MF All MCQ

Principles of Management
Unit 1
1. In management, we have planning-action-____ cycle.
Deciding
Function
Control
Manage
2.Modern Managers are

Action required
Able to build a sense of shared values
Able to manage changes efficiently
All of the above
3.Which of the following is not a principle of management given by Taylor

Functional Foremanship
Science, not rule of the thumb
Maximum, not restricted output
Harmony, not discord
4. How are principles of management formed?

In a laboratory
By experience of managers
By experience of customers
By experience of produce
5. The observation of people at work that would reveal the one best way to do a task is known
as
Scientific management
Creative management
Human Resource management
Classical management
6.The first management principles were developed by

Victor Meldrew
Charles
Henry Fayol
Taylor
7. Studying the future and arranging the means for dealing with its part of the process of
Organizing
Controlling
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Coordinating
Planning
8. The founder of Scientific Management was

Peter F Drucker
Fredrick Taylor
Hendry Fayol
Elton
9. Division of work, authority and responsibility unity of command were proposed as part of
the fourteen principles of management by
Fayol
Meldrew
Taylor
Charles
10. Management should find one best way to perform a task Which technique of Scientific
management is defined in this sentence
Time study
Motion study
Fatigue study
Method study
11. Henry Fayol was a

Social scientist
Accountant
Production engineer
Mining engineer
12. The principles of management are significant because of

Changing technology
Utilization of resources
Increase in efficiency
Initiative
13. Which of the following is not true

Management is universal
Management is Art
Management is a social process
Management is always bureaucratic
14. Which of the following is not the functional areas of management

Production management
Marketing management
Personnel management
Information management
15. A reporting relationship in which an employee receives order form and reports to only one
supervisor is known as
Unity of direction
Unity of command
Centralization
Planning
16. Observe the following management principles and pick the odd one out .Justify your
answer
Maximum output
Equity
Unity of command
Unity of direction
17. Which of the following is not a function of management

Staffing
Planning
Controlling
Cooperation
18. Principles of management are not

Absolute
Flexible
Behavioural
Universal
19. With the wider span there will be hierarchical levels

More
Less
20. Management is what a ----does

Manager
Subordinate
Supervisor
Superior
21. Scientific management is developed by

Fayol

Taylor
Mayo
Jacob
22. Management is an
Art
Science
Art and Science
Art or Science
23. Dividing the work in to small tasks is known as

Discipline
Unity
Division of work
Equity
24. -------is part and parcel of our day to day life

Management
Economics
Commerce
Industry
25. ------- helps to finish to task on time

Planning
Team spirit
Motivation
Remunerations
26. Management is a ----- and Universal concept.

Mathematical
Processing
Global
Economical
27. Which of the following is not a Management Tool?

Business Law
Econometrics
Statistics
Measuring
28. Management is an ongoing process of allocating ----- of an organization.

Input
Output
Employees

Income
29. Quantitative school wants to improve the quality of -------.

Planning
Organizing
Decision Making
Functioning
29.----- approach emphasizes dynamic nature of management process in an ever changing

business environment.
Contingency
Positive
Negative
Systems
30. ------ approach concentrates on the entire organization.

Contingency
Positive
Negative
Systems
31. Which principle of general management advocates that, “Employee turnover should be
minimised to maintain organisational efficiency.”?
(a) Stability of personnel
(b) Remuneration of employees
(c) Equity
(d) Esprit De Corps
32. According to P. Drucker, the manager has to balance and integrate _____ major jobs of a
business enterprise.
2
3
4
5
33. The art of management is fully reflected in the _____ capacity of a manager.
Decision making
Planning
Organizing
Managing
34. Judgment and Imagination are essential even in a ____ economy.

Civilized
Developing
Computerized
Classic
35. In order to increase organizational efficiency, the ____ method should be substituted.
Rule of Thumb
Harmony, not discord
Mental Revolution
Individualism
36. ____ with mutual-trust and understanding should be a tool to focus on the work.
Planning
Deciding
Group action
Discussing
37. To attain the efficiency, steps should be taken right from the process of _____ of
employees.
Selection
Managing
Transferring
Guidance
38. Social order ensures the fluid operation of a company through _____ procedure.
Managerial
Authoritative
Cyclical
Optional
39. Managers should be fair and ___ when dealing with employees.
Partial
Social
Impartial
Jovial
40. Scalar Chain principle suggests that there should be a ____ line of authority from top to
bottom linking all managers at all levels.
Straight
Clear
Partial
Vertical
41.____ order ensures safety and efficiency in the workplace.

Social
Market
Material
Management
42. ____ refers to the need of managers to ensure and develop morale in the workplace.
Motivation
Wants
Team Spirit
Initiative
43.____ should be acceptable and under the rules of the company.

Management
Administration
Order
All of the above
44.____, mutual confidence, sense of goodwill should prevail among both, managers as well as
workers.
Understanding
Responsibility
Productivity
Cooperation
45. Which school sees management as a process of planning, organizing, directing and
controlling?
Functional
Behavioral
Quantitative
Systems
46. Management is essential for the organisations which are
(a) Non-profit organisations
(b) Service organisations
(c) Social organisations
(d) All of the above
47. People in the organisations carry out diverse tasks with the aim to achieve
a) Different objectives
(b) Common objectives
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

48. Efficiency is concerned with
(a) Doing the right thing
(b) Doing things right
(c) Achieving end results
49. Effectiveness relates to
(a) Doing the right task
(b) Completing activities
(c) Achieving goals
50. Management is said to be poor if it is
(a) Efficient but ineffective
(b) Effective but inefficient
(c) Both inefficient and ineffective
51. Which of the following statements is not true for lower level management?
(a) Analyse the business environment and its implications for the survival of the business.
(b) Ensure the quality of the output
(c) They strive to reduce the wastage of resources
(d) They ensure that the safety standards are maintained within the organisation.
52. This level of management serves as a link between top level managers and first line
managers.
(a) Supervisory level management
(b) Operational management
(c) Middle level management
53. It is a force that binds all the functions Of management.
(a) Cooperation
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Planning
(d) Management hierarchy
54. By profession, FW Taylor was a
(a) Mechanical engineer
(b) Mining engineer
(c) Psychologist
(d) Human resource officer
55. Which of the following statements best defines the techniques of management?
(a) It is a set of guidelines to take decisions and actions.
(b) It is a procedure which involves a series of steps to be taken.
(c) They are general rules for behaviour of individuals.
(d) None of the above.

56. ‘Rule of thumb’ refers to
(a) Use of personal judgement in handling management issues
(b) Adopting a hit-and-trial approach to resolve management problems
(c) Both of the above
57. According to Taylor, “even a small production activity like loading figures of iron into boxes
can be scientifically planned and managed. This can result in tremendous savings of human
energy as well as wastage of time and materials.” Identify the related principle of scientific
management.
(a) Harmony, not discord
(b) Science, not rule of thumb
(c) Development of each and every person to get his/her greatest efficiency and prosperity
58. According to this principle of scientific management, “Scientific management has for its
foundation the firm conviction that true interest of the management and workers are one and the
same; the prosperity for the employer cannot exist for a long time unless it is accompanied by
prosperity for the employees and vice versa.”
(a) Science, not rule of thumb
(b) Co-operation, not individualism
(c) Harmony, not discord
59. According to Henri Fayol, if this principle of general management is violated, “authority is
undermined, discipline is in jeopardy, order disturbed and stability threatened.” Identify the
principle.
(a) Authority and responsibility
(b) Discipline
(c) Unity of command
(d) Equity
60. Through this principle of management, Henri Fayol guides the managers to exhibit
exemplary behaviour and advises that they should not fall into temptation of misusing their
powers for personal benefit at the cost of general interest of the organisation. Which principle of
management is being described in the above statement?
(a) Remuneration of employees
(b) Centralisation and decentralisation
(c) Subordination of individual interest to general interest
(d) Equity

Principles of management- Unit-II Planning
Planning
1. Which of the following is a feature of planning:-
(a) Focuses on achieving goals
(b) Pervasive
(c) Mental exercise
2. By comparing ______ with standards manager can know whether the goals are
achieved or not:-
(a) Risk
(b) Ideas
(c) Actual performance
(d) Costs
3. Planning provides direction is a
(a) Importance of planning
(b) Limitation of planning
(c) Characteristics of planning
(d) Method
4. _______ guides for decision making :-
(a) Rule
(b) Policy
(c) Procedure
(d) Method
5. ______ type of plan is not likely to be repeated in future:-
(a) Standing plan
(b) Programme
(c) Single use plan
(d) Method
6. Advertising of a product is a part of _________
(a) Strategy
(b) Rule
(c) Budget
(d) Method
7. The sub ordinates are given complete freedom in taking decisions is a part of
(a) Rule
(b) Stratergy
(c) Policy
(d) Procedure
8. _______ are detailed statements about a project which outlines the objectives,
rules, etc.
(a) Budget
Mrs.H.MICKLE AANCY- PANIMALAR ENGINEERING COLLEGE Page 1

(b) Programme
(c) Single use plan
(d) Policy
9. ______ forecasts the sales of different products in each area for particular
month:-
(a) Sales budget
(b) Sales accounts
(c) Sales cost
10. Name the function of management which involves setting objectives and developing
appropriate courses of action to achieve these objectives.
(a) Directing
(b) Organising
(c) Planning
(d) Staffing
11. Which of the following is not a benefit of planning?
(a) Planning reduces overlapping and wasteful activities.
(b) Planning is a mental exercise.
(c) Planning provides directions.
(d) Planning reduces the risks of uncertainty.
12. Which of the following is a benefit of planning?
(a) Helps in avoiding confusion and misunderstanding.
(b) Ensures clarity in thought and action.
(c) Useless and redundant activities are minimised or eliminated.
(d) All of the above.
13. Which of the following statements is not true with reference to planning?
(a) Planning is a pre-requisite for controlling.
(b) Planning does not lead to rigidity.
(c) Planning enables a manager to look ahead and anticipate changes.
(d) Planning facilitates co-ordination among departments and individuals in the
organisation.
14. What is known as the primary function of management?
(a) Controlling
(b) Organising
(c) Planning
(d) Staffing
15. Which of the following is not a feature of planning?
(a) Planning is futuristic.
(b) Planning is pervasive.
(c) Planning establishes standards for controlling.
(d) Planning focuses on achieving objectives.
16. All other managerial functions are performed within the framework of the plans
drawn. Identify the related feature of planning.
(a) Planning focuses on achieving objectives.
(b) Planning is pervasive.
(c) Planning is futuristic.
(d) Planning is primary function of management.

