MCQs: Constitution of India

Q.1 Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President?

(a) Governor

(b) Election Commissioner

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) Prime Minister

Answer: Governor

Q.2 Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments of the
President ?

(a) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency.

(b) They are shown separately in the budget.

(c) They are charged on the Contigency Fund of India.

(d) They do not require any parliament sanction.

Answer: They are charged on the Contigency Fund of India.

Q.3 The total number of members nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha is:

(a) 16

(b) 18

(c) 14

(d) 12

Answer: 12

Q.4 Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the
President of India ?

(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha

(b) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state.

(c) Elected members of the Legislative Council

(d) Elected members of Rajya Sabha

Answer: Elected members of the Legislative Council

Q6. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India ?

(a) Chief of the Army

(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(c) Chief Justice of India

(d) Chief of the Air Force

Answer: Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Q.7 Who appoints the Prime Minister of India ?

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) President

(c) Parliament

(d) Citizens of India

Answer: President

Q.8 The first woman Governor of a state in free India was

(a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi

(b) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit

(c) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu

(d) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani

Answer: Mrs. Sarojini Naidu

Q.9 Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is

(a) 23 years

(b) 21 years

(c) 35 years

(d) 30 years

Answer: 35 years
Q.10 The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be
preferred by

(a) Both Houses of Parliament

(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(c) Rajya Sabha

(d) Lok Sabha

Answer: Both Houses of Parliament

Q.11 Who was the first Prime Minister of India ?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Mrs. Indira Gandhi

(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.12 In case a President dies while in office, the vice President can act as President for a

maximum period of:

(a) 1 years

(b) 3 months

(c) 6 months

(d) 2 years

Answer; 6 months

Q.13 Who administers the oath of office to the President of India before he enters upon
the office ?

(a) Chief Justice

(b) Speaker

(c) Vice President

(d) Prime Minister

Answer: Chief Justice

Q.14 A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the
President for a maximum period of

(a) 9 months

(b) 3 months

(c) 12 months

(d) 6 months

Answer: 6 months

Q. 15 If in a country there happens to be the office of monarchy as well as a

Parliamentary form of government this monarch will be called

(a) Head of the State

(b) Head of the Cabinet

(c) Head of the government

(d) Both Head of the government and State

Answer: Head of the State

Q.16 Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a

Governor ?

(a) He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.

(b) He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.

(c) He should be a citizen of India.

(d) He must have completed the age of 35 years

Answer: He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed

Q.17 The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to

(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies.

(b) The recommendations made by the Vice President.

(c) Their role played in political set up of the country.

(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service.

Answer: Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service

Q.18 How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post ?
(a) Once

(b) 3 times

(c) 2 times

(d) Any number of times

Answer; Any number of times

Q.19 Under whose advice the President of India declares Emergency under Article 352 ?

(a) Chief Ministers of all states

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Cabinet

(d) Council of Ministers

Answer: Cabinet

Q.20 Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice President
is

available ?

(a) Seniormost Governor of a State

(b) Chief Justice of India

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) Auditor General of India

Answer: Chief Justice of India

Q.21 The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to

(a) Rajya Sabha

(b) President

(c) House of the People

(d) Prime Minister

Answer: House of the People

Q.22 If the President wants to resign from office, he may do so by writing to the

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Vice- President

Answer: Vice- President

Q.23 The five year term of the President is calculated from the

(a) First day of the month following the month he assumes charge

(b) Date of his election result

(c) Day he assumes charge

(d) First day of the month he assumes charge

Answer: Day he assumes charge

Q.24 Who is the ex- officio Chairman of the Council of States ?

(a) Vice- President

(b) Leader of the opposition

(c) President

(d) Speaker

Answer: Vice- President

Q.25 Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated on any
state in India?

(a) 326

(b) 370

(c) 380

(d) 356

Answer: 356

Q.26 When Parliament is not in session, the President can promulgate an ordinance
which is to be ratified by the Parliament within

(a) 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament

(b) 6 months from the reassembly of the Parliament

(c) 6 weeks from the date of issue of ordinance.

(d) 3 months from the date of issue of the ordinance.

Answer: 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament

Q.27 The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising of

(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

(b) Elected member of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assembly

(c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament.

(d) Elected member of State Legislative Assemblies

Answer; Elected member of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assembly

Q.28 The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India is

(a) 30 years

(b) 35 years

(c) 40 years

(d) 25 years

Answer: 25 years

Q29. The President may for violation of the Constitution be removed from the office by

(a) The Prime Minister

(b) The Electoral College consisting of members of Parliament and the State Legislatures.

(c) Impeachment

(d) A no- confidence vote

Answer: Impeachment

Q30. The President can make laws through ordinances

(a) Only on subjects contained in the concurrent list

(b) Under no circumstances

(c) On certain subjects even when Parliament is in session.

