Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.

011-47623456

PHYSICS
Syllabus: Units and Measurements

Choose the correct answer. 6. The magnitude of difference between the true
1. Which of the following is not a base quantity? value of the quantity and individual measurement
value of a physical quantity by a measuring
(1) Luminous intensity (2) Electric current
instrument is called
(3) Velocity (4) Mass
(1) Mean absolute error (2) Absolute error
2. What are the SI units for plane angle and solid
angle respectively? (3) Relative error (4) Percentage error
(1) Radian, radian (2) Radian, degree 7. Relative error is equal to
(3) Degree, radian (4) Radian, steradian (1) Percentage error
3. Match the units of length given in column A with (2) (Percentage error) × 100
correct values in column B and choose the correct
option. (3) (Percentage error) ÷ 100
Column A Column B (4) Mean absolute error
(a) 1 Light year (i) 1 × 10-15 m 8. Consider the following statements and choose the
(b) 1 Fermi (ii) 1.496 × 1011 m correct option(s).
(c) 1 Astronomical unit (iii) 1 × 10-10 m (I) Change of different units may change the
(d) 1 Angstrom (iv) 9.46 × 1015 m number of significant figures in a
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) measurement.
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (II) All the zeros between non-zero digits are not
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) significant.
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (1) Only (I) is correct
4. Consider the following statements (2) (I) and (II) both are correct
(I) Accuracy is a measure of closeness of (3) Only (II) is correct
measured value to the true value of the
quantity. (4) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct
(II) Precision tell us to what resolution or limit the 9. Column A contains different quantities and
quantity is measured. Column B contains dimensions. Match Column A
(III) Accuracy does not depend on limit or with Column B and Choose the correct option.
resolution of the measuring instrument. Column A Column B
Choose the correct option. (a) Volume (i) [MLT-2]
(1) (I), (II) and (III) are correct (b) Force (ii) [M0LT-1]
(2) (I) and (III) are correct (c) Velocity (iii) [ML-3T0]
(3) (II) and (III) are correct (d) Density (iv) [M0L3T0]
(4) (I) and (II) are correct (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
5. Zero error is a type of (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(1) Random error (2) Least count error (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) Systematic error (4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

[Page 1]
 Physics

10. 5.75 g of substance occupies 1.5 cm3, its density 16. Two resistors of resistances R1 = (200 ± 5) ohm
and significant figure of density respectively are and R2 = (200 ± 3) ohm are connected in (a)
(1) 3.833 and 4 (2) 3.83 and 3 series and (b) parallel. The equivalent resistance
(3) 3.8 and 2 (4) 3.8333 and 5 of the series and parallel combination respectively
is
11. Dimensional formula for ‘½ mv2 and mgh’ m →
mass, v → velocity, h → height (1) (400 ± 2) ohm, (100 ± 2) ohm
(1) [ML2T-2] and [ML-2T2] (2) (400 ± 8) ohm, (100 ± 2) ohm
(2) [ML2T-2] and [ML2T-2] (3) (100 ± 8) ohm, (400 ± 2) ohm
(3) [MLT-2] and [MLT-2] (4) (100 ± 2) ohm, (100 ± 2) ohm
(4) [ML-2T-2] and [ML-2T-2]
17. The time period of oscillation of a simple
12. Choose the correct statement(s)
pendulum is T = 2π L /g . Measured value of L is
(I) Dimensions are customarily used as a
preliminary test of the consistency of an 10 cm known to 2 mm accuracy and time for 100
equation. oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 80s
using a wrist watch of 1s resolution. The accuracy
(II) Dimensionally correct equation need to be
actually an exact equation. in the determination of g will be

(1) (I) only (2) (I) and (II) only (1) 9%

(3) (II) only (4) Neither (I) nor (II) (2) 4.5%
13. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as (3) 13.5%
Reason (R). (4) 18%
Assertion(A): The decrease of least count of a
measuring device increases its precision. 18. The temperatures of two bodies measured by a
Reason(R): The smallest value that can thermometer are t1 = 40° C ± 1° C and t2 = 60° C
measured using a measuring device is known as ± 2° C. The temperature difference with error will
the least count. be
In the light of above statements, select the correct
option. (1) 100° C ± 3° C (2) 20° C ± 1° C
(1) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(A) are correct (3) 20° C ± 3° C (4) 100° C ± 1° C
and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion(A) 19. A physical quantity Q is related to 4 observables
(2) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are correct a, b, c and d as follows:
and Reason(R) is not the correct explanation
for Assertion(A) Q = a 2 b3 / cd
(3) Assertion(A) is correct but Reason(R) is The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c
incorrect and d are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2% respectively. What
(4) Assertion(A) is incorrect but Reason(R) is will be the percentage error in quantity Q?
correct
(1) 13% (2) 14%
14. The number of insignificant zeros in 4.0007 is
(3) 15% (4) 8%
(1) 3 (2) Zero
(3) 1 (4) 4 20. A system of units includes

15. The numbers 5.745 and 5.835 on rounding off to (1) Fundamental units
three significant figures will be (2) Derived units
(1) 5.75 and 5.84 (2) 5.74 and 5.83 (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 5.75 and 5.83 (4) 5.74 and 5.84 (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