17. Planning requires logical and systematic thinking rather than guess work or wishful
thinking. Identify the related feature of planning.
(a) Planning is futuristic.
(b) Planning is a mental exercise.
(c) Planning establishes standards for controlling.
(d) Planning focuses on achieving objectives.
18. Planning cannot foresee everything, and thus, there may be obstacles to effective
planning. Identify the related limitation of planning.
(a) Planning leads to rigidity.
(b) Planning may not work in a dynamic environment.
(c) Planning does not guarantee success.
(d) Planning reduces creativity.
19. It is not always true that just because a plan has worked before it will work again.
Identify the related limitation of planning.
(a) Planning leads to rigidity.
(b) Planning reduces creativity.
(c) Planning may not work in a dynamic environment.
(d) Planning does not guarantee success.
20. Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in the planning process.
(a) Evaluating alternative courses, Identifying alternative course of actions, Setting
objectives, Developing premises
(b) Setting objectives, Identifying alternative course of actions, Evaluating alternative
courses, Developing premises
(c) Setting objectives, Developing premises, Identifying alternative course of actions,
Evaluating alternative courses
(d) Setting objectives, Developing premises, Identifying alternative course of actions,
Evaluating alternative courses
21. They represent the end point of planning.
(a) Rules
(b) Methods
(c) Objectives
(d) Policies
22. A strategy is derived from
(a) Policy
(b) Objective
(c) Method
(d) Rule
23. A strategy is a comprehensive plan which will not include this dimension
(a) Determining long term objectives
(b) Adopting a particular course of action
(c) The ends which the management seeks to achieve by its operations
(d) Allocating resources necessary to achieve the objective
24. They provide a basis for interpreting strategy, which is usually stated in general terms.
(a) Policies
(b) Procedures
(c) Objectives
(d) Programmes

25. They detail the exact manner in which any work is to be performed.
(a) Rules
(b) Methods
(c) Procedures
(d) Programmes
26. It helps to save time, money and effort, and increases efficiency.
(a) Procedure
(b) Programme
(c) Rule
(d) Method
27. It is a plan which quantifies future facts and figures.
(a) Procedure
(b) Programme
(c) Rule
(d) Budget
28. Which of the following is not a standing plan?
(a) Policy
(b) Procedure
(c) Programme
(d) Rule
29. Which of the following is not a single use plan?
(a) Budget
(b) Programme
(c) Method
30. Micromax was India’s largest seller of mobile handsets. It launched low-cost Chinese
manufacturing with some smart packaging and features like long-lasting batteries and
dual-sim functionality to garner 20% market share in India’s value-conscious mobile
handset market. Identify the two types of plans being described in the above lines.
(a) Strategy and objective
(b) Rule and Programme
(c) Programme and objective
(d) Method and objective
31. According to a survey, these days the young children have more power in purchasing
decisions than ever before. The parents seek their kids’ opinions about all kinds of
once-adult decisions, including where to go for dinner, what kind of car to buy, even
what to wear,”. Therefore, the retailers are adapting to this by enhancing their kids’
sections. If the children want to shop in the store for their clothes, then there’s a
greater chance the parent will also see something they want to buy as well. Identify
the type of plan being described in the above lines.
(a) Programme
b) Method
(c) Strategy
(d) Rule
32. According to a survey of 250 consumer packaged goods (CPG) companies by a
reputed
firm, 75% of brand owners say they’re going to spend significantly more on

packaging as it is critical to their brand’s success.

Identify the type of plan being described in the above lines.
(a) Rule
(b) Programme
(c) Strategy
(d) Method
33. According to the World Health Organization, 39% of adults are overweight.
Consequently in the U.K., a sugar tax was introduced in 2018 on beverages containing
more than 5% sugar to curb sugar intake. Identify the type of plan being described in
the above lines.
(a) Programme
(b) Method
(c) Strategy
(d) Rule
34. According to the Economic Survey, insights from behavioural economics can be
strategically utilised to create an aspirational agenda for social change – from BBBP
(Beti Bachao Beti Padhao) to BADLAVL (Beti Aapki Dhan Lakshmi Aur Vijay
Lakshmi); from Swachh Bharat to Sundar Bharat; from ‘Give It Up’ for the LPG
subsidy to ‘Think about the Subsidy’ and from tax evasion to tax compliance. Identify
the type of plan being described in the above lines.
(a) Programme
(b) Method
(c) Strategy
(d) Rule
35. Shubham wants to increase the sale of his business by 15% in the next quarter.
(a) Method
(b) Objective
(c) Strategy
(d) Programme
36. Packaging is said to have the unique capacity to make products stand out in a crowded
marketplace. Therefore, convenience of the consumer is at the top of mind of the
marketers as they are focussing on developing packaging that’s easier to open, to
protect against breakage, maintain freshness during delivery and keep a consistent
look and feel across multiple channels. Identify the type of plan being described in the
above lines.
(a) Programme
(b) Method
(c) Strategy
(d) Rule
37. Based on National Common Mobility Card standards, India’s first indigenously
developed inter-operable transport card was launched in March 2019 to make travel
across various modes convenient. Identify the type of plan being described in the
above lines.
(a) Strategy
(b) Programme
(c) Method

(d) Rule
38. India is world’s third largest domestic aviation market. The government plans to make
India a hub for financing aircraft purchases and leasing of planes. In order to promote
this, the government has announced tax incentives, like tax deductions, for companies
setting up business in IFSC for fifteen years. Identify the type of plan being described
in the above lines.
(a) Method
(b) Strategy
(c) Programme
(d) Rule
39. The government has been doubling down on its efforts to switch to 100% electric
vehicles by 2030. Many companies such as Tata Motors, Kinetic Motors, Maruti
Suzuki and Hyundai Motors are all readying their EV models for a 2020 launch in
order to support the plan. Identify the type of plan being described in the above lines.
(a) Method
(b) Strategy
(c) Programme
(d) Objective
40. In order to encourage technologies like artificial intelligence (AI), the internet of
things (iot) and virtual reality (VR), the government is planning to launch a scheme to
invite foreign companies through a transparent bidding process, to set up plants for
manufacturing semi-conductors, solar photo voltaic cells, lithium cell batteries, solar
electric charging vehicles, computer servers, and laptops in India.
(a) Method
(b) Strategy
(c) Programme
(d) Objective
41. Ketan Enterprises adopts different ways to provide training to employees, like Job .
Rotation, Coaching, Vestibule Training, Conference, Lecture Method and Role
Playing. Identify the type of plan being described in the above lines.
(a) Method
(b) Strategy
(c) Programme
(d) Procedure
42. Swatch Ltd. plans to earn a 20% return on its investment in a new project. Identify the
type of plan being described in the above lines.
(a) Method
(b) Strategy
(c) Programme
(d) Objective
43. . Deepak is striving to earn a profit of 30% in the current financial year. Identify the
type of plan being described in the above lines.
(a) Method
(b) Objective
(c) Strategy
(d) Programme

44. Name the type of budget which is prepared to determine the net cash position.
(a) Purchase budget
(b) Sales budget
(c) Cash budget
(d) Production budget
45. In 2019 alone, Swiggy has launched operations in 300 towns and cities. Swiggy
follows a two-step sequence while expanding to a small town. First, it provides more
laborious training to restaurants and delivery partners compared to their counterparts
in the city. Second, it focuses on building scale in operations and increase the
restaurant’s reach to a larger base of consumers, including optimizing kitchens,
resource planning among others. Identify the type of plan being described in the
above lines.
(a) Method
(b) Strategy
(c) Programme
(d) Procedure

UNIT 3
1. An identified group of people contributing their efforts towards the attainment of goals is
called an
a) organization.
b) business.
c) management.
d) department.
Ans : a
2. Name the process which co-ordinates human efforts, assembles resources and
integrates both into a unified whole to be utilised for achieving specified objectives,
(a) Management
(b) Planning
(c) Organising
(d) Directing
Ans: c
3. Organising is a process by which the manager
(a) Establishes order out of chaos
(b) Removes conflict among people over work or responsibility sharing
(c) Creates an environment suitable for teamwork
Ans: d
4. It is defined as the framework within which managerial and operating tasks are
performed.
(a) Span of management
(b) Organisational structure
(c) Informal organisation
Ans: b
5. It refers to the number of subordinates that can be effectively managed by a superior,
(a) Organisational structure
(b) Informal organisation
(c) Span of management
Ans: c
6. As the span of management increases in an organisation, the number of levels of
management in the organisation
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains unaffected
Ans: b
7. Uranus Limited is a company dealing in metal products. The work is mainly divided into
functions including production, purchase, marketing, accounts and personnel. Identify

the type of organisational structure followed by the organisation.
(a) Functional structure
(b) Relational structure
(c) Divisional structure
Ans: a
8. Identify the type of organisational structure which facilitates occupational specialisation,
(a) Functional structure
(b) Horizontal structure
(c) Network structure
(d) Divisional structure
Ans: a
9. Identify the type of organisational structure which makes training of employees easier,
as the focus is only on a limited range of skills.
(a) Network structure
(b) Divisional structure
(c) Functional structure
(d) Matrix structure
Ans: c
10. This type of organisational structure is most suitable when the size of the organisation is
large, has diversified activities and operations require a high degree of specialisation,
(a) Divisional structure
(b) Functional structure
Ans: b
11. Under this type of organisational structure, manpower is grouped on the basis of
different products manufactured.
(a) Divisional structure
(b) Functional structure
Ans: a
12. Which of the following is not a feature of functional structure?
(a) It promotes functional specialisation.
(b) Managerial development is difficult.
(c) It is easy to fix responsiblity for performance.
(d) It is an economical structure to maintain.
Ans: c
13. Which of the following is not a merit of functional structure?
(a) It promotes control and co-ordination within a department.
(b) It makes training of employees easier, as the focus is only on a limited range of skills.
(c) It ensures that different products get due attention.
(d) It leads to occupational specialisation.
Ans : c