(d) During the recess of the Parliament

Answer: During the recess of the Parliament

Q31.Which of the following qualification is not essential for a person to become the Vice
President ?

(a) He must be an Indian.

(b) He must be qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha.

(c) He must not be less than 35 years.

(d) He must be a graduate.

Answer: He must be a graduate.

Q.32 How many types of Emergency have been visualised in the Constitution of India ?

(a) Four

(b) Three

(c) One

(d) Two

Answer: Three

Q.33 The impeachment proceedings against the Vice- President can be initiated

(a) Only in Lok Sabha

(b) In neither Hosue of Parliament

(c) In either House of Parliament

(d) Only in Rajya Sabha

Answer: Only in Rajya Sabha

Q.34 The President of India can be removed from his office by the

(a) Parliament

(b) Chief Justice of India

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Lok Sabha

Answer: Parliament

Q.35 If a Minister loses a no- confidence motion, then

(a) Lok Sabha is dissolved

(b) Only Prime Minister and that Minister resigns.

(c) The whole Council of Ministers resigns

(d) The Minister resigns

Answer: The whole Council of Ministers resigns

Q.36 In India, political parties are given recognition by

(a) Election Commision

(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(c) President

(d) Law Commision

Answer: Election Commission

Q.37 The election Commision dose not conduct the elections to the

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) President's election

(c) Rajya Sabha

(d) Local Bodies

Q.38 Election to the house of the people and the Legislative Assemblies of States in India
are

conducted on the basis of

(a) Single Transferable vote

(b) Propotional Representation

(c) Limited sufferage

(d) Adult Franchise

Answer: Adult Franchise

Q.39 The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India
in

(a) 22 July, 1947

(b) 15 August, 1947

(c) 22 July, 1948

(d) 26 Jan 1950

Answer: 22 July, 1947

Q.40 The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up

(a) Through a resolution of the provisional government

(b) By the Indian National Congress

(c) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947

(d) Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

Answer: D

Q.41 Who among the folowing was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian

Constitution

(a) Rajendra Prasad

(b) C. Rajagopalachari

(c) Tej Bahadur Sapru

(d) B.R. Ambedkar

Answer: B.R. Ambedkar

Q.42 The Constituent Assembly which framed the Consitution for Independent India was
set

up in

(a) 1947

(b) 1949

(c) 1945

(d) 1946

Answer: 1946

Q.43 The Constituent of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up

(a) By the Indian National Congress

(b) Through a resolution of the provisional government

(c) Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

(d) Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947

Answer: Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

Q.44 Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly
established in

July 1946?

(a) K.M. Munshi

(b) J.B. Kripalani

(c) Mahatma Gandhi

(d) Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: Mahatma Gandhi

Q.45 Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India ?

(a) Sachchidananda Sinha

(b) P. Upendra

(c) B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer: Sachchidananda Sinha

Q.46 The idea of the Constitution of India was first of all given by

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) Shri M.N. Roy

(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: Shri M.N. Roy

Q.47 The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because

(a) It was an auspicious day.

(b) This day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929.
(c) It was the wish of the farmers of the Constitution.

(d) The British did not want to leave India earlier than this date.

Answer: This day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929.

Q.48 The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held in

(a) Bombay

(b) Lahore

(c) Calcutta

(d) New Delhi

Answer: New Delhi

Q.49 The members of the Constituent Assembly were

(a) Elected by Provincial Assemblies

(b) Only representatives of the princely states.

(c) Elected directly by people.

(d) Nominated by the government.

Answer: Elected by Provincial Assemblies

Q.50 The Indian Constitution was enforced on

(a) 15th Aug, 1947

(b) 26th Nov, 1949

(c) 26th Jan, 1950

(d) 30th Jan, 1950

Answer: 26th Jan, 1950

Q.51 The Constitution of India was adopted by the

(a) Parliament of India

(b) Constituent Assembly

(c) Governor General

(d) British Parliament

Answer: Constituent Assembly

Q.52 How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?

(a) About 6 months in 1949

(b) About 2 years since Aug 15, 1947

(c) Exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948

(d) About 3 years since Dec 9, 1946

Answer: About 3 years since Dec 9, 1946

Q.53 Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly ?

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(b) C. Rajagopalachari

(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Answer: Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q.54 Cripps Mission visited India in

(a) 1927

(b) 1946

(c) 1939

(d) 1942

Answer: 1942

Q.55 Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as The Heart
and

soul of the Constitution?

(a) Right to Equality

(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies

(c) Right to Freedom of Religion

(d) Right to Property

Answer; Right to Constitutional Remedies

Q.56 Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution ?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) B.N. Rao

(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.57 Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha ?

(a) P. Upendra

(b) Hukam Singh

(c) Anantha Sayanam Ayyanagar

(d) Malvankar

Answer: D

Q.58 The state of Bombay was bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat on May 1, in
the

year

(a) 1959

(b) 1962

(c) 1960

(d) 1958

Answer: 1960

Q.59 In 1938, who among the following definitely formulated his demand for a
Constituent

Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise ?