  
[Page 2]
 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

PHYSICS
Syllabus: Motion in a straight line

Choose the correct answer:

1. If a particle moves 4 m towards north and then 3 m
towards east then magnitude of distance travelled
and displacement of the particle is (3)
(1) 5 m, 5 m (2) 5 m, 7 m
(3) 7 m, 5 m (4) 7 m, 7 m
2. Which of the following option is correct?
(1) The magnitude of displacement may or may
not be equal to the path length traversed by an
object.
(2) The magnitude of displacement must be equal
to the path length traversed by an object (4)
(3) The magnitude of displacement may be
greater than the path length traversed by an
object
(4) Both (2) & (3)
3. For uniform motion of any particle the correct 4. A car is moving along a straight line it moves from
position time graph is represented by A to B in 10 s and returns from B to A in 15 s.
Calculate average speed and magnitude of
average velocity. (given AB = 25 m)
(1) 0 m/s, 0 m/s
(1) (2) 0 m/s, 2 m/s
(3) 2 m/s, 2 m/s
(4) 2 m/s, 0 m/s
5. The position of an object moving along x-axis is
given by x = 3 + 4t2 where x is in m and t is in
seconds. Calculate average velocity between
t = 2 s to t = 5 s
(2) (1) 25 m/s
(2) 28 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 32 m/s

[Page 1]
 Physics

6. Position time graph for motion with positive 10. A car moving with a speed of 60 m/s can be
acceleration is correctly represented by stopped by applying brakes within minimum
distance of 10 m. If the same car is moving at a
speed of 100 m/s the minimum stopping distance
would be:
(1)
(1) 25.28 m (2) 27. 78 m
(3) 26. 52 m (4) 30.32 m
11. A person driving a car with a speed of 90 km/h,
suddenly sees a boy crossing the road. If the
distance moved by a car, before the person
applies brakes is 4 m, then reaction time of the
person is:
(2) (1) 0.04 s (2) 0.16 s
(3) 0.08 s (4) 0.25 s
12. Two parallel rail tracks run north-south. Train A
moves north with a speed of 72 km/h and train B
moves south with a speed of 108 km/h then
velocity of B w.r.t. A is
(1) 36 km/h
(3) (2) 180 km/h
(3) 50 m/s
(4) Both (2) & (3)
13. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) An object may be in uniform motion in a
straight line if its displacement is equal in
equal intervals of time
(4) (2) Average speed of an object is less or equal to
the magnitude of average velocity over a
given time interval
(3) the acceleration of an object at a particular
time is equal to the slope of the velocity time
7. Area under velocity-time curve gives
graph at that instant of time
(1) Displacement
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(2) Speed
14. A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 600 km h–1
(3) Acceleration ejects its products of combustion at the speed of
(4) Change in velocity 1800 km h–1 relative to the jet plane. What is the
speed of the latter with respect to an observer on
8. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity the ground?
of 20 m/s from the top of a multistory building. The
height of the point from where the ball is thrown is (1) 2400 km h–1
60 m from the ground. How long will it be before (2) 1200 km h–1
the ball hits the ground? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 1000 km h–1
(1) 2 sec (2) 4 sec
(4) 1300 km h–1
(3) 6 sec (4) 8 sec
15. A car moving along a straight highway with speed
9. The ratio of distances covered by a freely falling of 108 km h–1 is brought to a stop within a distance
body (starting from rest) during the 1st, 2nd, 3rd of 100 m. What is the retardation of the car
second of its motion is: (assumed uniform)?
(1) 1 : 4 : 9 (2) 1 : 2 : 3 (1) 3.5 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
(3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 3 : 7 : 9 (3) 4.5 m/s2 (4) 5.5 m/s2

[Page 2]
Physics

16. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 19. If a particle is projected vertically upwards then
36 km h–1 fires a bullet at a thief’s car speeding which of the following graph may correctly
away in the same direction with a speed of 180 km represent variation of distance with time.
h–1. If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 140 ms–1.
With what speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car?
(1) 80 m/s (2) 100 m/s
(3) 120 m/s (4) 150 m/s (1)
17. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m from
ground. Time taken by ball to reach the ground is
(take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s
(3) 3 s (4) 4 s
18. Which of the following graph represents that the
relative velocity of two objects is zero?
(2)

(1)

(3)

(2)

(4)
(3)

20. If position of particle as a function of time is given

as x = 3 t2 – 5t + 4, where x is in m and time t is in
s. Find acceleration of particle at t = 2 s
(4) (1) 14 m/s2
(2) 7 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 6 m/s2

  

[Page 3]
 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CHEMISTRY (C-11)
Syllabus: Some Basic Concept of Chemistry