14. Which of the following is not a merit of divisional structure?
(a) It promotes product specialisation.
(b) It ensures that different functions get due attention.
(c) It promotes flexibility and faster decision making.
(d) It facilitates expansion and growth as new divisions.
Ans : b
15. Identify the correct sequence of steps to be followed in an organising process.
(a) Departmentalisation, Establishing reporting relationships, Assignment of duties,
Identification and division of work
(b) Identification and division of work, Departmentalisation, Assignment of duties,
Establishing reporting relationships
(c) Identification and division of work, Assignment of duties, Departmentalisation,
Establishing reporting relationships
(d) Identification and division of work, Establishing reporting relationships,
Departmentalisation, Assignment of duties
Ans : b
16. Which of the following is not a feature of formal organisation?
(a) It specifies the relationships among various job positions.
(b) The standards of behaviour of employees are evolved from group norms.
(c) It is deliberately designed by the top management.
(d) It places less emphasis on interpersonal relationships among the employees.
Ans : b
17. Which of the following is not a merit of informal organisation?
(a) It leads to faster spread of information and speedy feedback.
(b) It helps to fulfill the social needs of the members.
(c) It .does not fulfill inadequacies in the formal organisation.
Ans : c
18. Which of the following is not an element of delegation?
(a) Responsibilty
(b) Authority
(c) Accountability
(d) Decentralisation
Ans : d
19. It arises from the established scalar chain which links the various job positions and
levels of an organisation.
(a) Authority
(b) Responsibility
(c) All of the above
Ans : a
20. Rules, duties and responsibilities or workers are given in writing in______________.
a) formal organization.
b) informal organization.

c) business or organisation.
d) strategic organization.
Ans : a
21. Which arises from mans quest for social satisfaction?
a) formal organization.
b) informal organization.
c) business or organisation.
d) strategic organization.
Ans : b
22. It is the obligation of a subordinate to properly perform the assigned duty.
(a) Responsibility
(b) Authority
(c) Accountability
Ans : a
23. The responsibility flows
(a) In all directions
(b) Downwards
(c) Upwards
Ans : c
24. Authority granted to an employee should be
(a) More than the responsibility entrusted to him
(b) Less than the responsibility entrusted to him
(c) Equal to the responsibility entrusted to him
Ans : c
25. It helps the managers to ensure that their subordinate discharges his duties properly.
(a) Responsibility
(b) Authority
(c) Accountability
Ans : c
26. The accountability flows
(a) In all directions
(b) Downwards
(c) Upwards
Ans : c
27. Which of the following can be delegated?
(a) Responsibility
(b) Authority
(c) Accountability
Ans : b

28. Authority arises from
(a) Responsibility
(b)Formal position
(c) Accountability
Ans : a
29. Responsibility is derived from
(a) Authority
(b)Formal position
(c) Accountability
Ans : a
30. Accountability is derived from
(a) Authority
(b) Formal position
(c) Responsibility
Ans : c
31. When decision-making authority is retained organisation is said to be by higher
management levels, an
(a) Decentralised
(b) Centralised
(c) Fragmented
Ans:b
32. Selection is ______ in its application as much as it seeks to eliminate as many
unqualified applications as possible in order to identify the right candidates.
a) Both negative and positive
b) Positive
c) Negative
d) None of the above
Ans : c
33. Rearrange the following steps involved in the selection process.
i. External environment
ii. Internal environment
iii. Preliminary interview
iv. Selection test
v. Employment interview
vi. Reference and background analysis
vii. Selection decision
viii. Physical examination
ix. Job offer
x. Employment contract
xi. Evaluation

a. xi, x, ix, viii, vii, vi, v, iv, iii, ii, i
b. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, vii, viii, ix, x, xi
c. v, i, xi, ii, iv, ix, iii, vi, viii, x, ix, vii
d. i, iii, iv, v, vii, ix, xi, ii, vi, viii, x
ANSWER: c. v, i, xi, ii, iv, ix, iii, vi, viii, x, ix, vii
34. In __________, the interviewer uses pre-set standardised questions which are put
to all applicants.
a. Unstructured interview
b. Structured interview
c. Behavioural interview
d. Mixed interview
ANSWER: b. Structured interview
35. _______ occurs when an interviewer judges an applicant's entire potential for job
performance on the basis of a single trait, such as how the applicant dresses or
talks.
a. Stress producing
b. Halo - effect
c. Unstructured
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b. Halo - effect
36. Which of the selection steps is the most critical?
a. Physical examination
b. Selection decision
c. Reference and background checks
d. Employment interviews
Ans: b. Selection decision
37. ___________ is a systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs,
their co-workers and the organisation.
a. Job evaluation
b. Investiture orientation
c. Orientation
d. Placement
ANSWER: c. Orientation
38. Which of the below options are the topics covered in employee orientation
programme?
a. Training and education benefit

b. To employee counsellor
c. Relationship to other jobs
d. Disciplinary regulations
e. All of the above
ANSWER: e. All of the above
39. ______ refers to the allocation of people to jobs; it includes initial assignment of
new employees, and promotion, transfer, or demotion of present employees.

a. Recruitment
b. Placement
c. Selection
ANSWER: b. Placement
40. How does training and development offer competitive advantage to an
organisation?
a. Removing performance deficiencies

b. Deficiency is caused by a lack of ability
c. Individuals have the aptitude and motivation to learn
Ans:a. Removing performance deficiencies
41. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?
a. Improves morale
b. Helps people identify with organisational goals
c. Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co - ordination
ANSWER: b. Helps people identify with organisational goals
42. ______ is an objective assessment of an individual's performance against well-
defined benchmarks.
a. Performance Appraisal
b. HR Planning
c. Information for goal identification
ANSWER: a. Performance Appraisal
43. Which of these is the main purpose of employee assessment?
a. Making correct decisions

b. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
c. Establish job expectations
ANSWER: b. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
44. How performance appraisal can contribute to a firm's competitive advantage?
a. Ensures legal compliances

b. Minimising job dissatisfaction and turnover
c. Improves performance
d. All of the above
ANSWER: d. All of the above
45. Which method is used for evaluating the performance of executives or
supervisory positions?
a) Psychological Appraisals
b. Assessment Centres

c. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
d. 360 degree feedback
Ans : b
46. What does the 360 degree feedback assess?

a. Communication Skills
b. Behavioural Aspect
c. Team – building skills
d. Soft skills
Ans : d
47. Which of these options are the activities that constitute the core of
performance management?
a. Performance interview
b. Archiving performance data
c. Use of appraisal data
d. All of the above
Ans: d
48. Which is the biggest challenge faced while conducting performance appraisal?
a. Evaluating performance of self – managed teams
b. Presence of a formal appeal process
c. Appraisals based on traits are to be avoided
Ans: a
49. When designing an actual appraisal method, the two basic considerations are
a) who should measure and when to measure
b) when to measure and what to measure
c) what to measure and who should measure
d) what to measure and how to measure
Ans: d
50. Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance values for each
trait?
a) behaviourally anchored rating scale
b) graphic rating scale
c) forced distribution
d) critical incident Ans: b

Principles of management- Unit-IV Directing
Directing
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of directing?
(a) Directing initiate action
(b) It is a continuous process
(c) Flows from top to bottom
(d) Ensuring order & discipline
2. Which of the following is the elements of directing?

(a) Supervision
(b) Motivation
(c) Leadership
3. _______ is the process of guiding the efforts of employees to accomplish the

desired goal.
(a) Supervision
(b) Directing
(c) Controlling
(d) Motivating
4. Which of the following is not a non-financial incentive?

(a) Status
(b) Job enrichment
(c) Bonus
(d) Employee progress
5. Which of the following is not a feature of motivation?

(a) It is an integral feeling
(b) Reduces absenteeism
(c) Complex process
(d) Can be positive or negative
6. ________ is an example of esteem needs:-

(a) Status
(b) Self-fulfillment
(c) Hunger
(d) Pension

7. __________ is the process of influencing the behavior of people making them

strive voluntarily towards achievement of goals
(a) Motivation
(b) Communication
(c) Leadership
(d) Directing
8. Informal communication is also called:-

(a) Wheel communication
(b) Grapevine
(c) Verbal
(d) Visual
9. It is very difficult to detect the source of such communication.

(a) Upward communication
(b) Vertical communication
(c) Lateral communication
(d) Informal communication
10. Which of the following is not a type of semantic barriers?

(a) Badly expressed message
(b) Unclarified assumptions
(c) Technical jargon
(d) Premature evaluation
11. Which of the following is not a type of psychological barriers?

(a) Premature evaluation
(b) Lack of attention
(c) Fear of challenge to authority
(d) Distrust
12. Which of the following is not a type of personal barrier?

