1. SAP S/4HANA can run on an SAP HANA database only.

1. TRUE
2. FALSE
2. Which of the following is a prerequisite for conversion to SAP S/4HANA?

1. Custom code has to be checked for compatibility.

2. New G/L Accounting must be active.
3. New Asset Accounting must be active.

4. The SAP migration service must be used.

3. What are the business benefits of SAP S/4HANA Finance?

1. Reduced system complexity

2. Single source of truth on the line item level

3. Automatic update of custom applications to SAP HANA standards

4. Overall reporting across financial applications

4. Which tables are replaced by compatibility views?

1. BSIS: Index for GL Account

2. FAGLFLEXT: New GL Account totals

3. BSEG: Line Item

4. ANLC: Fixed Assets totals

5. What is the character length of the field for line item numbering in the universal journal
table ACDOCA?

1. 3

2. 6

3. 10

6. Which level does the cost element category get assigned on?

1. Chart of account

2.Controlling area

3.Company code
7. Which G/L account types are relevant for CO?

1. Non-operating expense or income

2. Primary costs or revenue

3. Secondary costs

4. Bank and Cash Accounts

8. The manage posting periods app shows three period intervals. Which interval checks
exclusively the posting from Controlling (CO) to Financial Accounting (FI)?

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

9. Which statements are true for an extension ledger?

1. Contains a full set of journal entries for all business transactions.

2. Stores only delta values.

3. Reporting on the extension ledger always includes the data of the

underlying ledger.

4. Multiple extension ledgers can point to the same underlying ledger.

10. How can you represent different accounting principles in SAP S/4HANA Finance?
1. Ledger approach

2. Accounts approach

11. When document splitting is active, in which table is the splitting information stored?

1. ACDOCA

2. FAGLFLEXA

3. BSEG

4. ACDOCP

12. Which statements about the S/4HANA Accrual Engine are correct?

1. It is fully integrated into the General Ledger:

2. There is no redundant storage of the postings as original document.

3. There are summary records in the Accrual Engine:

4. It enables complex postings, more than two line items are possible by
customer-defined of posting schemes.

13. What are use cases for Purchase Order Accruals?

1. Purchasing of consumable material or service – without goods receipts.

2. Purchasing of consumable material or service – with non-valuated goods receipts.

3. Purchasing of consumable material or service – with complete goods receipts postings.

4. Purchasing of consumable material – with valuated goods receipt

postings.

14. Purchase Orders (items) for Fixed Assets are relevant for Purchase Order Accruals.

1. True

2. False

15. For an integrated asset acquisition posting, the system divides the business transaction
into an operational part and a valuating part. Which part posts to all accounting
principles?

1. Operational part (technical clearing account against supplier invoice)

2. Valuating part (asset against technical clearing account)

16. Which of the following statements about the integration of asset accounting tables in
the universal journal are true?

1. No redundancy in data storage.

2. Reconciliation between G/L and AA is necessary.

3. No reconciliation-step in financial close.

4. Statistical items are updated as Universal Journal Entries.

5. After conversion, reporting for previous fiscal years is not possible.

6. Planned depreciations and revaluations are now stored in ACDOCA.

17. Which of the following reports are obsolete and deleted?

1. Periodic APC postings: RAPERBxxxx

2. Post depreciation: FAA_DEPRECIATION_POST

3. Reconciliation postings: RAABSTxxxx

4. Fiscal Year Change: RAJAWE00

5. Post depreciation: RAPOSTxxxx

18. You want to provide your analysts with a tool for powerful visualizations and
exploration. Which of the following would you recommend?

1. SAP BusinessObjects Web Intelligence

2. SAP Lumira

3. SAP Crystal Reports Enterprise

19. Can the Global Accounting Hierarchy be set as time-dependent?

1. True

2. False

20. The Basic Cash Management offers workflow capabilities for managing maintenance of
bank accounts.

1. True

2. False

21. SAP S/4HANA can run on an SAP HANA database only.

1. True

2. False

22. What are the business benefits of SAP S/4HANA Finance?

1. Reduced system complexity

2. Single source of truth on the line item level

3. Automatic update of custom applications to SAP HANA standards

4. Overall reporting across financial applications

 23. Postings made in subledgers like Accounts Payable, Accounts Receivable, and Asset
Accounting are simultaneously recorded in the General Ledger.

1. True

2. False

24. More than one company code can be assigned to a controlling area.

1. True

2. False

25. To which chart of accounts must a company code be assigned in order for postings to
occur?

1. Group

2. Country

3. Operating

4. None of the above

5. All of the above

26. Reconciliation accounts can be posted to directly.

1. True

2. False

27. A posting key allows posting to just one account type.

1. True

2. False

28. When a transaction is posted in FI, it automatically appears on

the balance sheet.

1. True

2. False

29. Which of the following accurately describes what is defined by the parameters for the
payment program?
1. Company codes only.

2. Vendors and documents only.

3. Company codes, vendors, and documents.

30. When the proposal stage of the payment program has finished,
you cannot make any changes to what SAP S/4HANA proposes to
pay.