Choose the correct answer. 5. Which of the following has maximum number of
atoms?
1. How many grams of urea should be added to
water to prepare 350 ml solution of 0.3 M urea (1) 4 g of hydrogen gas
solution? (2) 11.2 L of water vapours at STP
(1) 1.05 g (2) 4. 8 g (3) 54 g of Ag(s)
(3) 6.3 g (4) 8.4 g (4) 24 g of ozone gas
2. A mixture of gases contains N2 and H2 gases in 6. Mass of methane gas required to produce 11.2 L
the ratio of 7 : 1 (w/w). Molar ratio of the two gases of CO2(g) after combustion is
in the mixture is
(1) 16 g (2) 8 g
(1) 1 : 1
(3) 24 g (4) 32 g
(2) 7 : 1
7. What is the molality of 3.15% (w/w) HNO3
(3) 1 : 2 solution?
(4) 1 : 4 (1) 1.3 m (2) 0.253 m
3. Given below are two statements: One is labelled (3) 0.516 m (4) 1.5 m
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
8. 200 mL 0.5 M aqueous NaCl solution mixed with
Reason (R).
excess of AgNO3. Amount of AgCl precipitated is
Assertion(A): The empirical formula mass of
(1) 14.35 g (2) 28.70 g
cyclobutane is one-fourth of its molecular mass.
Reason (R): The empirical formula represents the (3) 7.18 g (4) 18.75 g
simplest whole number ratio of various atoms 9. Number of significant figures in 0.200 g is
present in a molecule.
(1) 1 (2) 3
In the light of above statements, select the correct
(3) 2 (4) 4
option.
10. Moles of ammonia formed on reaction of 1.2
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct moles of nitrogen and 2.4 moles hydrogen is
explanation of (A)
(1) 1.2 (2) 2.4
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) (3) 3.2 (4) 1.6
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false 11. How many moles of sucrose contain 1.8 moles of
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false statements carbon?
4. An organic compound contains 71.47% (by wt.) (1) 0.10 (2) 0.15
carbon and 12.53% hydrogen. The empirical (3) 0.50 (4) 1.5
formula of this compound is 12. Exact number of moles of KClO3 required to
(1) C6H6O produce sufficient O2 which react completely with
2 moles of aluminium will be
(2) C6H12O
(1) 2 mole (2) 3 mole
(3) C3H6O
(3) 2/3 mole (4) 1 mole
(4) C6H10O
[Page 1]
 Chemistry
13. Consider the following statements and choose the 18. Match the following column I with column II
correct option.
(I) Law of definite proportion states that a given Column I Column II
compound always contains exactly the same
a. 2 5
proportion of elements by weight. moles of N3– (i) NA atoms
3 2
(II) Avogadro law proposed that equal volumes of
all gases at same or different temperature and b. 36 g of water (ii) 2 NA atoms
pressure contains equal number of molecules.
(III) According to the Dalton’s atomic theory atom c. 5.6 L of CO2 (iii) 6 NA atoms
is made up of electrons, neutrons and protons. gas at STP
(1) Only statements (I) and (III) are correct
d. 8 g of methane (iv) 3
(2) Only statements (I) and (II) are correct NA atoms
4
(3) Only statement (I) is correct
(4) Statements (I), (II) and (III) are correct (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
14. If the molality of aqueous NaCl solution is 5 molal. (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
Then the mole fraction of NaCl in the solution is (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) 8.26 × 10–2 (2) 2.33 × 10–2 (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) 2.33 × 10–3 (4) 8.26 × 10–3 19. Prefix in the SI system for multiple 10–6 is
15. A solution is prepared by adding 42 g of a
(1) Micro
substance X to 36 g of water. Mole fraction of the
solute is (Molar mass of X = 84 g/mol) (2) Mega
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.5 (3) Nano
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.4 (4) Femto
16. A → B + 2C 20. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
C → D as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
2D → P
Assertion (A) : Equal moles of H2SO4 and N2O5
Product ‘P’ is obtained from starting material ‘A’ contain equal number of atoms.
according to the above reaction sequence. To
Reason (R) : H2SO4 and N2O5 have same
obtain exactly 1.2 moles of P, number of moles of
atomicity.
‘A’ taken should be
In the light of above statements, select the correct
(1) 1.2 (2) 2.4
option.
(3) 0.6 (4) 4.8
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
17. If 3.01 × 1024
atoms of oxygen gas react with 0.5 explanation of (A)
moles of benzene, then volume of CO2 gas (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
produced at STP is correct explanation of (A)
(1) 67.2 L (2) 11.2 L (3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false statement
(3) 22.4 L (4) 44.8 L (4) Both (A) and (R) are false statements

  