(a) Fear of challenge to authority .
(b) Unwillingness to communicate
(c) Loss by transmission and poor retention
(d) Lack of proper incentive
13. It refers to the process of instructing, guiding, counselling, motivating and

leading j people in the organisation to achieve their objectives.
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Staffing
(d) Directing
14. Which of the following is not an element of directing?

(a) Supervision
(b) Communication
(c) Leadership

(d) Inspection
15. While other functions prepare a setting for action, name the function that
initiates action in the organisation.
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Staffing
(d) Directing
16. Identify the level at which the directing function takes place in an organisation?
(a) Top level management
(b) Middle level management
(c) Lower level management
17. It is defined as the process of guiding the efforts of employees and other
resources to accomplish the desired objectives.
(a) Supervision
(b) Communication
(c) Leadership
(d) Inspection
18. It means the process of making subordinates to act in a desired manner to

achieve certain organisational goals.
(a) Supervision
(b) Communication
(c) Leadership
(d) Motivation
19. Which of the following is not an assumption of Maslow’s theory?

(a) People’s behaviour is not based on their needs.
(b) Satisfaction of such needs influences their behaviour.
(c) A satisfied need can no longer motivate a person; only next higher level need can
motivate him.
(d) A person moves to the next higher level of the hierarchy only when the lower need
is satisfied.
20. Effective motivation in the organisation does not contribute towards

(a) Developing performance levels of employees
(b) Helping to reduce employee turnover
(c) Resistance to changes in the organisation
21. These needs are most basic in the hierarchy of motivation theory and correspond
to primary needs.
(a) Self Actualisation Needs
(b) Basic Physiological Needs
(c) Security Needs

(d) Belonging Needs
22. Mohit recently got a raise in his salary due to annual increment. Which of his
human needs is being satisfied through this?
(a) Security Needs
(b) Belonging Needs
(c) Self Actualisation Needs
(d) Basic Physiological Needs
23. Identify the style of leadership in which the superior uses file forces from within
the groups in order to establish control.
(a) Autocratic leadership
(b) Democratic leadership
(c) Laissez-faire leadership
(d) Authoritarian leadership
24. It refers to all measures which are used to motivate people to improve
performance,
(a) Leadership
(b) Motivation
(c) Incentives
(d) Communication
25. Which of the following is not an example of financial incentive?

(a) Perquisites
(b) Job Enrichment
(c) Profit Sharing
(d) Co-partnership
26. Which of the following is not an example of non-financial incentive?

(a) Career Advancement Opportunity
(b) Perquisites
(c) Status
(d) Organisational Climate
27. Ashutosh works as a manager in Kuber Ltd. Besides the salary, the company offers
him benefits such as free housing, medical aid and education to the children, etc.
Identify the type of incentive being offered to him.
(a) Perquisites
(b) Job Enrichment
(c) Co-partnership
(d) Pay and allowances
28. On joining Kartar Ltd. as Chief Financial Officer, Madhumita was allotted 500
shares of the company. Identify the type of incentive being described.
(a) Perquisites
(b) Retirement Benefits
(c) Co-partnership

29. Boom Limited gives due weightage to the perquisites and prestige of job so that the
designation helps to satisfy the psychological, social and esteem needs of an
individual. Identify the type of incentive being described in the above lines.
(a) Employee empowerment
(b) Job security
(c) Status
(d) Perquisites
30. On the occasion of the Founders Day of the firm, Veena was felicitated with the
certificate of best performer as a Business Development Manager. Identify the
type of incentive being described in the above lines.
(a) Career advancement opportunities
(b) Employee recognition program
(c) Organisational climate
(d) Job security
31. Which of the following is not a feature of leadership?

(a) It shows ability of an individual to influence others.
(b) It leads to achievement of organisational goals.
(c) Leadership is one-time process.
(d) It leads to desired change in the organisation.
32. It is the process of influencing the behaviour of people by making them strive
voluntarily towards achievement of organisational goals.
(a) Supervision
(b) Communication
(c) Leadership
(d) Motivation
33. As the general manager of an e-commerce company, Gagan maintains good

interpersonal relations with followers and also motivates them to contribute for y ‘
achieving organisational goals. Identify the concept being described in the above
lines.
(a) Supervision
(b) Communication
(c) Determination
(d) Leadership
34. It refers to the process of exchange of ideas, views, facts, feelings etc., between or
among people to create common understanding.
(a) Supervision
(b) Communication
(c) Motivation
(d) Leadership

35. Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in the communication process.
(a) Sender, Message, Encoding, Media, Decoding, Receiver, Feedback
(b) Sender, Decoding, Receiver, Feedback, Message, Encoding, Media
(c) Sender, Message, Encoding, Media, Decoding, Receiver, Feedback
(d) Sender, Media, Decoding, Receiver, Message, Encoding, Feedback
36. Formal communication may take place between

(a) Superior and subordinate
(b) Subordinate and superior
(c) Two managers at the same level
37. On the successful completion of two years in a company, Harsh received a letter
confirming his job as permanent employee. Identify the need of Harsh being fulfilled
as per Maslow’s Need Heirarchy Theory.
(a) Esteem Needs
(b) Security Needs
38. Upward communications refer to flow of communication from

(a) Subordinate to superior
(b) One departmental manager to another
(c) Superior to subordinate
39. Downward communications refer to flow of communication from

(a) One departmental manager to another
(b) Superior to subordinate
(c) Subordinate to superior
40. Lateral communication takes place from

(a) First to second division of the same organisattion
(b) Superior to subordinate
(c) Subordinate to superior
41. Which of the following ways help in improving the communication effectiveness?
(a) Ensuring proper feedback
(b) Being a good listener
(c) Ensuring follow up patience
42. Which of the following is not a type of communication barriers?

(a) Semantic barriers

(b) Psychological barriers

(c) Rational barriers
(d) Organisational barriers
43. Yamini received a special gold coin from her school management for exceptionally
good board result of her students in her subject. Identify the need of Yamini being
fulfilled as per Maslow’s Need Heirarchy Theory.
(a) Esteem Needs
(b) Belonging Needs
44. As the incharge of a small scale factory manufacturing glassware, Raghu guides his
subordinates and clarifies their doubts in performing a task, so that they are able to
achieve the work targets given to them. Identify the function of management being
described in the above lines.
(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Directing
(d) Organising
45. Yajur, as a Project Manager, is able to assess the true potential of his subordinates and
constantly motivates them to realise their full potential. Identify the element of
directing being described in the above lines.
(a) Leadership
(b) Communication
(c) Supervision
(d) Motivation
46. Suman works as a Project Co-ordinator in an export house. Whenever the workload is
high, she is able to convince her team by explaining to them the purpose, providing
training and motivating them with additional rewards so as to be able to win their
wholehearted co-operation. Identify the element of directing being described in the
above lines.
(a) Supervision
(b) Motivation
(c) Leadership
(d) Communication
47. Radhika runs a confectionary in a local market. In order to make the workers in the
.Confectionary work optimally, she on one hand provides them overtime wages and
on the other hand imposes penalty, if required, by deducting the wages. Identify the
feature of motivation being described in the above lines.
(a) Motivation is an internal feeling.
(b) Motivation produces goal-directed behaviour.
(c) Motivation is a complex process.
(d) Motivation can be either positive or negative.

48. As an employee of an automobile company, Suraj has always been very lazy and
evasive. In order to change his behaviour, his boss decided to give him an incentive.
Identify the feature of motivation being described in the above lines.
49. Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in the motivation process.
(a) Tension, drives, search behaviour, unsatisfied need, satisfied behaviour, reduction
of tension
(b) Unsatisfied need, tension, drives, search behaviour, satisfied behaviour, reduction
of tension
(c) Drives, search behaviour, unsatisfied need, tension, satisfied behaviour, reduction
of tension
(d) Search behaviour, reduction of tension, unsatisfied need, tension, drives, satisfied
behaviour
50. Dheeraj Madan works as a Human Resource Manager in Busybee Limited. He gives
due care in designing jobs, so that it offers a meaningful work experience by
assuming a diversity of work content requiring higher level of knowledge. Identify the
type of incentive being adopted by the company.
(a) Employee recognition programme
(b) Organisational climate
(c) Career advancement opportunities
(d) Job enrichment
51. Esha was facing the problem of high labour turnover in her firm. On the advice of her
friend, she introduced special benefits for the employees, which helped her to retain
talented people in the organisation. Identify the related point of importance of
motivation.
(a) Motivation helps to improve performance levels of employees.
(b) Motivation helps to reduce employee turnover.
(c) Motivation helps to reduce absenteeism in the organisation.
(d) Motivation helps to mould the attitudes of employees.
52. Om Limited adopts a systematic performance appraisal system which provides

opportunity to employees to improve their skills and be promoted to the higher level
jobs. Identify the type of incentive being adopted by the company.
(a) Employee recognition programme
(b) Organisational climate
(c) Career advancement opportunities
(d) Job security
53. Jay and Lai work in a garment factory. Jay always earns a higher wage than Lai, as he
produces more units of output. Identify the type of financial incentive being adopted
by the company.