1. True

2. False

31. When a purchase order is created, a financial accounting

document is also created.

1. True

2. False

32. In SAP S/4HANA, adjustments can be posted in special periods

(such as periods 13-16) for year-end closing adjustments.

1. True

2. False

33. The general data section of the Business Partner master record
must be created separately for every company code that does
business with that customer.

1. True

2. False

34. When a short payment for an incoming payment is processed

using the partial payment method, the invoice being partially paid is
cleared and a new open item in the amount of the payment
difference is created.

1. True

2. False
35. Miscellaneous invoices that do not pertain to a sales order can
only be entered in the accounts receivable component using
traditional SAP GUI transactions.

1. True

2. False

36. How can you tell whether a customer has been dunned?

1. You look in the correspondence section of the customer master record.

2. You look at the line items details in the customer account.

3. Both A and B.

4. None of the above.

37. When a delivery is initially created, accounting transactions are

automatically generated.

1. True

2. False

38. When the billing document is created in sales order

management, an accounting document that debits the customer
account and posts the revenue is automatically generated.

1. True

2. False

39. Costing-based CO-PA and account-based CO-PA cannot be used

in parallel in S/4HANA.

1. True

2. False

40. Which of the following is the highest reporting level within CO-PA?

1. Controlling area

2. Operating concern

3. Company code
4. Plant

41. Each asset belongs to a company code.

1. True

2. False

42. A transaction type tells us where the posting is placed on the

asset history report.

1. True

2. False

43. For house banks, the bank key is tied to a bank ID and the
account is tied to an account ID.

1. True

2. False

44. All house bank accounts are represented by G/L accounts in SAP.

1. True

2. False

45. Before the details of a bank can be entered in a business partner

master record, that bank must exist in the bank directory.

1. True

2. False

46. When you enter a transaction in the Cash Payments tab page of
the cash journal, you automatically debit the petty cash journal
account?

1. True

2. False

47. The Financial Closing cockpit allows you to organize your closing
activities on various organizational levels.
1. True

2. False

48. In the financial statement reports, which one of the following drill-down
reports are available by default?
1. G/L account balances

2. Profit center groups

3. Cost center groups

4. Quantity display

5. Profit center comparisons

6. Key performance index analysis

7. Segment key figures

49. What is the format of a company code key?

1. Two-digit alphanumeric

2. Four-digit alphanumeric

3. Six-digit alphanumeric

4. Eight-digit alphanumeric

50. What is the name of the leading ledger that SAP provides with the standard system?

1. 0L

2. 1L

3. 2L

4. 3L

51. The variant principle is used in SAP S/4HANA to assign particular properties to one
or more objects. How many steps does the variant principle have?

1. 1

2. 3
3. 4

4. 5

52. Which of the following is the first step in the variant principle?

1. Define variant

2. Determine values for the variant

3. Assign the variant to the objects

4. Create multiple variants

53. The fiscal year variant contains the number of posting periods
and special periods.

1. True

2. False

54. The fiscal year variant specifies a period as open or closed.

1. True

2. False

55. If the fiscal year differs from the calendar year, but the posting
periods correspond to calendar months, then the day limit for
February should be 29 to take leap years into consideration.

1. True

2. False

56. A chart of accounts must be assigned to every company code for

which accounts are to be set up.

1. True

2. False

57. Which of the following information is entered in the chart of accounts segment of a
G/L account??

1. Account number
2. Control fields

3. Consolidation fields

4. Currency fields

58. To use an account from the assigned chart of accounts in your

company code, you must create a company code segment for the
account.

1. True

2. False

59. In a balance sheet account, the balance is carried forward to a

retained earnings account and the balance sheet account is set to
zero.

1. True

2. False

60. Which field status has the lowest priority (G/L accounts)?

1. Required entry

2. Hide

3. Optional entry

4. Display

61. All postings to the subledger accounts are automatically posted to the
assigned reconciliation accounts.

1. True

2. False

62. When you create a G/L account, SAP S/4HANA uses the company
code local currency as the default account currency.

1. True

2. False
 63. Which of the following options can you use to change the G/L account master data
using collective processing?

1. Change chart of accounts data

2. Change company code data

3. Change client level data

4. Change account descriptions

64. Different accounts of one operational chart of accounts can refer

to the same group account.

1. True

2. False

65. The country chart of accounts number (alternative account

number) is entered in every chart of account segment.

1. True

2. False

66. You can save a segment in the master data of a profit center.

1. True

2. False

67. In many business cases, particularly in logistics, you have to

enter the segment manually.

1. True

2. False

68. The profit center is the best object from which segments can be
uniformly derived.

1. True

2. False

69. Segments have a time reference.

1. True

2. False

70. Segments are assigned to a hierarchy.

1. True

2. False

71. It is possible to assign the same segment to multiple profit

centers.

1. True

2. False

72. On which level the system stores the general data of a customer or vendor that can be
assessed throughout the whole organization?