[Page 2]
 Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CHEMISTRY
Syllabus: Structure of Atom
Choose the correct option. 5. The wavelength range of the visible spectrum
1. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons extends from 400 nm to 750 nm. These
wavelengths in frequencies (Hz) respectively
in 157
64 Gd , respectively, are will be
(1) 93, 64, 64 (1) 7.5 × 1012 Hz, 4 × 1010 Hz
(2) 64, 93, 64 (2) 4 × 1010 Hz, 7.5 × 1012 Hz
(3) 4 × 1014 Hz, 7.5 × 1014 Hz
(3) 64, 64, 93
(4) 7.5 × 1014 Hz, 4 × 1014 Hz
(4) 93, 64, 93
6. The number of angular node(s) and radial
2. A 54 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of node(s) in 4p orbital respectively are
wavelength 330 nm. The rate of emission of (1) 1 and 2
quanta per second is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
(2) 2 and 2
(1) 9 × 1019
(3) 2 and 1
(2) 2 × 1021 (4) 0 and 2
(3) 4 × 1018 7. Match List-I and List-II
(4) 6 × 1022 List-I List-II
3. What will be the wavelength of a ball of mass (a) n (i) Shape of orbital
0.2 kg moving with a velocity of 15 m/s? (b) ml (ii) Size and energy of
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) orbital
(1) 6.6 × 10–32 m (2) 6.6 × 10–34 m (c) l (iii) Spatial orientation of
orbital
(3) 2.2 × 10–34 m (4) 2.2 × 10–32 m
Choose the correct answer from the options
4. Match List-I with List-II given below
List-I List-II (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)
(Series) (Spectral Region) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
(a) Pfund (i) Ultraviolet (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
(b) Lyman (ii) Visible (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii)
8. What is the wavelength of light emitted when the
(c) Balmer (iii) Infrared
electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes
Choose the correct answer from the options transition from energy level with n = 5 to the
given below energy level with n = 1?
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii) RH 24
(1) (2) RH
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii) 25 25
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i) 25 25
(3) (4)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) 24RH RH

[Page 1]
 Chemistry

9. A photon of wavelength 3 × 10–5 cm strikes on 13. Which among the following is a wrong
metal surface, if the work function of metal is statement?
2.3 eV, then the kinetic energy of the (1) The total number of orbitals associated with
photoelectron will be (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) a principal quantum number(n) is given by
(1) 1.8 eV n2
(2) 2.8 eV (2) Boundary surface diagram for a s orbital
(3) 3.5 eV encloses a region in which probability of
(4) 0.4 eV finding the electron is 100%
10. Given below are two statements: One is labelled (3) The energy of the orbitals in hydrogen atom
as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as increases as
Reason(R). 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p = 4d
Assertion(A): Energy of orbitals in the same = 4f
subshell decrease as E2s (H) > E2s (Li) > E2s (Na) (4) The probability of finding an electron at a
> E2s(K). point within an atom is proportional to the
Reason(R): Different subshells of a particular |ψ|2 at that point
shell have different energies in case of
multielectrons atoms. 14. Select the correct statements from the following
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (A) For hydrogen atom and hydrogen like
the correct explanation of (A) species energy and size of the orbital
depends only on ‘n’.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (B) For any subshell (l), l + 1 values of ml are
possible.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) (C) The orbital wave function or ψ for an
electron in an atom has no physical
11. Identify the incorrect statement from the
meaning.
following
(D) The region where probability density
(1) In an atom, energy of all the five 3d orbitals function reduces to zero is called nodal
are equal surface.
(2) All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to Choose the correct answer from the option
3d orbital given below
(3) Mn2+ ion contains five unpaired electrons (1) (A) and (D) only
(4) The shapes of dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are (2) (B) and (D) only
similar to each other, and dx2 – y2 and dZ are
2 (3) (A), (B) and C) only
similar to each other (4) (A), (C) and (D) only
12. Consider the following statements 15. Maximum number of electrons in fourth energy
level of an atom is
(a) Characteristics of cathode rays depend on
the nature of the gas present in the cathode (1) 32 (2) 18
ray tube. (3) 16 (4) 36
(b) The cathode rays start from cathode and 16. The correct order of values of work function (W0)
move towards anode. for given metals is
(c) Canal rays are positively charged particles. (1) Cu > Li > K > Mg
(d) Charge to mass ratio of the canal rays (2) Mg > Cu > Li > K
depends on the gas from which these (3) Mg > Li > K > Cu
originate. (4) Cu > Mg > Li > K
The correct statements are 17. If radius of third Bohr orbit of Li2+ ion is
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only 158.7 pm. Then the radius of second Bohr orbit
of He+ ion will be
(2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(1) 26.45 pm (2) 105.8 pm
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only (3) 52.9 pm (4) 82.52 pm
[Page 2]
 Chemistry

18. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers 19. The order of e/m (charge/mass) ratio for
n l m s electron (e), proton (p) and neutron (n) is
1 (1) e > p > n
(a) 3 2 3 +
2 (2) p > n > e
1 (3) e > n > p
(b) 3 2 –2 –
2
(4) p > e > n
1
(c) 4 0 0 + 20. Which one is incorrect statement?
2
(1) For hydrogen like species velocity of
1
(d) 2 2 1 + electron increases with increase of principal
2
quantum number
1
(e) 1 0 0 – (2) Bohr’s theory was unable to explain the
2
spectrum of He atom
Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
is not possible? (3) For hydrogen like species velocity of
(1) (d) and (e) only electron increases with increase of positive
charge on the nucleus
(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (c), (d) and (e) only (4) Bohr theory could not account for the fine
(4) (a), (c) and (e) only lines in the atomic spectrum

  