(a) Perquisites
(b) Productivity linked wage incentives
(c) Co-partnership
54. Ishan works as an Accounts Officer in Fabrications Limited. He also feels very proud
of the fact that he is the incharge of recreation committee in his office. Identify the
type of incentive being offered to Ishan.
(a) Career advancement opportunities
(b) Employee recognition program
(c) Organisational climate
(d) Employee participation
55. In order to motivate the workers in the factory to work overtime, Manoj decided to
provide additional wages to the workers. On knowing this, a worker in his factory,
Madhur, was very happy, whereas Raju was disappointed as he preferred to go back
home on time rather than working for overtime wages. Identify the feature of
motivation being described in the above lines.
(d) Motivation can be either positive or negative.
Q.No Answers
1 D
2 D
3 A
4 C
5 B
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 D

10 D
11 C
12 C
13 D
14 D
15 D
16 D
17 A
18 C
19 A
20 C
21 B
22 D
23 B
24 C
25 B
26 B
27 A
28 C
29 C
30 B
31 C
32 C
33 D

34 B
35 C
36 D
37 B
38 A
39 B
40 A
41 D
42 C
43 A
44 C
45 A
46 C
47 D
48 B
49 B
50 C
51 B
52 C
53 B
54 D
55 C

Principles of management- Unit-V Controlling
Controlling





16. Controlling function finds out how far __________ deviates from standards.
(a) Actual performance
(b) Improvement
(c) Corrective actions
(d) Cost
17. Which of the following is not a limitation of controlling?
(a) Little control on external factors
(b) Costly affair
(c) Ensuring order & discipline
(d) Difficulty in setting quantitative standards
18. “Planning is theoretical whereas controlling is practical”
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot say
19. Which of the following is not a process of controlling?
(a) Analyzing deviations
(b) Integrates employees efforts
(c) Taking corrective measures
(d) Setting performance standards
20. Which of the following is a traditional technique of managerial control?
(a) Personal observation
(b) Breakeven analysis
(c) Budgetary control
21. Write the full form of PERT :-
(a) Performance evaluation report technique
(b) Personnel enquiry retrieving technique
(c) Programme evaluation and review technique
22. Remedial actions taken to prevent deviation in future is called
(a) Measurement of actual performance
(b) Taking corrective actions
(c) Analyzing deviations
(d) Setting performance standards
23. Assembling of facilities and personnel for collecting, processing, information
that is required by managers is called
(a) PERT
(b) CPM
(c) Ratio analysis
(d) Management information Technique
24. Which of the following is not an importance of controlling function?
(a) It ensures order and discipline.
(b) It restricts co-ordination in action.
(c) It helps in judging accuracy of standards.
(d) It improves employee motivation.

25. Which of the following statements does not highlight the relationship between
planning and controlling?
(a) Planning and controlling are separable twins of management.
(b) Planning without controlling is meaningless, controlling without planning is
blind.
(c) Planning is prescriptive, controlling is evaluative.
(d) Planning and controlling are interrelated and interdependent.
26. Om Prakash has set up a small business unit for the manufacturing of detergent. In
order to market the detergent in the local residential areas, he has appointed a
team of ten salesmen. Each salesman is expected to sell at least 200 units of the
detergent within a week’s time. Identify the point of importance of controlling
being highlighted in the above case.
(a) Controlling helps in judging accuracy of standards.
(b) It ensures efficient use of resources.
(c) It helps in improving employee motivation.
(d) It facilitates co-ordination in action.
27. It is the process of ensuring that events confirm to plans.
(a) Planning
(b) Controlling
(c) Organising
(d) Directing
28. The controlling function is performed by
(a) Top level management
(b) Lower level management
(c) Middle level management
29. Controlling function brings the management cycle back to the
(a) Organising function
(b) Directing function
(c) Planning function
30. Deviations are said to be positive in nature when
(a) Planned performance is more than the actual performance
(b) Actual performance is more than the planned performance
(c) Both planned and actual performances are same
31. Which of the following statements is true with respect to controlling function?
(a) It is a forward looking function.
(b) Is a backward looking function.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
32. Identify the correct sequence of the steps involved in the controlling process.
(a) Measurement of actual performance, Taking corrective action, Setting
performance standards, Comparison of actual performance with standards,
Analysing deviations
(b) Comparison of actual performance with standards, Setting performance
standards. Measurement of actual performance, Analysing deviations, Taking

corrective action
(c) Setting performance standards, Measurement of actual performance,
Comparison of actual performance with standards, Analysing deviations, Taking
corrective action
(d) Taking corrective action, Measurement of actual performance, Comparison of
actual performance with standards, Analysing deviations, Setting performance
standards
33. Which of the following is a technique used for measuring actual performance?
(a) Random sampling
(b) Personal observation
(c) Performance reports
34. The comparison of actual performance with the planned performance becomes
easier if the standards are set in
(a) Qualitative terms
(b) Quantitative terms
(c) Either of the above
35. This concept of Control Management is based on the belief that if you try to
control everything, you may end up controlling nothing.
(a) Critical point control
(b) Key result areas
(c) Management by exception
(d) Deviations
36. When the deviations between the actual performance and the planned performance
are within the limits
(a) A limited corrective action is required
(b) No corrective action is required
(c) A major corrective action is required
37. In an artificial plants manufacturing unit, the standard output set for a worker is 50
units per day. Dinesh produces 48 units in one day. In the given case, the value of
deviation is
(a) -2
(b) + 2
(c) 98
38. The need for the controlling function is felt in
(a) Business organisations
(b) Political organisations
(c) Social organisations
39. Controlling is known as a backward-looking function because
(a) It relates to future course of action.
(b) It is like a post-mortem of the past activities
(c) To find out deviation, it aims at improving future performance.

40. Reducing the workers, absenteeism in a factory by 20% is an example of

(a) Quantitative standard
(b) Qualitative standard
(c) Deviation
41. Yash runs a logistic company. The Tour Incharges of each trip in the company are
expected to submit a report to the Event Manager on the completion of every trip.
Identify the step in the controlling process being described in the above lines.
(a) Setting of standards
(b) Measurement of actual performance
(c) Taking corrective action
(d) Analysing the deviations
42. In a marketing firm, the Financial Manager pays more attention towards an
increase of 3% in the marketing cost as compared to a 15% increase in the courier
expenses. Identify the concept being used by the manager.
(a) Management by exception
(b) Critical point control
(c) Corrective action

DNYANSAGAR INSTITUTE OF MANAGEMENT AND RESEARCH
MBA I SEM I
MCQ: 107 – Management Fundamental
Sr. Question Answe

No. r
1 The steps in ……………must include, among other things, the establishment A
of objectives, the course of actions to take and the follow-up of those
actions if the business wants success.
(A) Planning
(B) Organizing
(C) Staffing
(D) Producing
2 ………….is a network of cooperation made possible by, ICT, i.e. Information D
and Communication Technology, which is flexible and comes to meet the
dynamics of the market.
(A) Learning Organization
(B) Organization
(C) Boundary less Organization
(D) Virtual Organization
3 Departments in decentralization are often broken down by broad categories B
which is not among them
(A) Functional
(B) Cost
(C) Product
(D) Geographical
4 .......................is what the organizational chart typically illustrates. B
(A) Span of control
(B) Interest area
(C) The chain of command
(D) Department
5 Tasks are subdivided into individual jobs and Employees perform only the A
tasks relevant in to their specialized function comes under ...............
(A) Work Specialization
(B) Work planning
(C) Work functions
(D) Departmental
6 The duty to perform the task or activity an employee has been assigned and C
Managers are assigned authority Commensurate with .......................
(A) Functions
(B) Rules
(C) Responsibility
(D) Department
Prof. Nilambari Moholkar www.dimr.edu.in

7 Process managers use to transfer authority and responsibility on organizations C

encourage managers to delegate authority to lowest possible level know
as.........
(A) Structure
(B) Resealing
(C) Delegation
(D) Responsibility
8 An organizational structure Results in a complex network of superior- D
subordinate reporting relationships and the structure is very flexible and
can respond rapidly to the need for change is very well known
as.................
(A) Global geographic structure
(B) Departments structure
(C) Divisional structure
(D) Matrix structure
9 The structure of a large organization that has many divisions and D
simultaneously uses many different organizational structures
(A) Departments structure
(B) Divisional structure
(C) Matrix structure
(D) Hybrid Structure
10 Top managers should always construct a hierarchy with the fewest levels of C
authority necessary to efficiently and effectively use organizational
resources comes under............................................
(A) Accountability
(B) Responsibility
(C) Minimum Chain of Command
(D) Structure
11 Interpersonal Category does not include. B
(A) Liaison
(B) Toys
(C) Figurehead
(D) Leader
12 Informational Category does not include. D
(A) Disseminator
(B) Spokesperson
(C) Monitor
(D) System
13 Decisional Category does not include. B
(A) Disturbance Handler
(B) Process
(C) Resource Allocator
(D) Entrepreneur

14 …………….have universal application in every kind of enterprise and at every B

level of the enterprise.
(A) Management fund
(B) Management fundamentals
(C) Mutual Fund
(D) Maturity Date
15 Practical lessons from scientific management say which of the belonging. C
(A) Carefully design jobs with inefficient work methods
(B) Carefully select workers with the no abilities to do these jobs
(C) Train workers to perform jobs to the best of their abilities
(D) Train supervisors does not support workers so they can perform jobs to
the best of their abilities
16 Administrative principles does not includes ………….. D
(A) Foresight
(B) Organization
(C) Command
(D) Force
17 Which of the below is correct option for Characteristics of bureaucratic C
organizations
(A) Physiological
(B) Safety
(C) Formal rules and procedures
(D) Social
18 Which of the below is Foundations in the behavioral or human resource A
approaches to management
(A) Theory X and Theory Y
(B) Classical
(C) Scientific
(D) Administrative
19 Which of the below is Classical or human resource approaches to management C
(A) Maslow’s Need Theory
(B) Theory X And Theory Y
(C) Administrative
(D) Hawthorne Studies
20 Which of the below is Quantitative Approaches to management. D
(A) Theory X and Theory Y
(B) Classical
(C) Scientific
(D) Operation Management
21………………..to Management provides a framework of management practices A
based on more recent trends, such as globalization, theory Z concepts,
McKinsey’s 7-S approach, excellence models, productivity and quality issues.
(A) Contemporary Approaches
(B) Classical Approach
(C) Behavioral Approach
(D) Quantitative Approach