1. Organization level

2. Client level

3. Company code

4. Account level

73. In Financial Accounting, after the customer or vendor account is

created, you can no longer change the account group.

1. True

2. False

74. A one-time account master record contains information about a

specific customer or vendor.

1. True

2. False

75. Customer and vendor accounts can’t use the same number
ranges.

1. True
2. False

76. The field status entries in individual areas, such as Client,

Business Partner Role, Business Partner Type and activity, compete
with each other and the field status with the highest priority is used.

1. True

2. False

77. A fiscal year variant defines the number of periods in the fiscal
year.

1. True

2. False

78. Document types are created at company code level.

1. True

2. False

79. Which of the following statements is correct for external number assignment (manual
posting)?

1. The number is the last document number.

2. The number is automatically assigned.

3. The number is entered by the user.

4. The number must be assigned in a sequence.

80. In external number assignment, the numbering must be

numeric.

1. True

2. False

81. A number range can only be assigned to a single document type.

1. True

2. False
 82. For general ledger account posting, which one of the following standard posting keys
is for debit?

1. 01

2. 31

3. 40

4. 50

83. You can only use posting keys for assets and materials if the
corresponding SAP components are active.

1. True

2. False

85. It is possible for several company codes to use the same posting
period variant.

1. True

2. False

86. If you do not assign users to any special tolerance group, then
the entries in the default tolerance group are valid for them.

1. True

2. False

87. You can create as many tolerance groups as you need.

1. True

2. False

88. Which of the following tolerance groups should every company code always have?

1. Blank

2. Special

3. Defined

4. Named
89. You can post a normal document entry transaction only if the
account balance is zero.

1. True

2. False

90. Displaying a document in the entry view and the general ledger
view is possible with S/4HANA.

1. True

2. False

91. You can assign different document splitting procedures to

different client company codes.

1. True

2. False

92. Parameter IDs allow users to set default values for fields such as
Company code and Currency.

1. True

2. False

93. SAP S/4HANA provides basic default values for document entry.
For example, the current date is proposed as the posting date. You
are not allowed to change this proposed date.

1. True

2. False

94. Identify the criteria that usually differentiate between document change rules.

1. Open items

2. Account type

3. Asset class

4. Company code

95. Which of the following fields can be changed in the document header?
1. Reference number

2. Document header text

3. Document date

4. Currency exchange rate

96. Based on document change rules, users may only be able to

change certain fields in the documents that they have already
posted.

1. True

2. False

97. When you reverse a document, you must enter a reason for
reversal.

1. True

2. False

98. You can reverse documents that contain cleared items.

1. True

2. False

99. You can reverse a document by using either normal reversal

posting or negative posting.

1. True

2. False

100. The reversal reason determines whether the reversal date may
differ from the original posting date.

1. True

2. False

101. You need to enter a percentage rate in the terms of payment to calculate
______________.

1. Cash discount
2. Credit amount

3. Debit amount

4. Invoice discount

102. The baseline date is the starting date that the application uses
to calculate the invoice due date.

1. True

2. False

103. In which of the following segments of a customer or vendor master record can you
enter the terms of payment?

1. Company code segment

2. Client level segment

3. Sales area segment

4. Purchasing organization segment

104. Day limits enable date-specific terms of payment under a single

terms of payment key.

1. True

2. False

105. SAP S/4HANA only supports the net procedure for customers.

1. True

2. False

106. How many cash discount periods can be entered in the terms of payment?

1. 5

2. 3

3. 2

4. 8
107. The tax code is used for the tax calculation procedure required
to perform taxation functions on the SAP system.

1. True

2. False

108. The taxes calculated by the system are usually posted via a
separate line item to a special tax account.

1. True

2. False

109. SAP S/4HANA links the documents belonging to one cross-

company code transaction with a common cross-company code
transaction number.

1. True

2. False

110. In the configuration of SAP S/4HANA, you must always assign

clearing accounts to every possible combination of company codes.

1. True

2. False

111. An example of an open item is an incomplete business

transaction, such as an invoice that has not been paid.

1. True

2. False

112. A clearing transaction always creates a clearing document.

1. True

2. False

113. The Clear Account transaction can be performed manually or

automatically using the clearing program.

1. True
2. False

114. It is possible to archive documents that have open items.

1. True

2. False

115. Cleared items contain which of the following pieces of information?

1. Clearing document number

2. Due date

3. Clearing date

4. Archival information

116. With the automatic clearing program, a user can clear open items for which of the
following items?

1. General ledger

2. Currency

3. Special general ledger indicator

4. Subledger accounts

117. When you perform a manual payment process, you can overwrite
the cash discount amount.

1. True

2. False

118. The assignment field can be a combination of up to six fields

with a maximum of 10 characters.

1. True

2. False

119. When you reset clearing, SAP S/4HANA removes the clearing
data from the line items.

1. True
2. False

120. Identify the three types of tolerances in accounting.

1. Employee tolerance groups

2. G/L account tolerance groups

3. Customer/vendor tolerance groups

4. Special account tolerance groups

121. If the payment difference is too high to be immaterial, you

must manually process it.