[Page 3]
 Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

BOTANY
Syllabus: Cell: The Unit of Life
Choose the correct answer.
1. Who gave final shape to the cell theory? (3) Occurrence of cholesterol towards
(1) Schleiden (2) Schwann hydrophilic head of lipid
(3) Rudolf Virchow (4) Robert Brown (4) Transmembrane lipids
2. In prokaryotes, a specialised differentiated form 6. Match the following columns and select the
of cell membrane is called correct option.
(1) Mesosome (2) Polysome Column-I Column-II
(3) Ribosome (4) Centrosome A. Amyloplast (i) Stores oil and fats
3. The size of prokaryotic ribosomes is about B. Elaioplast (ii) Stores proteins
(1) 10 nm by 15 nm C. Aleuroplast (iii) Stores carbohydrates
(2) 15 nm by 20 nm D. Chloroplast (iv) Has carotenoid
(3) 15 µm by 25 µm pigments
(4) 25 nm by 35 nm (1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
4. In the question a statement of Assertion(A) is (2) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
followed by a statement of Reason(R). (3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
Assertion(A): Eukaryotic cells show an (4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm. 7. An elaborate network of filamentous __A___
Reason(R): Eukaryotic cells show the presence structures present in cytoplasm is collectively
of both membrane bound and non-membrane referred to as ___B____.
bound organelles. Select the option that correctly fills A and B
(1) Assertion(A) is true but Reason(R) is false respectively.
(2) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true (1) Chitinous and Endoplasmic reticulum
and Reason is the correct explanation of (2) Lipoidal and Middle lamella
Assertion
(3) Proteinaceous and Cytoskeleton
(3) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are true
(4) Lipoidal and Cytoskeleton
but Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion 8. Which of the following is not a component of the
core of eukaryotic cilium/flagellum?
(4) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are false
statements (1) Radial spoke
5. Which of the following serves as a measure of (2) Central sheath
the fluidity of cell membrane? (3) Plasma membrane
(1) Rotational movement of proteins (4) Peripheral doublet
(2) Lateral movement of proteins

[Page 1]
 Botany

9. Interphase nucleus has loose and indistinct (1) Size (2) Weight
network of nucleoprotein fibres called (3) Ease of extraction (4) Function
(1) Chromatid (2) Chromatin 16. Read the following statements and mark them
(3) Chromosome (4) Centromere as true(T) and false(F).
10. Read the following statements and choose the a. Cis and the trans faces of the Golgi complex
correct option. are entirely different, and are not connected.
Statement(A): Middle lamella holds the b. Golgi apparatus remains in close
different neighbouring plant cells together. association with ER.
Statement(B): Middle lamella connects the c. Lysosomes are densly stained reticular
cytoplasm of neighbouring cells. structures near nucleus.
(1) Both the statements are correct d. Vacuoles contain materials not useful for the
(2) Both the statements are incorrect cell.
(3) Only statement (A) is correct a b c d
(4) Only statement (B) is correct (1) F T F T
11. Which of the following is not true for nucleolus? (2) F F T T
(1) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA (3) T T F F
synthesis (4) T T F T
(2) It is a membrane bound structure 17. In mitochondria _____ forms the continuous
(3) It is larger and more numerous in cells that limiting boundary of the organelle.
are actively carrying out protein synthesis Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(4) It is a spherical structure (1) Plasma membrane
12. All of the following are components of cell (2) Outer membrane
envelope in bacteria, except (3) Inner membrane
(1) Glycocalyx (2) Cell wall (4) Cristae
(3) Cell membrane (4) Cytoplasm 18. Chlorophyll pigments in chloroplasts are present
13. Read the following statements and choose the in the
correct option. (1) Stroma
Statement(A): Cell is the fundamental, (2) Thylakoids
structural and functional unit of all living
organisms. (3) Inter membrane space
Statement(B): Anything less than a complete (4) Inner membrane
structure of a cell can ensure independent living. 19. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. plasmids.
(1) Only statement (A) is correct (1) These are smaller, circular DNA
(2) Only statement (B) is correct (2) These confer antibiotic resistance to
(3) Both the statements are correct bacteria
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (3) These are genomic DNA
14. Which of the following is not an inclusion body (4) These are used to monitor bacterial
found in prokaryotes? transformation
(1) Cyanophycean granule 20. Which of the following is correct for secondary
constriction of chromosomes?
(2) Glycogen granule
(1) Staining region
(3) Polysome
(2) Non-staining region
(4) Phosphate granule
(3) Also called centromere
15. Membrane proteins can be integral and
peripheral on the basis of their (4) Has kinetochore

  

[Page 2]
 Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

BOTANY
Syllabus: Cell Cycle and Cell Division
Choose the correct answer.
1. Identify the correct sequence of different (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
phases of cell cycle.
correct explanation of (A).
(1) G2, S, G1, M
(2) S, M, G1, G2 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(3) G1, S, G2, M correct explanation of (A).
(4) M, S, G1, G2
(3) Only (A) is true and (R) is false
2. The duplication of centriole occurs in
(1) Cytoplasm (4) Only (R) is true and (A) is false
(2) Nucleus
6. Interphase is further subdivided into
(3) Nucleolus
(1) G1, S, G2 and M
(4) Lysosome
(2) G1, S and G2
3. During G1 phase, the cell is/has
(1) Metabolically inactive and continuously (3) G1, G2 and M
grows (4) G2, S and M
(2) Metabolically active and continuously grows 7. Chromatin condensation occurs during
(3) Undergoing DNA replication (1) Prophase (2) Anaphase
(4) Double amount of DNA and chromosome (3) Telophase-I (4) Telophase-II
number as compare to G2 phase
8. Fill in the blanks by choosing correct option for
4. Find out the incorrect statement. 'A' and 'B' in the statement given below.
(1) M phase is the most dramatic period of the The nuclear envelope disappears during
cell cycle ___A____ while reappears during ____B___.
(2) Plants can show mitotic divisions in both
A B
haploid and diploid cells
(3) Cell division is a progressive process and (1) Anaphase Metaphase
very clear-cut lines can be drawn between (2) Telophase Anaphase
various stages (3) Metaphase Anaphase
(4) The haploid cells in male honey bees (4) Prophase Telophase
divides mitotically
9. Choose the significance of mitosis among the
5. Read the following statements of Assertion(A)
following.
and Reason(R) and select the correct option. (a) Cell repair
Assertion(A): The number of chromosomes in (b) Restoration of nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
the parent cell and progeny cells remains the (c) Growth of multicellular organisms