22Hg Which of the following is a Theory X assumes that workers are:- C

(A) Willing to work
(B) Capable of self control
(C) Lack ambition
(D) Willing to accept responsibility
23 Which of the following is a Theory Y assumes that workers are:- D

(A) Are irresponsible
(B) Resist change
(C) Prefer to be led
(D) Willing to accept Responsibility
24 The ………….school emerged to treat the problems associated with global C

warfare.
(A) Management Information System
(B) Operation Management
(C) Management Science
(D) Perfect Competition
25 ……………is a narrow branch of the quantitative approach to management. It B

focuses on managing the process of transforming materials, labor, and capital
into useful goods and/or services.
(A) Management Information System
(B) Operation Management
(C) Management Science
(D) Perfect Competition
26 ……………has contributed directly to management decision making in the A
areas of planning and control.
(A) Quantitative Approach
(B) Science Management
(C) Management Information System
(D) Bureaucratic
27 A ……….which says that organizations are different, face different situations C
and require different ways of managing.
(A) Quantitative Approach
(B) Science Management
(C) Management Approach
(D) Management Information System
28 There a relationship between employee job performance and …………….. B

(A) Employees satisfaction
(B) Customer satisfaction
(C) Labour Job
(D) Skilled Employees

29 ……………Means doing things differently, exploring new territory, and taking A

risks, innovative effort can be found in all types of organizations.
(A) Innovation
(B) Growth
(C) Development
(D) Design
30 “Acting in their managerial capacity, president, college deans, bishops, B
and………………., all do the same things.”
(A) Head of secret agencies
(B) Head of government agencies
(C) Help of government agencies
(D) Head of great agencies
31 ………………….is a process of agreeing upon objectives within an B
organization so that management and employees agree to the objectives and
understand what they are in the organization.
(A) Material by Objectives
(B) Management by Objectives
(C) Management by Order
(D) Mix by Objectives
32 Which of the following is not a benefit of planning? B
(A) Planning reduces overlapping and wasteful activities.
(B) Planning is a mental exercise.
(C) Planning provides directions.
(D) Planning reduces the risks of uncertainty.
33 Which of the following statements is not true with reference to planning? B
(A) Planning is a pre-requisite for controlling.
(B) Planning does not lead to rigidity.
(C) Planning enables a manager to look ahead and anticipate changes.
(D) Planning facilitates co-ordination among departments and individuals in the
organisation.
34 What is known as the primary function of management? C
(A) Controlling
(B) Organising
(C) Planning
(D) Staffing
35 All other managerial functions are performed within the framework of the D
plans drawn. Identify the related feature of planning.
(A) Planning focuses on achieving objectives.
(B) Planning is pervasive.
(C) Planning is futuristic.
(D) Planning is primary function of management.

36 Customer Departmentalization includes which of the below work . A

(A) Customers’ needs and problems can be met by specialists
(B) Allows specialization in particular products and services
(C) Managers can become experts in their industry
(D) Closer to customers
37 Product Departmentalization includes which of the below:- C
(A) Simple of functions
(B) Unlimited view of organizational goals
(C) Managers can become experts in their industry
(D) Customers’ needs and problems can be met by specialists
38 ………………A desired future state that the organization attempts to realize B

(A) Mission
(B) Goal
(C) Vision
(D) Structure
39 Broadly states the basic business scope and operations that distinguishes it A
from similar types of organizations………………..
(A) Mission
(B) Goal
(C) Vision
(D) Structure
40 “Accomplishing tasks through small groups of people who are collectively B

responsible and whose job requires coordination “relates to which of the
below skill.
(A) Strategic Action Competency
(B) Team work competency
(C) Multicultural(Global) Competency
(D) Self-Management Competency
41 “Understanding, appreciating and responding to diverse political, cultural, C

ethnic, and economic issues across and within nations”. relates to which of
the below skill.
(C) Multicultural(Global) Competency
42 “Deciding what tasks need to be done, determining how they can be done, C
allocating resources to enable them to be done, and then monitoring progress
to ensure that they are done.” relates to which of the below skill.
(C) Planning & administrative Competency

43 “Understanding the overall mission and values of the organization and A

ensuring that employees’ actions match with them – includes Understanding
industry, understanding Co ,taking strategic actions.” relates to which of the
below skill.
44 “Developing yourself and taking responsibility, Integrity and ethical conduct, D
Personal drive and resilience”. are the skills belongs to…………..
45 Ability to effectively transfer and exchange information that leads to B
understanding between yourself and others
(B) Communication competency
46 “Directly responsible for production of goods or services and Spend little time B
with top managers in large organizations.” are the responsibility of which
manager?
(A) Top manager
(B) First Line manager
(C) Middle line manager
(D) Lower line manager
47 “Develop goals and strategies for entire organization and Spend most of their A
time planning and leading , Communicate with key stakeholders—
stockholders” are the responsibility of which manager ?
(A) Top manager
48 Three Approaches to Defining What Managers Do does not include. C
(A) Functions they perform.
(B) Roles they play.
(C) Unlawful
(D) Skills they need.

49 Responsible for setting objectives that are consistent with top management’s C
goals and translating them into specific goals and plans for first-line
managers to implement, Responsible for coordinating activities of first-line
managers.
(A) Top manager
50 ………..refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are B
standardized and the extent to which employee behaviour is guided by rules
and procedures.
(A) Chain of Command
(B) Formalization
(C) Centralization
(D) Decentralization
51 ……………… describes the degree to which decision making is concentrated C

at a single point in the organization.
(B) Formalization
(C) Centralization
52 The more that lower-level employees provide input or actually make decisions, D
the more ………………there is.
(B) Formalization
(C) Centralization
53 ………are more expensive because of the number of managers involved. A
communication problems because of the number of people through whom
information must pass.
(A) Tall organization
(B) Flat organization
(C) Structure organization
(D) Organic structure
54 Lead to higher levels of employee morale and productivity. Create more B
administrative responsibility for the relatively few managers.
(A) Tall organization
(B) Flat organization
55 An organizational arrangement based on multiple businesses in related areas A
operating within a larger organizational framework; following a strategy of
related diversification. Activities are decentralized down to the divisional
level; others are centralized at the corporate level.
(A) Multidivisional Design

(B) Geographic Structure

56 Enhances organizational flexibility. Team members have the opportunity to B

learn new skills.
(A) Multidivisional Design
(B) Matrix Structure
57 Right to take decisions that arises due to position in organizational structure. B
Authority is the right to perform or command. It allows its holder to act in
certain designated ways and to directly influence the actions of others
through orders.
(A) Responsibility
(B) Authority
(C) Rules
(D) Delegation
58 Assigning work to subordinates and giving them necessary authority to do the D
assigned work effectively.
(A) Responsibility
(B) Authority
(C) Rules
(D) Delegation
59 Do not give Sound Advice Steal Credit for Success Fail to Keep line B
personnel informed of their activities.
(A) Assume line Authority
(B) Delegation Of Authority
(C) Ask line Authority
(D) Assume line Attention
60 ……………Organizations Another approach to contemporary organizational A
design is the It is an organization whose design is not determined by a
predefined structure. Instead the organization seeks to eliminate
(A) Boundary less Organizations
(B) Virtual Organizations
(C) Tele-working
(D) Global Organizations
61 Assisting in recruiting efforts. Enhancing worker morale. Managing employee B
attendance and reducing absenteeism ……………
(B) flexi –work Organizations
(C) Tele-working

62 The recent proliferation of "……….." has been fueled more by economic C

necessity than strategic planning.
(B) flexi –work Organizations
(C) Tele-working
63 Which of the following terms is associated with nonprogrammer decisions? A
(A) Unique
(B) Recurring
(C) Routine
(D) Repetitive
64 Lower-level managers typically confront what type of decision making? C
(A) Unique
(B) Nonroutine
(C) Programmed
(D) Nonprogrammed
65 When problems are ______________, managers must rely on C
______________ in order to develop unique solutions.
(A) Well structured; nonprogrammed decision making
(B) Well structured; pure intuition
(C) Poorly structured; nonprogrammed decision making
(D) Poorly structured; programmed decision making
66 Nonprogrammed decisions are best described as ________________. D
(A) Recurring, but difficult to make
(B) Very similar to problems in other areas of the organization
(C) Requiring more aggressive action on the decision maker’s thought
processes
(D) Unique and nonrecurring
67 Poorly structured problems _____________. D
(A) Are easily solved
(B) Present new or unusual circumstances
(C) Force managers to deal with incomplete or ambiguous information
(D) b and c
68 A business school’s statement that it “strives for productive relationships with B
local organizations” is an example of a ________________.
(A) Rule
(B) Policy
(C) Procedure
(D) Commitment
69 Which of the following factors contrasts the difference between a policy and a A
rule?
(A) A policy establishes parameters
(B) A rule establishes parameters
(C) A policy is more explicit
(D) A rule is more ambiguous
70 A policy ____________. A