1. True

2. False

122. You must assign a revenue or expense account to all

reconciliation accounts and all general ledger accounts with open
item transactions in foreign currency.

1. True

2. False

123. Bank master records are created at the client level and can be assigned in all
customer and vendor master records (BP).

1. True

2. False

124. If a customer is also a vendor, the payment program can clear

open items between the customer and vendor accounts.

1. True

2. False

125. Alternate payer or payee information that is entered at the

client level of the master data takes priority over data entered at the
company code level.

1. True
2. False

126. Which of the following steps are parts of the process of configuring the payment
program?

1. Configure the paying company codes

2. Configure the payment methods for each company code

3. Configure the house banks

4. Configure the G/L account field status for document entry

127. All of the company codes in the payment run parameters must be
in the same country.

1. True

2. False

128. Which of the following are possible reasons that an invoice would not be paid?

1. The invoice has a debit balance.

2. An invalid house bank is selected.

3. The discount period has expired.

4. The payment amount is less than the minimum amount specified for a
payment.

129. You can review the exception list before executing the payment
proposal.

1. True

2. False

130. Which of the following activities does the system perform during the payment run?

1. The system exports a list of documents to be paid.

2. The system makes postings to the G/L and AP/AR subledgers.

3. The system clears open items.

4. The system supplies the print programs with necessary data.

140. After you complete the dunning run, you can print out the
dunning notices immediately.

1. True

2. False

141. Customers who do not have a dunning procedure in the master

record are dunned using a default dunning procedure.

1. True

2. False

142. It is possible to dun vendors as well as customers.

1. True

2. False

143. Which of the following objects are relevant to the dunning program configuration?

1. Dunning levels

2. Expenses or charges

3. Minimum amounts

4. Bank selection

144. You can define dunning charges for each currency. Dunning
charges depend on the dunning level.

1. True

2. False

145. Using parameters, you can specify which documents and

accounts the system considers in a dunning run for company codes.

1. True

2. False

146. The run date is always the date when you are supposed to start
a dunning run.
1. True

2. False

147. Every outgoing invoice the system duns is overdue, but the
system does not dun all the overdue outgoing invoices.

1. True

2. False

148. What is the maximum dunning level that can be assigned to a dunning procedure?

1. 1

2. 7

3. 9

4. 11

149. You can prevent certain items from exceeding a certain dunning
level by assigning dunning keys to them.

1. True

2. False

150. The payment terms of a credit memo usually do not apply and
the due date is either the due date of the associated invoice or the
baseline date of the document.

1. True

2. False

151. Every dunning procedure must have at least four dunning

levels.

1. True

2. False

152. The system only duns an account if all the overdue items have
exceeded the minimum days in arrears.
1. True

2. False

153. The dunning run updates the dunning data in the dunned items
and accounts.

1. True

2. False

154. The system only sends a dunning notice if the dunning data
changed since the last dunning run, or if Always dun? is selected.

1. True

2. False

155. Which of the following lists support the dunning clerk’s work?

1. The dunning history list

2. The blocked accounts list

3. The dunning list

4. The list of vendor balances in local currency

156. After you create the dunning proposal, the system ignores
changes to the dunning data in the items or master records in the
current dunning run.

1. True

2. False

157. You can edit, delete, and re-create the dunning proposal as often
as you need to.

1. True

2. False

158. Payment notices are a type of correspondence with the

customer.

1. True
2. False

159. Correspondence can — for example — be created online when

you manually process payments or from the line item display.

1. True

2. False

160. A document has several line items, with different reason codes entered. These reason
codes carry different correspondence types. For an automatic payment notice, which
correspondence type does the system choose?

1. The one assigned to the tolerance group

2. The one in the first line item

3. The one in the line item with the largest amount

4. The system prompts for the user to assign one

161. A customer short pays an invoice (notice: Damaged Goods). The incoming payment is
posted with the reason code DDG — Damaged Goods. There is a correspondence type
assigned to this reason code. Which correspondence type does the system choose?

1. The one assigned to the tolerance group

2. The one assigned to the reason code

3. The one assigned in the global settings of the Company Code

4. The one assigned to the document type.

162. Special G/L transactions are transactions in accounts receivable

and accounts payable and are separately displayed in the general
ledger and subledgers.

1. True

2. False

163. Transactions in the subledgers (for example, accounts receivable

and accounts payable) are always also posted on the reconciliation
accounts in the general ledger.

1. True
2. False

164. What sort of special general ledger types exist?

1. Noted items

2. Final payments

3. Automatic offsetting entries (statistical)

4. Free offsetting entries

5. Other types

165. Which of the following statements apply to the special general ledger types of noted
items?

1. No special general ledger indicators of your own can be created of this type.

2. The account for the offsetting entry is selected automatically.

3. No postings are made on an offsetting account.

4. Noted items are assigned to an alternative reconciliation account, but not posted.

5. No zero balance check is made in the system.

166. For which of the following transactions can you use noted
items?

1. Late payment

2. Down payment request

3. Vendor payment

4. Customer payment

167. In the SAP S/4HANA application, the payment program and

dunning program can access noted items for further processing.