same after mitosis. Select the correct option.

(1) Only (b) (2) Only (b) and (c)
Reason(R): Meiosis is considered as
(3) Only (a) and (b) (4) All (a), (b) and (c)
reductional division.
[Page 1]
Botany
10. Read the below given statements and select the (1) (a)(ii); (b)(iii); (c)(i); (d)(iv)
correct option. (2) (a)(iii); (b)(i);(c)(iv);(d)(ii)
Statement A: Prophase of the first meiotic (3) (a)(ii); (b)(iii); c(iv); d(i)
division is typically smaller but more complex
when compared to prophase of mitosis. (4) (a)(i), (b)(iii); (c)(ii); (d)(iv)
Statement B: In oocytes of some vertebrates, 15. How many of the given statement is/are false?
the diplotene stage can last for months or years. (a) The bivalent chromosomes align on the
(1) Both the statements are correct equatorial plate during metaphase I.
(2) Both the statements are incorrect (b) Crossing over is an enzyme mediated
process.
(3) Only statement A is correct
(c) Diplotene is the final stage of meiotic
(4) Only statement B is correct prophase I.
11. Recombination between homologous (d) Chromatids move to opposite poles during
chromosomes is completed by the end of mitotic metaphase.
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene (3) 3 (4) 4
12. Find out odd one with respect to diplotene. 16. The production of haploid phase in the life cycle
(1) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex of sexually reproducing higher organism is
(2) Terminalisation of chiasmata ensured by
(3) Chiasmata formation (1) Mitosis
(4) Seen in meiocyte (2) Meiosis
13. At which stage of karyokinesis do the (3) Fertilisation
chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles (4) Quiescent stage (G0)
and lose their identity as discrete elements? 17. The homologous chromosomes separate during
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) Prophase I (2) Metaphase I
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (3) Anaphase I (4) Telophase I
14. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 18. Which of the following stages or sub-stages
correct option. involves splitting of centromere of each
Column-I Column-II chromosome?
(1) Anaphase I (2) Pachytene
(a) Zygotene (i) Compaction
of (3) Metaphase II (4) Anaphase II
chromosomes 19. In which of the following stages the
continues chromosome pairs align at the equator?
(b) Lepotene (ii) Exchange of (1) Metaphase II (2) Metaphase I
genetic (3) Anaphase II (4) Telophase II
material 20. Which of the following is the correct sequence
between two of different stages of prophase I?
homologous
chromosomes (1) Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene
→ Diplotene → Diakinesis
(c) Diakinesis (iii) Homologous
(2) Zygotene → Pachytene → Leptotene
chromosomes
→ diplotene → Diakinesis
start pairing
(3) Diakinesis → Diplotene → Pachytene
(d) Pachytene (iv) Represent → Zygotene → Leptotene
transition to
metaphase-I (4) Leptotene → Pachytene → Zygotene
→ Diplotene → Diakinesis
  

[Page 2]
 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

ZOOLOGY
Syllabus: Biomolecules-II

Choose the correct answer. 4. Assuming a hypothetical scenario, in a particular

1. Consider the tetrapeptide given below. dsDNA, 45% of bases were shown to be thymine.
The percentage of adenine, guanine and cytosine
are expected to be
(1) A – 5% G – 45% C – 45%
(2) A – 45% G – 5% C – 5%
(3) A – 5% G – 45% C – 5%
Choose the incorrect statement. (4) A – 15% G – 20% C – 20%
(1) The amino acid I is the N-terminal amino acid.
5. An enzyme ‘X’ catalyses by cleavage of substrate
(2) There are three peptide bonds in the given into two parts without the use of water moiety and
structure. a double bond is formed at the place of removal of
(3) The serine is the amino terminal residue. groups whereas enzyme ‘Y’ catalyses the
conversion of hydrogen peroxide into water and
(4) The alanine is the C-terminal residue.
oxygen. The enzyme commission number of ‘Y’ is
2. All of the following reactions are catalysed by 1.11.1.6. Select the option that correctly identifies
different enzymes belonging to the class-III of the class of ‘X’ and ‘Y’
enzymes, except
‘X’ ‘Y’
(1) Breakdown of nucleotides into nucleosides
and phosphoric acid (1) Dehydrogenases Lyases
(2) Breakdown of H2O2 into water and oxygen
(2) Lyases Transferases
(3) Breakdown of peptides into amino acids
(3) Oxidoreductases Lyases
(4) Digestion of sucrose into glucose and fructose
3. Match column I with column II and select the (4) Lyases Dehydrogenases
correct option w.r.t. B-DNA.
6. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. catalysed
Column I Column II metabolic conversions.
a. At each step, the DNA (i) 3.4 Å (1) There could be many more ‘altered structural
strand turns states’ between the stable substrate and the
product.
b. Pitch of the DNA (ii) 36º
(2) Stability is something related to energy status
c. Rise per base pair (iii) 3.4 nm of the molecule or the structure.
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) (3) If product is at lower energy level than
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii) substrate, then the reaction is an energy
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii) requiring process.
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii) (4) The ‘ES’ complex formation is a transient
phenomenon.