(A) Typically Contains An Ambiguous Term

(B) Is Used Frequently When A Manager Faces A Well-Structured Problem
(C) Allows Little Discretion On The Part Of The Manager
(D) Offers Strict Rules As To How A Problem Should Be Solved
71 A ______________ is an explicit statement that tells a manager what he or she C
can or cannot do.
(A) Procedure
(B) Policy
(C) Rule
(D) Solution
72 Programmed decision making tends to rely on which of the following? C
(A) The Problem Solver’s Ability To Think On His Or Her Feet
(B) The Development Of A Clear Set Of Alternative Solutions
(C) Previous Solutions
(D) Identification Of The Actual Problem
73 ______________ decision making is relatively simple and tends to rely heavily D
on previous solutions.
(A) Nonprogrammed
(B) Linear
(C) Satisfying
(D) Programmed
74 The most efficient way to handle structured problems is through D
______________ decision making.
(A) Linear
(B) Unique
(C) Focused
(D) Programmed
75 According to the textbook, all of the following are aspects of intuition except D
__________________.
(A) Experienced-Based Decisions
(B) Affect-Initiated Decisions
(C) Cognitive-Based Decisions
(D) Programmed Decisions
76 In studying intuitive decision making, researcher have found that B
__________________.
(A) Managers Do Not Make Decisions Based On Feelings Or Emotions
(B) Managers Use Data From Their Subconscious Mind To Help Make
Their Decisions
(C) Rational Thinking Always Works Better Than Intuitive
(D) Accumulated Experience Does Not Support Intuitive Decisions
77 Managerial decisions are strongly influenced by ________________. D
(A) The Organization’s Culture
(B) Internal Politics
(C) Power Considerations
(D) All Of The Above

78 When a decision maker chooses an alternative under perfect rationality, she C

chooses a ______________ decision, whereas under bounded rationality she
chooses a ______________ decision.
(A) Minimizing; Satisfying
(B) Satisfying; Maximizing
(C) Maximizing; Satisfying
(D) Maximizing; Minimizing
79 Which of the following is important to remember in evaluating the B
effectiveness of the decision-making process?
(A) Ignore Criticism Concerning The Decision-Making Process
(B) You May Have To Start The Whole Decision Process Over
(C) Restart The Decision-Making Process If The Decision Is Less Than 50
Percent Effective.
(D) Ninety Percent Of Problems With Decision Making Occur In The
Implementation Step.
80 Which of the following is the final step in the decision-making process? B
(A) Identifying The Problem
(B) Evaluating The Decision’s Effectiveness
(C) Identifying Decision Criteria
(D) Selecting An Alternative That Can Resolve The Problem
81 Which of the following is important in effectively implementing the chosen C
alternative in the decision-making process?
(A) Getting Upper-Management Support
(B) Double-Checking Your Analysis For Potential Errors
(C) Allowing Those Impacted By The Outcome To Participate In The
Process
(D) Ignoring Criticism Concerning Your Chosen Alternative
82 ______________ includes conveying a decision to those affected and getting C
their commitment to it.
(A) Selecting An Alternative
(B) Evaluation Of Decision Effectiveness
(C) Implementation Of The Alternatives
(D) Analyzing Alternatives
83 To determine the _____________, a manager must determine what is relevant D
or important to resolving the problem.
(A) Geocentric Behavior Needed
(B) Number Of Allowable Alternatives
(C) Weighting Of Decision Criteria
(D) Decision Criteria
84 The feedback control system: A
(A) Cannot make corrections until a measurable error exists
(B) Makes a change in output which is the differentiated error
(C) Is always superior to a feedforward system in operation
(D) Is theoretically capable of perfect control
85 The most dramatic application of feedforward techniques has occurred in their D
application to:

(A) Heat exchangers

(B) Level processes
(C) Flow processes
(D) Distillation columns
86 A properly designed feedforward control system: B
(A) Should be applied to every process
(B) Should be employed when its use can be justified economically and
technologically
(C) Is always easier to adjust than a feedback system
(D) Will always result in more economical process operation
87 _____________function of management not only helps in keeping a track on C
progress of activities but also ensures that activities confirm to standards fill
in the above blank with the most suitable functions of management.
(A) Planning
(B) Organizing
(C) Controlling
(D) Directing
88 Which of the following is not the feature of controlling? D
(A) A goal of oriented process
(B) Not the last function of management
(C) A pervasive function
(D) Improves employees motivation
89 controlling functions finds out how for actual performance deviates from B
standards, analyses the causes of such deviation and attempts to take
corrective measure which helps in better planning in future which features of
controlling the highlighting in above case.
(A) A goal oriented process
(B) Not the last function of management
(C) A pervasive function
(D) Improves employees motivation.
90 Mr.Arnold is of the view that a good control system helps to minimize B
dishonest behavior on the part of the employees by keeping a close check on
their activities.
Which importance of controlling function is expressed by Mr.Arnold?
(A) Accomplishment of organizational goal
(B) Ensures order and discipline
(C) Judging accuracy of standards
(D) Facilitating coordination in action
91 An efficient control system keeps a careful check on the changes taking place C
in the organization and in the environment.
Which importance of controlling function is expressed by Mr.arnold?
(A) Accomplishment of organizational goal
(B) Ensures order and discipline
(C) Judging accuracy of standards
(D) Facilitating coordination in action

92 Determining a percentage to be applied to a chosen benchmark for materiality B

involves the exercise of ______________.
(A) Professional skepticism
(B) Professional judgment
(C) Independence
(D) Provision
93 Factors that may affect the identification of an appropriate benchmark in C
determining Materiality for the financial statements as a whole include the
following:
(A) The elements of the financial statements

(B) The entity’s ownership structure and the way it is financed
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above
94 Audit risk is a function of: B
(A) Audit risk and detection risk
(B) Risks of material misstatement and detection risk
(C) Control risk and detection risk
(D) Inherent risk and detection risk
95 In relation to the chosen benchmark in determining materiality for the financial C
statements as a whole, relevant financial data ordinarily includes:
(A) Prior periods’ financial results and financial position
(B) The period-to-date financial results and financial position
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above
96 The audit documentation shall include the basis for the auditor’s conclusions A
about the_____________ of accounting estimates and their disclosure that
give rise to significant risks.
(A) Reasonableness
(B) Correctness
(C) personality
(D) Disinvestment
97 Due to which of the following reasons excessive band width in control systems C
should be avoided?
(A) It leads to slow speed of response
(B) It leads to low relative stability
(C) Noise is proportional to bandwidth
(D) Presence of feedback
98 In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used? D
(A) Error detector
(B) Final control element
(C) Sensor
(D) Oscillator

99 The use of feedback element in the feedback loop is: A

(A) It converts the output variable ‘c’ to another suitable feedback variable
‘b’ to compare with the input command signal.
(B) It is the actuating element
(C) To increase the stability
(D) None of the mentioned
100 Practically all the elements are: B
(A) Linear
(B) Non-linear
(C) Exponential
(D) None of the mentioned
101 The need of assuming non-linear element as linear: D
(A) Simplicity of analysis and accuracy of results
(B) Ease of calculations
(C) Less time consuming
(D) Mathematical tool available
102 A situation in which a decision maker knows all of the possible outcomes of a B
decision and also knows the probability associated with each outcome is
referred to as.
(A) Certainty.
(B) Risk.
(C) Uncertainty.
(D) Strategy.
103 Which of the following methods of selecting a strategy is consistent with risk A
averting behavior?
(A) If two strategies have the same expected profit, select the one with the
smaller standard deviation.
(B) If two strategies have the same standard deviation, select the one with
the smaller expected profit.
(C) Select the strategy with the larger coefficient of variation.
(D) All of the above are correct.
104 Which one of the following does measure risk? C
(A) Coefficient of variation
(B) Standard deviation
(C) Expected value
(D) All of the above are measures of risk.
105 If a person's utility doubles when their income doubles, then that person is risk. B
(A) Averse.
(B) Neutral.
(C) Seeking.
(D) There is not enough information given in the question to determine an
answer.

106 Strategy A has an expected value of 10 and a standard deviation of 3. Strategy D

B has an expected value of 10 and a standard deviation of 5. Strategy C has
an expected value of 15 and a standard deviation of 10. Which one of the
following statements is true?
(A) A risk averse decision maker will always prefer A to B, but may prefer
C to A.
(B) A risk neutral decision maker will always prefer C to A or B.
(C) A risk seeking decision maker will always prefer C to A or B.
107 The coefficient of variation measures. A
(A) The risk per unit of expected payoff.
(B) The risk-adjusted expected value.
(C) The payoff per unit of risk.
(D) A decision maker's risk-return tradeoff.
108 A situation in which a decision maker must choose between strategies that D
have more than one possible outcome when the probability of each outcome
is unknown is referred to as
(A) Diversification.
(B) Certainty.
(C) Risk.
(D) Uncertainty.
109 If a decision maker is risk averse, then the best strategy to select is the one that C
yields the.
(A) Highest expected payoff.
(B) Lowest coefficient of variation.
(C) Highest expected utility.
(D) Lowest standard deviation.
110 Circumstances that influence the profitability of a decision are referred to as C
(A) Strategies.
(B) A payoff matrix.
(C) States of nature.
(D) The marginal utility of money.
111 The marginal utility of money diminishes for a decision maker who is C
(A) A risk seeker.
(B) Risk neutral.
(C) A risk averter.
(D) In a situation of uncertainty.
112 A strategy that yields an expected monetary payoff of zero is called a B
(A) Risk-neutral strategy.
(B) Fair game.
(C) Zero-sum game.
(D) Certainty equivalent.

113 A risk-return tradeoff function D

(A) Shows the minimum expected return required to compensate an
investor for accepting various levels of risk.
(B) Slopes upward for a risk averse decision maker.
(C) Is horizontal for a risk neutral decision maker.
114 If the market interest rate is 10% and a decision maker's risk adjusted discount A
rate is 12%, then the decision maker
(A) Is risk averse.
(B) Has a certainty-equivalent coefficient that is greater than one.
(C) Is risk neutral.
(D) None of the above is correct.
115 Circumstances that influence the profitability of a decision are referred to as C
(A) Strategies.
(B) A payoff matrix.
(C) States of nature.
(D) The marginal utility of money.
116 The marginal utility of money diminishes for a decision maker who is C
(A) A risk seeker.
(B) Risk neutral.
(C) A risk averter.
(D) In a situation of uncertainty.
117 Fred is willing to pay $1 for a lottery ticket that has an expected value of zero. D
This proves that Fred.
(A) Is risk averse.
(B) Has a certainty-equivalent coefficient that is equal to one.
(C) Is risk neutral.
118 The analysis of a complex decision situation by constructing a mathematical C
model of the situation and then performing a large number of iterations in
order to determine the probability distribution of outcomes is called
(A) Sensitivity analysis.
(B) Expected utility analysis.
(C) Simulation.
(D) A decision tree.
119 A payoff matrix presents all the information required to determine the optimal B
strategy using the
(A) Expected value criterion.
(B) The maximin criterion.
(C) The utility maximization criterion.
(D) Simulation criterion.
120 A futures contract B
(A) Is a type of bond that specifies the amount of interest that must be paid
on a loan at a future point in time.
(B) Is an agreement to buy or sell a commodity at a specified price at a
specified point in time.