1. True

2. False

168. Which of the following is an example of an automatic offsetting entry?

1. Bank posting of a received down payment

2. Posting of a guarantee of payment

3. Down payment request

169. Transaction figures are updated for down payment requests.

1. True

2. False

170. Which is the possible first step in the procedure of making down payments in the
customer area?

1. Down payment request

2. Down payment received

3. Customer invoice

4. Clearing

171. When preparing the balance statements for year-end closing,

you need to enter the disputed or doubtful receivables as flat-rate
value adjustments.

1. True

2. False

172. You can post the special G/L transactions from the application
side using special posting keys and special general ledger indicators.

1. True

2. False

173. Special G/L indicators for customer and vendor down payments
are configured together.

1. True

2. False
174. For which of the following special G/L transactions does the SAP S/4HANA
application not update the transaction figures?

1. Noted items

2. Customer account

3. Vendor account

4. Special general ledger account

175. When procurement transactions are posted, which of the following steps is
exclusively carried out in Materials Management?

1. Creation of purchase order

2. Goods receipt

3. Invoice receipt

176. During the invoice receipt step of the three-step reconciliation,

a material document is created in Materials Management to update
the stock.

1. True

2. False

177. The document flow is an instrument that you can use to view
the documents belonging to a purchase order.

1. True

2. False

178. Where is the billing document created (in an integrated scenario)?

1. Financial Accounting

2. Sales and Distribution

3. Accounting

4. Materials Management

179. A sales order creates a Financial Accounting (FI) entry.

1. True

2. False

180. Which functions allow you to temporarily save the entered data?

1. Parking function

2. Hold function

3. Save function

4. Insert function

181. Documents that the SAP S/4HANA application holds (without

Workflow) do not have to be complete.

1. True

2. False

182. You cannot supplement, check, or post the parked documents

at a later date.

1. True

2. False

183. The parking function can be utilized for dual control.

1. True

2. False

184. You can’t use account assignment templates to park

documents.

1. True

2. False

185. For which of the following can you park documents?

1. Customer accounts

2. General ledger accounts

3. Material accounts

4. Sales accounts

186. You can post parked documents (without workflow) as

standard transactions individually or using a selection list.

1. True

2. False

187. Identify the fields that cannot be changed while changing parked documents.

1. Currency

2. Document type or document number

3. Company code

4. Account assignment objects

188. The document change rules that are saved for documents
posted in the SAP S/4HANA application apply to parked documents.

1. True

2. False

189. It is not possible to reuse the document number of a deleted

parked document.

1. True

2. False

190. What type of architecture does SAP Business Workflow use?

1. Two-tier

2. Three-tier

3. Single-tier

4. Four-tier

191. Workflows are usually initiated by a triggering event.

1. True

2. False

192. A document number is assigned based on the document type

with the Hold Document function.

1. True

2. False

193. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. A company code can be assigned several workflow variants.

2. A task can be assigned only one possible processor.

3. It is possible to design multilevel workflow sequences.

4. The same workflow variant can be assigned to several company codes.

194. It is not possible to apply different release procedures to

different accounts receivable and payable.

1. True

2. False

195. The validation function helps you to check the entered values
and value intervals.

1. True

2. False

196. Callup points are specific places in an application that specify

the exact location where a validation and substitution occurs.

1. True

2. False

197. When you create validations, substitutions, and rules, you must
assign an application area.

1. True
2. False

198. A validation and substitution cannot be valid for several

company codes at the same time.

1. True

2. False

199. Identify the callup points that have been provided for Financial Accounting (FI).

1. Document header

2. Controlling area

3. Document line

4. Organizational unit

5. Complete Document

200. You can use Boolean logic to define different types of logical
statements.

1. True

2. False

201. A message can contain up to six message variables.

1. True

2. False

202. You can compare text patterns in your statements using the
keyword LIKE.

1. True

2. False

203. What is the maximum number of steps possible in validation?

1. 99

2. 199
3. 566

4. 999

204. If the prerequisite statement is satisfied (True), a check is

performed.

1. True

2. False

205. Substitution permits the customer-specific enhancement

(substitution) of certain field contents.

1. True

2. False

206. The prerequisite statement establishes which conditions must

be fulfilled before the substitution can be performed.

1. True

2. False

207. The substitution value is a numerical value or a string of letters

that replaces the value entered.

1. True

2. False

208. A single substitution process can replace only one value.

1. True

2. False

209. A rule permits complex logic to be summarized and can be

reused.

1. True

2. False
210. To improve system performance, you should use basic or
single-dimension sets rather than long lists of Boolean statements or
user exits.

1. True

2. False

211. If a Boolean statement is used frequently, or if it contains

complex logic, you can create a rule for this statement.