(a) C.R. Das

(b) Subhash Chandra Bose

(c) Mahatma Gandhi

(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.60 For the philosophy underlying our Constitution, the historic Objectives Resolution
was

moved in the Constituent Assembly on 22nd January, 1947 by

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer; Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.61 Which of the following writs is issued by the court in case of illegal detention of a

person ?

(a) Quo Warranto

(b) Habeas Corpus

(c) Mandamus

(d) Certiorari

Answer: Habeas Corpus

Q.62 Which of the following cases cannot be filed directly in the Supreme Court ?

(a) Cases against encroachment on Fundamental Rights

(b) Both (a) and (b) above.

(c) If one's property is forcefully occupied by the other

(d) Disputes between two or more States

Answer: Disputes between two or more States

Q.63 Judges of the High Court are appointed by the

(a) Chief Justice of the High Court

(b) President

(c) Governor

(d) Chief Justice of India

Answer: President
Q.64 Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by

(a) VII Schedule to the Constitution

(b) Judicial decision

(c) Directive Principles

(d) Preamble

Answer: Directive Principles

Q.65 A Judge of the Supreme Court of India is to hold office until he attains the age of

(a) 58 years

(b) 62 years

(c) 60 years

(d) 65 years

Answer: 65 years

Q.66 The President of India referred the Ayodhya issue to the Supreme Court of India
under

which Article ?

(a) 143

(b) 132

(c) 138

(d) 136

Answer: 143

Q. 67 Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court
and the

Supreme Court ?

(a) Disputes between the States inter se

(b) Protection against the violation of the Constitution

(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights

(d) Disputes between the Centre and the States

Answer: Protection of the Fundamental Rights

Q.68 Under the writ of Mandamus, the Court can

(a) Ask the person to be produced

(b) Order to transfer the case from one court

(c) Ask to let a person free for a temporary period

(d) Direct the Government to do or not to do a thing

Answer: Direct the Government to do or not to do a thing

Q.69 Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom ?

(a) Certiorari

(b) Habeas Corpus

(c) Mandamus

(d) Quo Warranto

Answer: Habeas Corpus

Q.70 Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are drawn from the

(a) Grants-in-aid

(b) Public Accounts

(c) Contingency Fund

(d) Consolidated Fund

Answer: Consolidated Fund

Q.71 The Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed from office by the

(a) President on request of Parliament

(b) Chief Justice of India

(c) President

(d) Prime Minister

Answer: President on request of Parliament

Q.72 The authority competent to suspend the operation of Fundamental Rights

guaranteed
under the Constitution of India is

(a) Supreme Court

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Parliament

(d) President

Answer: President

Q.73 What is the minimum age for holding office in the Lok Sabha?

(a) 18 Years

(b) 21 years

(c) 25 Years

(d) 30 years

Answer: 25 Years

Q.74 A motion of no confidence against the Government can be introduced in:

(a) Rajya Sabha

(b) Lok Sabha

(c) Both a & b

(d) Neither a nor b

Answer: Loksabha

Q. 75 How many sessions of the Lok Sabha take place in a year?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

Answer: 2

Q.76 Which of the following are not sessions of the Lok Sabha?

(a) Budget Session

(b) Monsoon Session

(c) Summer Session

(d) Winter Session

Answer: Summer Session

Q.77 The budget is also known as:

(a) Annual Financial Statement

(b) Monthly Financial Statement

(c) Receipt and Expenditure Statement

(d) Taxation Statement

Answer: Annual Financial Statement

Q.78 The Parliament of India consists of the following:

(a) President

(b) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha

(c) Both A and B

(d) None of the above

Answer: Both A and B

Q.79 Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(d) Finance Minister

Answer: Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Q.80 The Federal structure of Government of India provides:

(a) Two-tier system

(b)Three-tier system

(c) Four-tier system

(d) None of the above

Answer: Three-tier system

Q.81 Who is known as the Father of Lok Sabha?

(a) G V Mavalankar

(b) Rabi Ray

(c) P A Sangma

(d) Balram Jakhar

Answer: G V Mavalankar

Q.82 Indian Parliamentary System is based on which model?

(a) Westminster model

(b) Welfare State model

(c) Both a & b

(d) Neither a nor b

Answer: Westminster model

Q.83 The report of Public Accounts Committee is presented in the

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) President’s Office

(c) Finance Ministry

(d) Prime Minister’s Office

Answer: Lok Sabha

Q.84 Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of Indian
Parliament?

(a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(b) The Prime Minister

(c) The President

(d) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Answer: The Speaker of Lok Sabha

Q.85 Voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years by which constitutional amendment
act?
(a) 42nd CAA 1976

(b) 44th CAA 1978

(c) 61st CAA 1988

(d) 86th CAA 2002

Answer: 61st CAA 1988

Q.86 Which of the following is also called Lame-duck Session?