[Page 1]
 Zoology
7. The given graph represents the effect of 12. Three of the following statements about co-factors
concentration of substrate on enzyme activity. are correct and one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
Select the labelling that represents the
concentration of substrate at which the velocity of (1) Non-protein constituents of holoenzymes are
reaction is half of the attained maximum velocity. called
co-factors.
(2) Co-enzymes form coordination bonds with
side chains at the active site of the enzyme
(3) Co-enzymes are organic compounds and their
association with the apoenzyme is only
transient
(4) Catalytic activity is lost when the co-factor is
removed from the enzyme.
13. Consider the figure given below

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
8. Adult human haemoglobin is made up of a protein
part and a non-protein part. The non-protein part
compound in its free form acts as a prosthetic
group for the enzyme
(1) Peroxidase
(2) Carboxypeptidase
(3) Carbonic anhydrase
Choose the incorrect statement.
(4) Alcohol dehydrogenase
9. Choose the incorrect statement (1) ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are adenine and thymine.
(1) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor (2) Bond ‘A’ is also found in between the
competes with the substrate for substrate monomers of a disaccharide.
binding site of the enzyme. (3) Bond ‘B’ is the result of dehydration.
(2) In competitive inhibition, substrate binds with (4) Bond present in between ‘R’ and ‘S’ is a bond
enzyme at its active site. which links monomers resulting in a dipeptide
(3) With increase in substrate concentration, the 14. The rate of a chemical reaction ________, if the
velocity of an enzymatic reaction increases temperature of the sample is raised from 20°C to
first but ultimately reaches a maximum 40° C.
velocity.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(4) The enzymes get denatured at a temperature
lower than that of their optimum temperature. (1) Decreases three times
10. All of the given enzymes are proteinaceous in (2) Increases four times
nature, except (3) Decreases by half
(1) Carboxylase (2) Ribozyme (4) Increases three times
(3) Catalase (4) Dehydrogenase 15. In a polypeptide, amino acids are linked by
11. A molecule ‘X’ closely resembles the succinate in __‘A’___ bonds, whereas in a polysaccharide, the
its structure. It is also responsible for inhibiting the individual monosaccharides are linked by
activity of the enzyme succinic dehydrogenase. __‘B’ _ bonds. Select the option that correctly
Identify ‘X’ and select the correct option. identifies ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively.
(1) Lactic acid (1) Sulphide, Peptide
(2) Malonate (2) Peptide, Glycosidic
(3) Catalase (3) Ester, Peptide
(4) Peroxidase (4) Glycosidic, Ester
[Page 2]
Zoology
16. Given below are statements w.r.t. structures of 19. Observe the below given reaction.
proteins. Select the incorrect statement.
CO2 + H2O → H2CO3
(1) Physicists conjure up the two dimensional
views of molecular structures while biologists Carbon dioxide Water Carbonic acid
describe the protein structure at five levels.
In the absence of enzyme, 200 molecules of
(2) Primary structure of protein is imagined as a H2CO3 are formed in 1 hour in above given
line and the right end is represented by the last reaction. By using an enzyme ‘Z’ the speed
amino acid.
increases dramatically with about 600,000
(3) α-helix and β-pleated sheet are secondary molecules being formed every seconds. ‘Z’
structural forms of proteins. accelerates the reaction rate by ‘Y’ times. Identify
(4) Only right handed helices are observed in ‘Z’ and ‘Y’ and select the correct option.
proteins.
17. A respiratory pigment present in RBCs of adult (1) Z – Carbonic anhydrase, Y – 1 million times
humans represents ______ structure of proteins. (2) Z – Catalase, Y – 10 million times
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(3) Z – Carbonic anhydrase, Y – 0.01 billion times
(1) Primary (2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary (4) Quaternary (4) Z – Peroxidase, Y – 0.01 billion times
18. Read the statements (A) and (B) and select the 20. Inorganic catalysts differ from enzymes as
correct option.
Statement A: The conversion of glucose to lactic (1) Former one can function effectively at higher
acid in our skeletal muscles during exercise is an temperature
anabolic process. (2) Later one can function effectively at
Statement B: The activity of enzymes decline temperature higher than optimum temperature
below and above optimum pH.
(3) Former one can function only at a particular
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct
low temperature
(2) Only (B) is correct.
(3) Only (A) is correct. (4) Former one get damaged at high temperature
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect [Say above 40º C]