1. True

2. False

212. To execute cross-validation with values of different

characteristics, you can use single sets.

1. True

2. False

213. Data is archived in offline mode; in other words, the system has
to be shut down during archiving.

1. True

2. False

214. Database backups are dependent on data archiving.

1. True

2. False

215. An increasing database size means a higher system load for

individual database queries.

1. True

2. False

216. Identify the reasons for archiving data.

1. Improving response times and ensuring good response times.

2. Lowering the effort involved in database administration.

3. Reducing the system downtime when carrying out software upgrades, recoveries, and
(offline) database backups.

4. Using data as a backup.

217. Which of the following components make up an archiving object?

1. Data declaration part

2. Customizing settings

3. Programs

4. Variables

218. Archiving Customizing is used to set parameters that affect how

data are archived.

1. True

2. False

219. Identify some of the checks for archiving G/L accounts (master data).

1. Has a deletion indicator been set?

2. Are there (still) documents?

3. Is the fiscal year closed?

220. If there is no entry or if a runtime value is empty, the system

uses a minimum runtime of 999 days.

1. True

2. False

221. When you archive G/L Account Master Records, it is not

possible to restrict the run. All G/L Account Master Records are
always selected.

1. True

2. False
222. The deletion flag is one of the requirements that the system
checks before archiving the master data.

1. True

2. False

223. Which of the following are the month-end closing activities for external purposes?

1. Perform foreign currency valuations

2. Create external and internal reports

3. Post goods issues for deliveries to customers

4. Close the old period

224. The managerial closing activities include locking the old

accounting period.

1. True

2. False

225. The SAP S/4HANA application provides a standard report

(RFBILA00) for creating financial statements.

1. True

2. False

226. At which organization levels is it possible to create a financial statement in a

standard SAP S/4HANA system?

1. Client level

2. Business area level

3. Company code level

4. Segment level

227. Financial statement versions consist of a maximum of 10

hierarchy levels.

1. True
2. False

228. You can produce different outputs from a standard report

program (RFBILA00) by specifying different financial statement
versions.

1. True

2. False

229. The sample financial statement versions delivered with the

standard system can be modified to create your own versions.

1. True

2. False

230. The depreciation position program FAA_DEPRECIATION_POST

has to be used to record ordinary (book and cost accounting)
depreciation.

1. True

2. False

231. You can change the fiscal year in FI-AA before the last period of
the old fiscal year.

1. True

2. False

232. What checks does the year-end closing program perform?

1. Depreciations are posted in full.

2. Assets are complete and error-free.

3. Depreciation lists and the asset history sheet have been checked.

4. Last fiscal year has been updated.

233. Which of the following are the different history sheet groups that each version of asset
history sheets can contain?

1. Book values at the end of the fiscal year

2. Acquisitions

3. Imputed interest

4. Reposting

234. The periodic inventory method involves counting all stocks

physically on the balance sheet key date.

1. True

2. False

235. The three-step reconciliation involves the purchase order,

goods receipt, and invoice receipt.

1. True

2. False

236. What should you check if the balance of the GR/IR account is not zero at the
purchase order item level on the balance sheet key date?

1. Check to see if the goods were invoiced by the key date, but have not yet been delivered.

2. Check to see if the goods were ordered by the key date, but have not been received.

3. Check to see if the goods were delivered by the key date, but have not yet been invoiced.

4. Check to see if the goods were produced by the key date, but have not
been invoiced.

237. In stock valuation, which of the following groups of stocks are valuated?

1. Raw materials, supplies, and consumables

2. Work in process

3. Goods invoiced

4. Finished goods

238. Delta postings can execute revaluation.

1. True

2. False
239. The settlement of the production order displays the value of the
work in progress (WIP) on the balance sheet and, at the same time,
posts the change in stock in the profit and loss statement.

1. True

2. False

240. During balance confirmation, an output check and an error list

are generated for each client.

1. True

2. False

241. You must specify at least two addresses to which balance

confirmations are to be sent.

1. True

2. False

242. Which of the following procedures are available to check the balance of receivables
and payables in balance confirmations?

1. Balance confirmation

2. Balance notification

3. Balance adjustment

4. Balance request

243. You carry out foreign currency valuation after creating financial
statements.

1. True

2. False

244. In a valuation method, which of the following is not a valuation approach for foreign
currency valuation?

1. Lowest value principle

2. Strict lowest value principle

3. Revalue only

4. High rate of interest principle

245. The valuation method contains the valuation approach to be used

for carrying out a foreign currency valuation.

1. True

2. False

246. With SAP S/4HANA, you do not have to assign an accounting

principle to an FI valuation area to post foreign currency valuations
to different ledgers (General Ledger Accounting).

1. True

2. False

247. How many number intervals are defined for the foreign currency valuation run ID
per client?

1. 0

2. 1

3. 2

4. 3

248. The system posts the realized exchange differences in foreign

currency during open item clearing.

1. True

2. False

249. Doubtful receivables are individual value adjustments during

year-end closing.

