup performs this function.

132. Identify the correct sequence in which the following packets are transmitted on the network by a host
when a browser requests a webpage from a remote server, assuming that the host has just been restarted.
A. HTTP GET request, DNS query, TCP SYN
B. DNS query, HTTP GET request, TCP SYN
C. DNS query, TCP SYN, HTTP GET request.
D. TCP SYN, DNS query, HTTP GET request.

FIrst you send DNS request to get IP address. Then you establish connection with IP of google using TCP. Finally you
start talking in HTTP !
133. Which of the following is/are example(s) of stateful application layer protocol?
i. HTTP
ii. FTP
iii. TCP
iv. POP3
B. (i) and (ii) only
C. (ii) and (iii) only
D. (ii) and (iv) only
E. (iv) only

134. Which statement is false?


A. PING is a TCP/IP application that sends datagrams once every second in the hope of an echo response
from the machine being PINGED
B. If the machine is connected and running a TCP/IP protocol stack, it should respond to the PING
datagram with a datagram of its own
C. If PING encounters an error condition, an ICMP message is not returned
D. PING display the time of the return response in milliseconds or one of several error message

135. The DNS maps the IP address to


A. A binary address as strings
B. A n alphanumeric address
C. A hierarchy of domain names
D. A hexadecimal address

136. In one of the pairs of protocols given below,both the protocols can use multiple TCP connections
between the same client and the server. Which one is that?

A. HTTP, FTP
B. HTTP, TELNET
C. FTP, SMTP
D. HTTP, SMTP

SMTP uses only 1 TCP Connection


TELNET uses only 1 TCP Connection
HTTP uses multiple connections for each resource
FTP uses Telnet Protocol for control info on a TCP connection and another TCP connection for data exchange

137. Suppose you are browsing the world wide web using a web browser and trying to access the web
servers. What is the underlying protocol and port number that are being used?
A. UDP, 80
B. TCP, 80
C. TCP, 25
D. UDP, 25 The UDP is single request and single reply mechanism. For that reason UDP is used in

1. DNS Request 2.BOOTP/DHCP 3.Network Time Protocol and many more But TCP is protocol at Transport Layer.
Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end delivery. TCP is a Connection Oriented Protocol. TCP is the
underlying protocol of HTTP. HTTP is used to access the web server ,also the HTTP runs at 80. It is a well-known Port
Number.

138. A packet filtering firewall can


A. Deny certain users from accessing a service
B. Block worms and viruses from entering the network
C. Disallow some files from being accessed through FTP
D. Block some hosts from accessing the network
139. The protocol data unit (PDU) for the application layer in the Internet stack is:
A. Segment
B. Datagram  For Application, Presentation and Session layers, the PDU is message
 For Transport layer, PDU is segment for TCP and datagram for UDP
C. Message
 For Network layer, PDU is packet
D. Frame
 For Datalink layer, PDU is frames  For physical layer, PDU is stream of bits

140. Which of these is not a feature of WAP 2.0


A. Push and Pull Model
B. Interface to a storage device
C. Multimedia messaging
D. Hashing

141. HELO and PORT, respectively, are commands from the protocols:
A. FTP and HTTP
B. TELNET and POP3
C. HTTP and TELNET
D. SMTP and FTP

142. Consider the three commands : PROMPT, HEAD and RCPT.


Which of the following options indicate a correct association of these commands with protocols where these
are used?
A. HTTP, SMTP, FTP
B. FTP, HTTP, SMTP
C. HTTP, FTP, SMTP
D. SMTP, HTTP, FTP

143. Consider the different activities related to email.


 m1: Send an email from mail client to mail server
 m2: Download an email from mailbox server to a mail client
 m3: Checking email in a web browser

Which is the application level protocol used in each activity?

A. m1:HTTP m2:SMTP m3:POP


B. m1:SMTP m2:FTP m3:HTTP
C. m1:SMTP m2:POP m3:HTTP
D. m1:POP m2:SMTP m3:IMAP

144. Assume that you have made a request for a web page through your web browser to a web server.
Initially the browser cache is empty. Further, the browser is configured to send HTTP requests in non-
persistent mode. The web page contains text and five very small images. The minimum number of TCP
connections required to display the web page completely in your browser is_____6_____.

In HTTP non-persistent connection, each time a request is served by the server, the connection is automatically closed
by the server.
So we need 1 connection for web page and 5 for images. Thus, in total we need 6 TCP connections to fetch web page
completely.

145. Consider the resolution of the domain name www.gate.org.in by a DNS resolver. Assume that no
resource records are cached anywhere across the servers and that iterative query mechanism is used in the
resolution. The number of query-response pairs involved in completely resolving the domain name is
________4________.

There are 4 levels www.(1) ; gate.(2) ; org.(3) ; .in(4)

146. SSL (Socket layer) is used in Presentation Layer network Architecture.

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