(a) the last session of the existing Lok Sabha.

(b) the First session of the New Lok Sabha

(c) the Farewell session organized for outgoing members of Rajya Sabha.

(d) Welcome session for newly elected members of Rajya Sabha.

Answer: the last session of the existing Lok Sabha.

Q.87 Which of the following is the Question Hour session of parliament?

(a) The first hour of every Parliamentary sitting

(b) Question hour starts immediately after zero hours.

(c) Question hour starts immediately after lunch break

(d) Question hour starts immediately after voting of the bill

Answer: The first hour of every Parliamentary sitting

Q.88 Introduction of a private bill in the house of parliament requires notice at least of:

(a) 7 days

(b) 15 days

(c) 1 month

(d) 3 months

Answer: 1 month

Q.89 Which of the following article define the money bill?

(a) Article 110

(b) Article 117

(c) Article 75
(d) Article 74

Answer: Article 110

Q.90 Which of the following article deals with the “Annual financial statement” or
Budget?

(a) Article 110

(b) Article 117

(c) Article 75

(d) Article 112

Answer: Article 112

Q.91 Which of the following year's Railways budgets was separated from the general
budget?

(a) 1921

(b) 1931

(c) 1941

(d) 1951

Answer: 1921

Q.92 Which of the following year's railways budget merged with the general budget?

(a) 2014

(b) 2015

(c) 2016

(d) 2017

Answer: 2016

Q.93 Which of the following article talks about the Contingency Fund of India?

(a) Article 110

(b) Article 117

(c) Article 266

(d) Article 267

Answer - Article 266

Q.94 Which of the following are not judicial powers and functions of parliament?

(a) Impeachment of President

(b) Removal of the Vice president

(c) Removal of Judges

(d) Constitutional amendment

Answer: Constitutional amendment

Q.95 The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India
must come from

(a) The President of India

(b) The Parliament of India

(c) The Prime Minister of India

(d) The Union Finance Minister

Answer: The Parliament of India

Q.96 Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates

(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) The Committee on Petitions

Answer: The Committee on Estimates

Q.97 Right to vote and to be elected in India is a-

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Natural Right

(c) Constitutional Right

(d) Legal Rights

Answer: Legal Rights

Q.97 Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

(a) the matter of creating new All India Services

(b) amending the Constitution

(c) the removal of the government

(d) making cut motions

Answer: Amending the Constitution

Q.98 What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok Sabha?

(a) One-sixth of the total members of the House

(b) One-tenth of the total members of the House

(c) One-fourth of the total members of the House

(d) One-third of the total members of the House

Answer: One-tenth of the total members of the House

Q.99 In which year was Rajya Sabha constituted for the first time?

(a) 1950

(b) 1951

(c) 1952

(d) 1953

Answer: 1952

Q.100 Who is generally appointed as a Protem Speaker?

(a) The speaker of the outgoing Loksabha

(b) The Dy. Speaker of the outgoing Loksabha

(c) One of the senior-most members of the newly elected Loksabha

(d) The leader of the opposition party in the outgoing Loksabha

Answer: One of the senior-most members of the newly elected Loksabha

Q.101 Who among the following shall preside over a joint sitting of two houses of
Parliament?

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer: Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Q.102 How many members may be nominated by the President from Anglo-Indian
Community if he is of opinion that the community is not adequately represented in the
House of the People?

(a) 3

(b) 5

(c) 1

(d) 2

Answer: 2

Q.103 A money bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha
also when no action is taken by the Rajya Sabha within

a) 10 days

b) 14 days

c) 15 days

d) 16 days

Answer: 14 days

Q.104 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament can make laws on
the State list subject to giving effect to international agreements?

(a) Article 249

(b) Article 250

(c) Article 252

(d) Article 253

Answer: Article 253

Q.105 A Bill for the purpose of creating a new State in India must be passed by

(a) a simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than two-thirds of the States.

(b) a simple majority in Parliament.

(c) a two-thirds majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than two-thirds of the States.

(d) None of the above

Answer: a simple majority in Parliament.

Q.106 After how many days of absence from Parliament without permission can an M.P.
be disqualified?

(a) 30 days

(b) 60 days

(c) 90 days

(d) 20 days

Answer: 60 days

Q.107 Joint Sitting of Loka Sabha and Rajya Sabha can take place to resolve deadlock

(a) Ordinary legislation

(b) Money Bill

(c) Constitutional Amendment Bill

(d) Appropriation Bill

Answer: Ordinary legislation

Q.108 The President gives his resignation to the

(a) Chief Justice

(b) Parliament

(c) Vice President

(d) Prime Minister

Answer: Vice President

Q.109 For what period does the Vice President of India hold office ?
(a) 5 years

(b) Till the age of 65 years

(c) 6 years

(d) 2 years

Answer: 5 years

Q.110 Which of the following article empower for “National Emergency”?

a) Article 352

b) Article 356

c) Article 360

d) Article 363

Answer: Article 352

Q.111 Which of the following is not the basis for the proclamation of “National
Emergency”?

a) War

b) External Aggression

c) Armed rebellion

d) Internal disturbance

Answer: Internal disturbance

Q.112 Which of the following constitutional amendment act made the declaration of
National Emergency immune from Judicial review?