1. True

2. False
250. In SAP S/4HANA you assign the value adjustment key for the
automatic flat-rate individual value adjustments on FI document
level.

1. True

2. False

251. Before creating financial statements, you have to group your

receivables and payables according to their remaining life so that
they are correctly displayed in the financial statements.

1. True

2. False

252. Which two reports should you use to create SAPScript-based correspondence to and
from customers and vendors to enable you to verify the balance of receivables and
payables?

1. SAPF130K

2. SAPF130L

3. SAPF130D

4. SAPF130E

253. You cannot change the reconciliation account in the customer

or vendor master record during a fiscal year.

1. True

2. False

254. Which program is used to enter accruals and deferrals regularly?

1. Compact document journal

2. Devising program

3. Accruals Management

4. Ledger grouping
255. When you enter a manual accrual posting or deferral document,
you have to enter a reversal reason, the reversal date, and the
username.

1. True

2. False

256. In deferral documents, expenses and revenues are posted in

the current period but belong at least partially in a future period.

1. True

2. False

257. Accruals Management: The Closing Posting is the last Periodic

Posting which sets the balance to 0 on the accruals account.

1. True

2. False

258. Accrual objects have a time-dependency. If you can change the

content of a field, this change is valid from a certain date entered in
the Valid From field of the accrual object.

1. True

2. False

259. Purchase Orders (items) for Fixed Assets are relevant for
Purchase Order Accruals.

1. True

2. False

260. For purchase order accruals only the accrual account needs to
be determined by the account determination. The offsetting account
is by default taken from the purchase order item.

1. True

2. False
261. Parallel financial reporting means that you must create
financial statements for a company in accordance with different
accounting rules.

1. True

2. False

262. You can only use the leading ledger to model different
accounting rules.

1. True

2. False

263. Identify the steps performed during the general ledger closing operations for the
fiscal year.

1. Foreign currency documents are valuated.

2. Accruals are carried out.

3. The balance carryforward program is run.

4. Vendor invoices are posted.

264. The balance of the profit and loss (P&L) accounts is posted to
the P&L carryforward account.

1. True

2. False

265. The system uses the posting date that you specify during
document entry to determine to which posting period the document
is posted.

1. True

2. False

266. To reduce the load on the system, what should you do with the older documents that
exist in the database?

1. Delete2. Extract and delete

2. Extract and delete

3. Backup and delete

4. Archive and delete

267. After older documents have been archived and deleted from the
database, you can still use the balance audit trail to explain an
account balance.

1. True

2. False

268. The entities defined as splitting characteristics are inherited in

non-account-assigned posting lines.

1. True

2. False

269. The Financial Closing Cockpit (FCC) allows all stakeholders

associated with the financial close to access or initiate their tasks in
the system.

1. True

2. False

270. Which of the following types of tasks are available in the FCC?

1. Online transactions

2. Task list template

3. Flow definition

4. Remote tasks

271. Which of the following has to be created and assigned to an organizational

structure before the Financial Closing Cockpit can be used?

1. Flow definitions

2. Programs
3. Subfolders

4. Task list template

272. Which of the following can you use for multiple programs with variants that are to be
processed automatically?

1. Online transactions

2. Flow definition

3. Remote tasks

4. Task list template

273. Which of the following are the steps involved in intercompany reconciliation (ICR)?

1. Document selection and data storage

2. Automatic assignment of documents

3. Manual reconciliation and communication

4. Automatic presentation of reconciled and non-reconciled data

274. ICR operates at the levels of companies and partner companies

(trading partners).

1. True

2. False

275. ICR supports you in the reconciliation of open items in the

general ledger and in the subledgers.

1. True

2. False

276. Each company code is an independent accounting unit.

1. True

2. False

277. Which of the following original Management Accounting objects can you assign in the
asset master record?
1. Activity type

2. Cost element

3. Order

4. Cost center

278. It is possible to assign an asset to two cost centers.

1. True

2. False

279. You can assign a financial statement version for each

depreciation area so that you can display financial statement items
in asset reports.

1. True

2. False

280. Which of the following control data is carried by asset classes?

1. Number range interval

2. Insurance type

3. Account determination

4. Screen layout

281. An asset class can be linked only to a single chart of

depreciation.

1. True

2. False

282. Asset classes are created at client level.

1. True

2. False

283. An essential function of account determination in the asset

class is to establish a link between the asset master records, their
values, and the G/L accounts to which the related asset values and
depreciation are posted.

1. True

2. False

284. The number range controls the assignment of the asset master
record number.

1. True

2. False

285. Which of the following parameters are controlled by the screen layout?

1. Field selection

2. Maintenance level

3. Reference

4. Number range

286. The maintenance level of the depreciation screen layout rules

guarantees that depreciation is controlled uniformly.

1. True

2. False

287. You can also enter down payments on an asset under

construction (AuC) in accounts payable accounting processes.

1. True

2. False

288. Low value assets cannot be managed collectively, regardless of

the number of assets per master record.