(C) Is a partnership agreement between two parties that determines their

future business relationship.
121 Hedging refers to an investment strategy that is used to A

(A) Control risk from variations in currency prices.
(B) Prevent losses due to corporate bankruptcies.
(C) Ensure the highest possible rate of return.
(D) Prevent foreign competition in domestic capital markets.
122 Asymmetric information refers to circumstances in which C
(A) Both parties to a transaction have identical amounts of information.
(B) Neither party to a transaction has any relevant information.
(C) One party to a transaction has more information than the other party.
(D) The riskiness of a transaction is greater than its expected return.
123 The tendency for low-quality cars to drive high quality cars out of the used car B
market is an example of
(A) Hedging.
(B) Adverse selection.
(C) Portfolio analysis.
(D) Moral hazard.
124 A person with health insurance is more likely to become ill and visit a doctor D
than is someone without health insurance. One reason is that a person with
health insurance is less likely to take precautions that will prevent illness.
This is an example of
(A) Propinquity.
(B) A futures contract.
(C) Hedging.
(D) Moral hazard.
125 The principal-agent problem may result if B
(A) A firm is owned and operated by the same person.
(B) Managers make decisions that are not in the best interest of owners.
(C) A firm compensates managers based on the profitability of the firm.
(D) All of these answers are correct.
126 One way to correct a potential principal-agent problem is for stockholders to A

(A) Offer managers "golden parachutes" in the event of a takeover.
(B) Empower managers to make the decisions they feel are best.
(C) Ensure that there is no explicit linkage between managers'
compensation and the profitability of the firm.
(D) All of these answers are correct.

127 Element of control does not include……… A

(A) Prohibition
(B) Knowledge
(C) Director
(D) Constraint
128 Control process does include…………… C

(A) Establishment of standards of performance
(B) Measurement of actual performance
(C) Taking incorrect action
(D) Comparison of actual performance with the original standards
129 ………………is an organizational structure that groups similar or related B

occupational specialties together.
(A) Divisional Structure
(B) Functional structure
(C) Simple Structure
(D) Traditional; Structure
130 ……………, an organization whose design is not determined by a predefined B
structure. Instead the organization seeks to eliminate the chain of command
(A) Virtual organization
(B) Boundary less organization
(C) Flexi work organization
(D) Learning organization
131 A ……………is the term given to an organization which facilitates the D

learning of its employees so that the organization can continuously
transforms itself .It develops as a result of the pressures which are being
faced by the organizations these days for enabling them to remain
competitive in the present day business environment
132 Which of the below is not a tpe of control C
(A) Pre-controls or forward-looking control
(B) Feed forward or steering control
(C) Freedom
(D) Yes-no controls
133 Which of the below is not a essential of control system? C
(A) Suitability
(B) Prompt reporting
(C) Offensive -looking
(D) Focus on strategic points

134 …………….. culture is nothing but a form of organisation culture where the C
team members connect with each other, regardless of when, where, and how they
work.
135 Factors Affecting Structural Choice. D
(A) Strategy
(B) Size
(C) Technology
(D) Cost
136 Which of the below is not a environmental factor C
(A) Environment is a constraint on managerial discretion
(B) Environment also has a major effect on an organization’s structure
(C) Unstable environment: mechanistic structure
(D) Dynamic/uncertain environment: organic structure
137 Adding a significant number of new employees to a smaller organization that has B
a more …………..structure will force it to become more ……………….
(A) Vertical and horizontal
(B) Organic and mechanistic
(C) Mechanistic and Organic
(D) Horizontal and vertical
138 ………..involves tasks that must be performed to attain organizational goals, B
outlining how the tasks must be performed, and indicating when they should be
performed.
(A) Organizing
(B) Planning
(C) Structuring
(D) Performing
139 Which of the below is not a rational decision Maker B
(A) A rational decision maker would be fully objective and logical.
(B) Solution faced would be clear, unambiguous ( clear )
(C) Decision maker would have a clear and specific goal to be achieved
(D) Know all possible alternatives and consequences

140 A high degree of …………….on an assembly line can lead to boredom and C
alienation, this is unlikely to be true of specialization on a building project, such
as the construction of Biosphere II in Oracle, Arizona.
(A) Job Design
(B) Job analysis
(C) Job specialization
(D) Job Specification
141 A person has this style if they have a low tolerance for ambiguity and are A
efficient, rational, and logical in their way of thinking.
(A) Directive style
(B) Analytic style
(C) Conceptual style
(D) Behavioral style
142 They are careful decision makers that like to be well informed and thoroughly B
assess their options. They usually have the ability to adapt or cope with unique
and challenging situations.
(A) Directive style
(B) Analytic style
143 They are long-term oriented and are usually capable of formulating creative C
solutions to problems. Individuals who tend to be very broad in outlook, to look
at many alternatives, and to focus on the long run and often look for creative
solutions.
(A) Directive style
(B) Analytic style
144 Work well with others, are open to suggestions, and are concerned about the D
achievements of their team. They generally try to avoid conflict and place
importance on their acceptance by others.
(A) Directive style
(B) Analytic style
145 The …………..attempts to reconcile these two earlier approaches and the work A
of the formal and the informal writers.
(A) Systems approach
(B) Environmental approach
(C) Ethical approach
(D) Quantitative approach

146 ……………to decision-making produces the best results when the problem is D
clearly defined, several alternatives exist, and decision outcomes are easily
measurable.
147 …………… issues become manageable when the societal decision making B
process is compared with the decision making of family.
148 …………… standard of business people apart from the demanding situation and C
competitive pressures.
149 ……………is a method of thinking that is outside of the box. According to It, it B
is a process available for humans to use when complexity is introduced into a
scenario or stimuli.
(A) Linear Thing
(B) Nonlinear thinking
(C) Style profile
(D) Non verbal thinking
150 ……………. is thinking inside the box, it is straight forward, cut and dry. It is a A
“follow the recipe” method of thinking that takes information at face value and
thinks directly on a task without ever trying to read into the information to find
hidden.
(A) Linear Thing
(B) Nonlinear thinking
(C) Style profile
Non verbal thinking
151 Decision-Making Errors and Biases includes which of the below…. A
(A) Hindsight
(B) Defensive -serving
(C) Total Costs
(D) Simple
152 Decision-Making Errors and Biases includes which of the below . D
(A) Posting Effect
(B) Selective Perception
(C) Not Confirmation
(D) Framing

153 …………..comparing the additional revenue and the additional cost arising from A
increasing output.
(A) Marginal analysis
(B) Breakeven point
(C) Cost Analysis
(D) Performance analysis
154 Recognizing and overcoming factors that stand critically in the way of a goal, the C
best alternative course of action can be selected stands for…………
(A) Principle of the Option factor
(B) Principle of the Resource factor
(C) Principle of the limiting factor
(D) Principle of the Political factor
155 The use of mostly short-term programs that facilitate the learning process to help B
managers do their jobs better could be best explain by ………..
(A) Soft skill training
(B) Managerial training
(C) Technical training
(D) Personal training
156 The relationship in which a superior exercises direct supervision over a B
subordinate could be explain by the term
(A) Square authority
(B) Line authority
(C) Staff authority
(D) Circle authority
157 The clearer the line of authority, the clearer will be the responsibility for decision A
making and the more effective will be organizational communication can be well
explain by the term
(A) Scalar principle
(B) Actual principle
(C) Regard principle
(D) Performance principle

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Principles of Management

2.Modern Managers are

3.Which of the following is not a principle of management given by Taylor

4. How are principles of management formed?

6.The first management principles were developed by

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8. The founder of Scientific Management was

11. Henry Fayol was a

12. The principles of management are significant because of

13. Which of the following is not true

14. Which of the following is not the functional areas of management

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17. Which of the following is not a function of management

18. Principles of management are not

19. With the wider span there will be hierarchical levels

20. Management is what a ----does

21. Scientific management is developed by

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23. Dividing the work in to small tasks is known as

24. -------is part and parcel of our day to day life

25. ------- helps to finish to task on time

26. Management is a ----- and Universal concept.

27. Which of the following is not a Management Tool?

28. Management is an ongoing process of allocating ----- of an organization.

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29. Quantitative school wants to improve the quality of -------.

29.----- approach emphasizes dynamic nature of management process in an ever changing

30. ------ approach concentrates on the entire organization.

34. Judgment and Imagination are essential even in a ____ economy.

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41.____ order ensures safety and efficiency in the workplace.

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43.____ should be acceptable and under the rules of the company.

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Mrs.H.MICKLE AANCY- PANIMALAR ENGINEERING COLLEGE Page 1

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packaging as it is critical to their brand’s success.

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Mrs.H.MICKLE AANCY- PANIMALAR ENGINEERING COLLEGE Page 7

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a. Training and education benefit

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a. Removing performance deficiencies

a. Making correct decisions

a. Ensures legal compliances

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46. What does the 360 degree feedback assess?