(a) 38th Amendment Act (1975)

(b) 42nd Amendment Act (1976)

(c) 44th Amendment Act (1978)

(d) 101st Amendment Act (2016)

Answer: 38th Amendment Act (1975)

Q.113 Proclamation of emergency must be approved by both the houses of parliament

within?
(a) 1 month

(b) 2 months

(c) 6 months

(d) 1 year

Answer: 1 month

Q.114 Which type of Majority is needed to pass the emergency resolution in Parliament?

(a) Simple Majority

(b) Special Majority [ majority of total membership and 2/3rd of the members of the present
and voting

(c) Special majority and approval by half of the states’ assembly

(d) Absolute majority

Answer: Special Majority [ majority of total membership and 2/3rd of the members of the
present and voting

Q.115 Article 358 deals with?

(a) Suspension of fundamental rights guaranteed by article 19.

(b) Suspension of fundamental rights other than Articles 19, 20, and 21

(c) Both of the above

(d) None of the above

Answer: Suspension of fundamental rights guaranteed by article 19.

Q.116 National emergency was not declared in which of the following year?

(a) 1962

(b) 1971

(c) 1975

(d) 1999

Answer: 1999

Q.117 Which of the following constitutional amendments equipped President to impose

National Emergency on any particular part of India?

(a) 38th
(b) 40th

(c) 42nd

(d) 62nd

Answer: 42nd

Q.118 When was the word "armed rebellion" added to the Constitution to declare a
National Emergency?

(a) After 44th Constitution Amendment Act

(b) After 42nd Constitution Amendment Act

(c) After 40th Constitution Amendment Act

(d) After 38th Constitution Amendment Act

Answer: After 44th Constitution Amendment Act

Q.119 Which kind of emergency will be imposed in the case of war, external aggression
and armed rebellion?

(a) 356

(b) 352

(c) 360

(d) None of the following

Answer: 352

Q.120 How many times have the financial emergency imposed in India?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) Never

Answer: Never

Q.121 How many times have the National Emergency been implemented in India?

(a) 2
(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

Answer: 3

Q.122 How many times have the National Emergency been implemented in India?

(a) The Fundamental Rights of Article 19 are susepnded automatically during National
Emergency declared on the basis of war or external aggression .

(b) The Fundamental Rights of Article 19 can not be suspended in the case of National
Emergency declared on the basis of armed rebellion.

(c) Article 19 automatically revives when the National Emergency is over.

(d) When a National Emergency is enforced, the Fundamental Rights of Article 19 are repealed
after the President's order.

Answer: When a National Emergency is enforced, the Fundamental Rights of Article 19 are
repealed after the President's order.

Q.123 Which of the following Fundamental Rights do not get abolished automatically
during National Emergency?

(A) Article 19

(B) Article20

(C) Article21

(D) Both b and c

Answer: Both b and c

Q.124 Under which Article a Financial Emergency can be declared?

(a) Article 360

(b) Article 361

(c) Article 370

(d) Article 375

Answer: Article 360

Q.125 The Emergency Provisions of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:

a) USA

b) Germany

c) USSR

d) Japan

Answer: Germany

Q.126 When can the President of India declare an emergency?

(a) On his own

(b) On the recommendations of the Parliament

(c) On the Recommendations of the Governor

(d) By written request by the Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister

Answer: By written request by the Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister

Q.127 Which Part of the Indian Constitution contains the Emergency Provisions?

(a) Part XI

(b) Part XVI

(c) Part XV

(d) Part XVIII

Answer: Part XVIII

Q.128 Who among the following can revoke the proclamation of National Emergency?

(a) The President

(b) The Prime Minister

(c) Rajya Sabha

(d) Lok Sabja

Answer: The President

Q.129 Supreme Court of India was inaugurated in the year?

(a) 1948

(b) 1949
(c) 1950

(d) 1951

Answer: 1950

Q.130 At present how many judges are in the Supreme court?

(a) 8

(b) 25

(c) 26

(d) 31

Answer: 31

Q.131 Which of the following phrases is not used in the Preamble to the constitution to
describe the form of governance in India?