1. True

2. False
289. You can create an asset master record using an asset class or
using any other asset as a reference.

1. True

2. False

290. When you create multiple similar asset master records, which of the following fields
allow you to make separate entries for each individual asset?

1. Description of the asset

2. License plate number

3. Inventory number

4. Cost center

291. The system does not create a change document every time you
change an asset master record.

1. True

2. False

292. Identify some of the fields related to the depreciation area in the asset master record.

1. Depreciation start

2. Asset description

3. Useful life

4. Scrap value

293. To carry out mass changes, you can edit a worklist from the FI-
AA application menu.

1. True

2. False

294. Every transaction in customer and vendor accounts in the

accounts payable (AP) and accounts receivable (AR) subledgers and
in the asset accounts has a direct effect on the corresponding
accounts of the general ledgers.
1. True

2. False

295. The system stores the depreciation start date in the

depreciation areas of the asset master record.

1. True

2. False

296. The posting date and the asset value date need not be in the
same fiscal year.

1. True

2. False

297. With new General Ledger Accounting (G/L) and activated

document splitting, the program SAPF181 is no longer required.

1. True

2. False

298. Which of the following logistic processes are involved in asset acquisition with
materials management (MM)?

1. Purchase requisition

2. Purchase order

3. Goods receipt

4. Inventory receipt

299. You can create an asset master record when posting a

procurement document.

1. True

2. False

300. If the goods receipt is not valuated, the asset is capitalized

during invoice verification.

1. True
2. False

301. The values of the accounts for revenue from asset sales and
clearing asset retirement can be shown in notes to the financial
statement.

1. True

2. False

302. On what basis does the system determine the period for the
asset retirement?

1. Asset value date (asset retirement date)

2. Net book value

303. When you use the new value method in transaction ABT1L, the
system capitalizes the amount of the sales revenue on the target
asset.

1. True

2. False

304. In transaction ABT1L, the system automatically determines the

relationship type between company codes using the company IDs of
the Company Codes.

1. True

2. False

305. Using the transfer variant, it is possible to determine the

transaction types with which the transfer is recorded in the source
and the target asset.

1. True

2. False

306. When you capitalize the asset under construction (AuC), you
can transfer the values to one or more completed assets.

1. True
2. False

307. What are the two phases of AuC that are relevant to Asset Accounting?

1. Under-construction phase

2. Useful life phase

3. Assets transfer phase

4. Accounting phase

308. When you enter the relevant transaction type during execution
of unplanned depreciation, the system recognizes that you want to
perform manual depreciation.

1. True

2. False

309. You can select the depreciation areas for which you want to
enter depreciation while posting unplanned depreciation.

1. True

2. False

310. Depreciation areas are identified in the system by two-

character numeric keys.

1. True

2. False

311. The usage of which of the following depreciation types can be activated per
depreciation area?

1. Ordinary depreciation

2. Special depreciation

3. Unplanned depreciation

4. Scheduled depreciation

312. Which of the following methods does the depreciation key define?
1. Multilevel method

2. Period control method

3. Base method

4. Asset sheet valuation method

313. Which of the following parameters can be changed on a time-dependent basis?

1. Depreciation key

2. Useful life (year or period)

3. Variable depreciation portion

4. Depreciation start date

314. You can use index series for indexing the acquisition value and
thus calculate a replacement value.

1. True

2. False

315. Which of the following are posted in the program FAA_DEPRECIATION_POST?

1. Ordinary depreciation such as book depreciation or imputed depreciation

2. Unplanned depreciation

3. Imputed interest

4. Parallel APC values

316. You can start the fiscal year change program during the last
posting period of the current year.

1. True

2. False

317. The year-end closing program RAJABS00 checks if depreciation

and asset balances are posted in full.

1. True
2. False

318. All reports allow you to sort and total data in different ways using definable sort
criteria.

1. True

2. False

319. Which of the following functions include the important functions of the SAP List
Viewer tool?

1. Setting filters

2. Defining print parameters

3. Deleting and inserting columns

4. Calculating totals and subtotals

320. Which of the following options are included in the Asset Explorer?

1. Drill down to Financial Accounting (FI) document.

2. Post documents.

3. Display depreciation calculation.

4. Drill down to reports.

321. The asset history sheet is an important and comprehensive

year-end or intermediate report.

1. True

2. False

322. Which of the following methods can be used to transfer Asset Accounting (FI-AA)
legacy data?

1. For a large quantity of legacy data, use batch input procedure (program RAALTD01)

2. For a small quantity of legacy data, use AS100.

3. For a very large quantity of legacy data, use the direct input procedure (program
RAALTD11)
4. For a large to very large quantity of legacy data, use the legacy data transfer using a BAPI
interface

5. For a manageable quantity of legacy data, use the manual transaction

code AS91 and ABLDT

323. The transfer date can be either at the end of the last closed
fiscal year or in the fiscal year following the last closed fiscal year.

1. True

2. False

324. The legacy data transfer does not update the balances of the
G/L accounts.

1. True

2. False