  

[Page 3]
 Corp. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

ZOOLOGY
Syllabus: Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Tissues only, Biomolecules-I (Upto Nucleic acids included)

Choose the correct answer: 6. Consider the following features w.r.t. muscles.
1. The type of epithelium found in ducts of glands a. Closely attached to skeletal bones
and tubular parts of nephrons is mainly b. Striated in appearance
responsible for
c. Fibres are multinucleated in appearance and
(1) Forming a diffusion membrane voluntary in action
(2) Secretion and absorption Select the type of muscles showing the above
(3) Providing protection against mechanical given features.
stress (1) Biceps
(4) Movement of mucus in specific direction (2) Heart muscle
2. Which of the following tissue(s) is/are present in (3) Muscle of stomach wall
an organ such as heart?
(4) Muscle of intestinal wall
(a) Epithelial (b) Connective In all connective tissues, the cells secrete fibres of
(c) Muscular (d) Neural structural proteins called collagen or elastin,
except in
Choose the correct option
(1) Fluid connective tissue
(1) Only (a)
(2) Loose connective tissue
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only
8. Read the statements A and B carefully and select
3. Which of the following secretions is/are secreted the correct option.
directly into the fluid bathing the gland?
Statement A: Some of the flattened cells with
(1) Hormones (2) Mucus irregular boundaries get specialised for secretion
(3) Saliva (4) Wax and are called glandular epithelium.

4. The type of epithelium present in the moist surface Statement B: Adipose tissue is a type of loose
of buccal cavity is also seen in connective tissue located mainly beneath the skin.

(1) The wall of blood vessels In the light of above statements, select the correct
option.
(2) Air sacs of lungs
(1) Both statement A and statement B are correct
(3) Bronchioles
(2) Both statement A and statement B are
(4) The inner lining of ducts of salivary glands incorrect
5. The cell junction that perform cementing to keep (3) Statement A is correct and statement B is
neighbouring cells together is incorrect
(1) Tight junction (2) Adhering junction (4) Statement A is incorrect and statement B is
correct
(3) Gap junction (4) Intercalated disc

[Page 1]
 Zoology
9. Select the supporting cells of that tissue which 15. Which of the following options is correct w.r.t.
exerts the greatest control over the body’s identification and description of the molecule
responsiveness to changing conditions. shown in the following figure?
(1) Neurons
(2) Fibroblast cells
(3) Chondrocytes
(4) Neuroglia
10. The structural proteins secreted by fibroblasts are
responsible for providing all of the following to the
tissues, except
(1) Strength (1) Uracil - It is present only in RNA
(2) Excitability (2) Lecithin - Phospholipid present in the
(3) Flexibility cell membrane
(4) Elasticity (3) Adenosine - Nucleotide
11. Select the incorrect match. (4) Glycine - Simplest amino acid
(1) GLUT-4 - Enables glucose transport into 16. Select the correct statement w.r.t. lipids.
cells
(1) Arachidonic acid has 19 carbon atoms
(2) Drug - Vinblastin excluding the carboxyl carbon.
(3) Proteins - 10-15% of total cellular mass (2) Most of the lipids have phosphorous and a
(4) Lectin - Abrin phosphorylated organic compound in them.
12. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the (3) Some tissues especially the epithelial tissue
biomolecules which are present in acid insoluble have stored lipids with more complex
fraction but their molecular weights are less than structures.
800 Da. (4) Usually oils have higher melting point than
(1) They are polymeric substances fats.
(2) They are not strictly biomacromolecules 17. Select the correctly matched option
(3) They are arranged in the form of water (1) Adenine - Four atoms are
insoluble vesicles after the disruption of cell present in heterocyclic
membrane ring
(4) They are present in the macromolecular (2) Thiamine - Nitrogenous base
fraction
(3) Ribose - Hexose sugar
13. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. secondary
metabolites. (4) Palmitic acid - CH3 – (CH2)16 – COOH
(1) Role or functions of all the secondary 18. Statement I: N-acetyl glucosamine is the
metabolites in the host organisms is not homopolymer of chitin.
known at this moment. Statement II: Nucleic acids like DNA and RNA are
(2) Some of secondary metabolites have heteropolymers as they are polymer of different
ecological importance. types of nucleotides.
(3) Many of them are useful to human welfare. In the light of above statements, select the correct
(4) Rubber and gums comes under alkaloid option.
category of secondary metabolites. (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
14. Heterocyclic ring is not present in incorrect
(1) Glucose (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
(2) Cholesterol
(3) Both the statements are correct
(3) Uracil
(4) Adenylic acid (4) Both the statements are incorrect

[Page 2]
Zoology
19. Select the option which represents Zwitterionic 20. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
form of amino acid?
(1) The acid-insoluble fraction has only 4 types of
organic compounds i.e., proteins, nucleic
(1) acids, polysaccharides and lipids
(2) The acid soluble pool represents roughly the
(2) cytoplasmic composition.
(3) We get non-essential amino acids through our
(3) diet/food and our body cannot make them
(4) Collagen is the most abundant protein in
(4) animal world.

  

[Page 3]