(a) Federal

(b) Republic

(c) Socialist

(d) Secular
Answer: Federal

Q. 132 Which one of the following was not a feature of the Indian constitution before
1976?

(a) Socialist

(b) Democratic

(c) Sovereign

(d) Republic
Answer: Socialist

Q.133 The correct sequence of various destination values mentioned in the Preamble of
the Constitution is:

(a) Justice- Fraternity- Equality- Liberty

(b) Liberty- Equality- Justice- Fraternity
 (c) Justice- Liberty- Equality- Fraternity
(d) Equality- Fraternity- Liberty- Justice
Answer - Justice- Liberty- Equality- Fraternity

Q.134 According to the Indian Constitution, which one of the following statements
is incorrect about Indian Secular State?

(a) Indian State is not ruled by any specific religious group.

(b) The State does not enforce any particular religion nor takes away religious freedom of
individuals.
(c) The State allows government institutions to display and promote values specific to a
particular religion.
(d) The State is not strictly separate from religion but it does maintain principled distance
from religion.

Answer: The State allows government institutions to display and promote values specific to a
particular religion.

Q.135 Which among the following words is NOT written in the

Preamble of our Constitution?

(a) Sovereign
(b) Socialist
(c) Secular
(d) Communist

Answer: Communist

Q.136 The Preamble to the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Preamble of
Constitution of ______.

(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) France
(d) USA

Answer: USA

Q.137 What is the legal nature of the Preamble of the Constitution?

(a) It is enforceable

(b) It is not enforceable

 (c) It may be enforced in special circumstances

(d) None of the above

Answer: It is not enforceable

Q.138 Which among the following has been considered as 'instrument of instructions'?

(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties

Answer: Directive Principles of State Policy

Q.139 Which one of the following is NOT a part of the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution?

(a) Socialism
(b) Democratic
(c) Secularism
(d) Federalism

Answer: Federalism

Q.140 Which of the following words was inserted in the Preamble by the Constitution
(42nd Amendment) Act, 1976?

(a) Justice
(b) Equality
(c) Liberty
(d) Socialist

Answer: Socialist

Q.141 How many types of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity in that order has been
mentioned in the preamble of constitution of India?

(a) 3, 5, 2, 1
(b) 1, 3, 5, 2
(c) 2, 5, 3, 1
(d) 5, 2, 1, 3
Answer: 3, 5, 2, 1

Q.142 With regard to the Constitution of India, which of the following statements
is not correct?

(a) The words - Socialist and Secular, were not originally part of the Constitution
(b) The Preamble states the objects of the Constitution of India
(c) The Preamble is enforceable in a Court of Law
(d) A Republic refers to the people as the source of all authority under the Constitution

Answer: The Preamble is enforceable in a Court of Law

Q.143 The term 'Justice' in the Preamble of Indian Constitution does NOT embrace
which of the following forms?

(a) Social
(b) Legal
(c) Political
(d) Economic

Answer: Legal

Q.144 Which part of the Indian Constitution is called the “Heart and soul of the
Constitution” according to Dr B. R. Ambedkar?

(a) Right to constitutional remedies

(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Fundamental Duties

Answer: Right to constitutional remedies

Q.145 What is Gandhi’s definition of ‘Ram Raj’?

(a) Sovereignty of the people based on pure moral authority

(b) The rule as it was during the time of Rama

(c) The greatest good of all

(d) The absolute power concentrated in the hands of a king

Answer: Sovereignty of the people based on pure moral authority

Q.146 The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:

(a) 26th January 1949

 (b) 26th January 1950

(c) 26th November 1949

(d) 15th August 1947

Answer: 26th November 1949

Q.147 The Constitution of India came into force on:

(a) 26th November 1950

(b) 15th August 1949

(c) 26th January 1950

(d) 26th November 1949

Answer: 26th January 1950

Q. 148 Which of the following Act does not have a Preamble?

(a) The Government of India Act, 1919

(b) The Government of India Act, 1935

(c) The Constitution of the USA

(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

Answer: The Government of India Act, 1935

Q. 149 Sovereignty under the Constitution of India belongs to:

(a) The people of India

(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) The President of India

(d) The Prime Minister of India

Answer: The people of India

Q.150 The ideals and objectives included in the preamble of the Indian Constitution have
been further elaborated in:

(a) Part III of the Constitution

(b) Part IV of the Constitution

(c) Part IV A of the Constitution

(d) All of the above

Answer: All of the above

Q.151 The first attempt to introduce a representative and popular element in the
governance of India was made through:

(a) Indian Council Act, 1909

(b) Indian Council Act, 1861

(c) Indian Council Act, 1892

(d) Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: Indian Council Act, 1861

Q.152 The Constitution of India declares India a Secular State. This means that:

(a) Religious worship is not allowed

(b) The State regards religion as a private affair of the citizen and does not discriminate
on this basis

(c) Religions are patronized by the state

(d) None of the above

Answer: The State regards religion as a private affair of the citizen and does not discriminate
on this basis

Q.153 Which part of the Constitution of India describes India as a Secular State?

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Fundamental Duties

(c) Preamble

(d) Directive Principles of State Policy

Answer: Preamble

Q.154 The concept of Judicial review in our Constitution has been borrowed from the
Constitution of:

(a) England

(b) Ireland

(c) USA

(d) South Africa

Answer: USA

Q.155 Which of the following is the biggest source for the Constitution of India?
 (a) The Constitution of the USA

(b) The Constitution of the UK

(c) The Government of India Act 1935

(d) The Indian Independence Act 1947

Answer: The Government of India Act 1935

Q.156 How much time did the Constituent Assembly take to frame the Constitution of
India?

(a) 2 years 7 months 23 days

(b) 2 years 11 months 18 days

(c) 3 years 4 months 14 days

(d) 3 years 11 months 5 days

Answer: 2 years 11 months 18 days

Q.157 Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly of Independent India?

(a) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c) C. Rajagopalachari

(d) K.M. Munshi

Answer: Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q. 158 Who amongst the following was the chairperson of the Drafting Committee set
up by the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(d) None of these

Answer: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Q. 159 Which of the following countries have an Unwritten Constitution?

(a) USA

(b) UK

(c) India
 (d) Pakistan

Answer: UK

Q. 160 The original constitution at the time of enactment in 1950 contains how many
Articles?

(a) 325

(b) 390

(c) 395

(d) 495

Answer: c) 395

Q.161 The original constitution at the time of enactment in 1950 contains how many
parts?

(a) 20 parts

(b) 21 parts

(c) 22 parts

(d) 25 parts

Answer: c) 22 parts

Q.162 The original constitution at the time of enactment in 1950 contains how many
Schedules?

(a) 8

(b) 10

(c) 11

(d) 12

Answer: 8

Q.163 Which Amendment Act of the Constitution of India is known as ‘Mini

Constitution’?

(a) 24th Amendment Act

(b) 32nd Amendment Act

(c) 44th Amendment Act

(d) 42nd Amendment Act

Answer: 42nd Amendment Act

Q.164 Which type of government is adopted in the Constitution of India?

(a) Presidential form of government

(b) Parliamentary form of government

(c) Executive form of government

(d) None of the above

Answer: Parliamentary form of government

Q.165 Who called Indian Federalism as the Co-operative Federalism?

(a) K. C. Wheare

(b) G. Austin

(c) Ivor Jennings

(d) Morris Jones

Answer: G. Austin

Q.166 Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a:

(a) Co-operation of States

(b) Union of States

(c) Joint of States

(d) Amalgamation of States

Answer: b) Union of States

Q.167 The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of the Indian Federation from
the Constitution of:

(a) UK

(b) Canada

(c) USA

(d) Ireland

Answer: Canada

Q.168 The Directive Principles of State Policy in our Constitution has been borrowed
from the Constitution of:
 (a) UK

(b) Ireland

(c) USA

(d) South Africa

Answer: Ireland

Q.169 Who among the following had moved the objective resolution which formed the
basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on
December 13, 1946?

(a) B. R. Ambedkar

(b) Rajendra Prasad

(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru

Answer: Jawahar Lal Nehru

Q.170 In Indian Polity, the executive is subordinate to the:

(a) Judiciary

(b) Legislature

(c) Election Commission

(d) Union Public Service Commission

Answer: Legislature

Q.171 Which of the following official documents is related to India?

(a) White Paper

(b) Green Paper

(c) Yellow Paper

(d) Blue Paper

Answer: White Paper

Q.172 Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words- “Socialist
and Secular” in the Preamble?

(a) 44th Amendment Act

(b) 42nd Amendment Act

 (c) 52nd Amendment Act

(d) None of the above

Answer: 42nd Amendment Act

Q.173 The Preamble of our Constitution reads- India as:

(a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(b) Secular, Sovereign, Democratic Republic

(c) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Democratic Republic

(d) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Republic

Answer: Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

Q.174 The liberty which is not mentioned in the preamble of India?

(a) Liberty of though

(b) Liberty of expression

(c) Liberty of belief

(d) Economic Liberty

Answer: Economic Liberty

Q.175 Who said that the Right to Constitutional Remedies are the “heart and soul” of
the Indian Constitution?

(a) G. K. Gandhi

(b) B. R. Ambedkar

(c) Lala Lajpat Rai

(d) Rajendra Prasad

Answer: B. R. Ambedkar

Q.176 By which amendment to the Constitution of India the right to property was
removed from the list of Fundamental Rights?

(a) 44th Amendment Act

(b) 42nd Amendment Act

(c) 52nd Amendment Act

(d) 41st Amendment Act

Answer: 44th Amendment Act

Q.177 Which of the following can a court issue for the enforcement of Fundamental
Rights?

(a) A writ

(b) An ordinance

(c) A decree

(d) A notification

Answer: A writ

Q.178 Which of the following is not included as a Fundamental Right?

(a) Right to equality before the law

(b) Right to freedom of speech

(c) Right to equal wages for equal work

(d) Right to constitutional remedies

Answer: Right to equal wages for equal work

Q.179 Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?

(a) Mandamus

(b) Habeas Corpus

(c) Quo Warranto

(d) Certiorari

Answer: Habeas Corpus

Q.180 Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘Fundamental Rights’?

(a) Part I

(b) Part II

(c) Part III

(d) Part IV

Answer: Part III

Q.181 Which one of the following is the guardian of Fundamental Right?

(a) executive

(b) judiciary
 (c) legislatures

(d) political parties

Answer: Judiciary

Q.182 Who is the guardian of fundamental rights enumerated in the Indian

constitution?

(a) President

(b) Constitution

(c) President

(d) Supreme Court

Answer: Supreme Court

Q.183 Right to education act(2002) was introduced to help which of the following
groups of society?

(a) All adults who could not get formal education

(b) Female students studying senior secondary school

(c) College-going teenagers

(d) Children of the age of 6 to 14 years

Answer: Children of the age of 6 to 14 years

Q.184 Which of the following fundamental rights is not guaranteed by the Indian
constitution?

(a) Right to Freedom of religion

(b) Right to work

(c) Right against exploitation

(d) Right to Equality

Answer: Right to work

Q.185 The Writ Habeas Corpus is available for:

(a) Directing the lower court to stop proceedings by a higher court.

(b) Directing any person, corporation, or inferior court to do some particular thing.

(c) Direction of Supreme Court to an inferior court to send the records of the pending
case.

(d) The purpose of releasing from illegal custody, persons unlawfully detained.
Answer: The purpose of releasing from illegal custody, persons unlawfully detained.

Q.186 The provisions relating to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India:

(a) Can be amended by a simple majority in the Parliament.

(b) Can be amended by a two-thirds majority in the Parliament.

(c) Can be amended by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting in the
Parliament and ratified by a majority of the State Legislatures.

(d) Can not be amended.

Answer: Can be amended by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting in the
Parliament and ratified by a majority of the State Legislatures.

Q.187 The Fundamental Rights are provided to the citizens under which article of the
Constitution of India?

(a) Articles 112 to 135

(b) Articles 212 to 235

(c) Articles 12 to 35

(d) None of these

Answer: Articles 12 to 35

Q.188 Which of the following is given the power to implement the Fundamental Rights
by the Constitution?

(a) The Supreme Court and High Courts

(b) All courts in India

(c) The parliament

(d) The president

Answer: The Supreme Court and High Courts

Q.189 Right to property in the constitution of India at present is:

(a) Moral right

(b) Legal right

(c) Fundamental right

(d) None of the above.

Answer: Legal right

Q.190 Which provision of the fundamental right is directly related to the exploitation of
children?

(a) Article 24

(b) Article 23

(c) Article 19

(d) Article 17

Answer: Article 24

Q.191 Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of
the press?

(a) Article 31

(b) Article 22

(c) Article 19

(d) Article 16

Answer: Article 19

Q.192 An accused of an offense cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself,

mentioned under which article of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(c) Article 15

(d) Article 20

Answer: Article 20

Q.193 Which article of the Constitution of India deals with untouchability?

(a) Article 16

(b) Article 13

(c) Article 17

(d) Article 18

Answer: Article 17

Q.194 During the enforcement of emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of
India by the president, which of the following Articles can not be suspended?
 (a) Article 14 and 19

(b) Article 14 and 21

(c) Article 19 and 21

(d) Article 20 and 21

Answer: Article 20 and 21

Q.195 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality of
opportunity to all citizens of India in matters relating to public employment?

(a) Article 15(1)

(b) Articles 16(1) & (2)

(c) Article 16(4)

(d) Article 16(3), (4) & (5)

Answer: Articles 16(1) & (2)

Q.196 Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State
Policy?

(a) Part I

(b) Part II

(c) Part III

(d) Part IV

Answer: Part IV

Q.197 Which part of the Constitution of India contains the philosophy of the
Constitution?

(a) Part III

(b) Part IV

(c) Both (A) & (B)

(d) Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer: Both (A) & (B)

Q.198 Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in which part
of the Indian Constitution:

(a) The Eight Schedule

(b) The Fundamental Rights

 (c) The Fundamental Duties

(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy

Answer: The Directive Principles of State Policy

Q.199 Which Directive Principle bears the direct impact of Gandhi’s moral philosophy?

(a) Protection of the moments of historical importance

(b) Prohibition of the slaughter of cows

(c) Provision of free legal aid and advice

(d) Equal pay for equal work

Answer: Prohibition of the slaughter of cows

Q.200 Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals
with the promotion of international peace and security?

(a) Article 41

(b) Article 51

(c) Article 43 A

(d) Article 48 A

Answer: Article 51